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Which of the following is not responsible for the generation of Reactive Oxygen Species during Ischemia-Reperfusion Injury?
New damage may be initiated during reoxygenation by increased generation of ROS. Some of the ROS may be generated by injured cells with damaged mitochondria that cannot carry out the complete reduction of oxygen. Cellular anti-oxidant defense mechanisms may be compromised by ischemia, exacerbating the situation.  ROS generated by infiltrating leukocytes also may contribute to the damage of vulnerable injured cells. Activation of the complement system also may contribute to ischemia-reperfusion injury. Complement proteins may bind to the injured tissues, or to antibodies that are deposited in the tissues, and subsequent complement activation generates byproducts that exacerbate the cell injury and inflammation. Robin’s Textbook of pathology 10th edit Page 43-44
4
Incomplete redox reactions by damaged mitochondria
Compromised cellular antioxidant defense mechanisms
Infiltrating leukocytes
Activation of the complement system
Pathology
null
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Cyanotic hea disease with left axis detion is:-
--> Remember, tricuspid atresia is the only cyanotic hea disease with left axis detion. Tricuspid atresia: Congenital absence of Tricuspid valve. Right ventricle is hypoplastic Features: - Left ventricular type of apical impulse - Large 'a' waves in jugular venous pulse - Enlarged liver with presystolic pulsations - ECG : --> Left axis detion & left ventricular hyperophy --> Mean QRS axis is -450 Patients with tricuspid atresia follow a course similar to TOF OTHER OPTIONS: TGA --> Right axis detion Ebstein anomaly --> Himalayan P waves
1
Tricuspid atresia
TGA
TAPVC
Ebstein anomaly
Pediatrics
Other hea diseases in children
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Not true about Chondroblastoma
Treatment is surgical, extended currettage with bone grafting.
4
Chicken wire appearance
CODMAN's tumor
Epiphyseal tumor
Treated by chemotherapy
Orthopaedics
null
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ABE (Acute Bacterial Endocarditis) is most commonly caused by:
Staph. aureus
1
Staph. aureus
Str. Viridans
Str. hemolyticus
Esch. Coli
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following nucleus of Hypothalamus is most closely related to sexual activity in males
A i.e.Preoptic nucleus - Sexual behavior is integrated in anterior-ventral hypothalamusQ; plus piriform coex (in males only) - Ganong - Sexual drive can be stimulated from several areas of hypothalamus, especially the most anterior and most posterior poions of hypothalamusQ (Guyton) - Medial preoptic area (MPOA) or the most anterior poion of hypothalamus is most impoant integrative nucleus involved in sexual behavior regulation of males in all veebratesQ. It integrates the male sexual behavior by receiving all indirect inputs from every sensory organ and sends efferents to structures that are critical for initiation and patterning of copulation. Therefore, stimulation of MPOA enhances sexual activity in males, whereas its damage consistently impairs male sexual behavior. Integrating Areas of Hypothalamus Function Anterior hypothalamus (response to heat), Temprature regulation (anteriorly Posterior hypothalamus (response to cold) hot, posteriorly cold) Suprachiasmatic nuclei Control of circadian body rhythm Punishment centers (esp periventricular zone of hypothalamus adjacent to 3rd ventricle, lateral Defensive reactions (fear, anger, rage, punishment, fighting)= hypothalamus & central grey area of mesencephalon) are stimulatory and ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus, hippocampi, anterior limbic coex (esp anterior cingulate gyri and subcallosal gyri) are inhibitory to fear (punishment) Unpleasant sensation (Aversion) Reward centers locatd along the course of medial Calmness (Placidity, tameness & forebrain bundleQ especially in lateral and ventromedial tranquility) = Pleasant sensation nuclei of hypothalamus are self stimulatory (Reward or satisfaction) Appetitive Behavior Lateral (superior) hypothalamusQ Thirst Lateral hypothalamus activity level Hunger (eating) & increased Venteromedial nucleusQ, arcuate & paraventricular nuclei Satiety (Decreased eating) & tranquility Anterior ventral hypothalamus; most anterior (medial preoptic area=MPOA) & most posterior poions of hypothalamusQ; piriform coex (in males only) Sexual drive Neuroendocrinal control of Preoptic area FSH & LH Gn RH Supraoptic & paraventricular nuclei Vasopressin, Oxytocin Paraventricular nuclei TSH (thyrotropin) TRH ACTH & [3- lipotropin 03-LPH) CRH Paraventricular nucleus and arcuate nucleus GH somatostatin & GRH Arcuate nucleus; (hypothalamus inhibits secretion) Prolactin PIH & PRH Dorsal & posterior hypothalamus Catecholamines
1
Preoptic nucleus
Supraoptic nucleus
Lateral hypothalamic nuclei
Posterior hypothalamic nuclei
Physiology
null
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Growth phase of hair is
A i.e. Anagen
1
Anagen
Metagen
Telogen
None
Skin
null
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True about follicular lymphoma:
Answer- A. Lymphadenopathy is the most common presentationIt is the tumor of germinal centre (follicular centre), B cells, and is strongly associated with chromosomal translocation involving Bcl 2.Growth pattern is nodular (follicular) or nodular (follicular) and diffuse.The neoplastic cells closely resemble normal germinal centre B cells, expressing CD19, CD 20, CD 10, surface Ig, and Bcl 6.In most follicular lymphomas, centrocytes predominate.It usually presents in middle age and affects males and females equal.The most common presentation for follicular lymphoma is with new painless lymphadenopathy.
1
Lymphadenopathy is the most common presentation
BCL-1 positive
CD5 positive
More common in males than females
Pathology
null
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The type of estrogen found in highest concentration in adult female is-
Ans (c) Estradiol(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.406)Naturally occurring estrogens are,Estradiol (E2 ) - predominant estrogen during reproductive yearsEstrone (E1) - predominant estrogen in menopausal womenEstriol (E3) - predominant estrogen in pregnant women
3
Estrone
Estriol
Estradiol
None
Physiology
Endocrinology and Reproduction
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True about translation of protein is
A i.e. It has 3 steps initiation, elongation & termination
1
It has 3 steps initiation, elongation & termination
IF-2 prevent reassociation of ribosomal subunit
IF-3 and 1A cause binding of initiating codon
None
Biochemistry
null
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Which of the following is not seen in testicular carcinoma?
Testicular tumors MC presentation is a nodule or painless swelling of one gonad. 10% patients present with acute pain or manifestation due to secondaries like neck or abdominal masses, GI disturbances, respiratory or CNS symptoms, bone pain or lumbar backache due to nerve roots involvement by bulky retroperitoneal disease Secondary hydrocele is also seen in 5-10% cases 5% GCT may present with gynecomastia as a systemic endocrine manifestation Gynecomastia is more common seen with sex cord or gonadal stromal tumors (Leydig cell tumor, seoli cell tumor, Granulosa cell tumor/Theca cell tumor) Majority (2/3rd) of seminoma are confined to testis at the time of presentation, whereas majority of non-Seminomatous GCT have widespread metastasis at presentation Many patients would present with a history of trauma, but trauma merely draws the attention of the patients and has no etiological association with tumor Any patients with a solid form intra testicular mass must be considered to have testicular tumor unless otherwise proved Bilateral testicular tumors Bilateral testicular tumors are seen in 1-2% cases Primary bilateral testicular tumors have Tendency of same histology on both sides Seminoma is the MC histological finding in bilateral primary testicular tumor, whereas malignant lymphoma is the MC bilateral testicular tumor Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1506
3
Abdominal lump
Epidydimo orchitis
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
Hydrocele
Surgery
Urology
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Suckling mice is used in the isolation of?
