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<!DOCTYPE html>
<html lang="en">
<head>
<meta charset="UTF-8">
<title>Dental Cements Quiz</title>
<style>
body {
font-family: Arial, sans-serif;
background: #f0f4f8;
padding: 20px;
max-width: 800px;
margin: auto;
}
.quiz-container {
background: #fff;
border-radius: 10px;
padding: 30px;
box-shadow: 0 4px 6px rgba(0,0,0,0.1);
}
h2 {
font-size: 1.3rem;
}
button {
padding: 10px 20px;
margin: 10px 5px;
border: none;
border-radius: 5px;
cursor: pointer;
}
.correct { background-color: #a0e7a0; }
.wrong { background-color: #e7a0a0; }
</style>
</head>
<body>
<div class="quiz-container">
<h2 id="question">Loading...</h2>
<div id="options"></div>
<button onclick="nextQuestion()">Next</button>
<p id="score"></p>
</div>
<script>
const quizData = [
{
question: "1. Which of the following is the primary stabilizing force in the tertiary structure of proteins?",
options: ["H₂ bond", "Disulphide bond", "Ionic interactions", "Hydrophobic interactions"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "2. Indole ring is present in:",
options: ["Valine", "Tryptophan", "Methionine", "Histidine"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "3. Source of nitrogen in the urea cycle are:",
options: ["Arginine & Ammonia", "Aspartate & Ammonia", "Uric acid & Ammonia", "Glutamate & Ammonia"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "4. The numbers of essential amino acids are:",
options: ["6", "12", "8", "16"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "5. Albinism is a genetic disease that results in incomplete metabolism of:",
options: ["Histidine", "Cystine", "Tyrosine", "Alanine"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "6. If 100 gm of dietary protein yields 16.5 gm of nitrogen, how much nitrogen is most likely to be excreted from 50 gm of protein intake?",
options: ["05 gm", "08 gm", "10 gm", "16 gm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "7. An essential for the conversion of glucose to glycogen in liver is:",
options: ["UTP", "GTP", "Pyruvate Kinase", "Guanosine"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "8. In TCA, substrate level phosphorylation takes place in:",
options: ["Alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl", "Succinyl CoA to Succinate", "Succinate to Fumarate", "Oxaloacetate to Citrate"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "9. In which type of glycogen storage disease is hyperuricemia a feature?",
options: ["I", "II", "III", "IV"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "10. Which enzyme is dependent on thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) and is useful for monitoring thiamine levels in blood?",
options: ["Hexokinase", "Transketolase", "Pyruvate kinase", "Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "11. What does the Saponification number indicate?",
options: [
"The amount of NaOH needed to neutralize a fat",
"The number of milligrams of KOH required to hydrolyze one gram of fat or oil",
"The iodine value of a fat",
"The melting point of a fat"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "12. Which enzyme defect is responsible for Niemann-Pick disease?",
options: [
"Hexosaminidase A",
"Glucocerebrosidase",
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Alpha-galactosidase"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "13. The substance that is essential for the transfer of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane is:",
options: [
"Creatine",
"Creatinine",
"Carnitine",
"Coenzyme A"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "14. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding prostaglandins?",
options: [
"Prostaglandins are synthesized from saturated fatty acids.",
"NSAIDs promote prostaglandin synthesis by activating cyclooxygenase.",
"Prostaglandins play no role in inflammation.",
"NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by blocking cyclooxygenase."
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "15. Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?",
options: [
"Synthesis of fatty acids, steroids and certain amino acids",
"Protection against oxidative damage involving NADPH",
"Detoxification of drugs",
"Facilitation of oxygen transport in red blood cells"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "16. The reducing equivalent for fatty acid synthesis is derived from:",
options: [
"Glycolysis",
"Kreb’s cycle",
"Urea cycle",
"Pentose phosphate pathway"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "17. Which lipoprotein is primarily responsible for transporting cholesterol from the liver to other tissues and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis?",
options: [
"Chylomicrons",
"Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)",
"High-density lipoproteins (HDL)",
"Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "18. Which of the following is NOT a function of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)?",
options: [
"Acting as a reservoir of apolipoproteins",
"Delivering cholesterol to peripheral tissues for storage",
"Transporting unesterified cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver",
"Promoting cholesterol esterification"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "19. Which of the following vitamins are synthesized in the gut by intestinal flora?",
options: [
"Vitamin A, Vitamin C and Vitamin D",
"Vitamin B1, Vitamin B2 and Vitamin B6",
"Biotin, Vitamin K and Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin E, Vitamin D and Vitamin A"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "20. Which of the following statements about Vitamin content in human organs is correct?",
options: [
"High content of Vitamin A is found in adrenal cortex and gonads",
"High content of Vitamin B is found in adrenal cortex and gonads",
"High content of Vitamin C is found in adrenal cortex and gonads",
"High content of Vitamin D is found in adrenal cortex and gonads"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "21. Which of the following is considered as the richest source of Vitamin E (tocopherol)?",
options: [
"Sunflower oil",
"Peanut oil",
"Corn oil",
"Wheat germ oil"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "22. Why is fluoride added to blood samples for glucose estimation in laboratories?",
options: [
"To enhance glucose metabolism.",
"To inhibit glycolysis by blocking enolase activity.",
"To prevent hemolysis of red blood cells.",
"To increase the sensitivity of glucose detection."
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "23. Which of the following is the primary defect in osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)?",
options: [
"Defective collagen formation",
"Mutation in the gene encoding carbonic anhydrase Type II",
"Increased osteoclastic activity",
"Deficiency of alkaline phosphatase"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "24. Which enzyme deficiency is the most common cause of non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia?",
options: [
"Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)",
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Hexokinase",
"Pyrimidine-5'-nucleotidase Type 1"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "25. What is the primary function of enzymes in biochemical reactions?",
options: [
"Increase the activation energy of the reaction",
"Act as structural components in cells",
"Lower the activation energy of the substrate",
"Change the equilibrium constant of the reaction"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "26. Which of the following statements about isoenzymes is FALSE?",
options: [
"Isoenzymes catalyze the same reaction but may differ in kinetic properties.",
"Different tissues may express distinct isoenzymes with varying regulatory properties.",
"Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) isoenzymes are composed of different combinations of H and M subunits.",
"Isoenzymes always have identical amino acid sequences but differ in post-translational modifications."
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "27. Which of the following statements about Zellweger syndrome is INCORRECT?",
options: [
"It is caused by mutations in genes encoding peroxisomal biogenesis proteins (PEX genes).",
"Zellweger syndrome can be treated with enzyme replacement therapy, leading to normal lifespan.",
"Patients exhibit severe hypotonia, seizures and craniofacial abnormalities.",
"The disorder results in defective beta-oxidation of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs)."
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "28. Which of the following statements about Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is INCORRECT?",
options: [
"Citrate stimulates PFK activity by increasing its affinity for fructose-6-phosphate.",
"PFK is a key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis and is regulated by allosteric effectors.",
"ATP acts as both a substrate and an allosteric inhibitor of PFK.",
"Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate enhances PFK activity by overcoming ATP inhibition."
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "29. Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?",
options: [
"Biosynthesis of fatty acids",
"Reducing H₂O₂ via glutathione",
"Electron transport in the mitochondrial ETC",
"Drug detoxification via hydroxylation"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "30. Which of the following best describes the role of the promoter region in transcription?",
options: [
"It codes for the RNA sequence that will be translated into a protein.",
"It provides a binding site for ribosomes to initiate translation.",
"It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.",
"It signals the termination of transcription by releasing RNA polymerase."
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "31. The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:",
options: [
"A purine nucleotide",
"A pyrimidine nucleotide",
"Adenosine",
"AMP"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "32. The term 'Primary Prevention' means all of the following, except:",
options: [
"Planning the patient's diet",
"Prophylactic odontotomy",
"Topical application of fluoride",
"Extending cavity preparation to prevent recurrence"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "33. Which of the following is precursor of adrenaline and thyroxine synthesis?",
options: [
"Phenyl alanine",
"Tyrosine",
"Tryptophan",
"None of the above"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "34. The amino acid required for the synthesis of haem is:",
options: [
"Glutamine",
"Glutamic acid",
"Glycine",
"Lysine"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "35. The difference between descriptive or analytical study and experimental study is:",
options: [
"Descriptive study has a small sample",
"Experimental study requires a strong knowledge of statistics by the operator",
"Analytical study requires the use of sophisticated instruments",
"All variables are under the control and can be modified by the operator"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "36. In the etiology of dental caries, which one of the following is not an environmental factor?",
options: [
"Saliva",
"Microorganisms",
"Refined carbohydrates",
"Structure of the tooth"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "37. To test the association between risk factor and disease, which of the following is the weakest study design?",
options: [
"Case control study",
"Ecological study",
"Cohort study",
"Cross-sectional study"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "The cumulative effect of disease past and present up to the time of examination is termed as",
options: ["Incidence", "Prevalence", "Remanence", "Experience"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "The Snyder test tells us the",
options: [
"Exact nature of microorganisms",
"Combined acidogenic nature of microorganisms",
"Enamel dissolving capacity of saliva",
"All of the above"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "Albans test is an example of",
options: [
"Caries activity test",
"Acid producing test",
"Caries susceptibility test",
"None of the above"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "Compressive stress is computed by dividing the external force by the",
options: [
"Area of the test specimen upon which the weight rests",
"Elasticity of the test specimen in strain",
"Length of the test specimen beneath the force",
"Strain of the test specimen per unit"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "Which of the following has the highest modulus of elasticity?",
options: ["Dentin", "Enamel", "Amalgam", "Composite resin"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "Which of the following statements best describes a Newtonian fluid?",
options: [
"Viscosity of the fluid increases with an increase in shear stress",
"Viscosity of the fluid decreases under pressure",
"Shear stress is proportional to the strain rate",
"Viscosity decreases with an increase in shear stress until a constant value is reached"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "The Knoop hardness number of Microfilled composite restorative material ranges from",
options: ["50 – 60 KHN", "25 – 35 KHN", "15 – 20 KHN", "40 – 48 KHN"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "Which of the following are the two different testing techniques used to determine tensile strength?",
options: [
"Direct tensile test and diametral compression test",
"Shear bond test and microtensile test",
"Compressive strength test and diametral compression test",
"Flexural strength test and fatigue test"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "The extent to which an adhesive wets the surface of an adherent is determined by",
options: [
"Measuring the surface tension of the adhesive",
"Measuring the viscosity of the adhesive",
"Measuring the contact angle between the adhesive and the adherent",
"Measuring the density of the adhesive"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "At low levels of light, the colour perception of the eyes is lost. As the brightness becomes more intense, colour appears to change. This phenomenon is known as",
options: ["Metamerism", "Fluorescence", "Reflection effect", "Bezold-Brucke effect"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "Angles between adhesive and adherent is zero degree, it indicates",
options: [
"Complete wetting of surfaces",
"Rough surfaces between adhesive and adherent",
"Adherent and adhesive molecules are tangent to each other",
"Irregularities present between adherent surfaces"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "For photocuring, the composite resin, the light source",
options: [
"Should be held at a millimeter distance from the restoration",
"Needs no protection while in use",
"Will cure composite up to a depth of 5 millimeters thickness",
"Is fibre optic"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "During composite bonding, acid etching creates micropores in the enamel, allowing resin tag formation for micromechanical retention. What is the typical depth of resin tag penetration into enamel?",
options: ["2 – 5 μm", "10 – 20 μm", "25 – 50 μm", "50 – 100 μm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "The highest mercury concentration in amalgam filling is found",
