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Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 79-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 2-month history of a non-productive cough and fatigue. During this period, she also has had a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss and has become increasingly short of breath with mild exertion. She has congestive heart failure and hypertension. Three months ago, she was in India for 3 weeks to attend a family wedding. She worked as a seamstress in a textile factory for 50 years. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 47 years. Her current medications include enalapril, digoxin, isosorbide, spironolactone, and metoprolol. She appears thin. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 94%. There is dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds over the right lung base. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a glucose level of 90 mg/dL, serum lactate dehydrogenase of 227 U/L, and serum protein of 6.3 g/dL. An x-ray of the chest shows nodular pleural lesions on the right side and a moderate-sized pleural effusion. Thoracentesis shows 250 ml of turbid fluid. Analysis of the pleural fluid aspirate shows: Erythrocyte count 1/mm3 Leukocyte count 4,000/mm3 Glucose 59 mg/dl Lactate dehydrogenase 248 U/L Protein 3.8 g/dL Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's effusion?" ---- <<Choices:>> A) Bronchial adenocarcinoma B) Mesothelioma C) Nephrotic syndrome D) Congestive heart failure ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular menstrual bleeding. Menses have occurred at 30- to 90-day intervals since menarche at the age of 12 years. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She is sexually active with her husband and they do not use condoms. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 73 kg (161 lb); BMI is 25.3 kg/m2. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows oily skin and severe acne on the face. There is dark hair on the upper lip and around both nipples. Laboratory studies show: Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate 6.2 μg/mL (N=0.5–5.4) Follicle-stimulating hormone 20 mIU/mL Luteinizing hormone 160 mIU/mL Testosterone 4.1 nmol/L (N < 3.5) A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate next step in screening for comorbidities in this patient?" ---- <<Choices:>> A) 17-hydroxyprogesterone and cortisol level measurements B) CA-125 level measurement C) Blood glucose and cholesterol level measurements D) TSH and T4 level measurements ---- <<Answer:>>
C
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<<Question:>> A 51-year-old woman goes to respiratory function testing in order to evaluate her shortness of breath. She recently joined a walking program with her friends in order to lose weight; however, she noticed that she was not able to keep up with her friends during the program. She has a 60-pack-year history of smoking as well as hypertension well-controlled on medication. The following represent the parameters for this patient's respiratory anatomy and function: Vital capacity (VC): 5,000 mL Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV): 2,500 mL Functional reserve capacity (FRC): 2,700 mL Residual volume (RV): 1,000 mL Upper airway volume: 100 mL Conducting airway volume: 125 mL Inspired CO2 pressure (PiCO2): 1 mmHg Arterial CO2 pressure (PaCO2): 50 mmHg Expired CO2 pressure (PeCO2): 20 mmHg Which of the following best represents the total volume of gas in this patient's airways and lungs that does not participate in gas exchange? ---- <<Choices:>> A) 480 mL B) 600 mL C) 800 mL D) 1200 mL ---- <<Answer:>>
A
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 44-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of fatigue, intermittent fever, a 4.0-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss, and a progressive, non-productive cough. She does not smoke. Physical examination shows mild wheezing over bilateral lung fields and enlarged supraclavicular and cervical lymph nodes. A CT scan of the chest is shown. A biopsy specimen of a cervical lymph node shows organized epithelioid histiocytes and multinucleated giant cells without focal necrosis. The initial treatment of this patient's condition should include which of the following drugs? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Cisplatin B) Lamivudine C) Isoniazid D) Prednisone ---- <<Answer:>>
D
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<<Question:>> A 55-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of heavy vaginal bleeding, requiring more than 5 pads per day. Menopause occurred 1 year ago. She attained menarche at 10 years of age. She has a history of hypothyroidism and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years but quit 5 years ago. Current medications include levothyroxine and metformin. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 86 kg (190 lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. Physical examination shows mild vaginal atrophy and a normal cervix. The uterus and adnexa are nontender to palpation. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows an endometrial thickness of 6 mm. Endometrial biopsy shows non-invasive proliferation of endometrial glands with no nuclear or cytological atypia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Total hysterectomy B) Estrogen vaginal cream C) Reassurance and follow-up D) Progestin therapy ---- <<Answer:>>
D
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 37-year-old woman with an HIV infection comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Six months ago, combined antiretroviral therapy consisting of dolutegravir, tenofovir, and emtricitabine was initiated. Laboratory studies show a decrease in the CD4 count and an increase in the viral load despite ongoing treatment. The patient is switched to a new treatment regimen, including a drug that acts by preventing viral DNA synthesis without undergoing intracellular phosphorylation. Which of the following is the most likely drug? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Efavirenz B) Ritonavir C) Raltegravir D) Lamivudine " ---- <<Answer:>>
A
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<<Question:>> A 14-year-old girl presents with sudden drooping of the right side of her face with drooling and excessive tearing. The patient’s mother says that the patient was recently in northern Maine and spent most of her time during the trip outdoors. Physical examination reveals a slight asymmetry of the facial muscles with an inability to whistle or close the right eye. A circular red rash with central clearing is present on the trunk. There is also decreased taste sensation. Which of the following most likely transmitted the organism responsible for this patient’s illness? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Ixodes scapularis B) Tsetse fly C) Culicidae D) Anopheles ---- <<Answer:>>
A
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 66-year-old man with high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and diabetes presents to the clinic with elevated liver function tests from baseline. He has a blood pressure of 136/92 mm Hg and a heart rate of 69/min. On physical examination, his heart sounds are regular and lung sounds are clear. Current medications include simvastatin, metformin, fenofibrate, hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, glyburide, and lisinopril. Of these medications, which could contribute to the patient’s transaminitis? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Metformin B) Simvastatin C) Glyburide D) Lisinopril ---- <<Answer:>>
B
