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Which of the following drugs is effective against pseudomonas infection?
Polymyxin 8 and Colistin Polymyxin and colistin were obtained in the late 1940s from Bacillus polymyxa and B. colistinus respectively. They are active against gramnegative bacteria only; all except Proteus, Serratia and Neisseria are inhibited. Both have very similar range of activity, but colistin is more potent on Pseudomonas, Salmonella and Shigella. Mechanism of action They are rapidly acting bactericidal agents; have a detergent-like action on the cell membrane. They have high affinity for phospholipids: the peptide molecules (or their aggregates) orient between the phospholipid and protein films in gram-negative bacterial cell membrane causing membrane distoion or pseudopore formation. As a result ions, amino acids, etc. leak out. Sensitive bacteria take up more of the antibiotic. They may also inactivate the bacterial endotoxin. They exhibit synergism with many other AMAs by improving their penetration into the bacterial cell. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:734
3
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
Colistin
Cefixime
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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Infliximab ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha
3
CD 20 antagonist
IL6 antagonist
Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha
Chimeric antibody against Her2-neu
Pharmacology
null
8b9ffacd-f864-45de-b835-f6746007a55a
single
Alpha methyldopa primarily used for
Methyldopa was primarily used in the past but is now used widely for pregnancy induced hypeension. Refer katzung 11e p173
1
Pregnancy induced hypeension
Renovascular hypeension
First line agent in hypeension
Refractory hypeension
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
4ff035e3-f116-4b92-b214-d6579ee9988b
single
Figure of 8 appearance is seen in
null
3
Paracoccidiomycosis
Coccidiomycosis
Blastomycosis
Sporotrichosis
Microbiology
null
920cbe2f-3212-444d-b068-7ffd8433cac7
single
A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exeion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is:
D i.e. Cholinergic Uicaria
4
Chronic idiopathic utricaria
Heat uicaria
Solar uicaria
Cholinergic uicaria
Skin
null
c79ceb7e-0bc4-465d-99d4-dec847224acb
multi
All are features of Lobar pneumonia except
Consolidation in Lobar pneumonia in Non - segmental.
3
Homogeneous consolidation
Air bronchogram sign present
Segmental consolidation
Typical of pneumococcal infection
Medicine
null
335c1f79-9ab9-4f35-997b-69fe3c3cf0fe
multi
Frame shift mutation DOESN'T occur in multiples of:
Ans: (b) 3Ref: Harper's Biochemistry 30th edn. / 417-18* Frame-shift mutations* The genetic code is read in form of triplets of nucleotides which are known as codons.* If one or two base pairs from the code are removed or inserted, the genetic code will be misread from that change onwards, because the genetic code is not punctuated. Therefore the amino acid sequence translated from the change onwards will be completely changed. This is known as frame shift mutation.* However if the removal /insertion happens in multiples of three, rest of the reading frame doesn't change and hence the amino acid sequence will not change.
2
2
3
4
5
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
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single
Among the following, which one is considered as 'pathologic problem' while planning treatment in orthodontics?
Inadequate attached gingiva around crowded incisors indicates the possibility of tissue dehiscence developing when the teeth are aligned, especially with non-extraction (arch expansion) treatment. proffit page 173
3
Tendency of lower jaw and teeth to be behind upper
Deep overbite
Minimal attached gingiva in lower anterior region
Decalcification
Dental
null
01292a7b-e4cf-47a6-874f-db071aa76942
single
Best view for nasal bone ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral
1
Lateral
Towne's
Cald-well
Submentoveical
ENT
null
2d1dac92-532c-4fa6-95f7-e946408ef2fb
single
Which of the following is true regrading spinal cord and neuraxial blockade
Spinal cord ends at upper border of L3 in children , and at lower border of L1 in adults. The dural sac extends upto S3 in children and S2 in adults.
2
Spinal cord ends at S1 in adults
Spinal anaesthesia is given below L3 level in children
Dural sac extends upto S2 in children
Spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 in children
Anaesthesia
null
ca9a743a-4f82-46b1-bc78-6318cb3c1e32
multi
Poorest prognosis in AML is seen in which cytogenetic abnormality -
null
1
Monosomy 7
No cytogenetic abnormality
t (15, 17)
inv. 16
Medicine
null
bb601f8b-bda4-43aa-83c1-494c8c72eadf
single
Mysthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivity
null
2
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Microbiology
null
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single
All are seen in ARDS, except :
Answer is C (Hypercapnia): ARDS results in Type I Respiratory failure and is characterized by normal or low PaCO2 (Hypocapnia) and not Hypercapnia (see previous explanation on types of respiratory failure). ARDS (Acute Respiratory distress syndrome) ARDS is an acute form of lung injury characterized by: Increased permeability of alveolar capillary membrane. Diffuse alveolar damage. Accumulation of proteinaceous pulmonary edema (non cardiogenic pulmonary edema Q)
3
Pulmonary edema
Decreased tidal volume
Hypercapnia
Decreased compliance
Medicine
null
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multi
The highest E.S.R. is seen in following conditions except:
Polycythemia rubra
4
Polymyositis rheumatica
Multiple myeloma
Temporal activities
Polycythemia rubra
Pathology
null
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multi
Pit viper beongs to -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Crotalidae o Poisonous snakes are divided into six families:Viperidae - Russell's viper, gaboon viper, saw scaled viper, puff adder. They are found in all parts of world except America.Crotalidae - Rattlesnakes, pigmy rattlesnakes, copperheads, pit viper & bush master. They are found in Asia and America.Elapidae - Cobras, kraits, mambas, tiger snake, death adder, copperhead snakes and coral snakes. They are found in all parts of world except Europe.Hydrophidae or sea snakes - All sea snakes are poisonous but they seldom bite.Colubridae - Boomslangs, bird snake of the African continent.Atractaspididae - African & Middle Eastern burrowing asps or stiletto snakes.
4
Viperidae
Elapidae
Sea snakes
Crotalidae
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
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single
"Pointing index" is due to paralysis of:
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Median nerve Pointing index:On asking the pt. to make a fist, it is noticed that the index finger remains straight.This is d/t Paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and that of lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle (to the index finger) in median nerve palsy at a level of proximal to elbow.*Some other related questions:* Wrist drop is seen in*-Radial nerve palsy* Foot drop is seen in*-Common peroneal nv palsy.Winging of the scapula*Claw hand(Main -en -griffe):-Long thoracic nerve palsy.* Partial claw hand*-Ulnar nerve palsy* Complete claw hand*-Ulnar +Median nerve palsy* Ape thumb deformity*-Median nerve palsy* Pointing index*-Median nerve palsy* Policeman's tip deformity*-Also k/a Erb's paralysis d/t injury in the region of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus.Nerve roots involved are mainly C5 & partly C6.