options: [
"At the margin of the restoration",
"In the centre of the restoration",
"In the deepest part of the restoration",
"None of the above"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "Which type of silver amalgam alloy has the greatest compressive and tensile strength?",
options: ["Lathe cut", "Spherical", "Admixed", "Single composition"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "What is the typical tensile strength range for both low-copper and high-copper dental amalgams?",
options: ["60 – 100 MPa", "48 – 70 MPa", "10 – 20 MPa", "125 – 130 MPa"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "Which of the following statements regarding the microstructural phases of dental amalgam is correct?",
options: [
"The γ₂ phase enhances the mechanical strength of amalgam",
"The γ₁ phase is composed of Ag₂Hg₃ and is stronger than the γ-phase",
"The γ-phase is the weakest component due to its high corrosion susceptibility",
"The γ₂ phase is composed of Sn₈Hg and is the most corrosion-prone phase in dental amalgam"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "Which company originally marketed Goldent, a type of powdered (granular) gold?",
options: [
"Williams Gold Refining Co.",
"Morgan – Hastings Co.",
"Roberts Gold Supply Co.",
"Taggarts Gold Industries"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "56. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately",
options: ["0.4%", "1.4%", "2.4%", "3.4%"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "39. The Snyder test tells us the",
options: [
"Exact nature of microorganisms",
"Combined acidogenic nature of microorganisms",
"Enamel dissolving capacity of saliva",
"All of the above"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "40. Albans test is an example of",
options: [
"Caries activity test",
"Acid producing test",
"Caries susceptibility test",
"None of the above"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "41. Compressive stress is computed by dividing the external force by the",
options: [
"Area of the test specimen upon which the weight rests",
"Elasticity of the test specimen in strain",
"Length of the test specimen beneath the force",
"Strain of the test specimen per unit"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "42. Which of the following has the highest modulus of elasticity?",
options: ["Dentin", "Enamel", "Amalgam", "Composite resin"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "43. Which of the following statements best describes a Newtonian fluid?",
options: [
"Viscosity of the fluid increases with an increase in shear stress",
"Viscosity of the fluid decreases under pressure",
"Shear stress is proportional to the strain rate",
"Viscosity decreases with an increase in shear stress until a constant value is reached"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "44. The Knoop hardness number of Microfilled composite restorative material ranges from",
options: ["50 – 60 KHN", "25 – 35 KHN", "15 – 20 KHN", "40 – 48 KHN"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "45. Which of the following are the two different testing techniques used to determine tensile strength?",
options: [
"Direct tensile test and diametral compression test",
"Shear bond test and microtensile test",
"Compressive strength test and diametral compression test",
"Flexural strength test and fatigue test"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "46. The extent to which an adhesive wets the surface of an adherent is determined by",
options: [
"Measuring the surface tension of the adhesive",
"Measuring the viscosity of the adhesive",
"Measuring the contact angle between the adhesive and the adherent",
"Measuring the density of the adhesive"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "47. At low levels of light, the colour perception of the eyes is lost. As the brightness becomes more intense, colour appears to change. This phenomenon is known as",
options: ["Metamerism", "Fluorescence", "Reflection effect", "Bezold-Brucke effect"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "48. Angles between adhesive and adherent is zero degree, it indicates",
options: [
"Complete wetting of surfaces",
"Rough surfaces between adhesive and adherent",
"Adherent and adhesive molecules are tangent to each other",
"Irregularities present between adherent surfaces"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "49. For photocuring, the composite resin, the light source",
options: [
"Should be held at a millimeter distance from the restoration",
"Needs no protection while in use",
"Will cure composite up to a depth of 5 millimeters thickness",
"Is fibre optic"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "50. During composite bonding, acid etching creates micropores in the enamel, allowing resin tag formation for micromechanical retention. What is the typical depth of resin tag penetration into enamel?",
options: ["2 – 5 μm", "10 – 20 μm", "25 – 50 μm", "50 – 100 μm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "51. The highest mercury concentration in amalgam filling is found",
options: [
"At the margin of the restoration",
"In the centre of the restoration",
"In the deepest part of the restoration",
"None of the above"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "52. Which type of silver amalgam alloy has the greatest compressive and tensile strength?",
options: ["Lathe cut", "Spherical", "Admixed", "Single composition"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "53. What is the typical tensile strength range for both low-copper and high-copper dental amalgams?",
options: ["60 – 100 MPa", "48 – 70 MPa", "10 – 20 MPa", "125 – 130 MPa"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "54. Which of the following statements regarding the microstructural phases of dental amalgam is correct?",
options: [
"The γ₂ phase enhances the mechanical strength of amalgam",
"The γ₁ phase is composed of Ag₂Hg₃ and is stronger than the γ-phase",
"The γ-phase is the weakest component due to its high corrosion susceptibility",
"The γ₂ phase is composed of Sn₈Hg and is the most corrosion-prone phase in dental amalgam"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "55. Which company originally marketed Goldent, a type of powdered (granular) gold?",
options: [
"Williams Gold Refining Co.",
"Morgan – Hastings Co.",
"Roberts Gold Supply Co.",
"Taggarts Gold Industries"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "56. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately",
options: ["0.4%", "1.4%", "2.4%", "3.4%"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "57. Reduction in the fusion temperature of dental gold casting alloys is caused by the presence of",
options: ["Platinum", "Copper", "Silver", "Gold"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "58. Crucible indicated for casting gold alloys is",
options: ["Carbon crucible", "Clay crucible", "Quartz crucible", "High melting plastic crucible"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "59. Successive stages of annealing are",
options: [
"Recovery, recrystallization, grain growth",
"Recrystallization, recovery, grain growth",
"Grain growth, recrystallization, recovery",
"Melting point, grain growth, recrystallization"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "60. Dr. Taggart is associated with",
options: [
"Discovery of ceramics",
"Lost-wax technique",
"Acid-etch technique",
"Bleaching procedure"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "61. The rate of tarnish and corrosion of class II cast material having VHN 200 is",
options: ["0%", "2 to 3%", "5 to 10%", "< 1%"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "62. Gold content of an 18 carat alloy is",
options: ["25%", "50%", "75%", "100%"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "63. The retention for Class V restoration are placed",
options: [
"In mesial and distal areas",
"Occlusal and gingival areas",
"In all except the axial wall",
"At expense of axial wall"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "64. The axiopulpal depth of the proximal box in Class II cavity is",
options: ["0.2 to 0.8 mm", "1 to 2 mm", "0.5 to 1 mm", "2 to 3 mm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "65. In modified Class III cavity restoration, retention is obtained mainly by",
options: ["Retentive point", "Acid etching", "Retentive groove/slot", "Retentive pin"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "66. Which is the WRONG way to apply dam using a wingless clamp?",
options: [
"Put the clamp on the tooth",
"Place the dam on the tooth with fingers and then position the clamp over it",
"Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders OVER the dam",
"Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth and then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders UNDER the dam"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "67. The tip diameter of a 245 bur that is used for conventional amalgam preparation is",
options: ["2 mm", "0.8 mm", "0.10 mm", "0.14 mm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "68. In diagnosing the carious lesions, the tooth surface is examined visually and tactilely. Which of the following is NOT considered as visual examination?",
options: ["Cavitations", "Surface roughness", "Opacification", "Softness of the tooth surface"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "69. It is essential to lubricate dam before applying it. Which of these is NOT a suitable lubricant?",
options: ["Shaving cream", "Liquid soap", "Scrub gel", "Vaseline"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "70. The minimum thickness for Type-I zinc phosphate cement should be",
options: ["15 microns", "50 microns", "25 microns", "100 microns"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "71. Which of the following cements is most irritant to pulpal tissues?",
options: ["Silicate", "Zinc phosphate", "Glass ionomer", "Polycarboxylate"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "72. Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide eugenol cement by",
options: ["Acetic acid", "Alginic acid", "Phosphoric acid", "Ortho-ethoxy acid"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "73. The addition of which of the following can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxide cement?",
options: ["Zinc acetate", "Barium sulphate", "Zinc sulphate", "Barium chloride"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "74. The cement which is least soluble in oral cavity is",
options: ["Glass ionomer", "Resin cement", "Polycarboxylate cement", "Silico - phosphate cement"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "75. When a posterior occlusal amalgam makes multiple contacts with an occluding tooth surface, it behaves as though it is in",
options: ["Flexion", "Compression", "Shear", "Diametral compression"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "76. Which one of the following statements regarding pin retained restoration is NOT true?",
options: [
"Pinholes should never be prepared at different levels on the tooth",
"A minimum of 0.5 mm clearance should be provided around the circumference of the pin for adequate condensation of the amalgam",
"Pinhole should be located on a flat surface that is perpendicular to the proposed direction of the pinhole",
"The pinhole should be positioned no closer than 1 mm to DEJ and no closer than 1.5 mm to the external surface"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "77. The amount of fluoride in amalgam is",
options: ["8% SnF₂", "10% SnF₂", "1% NaF", "1% SnF₂"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "78. Who was associated with second amalgam war?",
options: ["G. V. Black", "Charles Bell", "Huggins", "Alfred Stock"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "79. Axiopulpal line angle is bevelled in amalgam preparation to facilitate",
options: [
"Bulk for amalgam in this critical zone",
"Easy condensation of amalgam",
"For containment of amalgam within the matrix",
"To increase the strength of remaining tooth structure"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "80. After amalgam polishing, the outermost surface has crystals arranged flattened to tooth surface. This layer is known as",
options: ["Beillyl layer", "Beilby layer", "Beibyl layer", "None of the above"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "81. For indirect tooth-colored restorations (composite, ceramic), what is the recommended gingival-occlusal divergence per wall?",
options: [
"Greater than 2 – 5 degrees",
"2 – 5 degrees",
"Lesser than 2 – 5 degrees",
"Lesser than 5 degrees"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "82. Acid dissolution is most common in which part of rod?",
options: ["Periphery of head", "Head region", "Rod tails", "Equally"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "83. Micro-abrasion involves the use of",
options: ["Sulphuric acid", "Acetic acid", "Phosphoric acid", "Hydrochloric acid"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "84. In Class III composite preparation, retention points should be placed",
options: [
"In the axial wall",
"Entirely in dentine",
"At the dentinoenamel junction",
"At the expense of facial and lingual wall"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "85. The sprue in wax pattern should be placed",
options: ["At right angle", "At acute angle", "At obtuse angle", "None of the above"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "86. Grain elongation is due to",
options: ["Cold working", "Recrystalization", "Recovery", "Age hardening"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "87. The type of chisel with the shank and blade slightly curved is",
options: ["Straight chisel", "Enamel hatchet", "Wedelstaedt chisel", "GMT"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "88. On a carbide bur, a great number of cutting blades results in",
options: [
"Less efficient cutting and a smoother surface",
"Less efficient cutting and a rougher surface",
"More efficient cutting and a smoother surface",
"More efficient cutting and a rougher surface"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "89. Diamond abrasive having particle size of 125 – 150 mm is classified as",
options: ["Fine", "Coarse", "Medium", "Extra-fine"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "90. The recommended clamp for Class V cavity preparation is",
options: ["No.213", "No.123", "No.212", "No.122"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "91. All of the following about the use of aerator hand piece are false, except",
options: [
"The sound frequency greater than 75 decibel (dB) causes damage to the ear",
"The frequency of rotation of bur is 6000 – 8000 rpm",
"It will harm more in elderly than very young",
"Its use in younger teeth is contraindicated"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "92. Honing machine is used for",
options: [
"CAD CAM INLAY fabrication",
"Polishing restorations",
"Mechanical sharpening of instruments",
"Caries detection"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "93. The recommended rubber dam retainer for maxillary molar anchor teeth is",
