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Context: In Georgia Russian has no official status, but it's recognised as a minority language under the Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities. According to estimates from Demoskop Weekly, in 2004 there were 130,000 native speakers of Russian in the country, and 1.7 million active speakers. 27% of the population was fluent in Russian in 2006, and 1% used it as the main language with family, friends or at work. Russian is the language of 9% of the population according to the World Factook. Ethnologue cites Russian as the country's de facto working language.
Question: What convention recognizes Russian in Georgia?
Answer: Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities
Question: How many Georgians speak Russian natively?
Answer: 130,000
Question: How many Georgians speak Russian actively?
Answer: 1.7 million
Question: What percent of Georgia is fluent in Russian?
Answer: 27%
Question: What percent of Georgia use Russian as their main language?
Answer: 1%
Question: What does Demoskop Weekly cite Russian as being in Ethnologue?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was the population of Georgia in 2006?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How much of the population of Georgia had read the World Factbook by 2006?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What percentage of the population of Georgia works at home?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What status does Ethnologue have in Georgia's government?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The first recorded use of the term (or its cognates in other languages) is in the New Testament, in Acts 11:26, after Barnabas brought Saul (Paul) to Antioch where they taught the disciples for about a year, the text says: "[...] the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch." The second mention of the term follows in Acts 26:28, where Herod Agrippa II replied to Paul the Apostle, "Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian." The third and final New Testament reference to the term is in 1 Peter 4:16, which exhorts believers: "Yet if [any man suffer] as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God on this behalf."
Question: Where is the first reference to the word Christian in the Bible?
Answer: Acts 11:26
Question: Who made the second reference to the word Christian in the Bible?
Answer: Herod Agrippa II
Question: When verse was the third mention?
Answer: Peter 4:16
Question: In which book of the old testament is the first known usage of the term?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: For how long did Antioch and Paul teach disciples?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where was the fourth and final mention of the term?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In which book of the Old Testament does Paul reply to Herod Agrippa?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where was Peter first called Christians?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Since the early 1950s on conventional carriers it has been the practice to recover aircraft at an angle to port of the axial line of the ship. The primary function of this angled deck is to allow aircraft that miss the arresting wires, referred to as a bolter, to become airborne again without the risk of hitting aircraft parked forward. The angled deck allows the installation of one or two "waist" catapults in addition to the two bow cats. An angled deck also improves launch and recovery cycle flexibility with the option of simultaneous launching and recovery of aircraft.
Question: When did conventional carriers start recovering aircraft at an angle to port of the axial line of the ship?
Answer: early 1950s
Question: What risk is avoided by aircraft by using an angled deck?
Answer: hitting aircraft parked forward
Question: How many "waist" catapults can be installed with an angled deck?
Answer: one or two
Question: How man bow cats can be installed with an angled deck?
Answer: two
Question: What aircraft design feature improves launch and recovery cycle flexibilty?
Answer: An angled deck
Question: When did conventional carriers stop recovering aircraft at an angle to port of the axial line of the ship?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What risk is added by aircraft by using an angled deck?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How many "waste" catapults can be installed with an angled deck?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How man bow dogs can be installed with an angled deck?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What aircraft design feature improves launch and recovery cycle rigidity?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Various methods have been used in the history of the American colonies and the United States but only five methods are currently used. Historically, burning, crushing, breaking on wheel, and bludgeoning were used for a small number of executions, while hanging was the most common method. The last person burned at the stake was a black slave in South Carolina in August 1825. The last person to be hanged in chains was a murderer named John Marshall in West Virginia on April 4, 1913. Although beheading was a legal method in Utah from 1851 to 1888, it was never used.
Question: How many execution methods are currently used in the United States?
Answer: five
Question: What was the most common historical method of execution in the United States?
Answer: hanging
Question: In what state did the last burning at the stake take place in the US?
Answer: South Carolina
Question: Who was the last person hanged in chains in the Untied States?
Answer: John Marshall
Question: When was execution by beheading ended in Utah?
Answer: 1888
Question: How many execution methods are currently outlawed in the United States?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was the least common historical method of execution in the United States?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In what state did the first burning at the stake take place in the US?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who was the first person hanged in chains in the Untied States?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When was execution by beheading started in Utah?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In 1974, Feynman delivered the Caltech commencement address on the topic of cargo cult science, which has the semblance of science, but is only pseudoscience due to a lack of "a kind of scientific integrity, a principle of scientific thought that corresponds to a kind of utter honesty" on the part of the scientist. He instructed the graduating class that "The first principle is that you must not fool yourself—and you are the easiest person to fool. So you have to be very careful about that. After you've not fooled yourself, it's easy not to fool other scientists. You just have to be honest in a conventional way after that."