1
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Auxiliary nerve
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
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A 25 years old female comes to your clinic for evaluation of infertility. A hysterosalpingogram reveals Asherman's syndrome. What symptoms will the patient have?
Ans. is d, i.e. HypomenorrheaThe typical presenting symptom in adenomyosis is hypomenorrhea, i.e. less blood loss during menstruation.
4
Menorrhagia
Oligomenorrhea
Polymenorrhea
Hypomenorrhea
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Endometriosis and Infertility
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Anticancer drug also used in RA, produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis
Cyclophosphamide IMPOANT POINTS ON HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS: Drugs causing: Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Metabolite responsible: Acrolein - In Cyclophosphamide Chloracetaldehyde - In Ifosfamide Treatment: Mesna. Nitrogen mustards: 1. Cyclophosphamide: Powerful vesicant Prodrug - Activated by hepatic biotransformation to aldophosphamide. Acrolein - One of its degradation products. Responsible for hemorrhagic cystitis - Characteristic adverse effect. Use: DOC for Wegener's granulomatosis. Adverse effects: Hemorrhagic cystitis (Characteristic) - Treated by mercapto ethane sulfonic acid (mesna). May cause cardiac dysfunction, pulmonary toxicity & syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. 2. Ifosfamide: Produces chloracetaldehyde & acrolein as metabolites. Adverse effects: HIGHER risk of neurotoxicity & hemorrhagic cystitis. Chloracetaldehyde - Responsible for nephrotoxic.
1
Cyclophosphamide
Busulfan
Procarbazine
Mesna
Pharmacology
null
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single
Hyponasal voice is seen in all except
Causes of hyponasality are Common cold Nasal allergy Nasal polyp Nasal growth Adenoids Nasopharyngeal mass Familial speech pattern Habitual Ref: PL Dhingra; Textbook of EAR, NOSE and THROAT; edition 7; Page - 357
3
Adenoids
Nasal Polyp
Cleft palate
Habitual
ENT
Larynx
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Filled sealants are better than unfilled due to:
null
4
High viscosity
High strength
Cotton application
Low abrasion
Dental
null
927baa63-8457-4b6f-8f90-3575113ca076
single
Receptor for HIV?
Ans. (a) CD4
1
CD4
CD3
CD5
CD56
Microbiology
null
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single
While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:
A i.e. Upper border of rib:
1
Upper border of the rib.
Lower border of the rib
Lower border of the rib
In anterior pa of intercostal space.
Anatomy
null
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single
In circulatory biomechanics which of the following is true?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cardiac output is increased in anemia Cardiac output is increased in conditions which cause decrease in peripheral vascular resistance :- Exercise AV fistula or shunt Severe anemia Thyrotoxicosis Wet beri-beri About other options Blood viscosity is low in anemia and high in polycythemia.
3
Blood viscosity is increased in anemia
Blood viscosity is decreased in polycythemia
Cardiac output is increased in anemia
Cardiac output is decreased in Beri-Beri
Physiology
null
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Local anesthetic that is not used topically is?
Bupivacaine REF: Miller 6th e p. 590 Topical ( surface ) anesthetics Not used as surface (topical) ) anesthetics * Lignocaine * Procaine * Tetracaine * Bupivacaine * Dibucaine * Mepivacaine * Prilocaine * Cocaine
4
Lignocaine
Dibucaine
Tetracaine
Bupivacaine
Anaesthesia
null
48cf81dd-12a1-48d5-ba70-9dcc672e401d
multi
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum which cause scrofula, belongs to which groups of atypical mycobacteria -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Scotochromogens
2
Photochromogens
Scotochromogens
Non-photochromogens
Rapid growers
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following is best for transport of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature –
"Preferably mother should accompany and baby can be transported in KlI4C position. Even father can provide KII/IC during transport if mother can not a company
1
Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)
Transport incubator
Thermacol box
Hot bottle
Pediatrics
null
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cove sensitization is used for
In cove sensitization also called as imagined punishment, the individual who wants to quit alcohol will be asked to think about adverse consequences of taking alcohol like getting arrested for drunken driving or facing a accident underintoxicated state. He would be told to dream as if if he is drunk and lies intoxicated in the road and has to be brought back to the home by family members where he will be given lot of advice from neighbours and there would be a loss of respect. While these imagined exposure the patient feels bad and makes sure thet he should quit alcohol and his thoughts ahgainst alcohol increases. Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845
4
PTSD
hysteria
brain injury
alcohol use
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
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single
A 6 month old baby brought to emergency depament with features of cardiac failure. On examination, she found to have developmental delay and a large tongue. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. The most probable diagnosis is:
The type of glycogen storage disease that primarily involves the hea is Pompe disease (GSD IIa) in which acid maltase, necessary for hydrolysis of the outer branches of glycogen, is absent. There is marked deposition of glycogen within the myocardium. Affected infants are well at bih, but symptoms of growth and developmental delay, feeding problems, and cardiac failure occur by the sixth month of life. Physical examination reveals generalized muscular weakness, a large tongue, and cardiomegaly without significant hea murmurs. Chest radiographs reveal cardiomegaly with or without pulmonary venous congestion. The ECG shows a sho PR interval and LVH with ST depression and T-wave inversion over the left precordial leads. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. Children with Pompe disease usually die before age 1 year. Death may be sudden or result from progressive HF. Ref: Darst J.R., Collins K.K., Miyamoto S.D. (2012). Chapter 20. Cardiovascular Diseases. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.
1
Pompe disease
Von Gierke's disease
Forbe's Disease
McArdle's disease
Pediatrics
null
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single
Which of the following complement components attaches to the crystallizable fragment of immunoglobulin M ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clqrs Only IgM and IgG activate or fix complement the classic pathway. Of the IgGs, only IgG subclasses 1, 2 and 3 fix complement; IgG4 does not.CI, which is bound to a site in the Fc region, is composed of three proteins: Clq, CI r and Cls. Clq is an aggregate of polypeptides that bind to the Fc poion of IgG and IgM.The antibody-antigen immune complex bound to CI activates C I s, which cleaves C4 and C2 to form C4b2b. The latter is an active C3 convease, which cleaves C3 molecules into two fragments: C3a and C3b.
