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Craniotabes is seen in
(A) Rickets # Craniotabes is an abnormal softening or thinning of the skull, although normally present in new boms.> Seen mostly in occipital bone & posterior part of parietal bone.> Bone is soft and has a ping pong ball like feeling on pressing.> The word comes from the German work crani for skull and the Latin word tabes for wasting.> Any condition that affects bone growth, such as rickets, marasmus, syphilis,or thalassemia present during a time of rapid skull growth can cause craniotabes.lt can be a "normal" feature in premature infants.
1
Rickets
Ostegenesis imperfect
Hydrocephalus
All of the above
Radiology
Miscellaneous
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Most common site of March fracture is?
ANSWER: (A) Shaft of 2nd and 3rd metatarsalsREF: Apley's 8th ed p. 757See APPENDIX-68 below for "ALPHABETICAL LIST OF EPONYMOUS FRACTURES"March fracture: stress fracture of second metatarsal APPENDIX - 68Alphabetical List of Eponymous FracturesFractureDescriptionMechanism of injuryAviators fractureFracture neck of talusDorsiflexionBumper fracturecompression fracture of lateral condyle of tibial (always intra articular)Forced valgus of knee when struck from side by car bumperBoxer's fractureFracture of distal 5th metacarpalPunching solid objectBos worth fractureFracture of distal fibula with posterior dislocation of the proximal fibula behind the tibiaSevere external rotation of the footBennett's fractureIntra-articular fracture of base of first metacarpalAxial load along metacarpal in a partially flexed thumb (Abductor pollids longus pull)Barton's fractureIntra articular distal radius fracture invoking the articular surface with dislocation of the radio carpal jointFall on outstretched handBankart's fractureFracture of anterior glenoid associated with anterior shoulder dislocationExternal rotation and abduction of shoulderColies' fractureDistal radius fracture with dorsal angulation, impaction and radial driftFall on outstretched handCotton's fractureTrimalleolar fracture of ankle Clay shoveller's fractureStress avulsion fracture of Spinous process of C6, C7 or T1Forced hyper flexion of neckCh opart's fracture- dislocationFoot dislocation through talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints with associated fractures, usually after ankle twisting. Treated in a non-weight bearing cast for 6-8 weeks Chauffeur's fractureIntra-articular fracture of radial styloidForced ulnar deviation of the wrist causing avulsion of the radial styloidChance fractureHorizontal fracture of vertebral bodyHyper flexion of spine, seen in car accidents when lap belts xvere usedDuverney fractureIsolated fracture of the iliac wingDirect traumaEssex-LoprestifractureComminuted radial head fracture xvith interosseous membrane disruption and distal radioulnar joint subluxationFall from heightGosselin fractureV-shaped distal tibia fracture extending into the tibial plafond Galeazzi fractureRadius shaft fracture with dislocation of distal radioulnar jointBlow to forearmHolds worth fractureUnstable spinal fracture-dislocation at the thoracolumbar junction Hume fractureOlecranon fracture with anterior dislocation of radial head Hill-Sachs fractureImpacted posterior humeral head fracture occurring during anterior shoulder dislocation Hangman s fractureFracture of both pedicles of C2Distraction and extension of neck (judicial hanging)Jones fractureFracture of base of 5th metatarsal extending into intermetatarsal jointInversion of ankle (pronator brevis pull)Jefferson fractureBurst fracture of 1st cervical vertebraCompression of neckLisfranc fractureFracture dislocation of midfootForced plantar flexion of foot or dropping heavy weight on footLe Forts fracture of the ankleVertical fracture of distal fibula with avulsion of medial malleolus Le Fort fracturesSeries of facial fracturesDirect trauma to faceMoores fractureDistal radius fracture with ulnar dislocation and entrapment of styloid process under annular ligament Monteggia fractureProximal ulna fracture with dislocation of radial headBlow to forearmMarch fractureStress fracture of 2n<1 /3rd metatarsal shaftHeavy or unaccustomed exerciseMalgaignesfractureVertical pelvic fracture through both pubic rami and the ilium or sacroiliac joint with vertical displacementHigh energy impact to pelvis (front to back)MaisonneuvefractureSpiral fracture of proximal fibulaExternal rotation of anklePipkin fracture- dislocationPosterior dislocation of hip with avulsion fracture of fragment of femoral head by the ligamentum teresImpact to the knee with the hip flexed (dashboard injury)Pilon fractureComminuted fracture of distal articular fracture with fibular fracture Pott's fractureBimalleolar fracture of the ankleEversion of ankleRolando fractureIntra articular T or Y shaped Comminuted fracture of base of V metacarpalAxial load along the metacarpal causing splitting of the proximal articular surfaceRunner's fractureStress fracture of distal fibula 3-8 cm above the lateral malleolusRepeated axial stress on fibulaStieda fractureAvulsion fracture of the medial femoral condyle at the origin of the medial collateral ligament Smith's fractureDistal radius fracture with volar displacementFall on outstretched hand with wrist in flexed positionShepherd s fractureFracture of the lateral tubercle of the posterior process of the talus Segond fractureLateral tibial plateau avulsion fracture with anterior cruciate ligament tear| Internal rotation of the kneeSalter-HarrisfracturesFractures involving a growth platevariousTitlaux fractureSalter-Harris III fracture of the tibiaForced lateral rotation of footToddlers fractureUndisplaced spiral fracture of distal tibia in children under 8 years oldLow-energy trauma t often rotational
1
Shaft of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals
Avulsion fracture of fifth metatarsal
Calcaneus
Olecranon
Orthopaedics
Bone
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A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear is prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram-positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean&;s reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is
The person is likely to have anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax is a zoonotic disease. Infected animals shed in discharges from mouth, nose and rectum, large numbers of bacilli that sporulate in the soil and remain as the source of infection. Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive bacillus, found singly, in pairs or in sho chains, being surrounded by a capsule. M' Fadyean's reaction: When blood films containing anthrax bacilli are stained with polychrome methylene blue for a few seconds and examined under a Microscope, amorphous purplish material is noticed around the bacilli. This represents the capsular material and is characteristic of the anthrax bacilli. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 251
3
Clostridium tetani
Listeria monocytogenes
Bacillus anthracis
Actinomyces species
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Most common organism associated with cystic fibrosis
Pseudomonas may colonise s of patients with cystic fibrosis and causes recurrent pulmonary exacerbations. Ref : Essential pediatrics,O.P.Ghai,7 th edition,pg no:355
1
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (non mucoid)
Burkholderia cepacia
Pleisomonas
Aeromonas
Pediatrics
Respiratory system
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A newborn presents with mid anterior abdominal wall defect. The House-surgeon is told that this swelling has a characteristic feature i.e spontaneous resolution at age of 5 years by his Professor. What could be the diagnosis?
(Umbilical hernia) (1317-18- CSDT 12th) (1289,1355 B & L 24th) (980-Baily & Love 25th) * Gastroschisis is the most common abdominal defect (726- Nelson 18th) * Ectopia vesicae (exstrophy of the bladder) - Caused by the incomplete development of the infra-umbilical part of the anterior abdominal wall, associated with incomplete development of the anterior wall of the bladder owing to delayed rupture of the cloacal membrane {penis is epispadic, mons and clitoris are bifid the urethra is open, umbilicus is absent) * Patent urachus - a patent urachus seldom reveals itself until maturity or even old age. This is because the contractions of the bladder commence at the apex of the organ an pass towards the base. * A patent urachus because it opens into the apex of the bladder is closed temporarily during micturition and so the potential urinary system from the bladder is cut off Omphalocele - midline abdominal wall defect. When the defect is less than 4 cm it is termed a hernia of the umbilical cord; when greater than 10 cm it is termed a giant omphalocele Umbilical hernia - a fascial defect at the umbilicus less than 1cm in diameter close spontaneously by 5 years of age in 95% of cases. Greater than 1.5cm in diameter it seldom closes spontaneously. Unlike inguinal hernia, protrusion of bowel through the umbilical defect
4
Patent urachus
Omphalocele
Ectopia vesicae
Umbilical hernia
Unknown
null
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Most common form of diabetic neuropathy is: September 2009
Ans. C: Sensorimotor polyneuropathy The overall prevalence of neuropathy is 66% for type I and 59% for type II diabetes.It can be divided into: Symmetric-may present as small-fiber involvement (dysthesia of feet) or autonomic dysfunction (sexual impotence) but often both occur together. Asymmetric neuropathies are divided into - Asymmetric abrupt onset neuropathies-diabetic truncal radiculoneuropathy, diabetic lumbosacral radiculoplexus neuropathy and oculomotor neuropathy. Cranial neuropathies-The 3rd,6th and 4th cranial nerve (in decreasing order of frequency) are involved. - Neuropathy of gradual onset includes entrapment/compression neuropathies. Diabetic Sensorimotor polyneuropathy (DSPN), a type of symmetric diabetic neuropathy is by far the most common form of diabetic neuropathy. Its prevalence is 55% for type I and 45% for type II diabetes. Initial symptoms includes numbness, tingling, burning or prickling sensation affecting the toes and feet.