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 7 -day-old newborn boy presents to the emergency department with a history of fever, irritability, and generalized erythema. During the first 2 days of clinical manifestations, the parents of the child tried to control the symptoms using acetaminophen; however, the newborn continued to be ill, and blisters were noticeable around the buttocks, hands, and feet. During the physical examination, the vital signs include body temperature 39.0°C (102.3°F), heart rate 130/min, and respiratory rate 45/min. Ears, nose, and oral mucosa preserved their integrity, while the skin presents with diffuse blanching erythema and flaccid blisters with a positive Nikolsky’s sign. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Scarlet fever B) Scalded skin syndrome C) Impetigo D) Pyoderma ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 60-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic complaining of severe vulvar itching that has been gradually worsening for the past year. She mentions that she has tried over-the-counter lubricants, but lubricants do not seem to provide substantial relief. Her medical history is remarkable for diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. Menopause occurred at 52 years of age. She has been sexually active with her husband until recently and reports severe pain during vaginal intercourse. The physical examination reveals dry, thin, white plaque-like lesions in the vulvar area with atrophy of the labia minora. The clitoris appears retracted. The perianal skin appears pale and wrinkled. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Squamous cell hyperplasia B) Lichen sclerosus C) Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva D) Lichen planus ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 50-year-old woman with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) presents to your clinic with complaints of left eye pain and reduced vision. She notes that she was in her usual state of health until 3 days prior to presentation when she noticed some mild tenderness around her left eye, unrelieved by any pain relievers. This morning when she woke up she was unable to see out of her left eye and made an appointment to come see you. Other than SLE, her medical history is unremarkable. She has had no additional symptoms other than pain and vision loss. Her vital signs are all within normal limits. On exam, she has no vision in her left eye, but 20/30 visual acuity in her right eye. When you shine a light in her left eye there is no response. What response would you expect when you shine a light in her right eye? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Bilateral miosis B) Miosis of the right eye only C) Miosis of the left eye only D) Mydriasis of the left eye ---- <<Answer:>>
A
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<<Question:>> A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. She states that she was walking up the stairs at work when she felt sudden and severe abdominal pain followed by nausea and vomiting. Her past medical history is non-contributory and she is not currently taking any medications. Her temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an absence of abdominal tenderness, a left adnexal mass, and left adnexal tenderness. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates free fluid surrounding the ovary with edema and the presence of doppler flow. A urinary pregnancy test is negative. The patient's symptoms persisted after ibuprofen and acetaminophen. Which of the following is the best next step in management? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Laparoscopy B) Laparotomy C) MRI of the pelvis D) Observation and serial abdominal exams ---- <<Answer:>>
A
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressively worsening fatigue for 6 months. During this time, he has also had shortness of breath and palpitations on exertion. He has noticed blood in his stools on three separate occasions in the past 4 months. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and end-stage renal disease. He drinks two to four beers daily. He does not smoke. His pulse is 95/min and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. Rectal examination is unremarkable. His hemoglobin concentration is 7.2 g/dL, hematocrit is 32%, and mean corpuscular volume is 68 μm3. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's bleeding? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Inflammation in an outpouching of the colonic wall B) Symptomatic enlargement of hemorrhoidal plexus C) Chronic mucosal and submucosal inflammation of the colon D) Arteriovenous malformation in the colonic wall ---- <<Answer:>>
D
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 24-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with her boyfriend 2 hours after an episode of loss of consciousness. She was seated and was being tattooed on her right upper flank when she became diaphoretic, pale, and passed out. According to her boyfriend, the patient slipped to the floor and her arms and legs moved in a jerky fashion for a few seconds. She regained consciousness within half a minute and was alert and fully oriented immediately. She has no history of serious illness. She works as an event manager and has had more stress than usual due to a recent concert tour. She appears well. Her temperature is 37°C (98.4°F), pulse is 68/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Her cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. An ECG shows an incomplete right bundle branch block. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Vasovagal syncope B) Orthostatic syncope C) Cardiac arrhythmia D) Cardiac structural abnormality " ---- <<Answer:>>
A
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<<Question:>> A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after falling from his bicycle. The boy was racing with his cousin when he lost control and fell onto his right side. He has nausea and severe pain in the right shoulder. He is in acute distress. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 85/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg. Examination shows swelling and tenderness over the right clavicle and pain exacerbated by movement; range of motion is limited. The skin over the clavicle is intact. The radial pulse in the right arm is intact. Sensory examination of the right upper limb shows no abnormalities. An x‑ray of the chest is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient's shoulder? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Perform tension banding B) Apply a simple shoulder sling C) Obtain an MRI of the right shoulder D) Perform arteriography ---- <<Answer:>>
B
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 51-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because of a 3-week history of abnormal behavior. His wife reports he has been preoccupied with gambling at the local casino. He becomes restless and irritable when his wife attempts to restrict his gambling. Four months ago, he was diagnosed with Parkinson disease and treatment was initiated. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the drug that was most likely prescribed for this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Peripheral inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase B) Direct activation of dopamine receptors C) Selective inhibition of monoamine oxidase B D) Inhibition of catechol-O-methyl transferase ---- <<Answer:>>
B
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 55-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents to her primary care doctor with fever, fatigue, and bleeding gums for the past 3 days. She denies any sick contacts. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical exam reveals several oral mucosal petechiae, bleeding gums, bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. Initial laboratory workup shows the following: Leukocyte count and differential: Leukocyte count: 6,600/mm^3 Segmented neutrophils: 60% Bands: 20% Eosinophils: 9% Basophils: 1% Lymphocytes: 0% Monocytes: 10% Platelet count: 99,000/mm^3 Hemoglobin: 8.1 g/dL Hematocrit: 25% Prothrombin time: 25 sec Partial thromboplastin time: 50 sec International normalized ratio: 1.6 D-dimer: 2,000 µg/mL Fibrinogen: 99 mg/dL A bone marrow biopsy demonstrates 34% myeloblasts with Auer rods that are myeloperoxidase positive. What is best treatment option? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Ascorbic acid B) Fresh frozen plasma C) Retinoic acid D) Zoledronic acid ---- <<Answer:>>
C
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of malaise. Two hours prior to presentation, he developed muscle cramps and nausea. He has had 3 episodes of non-bloody watery stools since his symptoms started. He reports that he has experienced similar symptoms multiple times over the past 5 years since he started working at his local zoo as a reptilian caretaker. His medical history is unremarkable. He takes fish oil and a multivitamin daily. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 17/min. On exam, he demonstrates sensitivity to bright light. He is tired-appearing but alert and fully oriented. A stool sample and culture demonstrates abundant non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-negative, and H2S-producing gram-negative bacilli. The pathogen responsible for this patient’s condition relies on a virulence factor with which of the following mechanisms of action? ---- <<Choices:>> A) ADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2 B) Blocking antibody attack on the O antigen C) Cleaving immunoglobulin A molecules D) Cleaving lecithin ---- <<Answer:>>