3
C5b
C5a
Clqrs
C4b2a
Microbiology
null
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multi
All of the folowing opens into middle meatus except:
Superior Meatus The superior meatus lies below the superior concha. It receives the openings of the posterior ethmoid sinuses.Middle MeatusThe middle meatus lies below the middle concha. It has a rounded swelling called the bulla ethmoidalis that is formed by the middle ethmoidal air sinuses, which open on its upper border.A curved opening, the hiatus semilunaris, lies just below the bulla. The maxillary sinus opens into the middle meatus through the hiatus semilunaris.The opening of the frontal air sinus is seen in the anterior pa of the hiatus semilunarisInferior MeatusThe inferior meatus is below and lateral to the inferior nasal concha; the nasolacrimal duct opens into this meatus under cover of the anterior pa of the inferior concha.
3
Middle ethmoidal air sinuses
Maxillary sinus
Posterior ethmoid sinuses
Frontal air sinus
Anatomy
null
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multi
RPD is indicated in all except
null
2
Long edentulous span
Multiple edentulous spaces
Excessive loss of alveolar bone
Distal abutment Loss
Dental
null
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multi
Which of the following instruments is shown below?
Ans. (d) Slit lamp biomicroscope.
4
Retinoscope
Direct ophthalmoscope
Indirect ophthalmoscope
Slit lamp biomicroscope
Ophthalmology
Techniques of Ocular Examination and Diagnostic Tests
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single
About cushing syndrome, true Is -
most cases the cause is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia due to hyper secretion of pituitary ACTH or ectopic production of ACTH by a non pituitary source ( Harrison 17 pg 2255)
4
Low dose dexamethasone suppress coisone secretion
CA of adrenal is more common than adenoma
Pituitary adenoma size > 2 cm (usually)
ACTH secretion is the commonest cause
Medicine
Endocrinology
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multi
Best test for Small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates is :
Answer is C (D-xylose test) D-xylose absorption test is the most commonly employed test for carbohydrate absorption - Harrison An endoscopic mucosal biopsy is the more specific test and is now considered essential. As endoscopic small intestinal biopsy' is not provided in the options 'D-xylose test' is the answer of the choke Evaluation of small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates due to altered small intestinal mucosal function Urinary D-xylose test Non invasive test of choice Endoscopic mucosal biopsy Test of choice / preferred test `The ease of obtaining a mucosal biopsy of the small intestine by endoscopy and the false negative rate of the Dxylose test have led to its diminished use. When small intestinal disease is suspected, a small intestinal biopsy should be performed' - Harrison
3
Lund meal test :
Shilling test
D-Xylose test
Follacin test
Medicine
null
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multi
A Thirty five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is -
null
4
Muscle Biopsy
CPK levels
Edrophonium test
Single fiber EMG
Medicine
null
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single
String sign is a radiological feature of -
String sign → Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, Ileocecal tuberculosis. String sign of Kantor → Crohn's disease String of bead sign → Small bowel obstruction
3
Crohn's disease
Ulcerative colitis
Ileocecal tuberculosis
Ischemic colitis
Radiology
null
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single
Alarm system (a reminder technique for digit sucking in mature children) was developed by:
Norton and Gellin developed 3 alarm system.
2
Massler
Norton and Gellin
Benjamin
Pinkham
Dental
null
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single
Which level of prolactin definitely suggest hyperprolactinemia?
Elevations in prolactin may cause amenorrhea or galactorrhea. Amenorrhea without galactorrhea is associated with hyperprolactinemia in approximately 15% of women. In patients with both galactorrhea and amenorrhea, approximately two-thirds will have hyperprolactinemia; of those, approximately one-third will have a pituitary adenoma. In more than one-third of women with hyperprolactinemia, a radiologic abnormality consistent with a microadenoma (<1 cm) is found. Normal Prolactin levels Males: 2-20 ng/mL Females (non-pregnant): 2-30 ng/mL Pregnant females: 10-200 ng/mL A prolactin level of more than 200 ng/mL is usually due to a pituitary tumour and requires pituitary evaluation
1
200 ng/mL
150 ng/mL
50 ng/mL
100 ng/mL
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
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Bulge sign in knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation-
BULGE TEST is a useful method of testing when there is very little fluid in the joint.Usually occurs in medial meniscal injury. It can detect even 30 ml of fluid accumulation. After squeezing any fluid out of the suprapatellar pouch,the medial compament is emptied by pressing on the inner aspect of the joint; that hand is lifted away and the lateral side is sharply compressed-a distinct ripple is seen on the flattened medial surface as fluid is shunted across. REF:APLEY'S 9TH EDITION PAGE NO.550
4
100 ml
400 ml
200 ml
< 30 ml
Orthopaedics
Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries
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single
An 11-year-old boy was brought to the pediatric OPD with multiple abscesses over his face, chest, and back. The child has a history of recurrentrespiratory infections. On examination, he has atopic excoriating skin and multiple cold abscesses on his back. What is the most probable diagnosis?
From the above clinical history and examination, the most probable diagnosis is Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome). It is an autosomal dominant primary immunodeficiency disease caused by a mutation of STAT3 gene. Neutrophils do not generate an immune response, probably due to a defect in chemotaxis. Patients present with recurrent staphylococcal skin abscesses, recurrent lung infections (pneumatoceles), eczema, eosinophilia and high serum levels of lgE. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
1
Hyper IgE syndrome
Hyper IgM syndrome
Carcinoid syndrome
Wiskott aldrich syndrome
Microbiology
Immunology
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Material used in verterbroplasty is :
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Polymethyl methacrylate Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are interventional radiologic procedures for the treatment of the intense pain refractory to medical management or bracing caused by vertebral compression fracture associated with osteoporosis, tumors, and trauma.Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty involve intraosseous injection of acrylic cement- polymethyl methacrylate under local anesthesia and fluoroscopic guidance.Pain reduction or elimination is immediate, and the risk of complications is low. Neither vertebroplasty nor kyphoplasty are intended for the treatment of intervertebral disc disease or arthritis.Vertebroplasty may also be applied prophylactically to an at-risk vertebra between 2 other abnormal vertebrae.Vertebroplasty does not restore the height of the compressed vertebral body. A related procedure, kyphoplasty, is intended to restore lost height by inflating a balloon pump within and between the fracture fragments prior to the infusion of the cement. Both procedures result in similar relief of pain due to vertebral compression fractures.The risks of the procedure are low and include extravasation of cement into the epidural space causing myelopathy, or fatal pulmonary embolism from extension of cement into paraspinous veins.