3
Cranial neuropathies
Radiculopathies
Sensorimotor polyneuropathy
Limb mononeuropathies
Medicine
null
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All of the following our the diagnosis of PCOS except
BIOCHEMICAL MARKERS OF PCOD LH level is elevated and/or ratio of LH:FSH is > 3:1 Reversed estradiol:estrone ratio- The estrone level is markedly elevated. SHBG level is reduced. Androstenedione level is elevated. Serum testosterone and DHEA may be marginally elevated. Raised serum insulin level (ratio of fasting glucose: fasting insulin is < 4.5)
4
Elevated LH
Reversed estradiol : estrone ratio
Reduced SHBG level
Reduced serum insulin level
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
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All of the following are Vitamin-K deficiency features EXCEPT:
Ans. (a) Associated thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleedingRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 96e-8* Vitamin-K is a fat soluble compound. It promotes blood clotting by increasing hepatic biosynthesis of prothrombin and other coagulation factors.* The best sources are green leafy vegetables, liver, cheese, butter and egg yolk. Deficiency, usually seen only in neonates, in disorders of absorption or during antibiotic therapy is characterized by hemorrhage.* Warfarin acts by inhibiting Vitamin K, and does not causes deficiency of the same.
1
Associated thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding
Deficiency is rarely seen, except in infants
Factor X is first to be affected
Warfarin causes Vitamin K deficiency
Medicine
Bleeding and Thrombotic Disorders
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Which is poor man's meat
Pulses (legumes) Pulses comprise a variety of grams, also known as dhals. Most commonly eaten pulses are bengal gram (chana), red gram (tuvar or arhar), green gram (mung) and black gram (urd). Others include lentils (masur), peas and beans including soyabean. Khesari dhal (lathyrus sativus), is consumed in pas of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, excessive consumption of which is associated with lathyrism. Pulses contain 20 to 25 per cent of proteins, which is double that found in wheat and three times that found in rice. II') fact, pulses contain more protein than eggs, fish or flesh foods. But in regard to quality, pulse proteins are inferior to animal proteins. Pulse proteins are poor in methionine and to a lesser extent in cysteine. On the other hand they are rich in lysine. Soyabean is exceptionally rich in protein, containing up to 40 per cent. In addition, pulses are rich in minerals and B-group vitamins such as riboflavin and thiamine. In the dry state, pulses do not contain vitamin C. Germinating pulses, however, contain higher concentration of vitamins, especially vitamin C and B vitamins. Fermentation also modifies the nutritive value of pulses .in that the vitamin content paicularly that of riboflavin, thiamine and niacin is enhanced. Although pulses are called "poor man's meat", they are eaten by the rich and poor alike in India. They give variety to the diet and make the food more palatable. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 649
2
Milk
Pulses
Fish
Egg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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In severe hypospadias the possibility of an intersex problem is settled by -
null
3
Careful inspection of genitals
Biopsy for gonadal tissue
Karyotyping
Hormone assay
Surgery
null
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Milian's ear sign is seen is
Erysipelas being a cutaneous condition can spread to ear lobule = Milian's ear sign.
2
Cellulitis
Erysipelas
Lymphangitis
Abscess
Surgery
null
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Morbid obesity causes death due to -
The increased moality due to obesity is brought about mainly by the increased incidence of Hypeension and coronary hea diseases . Ref-Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition. .
1
CVS complication
Pickwickian syndrome
Hypothyroid crisis
Cushing syndrome
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
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A 60-year-old woman visits the ophthalmologist because of eye pain. Tests show that her right eye has an intraocular pressure of 22 mm Hg and her left eye has an intraocular pressure of 25 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of eye pain in this woman?
This woman has open-angle glaucoma, which is the most common type of glaucoma. Glaucoma is the second leading cause of blindness worldwide after cataracts. Blindness occurs because of damage to the optic nerve. The high intraocular pressure causes blood vessels and axons of the optic nerve to be compressed at the optic disc, which leads to poor nutrition with possible death of the neurons. The main cause of open-angle glaucoma is reduced flow of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork because of tissue debris, white blood cells, deposition of fibrous material, and other factors that increase the hydraulic resistance of the meshwork
3
Decreased hydraulic resistance of trabecular meshwork
Decreased production of aqueous humor
Increased hydraulic resistance of trabecular meshwork
Increased production of aqueous humor
Physiology
Special Senses
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The enzyme PeudochoIinesterase acts on:
Suxamethonium is Succinyl choline. Abnormal Psuedocholinestrase is a hereditary defect. In such people S-ch doesn't get metabolized. Usual dose results in prolonged apnoea and paralysis that lasts for hours. Aificial ventilation and blood transfusion are needed to supply Psuedocholinestrase. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 86
4
Decamethonium
Tubocurarine
Gallamine
Suxamethonium
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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Foramen Ovale in middle cranial fossa transmits
(B) Mandibular nerve # Foramen ovale;> Mnemonic:> At the base of the skull, the foramen ovale (skull) is in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone in the middle cranial fossa and transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve and emissary veins.
2
Spinal accessory nerve
Mandibular nerve
Middle meningeal artery
Maxillary artery
Anatomy
Misc.
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All are premalignant conditions of oral cavity except:
All the given options increase the risk of carcinoma of oral cavity but, oral Lichen planus has the least risk as it is Low-risk or Equivocal lesion. Conditions associated with Malignant Transformation HIGH RISK LESIONS Medium-risk Lesions Low-risk or Equivocal Lesions Erythroplakia Speckled Erythroplakia Chronic Hyperplastic -Candidiasis Oral submucous fibrosis Syphilitic glossitis Sideropenic dysphagia (Paterson-Kelly syndrome) Oral Lichen Planus Discoid Lupus erythematous Discoid keratosis congenita Speckled Erythroplakia is also known as Erythroleucoplakia. Leucoplakia Malignancy: -Speckled Erythroplakia > Erythroplakia > Leucoplakia
3
Chronic hyperplastic canidiasis
Oral submucosal fibrosis
Oral lichen planus
Leucoplakia
Surgery
FMGE 2018
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Most common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is:
Acute Mesenteric Ischemia : • Emboli (50%) : −− Arrhythmia, Valvular disease, Myocardial infarction −− Hypokinetic ventricular wall −− Cardiac aneurysm, Aortic atherosclerotic disease • Thrombosis (25%) : Atherosclerotic disease • Nonocclusive (5–15%) : −− Pancreatitis, Heart failure, Sepsis. −− Cardiac bypass, Burns, Renal failure. • Venous occlusion: −− Hypercoagulable state. −− Sepsis Compression, Pregnancy, Portal hypertension.
3
Arterial thrombosis
Venous thrombosis
Embolism
Non occlusive disease
Surgery
null
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Irreversible ototoxicity is caused by -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cisplatin "Cisplatin induced hearing loss is usually bilateral and irreversible"Drugs causing ototoxicityA) Vestibular (primarily)o Aminoglycosides o Mustineo Quinidineo Quinineo Chloroquineo Vancomycino Furosemide o Ethacrynic acido Salicylates (high dose)B) Auditory (primarily)o NSAIDso Ethacrynic acido Vancomycino Aminoglycosideso Cisplatin
1
Cisplatin
Cyclophosfamide
Bleomycin
Chlorambucil
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
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A 2 years old child comes with one-year h/o of generalised oedema. His B.P. is 107/70mm urine examination shows hyaline cast, proteinuria +++, WBC & RBC are nil. the likely diagnosis is –
It is a case of nephrotic syndrome due to minimal change disease (MCD). MCD is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children* Microscopic findings of urine in MCD Proteinuria Principally albumin (which is a low molecular weight protein) High molecular weight proteins are seen in minimal amounts. This type of proteinuria is known as selective proteinuria. WBC → Absent RBC → Absent the hyaline cast → can be seen Focal segmental Glomerulosclerosis can also cause nephrotic syndrome but the urine examination in these patients will reveal protein, WBC's and RBC's.