B
Answer the following medical question with the correct letter choice:
<<Question:>> A 62-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife because of difficulties walking for the past year. He has had multiple falls over the past 4 months. Over the past 6 months, he has had progressive urinary urgency and now wears an adult diaper as is not always able to control the urge to void. His appetite has also decreased in this time period. He used to drive, but his wife convinced him to stop after she noticed that he was becoming increasingly inattentive while driving. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Current medications include ramipril and metformin. His temperature is 37.1C (98.8F), pulse is 90/min and blood pressure is 132/88 mm Hg. Examination shows a broad-based gait with slow and short steps. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person and place but not to time. Attention and concentration are impaired. He recalls only one of three objects after 5 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's symptoms? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Ventricular shunting B) Acetazolamide therapy C) Temporal lobectomy D) Donepezil therapy ---- <<Answer:>>
A
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<<Question:>> A 40-year-old woman with Down syndrome comes to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue, progressive clumsiness when using her hands, and difficulty walking for 3 months. During this period, the patient has had several episodes of dizziness as well as double vision. She also reports that she has lost control of her bladder on several occasions lately. She has not had any trauma or weight changes. She lives with her sister and works as a cashier in a local retail store. She takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person and place only. There is moderate weakness of the upper and lower extremities. Sensory examination shows no abnormalities. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally. Babinski's sign is present bilaterally. Which of the following would most likely improve this patient's symptoms? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Administration of botulism antitoxin B) Surgical fusion of C1/C2 C) Administration of methylprednisolone D) Administration of pyridostigmine " ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 74-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus is brought to her primary care doctor by her son who is concerned about the patient's ability to manage her activities of daily living. She has been living alone since her husband passed away 2 years ago. She has remained an active member of her retirement community's wine club; however, she stopped attending the meetings 3 weeks ago. She is generally able to her maintain her house, but her house appears more disorganized over the past 2 weeks. She generally drives short distances but avoids driving long distances as she occasionally gets lost when navigating new areas. She feels like her balance is getting worse, but she has not fallen. She has noticed increased urinary urgency over the past 8 months and has had 2 episodes of incontinence. Despite these changes, she reports feeling well. She drinks 4-6 glasses of wine per day. She was started on multiple medications for worsening anxiety by her psychiatrist 1 month ago. Her BMI is 31 kg/m^2. Her temperature is 99.8°F (37.7°C), blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 17/min. On examination, she is oriented to person and time but not place or situation. She does not seem to recognize her doctor despite knowing him for many years. She becomes somnolent intermittently throughout the interview. She can recall 0/3 words after 5 minutes. She has a low-frequency tremor in her right arm that increases in severity with deliberate movement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Alzheimer dementia B) Delirium C) Lewy body dementia D) Normal pressure hydrocephalus ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 45-year-old male with a history of diabetes and poorly controlled hypertension presents to his primary care physician for an annual check-up. He reports that he feels well and has no complaints. He takes enalapril and metformin. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 155/90 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 16/min. His physician adds another anti-hypertensive medication to the patient’s regimen. One month later, the patient returns to the physician complaining of new onset lower extremity swelling. Which of the following medications was likely prescribed to this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Metoprolol B) Verapamil C) Nifedipine D) Hydrochlorthiazide ---- <<Answer:>>
C
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<<Question:>> A 29-year-old woman comes to the physician with high-grade fever, headache, and muscle pain. A week ago, she returned from India, where she was working with an NGO to build houses in rural areas. The patient took one dose of chloroquine one week before her trip. She also took a further dose during her trip. She has no history of a serious illness. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 102/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 112/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows jaundice. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 10 g/dL and a blood smear shows fragmented erythrocytes and occasional ring-shaped inclusion bodies within erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of infection in this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Plasmodium ovale B) Plasmodium falciparum C) Chikungunya virus D) Hepatitis A virus ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 39-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her annual physical. Although she feels generally healthy she has noticed gaining about 9 kg (20 lb) over the last year. She eats a healthy, varied diet and exercises at the gym 4 days a week, including 20 minutes of aerobic exercise. On further questioning, she has also noted fatigue and constipation. She denies shortness of breath, chest pain, lightheadedness, or blood in her stool. At the clinic, the vital signs include: pulse 52/min, blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. The physical exam is notable only for slightly dry skin. The complete blood count (CBC) is within normal limits. Which of the following laboratory values is most likely elevated in this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Glucose B) Triiodothyronine (T3) C) Thyroxine (T4) D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) ---- <<Answer:>>
D
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<<Question:>> A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of persistent diarrhea and fatigue for 1 month. She has had up to 12 watery stools per day. Sometimes she awakens at night because she has to defecate. She has abdominal bloating and cramps. She has had a 2-kg weight loss in the past month. She returned from a trip to Costa Rica 7 weeks ago. She has a history of bronchial asthma and bulimia nervosa. She works as a nurse. She does not smoke and drinks 1–2 beers on the weekend. Current medications include fish oil, a multivitamin, and a salbutamol inhaler. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 65/min, and blood pressure is 100/75 mm Hg. Examination shows dry mucous membranes. Abdominal and rectal examinations are unremarkable. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit 46% Leukocyte Count 6,500/mm3 Platelet Count 220,000/mm3 Serum Na+ 136 mEq/L K+ 3.2 mEq/L Cl- 102 mEq/L HCO3- 33 mEq/L Mg2+ 3.3 mEq/L Urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL Abdominal ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Colonoscopy shows dark colored mucosa with interspersed white spots. Biopsies of colonic mucosa are obtained and sent for pathological evaluation. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?" ---- <<Choices:>> A) Celiac disease B) Carcinoid tumor C) VIPoma D) Medication abuse ---- <<Answer:>>