Arbovirus REF: Jawetz's, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24th edition cchapter 47. Principles of Diagnostic Medical MicrobiologyRecovery of Arbovirus and detection:Virus isolation attempts require appropriate biosafety precautions to prevent laboratory infections. Virus occurs in the blood only early in the infection, usually before the onset of symptoms. Virus can also be found in cerebrospinal fluid and tissue specimens, depending on the agent. Alpha viruses and flaviviruses are usually able to grow in common cell lines, such as Vero, BHK, HeLa, and MRC-5. Mosquito cell lines are useful. Intra cerebral inoculation of suckling mice or hamsters may also be used for virus isolation.
1
Arbovirus
Herpes virus
Pox virus
HIV
Microbiology
null
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Synaptic potential can be recorded by:
Synaptic potential is recorded with inserting one microelectrode inside cell and one electrode outside the cell.
3
Patch clamp technique
Voltage clamp technique
Microelectrode
EEG
Physiology
null
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Tunica reaction is seen in -
null
3
H. influenzae
Plague
R. mooseri
B. Anthrax
Microbiology
null
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True about neuroblastoma:a) Tumor of autonomic nervous systemb) Metastasis rarely presentc) Earliest detected in late childhoodd) Most common site is Adrenal medulla
Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor of the autonomic nervous system. It is a neuroendocrine tumor, arising from any neural crest element of the sympathetic nervous system. Neuroblastoma is a disease of early childhood with approximately 90% of patients presenting before 5-years of age and almost 50% within the first 2-years of life. In childhood, about 40% of neuroblastomas arise in the adrenal medullae. The remainder occurs anywhere along the sympathetic chain, with the most common locations being the paravertebral region of the abdomen (25%) and posterior mediastinum (15%). Tumors may arise in numerous other sites, including the pelvis and neck and within the brain (cerebral neuroblastomas). It is the second most common solid malignancy of childhood. In young children, under age 2 years, neuroblastomas generally present with large abdominal masses, fever, and possibly weight loss. In older children, they may not come to attention until metastases produce manifestations, such as hone pain, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal complaints. Neuroblastomas may metastasize widely (Present in 60-70%- O.P. Ghai 7th/5990) through the hematogenous and lymphatic systems, particularly to liver, lungs, and bones, in addition to the bone marrow. Proptosis and ecchymosis may also be present because the periorbital region is a common metastatic site. Bladder and bowel dysfunction may be caused by paraspinal neuroblastomas that impinge on nerves. In neonates, disseminated neuroblastomas may present with multiple cutaneous metastases with deep blue discolora­tion to the skin (earning the rather unfortunate designation of "blueberry muffin baby)" About 90% of neuroblastomas, regardless of location, produce catecholamines (similar to the catecholamines associ­ated with pheochromocytomas), which are an important diagnostic feature (i.e., elevated blood levels of catecholamines and elevated urine levels of metabolites, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) Children older than age 5 years usually have extremely poor outcomes irrespective of the stage (Robbins 7th/500-503) NB can present as a paraneoplastic syndrome of autoimmune origin manifesting as ataxia or opsomyoclonus ("dancing eye & dancing feet").
4
b
c
ac
ad
Pediatrics
null
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To initiate transcription RNA polymerase does not require which one of the following:
DNA polymerase can only elongate existing polynucleotide chains, and thus requires a primer. RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis de novo and hence does not require a primer. Ref: Molecular Biology of the Gene Watson, 2004, Page 376 ; Lippincott's Illustrated Q & A Review of Biochemistry by Michael A. Lieberman, Rick Ricer, 2009, Page 294
4
Template (ds DNA)
Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP)
Divalent metal ions (Mn2+, Mg2+)
Primer
Biochemistry
null
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Dense mass of connective tissue seen in endodontically treated teeth called as:
null
4
Periapical cyst
Periapical granuloma
Residual cyst.
Periapical scar.
Pathology
null
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Pulmonary fibrosis is an adverse effect of which of the following anti-cancer drugs?
Anticancer drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis are Bleomycin Busulfan Methotrexate Cyclophosphamide Carmustine
3
Mitomycin C
Hydroxyurea
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
Pharmacology
Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Most common complication after splenectomy is -
null
1
Chest infection
Hematemesis
Subphrenic collection
Acute dilation of stomach
Surgery
null
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A 30-year-old male evaluated for loss of erection is found to have low testosterone and high prolactin level in blood. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pituitary adenomas are most commonest cause of pituitary hormone hypersecretion and hyposecretion syndromes, common in adults. Hyperprolactinemia is the most common pituitary hormone hypersecretion syndrome in both men and women. PRL-secreting pituitary adenomas (prolactinomas) are the most common cause of PRL levels >200microgram/L. Pituitary adenomas are a result of excessive secretion of prolactin, inhibiting hypothalamic release of LHRH resulting in defective LH and FSH secretion. This defective LH and FSH secretion results in decreased levels of estrogen in females and testosterone in males. This is a reason how excessive prolactin can cause hypogonadism. In men with hyperprolactinemia, diminished libido, infeility, and visual loss (from optic nerve compression) are the usual presenting symptoms. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and infeility are the hallmarks of hyperprolactinemia in women. If hyperprolactinemia develops before menarche, primary amenorrhea results. Basal, fasting morning PRL levels (normally <20micrograms/L) should be measured to assess hypersecretion.the diagnosis of prolactinoma is likely with a PRL level >200 micrograms/L. PRL levels <100micrograms/L may be caused by microadenomas. MRI should be performed in all patients with hyperprolactinemia. Dopamine agonists are effective for most causes of hyperprolactinemia. An ergoline derivative, cabergoline is a long-acting dopamine agonist with high D2 receptor affinity. The drug effectively suppresses PRL for >14 days after a single oral dose and induces prolactinoma shrinkage in most patients. The ergot alkaloid bromocriptine mesylate is a dopamine receptor agonist that suppresses prolactin secretion. Indications for surgical adenoma debulking include dopamine resistance or intolerance and the presence of an invasive macroadenoma with compromised vision that fails to improve after drug treatment. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 2880, 2887-2890, 3051, 3389, 2897-2899
2
Testicular dysgenesis
Pituitary adenoma
Craniopharyngioma
Cushing's syndrome
Medicine
null
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All are true statement about filaria except -
- Man is the definitive host and mosquito the intermediate host in Bancroftian and Brugian filariasis. - Adults live in the lymphatic system of host. - The female worms in humans may give bih to as many as 50,000 microfilaria per day.No multiplication in the mosquito. - the extrinsic incubation period is 10-14 days . Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition pg no:271 <\p>
2
Extrinsic incubation period of 10-14 days
Man is the intermediate host
Adults live in the lymphatics of host
No multiplication in the mosquito
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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Congenital dacrocystitis, the block is at?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nasolacrimal duct Congenital dacryocystitis (Dacryocvstitis neonatorum) It is the inflammation of lacrimal sac in the newborn. It is due to congenital blockage of nasolacrimal duct. Congenital dacryocystitis usually presents as a mild grade chronic inflammation. It is characterized by :? Epiphora develops after seven days of bih followed by mucopurulent discharge. Regurgitation of mucopurulent discharge on pressure over the sac area, i.e.,positive regurgitation test Swelling over the sac area Treatment includes :? Massage over lacrimal sac with topical antibiotics:- Cures obstruction in about 90% of infants spontaneous recanalization of obstructed nasolacrimal duct can occur upto 9 months. Lacrimal syringing:- Syringing with normal saline and antibiotic solution is performed if the condition is not cured up to the age of 9-12 months. Probing of nasolacrimal duct:- It is performed if the condition is not cured by 1-12 months Intubation with silicon tube Dacryocystorhinostomy:- It is performed if the child is brought very late or above described procedures fail.