1
Selective proteinuria
Uremia
Focal segmental glonurulosclerosil
Low serum complement level
Pediatrics
null
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Which of the following is the most radiosensitive ovarian tumors?
Ans. is a, i.e. DysgerminomaRef: Bailey & Love 24th/ed, p22l"Below the age of 20 years 60% of the tumors are of germ cell origin and in girls under the age of 10 years almost 85% are of germ cell origin and are invariably malignantIn females with HNPCC gene mutation along with BSO, hysterectomy should also be done as there is an associated risk of endometrial cancer. In BRCA gene mutation Hysterectomy is not routinely recommended.RememberThe most common malignant GCT Earlier was dysgerminoma but now its incidence has declined & it is the second most common malignant GCT."Because their incidence has declined by approximately 30 percent over the past few decades, dysgenia accurately accounts for only approximately one third of all malignant ovarian germ cell tumors." - Ref: Williams Gynae 3/ed, p762"Due to a 60 percent increased incidence during the past few decades, immature teratomas are now the M/C variant & account for 40-50% of all malignant ovarian germ cell tumors." - Ref: William gynae 3rd/ed, p765Most common germ cell tumor of ovary is dermoid cyst (mature teratoma). It is benign in nature.Remember:* Most common ovarian tumor (overall) - Epithelial cell tumor.* Most common tumor in young woman is - Germ cell tumor. - Ref: Shaw 14th/ed, p555* Most common malignant tumor of ovary - Serous cystadenocarcinoma.* Most common benign tumor of ovary (overall) - Dermoid cyst. - Ref Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p219* Most common benign epithelial tumor of ovary - Serous cystadenoma. - Ref: Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p531* Most common germ cell tumor - Mature teratoma (Dermoid cyst).* Most common malignant GCT - Immature teratoma > Dysgerminoma. - Ref: Williams Gynae 3/e p765* Most common ovarian tumor in pregnancy (but in remains undiagnosed) - Serous cystadenoma.* Most Common benign tumor diagnosed in pregnancy - Dermoid cyst.* Overall most common ovarian tumor diagnosed in pregnancy - Dermoid cyst.* Most common malignant ovarian tumor detected during pregnancy - Dysgerminoma.* Germ cell Tumor with best prognosis - Dysgerminoma* Germ cell tumor with worst prognosis - endodermal sinus tumor* Germ cell tumor which has maximum bilaterality - Dysgerminoma* Germ cell tumor which presents as acute abdomen - Endodermal Sinus Tumor* Most common ovarian tumor to undergo torsion during pregnancy - Dermoid cyst.* Most common ovarian tumor to involve opposite ovary by metastasis - Granulosa cell tumor.* Most radiosensitive ovarian tumor - Dysgerminoma.. - Ref: Bailey & Love 24th/ed, p221* Most rapidly growing ovarian tumor - Yolk sac Tm- (Endodermal Sinus Tumor)Ovarian Tumor: Causing:* Pseudomyxoma peritonei- Mucinous cystadenoma/Micinous cystadenocarcinoma* Meigs syndrome- Ovarian fibroma* Pseudomeig's syndrome:- Brenner's tumor- Granulosa cell tumor- Thecoma* Ovarian tumor associated with hyperpyrexia and hypercalcemia- Mesonephroid tumor.* Ovarian tumor arising from epithelium of urinary tract- Brenner Tm* Feminizing tumors:- Granulosa cell tumor- Theca cell tumor- Fibromas* Virilising tumor:- Androblastoma- Hilus cell Tm- Gynadroblastoma- Adrenal cortical tumor* Largest benign ovarian tumor- Mucinous cyst adenoma* Tumor with lymphocytic infiltration:- Dysgerminoma.
1
Dysgerminoma
Dermoid cyst
Serous cystadenoma
Endodermal sinus tumor
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Carcinoma Ovary
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Hunters syndrome due to deficiency of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iduronate sulfatase (Ghai 7th/ep. 639) o Iduronate sulfate sulfatase def. - Hunter syndrome o Hexosaminidase dediciencv seen in Tay-sachs disease o Glucocerebrosidase def. - Gaucher disease
1
Iduronate sulfatase
Hexosaminidase
Glucocerebrosidase
a-L Iduronidase
Pediatrics
Inborn Errors of Metabolism
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Simple Basal media is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Simple nutrient agar A culture medium is a liquid or gel designed to suppo the growth of microorganism or cell. A culture medium may be liquid or solid. A culture medium may be? i) Basal (Simple) media This is simple with no added ingredients. It may be liquid ( peptone water) or solid (Nutrient agar). ii) Special (Complex) media These have added ingredients for special purpose or for bringing out ceain characteristics or providing special nutrients required for the growth of the bacterium under study. It may be liquid (enrichment media) or solid (selective media). About option b Peptone water (simple peptone water) is a simple media, but not alkaline peptone water as it has added ingradient to make it alkaline.
1
Simple nutrient agar
Alkaline peptone water
Glucose broth
Blood agar
Microbiology
null
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A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities. Which of the following enzyme deficiency will NOT cause such features?
Inability to metabolize galactose occurs in the galactosemias, which may be caused by inherited defects of galactokinase, uridyl transferase, or 4-epimerase, though deficiency of uridyl transferase is best known. Galactose is a substrate for aldose reductase, forming galactitol, which accumulates in the lens of the eye, causing cataract. Ultimately, liver failure and mental deterioration result. Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 21. The Pentose Phosphate Pathway & Other Pathways of Hexose Metabolism. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.
4
Galactose-1 -phosphate uridyl transferase
UDP-galactose-4-epimerase
Galactokinase
Lactase
Biochemistry
null
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Which of the following has fibromuscular stroma ?
The prostatic pa of the urethra develops from the pelvic (middle) pa of the urogenital sinus (endodermal origin). Endodermal outgrowths arise from the prostatic pa of the urethra and grow into the surrounding mesenchyme. The glandular epithelium of the prostate differentiates from these endodermal cells, and the associated mesenchyme differentiates into the dense stroma and the smooth muscle of the prostate. ref - BDC vol2 pg 376-378
3
Testis
Liver
Prostate
Urinary bladder
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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A 60-year-old female complains of dry mouth and a gritty sensation in her eyes. She states it is sometimes difficult to speak for more than a few minutes. There is no history of diabetes mellitus or neurologic disease. The patient is on no medications. On exam, the buccal mucosa appears dry and the salivary glands are enlarged bilaterally. The next step in evaluation is
(Braunwald, 15/e, pp 1947-1949.) The complaints described are characteristic of Sjogren syndrome, an autoimmune disease with presenting symptoms of dry eyes and dry mouth. The disease is caused by lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands. Dry eyes can be measured objectively by the Schirmer test, which measures the amount of wetness of a piece of filter paper when exposed to the lower eyelid for 5 minutes. Most pati ents with Sjogren syndrome produce auto- antibodies, paicularly anti-Ro (SSA). Lip biopsy is needed only to evaluate unceain cases, such as when dry mouth occurs without dry eye symptoms.Mumps can cause bilateral parotitis, but would not explain the patient's dry eye syndrome. Coicosteroids are reserved for life-threatening vasculitis, paicularly when renal or pulmonary disease is severe.
2
Lip biopsy
Schirmer test and measurement of auto antibodies
IgG antibody to mumps virus
Use of coicosteroids
Surgery
null
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A girl presented with symptoms of pharyngitis. Group A hemolytic pharyngitis is due to?
Local infection is the most common cause of inflammation of pharyngeal structures or acute pharyngitis. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is a common causative organism in both pharyngitis and tonsillitis. Local infection and inflammation cause lymph node enlargement, swelling, erythema, and pain.