4
Isomethyl methacrylate
Isoethyl methacrylate
Polyethyl methacrylate
Polymethyl methacrylate
Orthopaedics
Management In Orthopedics
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All of the following are false regarding Vacuum assisted closure Except -
VACUUM ASSISTED CLOSURE/NEGATIVE PRESSURE WOUND THERAPY(NPWT) NPWT promotes wound healing by applying a vacuum through a special sealed dressing. Continued vacuum draws out the fluid (interstitial fluid) from wound and increase blood flow to the area. As a result, bacterial counts decrease and cell proliferation increases, thereby creating a suitable bed for graft or flap cover. Intermittent negative pressure of -125 mm Hg appears to hasten debridement and formation of granulation tissue in chronic wounds and ulcers. Contraindications for NPWT Use Malignancy in the wound Untreated osteomyelitis Non-enteric & unexplored fistula Necrotic tissue with eschar
1
Due to negative pressure , bacterial counts decrease and cell proliferation increases in the wound.
Continuous pressure of +125 mm hg is applied.
It causes interstitial edema , thereby increasing blood flow and better healing.
Suitable to be used over malignancy if present in wound.
Surgery
General Surgery
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Which of the following is not found in cerebral palsy?
Cerebral palsy is a static encephalopathy and a disorder of posture and movement often associated with seizures and deficit in the motor, language, and social milestones due to insult to the developing brain.MICROCEPHALY is a feature of cerebral palsy because of insult to the developing brain.DYSTONIC CP is associated with hypotoniaEXTRAPYRAMIDAL CP is associated with ataxiaCerebral palsy is an upper motor neuron disease characterized by rigidity.Flaccid paralysis is a feature of lower motor neuron disease. Hence flaccid paralysis not a feature of cerebral palsy.Spastic cerebral palsy is the common type( 65%)Spastic CP - prognosis for normal intellectual development is good compared to other types of cerebral palsy.BIH ASPHYXIA accounts for only 8 -10% of cerebral palsy.
4
Hypotonia
Microcephaly
Ataxia
Flaccid paralysis
Pediatrics
All India exam
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single
When observations are made before and after the exposure to the factor, it is -
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than 2 groups Mc Nemar test : 1 group. ( before and after intervention) Quantitative: Paired T test: 1 group Student T test/ unpaired T test: 2 groups Anova: more than 2 groups.
3
Chi-square test
Unpaired T-Test
Paired T-Test
ANOVA test
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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single
The symmetrical radiopacities marked with arrow are most likely:
On periapical radiographs of the mandibular central incisors, the mental ridge (protuberance) may occasionally be seen as two radiopaque lines sweeping bilaterally forward and upward toward the midline. They are of variable width and density and may be found to extend from low in the premolar area on each side up to the midline, where they lie just inferior to or are superimposed on the mandibular incisor roots. The image of the mental ridge is most prominent when the beam is directed parallel with the surface of the mental tubercle (as when using the bisecting-angle technique). Ref: White and Pharoah, pg- 145
2
Genial tubercle
Mental ridges
Mylohyoid ridges
Both 1 and 2
Radiology
null
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multi
An absent kidney is found in
About 1 in 1400 people have a single kidney. Sometimes a ureter and renal pelvis are present with no kidney. The contralateral kidney is typically hyperophied. Reference: page 1282 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 26th edition ( note : according to 27th edition Complete absence of one kidney occurs in 1 in 500-1000 bihs )
3
1:200 individuals
1:700 individuals
1:1400 individuals
1:5000 individuals
Surgery
Urology
ce5dba32-2e1e-47a0-b9ce-e961ad0b5cbc
single
A 50 years old male presents with massive splenomegaly. His differential diagnosis will include all, except
Diseases Associated with massive splenmegaly. Chronic myclogenous leukemia Gaucher's disease Lymphomas Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Hairy cell leukemia Sarcoidosis Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Polycythemia vera Diffuse splenic human giomatosis
4
Chronic mycloid leukemia
Polycythemia rubra vera
Hairy cell leukemia
Aplastic anemia
Pathology
null
cef9da83-f3f7-4b8c-84a4-59e80996324f
multi
For cast restorations the cavity wall should have a taper of
null
3
30-45 degree
5-10 degree
2-5 degree
none of the above
Dental
null
efd87ce0-0877-43c1-9116-151799332e09
multi
All of the following statements regarding nasolabial cyst are TRUE, EXCEPT:
Nasolabial cyst are common developmental cyst arising outside the bone in the nasolabial fold below the alae nasi. It usually affects women in their 4th to 5th decade. Microscopically the cyst is lined by non cililated pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice.
1
Arises from odontoid epithelium
Presents submucosally in anterior nasal floor
Bilateral
Usually seen in adults
ENT
null
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multi
Darrier's sign is seen in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Urticaria pigmentosao Urticaria pigmentosa is a familial cutaneous disorder characterised by generalised distribution of red brown macules,o Each lesion represents a collection of mast cells in the dermis with hyperpigmentation of overlying epidermis,o The most characteristic features is that these lesions urticate on scratching.o Light scratching with the point of forceps or rounded tip of a pen or even rubbing causes these mast cells to degranulate leading to localized urticaria (become red swollen and enlarged) - Darrier's Sign Extensive release of histamine from mast cell degranulation may result in - Headache, flushing diarrhea and pruritis.