options: ["W7", "W4", "W8", "W"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "94. The most common cause for interdental papilla protruding from the rubber dam is",
options: [
"Inflammation of interdental papillae",
"Use of light weight rubber dam",
"Punch are placed too far",
"Punch are placed too close"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "95. Crack tooth syndrome is diagnosed by",
options: ["Transillumination", "Dyes", "Applying pressure on the tooth", "None of the above"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "96. Who reported that carious dentin consists of two distinct layers, an outer and an inner layer?",
options: ["G.V. Black", "Fusayama", "Sturdevant", "Miller"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "97. A patient is having very extensive carious lesion, the radiograph of lesion shows a probable exposure of the pulp horn. If excavated, what will be the treatment plan?",
options: [
"Proceed with endodontic treatment",
"Excavate the gross carious lesion and place appropriate sedative dressing",
"Remove all carious lesion, place sedative dressing and plan pulpotomy in next session",
"Remove all carious tooth structure and cap the exposure"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "98. Microfracture occurring in the cervical area of a tooth under flexural load is",
options: ["Abrasion", "Abfraction", "Attrition", "Erosion"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "99. Accessory canals are most frequently found in",
options: [
"The cervical one-third of the root",
"The middle one-third of the root",
"The apical one-third of the root",
"With equal frequency in all the above mentioned"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "100. There are sharp demarcations between pulpal chambers and pulp canals in which of the following teeth?",
options: [
"Mandibular second premolars",
"Maxillary first premolars",
"Maxillary Lateral incisors",
"Mandibular canines"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "101. A cross-section of the cervical third of the pulp canal of a maxillary second premolar resembles in shape of",
options: ["A circle", "A square", "A triangle", "An ellipse"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "102. Incidence of dens invaginatus in maxillary lateral incisor ranges from",
options: ["0.02 – 0.4%", "0.04 – 10%", "0.01 – 0.1%", "0.1 – 4%"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "103. The mesiolingual root canal of the mandibular 1st molar is found under the",
options: ["Mesiolingual cusp", "Central groove", "Mesiobuccal cusp", "Mesiolingual ridge"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "104. The treatment of acute periapical abscess is",
options: ["Endodontic therapy or extraction", "Incision and drainage only", "Pulp capping", "None of the above"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "105. The stimulus which provokes pain easily is",
options: ["Analgesia", "Allodynia", "Dysesthesia", "Hyperpathia"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "106. Pain on biting and releasing in a clinically normal tooth is most probably due to",
options: ["Occult caries", "Periodontitis", "Cracked tooth", "Maxillary sinusitis"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "107. Throbbing cheek pain worsened by bending down, with fever, suggests",
options: [
"Acute dentoalveolar abscess in relation to upper first molar",
"Irreversible pulpitis in relation to upper 2nd molar",
"Acute maxillary sinusitis",
"Acute periodontal abscess in relation to upper 1st molar"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "108. According to WHO classification of periradicular diseases, K04.60 refers to",
options: [
"Acute apical periodontitis",
"Periapical abscess with sinus to nasal cavity",
"Periapical abscess with sinus",
"Periapical abscess with sinus to maxillary sinus"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "109. Reactive oxygen metabolite in lysosomes is released by",
options: ["Peroxidase", "NADPH oxidase", "Superoxide dismutase", "Catalase"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "110. Hallmark of neuropathic pain are mechanical signs hyperalgesia and",
options: ["Allodynia", "Allocretia", "Alopecia", "Allogeusia"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "111. The most important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is to",
options: ["Produce sedation", "Obturation", "Establish drainage", "None of the above"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "112. Blocking out under cuts in cavity preparation for cad/cam inlay is carried out by",
options: [
"Dentist after final cavity preparation stage",
"Laboratory technician before wax pattern preparation",
"The system automatically during the optical impression",
"Dentist in the wax preparation"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "113. The super-elastic property of the NiTi wire is due to",
options: [
"Stress induced phase transition from the austenitic to the martensitic phase",
"Temperature induced phase transition from the martensitic to the austenitic phase",
"Stress induced phase transition from the martensitic to the austenitic phase",
"Temperature induced phase transition from the austenitic to the martensitic phase"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "114. H Type endodontic instrument has a spiral edge arranged to allow cutting during",
options: ["Pushing stroke", "Circular stroke", "Pulling stroke", "Oblong stroke"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "115. The best method to sterilize absorbent points is",
options: [
"Autoclaving",
"Chemical sterilizer",
"Glass bead /salt sterilizer",
"Passing in ethanol flame"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "116. Which file is used along with irrigation for ultrasonic system?",
options: ["8", "10", "15", "20"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "117. The significance of free eugenol in root canal sealer cements is an increase in",
options: ["Dimensional stability", "Setting time", "Cytotoxicity", "Strength"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "118. The number on the handle of a root canal instrument denotes",
options: [
"Length of the instrument in 1/10 of a millimetre",
"Diameter at the tip in 1/100 of a millimetre",
"Length of the instrument in millimetres",
"Diameter at the tip in 1/10 of a millimetre"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "119. Who developed the Endotec II device, which combines the advantages of warm vertical and lateral compaction techniques?",
options: ["Schilder", "Buchanan", "McSpadden", "Martin"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "120. What is the number of Gate Glidden drill used in mid-canal region?",
options: ["5", "2", "3", "1"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "121. An apical radiolucent area present in central incisor after 4 months of RCT is due to",
options: [
"Inadequate obturation & leakage from main canal",
"Leakage from accessory canal",
"Leakage from gingival crevice",
"Leakage from access opening"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "122. High heat obturation technique refers to",
options: [
"Thermofill technique",
"Ultrafil technique",
"Sectional filling",
"Obtura II technique"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "123. An ideal result of endodontic treatment is the deposition of which of the following at the apex?",
options: ["Bone", "Cementum deposition", "Dentin", "Periodontal ligament"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "124. Advocated apical seal for dowel-core is",
options: ["2 mm", "5 mm", "8 mm", "10 mm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "125. Rejuvenation of gutta-percha can be changed from alpha (α) to beta (β) form at",
options: ["55 - 59° F", "55 - 59° C", "20 - 25° C", "20 - 25° F"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "126. In case of bleaching technique to remove fluorosis stains,",
options: [
"1% ether removes the surface debris",
"36% hydrochloric acid etches the enamel",
"30% H₂O₂ bleaches the enamel",
"All of the above are correct"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "127. A 12-year-old patient presents with generalized intrinsic discoloration of the anterior teeth, characterized by a mild yellowish-brown hue. The patient's medical history reveals prolonged antibiotic therapy during early childhood. Given the nature of the discoloration, which of the following treatment modalities would provide the most effective and esthetically acceptable outcome?",
options: [
"Hydrochloric acid pumice micro-abrasion",
"At-home bleaching techniques",
"Superoxol application with or without heat",
"Composite resin veneers"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "128. Following intra-coronal bleaching immediate composite restoration required, what has to be done?",
options: [
"Treat with catalase",
"Wait for 7 days is mandatory",
"Treat with H₂O₂ for 3 minutes",
"Not possible"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "129. Which of the following are the complications of periapical surgery?",
options: ["Paresthesia", "Ecchymoses", "Stitch abscess", "All of the above"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "130. Which type of resorption is the most frequent cause of failure in tooth replantation?",
options: [
"Replacement resorption",
"Surface resorption",
"External resorption",
"Internal resorption"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "131. What is the primary advantage of using a 3D-printed surgical guide in endodontic microsurgery?",
options: [
"Reduced need for magnification",
"Enhanced accuracy in root-end resection",
"Elimination of postoperative complications",
"Decreased surgical time"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "132. In the context of endodontic microsurgery, what does the term 'selective curettage' refer to?",
options: [
"Removing only the infected pulp tissue",
"Excising the entire periapical lesion",
"Removing only the infected portion of periapical tissue",
"Curettage of the gingival sulcus"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "133. What is the primary advantage of using ultrasonic instruments in root-end preparation during endodontic microsurgery?",
options: [
"Increased cutting speed",
"Reduced risk of root perforation",
"Enhanced tactile feedback",
"Ability to remove metallic obstructions"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "134. Endodontically treated posterior teeth are more susceptible to fracture than untreated posterior teeth. The best explanation for this is",
options: [
"Moisture loss",
"Loss of root vitality",
"Plastic deformation of dentin",
"Destruction of the coronal architecture"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "135. For root fracture, it is imperative to take X – ray at",
options: ["45°, 90°", "90°", "90°, 110°", "45°, 90°, 110°"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "136. Stunned pulp is",
options: [
"Pulp does not respond for 6 – 8 weeks after trauma",
"Gives stunning appearance on radiograph",
"Necrosed pulp",
"Hyperaemic pulp"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "137. An important clinical feature of a concussed tooth is",
options: [
"Tooth is markedly tender to percussion",
"Tooth is displaced from the socket",
"Evidence of haemorrhage at gingival margin",
"Clinically crown appears shorter"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "138. Enamel matrix protein derivatives obtained from developing porcine teeth approved by FDA is",
options: ["Bioplant", "rhBMP-2", "Bio-Oss", "Emdogain"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "139. Crown infarction is",
options: [
"Necrosis of pulp following a fracture",
"An incomplete fracture of enamel without loss of tooth structure",
"Fracture of crown en masse",
"Vertical fracture of crown"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "140. Which of the following is the most critical factor influencing the success of regenerative endodontic procedures in immature teeth with necrotic pulps due to trauma?",
options: [
"Age of the patient",
"Size of the apical foramen",
"Type of intracanal medicament used",
"Time elapsed since injury"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "141. Following a horizontal root fracture, which type of healing is characterized by the interposition of connective tissue between the fractured segments?",
options: [
"Healing with calcified tissue",
"Healing with interposition of connective tissue",
"Healing with interposition of bone and connective tissue",
"Healing with interposition of granulation tissue"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "142. Following a traumatic injury resulting in pulp exposure in an immature permanent tooth, which treatment modality is preferred to maintain pulp vitality and allow for continued root development?",
options: [
"Direct pulp capping",
"Pulpectomy",
"Partial pulpotomy",
"Extraction"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "143. In cases of severe trauma to a permanent anterior tooth without fracture, the most likely consequence is",
options: [
"Pulpal death in the absence of treatment",
"Death of pulp despite treatment",
"Fracture of involved bone",
"Mobility of central incisors"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "144. Internal resorption may follow all, except",
options: [
"Trauma",
"Root fracture",
"Successful root canal filling",
"Enamel fracture"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "145. Which is the ideal method of sterilization for snap a ray film holder?",
options: [
"Hot air oven",
"Cannot be sterilized as it is plastic",
"Chemical sterilization",
"Autoclave"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "146. Which of the following best describes the histological findings in a tooth with a periapical radiolucency?",
options: [
"Normal pulp with intact cellularity",
"Elastic activity indicative of root resorption",
"Necrotic debris with inflammatory cells and granulation tissue",
"Marked decrease in cellularity due to fibrotic healing"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "147. Which of the following is the primary reason for early removal of Tevdek sutures in endodontic microsurgery?",
options: [
"To prevent bacterial colonization and reduce inflammation",
"To enhance fibroblast proliferation for faster healing",
"To increase suture tensile strength and stability",
"To allow complete epithelialization before removal"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "148. Laser Doppler flowmetry is a method used to assess blood flow in",
options: [
"Microlymphatics",
"Microvascular systems",
"Microvesicles",
"Microspaces"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "149. The approximate time in which 15.5% ferric sulphate dampened in a cotton pellet is put to the root stump while performing pulpotomy is",
options: ["10 – 15 secs", "60 – 90 secs", "2 – 3 mins", "4 – 5 mins"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "150. Which of the following is not true about virulence of endodontic microflora ?",
options: [
"Endotoxin",
"Exotoxin",
"Bacterial enzymes",
"Microbial interferences"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "151. While selecting a post & core system preferably, the post should be",