1
Local infection
Hematogenous spread
Lymphatic spread
None of the above
Microbiology
null
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Pseudomyxoma peritonei is seen in:
null
3
Serous cystadenoma
Pseudomucinous cyst
Mucinous cystadenoma
Teratoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Bad dreams are a rare adverse effect of which of the following drug?
Erectile dysfunction, impotence, bad dreams and hallucinations can be seen with beta blockers REFERENCES: KDT 6th ed pg 135-140 Goodman Gillman 12th ed pg 280-285
1
Atenolol
Prazosin
Nifedipine
Furosemide
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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Lowest chance of recipient failure in transplant is seen in:
Ans. (b) IsograftRef: Bailey 26th ed, page 1426* Isograft: A graft between identical donor such as identical twin* Hence the rejection rate is the lowest
2
Allograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Heterotropic graft
Surgery
Transplantation
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multi
A patient presented with thunder clap headache followed by unconsciousness with pregressive 111 ranial nerve palsy. Likely diagnosis is
davidson's principles and practices of medicine 22nd edition. *85% of SAH are caused by saccular or berry aneurysm arise from bifurcation of cerebral aeries *SAH typically presented with a sudden ,severe ,thunderclap headache (often occipital) , which lasts for hours or even days,often accompanied by vomitting , raised blood pressure and neck stiffness or pain. *there may be loos of consciousness at the onset ,so SAHshould be consider if patient is comatose *focal neurological signs like hemiparesis,aphasia may be present at onset if there is an associated intracerebral hematoma *a third nerve palsy present due to local pressure from an aneurysm of posterior communicating aery. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456
2
Extradural hemorrhage
Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage
Basilar migraine
Cluster headache
Medicine
C.N.S
9aa62d85-d394-4cfc-b208-085c93ef7720
single
A new born child developed respiratory depression in neonatal ward. Which of the following drug is the cause -
Ans is 'a' i.e., Opioids
1
Opioids
Barbiturates
Diazepam
Propofol
Pediatrics
null
3763002e-a4ef-49ea-afa5-f41f2ab9ad97
single
TRUE regarding chi square test is
Ref: Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Chi-square test offers an alternate method of testing the significance of difference between two propoions. Advantage: it can also be used when more than 2groups are to be compared.
3
Null hypothesis is equal
Doesn't test the significance
Measures the significance of difference between two propoion
Tests correlation and regression
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
e8c7168d-0c68-4a0a-a2c3-b9a34238619f
multi
Necrotizing epitheloid cell granulomas are seen in all, except -
Mycobacterium leprae infection leads to formation of non caseating granulomas, which is not necrotising.the lesions are erythematous type Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 56
4
Tuberculosis
Wegener's granulomatosis
Cat's Scratch disease
Leprosy
Pathology
General pathology
f07ae124-fa9b-427b-a11e-ffc7733f4b0d
multi
Splenic infarction is associated with
.
2
Typhoid
IMN
CML
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Anatomy
All India exam
a21a7057-ed18-470d-986b-4dcaafc042d0
single
Treatment of dacryocystitis in three months old child-
*Spontaneous recanalization of obstructed nasolacrimal duct occurs during first 6-8 weeks and sometimes after 6-12 months in 90%of infants. Therefore up to 9-12months only massage and antibiotic drops are indicated. After the age of 12 months high pressure syringing is indicated.
3
Daily probing
Weekly probing
Massaging
Syringing
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
888bab57-94b5-4217-83e0-137a49250f78
single
Which of the following is a killed vaccine ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Japanese encephalitis Live attenuated Inactivated or killed Immunoglobulins Bacterial Bacterial Human normal Subunit Vaccines BCG Typhoid Hepatitis A,B Hepatitis B Typhoid oral Cholera Measles Typhoid Vi antigen Viral Peussis Rabies Toxoids Oral Polio(Sabin) Meningitis Tetanus Diphtheria Yellow fever Plague Mumps Tetanus Measles Viral Human Specific Rubella Rabies Varicella Both active & Mumps Injectable polio (Salk) Diptheria passive Chicken pox Influenza Non-Human (antisera) immunization Influenza Hepatitis A Diphtheria can be given together Rickettsial JE Tetanus Diphtheria Epidemic Typhus KFD Gas Gangrene Hepatitis B Botulism Tetanus Rabies Rabies
4
Hepatitis B
Measles
Yellow fever
Japenese encephalitis
Microbiology
null
3c1ffe4a-ba95-44ca-a778-0d299f10bd58
single
Malignancy in a multinodular goiter is most often:-
Follicular ca: - Seen in iodine deficient areas - M/C malignancy in long standing goiter - M/c malignancy in multinodular goiter Papillary ca: - Seen in iodine sufficient areas - M/C thyroid malignancy Anaplastic ca: - Rare; m/c seen in females - Usually seen in 7th - 8th decade of life Medullary ca: - Arise from Parafollicular C cells - C cells derived from ultimobranchial bodies
1
Follicular carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Surgery
FMGE 2018
ad397dae-ff17-4d8d-af86-9643f5bd0f28
single
Dohle bodies are seen in which of the following?
Döhle bodies are basophilic leukocyte inclusions located in the peripheral cytoplasm of neutrophils. They are said to be remnants of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Conditions associated with Dohle bodies: Burns Infections Physical trauma Neoplastic diseases Wissler’s disease May-Hegglin anomaly (seen in neutrophil, monocyte, lymphocyte) Chédiak-Steinbrinck-Higashi’s syndrome
2
Multiple myeloma
Burns
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
Lymphoma
Pathology
null
8dd73514-e4cc-4386-8a23-d741a06c27da
single
Diagnosis of TB acc to DOTS?
1 or 2 positives put of 2 sputum smear is considered as smear positive TB Ref: PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition pg 429
1
1 out of 2 samples positive
2 out of 3 samples positive
3 out of 3 samples positive
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health programmes in India
acdceff5-d185-49ab-943e-37a56b507fb2
multi
True about naltrexone is all except:
null
4
Acts on opioid receptors
Is used in treatment of alcohol dependence
Is used to reduce craving in dependence
Is an opioid agonist
Pharmacology
null
b7ae2f8e-8097-431f-afc1-a167dd5063e6
multi
A person developed anterior wall MI and died within 2 hours of onset of the symptoms. The pathological autopsy of the hea and observation of the involved myocardium under light microscopy, is underway. What will the finding be, if any?
Though usually no finding may be present in the 1st four hours, there may be waviness of myocytes and on electron microscopy disruption of the sarcolemma and mitochondrial amorphous densities may be present. Coagulative necrosis begins only after 4 hours and neutrophilic infiltration occurs only after 12 hours. Here the patient has not survived that long. Ref:Robbin's illustrated, 7th Edition, Page 579
3
Beginning of coagulation necrosis
Neutrophilic infiltration
Waviness of myosite fibres at the border
Well developed phagocytosis of dead cells
Pathology
null
d4ba3963-7a32-4ca0-b25b-09b8b3775aec
multi
Facilitation of flexor muscle tone is by
Rubrospinal tract facilitates flexor muscle and inhibits extensor muscles. Vestibulospinal tract facilitates extensor muscle of lower limb and inhibits flexors.
3
Vestibulospinal tract
Tectospinal tract
Rubrospinal tract
Reticulospinal tract
Physiology
null
e7347dce-3efd-4214-bc30-0aa2696ef978
single
Chromosomal number of primary cnermatecvte is
Ans. is a i.e. 44XY
1
44 XY
22 XY
22 XX
46 XX
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
143da966-f4fa-4e3b-a805-ce5b421b97c0
single
50 yr old female presented with lump in right breast. She was diagnosed having Luminal A carcinoma. All are true about this cancer except ?
Luminal A breast cancer Seen in elderly females M/c subtype ER/ PR positive Her 2 /Neu negative Low proliferation rate Ki 67 : low Best prognosis among subtypes Responsive to hormonal chemotherapeutic agents like tamoxifen and aromatase inhibitors, Respond poorly to non- hormonal chemotherapy drugs like paclitaxel. Immunohistochemistry staining of a tissue biopsy specimen of luminal type A breast cancer:
3
M/C subtype
Best prognosis
ER/ PR negative
Response poor to paclitaxel
Pathology
Breast
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multi
True about benzodiazepines ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lorazepam is shoer acting than temazepam Lorazepam has VA 10-20 hours, while Temazepam has VA 10-40 hours. About other options BZDs do not increase or decrease the release of GABA, they bind on GABAA receptors and increase Cl- conductance - GABA facilitatory action. Flumazenil (not atropine) is the antagonist of BZDs.