2
Darrier's disease
Urticaria pigmentosa
Allergic vasculitis
Atopic dermatitis
Skin
General
c2e38fe6-a36d-491d-9ca2-dacfb5d8e6bc
multi
Melatonin is secreted by parenchymal cells of pineal gland. Fever causes:
Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level
1
Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level
Resetting of skin temperature
Both of the above
None of the above
Physiology
null
2e70fe87-78f9-4b7d-a7b0-121781b78acc
multi
Which of the metabolic abnormality is seen in multiple myeloma?
null
3
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Pathology
null
37531bef-c2e6-448a-aa9a-e37a17d4db63
single
An adult presented with hematemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. CT scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At laparotomy neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of the stomach and the pancreas extending 6cm up to the tail of the pancreas. What will be the most appropriate surgical management
Palliative procedures like palliative paial gastrectomy, anterior gastrojejunostomy, Devine's exclusion procedure, luminal stenting in proximal inoperable growths, chemotherapy are used in inoperable cases. * In early carcinoma proper lymph nodal clearance is impoant. Antrectomy is also called as hemi-gastrectomy. Removal of 60-75% stomach is called a paial gastrectomy. Removal of more than 80% of the stomach is called a subtotal gastrectomy. Distal pancreatectomy or central pancreatectomy or total pancreatectomy for cystadenocarcinoma of pancreas depending on the extent and size of a tumour . Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 636
3
Closure of the abdomen
Antrectp, u amd vagotomy
Paial gastrectomy + Distal pancreatectomy
Paial gastrectomy + Distal pancreatectomy + splenectomy
Surgery
G.I.T
62624a25-a7eb-467f-9e11-cc045b3b99bc
multi
Which of the following is an anti-coagulant for atrial fibrillation in a patient with prior history of stroke, with reduced risk of haemorrhage?
Anticoagulants are the treatment of choice in patients with atrial fibrillation and prior stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin have long been the mainstay of therapy, but a new set of anticoagulants has emerged as a reasonable alternative that may indeed prove to have better efficacy and a reduced risk of hemorrhage. Apixaban is one such oral direct factor Xa inhibitor; it was recently shown to be likely more effective compared with warfarin in the Apixaban for the Prevention of Stroke in Subjects With Atrial Fibrillation (ARISTOTLE) trial. Clopidogrel combined with aspirin was more effective than aspirin alone in preventing vascular events, principally stroke, but increases the risk of major bleeding. Ref: 1. Easton JD et al. Apixaban compared with warfarin in patients with atrial fibrillation and previous stroke or transient ischaemic attack: A subgroup analysis of the ARISTOTLE trial. Lancet Neurol 2012;11:503. 2. Smith W.S., English J.D., Johnston S.C. (2012). Chapter 370. Cerebrovascular Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
2
Vitamin K antagonists
Apixaban
Clopidogrel
Ticlopidine
Medicine
null
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single
The cause of oedema in nephritic syndrome
Robbins page no p922 Glomerular diseases presenting with a nephritic syn- drome are often characterized by inflammation in the glomeruli. The nephritic patient usually presents with hematuria, red cell casts in the urine, azotemia, oliguria, and mild to moderate hypeension. Proteinuria and edema are common, but these are not as severe as those encountered in the nephrotic syndrome, discussed later. The acute nephritic syndrome may occur in such multi- system diseases as SLE and microscopic polyangiitis.
4
Increase in plasma protein concentratn
Decrease plasma protein concentratn
Reduced plasma osmotic pressure
Sodium and water retention
Pathology
Urinary tract
e8f17b12-1cdd-4ea4-9f5d-ef03a47d41ff
single
Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes :
Triple assessment comprises of : Clinical examination (palpation). Radiological imaging (mammography or USG). Pathological assessment (Biopsy or cytology).
2
History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology
Clinical examination, mammography, biopsy/cytology
History, clinical examination, ultrasonography
Observation, ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology
Radiology
null
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single
EC O157:H7, shiga toxin-producing strain of E. coli can be distinguished from other strains of E.coli by using the following medium:
Shiga toxin-producing E coli (STEC) are named for the cytotoxic toxins they produce. There are at least two antigenic forms of the toxin referred to as Shiga-like toxin 1 and Shiga-like toxin 2. STEC has been associated with, Hemorrhagic colitis Severe diarrhea Hemolytic uremic syndrome resulting acute renal failure Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Of the E coli serotypes that produce Shiga toxin, O157:H7 is the most common. STEC O157:H7 does not use sorbitol, unlike most other E coli, and is negative (clear colonies) on sorbitol MacConkey agar (sorbitol is used instead of lactose); which serves as an impoant criterion that distinguishes it from other strains of E. coli. O157:H7 strains also are negative on MUG tests. Many of the non-O157 serotypes may be sorbitol positive when grown in culture. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 15. Enteric Gram-Negative Rods (Enterobacteriaceae). In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
2
Hektoen agar
Sorbitol
Blood agar
LJ medium
Microbiology
null
63fc1595-897d-4cd1-aff2-b44bc651e84b
single
Amylin is secreted by which cell of pancreas?
Amylin, or islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP), is a 37-residue peptide hormone. It is cosecreted with insulin from the pancreatic b-cells in the ratio of approximately 100:1.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 315
2
Alpha cells
Beta cells
Gamma cells
Delta cells
Physiology
G.I.T
42f7afcf-c9f3-48d5-bb82-6c749036138a
single
Putrefaction process is delayed by :
Carbolic acid delays the process of putrefaction. Peritonitis, ansarca, sepsis enhances the process of putrefaction.
3
Peritonitis
Ansarca
Carbolic acid
Sepsis
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Initial preferred investigation for thyroid nodule is:
Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test(TFT) Investigation of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC Solitary Thyroid Nodule: Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test (TFT) If TFT is raised, next investigation is thyroid scan , (For hot nodules, RAI ablation or surgery is done; For warm or cold nodules follow-up or surgery) If TFT is normal, USG is done (Aspiration in cystic lesion, FNAC for solid or heterogenous lesions) Investigationn of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC. Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 890
3
FNAC
Radionucleide test
Thyroid function test
USG
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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single
Longest fetal diameter:
Ans is d, i.e. MentoverticalFetal diameters-AP diameters are always longer than Transverse diameter of fetal head.Longest diameter is-Mentovertical diameter (14 cms) followed by submentovertical diameter.
4
Biparietal
Suboccip tobregmatic
Occipitofrontal
Mentovertical
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
5e32f377-76df-42e4-98b5-69b6c90477c3
single
Which of the following is an impoant distinguishing characteristic of H. pylori as compared to Campylobacter species?
Both Campylobacter and Helicobacter Belong to the family Campylobacteriaceae. Both are GNspiral-shaped or comma-shaped bacteria. Catalase and oxidase positive. Urease however, is produced only by Helicobacter.