2
Lacrimal calnaliculi
Nasolacrimal duct
Punctum
None
Ophthalmology
null
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Which of the following is false about Botulism?
Ans. is 'c' i.e.. It is an infection and not intoxication Botulismo It is a form of food poisoning.o Botulinum toxin is a potent neurotoxic protein. It paralyses the nerve endings by blocking the nerve impulses at the myoneural junction. It blocks the action of acetylcholine,o Botulism is an intoxication, not an infection. Clostridium botulinum organism does not grow in the body.o The causative organism is Cl. botulinum. It multiplies in food (sausages, tinned meat) before it is consumed, and produces a powerful exotoxin under suitable anaerobic conditions.
3
It is a type food poisoning
Botulinum toxin is a potent neurotoxin
It is an infection and not intoxication
The causative organism is Clostridium botulinum
Microbiology
Bacteria
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Aboifacient causing ototoxicity is :
Quinine
2
Lead
Quinine
Mercury
Ergot
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Common pathological changes seen in kidney in benign hypertension are -
null
3
Fibrinoid necrosis
Microaneurysm
Hyaline arteriosclerosis
Thining of walls
Medicine
null
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All constitutes Berlin definition of acute respiratory distress syndrome :-except
Berlin definition of acute respiratory distress syndrome comprises-- Timing - within 1 week of known clinical insult Chest imaging - Bilateral opacities - not fully explained by effusions collapse Origin of edema - Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. Oxygenation Mild - 200<PaO2 / FiO2 < 300 with PEEP or CPAP > 5cm H2O Moderate - 100 < PaO2 / FiO2 < 200 with PEEEP > 5 cm H2O Severe - PaO2 / FiO2 <100 with PEEP > 5 cm H2O
4
A known clinical insult within 1 week
Bilateral opacities in chest - x ray
Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload
Pulmonary aery end diastolic pressure less than 18 mm ng
Anaesthesia
Modes of Ventilation
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Cervical was are seen with which HPV
Cervical was are seen with HPV type 6,11 which are of low oncogenic potential and HPV type 16,18 which are of high oncogenic potential. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 287
2
11,13
6,11
17,18
5,8
Dental
Sexually transmitted diseases
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Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia with increased urobilinogen is seen in
.
1
Hemolytic anemia
Liver cirrhosis
Bile duct obstruction
Sclerosing Cholangitis
Pathology
All India exam
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Characteristic adverse effect of quinidine includes:
null
2
Lupus erythematosis
Cinchonism
increase in digoxin clearance
Precipitation of hyperthyroidism
Pharmacology
null
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Features of arboviral infection:
Ans: c) High titre.... Ref: Microbiolgy, Green wood 17th edArbo virus induce high titresof viremia in susceptible vertebrates 1-4 days after parentral inoculation or following bites by infected arthropods. Viremia persists fupto & serves as a source of infective blood meals for other biting arthropods.
3
Low titre & prolonged viremia
Low titre & transient viremia
High titre & prolonged viemia
High titre & transient viremia
Microbiology
Virology
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Which of the following receptors mediate stretch reflex:
Muscle spindle are distributed throughout the belly of muscle & send information to Nervous system about (i) Muscle length (ii) Rate of change of muscle length Golgi tendon organ is located in muscle tendons transmits information about (i) Tendon tension (ii) Rate of change of Tendon tension Muscle stretch | Intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles stretched | Signal from muscle spindles receptor Ia afferents | Enter spinal cord & end on a motor neuron | a motor neuron carries efferent to extrafusal fibers | Brief contraction = stretch reflex (Monosynaptic) MEISNER CORPUSCLE - Present in non-hairy pas of skin (Finger tips, lips etc.) and other areas where ability to discern spatial locations of touch sensation are highly developed - They adapt in fraction of a second after stimulation hence are paicularly sensitive to movement of objects over skin surface as well as low frequency vibrations MERKELS DISC - Expanded tip tactile receptors - Transmit an initially strong but paially adapting similar then continuing weaker signal that adapt slowly - Determine continuous touch of objects against skin
3
Golgi tendon organ
Merkel's disc
Muscle spindle
Meissner's corpuscles
Physiology
FMGE 2018
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Which of the following incision used in diaphragm surgery is safest
Circumferential is the safest as it prevents injury to phrenic nerve to maintain the function of the diaphragm
3
Horizontal
Veical
Circumferential
Transverse
Surgery
G.I.T
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A 3-year-old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of Bronchial asthma. Diagnosis should be –
In this question:- The child is 3 years old History of Asthma in mother Extensor involvement First two points suggest the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis (childhood pattern). About third point (extensor involvement) :- "Though childhood atopic dermatitis mainly involves flexural parts, less commonly extensor surfaces may also be involved". Further, you can easily rule out other three options:- Contact dermatitis The family history of asthma is not important. No history of contact to an allergen. Seborrheic dermatitis Occurs in adults and less frequently in infants but not in children. Infantile eczematous dermatitis Occurs in Infant.
1
Atopic dermatitis
Contact dermatitis
Seborrhic dermatitis
Infantile eczematous dermatitis
Dental
null
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Fungus causing otomycosis most commonly is
Otomycosis Otomycosis is a fungal infection of the ear canal that often occurs due to Aspergillus niger, A. fumigatus( niger > fumigatus) or Candida albicans. It is seen in hot and humid climate of tropical and subtropical countries. Secondary fungal growth is also seen in patients using topical antibiotics for treatment of otitis externa or middle ear suppuration. clinical features: include intense itching, discomfo or pain in the ear, watery discharge with a musty odour and ear blockage. The fungal mass may appear white, brown or black and has been likened to a wet piece of filter paper. Examined with an otoscope: A. niger appears as black- headed filamentous growth, A. fumigatus as pale blue or green and Candida as white or creamy deposit. Meatal skin appears sodden, red and oedematous. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-52
2
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus niger
Candida
Mucor
ENT
Ear
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Ibalizumab was approved by FDA in 2018 April for
Ibalizumab was approved for HIV in 2018 Ibalizumab belongs to a new class of HIV drugs called post-attachment inhibitors. Post-attachment inhibitors work by attaching to the CD4 receptor on the surface of the immune cells. When ibalizumab attaches to the CD4 receptor, HIV cannot attach to, enter, or infect the cell. Ref - Harrisons 203 pg 1457 , pubmed.com
1
HIV
TB
Leprosy
Malaria
Medicine
Infection
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Mamillary body receive afferent fibers
Mammillary body receive afferent fibers Fornix C - shaped bundle of nerve fibers which acts as major output tract of hippocampus They are association fibers(connects one brain center to another) It is pa of limbic system (Papez circuit) Papez circuit - for memory consolidation, emotions & behavior
4
Corpus callosum
Thalamus
Pituitary gland
Fornix
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy 1
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Contraindications for oral contraceptive are following except :
More than 30 years old
4
Hea disease
Epileptic patient
Migraine
More than 30 years old
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
A 3 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the retrornolar trigone and invading the mandible and the medial pterygoid muscle is at what TNM stage:
null
4
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Pathology
null
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You have checked the blood oestradiol levels of your patient and it comes as 150 pg/ml. The woman is LEAST likely to be in which phase of menstrual cycle?
The normal oestradiol and progesterone levels during menstrual cycle is given below Oestradiol Follicular phase 30 - 200 pg/ml Ovulation phase 200 - 600 pg/ml Luteal phase 30 - 200 pg/ml Progestrone Follicular phase 0.06 - 3 mg/ml Luteal phase 4.5 - 20 pg/ml Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 43.