options: ["Tapered", "Threaded", "Parallel", "Non – threaded"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "152. Which of the following TOLL like receptor is most specific for bacterial recognition?",
options: ["1 TLR-1", "2 TLR-2", "3 TLR-3", "4 TLR-4"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "153. Greater crown bulk distal to the facio-lingual bisecting plane of a tooth is most typical of the mandibular",
options: ["Central incisor", "Lateral incisor", "Canine", "Second premolar"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "154. The average of length of maxillary cuspid is",
options: ["26 mm", "33 mm", "21 mm", "18 mm"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "155. Which line angle area is most acute when a permanent maxillary second molar is viewed occlusally?",
options: ["Mesiofacial", "Mesiolingual", "Distofacial", "Distolingual"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "156. A distinguishing characteristic of a maxillary first premolar that identifies it as right or left is the",
options: [
"Height of the lingual cusp",
"Mesial inclination of the lingual cusp",
"Flattened area beneath the contact on the distal surface",
"Greater length of the mesial cusp ridge on the lingual cusp"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "157. The total number of cingula in each dentition is",
options: ["6", "12", "24", "32"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "158. Which bifurcation is closest to the cervical line (or) which surface has short root trunk length in a maxillary permanent first molar?",
options: ["Buccal", "Mesial", "Distal", "None of the above"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "159. The term diphydont means",
options: [
"Second dentition",
"Two same sets of dentition",
"Two separate sets of dentition",
"More than two sets of dentition"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "160. Additional period required for enamel calcification after eruption into oral cavity is",
options: ["5 years", "2 years", "8 years", "1 year"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "161. If the pulp of a single rooted tooth canal were triangular in cross-section with the base of the triangle located facially and the apex lingually with a longer mesial side than distal side, then the tooth most likely is",
options: [
"Maxillary central incisor",
"Maxillary second premolar",
"Mandibular lateral incisor",
"Mandibular central incisor"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "162. Upper first premolar resembles second premolar from which aspect?",
options: ["Mesially", "Lingually", "Occlusal", "Distally"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "163. The maxillary teeth which have single antagonist are",
options: [
"Lateral incisors",
"Permanent canines",
"Permanent central incisors",
"Third molars"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "164. In ideal intercuspation, maxillary canine articulates with",
options: [
"Mandibular canine and 1st pm",
"Mandibular canine and lateral incisor",
"Mandibular 1st premolar and 2nd premolar",
"Mandibular canine only"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "165. Which of the following muscles moves the condyle and articular disc anterior and downwards on glenoid fossa?",
options: [
"Lateral pterygoid",
"Medial pterygoid",
"Temporalis-anterior fibres",
"Temporalis-posterior fibres"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "166. Which of the following movements are performed by a non-working condyle?",
options: [
"Straightward",
"Downwards, forwards and lateral",
"Downwards, forwards and medial",
"Downwards, Backwards and medial"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "167. Which of the following is not a structural element of the temporomandibular joint?",
options: [
"Sigmoid notch",
"Articular disc",
"Capsular ligament",
"Joint cavities"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "168. The thinnest labial plate is found in the region of",
options: [
"Upper central incisors",
"Lower central incisors",
"Upper canines",
"Lower canines"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "169. Articular disc of TMJ is made up of",
options: [
"Elastic cartilage",
"Fibrocartilage",
"Bony processes",
"Fibrous ligament and hyaline cartilage only"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "170. The tooth that is commonly seen in an abnormal relation and contact with its adjacent teeth of the same arch is",
options: [
"Mandibular first premolar",
"Mandibular lateral incisor",
"Maxillary central incisor",
"Maxillary lateral incisor"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "171. The faciolingual angulation of the upper central incisor is approximately",
options: ["20°", "28°", "33°", "38°"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "172. The primary centre of formation of each lobe is present in",
options: [
"Apex of the root",
"Tip of the cusp",
"Centre of the crown",
"Centre of the tooth"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "173. The distance from the CEJ to the alveolar crest is normally",
options: ["1 - 1.5 mm", "2 - 2.5 mm", "2 mm", "3 mm"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "174. According to Wheeler's classification, which embrasures are continuous with each other?",
options: [
"Labial and Lingual",
"Lingual and Occlusal",
"Incisal (or Occlusal) and Labial (or Buccal) & Lingual Embrasures",
"Labial and Occlusal"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "175. Which four mandibular teeth are so aligned that when viewed from the occlusal, a straight line may be drawn bisecting the contact areas?",
options: ["5, 6, 7, 8", "4, 5, 6, 7", "3, 4, 5, 6", "2, 3, 4, 5"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "176. The distal contact of upper first premolar is",
options: [
"Lower than mesial contact area",
"Little cervical to junction of occlusal and middle third of crown",
"Higher than mesial contact area",
"Both (A) and (B)"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "177. Which of the following statements is correct regarding occlusal curvatures?",
options: [
"Curve of Spee refers to the antero-posterior curvature following the cusp tips of the maxillary teeth.",
"Curve of Wilson results from the outward inclination of lower posterior teeth.",
"Curve of Spee extends from the tip of the lower canine through the condyle.",
"Curve of Wilson aligns the teeth perpendicular to the medial pterygoid muscle."
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "178. In ideal occlusion, facial cusps of maxillary posterior teeth oppose",
options: [
"Grooves and embrasures",
"Grooves only",
"Marginal ridges and embrasures",
"Marginal ridges only"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "179. Disturbance during the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development will result in",
options: [
"Change in the number of teeth",
"Ameloblastoma",
"Change in form and shape of the teeth",
"Hypoplasia"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "180. A supernumerary tooth results from a deviation during",
options: ["Initiation", "Differentiation", "Apposition", "Calcification"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "181. Blood supply of ameloblast for most of its life cycle comes from",
options: [
"Dental papilla",
"Dental sac",
"Reduced enamel organ",
"Dental pulp"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "182. Order of development of tooth germ is",
options: ["Bell-bud-cap", "Cap-bell-bud", "Bud-cap-bell", "Bell-cap-bud"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "183. Temporary structures in enamel organ is/are (before enamel formation)",
options: [
"Enamel knot",
"Enamel cord",
"Enamel cuticle",
"Both (A) and (B)"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "184. Which of the statement is correct?",
options: [
"Enamel cannot form in the absence of dentin",
"The formation of enamel and dentin are independent of each other",
"Enamel formation can occur in the absence of dentin",
"None of the above"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "185. Nutrition for ameloblasts after 1st layer of enamel is laid is",
options: ["Dental sac", "Odontoblastic process", "REE", "Dental papilla"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "186. Perikymata are the external surface manifestations of",
options: [
"Enamel rods",
"Incremental lines of retzius",
"Nasmyth's membrane",
"Pellicle"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "187. The striking difference between enamel and other mineralized tissues is",
options: [
"Presence of high percentage of organic matrix",
"Presence of incremental lines",
"Enamel has high reparative capacity",
"Most of the organic component is lost during mineralization"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "188. The main bulk of dentin is formed by",
options: [
"Peritubular dentin",
"Mantle dentin",
"Intertubular dentin",
"Predentin"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "189. Which of the areas of the tooth is most sensitive during cavity preparation?",
options: [
"Enamel (anterior teeth)",
"Enamel (Posterior teeth)",
"Dentin",
"Dentinoenamel junction"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "190. During hydrodynamic theory, movement of fluids in dentinal tubules causes",
options: [
"Movement of odontoblasts",
"Touch the nerves of pulp to cause pain",
"Minimum effect on odontoblast",
"Stimulation of odontoblastic process"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "191. The dentin adjacent to the dentinoenamel junction is called the",
options: ["Mantle dentin", "Predentin", "Circumpulpal dentin", "Secondary dentin"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "192. All of the following factors are governing dentine permeability, EXCEPT",
options: [
"Smear layer",
"Fluid convection",
"Length of dentinal tubules",
"Diffusion coefficient"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "193. Which of the following structures is not found in a living pulp?",
options: [
"Collagen fibres",
"Haversian fibres",
"Non-myelinated nerve fibres",
"Reticulum"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "194. Odontoblasts are derived from",
options: [
"Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells",
"Histocytes",
"Macrophages",
"Lymphocytes"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "195. The primary response of the pulp to tissue destruction is",
options: ["Necrosis", "Ulceration", "Calcific degeneration", "Inflammation"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "196. The odontoblasts killed during cavity preparation are derived from",
options: [
"Unaffected odontoblasts from the pulp",
"Undifferentiated cells",
"Histocytes",
"Osteoblasts"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "197. The neutralization of saliva is due to",
options: ["Mucin", "Ammonia", "Amino acids", "Bicarbonates"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "198. The total volume of saliva secreted by submandibular gland daily is",
options: ["750 ml", "450 ml", "1500 ml", "1000 ml"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "199. Masticatory mucosa in the oral cavity that covers the",
options: [
"Floor of the mouth and soft palate",
"Alveolar mucosa and vestibular fornix",
"Lip and cheek",
"Gingiva and hard palate"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "200. Serous demilunes are seen in",
options: ["Salivary glands", "Pancreas", "Liver", "Gastric glands"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "1. A newborn presents with a lateral cleft extending from the medial angle of the eye to the mouth. This condition is most likely due to the failure of fusion between which of the following structures?",
options: [
"Medial nasal process and maxillary process",
"Lateral nasal process and maxillary process",
"Mandibular process",
"Palatine shelves"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "2. Muscles of mastication is supplied by",
options: [
"Facial artery",
"3rd part of maxillary artery",
"2nd part of maxillary artery",
"1st part of maxillary artery"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "3. Mandibular foramen in a 4 year old child is located",
options: [
"At the level of occlusal plane",
"Above the level of occlusal plane",
"Near the roots of 1st molar",
"Below the level of occlusal plane"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "4. Which of the following is true about teeth calcification?",
options: [
"Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at time of birth",
"Calcification of primary teeth and few permanent teeth complete at birth",
"Calcification of all the permanent teeth are complete at birth",
"Calcification of primary teeth starts during birth"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "5. Which of the following about the postnatal growth of maxilla is correct?",
options: [
"Pneumatization by enlargement of the developing maxillary sinus ceases at puberty",
"Space created for the eruption of permanent molars by resorption of maxillary tuberosity",
"The zygomaticomaxillary sutures contribute to increase in height and length of the maxilla",
"The intermaxillary suture closes about 8 years postnatally"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "6. A ten-year-old child sustains a fracture at the metaphysis of the femur. The orthopedic surgeon explains to the parents that the child may experience altered bone growth due to damage at the site. Based on the knowledge of endochondral ossification, what is the most likely explanation for this altered growth?",
options: [
"The periosteum will fail to deposit new bone, affecting bone width",
"The primary ossification centre will be disrupted , halting bone elongation",
"Hypertrophy chondrocytes in the growth plate may be damaged , affecting longitudinal growth",
"Osteoblast will no longer be able to form osteoid, preventing further calcification"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "7. First macroscopic indication of morphologic development of primary incisor is approximately of",
options: [
"11 weeks in utero",
"14 weeks in utero",
"16 weeks in utero",
"6 weeks in utero"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "8. Which index correlates the maturational status of a tooth to its development stages?",
options: [
"Demrijian index",
"Schour and Massler",
"Gustafson",
"Root transparency"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "9. A patient presents with loss of lacrimination and decreased nasal secretions on one side. Upon examination, corneal reflex is intact and there is no involvement of the muscles of facial expression. Based on this, which of the following ganglia is most likely affected?",
options: [
"Otic ganglia",
"Submandibular ganglion",
"Pterygopalatine ganglion",
"Ciliary ganglion"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "10. Brash's animal studies on mandibular growth demonstrated which of the following?",
options: [
"The coronoid process is the primary site of mandibular length increase.",
"The mandible grows by expansion of growth plates, similar to long bones.",
"The ramus undergoes resorption anteriorly and apposition posteriorly, leading to overall mandibular extension.",
"Growth occurs symmetrically on all the borders of the mandible without differential remodelling."
