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When pH of stomach lumen falls below 4, antrum of the stomach releases a peptide that acts locally to inhibit gastrim release. This peptide is
Somatostatin and Prostaglandins inhibits gastrin release.
3
Intrinsic factor
Secretin
Somatostatin
Gastrin
Physiology
null
8c1fe206-540d-4512-b655-6a07625df9ec
multi
Anion-gap Metabolism with decreased vision occurs with the following poisoning
(D) Methanol# Acute intoxication with Methanol is common in chronic alcoholics.> Headache, vertigo, vomiting, abdominal pain, dyspnea, blurred vision, and hyperemia of the optic disc can occur.> Visual disturbances are caused by damage to retinal cells and the optic nerve by methanol metabolites.> Severe cases of intoxication can lead to blindness.> Other symptoms include bradycardia, prolonged coma, seizures, acidosis, and death by respiratory depression.> Because methanol is biotransformed by alcohol and aldehyde dehydrogenase to highly toxic products (formaldehyde & formic acid, respectively), Ethanol, which has a high affinity for the enzyme, is useful in therapy because it reduces the biotransformation of methanol.> Other treatments include hemodialysisto enhance removal of methanol & its products and alkalinization to reverse metabolic acidosis> 4-methylprazole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has also been proposed for treatment.> Treatment with ascorbic acid would aggravate the acidosis.
4
Cadmium
Mercury
Ethanol
Methanol
Medicine
Miscellaneous
e04408d7-af7b-43dc-a9b1-1d0d673d0eb0
single
After her first urinary tract infection (UTI), a 1-year-old girl has a voiding cystourethrogram with findings shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
The radiograph shows reflux into the ureters and into the kidney, with dilation of the renal pelvis, making the diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR). The higher the reflux into the renal system, especially if the renal pelvis is dilated, the more likely it is for renal damage to occur; the grading system is based upon these radiographic observations. Grade I VUR is reflux of urine into an undilated ureter. Reflux into the ureter and collecting system without dilatation is called grade II. Grade III lesions have dilatation of the ureter and collecting system without blunting of the calyces. Grade IV lesions are characterized by blunting of the calyces, and grade V lesions demonstrate even more dilatation and tortuosity of the ureter. While somewhat controversial, low-grade lesions (grade I and grade II) usually are conservatively managed with close observation, daily low-dose antibiotics, and urinalyses and cultures every 3 to 4 months. Grade V lesions (and some grade IV lesions) require surgical reimplantation of a ureter if the findings persist. Lesions in between these two extremes are treatment dilemmas. Neither a diet low in protein nor early toilet training would likely affect the VUR.
1
Low-dose daily antibiotics
Immediate surgical reimplantation of the ureters
Weekly urinalyses and culture
Diet low in protein
Pediatrics
Urinary Tract
d29cc12d-80f3-413e-b756-8ae2eb8a7524
multi
The most common congenital cardiac abnormality associated with the maternal rubella infection during pregnancy is
Congenital rubella syndrome characterized by PDA,PS,VSD. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition ,p.no:401
2
Atrial septal defect
Patent ductus aeriosus
Ventricular septal defect
Coarctation of aoa
Pediatrics
C.V.S
751422fa-c4c2-48b6-b1db-44c7a8f07234
single
The most common side effect of IUD inseion is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bleeding o Most common side effect --> Bleeding o Most common side effect requiring removal of the device --> Pain
1
Bleeding
Pain
Pelvic
Ectopic pregnancy
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a0404fbd-ad9d-4e28-a006-548f3183ff78
single
Which of the following presents with a "string of pearl appearance"?
The lesions in Linear IgA disease with a bimodal age distribution ie 60 yrs comprise of uicated plaques and papules, and annular, polycyclic lesions often with blistering around the edge, the string of pearls sign/cluster of jewels sign.
3
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bullous pemphigoid
Linear IgA disease
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Skin
null
6a7858e8-7b84-4e31-9209-8e592fbd8b6f
single
Concealment of birth comes under which IPC?
Ans. (b) 318Ref. Parikh 6, p 5.87
2
317
318
319
320
Forensic Medicine
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
48ae00fb-5de7-4c78-af28-a824572b8150
single
Lisch nodule and somatostatinoma in pancreas is seen in?
Ans. (a) Neurofibromatosis* Neurofibromatosis type 1/von Recklinghausen disease caused by inherited gene, the NF1 gene codes for the protein neurofibromin.* Patients with neurofibromatosis develop cafe-au-lait spots, and benign and malignant tumors of the nervous system.* Benign nervous system involvement include neurofibromas, and the malignant include peripheral nerve sheath tumor.* They can also develop distinctive eye lesions called Lisch nodules, and a small percentage develop somatostatinomas of the pancreas/duodenum* The most common cause of death is CNS tumors.Also Know* Turcot syndrome is characterized by intestinal polyposis and CNS tumors: most commonly glioblastoma or medulloblastoma* MEN2A sipple consists of parathyroid adenoma, medullary carcinoma thyroid, phaeochromocytoma.
1
Neurofibromatosis
Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A
Turcot syndrome
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Surgery
Pathophysiology - Pancreatic Endocrine Tumors
9d2ddb3e-bef0-43ef-8585-a2ac730b6523
single
Foramen scarpa is another name of
null
2
Mental foramen.
Incisive foramen
Infra orbital foramen.
Supraorbital foramen.
Anatomy
null
917afbe2-1dbf-40b3-bf1a-dbac3e0f4fdf
single
The "knot" in judicial hanging is placed at
Ans. is 'b' i.e. The side of the neck Though submental knot (below the chin) is thought to be more effective and ensures a quicker death; subaural knot (side of the neck under the angle of the jaw/mandible) on the left side is the preferred position in India as well as England. Judicial hanging causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of 2nd and 3rd or 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae. B/l fractures of either the pedicles or laminae of the arch of the 2nd, 3rd or 4th cervical vertebrae occur.In proper judicial hanging, there is rupture of the brain stem between the pons and the medulla.This results in instantaneous and irreversible loss of consciousness (d/t destruction of reticular formation) and in irreversible apnoea (d/t destruction of the respiratory centre).Death is instantaneous due to damage to spinal cord or brain stem though the heart may continue to beat for 15 to 20 minutes and muscle jerking may occur for quite some time.
2
The back of the neck
The side of the neck
Below the chin
Choice of hangman
Forensic Medicine
Injuries
a4dcc8b5-2d52-4297-a019-c79abe94af3c
single
Organ most commonly damaged in penetrating injury of abdomen is -a) Liverb) Small intestinec) Large intestined) Duodenum
null
3
ac
a
ab
bc
Surgery
null
04b4e7d6-9982-48d9-b6c2-cd6d2d9e259a
multi
Non-noxious stimuli perceived as pain is termed as:
Answer is A (Allodynia) : Perception of a non painful stimulus (non-noxious stimulus) as 'pain' is termed as `allodynia'. Terminology Sensory Disturbance Allodynia Situation in which a non painful (non-noxious) stimulus once perceived is experienced as painful.( example is elicitation of a painful sensation by application of a vibrating tuning fork) Hyperalgesia Situation in which a mildly painful (mildly noxious) stimulus once perceived is experienced as severely painful, often excruciating Hyperesthesia Increased sensitivity or pain in response to touch Hyperpathia Broad term that encompasses all above phenomenon, namely, Allodynia, Hyperalgesia and Hyperesthesia
1
Allodynia
Hyperalgesia
Hyperesthesia
Hyperpathia
Psychiatry
null
183cab54-79b5-40e0-a92c-38e176d69848
multi
Not true regarding NK cells -
NK cell's cytotoxicity is not antibody dependent or MHC restricted :NK cellsNatural killer cells Reff: Anantharayan & Panikers textbook f microbiology 9th edition pg:137
2
Active against malignant cells
Inactive MHC antigen for killing microorganisms
First line defense against viral infections
No prior sensitization required
Microbiology
Immunology
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multi
Maximum oxygen concentration can be delivered by?