2
Follicular
Ovulation
Luteal
None
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Taxidermy is:-
Taxidermy Process of preparing dead bodies for the purpose of anatomy dissections by injecting solutions of arsenic sulphide or oxide, lead sulphide, potassium carbonate with or without into the femoral and other big aeries.
4
Process of dissection of poisoning deaths
Process of digging the body out
Study of effects of poisons on individual organs
Process of preparing the body for anatomical dissections
Forensic Medicine
Thanatology
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Small intestinal peristalsis is controlled by :
Myenteric (Auerbach&;s) plexus is situated b/w and innervates outer longitudinal & middle circular muscular layers and is primarily concerned with motor controlQ. Submucosal (meissner&;s) plexus situated between middle circular layer and mucosa is primarly concerned with control of intestinal secretionQ as it innervates glandular epithelium, intestinal endocrine cells & submucosal blood vessels. Ref: Guyton 12th Ed.
1
Myentric plexus
Meissners plexus
Vagus nerve
Para sympathetic system
Physiology
All India exam
943329a2-0b3d-4789-b58f-0809808fd25d
multi
Teduglutide is a recently introduced drug for Sho Bowel Syndrome- What is it
Teduglutide: GLP-2 Analogue:- * Randomized controlled trials have shown that teduglutide, a GLP-2 analogue that is resistant to degradation by the proteolytic enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase 4 and therefore has a longer half-life than GLP-2, is well tolerated and has led to the restoration of intestinal functional and structural integrity through significant intestinotrophic and pro absorptive effects. Ref:- Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition; Pg num:- 425
4
GLP antagonist
Somatostatin analogue
H1 blocker
GLP- 2 analogue
Surgery
G.I.T
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single
Paranoid delusions are a/w use of:
A i.e. Cocaine Marijuana (cannabis, THC) causes perception of relaxation, mild euphoria, impairs thinking, concentration, perception and psychomotor functions. Most common physical effcts of cannabis are dilation of conjunctival blood vessels (red eye) or conjunctival injection, and tachycardia > increased appetite (the munchies) and drymouthQ. At high doses ohostatic hypotension may appear. Cannabis intoxication commonly heightens users sensitivity to external stimuli, reveals new details, make colors seem brighter and richer than in the past, and subjectively slows the appreciation of timeQ. In high doses it produces depersonalization and derealization. Motor skills are impaired (interfering with the operation of motor vehicle and heavy machinery) remains for 8-12 hrs after euphoriant effects have resolved. If intact reality testing is not present, the diagnosis is cannabis induced psychotic disorder. It is rare; transient paranoid ideation (delusional belief) is more commonQ. The psychotic episodes are k/a hemp insanity (Kaplan -419) Persons use cocaine for its characteristic effects of elation, euphoria, heightened self esteem and perceived improvement on mental and physical tasks. With high doses, features of intoxication include agitation, irritability, impaired judgement, impulsive & potentially dangerous sexual behavior, aggression , a generalized increase in psychomotor activity and symptoms of mania, with tachycardia, hypeension and mydriasis. Paranoid delusions and hallucinations can occur in upto 50% of all persons who use cocainQ. Cocaine induced psychotic disorders are most common in IV and crack users (men > women). Paranoid delusions are the most common psychotic symptomsQ. Auditory hallucinations are also common, but visual and tactile hallucinations (formication = sensation of bugs crawling just beneath the skin) are less common than paranoid delusions.
1
Cocaine
Heroine
Cannabis
GHB
Psychiatry
null
0483f306-7ada-4ac3-acfa-c2a5cafe46ec
single
A 55 years aged chronic alcoholic male, presented with irrelevant talks, tremor and sweating. He had his last drink 3 days back. What will the probable diagnosis?
The description of symptoms is related to the condition "Delirium Tremens" * Delirium Tremens / Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium (AWD): * Most severe form of ethanol withdrawal manifested by, # Altered mental status (Global confusion) # Autonomic hyperactivity (Sympathetic overdrive) * Mechanism: * Alcohol abuse affects neurotransmitter systems in brain mainly by, # Loss of GABA inhibitory mechanism - Reduces chloride ion influx. # Alcohol acts as NMDA receptor antagonist - Withdrawal increases the excitatory neurotransmitter. * The clinical manifestations of ethanol withdrawal are combination effects of GABA & NMDA receptor activity. * Thus causing tremors, diaphoresis, tachycardia, anxiety & in severe cases Seizure. REF: DAVIDSONS 10TH ED
1
Delirium tremens
Korsakoff psychosis
Post-Acute withdrawal syndrome
Discontinuation syndrome
Psychiatry
All India exam
03b074f0-f73a-4115-a239-7eb37e0a81c8
single
Internal hordeolum is due to inflammation of-
Internal hordeolum It is suppurative inflammation of the meibomian gland which is associated with blockage of the duct. C/F: acute severe pain and swelling of eye lid away from the margin, mild watering and photophobia The pain is more intense in internal than external hordeolum, due to the swelling being embedded deeply in the dense fibrous tissue. External hordeolum- It is an acute suppurative inflammation of lash follicle and its associated glands of Zeis or Moll.
2
Zeis gland
Meibomian glands
Moll's gland
Lacrimal gland
Anatomy
FMGE 2019
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single
Mousy odour urine is seen in
Mousy order urine is seen in phenylketonuria due to the presence of excessive phenylalanine and its metabolites.Mousy body odour is also present due to the excretion of phenyl lactic acid,its metabolite through sweat. Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no:652.
2
Maple syrup urine
Phenylketonuria
Isovalericacidria
Cystinuria
Pediatrics
Metabolic disorders
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single
Sodium Thiopentone is ultra short acting d/t –
All iv inducing agent has rapid redistribution, therefore reversal occurs very early.
3
Rapid absorption
Rapid metabolism
Rapid redistribution
Rapid excretion
Anaesthesia
null
c938bdef-33fd-49c8-bc6a-a8630263a101
single
Which of the following statements is false
It is impoant to recognize that hypoxia in tumours can result from two quite different mechanisms. Chronic hypoxia results from the limited diffusion distance of oxygen through tissue that is respiring. The distance to which oxygen can diffuse is largely limited by the rapid rate at which it is metabolized by respiring tumour cells. Many tumour cells may remain hypoxic for long periods of time. In contrast to chronic hypoxia, acute hypoxia is the result of the temporary closing of a tumour blood vessel owing to the malformed vasculature of a tumour, which lacks smooth muscle and often has an incomplete endothelial lining and basement membrane. Tumor cells are exposed to a continuum of oxygen concentrations, ranging from the highest in cells surrounding the capillaries to almost anoxic conditions in cells more distant from the capillaries. This is significant because both chronic and acute hypoxia has been shown to drive malignant progression.Reference: Eric J Hall Textbook of Radiobiology for Radiologist; 5th edition
4
Hypoxia in tumours can result from two different mechanisms: chronic hypoxia and acute hypoxia
Acute hypoxia is caused by a temporary closing of a blood vessel in the tumour
Chronic hypoxia is caused by the limited diffusion distance of oxygen through tissue that is respiring
Oxygen does not affect the radiosensitivity of tumours
Radiology
Radiotherapy
01dfa21f-3221-422e-a229-4d6c887dbea7
multi
Primary Amenorrhea:a) Absence of Menarche by 14 Years without secondary sexual charactersb) Absence of Menarche by 16 Yrs with secondary sexual charactersc) Absence of secondary sexual characters by Yrsd) Endometriosis
Primary amenorrhea is a condition when a female has not attained menarche by the age of 14 years in the absence of growth or development of secondary sexual characteristics. OR No menarche by the age of 16 years regardless of the presence of normal growth and development of secondary sexual characteristics.