3
Increased release of GABA
Antagonzing release of GABA
Lorazepam is shoer acting than temazepam
Atropine is its antagonist
Pharmacology
null
98207879-4732-40a9-9fa6-0d137ab9a3c2
multi
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for:
null
1
Treponema
Actinomyces
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Microbiology
null
777f6a9a-864d-4fde-839e-b2b971c843d6
single
Curling ulcer is seen in -
Answer is 'a' i.e. Burns Curling ulcer is seen in Burn Cushing ulcer is seen in head injury.
1
Burns
Head injury
Trauma
Surgical operations
Surgery
null
981530a3-ec36-4c2e-a0c1-581066d8cb23
single
Which one of the following muscles of the soft palate supplied by the mandibular nerve?
null
3
Levator palati
Palat glossus
Tensor palati
Musculus uvulae
Anatomy
null
b466f617-03ba-4493-b55b-5e13cc0d1533
single
Pain is carried to
Neurons in the spinal dorsal horn process sensory information, which is then transmitted to several brain regions, including those responsible for pain perception. The dorsal horn provides numerous potential targets for the development of novel analgesics and is thought to undergo changes that contribute to the exaggerated pain felt after nerve injury and inflammation. Dorsal horn neurons receive sensory information from primary afferents that innervate the skin and deeper tissues of the body and that respond to specific types of noxious and non-noxious stimuli. These afferents terminate in the dorsal horn with a distribution pattern that is determined by their sensory modality and the region of the body that they innervate. The incoming information is processed by complex circuits involving excitatory and inhibitory interneurons and transmitted to projection neurons for relay to several brain areas. In addition, nociceptive information is conveyed to the ventral horn and contributes to spinally-mediated nocifensive reflexes. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:691,692,693
2
Ventralhom
Dorsal horn
Substantia nigra
None of the above
Physiology
Nervous system
381145cd-340c-46e5-8372-adc634b2595a
multi
Activation of the baroreceptor reflex
The baroreceptors are stretch receptors in the walls of the heart and blood vessels. The carotid sinus and aortic arch receptors monitor the arterial circulation. The baroreceptors are stimulated by distention of the structures in which they are located, and so they discharge at an increased rate when the pressure in these structures rises.
1
Is primarily involved in short-term regulation of systemic blood pressure.
Leads to an increase in heart rate because of inhibition of the vagal cardiac motor neurons.
Inhibits neurons in the CVLM.
Excites neurons in the RVLM.
Physiology
null
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single
Cyclic trend is shown by-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Cyclic trend* Some diseases occur in cyclic spread over a short period of time which may be week, days, months or years.* This is due to naturally occuring variation in herd immunity.* A build up of susceptible is again required in the herd before there can be another attack.* It may be due to antigenic variations as occur in influenza.* Examples - Epidemic of# Measles - every 2-3 years# Rubella - every 6-9 years# Pandemic of influenza - every 10-15 years.
4
Measles epidemic
Influenza pandemic
Rubella epidemic
All of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
801c9cd9-c0fb-4985-9d2a-7a788f0f8fb2
multi
Which among the following is not a feature of Unhappy triad of O' Donoghue?
Ans. is 4d' i.e., Fibular collateral ligament injury [Ref: Apleys 9k/ep. 876}o The most common mechanism of ligament disruption of knee is adduction (valgusj, flexion and internal rotation of femur on tibia which usually occur in sports in which the foot is planted solidly on the ground and leg is twisted by rotating body (i.e., foot ball, soccer, basket ball, skiing).o The medial structures medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) and medial capsular ligament are first to fail, followed by ACL tears, if the force is of sufficient magnitude. The medial meniscus may be trapped between condyles and have a peripheral tear, thus producing unhappy triad of O' Donoghue.
4
ACL injury
Medial meniscus injury
Medial collateral ligament injury
Fibular collateral ligament injury
Orthopaedics
Knee Ligament Injuries
a59df964-6514-41bd-a4b4-65056ccbd28e
single
The phenomenon of suspended animation may be seen in -
Suspended animation may be seen in electrocution, drowning, cholera, after anesthesia, shock, sunstroke, cerebral concussion, narcotic poisoning, new born infants and yogis/voluntary.
2
Throttling
Drowning
Strangulation
Brain hemorrhage
Forensic Medicine
null
fc0836d3-2912-4a30-8c37-2d345221cd4e
single
Endolymph is rich in ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., K+Fluid in inner ear There are two main fluids in the inner ear : -(i) Perilymph (ii) EndolymphPerilymphIt resembles ECF and is rich in Nu+ ions. It fills the space between bony and the membranous labyrinth, i.e., Scala vestibuli and scala tympani. It communicates with CSF through the aqueduct of Cochlea which opens into the scala tympani near the round window. Therefore It closely resembles CSF. It is formed by : -i) It is a filterate of blood serum and is formed by capillaries of the spiral ligament.ii) It is a direct continuation of CSF and reaches the labyrinth aqueduct of cochlea.EndolymphIt fills the entire membranous labyrinth including scala media (cochlear duct). It resembles intracellular fluid, being rich in IC ions. It is secreted by the secretory cells of the stria vascularis of the cochlea and by the dark cells (present in the utricle and near the ampullated ends of semicircular ducts).
4
Na+
Cl-
HCO-3
K+
Anatomy
null
1cb6e023-55fb-42b1-8337-481524031876
single
A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in sho chains. Direct wet from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is -
. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Listera monocytogenes . The impoant clues in this question are . Organisms are gram positive coccobacilli . Organisms are pleomorphic and occuring in sho chains. . There is tumbling motility. . All these are the features of Listeria monocytogens. . Corynebacteria are gram positive bacilli (not coccobacilli) and are nonmotile. . Enterococci (group ' d' streptococci) are gram positive cocci (not coccobacilli) and are non motile.
1
Listera monocytogenes
Corynebacterium sp
Enterococcus sp.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Microbiology
null
4ca835cb-92ef-4e0d-b698-28558cb5cacc
multi
Clinical goal for prevention of coronary hea disease aims at lowering the ratio of cholesterol/ HDL below: September 2011
Ans. C: 3.5 A ratio of less than 3.5 has been recommended as a clinical goal for CHD prevention Total cholesterol Desirable: less than 200 milligrams (preferably 180) Borderline: 200-239 milligrams High: 240 milligrams and above LDL cholesterol Desirable: less than 130 milligrams Borderline-high: 130-159 milligrams High: 160 milligrams or above HDL cholesterol Low: less than 35 milligrams Desirable: 50 or above Hea healthy numbers: Triglycerides: under 150 mg. Cholesterol: under 200 LDL: under 130 HDL: above 50 Cholestrol/HDL: <3.5
3
1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
cfda5844-09cb-4cf0-b188-5df78f64ccf0
single
All of the following statements regarding jaundice in a newborn are true, Except ________
A rapidly rising unconjugated bilirubin concentration, or absolute levels >340 mmol/L (20 mg/dL), puts the infant at risk for bilirubin encephalopathy, or kernicterus. Under these circumstances, bilirubin crosses an immature blood-brain barrier and precipitates in the basal ganglia and other areas of the brain. The consequences range from appreciable neurologic deficits to death. Reference : page 2001 Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition
3
Physiological jaundice usually peaks after 48 hours
Breast milk jaundice usually peaks after 7 day
High levels of conjugated bilirubin may cause kernincterus
All of the above are true
Pediatrics
New born infants
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multi
Systemic eosinophilia with Renal failure is found in all, except:
. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
2
Drug Induced Interstitial Nephritis
Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
Atherosclerotic Renal Failure
Polyaeritis Nodosa
Pathology
null
809b3d66-c4ec-465c-bf1d-53419ff7f0ad
multi
A 16-year-old female presents with cryptomenorrhea and with normal secondary sexual characters. Investigation of choice is
(C) Genital exam for out flow obstruction # Girls with Imperforate Hymen present with colicky abdominal pain which is often cyclic.> Menarche has not yet set in, however the secondary sexual characters have been well developed.> As vagina gets progressively & increasingly distended with menstrual blood, pressure symptoms follow. Difficulty during micturition finally ends up with urinary retention> On examination a hypogastric or suprapubic bulge is often obvious which may cause discomfort on palpation.> It may be mistaken for a full bladder, ovarian cyst, appendicular mass, matted loops of bowel and omentum, encysted ascites due to tuberculosis, or even pregnancy.> On separation of the labia, a bluish bulging membrane is recognized. Thus the diagnosis of imperforate hymen causing haematocolpos is arrived at a rectal examination reveals the bulge of the vagina anteriorly.> An imperforate hymen causing haematocolpos is not an infrequent clinical entity. It is observed in young girls.