D
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<<Question:>> A 21-year-old college student comes to the physician because of daytime fatigue for 2 months. He has problems getting to sleep at night and frequently falls asleep during class. Recently he has started skipping classes altogether. He goes to bed between 11 p.m. and 1 a.m. but cannot fall asleep for 2–3 hours. When he wakes up at 8:30 a.m., he feels extremely drowsy, and he tries to overcome his fatigue by drinking 2–3 cups of coffee a day. He naps at various times during the afternoon, often for more than an hour. He stopped watching videos on his smartphone at night because of suggestions from his peers. He states that he has tried over-the-counter melatonin pills and exercising at 8 p.m. without success. He has no history of serious illness. He does not smoke. He drinks three to five beers on weekends. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Trial of diphenhydramine B) Stop evening exercise C) Alcoholic beverage prior to bedtime D) Scheduled afternoon naps ---- <<Answer:>>
B
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<<Question:>> A 19-year-old man is brought to the physician by his mother because she is worried about his strange behavior. Over the past 3 years, he has been dressing all in black and wears a long black coat, even in the summer. The mother reports that her son has always had difficulties fitting in. He does not have any friends and spends most of his time in his room playing online games. He is anxious at college because he is uncomfortable around other people, and his academic performance is poor. Rather than doing his coursework, he spends most of his time reading up on paranormal phenomena, especially demons. He says that he has never seen any demons, but sometimes there are signs of their presence. For example, a breeze in an enclosed room is likely the “breath of a demon”. Mental status examination shows laborious speech. The patient avoids eye contact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Social anxiety disorder B) Avoidant personality disorder C) Schizotypal personality disorder D) Schizophrenia ---- <<Answer:>>
C
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<<Question:>> A 79-year-old man presents to the office due to shortness of breath with moderate exertion and a slightly productive cough. He has a medical history of 25 years of heavy smoking. His vitals include: heart rate 89/min, respiratory rate 27/min, and blood pressure 120/90 mm Hg. The physical exam shows increased resonance to percussion, decreased breath sounds, and crackles at the lung base. Chest radiography shows signs of pulmonary hyperinflation. Spirometry shows a forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV1) of 48%, a forced vital capacity (FVC) of 85%, and an FEV1/FVC ratio of 56%. According to these results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ---- <<Choices:>> A) Asthma B) Lymphangioleiomyomatosis C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D) Heart failure ---- <<Answer:>>
C
Answer the following medication-related question:
how does rivatigmine and otc sleep medicine interact
tell your doctor and pharmacist what prescription and nonprescription medications, vitamins, nutritional supplements, and herbal products you are taking or plan to take. Be sure to mention any of the following: antihistamines; aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin) and naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn); bethanechol (Duvoid, Urecholine); ipratropium (Atrovent, in Combivent, DuoNeb); and medications for Alzheimer's disease, glaucoma, irritable bowel disease, motion sickness, ulcers, or urinary problems. Your doctor may need to change the doses of your medications or monitor you carefully for side effects.
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how does valium affect the brain
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that exerts anxiolytic, sedative, muscle-relaxant, anticonvulsant and amnestic effects. Most of these effects are thought to result from a facilitation of the action of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
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what is morphine
Morphine is a pain medication of the opiate family which is found naturally in a number of plants and animals.[5][7] It acts directly on the central nervous system (CNS) to decrease the feeling of pain.
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what are the milligrams for oxycodone e
… 10 mg … 20 mg … 40 mg … 80 mg ...
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81% aspirin contain resin and shellac in it. ?
Inactive Ingredients Ingredient Name
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what is desonide ointment used for
Desonide is used to treat the redness, swelling, itching, and discomfort of various skin conditions, including psoriasis (a skin disease in which red, scaly patches form on some areas of the body and eczema (a skin disease that causes the skin to be dry and itchy and to sometimes develop red, scaly rashes).
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how soon can tylenol be taken after a cocktail?
According to the National Health Service (NHS) in the UK, it is usually safe to drink a small amount of alcohol while taking this pain reliever. ... However, when people take acetaminophen at high doses or together with alcohol, it can cause side effects ranging from minor to severe, with the possibility of fatal liver damage. This risk may be higher for people with alcohol use disorder (AUD), which was previously known as alcoholism.... According to the U.S. National Library of Medicine, taking acetaminophen can be dangerous for people who regularly drink alcohol. Manufacturers currently recommend that people who have more than 3 alcoholic drinks per day should ask their doctor before taking acetaminophen.
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breo inhaler how it works
The combination of fluticasone and vilanterol is used to control wheezing, shortness of breath, coughing, and chest tightness caused by asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary (COPD; a group of diseases that affect the lungs and airways, that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema). Fluticasone is in a class of medications called steroids. It works by reducing swelling in the airways. Vilanterol is in a class of medications called long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs). It works by relaxing and opening air passages in the lungs, making it easier to breathe.
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breo inhaler how it works
To use the inhaler, follow these steps: 1 If you will be using a new inhaler for the first time, remove it from the box and the foil wrapper. Fill in the "Tray opened" and "Discard" blanks on the inhaler label with the date that you opened the pouch and the date 6 weeks later when you must replace the inhaler. 2 When you are ready to inhale your dose, slide the cover down to expose the mouthpiece until it clicks. If you open and close the inhaler without using your dose, you will waste the medication. 3 The counter will count down by 1 each time you open the cover. If the counter does not count down, your inhaler will not provide the medicine. If your inhaler does not count down, call your pharmacist or doctor. 4 Hold the inhaler away from your mouth and breathe out as far as you comfortably can. Do not breathe out into the mouthpiece. 5 Put the mouthpiece between your lips, and close your lips firmly around it. Take a long, steady, deep breath in through your mouth. Do not breathe in through your nose. Be careful not block the air vent with your fingers. 6 Remove the inhaler from your mouth, and hold your breath for about 3 to 4 seconds or as long as you comfortably can. Breathe out slowly. 7 You may or may not taste or feel the medicine released by the inhaler. Even if you do not, do not inhale another dose. If you are not sure you are getting your dose of fluticasone and vilanterol, call your doctor or pharmacist. 8 You may clean the mouthpiece with a dry tissue, if needed. Slide the cover up over the mouthpiece as far as it will go to close the inhaler. 9 Rinse your mouth with water, but do not swallow. Ask your pharmacist or doctor for a copy of the manufacturer's information for the patient.