2
ac
ab
ad
bc
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e523d9cd-554c-4366-8701-7494f9c6ec51
single
the above marked structures are seen in all except ?
GAMMA GANDY BODIES WERE SEEN IN SICKLE CELL ANEMIA ,CML AND CIRRHOSIS .THEY ARE DEPOSITS IN CONGESTIVE SPLEENOMEGALY WHICH CONTAINS : IRON +CALCIUM + FIBROUS TISSUE OF SPLEEN Sickle Cell Anemia 1) Single nucleotide substitution ("point mutation") in the gene for the beta chain of hemoglobin. 2) Different amino acid gets placed in the peptide chain.. 3) Beta chain synthesized from the sickle-cell allele does not "fold" correctly and hempglobin molecules "clump" together forming a red blood cell that resembles a sickle. 4) Sickled cells die early (10-20 days vs. 120 days) producing anemia. 5) Sickled cells clog the fine capillaries, leading to lack of oxygen in target organs. * A blood test can check for hemoglobin S -- the defective form of hemoglobin that underlies sickle cell anemia. In the United States, this blood test is pa of routine newborn screening done at the hospital. But older children and adults can be tested, too. * In adults, a blood sample is drawn from a vein in the arm. In young children and babies, the blood sample is usually collected from a finger or heel. If the screening test is negative, there is no sickle cell gene present. If the screening test is positive, fuher tests will be done to determine whether one or two sickle cell genes are present. Check for a low red blood cell count (anemia) will be done. REF: ROBBINS 10TH ED
1
thalasemia
sickle cell anemia
liver cirrhosis
CML
Pathology
All India exam
63c98e48-710a-4892-ac7d-d0689b2516c6
multi
All of the following are true about Rett's disease, Except :
Rett's disease is more common in females.
4
Regression of milestones occur after 5 months
Microcephaly is seen
Mental retardation is present
More common in males
Psychiatry
null
e7a5aa6e-aaf3-4533-b3ca-cfe670afd59e
multi
Which of the following is the new drug for the treatment of multi drug resistant tuberculosis
Refer Harrison 19th/p1115 Bedaquline is a new drug approved for MDT tuberculosis. It acts by inhibiting ATP synthatase in mycobacterium . Major adverse effects of this drug is "QT prolongation
1
Bedaquline
Linezolide
Levofloxacin
Cefepime
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
d279f427-2847-4789-9794-e8cc1f1f74ee
single
A 40 year old patient has undergone an open chlecystectomy. The procedure was reported as uneventful by the operating surgeon. She has 100 ml of bile output from the drain kept in the gallbladder bed on the first post operative day. On examination she is afebrile and anicteric. The abdomen is soft and bowel sounds are normally heard. As an attending physician. What should be your best possible advice?
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Clinical observation 100 ml. of Bile output from the patient on the 1st postop. day without any other abnormality is of no clinical significance, so does not warrant any action from the surgeon. But remember if passing of 100 ml of bile continues for 5-6 days then it is considered abnormal. It denotes bile duct injury.Oxford textbook of Surgery writes - "Even after a straightforward cholecystectomy there may be a little bile in the drain the following day."Textbook of Liver and Biliary Surgery writes - "A small amount of biliary> drainage following cholecystectomy should cause no alarm because it usually disappears within 1 or 2 days. However, excessive biliary drainage through the wound or drain site, jaundice, sepsis, or a combination of these events early in the post op. period should suggest a bile duct injury, as should copious biliary drainage for more than a few post-op days".
4
Order an urgent endoscopic retrograde cholangiography and biliary stenting
Urgent laparotomy
Order an urgent hepatic iminodiacetic acid scintigraphy (HIDA)
Clinical observation
Surgery
Procedures - Cholecystectomy, Bile Duct Exploration, Store Extraction
4eeadd01-3c6f-4be7-a3d2-526dab3df298
multi
True regarding osteosarcoma is -
Osteosarcoma arises from primitive bone forming cells. Sunray appearance and Codman's triangle indicate periosteal new bone formation. Osteosarcoma occurs in childhood or young adult (10-25 years). Blood metastasis is most common (not lymphatic).
2
Occurs because of proliferation of osteoclasts
Sunray appearance in X-ray indicates new bone formation
Affects mainly males in 5th or 6th decade
Lymphtic metastasis is most common
Orthopaedics
null
3ce7990d-a16a-4d3b-91f0-742917882f12
multi
Which of the following infection is transmitted through rat urine?
Humans are infected when the leptospires in water contaminated by the urine of carrier animals (rats, dogs, cattle, and pigs), enters the body through cuts or abrasions on the skin / through intact mucosa of mouth, nose or conjunctiva. The incubation period is 2-20 days. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment 2012, Chapter 34 ; Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan and Panicker, 8th Edition, Pages 381-383
4
Listeria
Legionella
Mycoplasma
Leptospira
Microbiology
null
2f0512d9-4bd7-4411-a67f-461d2015badd
single
Late deceleration indicates :
Ans. is c i.e. Fetal hypoxia
3
Head compression
Cord compression
Fetal hypoxia
Breech presentation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
9ae0baf4-956b-4d89-9055-6cc430891d16
single
Best indicator for growth measurement is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Weight o Measurement of weight and rate of gain in weight are the best single parameters for assessing physical growth.
2
Height
Weight
Arm circumference
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e565d7b4-4cca-40fa-9ab9-28b5130cf343
multi
Pulmonary eosinophilic pneumonia associated witha) Loeffler syndromeb) Cystic fibrosisc) Churg strauss syndromed) Hypersensitivity pneumonitise) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
null
4
acd
bde
cde
ace
Medicine
null
48fddb5f-ecbc-409a-a35d-ad96a14dfaf5
multi
zone which is absent when repair is done with MTA as compared to calcium hydroxide:
Zones formed with calcium hydroxide (CH) pulp therapy from below CH to normal pulp are: Zone of liquefactive necrosis Zone of coagulative necrosis Inflammatory response Hard tissue barrier with vascular inclusions. The necrosis with pure CH is due to its high PH. But dycal which is a hard setting CH formulation forms hard tissue barrier without causing necrosis. Zones formed with MTA pulp therapy Very narrow or even absent coagulative necrosis Reparative dentinogenesis zone resulting in dentin bridge with fewer vascular inclusion (high quality). MTA is a biocompatible material. The excellent bacteria-tight seal accounts for the success with MTA.
2
Zone of calcification
Zone of necrosis
Zone of vascular inclusion
None of the zone is absent
Dental
null
a8f061ee-05bb-4bd6-944a-165b1c2edd47
multi
The characteristics of polio vaccine are all except-
null
2
Maintenance of cold chain
100 % immunisation
Killed vaccine is effective in India
5 doses of OPV given
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ba3ab86e-337b-4efe-a3f2-600b622a1f1f
multi
Major bacterial enzyme responsible for putrefaction?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lecithinase Putrefaction Produced mainly by the action of bacterial enzymes (lecithinase -- Cl. welchii) Anaerobic organism (from bowels) Causing marked hemolysis and liquefaction in blood vessels and tissue spaces, thus producing following effects Color changes : greenish discoloration in right iliac fossa abdomen --> genitalia -4 chest --> neck --> face - arms -4 legs. Superficial veins over the root of the limbs, thighs, sides of abdomen, shoulder, chest and neck are stained greenish-brown or purplish-red, marbled appearance in 36 to 48 hours (marbling). Foul-smelling and breakdown of proteins and carbohydrates. Gases produced : CO2 + NH3 + CH4 mercaptans + mercaptans (noninflammable) + H2S (inflammable). Gas bubbles cause crepitation and give spongelike feeling. Blood-stained froth from mouth and nostrils is called postmoem purge. Distension of body 36 to 48 hours Anus and uterus prolapse : 2 to 3 days PM blisters, face distroted : more than 3 days Nail, skull sutures, and hair loss : more than 5 days Skin shows slippage, comes off in glove and stocking fashion. Postmoem luminescence due to : Photobacterium fischeri bacteria and Armillaria mellea fungi.