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "11. All of the following muscles are supplied by the facial nerve, except",
options: [
"Stapedius",
"Occipitofrontalis",
"Anterior belly of digastric",
"Buccinator"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "12. A patient presents with difficulty in closing their mouth after a trauma to the TMJ. Upon examination, it is found that the lateral pterygoid is hyperactive while the masseter appears weak. What is the most likely cause of this condition?",
options: [
"Bilateral paralysis of the lateral pterygoid",
"Hyperactivity of the medial pterygoid",
"Dysfunction of the masseter due to trauma",
"Bilateral paralysis of the masseter"
],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "13. A new born presents with hypocalcemia and recurrent infections. A chest X-ray reveals the absence of thymic shadow. Which embryological structure is most likely defective?",
options: [
"First pharyngeal pouch",
"Second pharyngeal pouch",
"Third pharyngeal pouch",
"Fourth pharyngeal pouch"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "14. A five-year-old child presents with a lateral neck mass that does not move with swallowing. It is located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
options: [
"Brachial cleft cyst",
"Thyroglossal duct cyst",
"Cystic hygroma",
"Dermoid cyst"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "15. A dentist notices that a patient's teeth lack enamel but have normal dentine and pulp. Which stage of tooth development was most likely affected?",
options: [
"Bud stage",
"Cap stage",
"Bell stage",
"Root formation stage"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "16. A neonate is diagnosed with microcephaly. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?",
options: [
"Defective mesenchymal ossification",
"Premature fusion of cranial sutures",
"Impaired neural tube closure",
"Abnormal neural progenitor cell proliferation"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "17. A 13-year-old boy undergoes a growth spurt and his hands and feet grow disproportionally larger than his torso for a brief period. This pattern is best explained by which of the following growth principle?",
options: [
"Neural growth pattern",
"Scammon growth curve",
"Distal proximal growth pattern",
"Secular growth pattern"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "18. A 12-year-old female patient visits an orthodontic clinic for the evaluation of growth status before starting orthodontic treatment. A hand wrist radiograph is taken and the adductor sesmoid of thumb is just the beginning to ossify. What does this indicate in terms of growth potential?",
options: [
"Growth has clearly ceased and orthodontic intervention should be minimal",
"The patient is in the peak of the pubertal growth spurt.",
"The patient has just entered the early stage of pubertal and significant growth is expected",
"The growth spurt has already passed and minimal skeletal changes will occur."
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "19. MEAW (Multiloop edgewise archwire) technique is used for",
options: [
"Class III malocclusion with open bite",
"Class II malocclusion with open bite",
"Class III with deep bite",
"Class II malocclusion with retrognathic"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "20. A 7-year-old child presents to the pediatric clinic with concerns about stunted growth, the child's weight for age is below the 5th percentile and mid upper arm circumference is reduced. Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying cause?",
options: [
"Constitutional growth delay",
"Chronic malnutrition",
"Growth hormone deficiency",
"Hypothyroidism"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "21. A 10-year-old child presents with a skeletal Class 2 malocclusion characterised by a retrognathic mandible, increased overjet, low facial height and a horizontal growth pattern. The cephalometric analysis reveals low FMA and Class 2 deep bite. The orthodontist is considering a removable myofunctional appliance for treatment. Which of the following factors would be the most crucial consideration before selecting this appliance?",
options: [
"presence of an open bite",
"the patient's compliance with wearing the appliance full time",
"severe skeletal Class 2 malocclusion",
"high mandibular plane angle and vertical growth pattern"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "22. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of intramatrix rotation as opposed to matrix rotation?",
options: [
"Intramatrix rotation refers to the changes occurring within the mandible itself while matrix rotation involves rotation of the mandible as a whole due to external influences.",
"Matrix rotation primarily affects the occlusal plane whereas intramatrix rotation affects the cranial base",
"Matrix rotation occurs at the level of the mandibular canal while intramatrix rotation occurs at the symphysis only",
"Intramatrix rotation is caused by the forward displacement of the cranial base whereas matrix rotation is due to the external influences."
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "23. A 13-year-old patient with a retrognathic mandible and increased overjet is undergoing treatment with a removable functional appliance. The clinician explains that the appliance works through a mechanism called light bulb action. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical principle behind the light bulb action of functional appliances?",
options: [
"Activation of appliance by the tongue muscle, stimulating mandibular growth",
"Expansion of dental arches through lateral forces exerted on the maxillary and mandibular teeth.",
"Force applied to the condyle, directing growth in a forward and downward direction.",
"Alternating forces generated by the soft tissues and muscles, similar to unscrewing."
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "24. A motor unit is made up of",
options: [
"A flexor muscle and an extensor muscle",
"A single skeletal muscle and all the motor neurons that supply it",
"A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates",
"All the motor neurons in which responses are observed after maximal stimulation of a single sensory nerve"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "25. Calcium ions trigger muscle contraction by binding",
options: [
"Actin",
"Myosin",
"Troponin",
"Tropomyosin"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "26. Which of the following is most dangerous?",
options: [
"Rh + ve mother who is bearing 2nd Rh - ve child",
"Rh - ve mother who is bearing 2nd Rh + ve child",
"Rh + ve mother who is bearing 1st Rh - ve child",
"Rh - ve mother who is bearing 1st Rh + ve child"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "27. Tremors are seen in disorder of",
options: [
"Basal ganglia",
"Pain pathway",
"Pyramidal tract",
"Parathyroid gland"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "28. Copious amount of saliva is secreted in response to",
options: [
"Parasympathetic stimulation",
"Sympathetic stimulation",
"CNS stimulation",
"Sensory stimulation"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "29. The enzymes which play an important role in calcification are",
options: [
"Enolase and calcitonin",
"Alkaline phosphatase and catalase",
"Alkaline phosphatase and pyrophosphatase",
"Pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "30. Which wave in normal electrocardiogram is also known as atrial complex?",
options: [
"QRS complex",
"T wave",
"P wave",
"QRST wave"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "31. Larondwarfism is caused by",
options: [
"Hyposecretion of growth hormone in infancy",
"Mutation in genes of growth hormone receptor",
"Deficiency of GH caused by exposure of child to stress",
"Hypoactivity of both anterior and posterior pituitary"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "32. A patient presents with hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to be seen?",
options: [
"Hyperkalemia and acidosis",
"Hypokalemia and alkalosis",
"Hyperkalemia and alkalosis",
"Hypokalemia and acidosis"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "33. A 6-month-old infant presents with progressive neurodegeneration, hepatosplenomegaly and a cherry red spot on fundoscopic examination. Bone marrow biopsy reveals foam cells. Which of the following enzyme deficiencies is responsible for this condition?",
options: [
"Beta glucosidase",
"Hexosaminidase A",
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Galactocerebrosidase"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "34. A child is brought to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, dizziness and headache after accidentally ingesting a large number of vitamin A supplements. On examination, the child is irritable and fundoscopic examination reveals papilledema. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of these symptoms?",
options: [
"increased intracranial pressure due to pseudotumor cerebri",
"hepatic necrosis due to direct vitamin A toxicity",
"hypothyroidism due to vitamin A induced parathyroid suppression",
"metabolic acidosis due to retinoic acid accumulation"
],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "35. A patient with a rare genetic mutation affecting ATPase activity in myosin heads presents with muscle weakness. Which of the following steps in sliding filament mechanisms is most likely impaired?",
options: [
"Binding of myosin to actin",
"Power stroke movement of myosin head",
"Detachment of myosin from actin",
"Reattachment of myosin to a new actin site"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "36. A 35-year-old female presents with easy bruising and frequent nose bleeds. Lab tests show a normal platelet count but prolonged bleeding time. Riscoctin cofactor activity is decreased. What is the most likely diagnosis?",
options: [
"Hemophilia B",
"von Willebrand disease",
"Thrombocytopenic purpura",
"Hemophilia"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "37. A 25-year-old male suffers a deep laceration on his forearm while handling glass. Within seconds, his bleeding slows significantly before clot formation begins. Which of the following mechanism is primarily responsible for this initial reduction in blood loss?",
options: [
"activation of the intrinsic coagulation pathway",
"platelet aggregation and fibrin formation",
"local vasoconstriction due to endothelin release",
"activation of plasminogen to plasmin"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "38. Which of the following is not a common cause of thrombocytopenia?",
options: [
"aplastic anemia",
"acute leukemia",
"polycythemia vera",
"typhoid fever"
],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "39. An old male is brought to the emergency department after a left middle cerebral artery stroke. He can understand commands but struggles to form words. What is the most likely diagnosis?",
options: [
"Wernicke's aphasia",
"Broca's aphasia",
"Global aphasia",
"Conduction aphasia"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "40. A 12-year-old male is brought to the pediatric endocrinology clinic by his parents due to progressive obesity and learning difficulties. They report that he has difficulty in walking and his school performance has been poor due to cognitive impairment. On examination, he has polydactyl, hypogonadism and a moon-shaped face. The patient also complaints of blurred vision and fundoscopy reveals signs of retinitis pigmentosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?",
options: [
"Klinefelter syndrome",
"Bardet-Biedl syndrome",
"Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome",
"Prader-Willi syndrome"
],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "41. A 55-year-old male presents with progressive muscle weakness, dry mouth and blurred vision. His weakness improves with repeated muscle use. He has a history of smoking for 30 years. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of his symptoms?",
options: ["Antibodies against acetylcholine", "Antibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels", "Autoimmune destruction of muscle fibres", "Demyelination of peripheral nerves"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "42. Which of the following best describes the function of the second bend in the formation of the Adam’s clasp?",
options: ["It aligns the clasp with the occlusal surface for stability.", "It creates a U-turn in the wire to ensure retention and adaptation to the gingival margin.", "It primarily serves as a support for the connecting bridge.", "It extends the clasp over the lingual side for anchorage in the base plate."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "43. What is the distinguishing feature of a side-winder design of uprighting springs?",
options: ["It is designed exclusively for Begg’s brackets.", "It facilitates rotational movements of teeth.", "It was specifically made for use with the tip-edge bracket.", "It applies force in a vertical direction rather than mesiodistal."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "44. According to the formula for deflection (D) of a spring, what effect does doubling the diameter (T) have on the deflection?",
options: ["The deflection increases by 8 times.", "The deflection decreases by 8 times.", "The deflection decreases by 16 times.", "The deflection remains same."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "45. Which of the following best explains why fluoride is effective in preventing caries?",
options: ["It increases the frequency of remineralization cycles.", "It inhibits demineralization and promotes remineralization.", "It directly eliminates bacterial biofilm from the tooth surface.", "It forms a permanent layer of protection on the enamel."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "46. Which of the following statements regarding the off-centre V-bend in an archwire is incorrect?",
options: ["The V-bend is positioned closer to one tooth than the other creating an uneven angulation at both ends.", "The tooth closer to the V-bend experiences a greater moment due to the higher angulation of the wire.", "The initial force system creates a net counterclockwise (Ccw) moment at the molar requiring an additional force to balance equilibrium.", "The off-centre V-bend ensures an equal and opposite moment on both teeth meeting equilibrium requirements without additional force adjustments."],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the moment of force in orthodontic tooth movement?",
options: ["The centre of resistance (Cres) of a healthy tooth is located exactly midway between the alveolar crest and the apex.", "The magnitude of a moment is given by the equation M = F × D, where D is the perpendicular distance between the force application and Cres.", "A distally directed force applied at the bracket of a maxillary central incisor does not create any rotational tendency.", "If a force is applied exactly at the Cres, the tooth will rotate around its apex."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "48. What is the key reason that a sodium fluoride (NaF) is more stable than stannous fluoride (SnF₂) in dentifrices?",
options: ["NaF does not require additional stabilizing agents.", "NaF reacts with calcium pyrophosphate to form a protective layer.", "SnF₂ is more reactive and prone to forming unwanted precipitates.", "SnF₂ is less soluble in water making it difficult to formulate."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "49. What is the primary mechanism of action of Chlorhexidine Gluconate as an antimicrobial agent?",