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qvar 40mg what is it for
QVAR is indicated in the maintenance treatment of asthma as prophylactic therapy in patients 5 years of age and older. QVAR is also indicated for asthma patients who require systemic corticosteroid administration, where adding QVAR may reduce or eliminate the need for the systemic corticosteroids.
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does cyclosporine ophthalmic helps for iritis?
This study showed improvement of recurrent anterior uveitis [iritis] in patients while on conventional treatment with cyclosporine A 0.05% compared with conventional treatment alone.
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what ingredient in walnut interferes with synthroid drug absorption
Dietary fiber: Certain dietary fiber sources can impede absorption of the thyroid hormone replacement medication. Mayo Clinic staff say it is best to avoid dietary fiber in foods like walnuts, soy products, iron supplements and multivitamins containing iron.
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what is the color of the fluvaastatin pill
Product Characteristics Color RED (rust)
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is penicillin in the pill "montelukast?"
What are the ingredients in montelukast sodium tablets? Active ingredient: montelukast sodium, USP Inactive ingredients: 10 mg tablet: croscarmellose sodium, hydroxypropyl cellulose, lactose monohydrate, magnesium stearate, and microcrystalline cellulose. The film coating contains: black iron oxide, hydroxypropyl cellulose, hypromellose, red iron oxide, titanium dioxide, and yellow iron oxide.
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can i take metamucil with "ciprofloxacin?"
diarrhea is a common problem caused by antibiotics which usually ends when the antibiotic is discontinued. Sometimes after starting treatment with antibiotics, patients can develop watery and bloody stools (with or without stomach cramps and fever) even as late as two or more months after having taken the last dose of the antibiotic. If this occurs, patients should contact their physician as soon as possible.
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how long before a meal should lansoprazole be taken
Swallow 1 capsule with a glass of water before eating in the morning.
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what does using fluorouracil make your face look like
The most frequent adverse reactions to Fluorouracil 5% Topical Cream occur locally and are often related to an extension of the pharmacological activity of the drug. These include burning, crusting, allergic contact dermatitis, erosions, erythema, hyperpigmentation, irritation, pain, photosensitivity, pruritus, scarring, rash, soreness and ulceration.
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why did my doctor give me level iracetam
Levetiracetam is used in combination with other medications to treat certain types of seizures in adults and children with epilepsy. Levetiracetam is in a class of medications called anticonvulsants. It works by decreasing abnormal excitement in the brain.
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results of stopping terazosin?
The effect of withdrawal of terazosin therapy in patients with mild to moderate hypertension was assessed in two double-blind, placebo-controlled studies. All patients had demonstrated a stable blood pressure response to terazosin prior to withdrawal of the drug. Patients were randomly assigned either to continue treatment with terazosin at a previously established dose that had brought blood pressure under control (dose range: 1 to 40 mg daily) or to receive a matching placebo. At the end of a six- or eight-week withdrawal period, placebo-treated patients experienced mean increases of 7.3 and 12.4 mm Hg in supine diastolic blood pressure (studies M81-020 and M81-028 site 1, respectively). These increases were significantly greater than those observed for patients who continued to receive terazosin. Similar results were observed in other blood pressure variables. Withdrawal of terazosin was accompanied by a significant weight loss (2.8 and 3.6 pounds in studies M81-020 and M81-028, respectively). There were no clinically significant changes in pulse rates, physical examinations, laboratory test results, or electrocardiograms. Headache was the most common adverse experience reported by those who received placebo during the drug withdrawal period. These studies demonstrate that withdrawal of terazosin therapy is associated with an increase in supine diastolic blood pressure, often to hypertensive levels, without signs of a withdrawal syndrome.
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what meloxicam look like
Product Characteristics Color YELLOW (light yellow) Score no score Shape OVAL Size 3mm Imprint Code S160
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nitroglycerin how often
One tablet should be dissolved under the tongue or in the buccal pouch at the first sign of an acute anginal attack. The dose may be repeated approximately every 5 minutes until relief is obtained. If the pain persists after a total of 3 tablets in a 15-minute period, or if the pain is different than is typically experienced, prompt medical attention is recommended. Nitroglycerin may be used prophylactically 5 to 10 minutes prior to engaging in activities that might precipitate an acute attack.
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whate is vitamin c chemicl symple ?
Active Ingredient/Active Moiety ... ASCORBIC ACID ...
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what is the maximum dose of pregabalin
In view of the dose-dependent adverse reactions, treatment with doses above 300 mg/day is not recommended
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how long does marijuana it stay in system
The effects of marijuana usually last from 1 to 3 hours, but marijuana can stay in the body for days or even weeks after use. Organs in the body have fatty tissues that absorb the THC in marijuana. In general, standard urine tests can detect THC several days after use. In people who use heavily, however, urine tests can sometimes detect THC for several weeks.
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neupro and ropinirole when is it safe to take
Anxiolytics; Sedatives; and Hypnotics: (Moderate) A reduction in the dose of anxiolytics, sedatives, hypnotics and concomitantly administered dopamine agonists with sedative properties (e.g., ropinirole, pramipexole, rotigotine, apomorphine) should be considered to minimize additive sedative effects. In addition, the risk of next-day psychomotor impairment is increased during co-administration, which may decrease the ability to perform tasks requiring full mental alertness such as driving.