Choice D: Reservoir face mask is a high flow, variable performance device. At flow rate of 12-15L/min the delivered Fi02 is in the range of 75-90%. Choice C is simple face mask while choice B is Nasal cannula and both can deliver limited oxygen up to 40% due to diffusion and mixing with air. Choice A: Venturi mask is a high flow, fixed performance device. It can deliver up to 60% oxygen.
4
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<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />
Medicine
Flow Volume curve, Spirometry and DLCO
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single
Hatter shake is seen in which poisoning?
Ans. (b) MercuryRef. Harrison 18/e, chapter 371
2
Aluminum
Mercury
Lead
Arsenic
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
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single
Graze is a type of ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Abrasion Abrasion It is a destruction of the skin, which involves the superficial layers of the epidermis only. They are of 4 types: Scratches- its a abrasion with length but no significant width or a a very superficial incision. Grazes-most common. They occur when there is movement between the skin and some rough surface in contact with it. Pressure or friction abrasion- they are caused by crushing of the superficial layers of the epidermis and are associated with a bruise of the surrounding area. Impact or contact abrasion- they are caused by impact with a rough object, when the force is applied at or near a right angle to the skin surface. Patterned abrasion- impact abrasion and pressure abrasion reproduce the pattern of the object causing it and are called Patterned abrasion.
4
Bruise
Contusion
Laceration
Abrasion
Forensic Medicine
null
7a919782-d04e-4469-9f02-c5e1817214c6
single
True about reliability of a test
RELIABILITY OF A TEST • Gives same results on repeated tests: Reliability • Investigator’s knowledge is important • Consistency and reproducibility of the test are not a problem • Extent of variation of measurement of contained behaviour
3
Consistency and reproducibility of the test are not a problem
Investigator’s knowledge is important
Gives same results on repeated tests
Extent of variation of measurement of contained behaviour
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
817c552f-927c-4750-8ad7-b3f9b485bc07
multi
All are anti-oxidants except
Antioxidant vitamins are vitamin C, carotenes and vitamin A, and vitamin E.
3
Vit A
Vit C
Vit D
Vit E
Biochemistry
null
80814582-7ca6-4445-8211-fc8710cf8312
multi
Streptococcus causing rheumatic hea disease is
Streptococcus pyogenes infection leads to two impoant non-suppurative post-streptococcal sequelae - acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. This complication ensues 1-3 weeks after the acute infection so that the organism may not be detectable when sequelae set in. In rheumatic fever, carditis, including connective tissue degeneration of the hea valves and inflammatory myocardial lesions characterized by Aschoff nodules is seen. Occurs due to an antigenic cross-reaction between group A carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes and cardiac valves Streptococcal antigens cross-reactive with human tissues Streptococcal antigen Human antigen Disease Hyaluronic acid Synol fluid Reactive ahritis Cell Wall M protein Myocardium ARF(Acute rheumatic fever) Cell Wall C carbohydrate Cardiac Valves ARF(Acute rheumatic fever) Peptidoglycan Skin antigens Guttate psoriasis Cytoplasmic membrane Glomerular vascular intima Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 215
3
Streptococcus milleri
Streptococcus mutans
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus equisimilis
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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single
In the incidence of primary angle closure glaucoma, male to female ratio is:
Ans. 1:4
4
1:01
1:02
1:03
1:04
Ophthalmology
null
940ad782-1cdb-4775-b499-68da9d210105
single
At 29 weeks gestational age, it becomes apparent that the fetus has developed hydrops. All of the following are characteristics of fetal hydrops Except
Fetal hydrops occurs as a result of excessive and prolonged hemolysis due to isoimmunization.Characteristics of fetal hydrops include abnormal fluid in two or more sites such as the thorax, abdomen, and skin. The placenta is also markedly erythematous, enlarged, and boggy. In addition, massive hepatomegaly and splenomegaly may be present
2
Polyhydramnios
Small placenta
Pericardial effusion
Subcutaneous edema
Microbiology
All India exam
95046eb2-90c8-424b-9a61-b6b32a9fd4c5
multi
Global rupture due to blunt trauma is indicated by
C i.e. Contusion + Haemorrhage + Low intraocular pressure Complications of Blunt Trauma Voissius ring (on anterior surface of lens) Q Rossette shaped cataract Q Angle recession with secondary glaucoma Q Global rupture indicated by contusion, haemorrhage & low intraocular pressure Q Hyphaema with elevated lop
3
Blow out fracture
Lens sublu xati on
Contusion + haemorrhage + low intraocular pressure
Proptosis and decreased mobility of muscle
Ophthalmology
null
15b7a7b1-97e9-42e4-aa91-28b1229f08a5
single
Not a feature of septic tank
null
1
Used where public sewerage system is adequate
Water tight compartment
Used where water supply is adequate
Used for personal and small public use
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a81d68e9-f7f6-4538-9a5e-4a8018d3afa4
multi
A patient presents to a clinic with complaints of headache, fatigue. Lab data show serum sodium, 122 mEq/L; serum osmolality, 240 mOsm/L; urine osmolality, 455 mOsm/L. which condition best correlates with these data?
Hyponatremia, hypo-osmolality, and inappropriately concentrated urine are characteristic of SIADH. The syndrome results from excessive secretion of vasopres­sin. This could be due to ectopic tumor secretion of vasopressin, various central nervous system complica­tions, or it could be drug induced. The increased vasopressin causes excessive water retention, resulting in dilutional hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality. Vol­ume expansion inhibits the renin-angiotensin system. Plasma aldosterone therefore tends to be low, which partly explains the inappropriately concentrated urine.
4
Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
SIADH
Unknown
null
5a0b4040-da02-425b-a1e9-91b9424dd2c8
single
Very severe pneumonia in a child include all except
Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 435
2
No feeding
Fever
Chest indrawing
Stridor
Unknown
null
72c40b34-7322-4af6-a61d-86126f91a7cd
multi
Calibre is defined as -
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ; 28th edition ; Pg.no. 122 It is also called gauge . Also refer fig 8-16 (cross section of a rifled barrel)
2
Distance between two diametrically opposite grooves
Distance between two diametrically opposite lands
Distance between two diametrically opposite lands and grooves
Ratio of the length and width of the barrel
Forensic Medicine
Mechanical injuries
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multi
Which of the following test is used to detect signs of organic brain damage?