options: ["Disruption of bacterial protein synthesis", "Inhibition of DNA replication in bacteria", "Binding to bacterial cell walls and causing membrane disruption", "Interfering with bacterial enzyme activity"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "50. Effects of addition of accelerator or retarder on the wet strength and dry strength of gypsum products are",
options: ["Wet strength increases, dry strength decreases", "Wet strength decreases, dry strength increases", "Both wet strength and dry strength increase", "Both wet strength and dry strength decrease"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "51. During cold working tensile strength and ductility of the metal,",
options: ["Both increase", "Tensile strength increases and ductility decreases", "Tensile strength decreases and ductility increases", "Both decrease"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "52. Which of the following events occurs during muscular contraction? I. H – zone disappears II. A band widens III. I band shortens IV. Width of A band is unaffected V. The M line and Z line get closer",
options: ["I, II and III", "I, III, IV and V", "II, IV and V", "I, II and V"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "53. Why is the sagittal split osteotomy preferred over other ramus osteotomy techniques for mandibular surgery?",
options: ["It minimizes the need for rigid intraoral fixation (RIF) and ensures a stable occlusion", "It allows forward or backward movement with excellent bone-to-bone contact", "It prevents excessive mandibular plane angle alteration and associated instability", "It eliminates the need for bone grafting by utilizing distraction osteogenesis"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "54. The commonly used photosensitizer that absorbs blue light with wavelengths between 400 nm and 500 nm is",
options: ["Camphorquinone", "Dimethylaminoethyl methacrylate (DMAEMA)", "BisGMA", "TEGDMA"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "55. ADA specification number for orthodontic wire is",
options: ["30", "25", "32", "8"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "56. The fundamental difference between heat-activated resins and chemically-activated resins is the method by which ______ is divided to yield free radicals.",
options: ["Benzoyl peroxide", "Hydroquinone", "Polymethyl methacrylate", "Ethyl methacrylate"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "57. Which of the following biomechanical properties is the most critical for the primary stability of a Miniscrew implant?",
options: ["Bone remodeling potential", "Diameter of the miniscrew and cortical bone thickness", "Osseointegration capacity", "The presence of periodontal ligament fibers around the miniscrew"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "58. AISI 302 and AISI 304 differ in the composition of",
options: ["Chromium", "Nickel", "Carbon", "Both have same composition"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "59. Final product in alginate after setting reaction is",
options: ["Sodium alginate", "Potassium alginate", "Trisodium phosphate", "Calcium alginate"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "60. Trauma from occlusion causes vascular changes in the periodontium within",
options: ["45 minutes", "60 minutes", "30 minutes", "10 minutes"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "61. Stages of annealing in order",
options: ["Recovery, recrystallisation, grain growth", "Recrystallisation, grain growth, recovery", "Grain growth, recrystallisation, recovery", "Melting point, grain growth, recrystallisation"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "62. Solder and flux used for joining Elgiloy wires are",
options: ["Gold solder and borax flux", "Silver solder and fluoride flux", "Silver solder and borax flux", "Gold solder and fluoride flux"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "63. Which of the following statements is correct regarding uncontrolled tipping and controlled tipping?",
options: ["In uncontrolled tipping, both the crown and the root move in the same direction of the applied force.", "The centre of resistance (Cres) of the maxillary central incisor is located 10 mm apical to the bracket.", "In controlled tipping, applying a counterclockwise (Ccw) moment of 600 g-mm completely negates the tipping effect.", "The ratio of moment to force (M:F) in controlled tipping must always be 1:1 to ensure the root remains stationary."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "64. Why do high-strength and high-stiffness materials often fail?",
options: ["Due to the inherent weakness of the fibers", "As a result of flaws propagating through the material", "Because of excessive plastic deformation", "Due to insufficient bonding between matrix and filler"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "65. Which of the following best describes 'jumbo elastics'?",
options: ["Light pull elastics of 8 OZ (230 gm)", "Extraoral elastics used for minor adjustments", "Heavy pull elastics of 14 OZ (400 gm)", "Elastics that must be changed daily"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "66. Why does PMMA exhibit molecular diffusion?",
options: ["Due to its non-crystalline structure with high internal energy", "Because it has a highly cross-linked structure", "Due to its metallic bonding nature", "Because it is an elastomeric polymer"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "67. The mechanism of adhesion to tooth structure can be understood as a process involving",
options: ["The simple physical attachment of restorative materials onto the tooth without any interaction at the microscopic level.", "A two-step process where hydroxyapatite is first removed to create micropores followed by infiltration and polymerization of resin monomers within these micropores.", "The application of a purely chemical bonding agent that directly fuses restorative material with enamel and dentin without any micromechanical interlocking.", "The use of an external adhesive that merely coats the tooth surface and provides adhesion without requiring any surface modification."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "68. Which of the following best describes the role of surface treatments in improving bond strength for orthodontic bracket attachment to restorative materials?",
options: ["Surface treatments create irregularities that increase surface area promoting both micromechanical retention and chemical adhesion with specific resin monomers like 4-META and 10-MDP.", "Surface treatments are mainly cosmetic and do not contribute significantly to bond strength as most adhesion relies solely on chemical bonding.", "Sandblasting and etching are used only for aesthetic purposes to create a uniform surface but do not affect the longevity of orthodontic bonding.", "Bonding to restorative materials is best achieved using self-adhesive cements eliminating the need for additional surface treatments such as roughening or sandblasting."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "69. Which RNA polymerase synthesises the precursor for mRNA?",
options: ["RNA polymerase I", "RNA polymerase III", "RNA polymerase II", "RNA polymerase IV"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "70. The nitrogenous base that is never found in the genetic code is",
options: ["Adenine", "Guanine", "Thymine", "Cytosine"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "71. The repeat sequence of nucleotides in telomeres is",
options: ["TTCCCA", "TTACCG", "CCCATT", "TTCACG"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "72. Which occlusal traits have been found to have a stronger genetic influence compared to others?",
options: ["Overjet and overbite", "Arch width and arch length", "Molar relationship and basal bone structure", "Craniofacial asymmetry and cephalometric dimensions"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "73. What is a key limitation of heritability studies in craniofacial growth?",
options: ["They overestimate the role of environmental factors.", "They fail to determine whether genetic influences are monogenic or complex.", "They do not consider phenotypic variation in traits.", "They suggest that growth is entirely genetically predetermined."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "74. Which genetic factor has been found to play a role in some cases of non-syndromic autosomal dominant hypodontia?",
options: ["KROX-26", "LTBP3", "MSX1 and PAX9", "FGFR2"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "75. Mutations in which genes have been associated with solitary median maxillary central incisor syndrome?",
options: ["MSX1 and PAX9", "FGFR2 and TWIST1", "SHH and SIX3", "TGF-β and LTBP3"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "76. Why is multiphase sampling particularly useful in health-related studies?",
options: ["It allows the researcher to collect only the most relevant data from progressively smaller subsets of the population reducing time and cost.", "It ensures that every individual in the sample has studied in-depth regardless of their health status, leading to more comprehensive results.", "It requires the collection of all data at once eliminating the need for follow-up surveys or additional sampling phases.", "It minimizes the role of random selection allowing researchers to focus only on participants who fit pre-specified criteria."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "77. Which of the following statements correctly describes the concept of a 'sampling frame' in research methodology?",
options: ["The process of selecting individual elements from the population using a predetermined method, ensuring unbiased selection.", "The total set of elements in the population that have been redefined based on specific criteria and from which the sample will be drawn.", "A subgroup of a larger population that is specifically chosen for its ease of accessibility and cost effectiveness.", "A framework that ensures all units in the study are homogeneous, thereby reducing variability in the sample selection process."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "78. The Chi-square test is a widely used statistical test for qualitative data. It is applied when",
options: ["The data consists of numerical values that follows a normal distribution and the aim is to compare the means of two or more groups.", "The data is categorical and the objective is to determine whether the observed differences in proportions between groups are due to chance or a significant relationship.", "The data consists of paired observations and the goal is to determine whether there is a significant difference between means of two dependent samples.", "The test is used exclusively for small sample sizes and requires the population standard deviation to be known for accurate computation."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "79. A clinician wants to determine the best available evidence for making a treatment decision. According to the evidence hierarchy, which of the following study types provides the highest level of evidence?",
options: ["Randomised controlled trial", "Cohort study", "Systematic reviews and meta analysis", "Case control studies"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "80. Which of the following is the primary purpose of descriptive statistics in research?",
options: ["To test hypothesis and make inferences about a population", "To summarize and describe the main features of a dataset", "To establish causal relationships between variables", "To estimate the precision of a sample statistic"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "81. Which of the following best describes a Type I error in hypothesis testing?",
options: ["Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false", "Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true", "Accepting the null hypothesis when it is true", "Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is true"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "82. Which of the following best describes the function of the California bionator?",
options: ["It primarily focuses on correcting anteroposterior discrepancies by repositioning the mandible.", "It facilitates the eruption of posterior teeth while keeping anterior teeth in place.", "It prevents all types of vertical tooth movement ensuring only horizontal development.", "It is used solely for patients with anterior open bite conditions."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "83. What is the primary limitation of distraction osteogenesis in comparison to conventional orthognathic surgery?",
options: ["It is unable to stimulate soft tissue histogenesis alongside osteogenesis", "It is ineffective in achieving large skeletal movements compared to traditional methods", "It lacks the precision needed for exact positioning of the jaw and occlusion", "It is primarily applicable to adult patients due to increased bone resistance"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "84. Which statistical test is most commonly used to assess the relationship between a continuous dependent variable and one or more independent variables?",
options: ["Chi-square test", "T-test", "Linear regression", "ANOVA"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "85. The dentist starts using a new alternative therapy for tooth decay that is not scientifically validated. Dentist assures patients that it is more effective than standard treatments though there is no medical evidence supporting the claim. Which professional duty is violated here?",
options: ["Continuous professional development", "Practicing evidence-based medicine", "Advertising restrictions", "Confidentiality of patient's record"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "86. According to the University of Minnesota study on robotically-formed archwires, what limitation was observed in the final tooth positioning?",
options: ["The final tooth position often did not match the predicted or desired position due to software miscalculations.", "There was a lack of full expression of arch form and torque on second molars due to the lower stiffness and moments provided by rectangular superelastic NiTi archwires.", "The archwires were found to overcorrect malocclusions leading to an increased need for additional adjustments post-treatment.", "The study showed that the final archwire expression was significantly more accurate than manual bending with no notable limitations."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "87. The Activa brackets had a rotating slide that resulted in which specific alteration to the bracket slot's internal structure?",
options: ["Convex inner radius", "Flat inner surface", "Concave inner radius", "Irregular inner surface"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "88. ABO measuring gauge portion “B” is used for",
options: ["Discrepancies in mandibular posterior buccolingual inclination", "Discrepancies in mandibular posterior mesiodistal angulation", "Discrepancies in maxillary anterior angulation", "Discrepancies in mandibular anterior angulation"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "89. What modification was made to the In-Ovation R brackets in 2002 to enhance their functionality?",
options: ["Introduction of a twin configuration with tie-wings", "Reduction in bracket width for anterior teeth", "Incorporation of a rigid bracket component", "Addition of a metal hinge to the bracket design"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "90. What is the main reason that welded joints in stainless steel orthodontic wires are more susceptible to fracture?",