Question: In which year did Feynman orate the Caltech commencement speech?
Answer: 1974
Question: Which topic did Feynman's commencement speech at Caltech center around?
Answer: cargo cult science
Question: What is cargo cult science?
Answer: pseudoscience
Question: What did Feyman tell the class that they must not do to themselves?
Answer: fool yourself
Question: Which year did Feynman miss the Caltech commencement speech?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which topic did Feynman's commencement speech at Caltech avoid?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is the science Feynman understood best considered?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did Feynman tell the class that they must do to themselves?
Answer: Unanswerable
|
Context: Deism holds that God is wholly transcendent: God exists, but does not intervene in the world beyond what was necessary to create it. In this view, God is not anthropomorphic, and neither answers prayers nor produces miracles. Common in Deism is a belief that God has no interest in humanity and may not even be aware of humanity. Pandeism and Panendeism, respectively, combine Deism with the Pantheistic or Panentheistic beliefs. Pandeism is proposed to explain as to Deism why God would create a universe and then abandon it, and as to Pantheism, the origin and purpose of the universe.
Question: What is a deistic view of God?
Answer: God exists, but does not intervene in the world beyond what was necessary to create it
Question: How does a deistic God feel about us?
Answer: no interest in humanity and may not even be aware of humanity
Question: What is Pandeism?
Answer: why God would create a universe and then abandon it
Question: What does a deistic God not do?
Answer: neither answers prayers nor produces miracles
Question: What type of religion believes that God is transcendent?
Answer: Deism
Question: What is deism?
Answer: God has no interest in humanity
Question: In deism is God represented in human form?
Answer: God is not anthropomorphic
Question: In deism, does God answer prayers?
Answer: neither answers prayers
Question: What does Deism usually combine?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is the view of Pantheism about God abandoning His creation?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What does a pandeistic god not do?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What belief is common about deism in Pandeism?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Does the universe answer prayers in Pantheism?
Answer: Unanswerable
|
Context: There are many different patterns of gas exchange demonstrated by different groups of insects. Gas exchange patterns in insects can range from continuous and diffusive ventilation, to discontinuous gas exchange.:65–68 During continuous gas exchange, oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is released in a continuous cycle. In discontinuous gas exchange, however, the insect takes in oxygen while it is active and small amounts of carbon dioxide are released when the insect is at rest. Diffusive ventilation is simply a form of continuous gas exchange that occurs by diffusion rather than physically taking in the oxygen. Some species of insect that are submerged also have adaptations to aid in respiration. As larvae, many insects have gills that can extract oxygen dissolved in water, while others need to rise to the water surface to replenish air supplies which may be held or trapped in special structures.
Question: What kind of exchange is demonstrated by different insects?
Answer: gas exchange
Question: Gas exchange patterns can contain what kind of ventilation?
Answer: diffusive ventilation
Question: Carbon dioxide is released continuously in what kind of gas exchange?
Answer: continuous gas exchange
Question: What gas exchanges does carbon dioxide release when the insect is resting?
Answer: discontinuous gas exchange
Question: Diffusive ventilation occurs by what?
Answer: diffusion
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Context: At the end of the last ice age, what are now the British Isles were joined to the European mainland as a mass of land extending north west from the modern-day northern coastline of France, Belgium and the Netherlands. Ice covered almost all of what is now Scotland, most of Ireland and Wales, and the hills of northern England. From 14,000 to 10,000 years ago, as the ice melted, sea levels rose separating Ireland from Great Britain and also creating the Isle of Man. About two to four millennia later, Great Britain became separated from the mainland. Britain probably became repopulated with people before the ice age ended and certainly before it became separated from the mainland. It is likely that Ireland became settled by sea after it had already become an island.
Question: What mainland was the British Isles once connected to?
Answer: European mainland
Question: What happened to British Isles area when the ice melted after the last ice age?
Answer: sea levels rose
Question: When sea levels rose what occured in the British Isles area?
Answer: separating Ireland from Great Britain
Question: When did the British Isles area become separated from the European continent?
Answer: two to four millennia
Question: Did Britain become populated with people again before or after the ice came to an end?