Bender Gestalt test is a brief, nonverbal, perceptual motor assessment instrument. It was originally developed by Lauretta Bender as a measure of visual motor maturation in children. In this test patients are asked to copy designs from the card (containing design) in front of them. Now it is most widely used as a screening measure for brain dysfunction in both adults and children. Ref: Concise Encyclopedia of Special Education: A Reference for The Education of Special Education, 2nd Edition By Cecil R. Reynolds, Page 125 ; Essentials of Abnormal Psychology By V. Mark Durand, 5th Edition, Page 82 ; BRS Behavioral Science By Barbara Fadem, 5th Edition, Page 71
2
Rorschach Test
Bender Gestalt Test
Sentence Completion Test k
Thematic Aperception Test
Psychiatry
null
b408d916-7ca1-4fd0-9d10-0805561cf9dc
single
Which of these is a water soluble vitamin?
null
2
Vitamin A
Vitamin B12
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Biochemistry
null
082a8346-1113-445e-90c3-1e245b9fae2d
single
Not a feature of chronic liver disease
Koilonychia is not a feature of chronic liver disease.
4
Hepatomegaly
Variceal bleeding
hepatic encephalopathy
Koilonychia
Medicine
null
4b0822ee-9350-4478-8f86-5bce965031fe
single
Earliest presentation of hypopituitarism in adults is?
In children the earliest presentation of hypopituitarism is growth retardation and hypogonadism is the earliest manifestation in adults. Trophic hormone failure with pituitary compression or destruction usually occurs sequentially. Sequence of fall of hormonal levels is GH>FSH>LH>TSH>ACTH. 1st hormone to fall in Sheehan Syndrome is Growth Hormone.
4
Growth failure
Anosmia
Visual field defects
Hypogonadism
Medicine
Disorders of pituitary gland
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single
A patient who was on aspirin for long period was selected for an elective surgery. What should be done
A i.e. Stop Aspirin for 7 days
1
Stop aspirin for 7 days
Infusion of fresh frozen plasma
Infusion of platelett concentration
Go ahead with surgery maintaining adequate hemostasis
Anaesthesia
null
082a5d7c-670f-4f28-8c0b-55af105cc15d
single
Fetal pas are palpable at the earliest by: Maharashtra 08
Ans. 20 weeks
3
16 weeks
18 weeks
20 weeks
28 weeks
Forensic Medicine
null
ecc874b2-6e11-4bd8-95b4-084ff3900e9c
single
Incudo malleal joint belongs to which of the following group of joints?
Incudomalleal joint formed by the aiculation of head of malleus and head of incus is a saddle joint. Examples of Saddle joints: ? 1st carpometacarpal joints? Sternoclavicular joint? Calcaneocuboid joint? Incudo malleolar joint
1
Saddle joint
Pivot joint
Plane synol joint
Condylar joint
Anatomy
null
a32b13fa-d927-4396-9bc7-8a5f42c3828b
multi
Treatment of Choice for Annular Pancreas
Ans. (a) Duodeno duodenostomyRef: Bailey And Love 27th edition Page 1219* Annular Pancreas is the result of failure of complete rotation of ventral pancreatic bud during development, so that the ring of pancreatic tissue is surrounding the 2nd or 3rd part of pancreas.* Most common in down syndrome cases.* Presents with Vomiting in neonatal age.* Treatment is Duodeno Duodenostomy* In late cases presenting with pancreatitis - resection of head of pancreas is preferable to a lesser procedure than resection.
1
Duodeno duodenostomy
Gastro jejunostomy
Vagotomy and GJ
Billroth 2 reconstruction
Surgery
Pancreas
e9686f93-2cad-4ecc-af80-8860c36b5703
single
Commonest cause of short stature in children
null
4
Under nutrition
Hypothyroidism
Familial short stature
Constitutional delay
Pediatrics
null
b2f4acdb-d947-4007-b8f7-43fbc2f53b79
single
All are true statement about spinal cord except
Final terminal is the pia connecting conus medullaris to coccyx. Below the end of Dural sac at S2, dura encloses this filum and attaches to coccyx as coccygeal ligament.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 53)
1
Coccygeal ligament is investing layer of dura over filum terminale
Dural sac ends at S2 veebra
Cords ends at lower border of L1
Filum terminate extends up to coccyx
Anatomy
Brain
2926177a-04b6-41ab-b344-ec8f7663e802
multi
All are involved in energy metabolism except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vitamin B12 The active forms of five of the B Vitamins paicipate in the release of energy from carbohydrate, fat and proteins. These five vitamins of Vitamin B group which are involved in energy metabolism are :-Thiamin (Vitamin BI)Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)Niacin (Vitamin B3)Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5 )Biotin (Vitamin B7 or Vitamin H)
4
Vitamin B,
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B7
Vitamin B12
Biochemistry
null
353f1f40-ddec-4b48-b69d-3fcb31cf72ae
multi
A patient presented with history of recurrent attacks of optic neuritis, an episode of transverse myelitis with no white mater lesions on mri brain. Aquaporin 4 antibody testing was positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
In patients with NMO, attacks of ON can be bilateral and produce severe visual loss (uncommon in MS); myelitis can be severe and transverse (rare in MS) and is typically longitudinally extensive involving three or more contiguous veebral segments. Also in contrast to MS, progressive symptoms typically do not occur in NMO. The brain MRI was earlier thought to be normal in NMO, but it is now recognized that in many cases brain lesions are present, including areas of nonspecific signal change as well as lesions associated with specific syndromes such as the hypothalamus causing an endocrinopathy; the area postrema in the lower medulla presenting as intractable hiccoughs or vomiting; or the cerebral hemispheres producing focal symptoms, encephalopathy, or seizures. Large MRI lesions in the cerebral hemispheres can be asymptomatic, sometimes have a "cloud-like" appearance and, unlike MS lesions, are often not destructive, and can resolve completely. NMO is an autoimmune disease associated with a highly specific autoantibody directed against aquaporin-4 (AQP4) that is present in the sera of ~70% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of NMO. AQP4 is localized to the foot Ref Harrison 20th edition page 3202
4
multiple sclerosis
neuromyelitis optica
acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
miller fischer syndrome
Medicine
C.N.S
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single
Ventouse in 2nd stage of labour is contraindicated in:
null
4
Persistent occipito-posterior position
Heart disease
Uterine inertia
Preterm labour
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Alpha feto protein is increased in
Alpha fetoprotein AFP is a normal component of plasma protein of the fetus secreted by yolk sac and embryonal hepatocytes(fetal liver) which usually reduces after bih and persists as a low value level. Normal value is upto 10 ng/ml. It is an impoant tumour marker for hepatocellular carcinoma (100-1000 ng/ml). It also increases in non seminomatous testicular tumours, hepatoblastoma and some ovarian tumours(yolk sac tumours). It also increases in benign conditions (<100 ng/ml). It is useful in diagnosing omphalocele, ataxia telengiectasia, neural tube defects. Reference : page 594 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
1
Hepatoblastoma
Neuroblastoma
Seminoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Surgery
Urology
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single
↑ energy linear acceleration used in-
X-ray tubes produce X-ray by accelerating electrons to high energies.