2
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
Metalloproteinase
Collagenase
Forensic Medicine
null
803250f9-a008-429c-9166-1ca8a99e7715
multi
In a healthy adult scheduled for an elective operation, solid food shoulder be withheld for at least .......... hours before surgery
Nil by mouth and regular medications Patients are advised not to take solids within 6 hours and clear fluids (isotonic drinks and water) within 2 hours before anaesthesia to avoid the risk of acid aspiration syndrome. These restrictions are fuher reduced in infants, as keeping hydrated reduces discomfo and is known to improve post- operative outcomes. If the surgery is delayed, oral intake of clear fluids should be allowed until 2 hours before surgery or intravenous fluids should be staed, especially in vulnerable groups of patients, e.g. children, the elderly and diabetics. Patients can continue to take their specified routine medications with sips of water in the NBM period. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 259
3
2
4
6
8
Surgery
Urology
dcabb8fa-9636-4e9c-bc67-6764d8fc49ca
single
Duodenal ulcer, true statement is -
Answer- A. Never MalignantDuodenal ulcer is more common in persons with blood group'O', i.e., containing no AB antigens with blood group'O" i'e"containing no AB antigens.Bleeding is more common in duodenal ulcer than in gastric ulcer.
1
Never Malignant
Most-common site is IInd pa
Common in blood group AB
GI bleed not seen
Surgery
null
8f8447c6-dec4-488f-b6a9-78cc4e9707bc
multi
Recurrent laryngeal nerve supply all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx EXCEPT
C. i.e. (Cricothyroid) (260, 275 - Dhingra 4th)MUSCLES OF LARYNXINTRINSIC MUSCLES EXTRINSIC MUSCLES(a) Acting on vocal cords* Abductors - Posterior cricoarytenoids* Adductors - Lateral cricoarytenoid* Interarytenoid (Transverse arytenoids)* Thyro arytenoids (external part)* Tensors - Cricothyroid vocalis (Internal part of thyroarytenoid)(b) Acting on laryngeal inletOpeners of laryngeal inletThyroepiglotticClossers of the laryngeal inletInter arytenoids Aryepiglottic(a) Elevators - stylopharyngeus(Primary)- Salpingopharyngeous- Palatopharyngeus- Thyrohyoid(Secondary)- Mylohyoid- Digastric- Stylohyoid- Geniohyoid(b) Depressors- Sternohyoid- Sternothyroid- Omohyoid* All the muscles of the larynx which move the vocal cord (Abductors, adductors or tensors) are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT the cricothyroid muscle*** Cricothyroid is supplied by external laryngeal nerve - a branch of superior laryngeal nerve*** Topical mitomycin C is useful to aid in the treatment of surgery for laryngotracheal stenosis***
3
Thyroepiglottic
Posterior cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
Thyroarytenoid
ENT
Larynx
ad2a2769-b27e-4baf-91b4-8498e7f023f0
multi
Which of the following is true regarding IUGR baby is
Usually head circumference is more than abdomen circumference in intrauterine growth retardation babies Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
2
IVH common
Head circumference 3cm more than chest circumference
Hypothermia is rare as shivering thermogenesis is good
Fatty liver
Pediatrics
New born infants
58cc28d4-7868-42b1-9341-af829ab0789e
multi
Epidemiology of cholera in England was clasified by
An english epidemiologist John Snow studied the epidemiology of cholera in London from 1848 to 1854. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition
1
John Snow
Winslow
Chadwick
Howard huges
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
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single
The mechanism by which most fungi cause disease is:
Hypersensitivity Diseases  Humans are continually exposed to air-borne fungal spores and other fungal elements present in the environment. These spores can be antigenic stimulants and depending on individual's immunological status may induce a state of hypersensitivity by production of immunoglobulins or sensitized lymphocytes. Rhinitis, bronchial asthma, alveolitis, and various forms of atopy are the clinical manifestations of hypersensitive pneumonitis. The clinical manifestations of the hypersensitivity disease are seen only in sensitized person, after repeated exposure to the fungus, fungal metabolites, or other cross-reactive materials. Allergies to the fungal spores are manifested primarily by an asthmatic reaction including rapid bronchial constriction mediated by IgE, eosinophilia, and positive hypersensitivity skin test reaction. These are caused due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions of the host to fungal spores.  Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:595
3
Exotoxin production
Lecithinase production
Hypersensitivity
Coagulase production
Microbiology
null
2ff5bd36-b0df-4848-8571-4b5895210bf4
single
Vascular invasion is a characteristic feature of
Mucormycosis occurs as a systemic infection following dissemination from a primary focus in the upper respiratory tract or nasal cavity. When the lung is the primary site of infection the fungi may invade the aeries to cause thrombosis and infraction. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition
2
Candidiasis
Mucormycosis
Blastomycosis
Sporotrichosis
Microbiology
mycology
adb5c70c-f849-4eae-a8a1-8089c09c4857
single
A female patient with breast cancer presenting with altered sensorium. The following MRI suggests:
The epidemiology of limbic encephalitis mimics that of the underlying malignancy. Tumours which can result in limbic encephalitis include: small cell carcinoma of the lung (classic cause); testicular germ cell tumors; thymic tumours; breast cancer; ovarian carcinoma; haematologic malignancies; gastrointestinal malignancie Clinical presentation: Clinical presentation typically causes sho-term memory loss and mental status changes. Seizures and psychosis have also been repoed . Radiographic features: MRI: High T2 signal without enhancement. Appearance is similar to herpes simplex encephalitis, and changes are most evident in the mesial temporal lobes. Bilateral involvement is most common (60%). PET scan: Can show increased FDG uptake . Differential diagnosis: Herpes simplex encephalitis - acute time course, presence of fever.
3
Herpes simplex encephalitis
Gliomatosis cerebri
Limbic encephalitis
Metastasis
Radiology
Neuroradiology
c7f62e20-ba8f-45f3-a977-10983f10b0d2
single
Laundosine is a toxic metabolite of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Atracurium Atracuriumo The unique feature of atracurium is inactivation in plasma by spontaneous nonenzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) in addition to that by alkaline ester hydrolysis.o Consequently its duration of action is not altered in patients with hepatic / renal insufficiency or hypodynamic circulation - Preferred muscle relaxant for such patients as well as for neonates and the elderly.o Atracurium is metabolised to laudanosine that is responsible for seizures,o It can cause histamine release - Hypotension & bronchoconstriction.
1
Atracurium
Pancuronium
Mivacurium
Vecuronium
Anaesthesia
Non-depolarising Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
a64f2b73-868d-4185-bcb3-45b40694c4b4
single
Normal paogram include the following except :
Cervical dilatation in X - axis
1
Cervical dilatation in X - axis
Descent of head in Y - axis
Sigmoid shaped curve
Ale line followed 4 hours later by action line
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
7cc9fbe7-d69d-46f0-9add-dbdd67e7aa54
multi
Antigenic variation seen in which of the following -
a unique feature of influenza virus ability to undergo antigenic variation REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.499
1
Influenza virus
Hepatitis virus
Yellow fever virus
Leptospira
Microbiology
Virology
19eef0de-9909-4c29-a97e-721c0f18f755
single
A pregnant female infected with Rubella. Which of the following immunoglobulin is produced by in-utero infection?