Answer: before the ice age ended
Question: During the start of the first ice age, the British Isles were connected to which continent as a mass of land?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When sea levels rose, Scotlan was separated from what other country to create the Isle of Man?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Nearly 6 millennia later, what did Great Britain separate from?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: After it was already a continent, Ireland probably became settled by what?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which countries were covered almost entirely by coastlines?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The BYU Ballroom Dance Company is known as one of the best formation ballroom dance teams in the world, having won the U.S. National Formation Dance Championship every year since 1982. BYU's Ballroom dance team has won first place in Latin or Standard (or both) many times when they have competed at the Blackpool Dance Festival, and they were the first U.S. team to win the formation championships at the famed British Championships in Blackpool, England in 1972 . The NDCA National DanceSport championships have been held at BYU for several years, and BYU holds dozens of ballroom dance classes each semester and is consequently the largest collegiate ballroom dance program in the world. In addition, BYU has a number of other notable dance teams and programs. These teams include the Theatre Ballet, Contemporary Dance Theatre, Living Legends, and International Folk Dance Ensemble. The Living Legends perform Latin, Native American, and Polynesian dancing. BYU boasts one of the largest dance departments in the nation. Many students from all different majors across campus participate in various dance classes each semester.
Question: What BYU group is known as one of the best formation ballroom dance teams in the world?
Answer: Ballroom Dance Company
Question: What dance championships have been held at BYU for several years?
Answer: NDCA National DanceSport
Question: How is BYU's collegiate ballroom dance program rated worldwide?
Answer: the largest
Question: What types of dancing are performed by BYU's The Living Legends?
Answer: Latin, Native American, and Polynesian
Question: Who has won the U.S. National Formation Dance Championship every year since 1972?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who was the first team to win the formation championships in 1982?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who has the largest dance department in the nation?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where has the NCDA National DanceSport championships been held?
Answer: Unanswerable
|
Context: The ancient history of Kathmandu is described in its traditional myths and legends. According to Swayambhu Purana, present-day Kathmandu was once a huge and deep lake names "Nagdaha" as it was full of snakes. The lake was cut drained by Bodhisatwa Manjusri with his sword and the water was evacuated out from there and he established a city called Manjupattan and made Dharmakar the ruler of the valley land. After sometimes, a demon named Banasur closed the outlet and the valley was again a lake. Then lots Krishna came to Nepal, killed Banasur and again drained out water. He has brought some Gops with him and made Bhuktaman the king of Nepal.
Question: According to legend, what body of water once existed on the site of Kathmandu?
Answer: lake
Question: What animals notably resided in Nagdaha?
Answer: snakes
Question: Who was the founder of Manjupattan?
Answer: Bodhisatwa Manjusri
Question: What type of creature was Banasur?
Answer: demon
Question: Who was Banasur's murderer?
Answer: Krishna
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Context: During the 12th century, the institutions of central government, which had hitherto accompanied the royal English court as it moved around the country, grew in size and sophistication and became increasingly fixed in one place. In most cases this was Westminster, although the royal treasury, having been moved from Winchester, came to rest in the Tower. While the City of Westminster developed into a true capital in governmental terms, its distinct neighbour, the City of London, remained England's largest city and principal commercial centre, and it flourished under its own unique administration, the Corporation of London. In 1100, its population was around 18,000; by 1300 it had grown to nearly 100,000.
Question: What was the administration which governed the City of London called?
Answer: the Corporation of London
Question: In the 12th century, where were the various bodies of English government centrally located for the most part?
Answer: Westminster
Question: Where was the royal treasury housed?
Answer: the Tower
Question: Before being centrally located, how was the English government handled in terms of location?
Answer: accompanied the royal English court as it moved around the country
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Context: Hokkien originated from Quanzhou. After the Opium War in 1842, Xiamen (Amoy) became one of the major treaty ports to be opened for trade with the outside world. From mid-19th century onwards, Xiamen slowly developed to become the political and economical center of the Hokkien-speaking region in China. This caused Amoy dialect to gradually replace the position of dialect variants from Quanzhou and Zhangzhou. From mid-19th century until the end of World War II, western diplomats usually learned Amoy Hokkien as the preferred dialect if they were to communicate with the Hokkien-speaking populace in China or South-East Asia. In the 1940s and 1950s, Taiwan also held Amoy Hokkien as its standard and tended to incline itself towards Amoy dialect.
Question: Where did Hokkein originate?
Answer: Quanzhou
Question: What year was the Opium war?
Answer: 1842
Question: What is another name for Xiamen?
Answer: Amoy
Question: What port became one of the major treaty ports after the Opium War?
Answer: Xiamen
Question: What dialect did western diplomats learn to communicate with the Hokkien speaking people in China?
Answer: Amoy Hokkien
Question: After the 1940's and 1950's Opium War, what became a major treaty port?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did Zhangzhou slowly develop into?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In the 1940's and 1950's what did Quanzhou use as its standard dialect?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In what year was South-East Asia war?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where did Taiwan originate from?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: During his annual state-of-the-nation address on September 2, 2014, President of Mexico Enrique Peña Nieto unveiled plans for a new international airport to ease the city's notorious air traffic congestion, tentatively slated for a 2018 opening. The new airport, which would have six runways, will cost $9.15 billion and would be built on vacant federal land east of Mexico City International Airport. Goals are to eventually handle 120 million passengers a year, which would make it the busiest airport in the world.