1
X-ray
Cathode rays
Photon rays
α - rays
Radiology
null
b1ed5dcc-c3d8-442c-bc3e-1266ea347227
single
H. pylori causes -
null
2
Type A Gastritis
Type B gastritis
Autoimmune
Allergic Gastritis
Surgery
null
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multi
Metastasis not'ound in -
Extremities distal to elbow and knee are least commonly involved in metastasis. Fibula is distal to knee.
3
Femur
Humerus
Fibula
Spine
Orthopaedics
null
beb0bcc4-4be8-474c-8bf4-6b1919076d6d
single
MHC is impoant in pathogenesis of: March 2005
Ans. C: Auto-immune diseasesThe major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a large genomic region or gene family.It is the most gene-dense region of the mammalian genome and plays an impoant role in the immune system and autoimmunity.The proteins encoded by the MHC are expressed on the surface of cells and display both self antigens (peptide fragments from the cell itself) and nonself antigens (e.g., fragments of invading microorganisms) to a type of lymphocytes called a T cell that has the capacity to kill or coordinate the killing of pathogens in infected or malfunctioning cells The classical MHC molecules (also referred to as HLA molecules in humans) have a vital role in the complex immunological dialogue that must occur between T cells and other cells of the body. The polypeptides may be "self," that is, originating from a protein created by the organism itself, or they may be foreign ("nonself"), originating from bacteria, viruses, pollen, and so onThree main sets of genes are suspected in many autoimmune diseases. These genes are related to:Immunoglobul insT-cell receptorsThe major histocompatibility complexes (MHC).Ceain MHC class 11 allotypes are strongly correlated withHLA DR2 is strongly positively correlated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, narcolepsy and multiple sclerosis, and negatively correlated with DM Type 1.HLA DR3 is correlated strongly with SjOgren's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, SLE, and DM Type 1.HLA DR4 is correlated with the genesis of rheumatoid ahritis, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, and pemphigus vulgaris.Fewer correlations exist with MHC class I molecules. The most notable and consistent is the association between HLA B27 and ankylosing spondylitis.
3
Idiopathic disease
latrogenic diseases
Auto-immune diseases
Tumours
Pathology
null
d6d04ead-afda-4dac-927f-e3585cfcb8db
single
If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is:
Ans. B. 2.0L/hra. Rate of elimination (RoE)- Amount of drug/timeb. Clearance (Cl):- rate of elimination/concentrationc. In the given MCQ, RoE=10mg/hr;Con=5mg/L,d. Therefore, Cl=10/5=2L/hr
2
0.5 L/hr
2.0 L/hr
5.0 L/hr
20 L/hr
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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single
NOT true regarding Azygos and Hemiazygos Veins are
Left 2nd, 3rd, 4th posterior Intercostal veins form Left Superior intercostal vein that drains into left Brachioaphalic vein.
3
Right 2nd, 3rd, 4th posterior Intercostal veins form Right Superior intercostal vein that drains into Azygos vein
Right 1st posterior Intercostal Vein drain directly to Right Brachioceplalic Vein
Left 2nd, 3rd, 4th posterior Intercostal veins form Left Superior intercostal vein that drains into Accessory Hemiazygos vein
Left 1st posterior Intercostal Vein drain directly to Left Brachioceplalic Vein
Anatomy
null
99d3b611-97a3-42e0-8e8a-c5c174914098
multi
Which of the following statements are True or False about Cretinism? 1. Goitre present at bih 2. Can be diagnosed by serum T4 levels 3. Most commonly seen in Iodine deficiency endemic areas 4. Skeletal development is delayed 5. Physiological jaundice is prolonged
Physiological jaundice is prolonged and skeletal development is delayed in cretinism. It is commonly seen in Iodine deficiency endemic areas. Ref: Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 122
3
1,2,3 True & 4,5 False
1,4,5 True & 2,3 False
3,4,5 True & 1,2 False
1,2,3 False & 4,5 True
Pediatrics
null
9a8b9b00-a70f-474e-b956-435a759db233
multi
Ocular bobbing?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pons Square-wave erks Not localizing Macro square-wave erks Cerebellum Macrosaccadic oscillation Cerebellum Voluntary nystagmus Volitional Saccadic pulses Cerebellum, lower brainstem Ocular flutter Cerebellum, lower brainstem Opsoclonus Cerebellum, lower brainstem Ocular bobbing Pons
2
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Coex
Ophthalmology
null
0ebe7e40-27fe-47a7-a939-0951a2e0f43a
single
Proximal & distal renal tubular acidosis is differentiated by all, except:
Answer is B (Hypokalemia):
2
Stones in kidney
Hypokalemia
Daily acid secretion
Presence of Fanconi syndrome
Medicine
null
a966a320-c8c8-4dea-ba99-366f8aea37bc
multi
For myringoplasty, Graft material of choice is
Low metabolic rate, no need for a separate incision, same thickness as that of tympanic membrane ours the use of temporalis fascia. Other graft materials also include perichondrium, dura and cadaveric tympanic membrane. Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition
3
Peritoneum
Palmar fascia
Temporalis fascia
Fascia lata
ENT
Diagnostic and operative ENT
ca69c564-4381-4fc6-a468-e79263297c97
single
A Pt. has ecchymoses and petechiae all over the body with no hepatospleenongaly. All are true except ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bleeding into the joints o Petechiae and ecchymoses all over the body with no hepatosplenomegaly suggest Idiopathic thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) Hematemesis, melena and bleeding in the joints are unusual (They are seen when there is loss of coagulation factors) More than 80% of cases resolve spontaneously within 1-2 months.
2
Increased megakaryocytes in bone narrow
Bleeding into the foints
Decreased platelet in blood
Disease resolves itslef in 80% of Pt. in 2-6 weeks
Pediatrics
null
b1b43b96-91c5-49ca-a9f1-5c118c54ee2a
multi
Most common fracture in the children is
(Supra condylar humerus) (596-Apley's 8th)Supracondylar fracture of humerus - usually seen in children suggest an extenson injury, usually due to a fall on the outstretched hand. The distal fragments is pushed backwards and (because the forearm is usually in pronation) twisted inwards, sometimes injuring the brachial artery or Median nerve"These are among the commonest fractures in children"
1
Supracondylar humerus
Tibia fracture
Fracture shaft of the femur
Metatarsal fracture
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around Arm & Elbow
5942bb07-4170-4d5b-ad89-78bebac43ac3
single
Meckel's diveiculum is a derivative of -
Answer is 'b' ie vitellointestinal duct The Vitellointestinal duct or the omphalomesentric duct is the connection between the yolk sac and the developing gut. Normally, it gets obliterated and disappears. But sometimes it may persist in various forms giving rise to congenital anomalies:? a. Umbilical fecal fistula - due to persistence of entire vitellointestinal duct. b. Umbilical sinus - when the duct is obliterated at the intestinal end but communicates with the umbilicus at the distal end. c. Meckel's diveicultun - when the duct is obliterated at the umbilicus but persists at it intestinal end. d. Umbilical cyst or vitelline cyst -- when both ends are occluded but the tract in between persists. e. Fibrous band -- the entire tract may be obliterated, but a fibrous band may persist between the ileum and the umbilicus. The fibrous band may lead to intestinal obstruction.