IgM is the main immunoglobulin produced early in the primary immune response. IgM is present on the surface of viually all uncommitted B cells. It is the most efficient immunoglobulin in agglutination, complement fixation, and other antigen-antibody reactions and is impoant also in defense against bacteria and viruses. It can be produced by a fetus undergoing an infection. As it is not transpoed across the placenta, the presence of IgM in the fetus or newborn indicates intrauterine infection and its detection is useful in the diagnosis of congenital infections such as syphilis, rubella, HIV infection. Since its interaction with antigen can involve all ten binding sites, it has the highest avidity of all immunoglobulins. Ref: Brooks G.F., Carroll K.C., Butel J.S., Morse S.A., Mietzneron T.A. (2010). Chapter 8. Immunology. In G.F. Brooks, K.C. Carroll, J.S. Butel, S.A. Morse, T.A. Mietzneron (Eds), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 25e.
3
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
Microbiology
null
32148ee8-1826-416d-a78d-a82f419abbcf
single
Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy are-a) amyloidb) sarcoidosisc) Viral myopathyd) Alcohole) Storage disease
Acute viral myocarditis, alcohol abuse, pregnancy., thyroid disease, cocaine use, and chronic uncontrolled tachycardia cause dilated cardiomyopathy- Harrison 17th/l481 Restrictive Cardiomyopathies (RCMs) - Harrison 17th/1485-86 The hallmark ofthe restrictive cardiomyopathies (RCMs) is abnormal diastolic function ; the ventricular wails are excessively rigid and impede ventricular filling. In late stages systolic function is also impaired. Myocardial fibrosis- livpertropby. or infiltration due to a variety of causes is responsible. Myocardial involvement with amyloid1 is a common cause of secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy although restriction is also seen in the transplanted heart, in hemochromatosis, glycogen depositiong, endomyocardial fibrosis, sarcoidosis , hypereosinopbillc disease., and scleroderma; following mediastinal irradiation; and in neoplastic infiltration and myocardial fibrosis of diverse causes. In many of these conditions, particularly those with substantial concomitant endocardial involvement, partial obliteration of the ventricular cavity by fibrous tissue and thrombus contributes to the abnormally increased resistance to ventricular filling. Thromboembolic complications are frequent in such patients The inability" of the ventricles to fill limits cardiac output and raises filling pressures; thus, exercise intolerance and dyspnea are usually prominent. As a result of persistently elevated systemic venous pressure, these patients commonly have dependent edema, ascites, and an enlarged, tender, and often pulsatile liver . The jugular venous pressure is elevated and does not fall normally (or may rise) with inspiration (KussmauTssignf
1
abe
bcd
cde
acd
Pathology
null
2d6b922a-802f-4c9a-b881-633108973942
single
The commonly used laser for curing composite resin is
null
4
Nd:YAG
CO2
ER:YAG
Argon
Dental
null
c9f1796b-cd9a-4d88-be3e-672d6a0ad497
single
Salmon patch is seen in –
Salman patch appearance of cornea is seen in Interstitial Keratitis. Salman patches on retina is seen in non-proliferative sickle cell retinopathy.
1
Interstitial keratitis
Disciform keratitis
Acne rosacea
Phlyctenular keratitis
Ophthalmology
null
3640cfba-4212-4759-bf2a-3af2e3dca362
single
Which of the following is not a cause of sudden increase pain in osteochondroma:
Ans. D. Degenerative changesDegenerative changes will lead to slowly increase in size of osteochondroma whereas other listed causes will result in sudden increase in the size of osteochondroma.
4
Bursitis
Fracture
Sarcomatous changes
Degenerative changes
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
c5c21b44-6346-4837-af23-e3f5b57e6afd
single
Kiesselbach's plexus is plexus made up of?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Arteries * Kiesselbach's plexus is formed by anastomosis of four arteries:-# Anterior ethmoidal artery,# Septal branch of superior labial artery,# Septal branch of sphenopalatine artery and# Greater palatine artery.
1
Arteries
Veins
Nerves
Connective tissue
ENT
Nose and PNS
50395bd3-e24d-4942-936d-2f6d0f865e85
single
Incubation period of Mumps is
null
2
7 days
18 days
10 days
14 days
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
fd960f79-2383-4ca4-9f76-6297608d5581
single
The depth of respiration is controlled by
Pneumotaxic center limits inspiration by inhibiting Apneustic center Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 65
1
Pneumotaxic center
Posterior medulla
Apneustic center
Pons
Physiology
Nervous system
b8084909-011e-41b8-983a-bd1960c2de6d
single
A 40 years old male develops excessive hyperventilation. ABG reveals pH - 7.5, PCO224 mm Hg, PO2 88 mm of Hg. True statment is
Ans. is 'a' Respiratory alkalosis. This one is quite simple.pH is increased and pCO2 is decreased which indicates respiratory alkalosis
1
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Medicine
Fluid & Electrolyte
9b582eb0-b8cb-4f2f-9361-9ed48564aa67
multi
Eye examination of a patient revealed lack of downward gaze and loss of convergence but has normal pupillary reactions to light. What is the MOST probable location of the lesion?
In this patient the lesion is most probably located at the level of inferior colliculus. Features of lesion at the level of inferior colliculus are normal pupillary reactions to light, lack of downward gaze and loss of convergence. It could be due to lesions of the pineal gland, multiple sclerosis, vascular diseases or Wernicke's encephalopathy. Lesions in the collicular region is caused by pressure and distoion of underlying structures in the midbrain and not by damaged to specific pathways traversing the colliculi. It can produce any combination of impaired upward gaze, impaired downward gaze, pupillary abnormalities or loss accommodation reflex can occur. The general name for the clinical picture produced is called Perinaud's syndrome. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology edited by Sunita Agarwal, page 284.
2
Optic chiasm
Inferior colliculus
Superior colliculus
Edinger Westphal nucleus
Ophthalmology
null
eb6fe9e2-115f-46ed-bf91-18a86da57daf
single
Bevelling of inner table of skull is found in
A i.e. Firearm entry wound When a bullet traverses the skull, the apeure in the bone differs in relation to the outer & inner tables; the defect is larger in the I direction in which the bullet travelsQ
1
Fire arm entry wound
Fire arm exit wound
Drowning
Infanticide
Forensic Medicine
null
43ec1441-3d54-4234-a1ce-3babbba2a0dc
single
All are true for oxytocin EXCEPT: March 2013
Ans. B i.e. Secreted by anterior pituitaryOxytocin is secreted mainly by Supraoptic and paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus and is transpoed from hypothalamus to posterior pituitary. When suitable stimuli reach the posterior pituitary from hypothalamus, oxytocin is released into blood.
2
Polypeptide
Secreted by anterior pituitary
Causes ejection of milk
Secreted in both sexes
Physiology
null
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multi
The tonsillar ring or Waldeyer's ring consists of which of the following:
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4
The adenoid
The lingual tonsil
The tonsil
All of the above
Anatomy
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multi
Human development index includes -a) Crude death rateb) Life expectancy at one yearc) Life expectancy at birthd) Adult literacy ratee) GDP
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3
ae
edb
cde
bd
Social & Preventive Medicine
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single
A 45-year-old woman is seen by her primary care physician complaining of intermittent colicky pain in the right upper quadrant (RUQ), staing sholy after eating a meal, and lasting about 30 min. During these episodes, she feels bloated and nauseated. The patient also states that over the past 2 days, her stools have become very light in color, like the color of sand, and her skin has become yellow. What is the anatomical basis for the clinical condition?