3
Oxidase production
Catalase production
Urease production
Curved shape
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria)
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single
True about Hepatocellular Carcinoma ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e. HBV predisposes Most common cancers in the world are --> Lung > Breast > Colorectal. As already stated before, HCC presents quite late and thus only 15-20% cancers are resectable. Most patients with unresectable lesions die within a year after diagnosis.
3
Most prevalent malignancy
Commonest liver tumor
HBV predisposes
Patient present in early stage
Surgery
null
fed4a923-ccb8-4b73-9708-40b1f845532c
multi
From A drugs which acts through inhibition of integrase activity of virus ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Raltegravir
1
Raltegravir
Tiprinavir
Enfuviide
Etravirine
Pharmacology
null
c9ac6ed6-300b-4992-9c12-bdbeab2d2b7c
single
A 33 yr /M has history of A, now complaints of pain left hip. On examination there is Flexion, External Rotation of left lower limb is present. There is 7 cm shoening of left lower limb, there is a gluteal mass felt which moves with the movement of femoral shaft, most probable diagnosis could be?
Anterior dislocation is ruled out because it will have Flexion Abduction External Rotation with lengthening and anterior femoral head (Mass that moves with femur shaft is femur head). Central dislocation is ruled out because it will have shoening and femur head palpable on per rectal examination. Posterior dislocation will have Flexion Adduction and internal rotation with shoening and gluteal femoral head. Pipkins type IV: Shoening and gluteal mass with atypical features Type I: Femoral head fracture caudal to fovea centralis. Type II: Femoral head fracture cephalad to the fovea. Type III: Femoral head fracture associated with femoral neck fracture. Type IV: Type I, II or III with associated acetabular fracture.
4
Anterior dislocation of hip
Central fracture dislocation
Posterior dislocation
Pipkin's type 4 fracture
Orthopaedics
Pelvis and Hip Injury
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single
C-reactive proteins are -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta-1 globulin C-reactive is a nonspecific inflammatory acute phase protein. It is a beta globulin which is produced in the liver.
2
Alpha-1 globulin
Beta-1 globulin
Alpha-2 globulin
All
Microbiology
null
2458763e-1057-4cab-8f4c-e000556faf40
multi
Wood's lamp is made up of -
Wood's Lamp It is a low intensity ultraviolet light(360nm) emitted by a high pressure mercury lamp fitted with a special filter made up of 9% nickel oxide and silica.
4
9% nickel oxide with 6% barium silicate
9% nickel oxide with 9% barium silicate
6% nickel oxide with 6% barium silicate
9% nickel oxide with barium silicate
Dental
Fungal infections
b457fb36-1ee1-4af3-915b-e128af60b160
single
In carcinoid syndrome, the ap of hea mostly affected is:
Answer is B (Inflow tract of RV) The most commonly involved valve in, carcinoid syndrome is tricuspid valve which forms the inflow tract of Right ventricle. Most commonly involved pa of hea : Inflow tract of RV (Tricuspid valve) Second most commonly involved pa of hea : Outflow tract of RV (Pulmonic valve)
2
Outflow tract of RV
Inflow tract of RV
Inflow tract of LV
Outflow tract LV
Medicine
null
fb0e5556-9c34-4764-8f98-b662d4efa4bb
single
Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction
null
1
Rowe's
Bristows
Ashs
Walshams
Surgery
null
412a173a-22e2-487d-ae6e-5be7fb36ae32
single
Premature atherosclerosis causing death is seen in:
Fabry's disease is an X-linked dominant disorder. Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum is another name for it. Neuropathy usually stas in the childhood. It is overshadowed by complications arising from the associated premature atherosclerosis that lead to death by the fifth decade of life. ALSO KNOW: Fabry's disease is caused by mutations in the Alpha -galactosidase gene. There will be accumulation of ceramide trihexoside in nerves and blood vessels. Enzyme replacement therapy with alpha galactosidase B may be useful in the early stages. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-3456
1
Fabry's disease
Vitamin E deficiency
Abetalipoproteinemia
Spinocerebellar ataxia
Medicine
null
6ca325b0-59fa-4428-90b7-a91578778f8e
single
Pharmacovigilance means:
Pharmacovigilance has been defined by the WHO as the ''science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problems'' The information generated by pharmacovigilance is useful in educating doctors about the adverse drug reaction and in the official regulation of drug use Ref; KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition (page no:82)
1
Monitoring of drug safety
Monitoring of unethical trade of drugs
Monitoring pharma students
Monitoring drug efficacy
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
e702181c-7216-4b23-9a09-87ec18055cda
single
When the black band of a CPITN probe is completely visible while in gingival sulcus, it means
null
4
The individual has advanced periodontal disease
The individual has pockets between 4 and 5 mm
The individual needs comprehensive periodontal surgery
The individual has calculus and needs scaling and oral hygiene instructions
Dental
null
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single
Ligament of poupart is
Ligament of poupart is another name for Inguinal ligament
4
Linea alba
Pectineal ligament
Lacunar ligament
Inguinal ligament
Anatomy
null
e5d4a9c1-c129-4b4a-a018-1d9ae1610247
single
Individuals with alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver may develop severe hepatotoxicity after doses of acetaminophen that are not toxic to individuals with normal liver function. This increased sensitivity to acetaminophen's toxicity is due to :
null
2
Decrease availability of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Decreased hepatocellular stores of glutathione
Decreased activity of Cytochrome P450 enzymes
Increased liver blood flow
Pharmacology
null
fb061a24-1aa1-4647-b111-a5c44a57f236
single
The chromosomal complement of a primary oocyte is-
Ans- (C) Primary oocyte
3
23X
23Y
46XX
46XY
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Obstetrical Anatomy
24029ee3-dd7f-4123-b0f9-987a14bdcde9
single
Most affernt fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual coex is:
Most fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) end in layer 4 of the primary visual coex. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition, Page 161; Berne and Levy Physiology, 5th Edition, Page 129.