2
Allantoic diveiculum
Vitellointestinal duct
Ventral mesogastrium
Ductus aeriosus
Surgery
null
5a131bcf-4e6a-412e-b99e-dca0b8c69ac3
multi
Positional veigo is most commonly seen due to pathology in
Positional veigo is commonly due to pathology in the Posterior Semicircular Canal.BPPV is the commonest cause of peripheral veigoRef: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 105
4
Lateral semicircular canal
Superior semicircular canal
Inferior semicircular canal
Posterior semicircular canal
ENT
Ear
82101f07-ab8a-464d-a17e-6815feaefe97
single
The Halophilic Vibrio that is implicated in gastroenteritis is which of the following?
It is the causative agent of food poisoning due to sea fish. Usual signs are abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and fever. Feces contain cellular exudate and blood. Dehydration is moderate. Recovery occurs in 1-3 days. Common in summer and in adults. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panicker's, 8th Edition, Page 312
4
Vibrio Mimicus
Vibrio Vulnificus
Vibrio Alginolyticus
Vibrio Parahaemolyticus
Microbiology
null
8298ab5b-dbc3-49c0-aca9-da096f700a5f
single
What does Serum ferritin level
The serum ferritin level is the laboratory test to estimate iron stores. As iron stores are depleted, the serum ferritin falls to Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 847
3
Decreased capacity to absorb iron
Microcytic hypochromic anemia
Absent body iron stores
Sideroblastic anemia
Medicine
null
3dad0c2d-5b9c-4508-b526-42d14bad3052
single
'Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of hairy cell leukemia:
Answer is A (Steroid) Steroid has no role in treatment of hairy cell leukemia. Cladribine is the drug of choice. Clinical complete remissions with cladribine occur in majority of patients and longterm disease free survival is frequent. Treatment of hairy cell leukemia is chemotherapy with Cladribine : Drug of choice. Alpha-interferon Q PentostatinQ
1
Steroid
Pentostatin
Splenectomy
Alpha-interferon
Medicine
null
1329167d-0ce5-42f9-8be1-0999da85c950
single
GnRH agonist therapy for leiomyoma is given for
GnRH agonist treatment is continued for 3 → 6 months.
2
2 → 4 months
3 → 6 months
4 → 8 months
5 → 10 months
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
af50b446-99fa-4dc2-80ae-c3b11434e55e
single
Galton's system is used for -
Dactylography (Galton's system) → Study of finger prints. Poroscopy (Locard's system) → Study of number, sizes and distribution of pores of sweat glands on ridges (used when only a part of the finger print is available). Program → Study of the footprint. Cheiloscopy (queiloscopy) → Study of lip prints. Rugoscopy (Palatoprints) → Study of the anterior part of the palate.
1
Dactylography
Poroscopy
Ridgeology
None
Forensic Medicine
null
ff946a3c-d427-421d-bb7b-b9c36fc25d05
multi
Which of the following conditions shows susceptibility to squamous cell carcinoma in skin?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above Squamous Cell Carcinoma:* Squamous cell carcinoma is the second most common tumor arising on sunexposed sites in older people, exceeded only by basal cell carcinoma.* Except for lesions on the lower legs, these tumors have a higher incidence in men than in women.* Invasive squamous cell carcinomas are usually discovered while they are small and resectable.* Less than 5% of these tumors metastasize to regional nodes; these lesions are generally deeply invasive and involve the subcutis.* The most important cause of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma is DNA damage induced by exposure to UV light.* Tumor incidence is proportional to the degree of lifetime sun exposure.* A second common association is with immunosuppression, most notably chronic immunosuppression as a result of chemotherapy or organ transplantation.* Immunosuppression may contribute to carcinogenesis by reducing host surveillance and increasing the susceptibility of keratinocytes to infection and transformation by oncogenic viruses, particularly human papilloma virus (HPV) subtypes 5 and 8. These same HP Vs have been implicated in tumors arising in patients with a rare autosomal recessive condition, epidermodysplasia verruciformis, which is marked by a high susceptibility to cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas.* In addition to its damaging effect on DNA, sunlight, through uncertain mechanisms, seems to cause a transient defect in cutaneous innate immunity that may diminish immunemediated elimination of sun-damaged cells.* Other risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma include industrial carcinogens (tars and oils), chronic ulcers and draining osteomyelitis, old burn scars, ingestion of arsenicals, ionizing radiation, and (in the oral cavity) tobacco and betel nut chewing.* Most studies on the genetics of squamous cell carcinoma have focused on acquired defects in sporadic tumors and their precursors (actinic keratoses), and the relationships between these defects and sun-exposure.* The patients patients with xeroderma pigmentosum show remarkable susceptibility to squamous cell carcinoma.* As with all other forms of cancer, cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma stems from multiple driver mutations.* In addition to defects in p53, mutations that increase RAS signaling and decrease Notch signaling are common and are also likely to contribute to the transformation process.
4
Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Actinic keratosis
Xeroderma pigmentosum
All the above
Surgery
Neoplasia
fb3ab446-f250-4636-9121-b8abf96545d5
multi
In hepatic cirrhosis, which of the following is increased -
null
3
Alpha 1 globulin
Alpha 2 globulin
Gamma globulin
All of the above
Medicine
null
77ebf7bd-4e76-4791-a522-b3a72d98438d
multi
Atavism is resemblence of features to
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Grandfather "In Atavism the child does not resemble its parents but its grandparents" - Parikh, 6/e.
4
Mother
Father
Neighbour
Grandfather
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
e0964ff7-73e1-4a6f-ade9-1573aaff2f0d
single
Total number of genes in a human being is?
D i.e. 30,000
4
800,000
50,000
100,000
30,000
Biochemistry
null
eebbc01e-3687-42e9-be41-5ac175409aab
single
Complete Rx of intussception is indicated by
null
1
Free passage of barium in the terminal ileum
Passage of feces and flatus along with barium
Improvement of clinical condition
None
Surgery
null
fbb36bba-e891-4b3c-ad3b-d0cbdbedf99f
multi
A 25-year-old male presents with swelling over right knee since 1 month. The radiograph is shown here. Which of the following statement is true regarding this condition?
Osteosarcoma This primary malignant bone-forming neoplasm is rare, but is still the commonest primary malignant lesion of bone after myeloma.
4
It is a bone forming primary malignant tumour of bone
Codmans triangle can be seen
Hematogenous spread with lung metastasis are common.
All of above
Pathology
All India exam
62ff3826-f09c-49ee-8337-2963295bb0db
multi
A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for evaluation of weakness in his arms and legs. The symptoms started gradually, and are now more noticeable and interfering with his ability to work as an electrician. On physical examination, the cranial nerves are normal, but there is weakness of his left handgrip and right leg quadriceps with loss of muscle bulk. There are obvious fasciculations over the left forearm and right thigh. Tone is increased in the arms and legs and the reflexes are brisk. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The most common initial symptom of ALS is weakness and wasting of the extremities. The fasciculations can be a very prominent part of the disease. This is rare in other neurologic disorders.