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neupro and ropinirole when is it safe to take
Switching from oral dopamine agonists to rotigotine: An open-label study of 99 subjects with Parkinson’s disease was conducted in which the subjects, previously treated with 3 to 12mg/day ropinirole with or without levodopa, were converted to treatment with transdermal rotigotine. The following dosage conversion was utilized; 3mg/day ropinirole to 2mg/24 hours rotigotine, 6mg/day ropinirole to 4mg/24 hours rotigotine, 8-9mg/day ropinirole to 6mg/24 hours rotigotine, 12mg/day ropinirole to 8mg/24 hours rotigotine. Patients were instructed to take their last dose of ropinirole in the afternoon or evening, applying a rotigotine patch the next morning upon awakening. Overall this study determined that an overnight switch from ropinirole to rotigotine was generally well tolerated without loss of efficacy.
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what is prevnar >65
The pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13 or Prevnar 13®) protects against 13 types of pneumococcal bacteria. CDC recommends PCV13 for use in infants and young children and adults 65 years or older.
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how many mg does it take to overdose on oxycodone
OXYCODONE HCl CONTROLLED-RELEASE 80 mg and 160 mg Tablets, or a single dose greater than 40 mg, ARE FOR USE IN OPIOID-TOLERANT PATIENTS ONLY. A single dose greater than 40 mg, or total daily doses greater than 80 mg, may cause fatal respiratory depression when administered to patients who are not tolerant to the respiratory depressant effects of opioids.
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what medication not to take with lithium
What special precautions should I follow?
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mst drug/?
MST®Continus® 5 mg, 10 mg, 15 mg, 30 mg, 60 mg, 100 mg and 200 mg prolonged release tablets: Morphine sulfate
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what size doses of metformin are available?
Metformin Hydrochloride Tablets, USP ... 500 mg ... 850 mg ... 1000 mg
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pravastatin s9 orange how many "grams?"
No answers
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how long morphine remains in body
Morphine takes longer to work than heroin and the effects tend to last longer. Despite this, blood tests can only detect morphine for the first 12 hours after the last dose, and urine tests only work for up to 3 days. However, saliva tests are more effective, being able to detect traces of morphine for up to 4 days. Again, morphine stays in the hair for 90 days.
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what is the imprint on metoprolol succ., 50 mg
50 mg tablets: White, round, coated tablets debossed with Andrx logo and “831” on one side and scored on the other side.
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what can take the place of tramadol
The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and other pediatric associations and academies have released guidelines on the management of nociceptive pain in children. The top 3 medications’ recommendations in children are paracetamol, ibuprofen, and opioids: non-opioids for mild nociceptive pain; non-opioids + weak opioids for moderate nociceptive pain and non-opioids + strong opioids for severe nociceptive pain. Codeine and tramadol are the only two opioids classified as weak opioids. In most countries, they do not require a restricted medical drug prescription and as “weak” opioids, they are often considered to have a lower potential for adverse drug reactions (ADR) than “strong” opioids.
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how to administer denosumab
Denosumab injection comes as a solution (liquid) to be injected subcutaneously (under the skin) in your upper arm, upper thigh, or stomach area. It is usually injected by a doctor or nurse in a medical office or clinic. Denosumab injection (Prolia) is usually given once every 6 months. When denosumab injection (Xgeva) is used to reduce the risk of fractures from multiple myeloma, or cancer that has spread to the bones, it is usually given once every 4 weeks. When denosumab injection (Xgeva) is used to treat giant cell tumor of bone, or high calcium levels caused by cancer, it is usually given every 7 days for the first three doses (on day 1, day 8, and day 15) and then once every 4 weeks starting 2 weeks after the first three doses. Your doctor will tell you to take supplements of calcium and vitamin D while you are being treated with denosumab injection. Take these supplements exactly as directed. When denosumab injection (Prolia) is used to treat osteoporosis or bone loss, your doctor or pharmacist will give you the manufacturer's patient information sheet (Medication Guide) when you begin treatment with denosumab injection and each time you refill your prescription. Read the information carefully and ask your doctor or pharmacist if you have any questions. You can also visit the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) website (http://www.fda.gov/Drugs/DrugSafety/ucm085729.htm) or the manufacturer's website to obtain the Medication Guide.
Answer the following medication-related question:
what is barbiturates
Barbiturates are sedative-hypnotic drugs that were once commonly used as sedatives or antianxiety medications. A physician must prescribe barbiturates; otherwise, their use is considered illicit. Among their limited uses, barbiturates are used to manage some seizure disorders as well as for pre-procedural sedation. In rarer instances, they are prescribed for the treatment of headache, anxiety and insomnia. However, their use in most areas of medicine has largely been supplanted by other safer medications. Barbiturates are controlled substances due to the potential they pose for abuse, physical dependence, and addiction. Some of the more common barbiturates include Luminal (phenobarbital). Brevital (methohexital). Seconal (secobarbital). Butisol (butabarbital). Fiorinal (butalbital).
Answer the following medication-related question:
what are the inactive ingredients to the pneumonia vaccine
Inactive Ingredients POLYSORBATE 80 … ALUMINUM PHOSPHATE
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how to prep and administer insulin
Humulin R U-100 may be administered by subcutaneous injection in the abdominal wall, the thigh, the gluteal region or in the upper arm. Subcutaneous injection into the abdominal wall ensures a faster absorption than from other injection sites. Injection into a lifted skin fold minimizes the risk of intramuscular injection. Injection sites should be rotated within the same region. As with all insulin, the duration of action will vary according to the dose, injection site, blood flow, temperature, and level of physical activity. Intravenous administration of Humulin R U-100 is possible under medical supervision with close monitoring of blood glucose and potassium levels to avoid hypoglycemia and hypokalemia. For intravenous use, Humulin R U-100 should be used at concentrations from 0.1 unit/mL to 1 unit/mL in infusion systems with the infusion fluids 0.9% sodium chloride using polyvinyl chloride infusion bags.
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what is medical marijuana
Some states have approved "medical marijuana" to ease symptoms of various health problems. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has not approved the marijuana plant as a medicine. However, there have been scientific studies of cannabinoids, the chemicals in marijuana. This has led to two FDA-approved medicines. They contain THC, the active ingredient in marijuana. They treat nausea caused by chemotherapy and increase appetite in patients who have severe weight loss from HIV/AIDS. Scientists are doing more research with marijuana and its ingredients to treat many diseases and conditions.