options: ["Excessive formation of carbides at the weld interface", "Presence of residual tensile stresses at the interface of cast and wrought structures", "Complete loss of chromium from the weld zone", "Increased flexibility leading to deformation"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "91. What is the ideal elevation of the lip on a smile for adolescents?",
options: ["Slightly above the gingival margin", "Slightly below the gingival margin with 2 mm of tooth coverage", "Slightly below the gingival margin with 4 mm of tooth coverage", "Showing only the upper teeth without gum visibility"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "92. What is usually associated with a steep mandibular plane angle?",
options: ["Short anterior facial height and deep bite malocclusion", "Long anterior facial vertical dimensions and skeletal open bite tendency", "High dental arch and crowding", "Narrow palate and crossbite"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "93. What does the term 'consonant' refer to in the context of a smile?",
options: ["The alignment of the upper and lower teeth", "The match between the curvature of the lip and the dental contours", "The level of tooth coverage in the smile", "The appearance of the upper lip only"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "94. According to Sassouni, what do the horizontal anatomic planes tend to do in well-proportioned faces?",
options: ["They diverge away from each other.", "They remain parallel to each other.", "They converge towards a single point.", "They form a 90 degree angle."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "95. Which phase of the cell cycle is responsible for DNA replication?",
options: ["G0 phase", "G1 phase", "S phase", "M phase"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "96. Weed anchorage reinforcement bends are the good examples of",
options: ["Straight wire mechanics", "Stepped-arch mechanics", "Looped arch mechanics", "None of them"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "97. Y-axis is used to analyse",
options: ["Maxillary growth", "Mandibular growth", "Both maxillary and mandibular growth", "Cranial growth"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "98. What is the process of changing the positions of anterior teeth to address a skeletal disproportion called?",
options: ["Orthodontic realignment", "Camouflaging the skeletal discrepancy", "Dental compensation therapy", "Jaw adjustment procedure"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "99. How do bisphosphonates affect orthodontic treatment in children with Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis (JRA)?",
options: ["They accelerate tooth movement.", "They make orthodontic tooth movement almost impossible.", "They have no impact on orthodontic treatment.", "They enhance skeletal development in the mandible."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "100. Which cephalometric landmark represents the geometric centre of ramus of mandible?",
options: ["Ptm point", "Xi point", "N point", "Eva point"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "101. What feature of digital radiography facilitates collaboration with other professionals?",
options: ["Automated landmark identification", "Complex image storage", "Image sharing capabilities", "Reduced radiation exposure"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "102. Which one of the following is true of the cephalometric Point Ba?",
options: ["Lowest point on the anterior rim of foramen magnum", "Lowest point on the posterior rim of foramen magnum", "Lowest point on the anterior rim of foramen rotundum", "Highest point on the anterior rim of foramen rotundum"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "103. What is the average upper pharyngeal width?",
options: ["1.5 to 3 mm", "15 to 20 mm", "5 to 6 mm", "10 to 12 mm"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "104. What is the primary focus of Steiner’s compromise?",
options: ["Genetic disorders", "Geometric consequences of morphogenetic variations", "Behavioural studies", "Environmental adaptations"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "105. How does paternalism in the doctor-patient relationship involve?",
options: ["Acting based on mutual agreement and understanding.", "Taking actions in the patient’s best interest without their consent.", "Allowing the patient to make all decisions independently.", "Providing excessive and unnecessary information to the patient."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "106. How was the term 'practice management' perceived in academic circles in the past?",
options: ["It was highly respected and prioritized.", "It had a somewhat negative connotation.", "It was not discussed in orthodontic meetings.", "It was synonymous with patient-care ethics."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "107. What is the 'envelope of discrepancy' in orthodontic treatment?",
options: ["The set of parameters that determine the nature and severity of an orthodontic problem.", "The theoretical boundaries of the potential range of tooth movement.", "A model that predicts how bone and soft tissue will respond to treatment.", "A fixed range of tooth movement that applies to all patients."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "108. What does the 'line of occlusion' describe according to Bonwill?",
options: ["The straight line formed by the buccal cusps of the mandibular posterior teeth and the incisal edges of the mandibular anterior teeth.", "The curvature of the upper jaw.", "The elliptical arc formed by the buccal cusps of the mandibular posterior teeth and the incisal edges of the mandibular anterior teeth.", "The position of the maxillary teeth in relation to the mandibular teeth."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "109. Which vertical alignment should be present for ideal facial symmetry in the central fifth of the face?",
options: ["A vertical line from the inner cautious should align with the outer cautious.", "A vertical line from the inner cautious should coincide with the ala of the base of the nose.", "A vertical line from the eyebrow should align with the lower lip.", "A vertical line from the pupil should pass through the middle of the chin."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "110. What is the purpose of Rickett’s E-line and Holdaway’s line in orthodontics?",
options: ["To analyze facial balance by measuring the relationship between the forehead and the chin.", "To determine the ideal width of the lips based on soft tissue thickness.", "To assess the symmetry between the upper and lower lips.", "To provide dentally-oriented measurements of lip projection in relation to the nasal tip and chin."],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "111. How does lower lip procumbency affect the lip-chin-throat angle?",
options: ["It reduces the obtuseness of the angle by pushing the lower lip forward.", "It increases the obtuseness of the angle by pushing the lower lip forward.", "It has no impact on the lip-chin-throat angle.", "It causes the upper lip to appear more prominent."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "112. What must be considered when narrowing central incisors to close black triangles?",
options: ["The lateral incisors may also need slight narrowing to maintain proportional relationships.", "The central incisors should be widened instead to compensate for the space.", "The interdental papilla should always be surgically repositioned.", "The occlusal plane should be leveled to reduce discrepancies."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "113. What factor has been found to contribute more significantly to lower incisor crowding than third molars?",
options: ["Mesial eruption of third molars.", "Forward forces from maxticatory muscles.", "A multitude of factors unrelated to third molars.", "Impact of upper incisor teeth."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "114. What is the relapse rate for correction of anterior open bites in orthodontic cases?",
options: ["10% to 15%", "20% to 30%", "40% to 50%", "50% to 60%"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "115. Which of the following statements is true regarding the fit of clear plastic retainers produced from 3D printed models compared to cast models?",
options: ["The fit from 3D printed models is typically less accurate than cast models.", "There is no significant difference in the accuracy of fit between retainers produced from 3D printed models and cast models.", "3D printed models result in better accuracy of fit than cast models.", "Clear plastic retainers cannot be produced from 3D printed models due to accuracy issues."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "116. Serial extraction is contraindicated in which of the following growth patterns?",
options: ["Hyperdivergent facial pattern", "Hypodivergent facial pattern", "Average facial pattern", "None of the above"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "117. Which of the following statements best explains the long-term stability concerns associated with maxillary and mandibular arch expansion in orthodontic treatment?",
options: ["Expansion of the mandibular arch is considered stable if carried out alongside maxillary expansion, even in the absence of a posterior crossbite.", "Skeletal maxillary expansion is always stable and should be performed to improve airway function regardless of transverse discrepancies.", "Expansion of the intercanine region of the mandibular arch is inherently unstable and the pretreatment mandibular arch form serves as the best physiologic guide for future stability.", "Maxillary expansion without the presence of a posterior crossbite is widely accepted and does not contribute to post-treatment relapse."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "118. Which of the following statements best explains why the 'social 6' clear plastic retainer is less commonly used today?",
options: ["It fails to provide sufficient engagement with interdental undercuts leading to poor retention.", "It increases the risk of differential eruption of teeth causing unfavorable occlusal changes.", "It lacks sufficient transverse rigidity making it unsuitable for cases requiring extensive arch expansion.", "It has a significantly higher risk of material degradation compared to full coverage retainers."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "119. What is the primary long-term factor contributing to the recurrence of a Class II relationship after orthodontic treatment?",
options: ["Tooth movement due to local periodontal and gingival factors.", "Differential jaw growth of the maxilla and mandible.", "Overcorrection of occlusal relationships during finishing procedures.", "The use of Class II elastics during treatment."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "120. Which of the following factors is essential for the successful use of a functional appliance as an active retainer in correcting minor occlusal discrepancies?",
options: ["Differential anteroposterior growth to reposition the mandible.", "Vertical growth to prevent downward and backward mandibular rotation.", "Skeletal remodeling to induce permanent occlusal changes.", "Unrestricted eruption of maxillary posterior teeth for occlusal stability."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "121. When a 2 × 4 arch wire is engaged in the incisor brackets directly, it tends to move tooth roots towards midline. This adverse effect can be avoided by",
options: ["Keeping the tip-back angle high.", "Keeping the tip-back angle low.", "Not giving the tip-back bends.", "None of the above."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "122. Breathing holes in vestibular screen is placed at what level?",
options: ["Gingival level in maxillary arch.", "Gingival level in mandibular arch.", "2 holes at interincisal level.", "3 holes at interincisal level."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "123. A physiological response to light pressure against a tooth after 2 days is",
options: ["Tooth movement beginning as osteoclast and osteoblast remodel the bony socket.", "Bloodflow is altered.", "Oxygen tension changes.", "Increases cAMP level."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "124. Tipping down and back of maxillary incisors at the same time and hence restricting forward mandibular growth is known as",
options: ["Kloehn effect.", "Binding effect.", "Trampoline effect.", "Mandibular orthoplasia."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "125. Ideal age for the use of delaire’s facemask for the treatment of skeletal maxillary deficiency cases is",
options: ["6-8 years old age group.", "8-10 years old age group.", "9-12 years old age group.", "12-15 years old age group."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "126. AccelèDent is based on which frequency?",
options: ["30 Hz high frequency vibration to the teeth for 20 min per day.", "20 - 25 Hz high frequency.", "30 Hz high frequency vibration to the teeth for 30 min per day.", "30 Hz low frequency for 40 min per day."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "127. Biolux is an",
options: ["Intraoral tissue penetrating light that delivers energy to tooth.", "Extraoral tissue penetrating light.", "Intraoral device that delivers energy to the bone that increases the rate of remodelling.", "Extraoral device that delivers energy to tooth."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "128. How does wire stiffness affect the tipping and binding process?",
options: ["A stiffer wire allows faster tooth movement.", "A more flexible wire prevents all binding.", "The stiffer the wire, the longer the binding phase.", "Wire stiffness has no effect on binding."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "129. To avoid the adverse effect of reverse headgears, the line of action should pass",
options: ["Below centre of resistance.", "Above centre of resistance.", "Through centre of resistance.", "Both (B) & (C)."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "130. What complication can arise from steroid injections into the temporomandibular joint for JRA treatment?",
options: ["Increased mandibular growth.", "Reduced mandibular growth.", "Complete elimination of arthritis symptoms.", "Accelerated orthodontic tooth movement."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "131. Match the following: Column A (Genetic Susceptibility) Column B (Associated Condition) 1. Lactase deficiency a) Emphysema 2. α-antitrypsin deficiency b) Lactose intolerance 3. AHH inducibility c) Asthma 4. Atopy d) Diabetes mellitus 5. Defective immunity e) Lung cancer",
options: ["1 → b, 2 → a, 3 → e, 4 → c, 5 → d", "1 → a, 2 → b, 3 → d, 4 → e, 5 → c", "1 → e, 2 → d, 3 → b, 4 → a, 5 → c", "1 → c, 2 → e, 3 → a, 4 → b, 5 → d"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "132. What is the primary method used to estimate the age of teeth in forensic anthropology?",
options: ["Cranial sutures examination.", "Gustafson’s method.", "Harris lines analysis.", "DNA sequenci."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "133. Which of the following statements is true about the ABO blood group system?",
options: ["Blood group O individuals have both A and B antigens on red blood cells.", "Blood group AB individuals lack both A and B antigens.", "Blood group A individuals have anti-B antibodies in their plasma.", "Blood group B individuals have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "134. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of Neanderthal skulls?",
options: ["Rounded cranium.", "Presence of occipital bun.", "Small supraorbital ridges.", "High forehead."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "135. Which step of the WHO analgesic ladder involves the addition of weak opioids such as codeine or hydrocodone?",