1
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
myotonic muscular dystrophy
amyotonia congenita
tabes dorsalis
Medicine
C.N.S.
1c81c6b1-87ca-4b7d-b0e3-39ab2c4d3a42
multi
Palmaris Brevis is supplied by:
Ans. B. Ulnar Nervea. In the proximal forearm, ulnar nerve gives muscular branches to: (a) flexor carpi ulnaris, and (b) medial half of flexor digitorum profundus.b. In the mid-forearm, it gives off palmar cutaneous branch, which provide sensory innervation to the skin over the hypothenar eminence.c. About 5 cm proximal to the wrist, it gives off dorsal cutaneous branch which provides sensory innervation to the skin over the medial third of the dorsum of the hand and medial 11/2 finger.d. The superficial terminal branch supplies palmaris brevis provides sensory innervation to the skin on the palmar surface of medial 11/2 fingers.e. The deep branch of ulnar nerve is purely motor and supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the hand including adductor pollicis except other muscles of thenar eminence and first two lumbricals.
2
Median nerve
Ulnar Nerve
Radial Nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
e99507f5-41f1-4f0c-98fe-079b1c60ae32
single
Browne's tube is used for -
Brown's tube is the most commonly used chemical indicator of moist heat sterilization in the autoclave. It contains red solution that turns green when exposed to temperature of 121degC for 15 minutes in an autoclave.
1
Steam sterilization
Radiation
Chemical sterilization
Filtration
Microbiology
General Microbiology Pa-2 and Pa-3 (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics)
1a18c20f-842b-4f2a-bb8e-09c305304a27
single
Philadelphia chromosome is an example of-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Balanced translocation
1
Balanced translocation
Deletion
Non-dysjunction
Duplication
Pathology
null
3e66d463-3343-4009-9b5b-ad2b4eff5399
single
Most common twins after assisted reproduction:
Most common twins after assisted reproduction are dizygotic twins. For increasing the success of IVF and the expenses involved, it's a norm to transfer 2-3 embryos of day 3 or 1-2 embryos of Day 5. For women lesser than 35 years, the implantation rate is better and hence these are the ones who have more multiple pregnancies.
3
Monozygotic
Acardiac twin
Dizygotic twin
Conjoined twin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Twin Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Gestational Trophoblastic disease and contraception in special situations (Sour Grapes!)
2e44beef-a93b-41ea-9199-dc089328ba0a
single
Spasmolytic analgesic iS-
Ans. is `a' i.e., Dicyclomine o Antispasmodic (spasmolytic) drugs are used in various colic (pain) e.g. abdominal colic or renal colic. o Among the given options, dicyclomine is spasmolytic.
1
Dicyclomine
Physostigmine
Tropicamide
None
Pharmacology
null
a42e6c9b-cd6c-43a6-ac60-b95f1d628413
multi
Omalizumab is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anti IgE antibody
3
Anti IgM antibody
AntilgG antibody
Anti IgE antibody
Anti IgD antibody
Pharmacology
null
d3734a53-7189-40c0-a10f-3a3f861fcdca
single
Common site of bleeding:
Sites of Epistaxis 1) Little's area - 90% 2) Above the level of middle turbinate- From anterior and posterior ethmoidal vessels 3) Below the level of middle turbinate-From sphenopalatine aery 4) Posterior pa of nasal cavity 5) Nasopharynx 6) Diffuse -Both from septum and lateral nasal wall; Seen in general systemic disorders and blood dyscrasias Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 198.
3
Woodruff's plexus
Brown area
Little's area
Vestibular area
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
ddcb345f-367a-4447-9bb9-8a603499348b
single
In normal NST, the time period for two or three accelerations that peak at 15 bpm or more above baseline is:
Definition of nonstress test (NST) currently recommended by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Academy of Pediatrics: Two or more accelerations that peak at 15 bpm or more above baseline, each lasting 15 seconds or more, and all occurring within 20 minutes of beginning the test. Accelerations with or without fetal movements be accepted, and that a 40-minute or longer tracing--to account for fetal sleep cycles--should be performed before concluding that there was insufficient fetal reactivity. Although a normal number and amplitude of accelerations seems to reflect fetal well-being, "insufficient acceleration" does not invariably predict fetal compromise. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 15. Antepaum Assessment. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
3
3
15
20
60
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
2d5b06be-f317-477e-8e98-4fcaa746e0b9
multi
Which of the following movements of thumb are not affected in radial nerve injury:
A i.e. Opposition; C i.e. Adduction; B i.e. Flexion Posterior interosseous branch of radial nerve supplies extensor pollicis longus & brevis (EPL & EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (AbPL)Q (3) thumb muscles. So radial nerve injury weakens (affects) abduction & extension movements of thumb and spares flexion, adduction & oppositionQ Movements of Thumb Movements Extension Flexion Abduction Adduction Opposition Muscle - Extensor pollicis longus - Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) - Abductor pollicis - Aductor pollicis - Opponens & (EPL) /PIN /M longus (AbPL)/ (AdP)/U pollicis (OP) /M Nerve - Extensor pollicis brevis - Flexor pollicis brevis PIN - ls, dorsal - Flexor pollicis (EPB)/ PIN - Abductor pollicis longus (FPB)/M & U - Opponens pollicis (OP) /M - Abductor pollicis brevis (AbPB)/M interosseous /U brevis /M & U (AbPL) / PIN * PIN = posterior interosseous nerve (br of radial nerve); M= Median & U = Ulnar nerve * Flexor pollicis brevis has dual nerve supply i.e. superficial head from median and deep hed from ulnar nerve.
4
Opposition
Flexion
Adduction
All
Anatomy
null
d55dc5b2-6c3c-4e6e-8c96-e08422cfcd95
multi
Schwartze sign seen in:
(b) Otosclerosis(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2213)10% cases of otosclerosis are active. In these the active division is taking place on the medial wall of middle ear leading to increased vascularity. This appears pinkish through the intact tympanic membrane leading to flamingo pink appearance of TM also known as Schwartze sign.In Glomus jugulare the vascular tumour coming from the floor of the middle ear gives a rising sun appearance on the TM. This is also known as red reflex.In Meniere's and Acoustic neuroma the TM appears no3rmal, i.e. pearly white.
2
Glomus jugulare
Otosclerosis
Meniere's disease
Acoustic neuroma
ENT
Otosclerosis
ac90ec88-2fd9-497a-8260-ba8aa3f7993a
single
Statin having longest half life:
Rosuvastatin It is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, having a mechanism of action similar to that of other statins. Its approximate elimination half life is 19 h and its time to peak plasma concentration is reached in 3-5 h following oral administration. REF : katzung pharmacology : 14th ed
1
Rosuvastatin
Pravastatin
Simvastatin
Lovastatin
Pharmacology
All India exam
facb6045-682b-4207-8338-3d34096083b9
single
Telmisaan lowers blood pressure by -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Blocking ATI receptors ACE inhibitors : Captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, ramipril, perindopril, imidapril, trandopril, benazepril, fosinopril. Ren in inhibitors : Aliskiren, remikiren, enakiren. ATI blockers : Losaan, candesaan, irbesaan, valsaan, telmisaan.