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clonazepam ".25mg" lowest dosage?
Klonopin Wafers (clonazepam orally disintegrating tablets) are white, round and debossed with the tablet strength … 0.125 mg debossed 1/8 …
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levaquin treat uti?
... Complicated Urinary Tract Infections: ... Acute Pyelonephritis: ... Uncomplicated Urinary Tract Infections
Answer the following medication-related question:
vitamin d 25, totalhow much to takea day
Currently, there’s scientific debate about how much vitamin D people need each day. The Institute of Medicine, in a long-awaited report released on November 30, 2010 recommends tripling the daily vitamin D intake for children and adults in the U.S. and Canada, to 600 IU per day. (7) The report also recognized the safety of vitamin D by increasing the upper limit from 2,000 to 4,000 IU per day, and acknowledged that even at 4,000 IU per day, there was no good evidence of harm. The new guidelines, however, are overly conservative about the recommended intake, and they do not give enough weight to some of the latest science on vitamin D and health. For bone health and chronic disease prevention, many people are likely to need more vitamin D than even these new government guidelines recommend.
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sickness in humans caused formaldehyde on toys from china?
The Uphill Battle to Better Regulate Formaldehyde ... Safety advocates say that tighter restrictions ... are necessary, particularly for products coming from China, where items as varied as toys and Christmas lights have been found to violate American safety standards.
Answer the following medication-related question:
is cyclobenzaprine a benzodiazepine?
Cyclobenzaprine is in a class of medications called skeletal muscle relaxants. It works by acting in the brain and nervous system to allow the muscles to relax. …............ Benzodiazepines (sometimes called "benzos") work to calm or sedate a person, by raising the level of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain. Common benzodiazepines include diazepam (Valium), alprazolam (Xanax), and clonazepam (Klonopin), among others.
Answer the following medication-related question:
what does vitamin d3 do
Vitamin D helps your body absorb calcium. Calcium is one of the main building blocks of bone. A lack of vitamin D can lead to bone diseases such as osteoporosis or rickets. Vitamin D also has a role in your nerve, muscle, and immune systems.
Answer the following medication-related question:
what drugs contain in estrone injection
Estrone, sold under the brand names Estragyn, Kestrin, and Theelin among many others, is an estrogen medication and naturally occurring steroid hormone which has been used in menopausal hormone therapy and for other indications.[5][8][9][10][1][2] It has been available as an aqueous suspension or oil solution that is given by injection into muscle and as a vaginal cream that is applied inside of the vagina.[1][2][3][4] It can also be taken by mouth in the form of estrone sulfate, as in estropipate (piperazine estrone sulfate; Ogen) and conjugated estrogens (Premarin).[11][2][5]
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can i eat after taking rapaflo?
The recommended dose is 8 mg orally once daily with a meal.
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how much levothyroxine is needed to treat hashimotos
If Hashimoto's disease causes thyroid hormone deficiency, you may need replacement therapy with thyroid hormone. This usually involves daily use of the synthetic thyroid hormone levothyroxine (Levoxyl, Synthroid, others). ... Treatment with levothyroxine is usually lifelong, but because the dosage you need may change, your doctor is likely to check your TSH level about every 12 months.
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can i take tea with azithromycin?
tell your doctor and pharmacist what other prescription and nonprescription medications, vitamins, nutritional supplements, and herbal products you are taking or plan to take. Be sure to mention any of the following: anticoagulants ('blood thinners') such as warfarin (Coumadin, Jantoven); cyclosporine (Neoral, Sandimmune); digoxin (Lanoxin); dihydroergotamine (D.H.E. 45, Migranal); ergotamine (Ergomar); medications for irregular heartbeat such as amiodarone (Cordarone, Pacerone), dofetilide (Tikosyn), procainamide (Procanbid), quinidine, and sotalol (Betapace, Sorine); nelfinavir (Viracept); phenytoin (Dilantin); and terfenadine (not available in the U.S.). Your doctor may need to change the doses of your medications or monitor you carefully for side effects. if you are taking antacids containing aluminum hydroxide or magnesium hydroxide (Maalox, Mylanta, Tums, others), you will need to allow some time to pass between when you take a dose of these antacids and when you take a dose of azithromycin tablets or liquid. Ask your doctor or pharmacist how many hours before or after you take azithromycin you may take these medications. The extended-release suspension may be taken at any time with antacids.
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vyvanse 10 what is all in this pill is it safe
Active Ingredient/Active Moiety LISDEXAMFETAMINE DIMESYLATE (UNII: SJT761GEGS) (LISDEXAMFETAMINE - UNII:H645GUL8KJ) LISDEXAMFETAMINE DIMESYLATE 10 mg Inactive Ingredients MICROCRYSTALLINE CELLULOSE (UNII: OP1R32D61U) CROSCARMELLOSE SODIUM (UNII: M28OL1HH48) MAGNESIUM STEARATE (UNII: 70097M6I30) GELATIN, UNSPECIFIED (UNII: 2G86QN327L) TITANIUM DIOXIDE (UNII: 15FIX9V2JP) FD&C BLUE NO. 1 (UNII: H3R47K3TBD) FERROSOFERRIC OXIDE (UNII: XM0M87F357) FERRIC OXIDE YELLOW (UNII: EX438O2MRT) FD&C RED NO. 3 (UNII: PN2ZH5LOQY) FD&C YELLOW NO. 6
Answer the following medication-related question:
vyvanse 10 what is all in this pill is it safe
The following adverse reactions are discussed in greater detail in other sections of the labeling: Known hypersensitivity to amphetamine products or other ingredients of VYVANSE [see CONTRAINDICATIONS (4)] Hypertensive Crisis When Used Concomitantly with Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors [see CONTRAINDICATIONS (4) and DRUG INTERACTIONS (7.1)] Drug Dependence [see BOXED WARNING, WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.1), and DRUG ABUSE AND DEPENDENCE (9.2, 9.3)] Serious Cardiovascular Reactions [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.2)] Blood Pressure and Heart Rate Increases [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.3)] Psychiatric Adverse Reactions [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.4)] Suppression of Growth [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.5)] Peripheral Vasculopathy, including Raynaud's phenomenon [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.6)] Serotonin Syndrome [see WARNINGS AND PRECAUTIONS (5.7)]
Answer the following medication-related question:
what is a high level of troop
TrOOP costs are those prescription costs that can be used to calculate when you exit the Donut Hole or Coverage Gap and enter the Catastrophic Coverage stage of your Medicare Part D Coverage. The 2019 plan year Out-of-Pocket Threshold or maximum TrOOP before exiting the Donut Hole is $5,100.00.