options: ["Step 1.", "Step 2.", "Step 3.", "Step 4."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "136. Which is the most commonly reported oral complication of targeted therapy drugs?",
options: ["Candidiasis.", "Mucositis or stomatitis.", "Gingival overgrowth.", "Tooth discoloration."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "137. Why long term corticosteroid use in SLE patients a concern?",
options: ["It causes acute renal failure.", "It has common complications like diabetes, osteoporosis and infections.", "It leads to an immediate hypersensitivity reaction.", "It is ineffective in treating SLE."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "138. Which of the following genetic mutations is most commonly associated with the development of hereditary breast cancer?",
options: ["BRCA1 and BRCA2.", "TP53.", "RAS.", "MYC."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "139. What is a key consideration in cases with mandibular anteroposterior deficiency where dental crowding and an accentuated curve of Spee are present?",
options: ["The mandibular incisors should be compensated through excessive retraction.", "The presence of an accentuated curve of Spee requires a segmental alignment strategy.", "Tooth extractions are never indicated in such cases.", "Mandibular advancement should always be avoided."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "140. The Apical Base School was proposed by",
options: ["Axel Lundström.", "Kingsley.", "Grieve and Tweed.", "Rogers."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "141. What was the major orthodontic innovation introduced by Etienne Bourdet in the 18th century?",
options: ["The development of metal brackets with built-in torque for precise tooth alignment leading to the foundation of modern orthodontic appliances.", "The introduction of the first lingual appliances which were placed behind the teeth for improved aesthetics as well as advocating for the extraction of first premolars to maintain jaw symmetry.", "The discovery of self-ligating brackets which reduced friction and allowed for more efficient orthodontic tooth movement.", "The invention of the first true removable orthodontic appliance which incorporated early plastic materials to enhance patient comfort."],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "142. Why did Edward Angle oppose premolar extractions in orthodontic treatment?",
options: ["He successfully treated cases without extractions and believed extractions were unnecessary for arch alignment.", "His experiments with premolar extractions using the ribbon arch appliance failed to keep extraction spaces closed leading to his firm opposition.", "He was influenced by Raymond Begg’s research which suggested that extractions led to long-term dental instability.", "The American Dental Association had banned extractions for orthodontic purposes during his time."],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "143. What is the significance of telechelic polymers in modern elastomer technology?",
options: ["They are used to create highly elastic sports equipment.", "They allow for the modification and extension of polymer molecular weight.", "They were the first type of polymer discovered to be heat resistant.", "They replaced isoprene based natural rubber in the automobile industry."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "144. According to Grewe’s method, what is the primary concern in Class I malocclusion with premature loss of a mandibular deciduous canine?",
options: ["Overeruption of maxillary molars.", "Midline shift due to arch length discrepancy.", "Early eruption of second premolars.", "Development of an anterior open bite."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "145. Why should NSAIDs be used with caution in diabetic patients?",
options: ["NSAIDs can interact with insulin and cause severe hypoglycemia.", "NSAIDs increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding especially in diabetics on low-dose aspirin.", "NSAIDs interfere with glucose metabolism and reduce the effectiveness of diabetes medications.", "NSAIDs suppress the immune response making diabetics more prone to oral infections."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "146. What is the preferred type of local anesthetic (LA) injection in patients on anticoagulant therapy with an INR above 4.0?",
options: ["Inferior alveolar nerve block.", "Intraligamentary or intrapapillary injections.", "Regional block anesthesia.", "Intramuscular injection of LA."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "147. Why are SCD patients at a higher risk of osteomyelitis in the mandible?",
options: ["Hypervascularity of bone.", "Increased incidence of bacterial infections due to functional asplenia.", "High hemoglobin levels increasing bone fragility.", "Excess fluoride accumulation."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "148. Which form of necrosis is most commonly associated with tuberculosis?",
options: ["Coagulative necrosis.", "Liquefactive necrosis.", "Caseous necrosis.", "Fat necrosis."],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "149. Which of the following drugs can inhibit the cytochrome P450 enzymes and increase the plasma concentration of other drugs?",
options: ["Rifampin.", "Ketoconazole.", "Carbamazepine.", "Phenytoin."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "150. Which of the following inflammatory mediators is primarily responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis?",
options: ["Histamine.", "Leukotriene B4 (LTB4).", "Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2).", "Platelet-activating factor (PAF)."],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "151. The most common cause of anterior open bite is",
options: ["Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrusting", "Mouth breathing", "Genetic factors"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "152. The main advantage of using a removable orthodontic appliance is",
options: ["Better retention", "Patient compliance", "Easy oral hygiene maintenance", "Greater force application"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "153. The Frankel appliance is primarily used for",
options: ["Class I malocclusion", "Class II malocclusion", "Class III malocclusion", "Open bite correction"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "154. The term 'leeway space' refers to the difference in mesiodistal width between",
options: ["Primary molars and permanent premolars", "Primary incisors and permanent incisors", "Primary canines and permanent canines", "Permanent molars and primary molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "155. The most stable type of orthodontic anchorage is",
options: ["Intraoral anchorage", "Extraoral anchorage", "Skeletal anchorage", "Reciprocal anchorage"],
answer: 2
},
{
question: "156. The most common site for supernumerary teeth is",
options: ["Maxillary anterior region", "Mandibular anterior region", "Maxillary posterior region", "Mandibular posterior region"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "157. The ideal time for orthodontic correction of a cleft lip is",
options: ["At birth", "3 months", "6 months", "1 year"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "158. The main function of the transpalatal arch is to",
options: ["Expand the maxilla", "Maintain arch width", "Correct crossbite", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "159. The main disadvantage of using headgear in orthodontics is",
options: ["High cost", "Poor patient compliance", "Complex design", "Limited effectiveness"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "160. The most common complication of rapid maxillary expansion is",
options: ["Root resorption", "Gingival recession", "Nasal bleeding", "Relapse"],
answer: 3
},
{
question: "161. The most frequent cause of relapse after orthodontic treatment is",
options: ["Improper retention", "Incomplete treatment", "Patient age", "Appliance breakage"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "162. The primary purpose of a bite plate is to",
options: ["Correct deep bite", "Expand the arch", "Maintain space", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "163. The main indication for serial extraction is",
options: ["Class I malocclusion with severe crowding", "Class II malocclusion", "Class III malocclusion", "Open bite"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "164. The most common cause of midline diastema in children is",
options: ["High frenal attachment", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "165. The main advantage of self-ligating brackets is",
options: ["Reduced chair time", "Increased friction", "Better aesthetics", "Lower cost"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "166. The most common type of crossbite seen in primary dentition is",
options: ["Anterior crossbite", "Posterior crossbite", "Unilateral crossbite", "Bilateral crossbite"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "167. The primary reason for using a lingual arch is to",
options: ["Maintain arch length", "Expand the arch", "Correct crossbite", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "168. The most common cause of delayed eruption of permanent teeth is",
options: ["Supernumerary teeth", "Early loss of primary teeth", "Genetic factors", "Endocrine disorders"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "169. The main function of a space maintainer is to",
options: ["Prevent space loss", "Correct malocclusion", "Expand the arch", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "170. The most common type of removable appliance used in orthodontics is",
options: ["Hawley appliance", "Frankel appliance", "Twin block", "Activator"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "171. The main disadvantage of using elastomeric chains is",
options: ["Loss of force over time", "High cost", "Complexity", "Poor aesthetics"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "172. The most frequent cause of anterior crossbite is",
options: ["Lingual eruption of incisors", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "173. The main advantage of using ceramic brackets is",
options: ["Aesthetics", "Strength", "Low cost", "Ease of bonding"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "174. The most common cause of crowding in the lower anterior region is",
options: ["Discrepancy between tooth size and arch length", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "175. The primary reason for using a quad helix appliance is to",
options: ["Expand the maxilla", "Maintain arch length", "Correct deep bite", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "176. The most common cause of posterior crossbite is",
options: ["Narrow maxillary arch", "Wide mandibular arch", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "177. The main function of a Nance holding arch is to",
options: ["Maintain space in the upper arch", "Expand the arch", "Correct crossbite", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "178. The most common cause of open bite is",
options: ["Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing", "Genetic factors"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "179. The main advantage of using a fixed functional appliance is",
options: ["No patient compliance needed", "Better aesthetics", "Lower cost", "Easier to adjust"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "180. The most common cause of midline shift is",
options: ["Premature loss of primary teeth", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "181. The main indication for using a distal shoe space maintainer is",
options: ["Premature loss of second primary molar before eruption of first permanent molar", "Crowding", "Crossbite", "Open bite"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "182. The most common type of malocclusion in children is",
options: ["Class I", "Class II", "Class III", "Open bite"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "183. The main function of a lip bumper is to",
options: ["Relieve lower anterior crowding", "Correct crossbite", "Distalize molars", "Expand the arch"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "184. The most common cause of dental midline diastema is",
options: ["High frenal attachment", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "185. The main advantage of using a twin block appliance is",
options: ["Patient comfort", "Aesthetics", "Low cost", "Ease of adjustment"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "186. The most common cause of anterior open bite is",
options: ["Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing", "Genetic factors"],
answer: 1
},
{
question: "187. The main function of a rapid maxillary expander is to",
options: ["Expand the maxilla", "Maintain arch length", "Correct deep bite", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "188. The most common complication of orthodontic treatment is",
options: ["Relapse", "Root resorption", "Gingival recession", "Caries"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "189. The main advantage of using a bonded retainer is",
options: ["Permanent retention", "Aesthetics", "Low cost", "Easy to clean"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "190. The most common cause of relapse after orthodontic treatment is",
options: ["Improper retention", "Incomplete treatment", "Patient age", "Appliance breakage"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "191. The main function of a functional appliance is to",
options: ["Modify jaw growth", "Expand the arch", "Maintain space", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "192. The most common type of space maintainer used in the lower arch is",
options: ["Lingual arch", "Band and loop", "Nance holding arch", "Transpalatal arch"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "193. The main disadvantage of using removable appliances is",
options: ["Patient compliance required", "High cost", "Complex design", "Limited effectiveness"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "194. The most common cause of delayed eruption of permanent teeth is",
options: ["Supernumerary teeth", "Early loss of primary teeth", "Genetic factors", "Endocrine disorders"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "195. The main indication for using a band and loop space maintainer is",
options: ["Premature loss of a single primary molar", "Crowding", "Crossbite", "Open bite"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "196. The most common type of fixed appliance used in orthodontics is",
options: ["Edgewise appliance", "Lingual appliance", "Ceramic brackets", "Self-ligating brackets"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "197. The main function of a palatal crib is to",
options: ["Control tongue thrust", "Expand the maxilla", "Maintain arch length", "Distalize molars"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "198. The most common cause of posterior crossbite is",
options: ["Narrow maxillary arch", "Wide mandibular arch", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "199. The main advantage of using a removable functional appliance is",
options: ["Patient can remove for cleaning", "Better aesthetics", "Lower cost", "Greater force application"],
answer: 0
},
{
question: "200. The most common cause of crowding in the lower anterior region is",
options: ["Discrepancy between tooth size and arch length", "Thumb sucking", "Tongue thrust", "Mouth breathing"],
answer: 0
}
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