3
Layer 1
Layer 2 and 3
Layer 4
Layer 5 and 6
Physiology
null
1301534f-397c-49c9-a09d-b4d04770bc3d
single
A 40 year old male brought to the emergency room with a stab injury to the chest.On examination pt is found to be hemodynamically stable. The neck veins are engorged and the hea sounds are muffled .The following statements are true for this pt except -
Pericardial tamponade Pericardial tamponade must be differentiated from tension pneumothorax in the shocked patient with distented neck veins It is most commonly the result of penetrating trauma. Characterized by Beck's Triad (MDH) : Muffled hea sounds, distended neck veins & Hypotension Diagnosis Chest X-Ray : Enlarged hea shadow Echocardiography : ECHO is diagnostic showing fluid in the pericardial sac. Central line : Rising central venous pressure Treatment Needle pericardiocentesis can buy enough time to move to the operating room. Treatment of choice : Surgical pericardiotomy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1678
4
Cardiac tamponade is likely to be present
Echocardiogram should be done to rule out pericardial blood
Entry wound should be sealed with occlusive dressing
Emergency thoracotomy should be done
Surgery
Trauma
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multi
Nagler's reaction is shown by ?
null
2
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium welchii
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium leprae
Microbiology
null
c997a4aa-bcbf-4f5c-8e24-e40ac6c86cbb
single
Using a lens of +14D, magnification of fundus of an emmetropic eye in indirect ophthalmoscopy is: March 2013 (e)
Ans. D i.e. 5 times
4
5 times
10 times
15 times
25 times
Ophthalmology
null
bae4c5b6-61b7-41f8-bcec-1a7cc01dc7fa
single
The characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia is
(D) All of the above
4
Stupor
Rigidity
Negativism
All of the above
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
9065f47e-5e37-4cda-a7aa-f12052c9a741
multi
A diabetic with orbital cellulitis and maxillary sinusitis shows hyaline, narrow, septate and ranching hyphae with invasion of the blood vessels fungus on microscopy. Which is the causative fungus ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aspergillus Diagnosis of Aspergillus infection: o Histologic examination of affected tissue reveals either infarction, with invasion of blood vessels by many fungal hvphae, or acute necrosis, with limited inflammation and hyphae. o Aspergillus hyphae are hyaline, narrow, and septate, with branching at 45deg: no yeast forms are present in infected tissue. o Hyphae can be seen in cytology or microscopy preparations, which therefore provide a rapid means of presumptive diagnosis.
3
Candida
Rhizospora
Aspergillus
Histoplasma
ENT
Head & Neck Infections
21b58724-2e4c-4a78-86f0-401280e11c97
single
Partogram is used to -
Ans: D
4
Assess the fetal well-being in labour
Assess the condition of the baby at birth
Record the events of pregnancy
Assess the progress of labour
Unknown
null
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single
Mcdonald stitch is applied in the following conditions except:
Contraindications to Circlage operation: Intra uterine infection Ruptured membranes H/o vaginal bleeding Severe uterine irritability Cervical dilatation > 4 cm
3
Incompetent os
Septate uterus
Placenta previa
Bad obstetrical history
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
963206a7-9a26-4a3a-a19f-4b8cbc891b88
multi
In early stages, how is acute alveolar abscess is diagnosed:
PDL widening can be the method for diagnosing the acute alveolar abscess in early stage, while chronic alveolar abscess presents as more distinct radiographic lesion.
3
No change.
A diffuse radiolucency.
PDL widening.
None of the above.
Dental
null
509bd76b-ca61-41c9-b92e-bf0f681cedde
multi
Specific reason to disallow the sample for culture -
Sample brought in formalin are not allowed for culture,as it may loose it's characteristic propeies specific to that organism. Ref ananthnarayana and panikers microbiology textbook
3
Sample brought within 2 hr of collection
Sample brought in sterile plastic container
Sample brought in formalin
Sample obtained after cleaning the collection site
Microbiology
general microbiology
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multi
The spirometer can estimate all the following except
The total lung capacity (TLC), about 6,000 mL, is the maximum amount of air that can fill the lungs (TLC = TV + IRV + ERV + RV Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:326,327,328
1
Total lung capacity
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second
Peak expiratory flow
Vital capacity
Physiology
Respiratory system
e8890ea7-5e0a-4ef3-8b16-8f7160b983c1
multi
Epidural anaesthesia decrease risk of – a) Headacheb) Hypotensionc) Meningitisd) Arachnoiditis
As dura is not punctured in epidural anesthesia, chances of postdural puncture headache, meningitis and arachnoiditis are less.
4
abc
ad
bc
acd
Anaesthesia
null
4305dbde-56fb-4145-9478-4392cd99c850
single
Gamma Carboxylation of what requires vitamin K
Biochemical functions of Vitamin K The functions of vitamin K are concerned with blood clotting process. lt brings about the post- translational (after protein biosynthesis in the cell) modification of ceain blood clotting factors. The clotting factors ll (prothrombin), Vil, lX and X are synthesized as inactive precursors (zymogens) in the liver. Vitamin K acts as a coenzyme for the carboxylation of glutamic acid residues present in the proteins and this reaction is catalysed by a carboxylase (microsomal). lt involves the conversion of glutamate (Clu) to y-carboxyglutamate (Gla) and requires vitamin K, O2 and COz. The formation of y-carboxyglutamate is inhibited by dicumarol, an anticoagulant found in spoilt sweet clover. Warfarin is a synthetic analogue that can inhibit vitamin K action Vitamin K is also required for the carboxylation of glutamic acid residues of osteocalcin, a calcium binding protein present in the bone. The mechanism of carboxylation is not fully understood. lt is known that a 2,3-epoxide derivative of vitamin K is formed as. an intermediate during the course of the reaction. Dicumarol inhibits the enzyme (reductase) that conves epoxide to active vitamin K. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 130
2
Glutamine
Glutamic Acid
Glycine
Aspaate
Biochemistry
All India exam
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single
Which of the following is not an anti androgenic drug ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cypionate
4
Flutamide
Spironolactone
Finasteride
Cypionate
Pharmacology
null
fadf01f3-49bd-4d36-9244-db8fee63b26a
single
12 years old male presented with intensely itchy grouped vesicles on buttock, trunk and scalp. On exposure to wheat they exaggerate. Diagnosis is -
Ans is 'b' i.e. Dermatitis herpetiformis o Among given options only dermatitis herpetiformis is a gluten sensitivity disorder and aggravates on on eating gluten (wheat, rye, barley).Other features in favour of diagnosis areo Intense itching (characteristic feature)o Distribution of lesion - buttock, trunk and scalpo Age group - DH is commonly seen in 2nd to 3rd decade.o Has been explained in previous sessions.