Answer the following medication-related question:
what is in flomax
Active Ingredient/Active Moiety TAMSULOSIN HYDROCHLORIDE (UNII: 11SV1951MR) (tamsulosin - UNII:G3P28OML5I) TAMSULOSIN HYDROCHLORIDE 0.4 mg
Answer the following medication-related question:
what is the class for insulin glargine?
DEA Schedule: None
Answer the following medication-related question:
what medicines raise blood sugar
Some medicines for conditions other than diabetes can raise your blood sugar level. This is a concern when you have diabetes. Make sure every doctor you see knows about all of the medicines, vitamins, or herbal supplements you take. This means anything you take with or without a prescription. Examples include: Barbiturates. Thiazide diuretics. Corticosteroids. Birth control pills (oral contraceptives) and progesterone. Catecholamines. Decongestants that contain beta-adrenergic agents, such as pseudoephedrine. The B vitamin niacin. The risk of high blood sugar from niacin lowers after you have taken it for a few months. The antipsychotic medicine olanzapine (Zyprexa).
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what is metopol tar use
Hypertension Metoprolol tartrate tablets are indicated for the treatment of hypertension. They may be used alone or in combination with other antihypertensive agents. Angina Pectoris Metoprolol tartrate tablets are indicated in the long-term treatment of angina pectoris. Myocardial Infarction Metoprolol tartrate tablets are indicated in the treatment of hemodynamically stable patients with definite or suspected acute myocardial infarction to reduce cardiovascular mortality. Treatment with intravenous metoprolol can be initiated as soon as the patient's clinical condition allows (see DOSAGE AND ADMINISTRATION, CONTRAINDICATIONS, and WARNINGS ). Alternatively, treatment can begin within 3 to 10 days of the acute event (see DOSAGE AND ADMINISTRATION).
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does corticosteroids cause i "insomnia?"
Psychic derangements may appear when corticosteroids are used, ranging from euphoria, insomnia, mood swings, personality changes, and severe depression, to frank psychotic manifestations. Also, existing emotional instability or psychotic tendencies may be aggravated by corticosteroids.
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how reduce cholesterol
A healthy lifestyle is the first defense against high cholesterol. But sometimes diet and exercise aren't enough, and you may need to take cholesterol medications. Cholesterol medications might help
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when is gardasil "contra indicated?"
Hypersensitivity, including severe allergic reactions to yeast (a vaccine component), or after a previous dose of GARDASIL 9 or GARDASIL [see Description (11)].
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what is the classification of cromolyn
DEA Schedule: None
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i take lorazepam, my eyes are blurry, if i stop taking it, will my eyes clear up ?
Withdrawal symptoms (e.g., rebound insomnia) can appear following cessation of recommended doses after as little as one week of therapy. Abrupt discontinuation of product should be avoided and a gradual dosage-tapering schedule followed after extended therapy.
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how to use thymol
Thymol is a phenol obtained from thyme oil or other volatile oils used as a stabilizer in pharmaceutical preparations, and as an antiseptic (antibacterial or antifungal) agent. It was formerly used as a vermifuge.
Answer the following medication-related question:
is zolpidem a drug?
Zolpidem belongs to a class of medications called sedative-hypnotics.
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mercaptopurine can be the cause of elevated bun/ creatinine level?
Causes Of Elevated BUN and Creatinine Levels: ... Chemotherapy drugs such as: Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Carmustine, Mitomycin, high-dose Methotrexate.
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when does skin redness start on fluorouracil
When Fluorouracil 5% Topical Cream is applied to a lesion, a response occurs with the following sequence: erythema, usually followed by vesiculation, desquamation, erosion and reepithelialization.
Answer the following medication-related question:
how many mgs of colchicine is recommended
The dosing regimens for colchicine tablets, USP are different for each indication and must be individualized.
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what tier drug is methylphenidate
DEA Schedule: CII
Answer the following medication-related question:
what is normal saline
physiologic saline solution (physiologic salt solution) (physiologic sodium chloride solution) a 0.9 per cent solution of sodium chloride and water; it is isotonic, i.e., of the same osmotic pressure as blood serum. It is sometimes given intravenously to replace lost sodium and chloride. Excessive quantities may cause edema, elevated blood sodium levels, and loss of potassium from the tissue fluid. Called also normal saline or normal salt solution.
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what is zostavax for?- consider waiting for a new vaccine coming spring of 2018
ZOSTAVAX® is a live attenuated virus vaccine indicated for prevention of herpes zoster (shingles) in individuals 50 years of age and older. Limitations of Use of ZOSTAVAX: ZOSTAVAX is not indicated for the treatment of zoster or postherpetic neuralgia (PHN). ZOSTAVAX is not indicated for prevention of primary varicella infection (Chickenpox).
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what is ciprodex?
Ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone otic is used to treat outer ear infections in adults and children and acute (suddenly occurring) middle ear infections in children with ear tubes. Ciprofloxacin is in a class of medications called quinolone antibiotics. Dexamethasone is in a class of medications called corticosteroids. The combination of ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone works by killing the bacteria that cause infection and reducing swelling in the ear.
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how often can i get a cortisone shot
There's concern that repeated cortisone shots might cause the cartilage within a joint to deteriorate. So doctors typically limit the number of cortisone shots into a joint. In general, you shouldn't get cortisone injections more often than every six weeks and usually not more than three or four times a year.