3
Inhibiting formation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Inhibiting conversion of renin to angiotensin I
Blocking ATI receptors
Interfering with degradation of bradykinin
Pharmacology
null
9c058b12-6bd7-400c-acda-26d6d653c770
single
Insulin non dependent DM correlate with which fat reserve -
Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Intraabdominal fat {Ref: Harrison 18th/e p. 2968-2975; IT^/e p. 2279]Risk factors for type 2 Diabetes mellitusObesityo The risk of impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) or type 2 diabetes rises with increasing body weight.o The NHS demonstrated an approximately 100-fold increased risk of incident diabetes over 14 years in nurses whose baseline BMI was >35 kg/m2 compared with those with BMI < 22.o Obesity acts at least in part by inducing resistance to imidin-mediated peripheral glucose uptake, which is an important component of type 2 diabetes.o Reversal of obesity decreases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes and, in patients with established disease, improves glycemic control.Fat distributiono The distribution of excess adipose tissue is another important determinant ofthe risk of insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes.o The degree of insulin resistance and the incidence of type 2 diabetes are highest in those subjects with centra/ or abdominal obesity, as measured bv waist circumference or waist-to-hio circumference ratio.o Intra-abdominal {visceral) fat rather than subcutaneous or retroperitoneal fat appears to be of primary- importance in this regard.o This 'male'type obesity is different from the typical female' type, which primarily affects the gluteal and femoral regions and is not as likely to be associated with glucose intolerance or cardiovascular disease,o Why the pattern of fat distribution is important and the relative roles of genetic and environmental factors in its development are not known.Other important risk factorsBirth weiehtThere is an apparent U-shaped relationship between birth weight and risk of type 2 diabetes.Lifestyle factors# Although insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes have a substantial genetic component, they> can also be influencedr both positively and negatively, by behavioral factors, such as physical activity, diet, smoking, alcohol consumption, body weight, and sleep duration. Improving these lifestyle factors can reduce the risk of diabetes mellitus.ExerciseA sedentary' lifestyle lowers energy- expenditure and promotes weight gain and increases the risk of ty!pe 2 diabetes.Among sedentary' behaviors, prolonged television watching is consistently associated with the development of obesity and diabetes.Physical activity ofmoderate intensity reduces the incidence of new cases of type 2 diabetes, regardless of thepresence or absence of IGT.SmokingSeveral large prospective studies have raised the possibility' that cigarette smoking increases the risk of type 2 diabetes.While a definitive causal association has not been established, a relationship between cigarette smoking and diabetes mellitus is biologically possible based upon a number of observations:Smoking increases the blood glucose concentration after an oral glucose challenge.Smoking may impair insulin sensitivity.Cigarette smoking has been linked to increased abdominal fat distribution and greater waist-to-hip ratiothat, as mentioned above, may have an impact upon glucose tolerance.Sleep durationo Quantity and quality-# of sleep may predict the risk of development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep were also associated with an increased incidence.Dietary Patternso Dietary patterns affect the risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Consumption of red meat, processed meat and sugar sweetened beverages is associated with an increased risk of diabetes, whereas consumption of a diet high in fruits, vegetables, nuts, whole grains, and olive oil is associated with a reduced risk.Increased risko Western versus prudent diet,A western diet (characterized by high consumption of red meat, processed meat, high fat dairy! products, sweets, and desserts) was associated with an increased risk of diabetes independent of BMI, physical activity, age, or family history.o Sugar-sweetened beveragesSugar-sweetened beverages, in particular soft drinks, have been associated with obesity in children. Most, but not all, studies report an increased risk of diabetes with consumption of sugar-sweetened beverages.o Vitamin D deficiencySeveral prospective observational studies have shown an inverse relationship between circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels and risk of type 2 diabetes.o SeleniumAlthough animal models suggest that low doses of the antioxidant selenium may improve glucose metabolism, these findings have not been demonstrated in humans.o Iron intake An association between serum ferritin lex-els, high iron intake,, and type 2 diabetes has been reported, but the association is not well understood. Low iron diets are not recommended.o Chromium deficiency Chromium deficiency is generally limited to hospitalized patients with increased catabolism and metabolic demands in the setting of malnutrition.Other patients at risk for chromium deficiency include patients with short bowel syndrome, burns, traumatic injuries, or those on parenteral nutrition without appropriate trace mineral supplementation.Reduced risk for diabetes mellituso Mediterranean dieto Dairy productso Nutso Whole grains and cereal fibero Fruito Coffee and caffeinated beverages
1
Intraabdominal fat
Lower body fat
Subcutaneous fat
Upper body fat
Medicine
Diabites & Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
674089d2-fbfd-4696-9ea0-58f055aa85aa
single
Paramesonephric duct forms:
Ans. is c, i.e UterusPara mesonephric duct is the other name for Mullerian duct so now we don't need any explanation for this one.
3
Seminal vesicle
Ureter
Uterus
Vas deferens
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Malformation of the Female Generative Organs
fe37ce63-399d-4495-b41a-c0f633993323
single
Thyroid cancer associated with radiation exposure?
Ans. (b) PapillaryRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 763-64* Ionizing radiation can cause genetic mutations leading to malignant transformation.* This association is much stronger for thyroid cancer than for other malignancies, and radiation is the only well-established environmental risk factor for thyroid malignancy.* The risk of developing thyroid cancer after exposure to radiation is greater in those exposed during childhood and increases with higher doses of radiation delivered to the thyroid. This is true for exposure to ionizing radiation given for medical purposes and for environmental exposures.* The association with radiation is much stronger for papillary than for follicular cancer.
2
Medullary
Papillary
Follicular
Anaplastic carcinoma
Surgery
Thyroid Malignancies
045f4102-f784-47fe-aac7-1f2550fc4f36
single
Pro-inflammatory Cytokines include all of the following except -
Cytokines are involved in the immunological reaction, but some cytokines may also take part in inflammation. o They may be: - 1. Proinflammatory cytokines Involved in the amplification of inflammation and tissue destruction. IL-1 & TNF-a are the two most important proinflammatory cytokines. IL-6 may also act as a proinflammatory cytokine. Other proinflammatory cytokines are IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-I1, IL-12, IL-15, IL-21, IL-23, IFN-gamma and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF). ( Source Fundamental immunology by William E. Paul). 2 Anti inflammatory cytokines Reduce inflammation and produce healing, Example are IL-4, IL-13, IL-1, IL-10
3
Interleukin 1
Interleukin 6
Interleukin-10
TNF-Alpha
Pathology
null
e55fd0e0-cea1-47e4-b492-5646c8cc37d6
multi
Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS?
kaposi sarcoma commonly seen in patient with AIDS REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.576
1
Kaposi sarcoma
Astrocytoma
Gastric Carcinoma
Primary CNS lymphoma
Microbiology
Virology
e2891448-9e64-4845-af58-158c7f749be5
single
Ebstein anomaly is associated with all of the following Except
EBSTEIN'S ANOMALY:Ebstein's anomaly is due to the abnormal downward displacement of tricuspid valve into the right ventricle.Tricuspid valve has 3 leaflets- anterior, posterior and septalAnterior leaflet of valve retains attached to valve ring and the other two leaflets displaced downwards.HEMODYNAMICS:The displaced tricuspid valve divides the right ventricle into two poions namely- thin atrialized ventricle and the small normal right ventricle.The effective output from the right side of the hea is decreased because of the combination of poorly functioning small right ventricle, tricuspid valve regurgitation and obstruction to right ventricular outflow due to the large sail-like anterior cuspBlood flows from right atrium to left atrium through patent foramen ovale or ASD results in RIGHT TO LEFT SHUNT-CYANOSISEbstein's anomaly is a ductal dependant(PDA) pulmonary flow cardiac disease.CLINICAL FEATURES:CyanosisParoxysmal attack of tachycardiaDyspnea on exeionSIGNS:Holosystolic murmur due to tricuspid regurgitationMassive cardiomegaly-BOX SHAPED CARDIOMEGALYECG- tall, broad P waves.