3
MRI brain
Prolactin estimation
Genital exam for out flow obstruction
None
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
91de6ed2-64fa-41cd-8f92-3ae8285063eb
multi
Contractile dysfuncation seen in which type of cardiomyopathy?
Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) is characterized by progressive cardiac dilation and contractile (systolic) dysfunction, usually with concurrent hyperophy; regardless of cause, the clinicopathologic patterns are similar. DCM results in systolic (contractile) dysfunction. Causes include myocarditis, toxic exposures (e.g., alcohol), and pregnancy. In 20% to 50% of cases, mutations affecting cytoskeletal proteins are responsible. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1445
1
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Restrcited cardiomyopathy
Hyperophic cardiomyopathy
Infiltrative cardiomyopathy
Medicine
C.V.S
d40a4151-5a05-482c-b9cd-979cfd23aa2c
single
Salter's Scale is a useful method employed in the field to measure:
Bathroom weighing scale is unreliable instrument for measuring weight of children For field conditions, Salter's Spring Scale is quite satisfactory as it is easy to carry.
4
Mid arm Circumference
Length at bih
Skin fold thickness
Bih weight
Pediatrics
Growth
6c2c7971-b2ed-4e03-ab28-52500dde7097
single
Which of the following is the best indicator for long-term nutritional status?
Height for age is the best indicator for long-term nutritional status (chronic malnutrition) Weight for age is the most commonly used index, but it doesnot differentiate between wasting and stunting. Hence, it has limited clinical significance A low weight-for-height, or wasting, indicates acute malnutrition Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 333
2
Mid-arm circumference
Height for age
Weight for age
Weight for height
Pediatrics
Nutrition
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single
The main vector of Dengue fever is -
null
1
Aedes aegypti
Aedes albopictus
Aedes polynesiensis
Aedes scutellaris
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
bea7fda7-c42c-4f7f-af59-5459a664b179
single
In ICD-11, which of the following were added?
The new International Classification of Diseases (ICD), ICD-11, was revealed by the World Health Organization (WHO) on 18th June 2018, with changes to gender incongruence, the addition of gaming disorders, and better tracking of antimicrobial resistance. This is the first revision of the codes to be completely electronic, which WHO officials said was a better way to group conditions, and would enable patient safety to be recorded more easily. Ref :
4
Traditional medicine
Gaming Disorder
Gender Incongruence
All the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
e2da72a0-b272-44a5-8734-72440a93a194
multi
Lead time is defined is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Time between point where the diagnosis is made by screening test to usual diagnosis In respect to screening test and diagnostic test, a disease passes through following phase, sequentially. Disease onset - Disease process just staed. First possible point of diagnosis - The earliest point in disease process where a diagnosis can be made, i.e., before this point diagnosis can not be made by any test. Final critical point of diagnosis - The point after which even diagnosis and treatment will not change the outcome. Usual time of diagnosis - Time in disease process when most of the people are diagnosed by usual diagnostic procedure (not screening test).
2
Time between diagnosis and treatment
Time between point where the diagnosis is made by screening test to usual diagnosis
Time between disease onset and outcome
Time between usual time of diagnosis and outcome
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
dd96146f-a6bf-4867-819c-0dc38751bb56
single
In a population, total births in a year are 3050. There are 50 still births, 100 neonates die in first 7 days and 150 die in next 8-28th day life. Calculate Neonatal Mortality Rate.
null
3
250
100
83
90
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b8489ebc-23bc-473d-a4d5-8b2297959ccc
single
Menier's disease characterized by all EXCEPT :
Ans. is 'a' i.e. . Diplopia Meniere's disease (also k/a endolymphatic hydrops)Main pathology is distention of the endolymphatic system due to increased volume of endolymph.Cardinal symptoms:Episodic vertigoFluctuating hearing lossTinnitusSense of fullness or pressure in the involved ear.Diplacusis is seen in Meniere's disease*Patients of Meniere's ( or infact every cochlear Lesion) are poor candidates for hearing aids because of recruitment phenomenon seen in them *.
1
Diplopia
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Fullness of pressure in ear
ENT
Ear
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multi
Most common ovarian malignancy in post menopausal period is
Ans a Ref: Sheila balakrishnan page 256Epithelial tumor: Majority are seen in post menopausal woman, peak incidence between 50-60.30-40:peak incidence of borderline tumorsLess common under 40 yrsMost common epithelial tumor is serous cystadenoma followed by mucinous.Sex cord stromal tumors: can occur at all ages Germ cell tumors: common among children, young adults
1
Serous cystadenoma
Fibroma/thecoma
Teratoma
Mucinous tumor
Surgery
Miscellaneous
60dc0006-d1a0-46e9-ba6f-0410f242830a
single
Recurrence rate of ectopic pregnancy in a patient previously treated for ectopic-
A previous history of ectopic pregnancy is the strongest risk factor for another ectopic pregnancy. The increased incidence is due to both : presence of previous factors that led to initial ectopic and potential damage to fallopian tube from the prior ectopic and its treatment. Chance for intrauterine pregnancy: 40 % Chance for recurrent ectopic: 15 % (range: 4 % to 28%)
2
25%
15%
30%
50%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ectopic Pregnancy (Hello ! Where are you ?)
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single
Hernia with highest rate of strangulation:
Ans. (c) Femoral herniaRef.: Bailey & Love 26th ed. Ch. 60 / 960* High risk of strangulation is seen with femoral hernia as it has lacunar ligament (Gimbernat's) medially. This is a strong curved ligament with a sharp unyielding edge which impedes reduction of a femoral hernia.* 50% of cases present as an emergency
3
Direct inguinal hernia
Indirect inguinal hernia
Femoral hernia
Incisional hernia
Surgery
Femoral Hernias
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single
The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut down" is made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by
(Femoral nerve) * Great saphenous vein lies in the medial side of the leg and thigh, it is the MC site of venous cut down * It is accompanied by saphenous nerve all along, the nerve which supplies the medial aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot till the ball of great toe. * Saphenous nerve itself is a branch of femoral nerve and can get damaged during venesection of great saphenous. * The skin over the medial thigh is mainly supplied by the medial cutaneous branch of femoral nerve. * Sural nerve is actually a branch of tibial nerve and supplies the lateral side of the lower leg and lateral dorsum of the foot (little toe). * Superficial peroneal nerve supplies skin on the lateral aspect of the leg and most of the dorsum of the foot. * Deep peroneal nerve supplies the 1st web-space on the dorsum of the foot.
1
Femoral nerve
Tibal nerve
Sural nerve
Superficial perineal nerve
Surgery
null
23462546-0349-42d3-94d0-2e550d38a1ac
single
Single best moality indicator
ref: Park&;s 23rd edition pg 58 ASDR(Adjusted Standardised Death Rate): here, age adjustment or age standardisation is made, which removes confounding effect of different age structures and yields a single standardised or adjusted rate, by which the moality experience can be compared directly.
3
CDR
PMR
ASDR
CFR
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
a3a81f05-1ef0-4eff-a36c-912875a9cf38
single
Conn’s Syndrome is characterized by increased synthesis of
→  Conn’s Syndrome is a rare health problem, that occurs when the adrenal glands make too much aldosterone. This problem is also known as primary hyperaldosteronism.  → Aldosterone is a hormone, that controls salt and potassium level in the blood pressure.Too much leads to high blood pressure.  → It is common is females than in males.  → It can happen at any age, but more in people in their 30s and 40s.