2
Herpes simplex
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Pemphigus vulgaris
Bullous impetigo
Skin
Eosinophilic Dermatoses
a20b05b3-292f-4d3f-8c37-6a750c56f54c
single
Causes of a painless limp in infancy includes:
Painless Limp Painful Limp 1-3 years age group: DDH Cerebral palsy Muscular dystrophy Infantile coxa vara 4-10 years age: Limb length discrepancy Poliomyelitis Legg Calve Pehes disease Slipped capital femoral epiphysis Osteochondritis dissecans -Lateral surface of medial femoral condyle Ahritis/Synovitis/Osteomyelitis
4
Congenital dislocation of hip
Infantile coxa vara
Poliomyelitis
All of the above
Orthopaedics
Pediatric Ohopedics
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multi
Functions of plasmin are all except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stabilization of fibrin * Plasmin is a proteolytic enzyme which belongs to serine protease family.* Its function are:-i) Fibrinolysis by break down of fibrin - It is the major function.ii) Activation of Collagenaseiii) Break down of matrix proteins (fibrin, fibronectin, thrombospondin, laminin) and von Willebrand factor.* These effects are responsible for role of plasmin in embryogenesis, wound healing, angiogenesis and tumor growth & dissemination.* Plasmin released as zymogen (inactive) form, i.e. plasminogen from liver. In circulation, plasminogen is converted into active plasmin by tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), Kallikrein and Hageman factor (factor XII).
4
Fibrinolysis
Activation of collagenase
Destruction of VWF
Stabilization of fibrin
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
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multi
What is the extent of spinal cord in an adult?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lower border of LI * Spinal cord begins at foramen magnum and, in adults, ends at lower border of LI.StructureExtends uptoAdult spinal cordInfant spinal cordLower border of L} or upper border of L2Upper border of L3 vertebraeFilum terminalePiamaterTip of coccyxDural sheathSubdural spaceSub arachnoid spaceS2 vertebra
1
Lower border of L1
Tip of Coccyx
Upper border of L3
S2
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
fcb3a478-0394-4019-a961-895418c7baf1
single
Which of the following are common physiological problems in neonates:
Ans. D. All of the aboveNeonates may have minor physiological peculiarities which are of no serious consequences. These include(i) Regurgitation of milk (most neonates take out small amount of curdled milk soon after feed. Child is usually active and vomitus is never yellow or green colour)(ii) Transitional stools: It is the transition from meconium to the yellow homogenous stool of a breastfed infant and is physiological(iii) Erythema toxicum: The rash usually appears on 2nd or 3rd day of life. It is scattering of erythema macules, papules and even vesicles. It occurs commonly over trunk, face and extremities and palms and soles are spared.(iv) Mongolian spots: They are pigmented lesions found at birth. The area most commonly involved is the lumbosacral region, but occasionally in the upper back, arms, buttocks and legs may be involved.(v) Neonatal Jaundice: Jaundice is common physical finding (manifesting as yellowness of the skin of the face) when serum bilirubin exceeds 5mg/dl during the first week of life. As the degree of jaundice increases, there is cephalocaudal progression. Jaundice should be considering non - physiological if it has appeared within 24 hours of age, stains palms or soles or persists beyond 10-14 days.
4
Erythema toxicum
Transitional stools
Mongolian spots
All of the above
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
e89c0dce-e2fc-4848-b0ca-d979a55522cc
multi
The following is a marker of acute hepatitis B infection-
HBV-DNA can be measured by PCR in the blood. Viral loads are usually in excess of 105 copies/mL in the presence of active viral replication, as indicated by the presence of e antigen. In contrast, in individuals with low viral replication, who are HBsAg- and anti-HBe-positive, viral loads are less than 105 copies/mL. The exception is in patients who have a mutation in the pre-core protein, which means they cannot secrete e antigen into serum . Such individuals will be anti-HBe-positive but have a high viral load and often evidence of chronic hepatitis. These mutations are common in the Far East, and those patients affected are classified as having e antigen-negative chronic hepatitis. They respond differently to antiviral drugs from those with classical e antigen-positive chronic hepatitis. Measurement of viral load is impoant in monitoring antiviral therapy and identifying patients with pre-core mutants. Specific HBV genotypes (A-H) can also be identified using PCR. In some settings, these may be useful in guiding therapy, as genotype A tends to respond better to pegylated interferon-alfa compared to genotypes C and D. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 875
1
DNA polymerase
Hepatitis core antigen
Anti HBs
IgG to core antigen
Medicine
G.I.T
baecb9cc-1a82-4b24-b4bf-039591c233b1
single
Binding of gp 120 causes:
Ans. b. Facilitation of co-receptor
2
Infection of target cell
Facilitation of co-receptor
Fusing of virus and target cell
None
Microbiology
null
bfdb31ea-9207-4a5d-9828-7146bd23e160
multi
Following is not a variety of entropion ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pathological
1
Pathological
Spastic
Cicatrix
Involutional
Ophthalmology
null
c8287cdc-beb7-4892-b8ba-56609b8c8ada
single
Tendon Xanthomas are seen in
null
1
Familial hyper cholesterolemia
Familial hyper lipidemia
Familial beta lipoprotenemia
Familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency
Medicine
null
4466c5a9-336a-4ece-bb29-0f5a79fe78e1
single
All or none law refers to:
Action potential
1
Action potential
Resting potential
Membrane potential
None
Physiology
null
ec34669b-33da-4a90-b011-b5060b5f08be
multi
If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the measurement is:
Criteria of screening test Acceptability – The test should be acceptable to population to which it is going to be applied. Repeatability  (reliability, precision, reproducibility)  –  The test must give consistent results when repeated more than once on the same individual or material under the same condition. Validity (accuracy) – It refers to what extent the test accurately measures which it purports to measure. (it means it expresses the ability of a test to separate or distinguish those who have the disease from those who do not). Accuracy refers to closeness with which measured values agree with “true” value. It has two components: i. Sensitivity – Ability of test of identify correctly all those who have disease. ii. Specificity – Ability to test to identify correctly all those who do not have disease.  So, if test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing means test is precise (i.e., reliable, reproducible, repeatable).
1
Precise
Accurate
Specific
Sensitive
Dental
null
84ccdd2e-85e7-4cf7-8ddc-06df9ccf024a
single