3
Patent PDA
Massive hea on chest X-ray
VSD
Tall, broad P wave
Pediatrics
All India exam
e6d29122-e711-49c1-a652-424ff57217f9
multi
Botulin toxin acts by:
Decreases Secretion of Ach
1
Decreases Secretion of Ach
Decreases Synthesis of Ach
Muscle nerve block
Inhibits Ach release
Microbiology
null
7303fbcb-ffcd-450d-bcbc-1f4d814c0da5
single
Which of the following is not related to epidemiology ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery According to the International Epidemiological Association (IEA), epidemiology has three main aims : a) To describe the distribution and magnitude of health and disease problems in human populations. b) To identify aetiological factors (risk factors) in the pathogenesis of disease; and c) To provide the data essential to the planning, implementation and evaluation of services for the prevention, control and treatment of disease and to the setting up of priorities among those services. In order to fulfil these aims, three rather different classes of epidemiological studies may be mentioned : descriptive studies, analytical studies, and experimental or intervention studies. The ultimate aim of epidemiology is to lead to effective action : a) To eliminate or reduce the health problem or its consequences; and b) To promote the health and well-being of society as a whole.
4
Promotion of health
Identification of etiology of disease
To collect data of magnitude of health problem
To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c560ad86-f316-44b0-b2e8-aa6ed968d257
single
1st formed dental tissue
null
2
Enamel
Dentin
Cementum
Bone
Dental
null
d791387f-f4a4-4b94-a23c-6da137ba6cd5
single
Which is not an intermediate filament?
Intermediate filaments - resist external pressure cell type specific: used as cellular markers Types Nuclear(Lamin-A,B,C) Vimentin like (Vimentin, desmin, GFAP, peripherin) Epithelial(Types 1,2 keratin) Axonal( Neurofilament proteins- NF-L,M,H)
3
Desmin
Vimentin
Tubulin
Keratin
Physiology
Cell Membrane and transpo protiens
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single
Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflex?
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2
Ondansetron
Metoclopramide
Sodium citrate
Atropine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Cellular bearings of herediatary disease seen in:
A i.e. DNAHereditary information is preserved in DNA. Thus all genetic diseases are due to change in DNAQ.
1
DNA
Ribosome
RNA
Membrane
Biochemistry
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single
The following test is not used for dignosis of leprosy-
Lepromatous test it is not a diagnostic test but a prognostic test. it helps in the classification of leprosy. antigens used for skin testing: mitsuda lepromin, Dharmendra leprominmanifests as biphasic reaction: early Fernandez (48-72hrs)and late mitsuda reaction (3-4weeks)Represents Cmi towards antigen. Erythema and induration more than 5mm indicates positive and good delayed hypersensitivity. lepromin test positive: tuberculoid, borderline tuberculoid leprosy lepromin test negative in lepromatous leprosy, borderline lepromatous leprosyand mid borderline leprosy iadvl textbook of dermatologypage 2060
1
Lepromin test
slit skin smear
Fine needle aspiration cytology
skin biopsy
Dental
Bacterial infections
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single
Kuffer cells are found in:
Liver
3
Hea
Lungs
Liver
Spleen
Pathology
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single
Not a Epiphyseal tumors
Simple bone cyst (Unicameral bone cyst) is a Metaphyseal tumor.
4
Chondroblastoma
Osteoclastoma
Clear cell Chandrosarcoma
Simple bone Cyst
Radiology
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single
Rupture of supraspinatus manifests as -
Supraspinatus is responsible for shoulder abduction for the first 15 degrees. If it is torn completely, the initiation of abduction is impossible. Passive abduction upto 15 degrees allows other muscles to take over for further abduction.
3
Painful movements
Flat shoulders
Difficulty in initiation of abduction
Difficulty in abduction after 90°
Anatomy
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583ef76d-7f69-4a9c-a47d-ef3c3ce71bc3
single
A night shift worker complains of profuse Rhinorrhea and Sneezing for the past few days . Which among the following drug can be given to him ?
1st generation anti histamines 2nd generation anti histamines 1. Chlorphenaramine 2. Promethazine 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Cyclizine 5. Meclizine 6. phenaramine 1. Terfenadine 2. Fexofenadine 3. levocetrizine 4. Loratidine Note : All the 1st generation drugs can cross BBB and produce CNS actions so all 1st generation antihistamines can cause sedation. so 2nd generation antihistamines are given in this patients.
2
Promethazine
Fexofenadine
Chlorpheniramine
Pheniramine
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
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Commonest cause of A-V fistulae is:-
Aeriovenous Fistula (AVF) MC type of AVF: Congenital MC cause of acquired AVF: Penetrating trauma
1
Congenital
Traumatic
Surgical creation
Tumor erosion
Surgery
Aerial disorders
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single
Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is
Adults Upper midline incision extending down across the left of the umbilicus is the preferred incision. But can be extended into the thorax or do horizontal T or extended as needed depending on internal organ injury Paediatric abdomen:- The abdomen is wider with the bladder intra abdominal. Transverse supraumbilical incisions are preferred to veical midline Scars may migrate during growth. Ref.Bailey $ Love;24th edition
1
A.Always Midline incision
B.Depending upon the organ
C.Transverse incision
D.Paramedian
Surgery
Trauma
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single
Drugs associated with ischemic stroke include the following except -
null
4
Cocaine
Oral contraceptives
Amphetamines
Barbiturates
Medicine
null
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multi
According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than:
Please note that 110g/litre= 11g/dl A WHO expe group proposed that anaemia or deficiency should be considered to exist when haemoglobin is below the following levels: Cut-off points for the diagnosis of anaemia: AGE GROUP VENOUS BLOOD (g/dl) MCHC (%) Adult males 13 34 Adult females, non-pregnant 12 34 Adult females, pregnant 11 34 Children, 6 months to 6 years 11 34 Children 6 to 14 years 12 34 Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 18th edition; Page-450
3
100 gm/litre
105 gm/litre
110 gm/litre
115 gm/litre
Social & Preventive Medicine
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single
Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used in the management of seizure caused by overdose of a local anesthetic?
IV diazepam controls convulsions. In fact these can be prevented by preanesthetic administration of diazepam (1-2 mg/kg),especially if large doses are to be used. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 201
3
Baclofen
Dantrolene
Diazepam
Tizanidine
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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