2
Adrenaline
Aldosterone
Corticosteroids
None of the above
Medicine
null
9406f9c9-0e9e-4df0-accc-d80c8b7ae857
multi
Skin lesion in meningococcal meningitidis is due to
The endotoxin lipopolysaccharide of Meningococci is released by autolysis.- vascular endothelium is paicularly sensitive to the endotoxin. All major inflammatory cascade systems, as well as cytokines and nitric oxide, are triggered and unregulated. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 232
2
Exotoxin
Endotoxin
Allergic reaction
Direct vascular Damage
Microbiology
Bacteriology
e2bc4507-c60e-453a-a1a2-e82265bd4714
multi
True about thromboxane-A2 is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Platelet aggregation
2
Vasodilatation
Platelet aggregation
Potentiation of edema
Formed in endothelium
Pathology
Inflammation & Repair
e287bfcd-ee18-46b2-a0f6-75f4bb98f16f
multi
Mrs. X, Primigravida at 36weeks complains of generalized pruritis with increased intensity in soles. Diagnosis is
Clinical presentation of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy:Pruritus develops in late pregnancy, although it occasionally manifests earlier. There are no constitutional symptoms, and generalized pruritus shows a predilection for the soles. Skin changes are limited to excoriations from scratching. Biochemical tests may be abnormal at presentation, but pruritusmay precede laboratory findings by several weeks. Approximately 10 percent of women have jaundice.Ref: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 55
1
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
HELLP
Viral hepatitis
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
d1dd13f9-ee85-4f5a-979e-0f9f00b1d81e
single
Mucosa is never involved in which of the following disorders –
Mucosal involvement Common                →   Pemphigus Rare                      →   Pemphigoid Not involved          →   Dermatitis herpetifo
1
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Pemphigus vulgaris
Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Dental
null
44318d41-53dc-49db-83c1-8fea03a4f1fe
single
A 50-year-old pulmonologist is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and staed on standard drug therapy. After 1.5 months, the patient has developed fatigue, low grade fever, muscle aches, bone pains and body aches. The patient also complains of pleuritic chest pain. His sputum tests negative for acid fast bacilli. On fuher investigations, the patient tests positive for anti-histone antibodies. Abnormality in which of the following metabolic processes is responsible for patient's current condition?
Patient's symptoms including constitutional symptoms, ahralgia and pleuritic chest pain with positive anti-histone antibodies and recent use of isoniazid point towards the diagnosis of drug induced lupus erythematosus. Drugs undergoing acetylation in liver with the help of N-acetyl transferase are responsible for majority of cases of drug induced SLE. Hepatic expression of N acetyl transferase is genetically determined, and patients with a slow acetylator phenotype are more likely to develop DLE. Drugs undergoing Acetylation and therefore, responsible for DLE: Sulfonamides Hydralazine Isoniazid Procainamide
3
Sulfation
Glucuronide conjugation
Acetylation
Hydroxylation
Anatomy
Integrated QBank
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All are component of Obesity Surgery-Moality Risk Score (OS-MRS) EXCEPT:
Type-2 Diabetes mellitus is not a component of the Obesity Surgery-Moality Risk Score (OS-MRS). Obesity Surgery-Moality Risk Score (OS-MRS):clinically useful score to predict moality risk in patients undergoing gastric bypass Risk factor Score Age >45 yr 1 BMI >50 kg/m2 1 Male gender 1 Hypeension 1 DVT/PE 1 Risk Category Score Post-op moality A (Low) 0-1 0.3 B (Moderate) 2-3 1.7 C (High) 4-5 3.2
2
Age >45 yr
Type-2 DM
Hypeension
Male gender
Surgery
Robotics, Laparoscopy and Bariatric Surgery
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A 60 year old male was diagnosed with end stage kidney disease 5 years ago & has been managed with hemodialysis since then. He is also hypeensive & diabetic. He is not compliant with his medications & hemodialysis schedule & now presented with bone pain & dyspnea. CXR shows hazy bilateral infiltrates. Chest CT shows ground-glass infiltrates bilaterally. Lab studies show elevated levels of calcium & phosphate, PTH levels of 130 pg/ml. What would be the best management for this patient?
Given scenario suggests the diagnosis of teiary hyperparathyroidism- commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease who are poorly compliant with therapy. Features- bone pain, ectopic calcification & pruritus. Hypoxemia and ground-glass infiltrates on chest CT represent ectopic calcification of the lungs. A technetium-99 bone scan will show increased uptake in the lungs. Lab- Elevated calcium, phosphates & PTH levels Rx- Parathyroidectomy is done in this patient because of severe clinical manifestations.
4
Calcitriol 0.5 mg IV with hemodialysis with sevelamer three times daily
Calcitriol 0.5 mg orally daily with sevelamer 1600 mg three times daily
More aggressive hemodialysis to achieve optimal fluid and electrolyte balance
Parathyroidectomy
Medicine
Disorders of Parathyroid Gland
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Which of the following CLASP human experiment:
Ans. C. Main center for the experiment was in United kingdomCLASP human experiment:Correspondence to: CLASP Co-ordinating Centre, Harkness Building, Radcliffe Infirmary, Oxford OX2 6HE, UK- http: // www,researchgate.netCLASPThe impact of aspirin on proteinuric preeclampsia and its fetal sequelae in CLASP was ceainly smaller than in some previous reviews.The results of available trials do not suppo the widespread routine prophylactic or therapeutic use of antiplatelet therapy in pregnancy among all women judged to be at risk of pre-eclampsia or IUGR.Overall, the use of aspirin was associated with a reduction of only 12% in the incidence of proteinuria pre-eclampsia, which was not significant.Nor was there any significant effect on the incidence of IUGR or of stillbih and neonatal death.
3
Main center for the experiment was Geneva
Main center for the experiment was Tokoyo
Main center for the experiment was in United kingdom
Heparin low dose given
Pharmacology
null
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Which of the following is not a teiary amine derivative?
Ans. b. Glycopyrrolate Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary anticholinergic drug, which doesn't cross the blood brain barrier and completely lacks central effects.
1
Atropine
Glycopyrrolate
Scopolamine
Hyoscine
Pharmacology
null
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Confocal scanning laser ophthalmoscope uses ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diode laser Confocal scanning laser ophthalmoscope It is an instrument using confocal laser system to provide and analysethree dimentional image of the optic nerve head, peripapillary retina, and macular region. It uses a 670 nm diode laser and measures the amount of light reflected froma series of 16 - 64 sections in depth and reconstructs them to show the anatomy of the optic nerve head and reconstruct the anatomy of the retinal nerve fiber layer.
2
Infrared laser
Diode laser
Excimerlaser
YAG laser
Ophthalmology
null
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Incubation period of gonorrhoea is
Gonorrhea is a venereal disease that has been known since ancient times. The disease is acquired by sexual contact. Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The first step in infection is adhesion of gonococci to the urethra or other mucosal surfaces. Pili are involved in this adhesion. Adhesion is rapid and firm so that micturition after exposure offers no protection against infection. The cocci penetrate through the intercellular spaces and reach the subepithelial connective tissue by the third day of infection. The incubation period is 2-8 days. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 235
3
Less than 24 hrs
1 to 2 days
2 to 15 days
12 to 25 days
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Lecithin Sphingomyelin ratio in amniotic fluid is used to assess the maturity of :
Fetal lung
2
Fetal liver
Fetal lung
Placenta
Fetal kidney
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Whipples triad is seen in -
null
1
Islet cell tumour
Ca head pancreas
Argentaffinoma
Cholangiocarcinoma
Surgery
null
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Palpable pupura is seen in all conditions except –
Vasculitis of small vessels cause palpable purpura, whereas giant cell arteritis affects large vessels.
3
Cryoglobulinuria
H.S. pupura
Gaint cell arteritis
Drug induced vasculitis
Dental
null
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A 60-year-old industrial worker presents with shortness of breath for the past week. Blood withdrawn shows thick brownish red Color. Diagnosis?
Ans. C. Meth-hemoglobinemia* Sickle cell anemia has a pediatric presentation.* Hemolytic anemia will cause pallor and not brown discoloration of blood.* In G6PD in event of intravascular hemolysis the hemoglobinuria will cause a black urine. Therefore, by exclusion the answer is meth-hemoglobinuria.