A- Gallstones in gallbladder B- Bile duct obstruction due to gall stones C- Premature activation and leakage of pancreatic enzymes This middle-aged woman has the typical symptoms of biliary colic, which is intermittent crampy abdominal pain in the epigastric region of the RUQ, sometimes radiating to the right shoulder. These symptoms typically appear after meals, paicularly fatty meals. The more concerning signs are the light-colored stools (acholic) and jaundice (icterus). Gallstones (cholelithiasis) are precipitated bile salts in the gallbladder, which may produce inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis). Stones can pass into the cystic duct and into the common bile duct. Since the common bile duct is formed by the union of the cystic and common hepatic ducts, obstruction of the common bile duct prevents bilirubin produced in the liver from reaching the small intestines. The stools thus lack this pigment. As a secondary result of the obstruction, serum bilirubin is elevated, and precipitates in the skin, resulting in the yellow tint. Ultrasound (DOUBLE BARREL/DUCT SIGN) can often make the initial diagnosis. Removal of a common bile duct stone can be performed by upper GI endoscopy through the ampulla of Vater or surgically.
2
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Inflammation of hepatic Glisson's capsule
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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single
Drug of choice for Herpes simplex Endophthalmitis is –
Acyclovir is the drug of choice for HSV infection.
1
Acyclovir
Vidarabine
Amantidine
Interferon
Ophthalmology
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single
The most difficult source of infection among the following to control is
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1
airborne
human to human
vector borne
vertical
Dental
null
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single
NMDA antagonist used in Alzheimer's disease is:
Ans: A (Memantine) Ref: Goodman and Gilman's "Phannacologica! Basis of Therapeutics'' 12th eci p.622Explanation:Memantine* It is used either as an adjunct or an alternative to cholinesterase inhibitors in Alzheimer's disease, and is also commonly used to treat other neurodegenerative dementias,Memantine is a noncompetitive antagonist of the NMDA-type glutamate receptor.It interacts with the Mg2+ binding site of the channel to prevent excessive activation while sparing normal function.Adverse effects of memantine include headache or dizziness, hut are usually mild and reversible.The drug is excreted by the kidneys and dosage should be reduced in patients with severe renal impairment.
1
Memantine
Rivastigmine
Donepezil
Galantamine
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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single
An arteriole with a damaged endothelial cell layer will not:
Ans. D. Dilate in response to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) or acetylcholineBoth adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and acetylcholine cause the release of NO from endothelial cells. The other choices involve mechanisms that function without endothelial cells.
4
Constrict when intravascular pressure is increased
Dilate when adenosine is applied to the vessel wall
Constrict in response to norepinephrine
Dilate in response to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) or acetylcholine
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
e0f722d0-5e88-4c88-93dd-e1c3a5a18eb2
multi
As type of tympanogram is seen in:
Ans: a (Otosclerosis) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 34 & 4thed, p. 26As type tympanogram indicates low compliance at or near ambient air pressure.Seen in fixation of ear ossiclesTypes of tympanogram:A -NormalAs - Otosclerosis, malleus fixationAd - Ossicular discontinuity, lax thin TM (High compliance)B - Flat / dome shaped - No change in compliance - Middle ear fluid / Thick TMC - Maximum compliance at -100 mm H2O - Retracted TM
1
Otosclerosis
Ossicular discontinuity
Glue ear
None
ENT
Otosclerosis
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multi
Reversion of Neisseriagonorrhoeae from a fimbriated (fim 1) to a non-fimbriated (fim 2) state would result in which one of the following phenomena?
Bacteria may shift rapidly between the fimbriated (fim +) and the non-fimbriated (fim -) states. Fimbriae function as adhesions to specific surfaces and consequently play a major role in pathogenesis. Lack of fimbriae prevents colonization of the mucosal surface by the bacterium.
1
Inability of N. gonorrhoeae to colonize the mucosal epithelium
Reversion to a Gram-positive stain
Death of the organism
Loss of serologic specificity
Microbiology
General
400e4d0a-8ead-470b-aa17-0246526caa6b
single
Most common complication of both acute and chronic pancreatitis is
Complications of Acute pancreatitis Sterile and infected peripancreatic fluid collections Pancreatic necrosis and infected necrosis Pancreatic pseudocyst Pancreatic ascites Pancreaticopleural Fistulas Vascular complications Pancreaticocutaneous fistula Complications of chronic pancreatitis pseudocysts splenic vein thromboses biliary and duodenal obstruction biliary cirrhosis pancreatic cancer pancreatic diabetes Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1535
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Poal vein thrombosis
Pancreatic abscess
Pseudocyst
Pancreatic necrosis
Anatomy
G.I.T
3533e899-8177-4de9-947d-f5dfc55efefd
multi
What is responsible for clearing & flushing food from the intestinal lumen in the interdigestive Period-
Ans. (b) Migrating motor complexes (MMC)(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.497)MMC aids in clearing the stomach and small intestine of luminal contents in preparation for the next meal
2
Gastrin
Migrating motor complexes
Secretin
CCK.
Physiology
G.I.T.
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single
All are risk factors of pre eclampsia except
Primiparous is at a higher risk than multiparous ladyH.mole due to abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and uterine distension is at higher risk. Infact h.mole is associated with early onset preeclampsia. Previous h/o preeclampsia also increases risk .
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Diabetes in pregnancy
Hydatidiform mole
Primipara
Previous history of pre eclampsia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
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multi
In myopia there is
(A) Increased length of eyeball > Myopia ("nearsightedness" (AmE), "shortsightedness" (BrE)) is a refractive defect of the eye in which collimated light produces image focus in front of the retina under conditions of accommodation.> Axial myopia is attributed to an increase in the eye's axial length.
1
Increased length of eyeball
Decreased length of eyeball
Decreased refractive power of cornea
Lens is dislocated posteriorly
Physiology
Special Senses: Vision and its Elements
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multi
The orifice of the parotid duct is located:
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3
At the hamular notch
In proximity to the incisive papillae
On the buccal mucosa near the maxillary second molar
Slightly posterior to the mandibular central incisors
Anatomy
null
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single
According to Hierarchy of Evidence for Scientific Literature, Randomized control trials are
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2
Level I Evidence
Level II Evidence
Level III Evidence
Level IV Evidence
Dental
null
e8486928-0901-49eb-b17e-398fd82cbd06
single
True regarding TT dose(s) in Pregnancy for a Primigravida woman is:-
TT in pregnancy:- Primary level of prevention (specific protection) Primigravida - 2 doses (1 month apa) of TT- ASAP in pregnancy 2 dose - total duration protection - 5 years If next pregnancy occur in 3 years of previous pregnancy - only 1 booster dose required Both doses must be completed within 8 months POG.
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1 dose in 2nd Trimester
2 doses (1 month apa) 2nd Trimester
1 dose anytime as soon as possible in pregnancy
2 doses (1 month apa) as soon as possible in pregnancy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Vaccines
cf8e5a38-98cd-40ca-a3e9-2bd9e2935d23
multi
Ancylostoma enters the human body by -
Ancylostoma enters the human body by penetration of skin. ANCYCLOSTOMA DUODONALE (Hookworm): Host - Man. Infective form - 3rd stage filariform (L3) larva. Mode of transmission- penetration of skin by 3rd stage filariform (L3) larva (by walking bare foot in dampen soil). Habitat- small intestine.
3
Ingestion
Inhalation
Penetration of skin
Inoculation
Microbiology
Parasitology Pa 2 (Helminthology)
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