3
Sickle cell anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Meth-hemoglobinemia
G-6-P-deficiency
Medicine
Blood
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A radiolucency in bone without periosteal bone reaction is seen in
Any lesion of bone destruction that has ill-defined borders and a lack of peripheral bone response (sclerosis) should be viewed with suspicion. Squamous cell carcinoma originating in bone  The internal structure is wholly radiolucent with no evidence of bone production and very little residual bone left within the center of the lesion. Periapical image reveals bone destruction similar to periodontal disease around the lateral incisor from a squamous cell carcinoma originating in the soft tissues of the alveolar process. In image A note the lack of a sclerotic bone reaction at the periphery.
1
Squamous cell carcinoma
Garres osteomyelitis
Osteosarcoma
Chronic osteomyelitis
Radiology
null
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Carcinoma tongue most frequently develops from:
Most common site of carcinoma tongue is middle of lateral border or the ventral aspect of the tongue followed by tip and dorsum.
2
Tip
Lateral border
Dorsal poion
All poions equally
ENT
null
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Low risk type of HPV
<p>HPV Human papilloma virus More than 200 types known .100 have been sequenced. These virus invade squamous epithelium and trigger cell proliferation. Viruses mainly being transmitted by fomites ,scratching, and auto inoculation. Low risk type-6 and 11 {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology, vishalakshi Vishwanath pg no.67.}</p>
2
Type-16
Type-6
Type-18
Type-31
Dental
Sexually transmitted diseases
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Me Naughten's rule is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Person is not responsible if he is not of a sound mind o According to Me Naughtcn's rule, a person is not responsible for his act, if has unsound mind at the time of act.o The criminal responsibility of an insane is judged as per the following rules :1) MC Naughten rule (legal test or right or wrong test):# Accused danieal MC Nauthten (probably suffering from paranoid schizophrenia and having persecutory delusions) shot Sir Peel's private secretory, Edward Drummond, mistaking him for the prime minister Sir Robert Peel. He was found not guilty on grounds of insanity. The answers given by panel of 14 judges to house of lords to clarify the legal position (on 19 june 1843) as known as MC Naughten rule.# It states that an accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved that at the time of commiting the crime, person was suffering from such a defect of reason from abnormality of mind that he didn't know the nature and quality of act he was doing or that what he was doing was wrong i.e. a person is not responsible if he is not of sound mind.# It is accepted in india as law of criminal responsibility and is embodied in section 84 IPC as - "nothing is an offence which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the nature of act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law".# The primary defect is that the criteria for deciding insanity is purely intellectual (reason based). And there is no place for delusional beliefs, hallucinations, emotional and volitional factors and the ability of an individual to control the impulses. This is because the abnormality of mind (term used in this rule) is a legal and not a psychiatric concept and is concerned with the mind (i.e. reason, memory and understanding) not with the brain.# Clearly proved (term) means that the mental abnormality had a direct causal relation to the offence (i.e. it would not have occurred in absence of mental abnormality).# Crime consists of actus reus (i.e. guilty act) and mens rea (wrong intention). So if at the time of crime, the accused had the capacity to know that his act was wrong, he will be fully responsible, even if he was mentally ill, and unable to refrain from doing the act at that time.# If an accused commits a crime under the influence of delusion, he is j udged as if the delusionary facts were real. So if due to an insane delusion, a person kills a man in self defence (thinking that he is attempting to kill him or thinking that he is a wild animal) or as a part of job (thinking that he is a state executioner and has to execute the victim) he has no criminal responsibility and is exempt from punishment. But due to an insane delusion, if a person thinks that another person has caused a serious injury to his fortune and character and kills him, he becomes responsible as under the law no one can kill a person in revenge.2) Doctrine of partial responsbility# If a person is suffering from some weakness or aberration of mind (though not completely insane), he is only partially responsible for his actions, e.g. obsessional states or depressions.3) Durban rule# Accused is not responsible for the act, if his act resulted from mental disease or defect.4) Currens rule# A person is not responsible if at the time of committing the crime, he did not have the capacity to regulate his conduct according to the requirments of law, as a result of his mental disease or defect.5) American law institute test# Insane lacks the capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to confirm to the requirements of law, therefore he is not responsible for crimes committed.6) Norwegion system# No defendent considered insane or unconscious at the time of offence, may be punished.
1
Person is not responsible if he is not of a sound mind
Person is held responsible even if he is not of sound mind
Person is always held responsible
Any of the above
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Psychiatry
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Nerve injured in subcoracoid dislocation of humerus is
null
1
Axillary nerve
Radial nerve
Brochial plexus
Median nerve
Orthopaedics
null
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Most common feature of opiate poisoning: NIMHANS 11
Ans. Respiratory depression
1
Respiratory depression
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Hypothermia
Forensic Medicine
null
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Which of the following is not a feature of rosacea?
Rosacea is a chronic disease affecting fair skinned middle aged adults characterised by flushing and telangiectasia in early stage, papules and pustules in inflammatory stage, papules and induction and rhinophyma in chronic stage. Ref: Rook textbook of Dermatology, 8th edition, Page : 43.1-3
3
Flushing
Telangiectasia
Mucosal ulcerations
Rhinophyma
Skin
null
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Levator ani muscle supplied by:
(Pudendal nerve) Ref: 394-BDC-2, 349-Snell 7thThe levator ani is supplied by:1. A branch from the fourth sacral nerve2. A branch either from the inferior rectal nerve or from the perineal division of the pudendal nerveBranches of the Sacral Plexus and Their DistributionBRANCHESDISTRIBUTION,Superior gluteal nerve- G. medius, G. minimus, and Tensor fasciaelatae muscleInferior gluteal nerve- G - maximusNerve to piriformis-Piriformis muscleNerve to obturator intemus- Obturator intemus and superior gemellus muscleNerve to quadratus femoris- Quadratus femoris and inferior gemellus musclePerforating cutaneous nerve- Skin over medial aspect of buttocksPosterior cutaneous nerve of thigh- Skin over posterior surface of thigh and popliteal fossa, also covers lower part of buttock, scrotum or labium majusSciatic nerve (L4- 5, S1,2,3) Tibial portion- Hamstring muscles (semitendinosus, biceps femoris . Adductor magnus. Gastrocnemius, soleus plantaris, popliteus, Tibialis posterior. FDL, FHL, and via medial and lateral planter branches to muscles of sole of foot; sural branch supplies skin on lateral side of leg and foot.Common peroneal portion- Biceps femoris (short head) and via deep peroneal branch: Tibialis anterior, EHL, EDL Peroneus tertius, EDB muscle, skin over cleft between first and second toes, the superficial peroneal branch supplies the peroneus longus and brevis muscles and skin over lower third of ant surface of leg and dorsum of foot.Pudendal nerve- Muscles of perineum including the external anal sphincter, mucous membrane of lower half of anal canal, perianal skin, skin of penis scretum, clitoris and labia majora and minora
2
Superior gluteal nerve
Pudendal nerve
Common peroneal portion
Internal iliac nerve
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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A female multipurpose worker does not do –
FHW does not do malaria surveillance hereself. FHW assists the male health worker in maintaining a record of cases of malaria, TB and leprosy.
2
Distribute condoms
Malaria suruveillance
Birth death statistics
Immunisation of mothers
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Protein that initiates synthesis of RNA primers
Classes of Proteins Involved in Replication Protein Function DNA polymerases Deoxynucleotide polymerization Helicases ATP -driven processive unwinding of DNA Topoisomerases Relieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwinding DNA primase Initiates synthesis of RNA primers Single-strand binding proteins (SSBs) Prevent premature reannealing of dsDNA DNA ligase Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand Harper30e pg: 378
3
SSBs
DNA Ligase
DNA Primase
Topoisomerases
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Volcano ulcers in esophagus are seen in
Answer- A. Herpetic esophagitisThe ulcers of herpes esophagitis can haye a punctate, linear, stellate, or volcano-like appearance, often with a thin halo fo edemaat the margins.The ulcers may be clustered together or widely separated with normal intemening mucosa.
1
Herpetic esophagitis
Candida esophagitis
Apthous ulcer in crohn
HIV esophagitis
Medicine
null
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Which of the following drug is not a GPIIb / III a antagonist?
Prasugrel is an antagonist of P2 Y12 receptors of ADP like clopidogrel.
4
Tirofiban
Abciximab
Eptiifibatide
Prasugrel
Pharmacology
null
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