Question: When were the new plans of the airport revealed?
Answer: September 2, 2014
Question: When are the new plans supposed to come to fruition for the airport?
Answer: 2018
Question: How many runways will be in the new airport?
Answer: six
Question: How many passengers will the new airport be able to handle?
Answer: 120 million
Question: How much does the new airport cost?
Answer: $9.15 billion
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Context: Major projects include the current construction of a new campus for Gateway Community College downtown, and also a 32-story, 500-unit apartment/retail building called 360 State Street. The 360 State Street project is now occupied and is the largest residential building in Connecticut. A new boathouse and dock is planned for New Haven Harbor, and the linear park Farmington Canal Trail is set to extend into downtown New Haven within the coming year. Additionally, foundation and ramp work to widen I-95 to create a new harbor crossing for New Haven, with an extradosed bridge to replace the 1950s-era Q Bridge, has begun. The city still hopes to redevelop the site of the New Haven Coliseum, which was demolished in 2007.
Question: What multi-use project in New Haven is the largest residential building in Connecticut?
Answer: 360 State Street
Question: What park is anticipated to extend to downtown New Haven?
Answer: Farmington Canal Trail
Question: For what area are a new boathouse and dock being planned?
Answer: New Haven Harbor
Question: What is the city landmark demolished in 2007 that the city ultimately wish to redevelop?
Answer: New Haven Coliseum
Question: What is the name of building project is taking place in Gateway Community College downtown?
Answer: 360 State Street.
Question: The New Haven Harbor is receiving what kind of adjustment?
Answer: dock is planned
Question: The city of New Haven wants to redevelop/build what sort of structure?
Answer: New Haven Coliseum
Question: In terms of infrastructure, what is being develop in the downtown area?
Answer: linear park Farmington Canal Trail
Question: What type of bridge is replacing the old Q Bridge?
Answer: an extradosed bridge
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Context: In the later 1890s and into first decade of the 20th century, structural changes occurred in the operation of the Pacific trading companies; they moved from a practice of having traders resident on each island to instead becoming a business operation where the supercargo (the cargo manager of a trading ship) would deal directly with the islanders when a ship visited an island. From 1900 the numbers of palagi traders in Tuvalu declined and the last of the palagi traders were Fred Whibley on Niutao, Alfred Restieaux on Nukufetau, and Martin Kleis on Nui. By 1909 there were no more resident palagi traders representing the trading companies, although both Whibley and Restieaux remained in the islands until their deaths.
Question: What operational changes caused a decline in the numbers of palagi traders in Tuvalu?
Answer: structural changes
Question: What type of traders did the Pacific trading companies cease to use?
Answer: resident
Question: How did the trading companies begin to trade with islanders?
Answer: deal directly
Question: By what year were there no more palagi traders on Tuvalu?
Answer: 1909
Question: What is the term for a ship's cargo manager?
Answer: supercargo
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Context: In December 2015, West released a song titled "Facts". He announced in January 2016 on Twitter that SWISH would be released on February 11, after releasing new song "Real Friends" and a snippet of "No More Parties in L.A." with Kendrick Lamar. This also revived the GOOD Fridays initiative in which Kanye releases new singles every Friday. On January 26, 2016, West revealed he had renamed the album from SWISH to Waves, and also announced the premier of his Yeezy Season 3 clothing line at Madison Square Garden. In early 2016, several weeks prior to the release of his new album, West became embroiled in a short-lived social media altercation with rapper Wiz Khalifa on Twitter that eventually involved their mutual ex-partner, Amber Rose, who protested to West's mention of her and Khalifa's child. The feud involved allegations by Rose concerning her sexual relationship with West, and received significant media attention. As of February 2, 2016, West and Khalifa had reconciled. Several days ahead of the album's release, West again changed the title, this time to The Life of Pablo. On February 11, West premiered the album at Madison Square Garden as part of the presentation of his Yeezy Season 3 clothing line. Following the preview, West announced that he would be modifying the track list once more before its release to the public, and further delayed its release to finalize the recording of the track "Waves" at the behest of co-writer Chance the Rapper. He released the album exclusively on Tidal on 14 February 2016 following a performance on SNL.
Question: What was the tentative release date announced for Kanye's next studio album?
Answer: February 11
Question: What was Kanye's next album renamed again to?
Answer: Waves
Question: With what other rapper did Kanye west have a Twitter feud with in early 2016?
Answer: Wiz Khalifa
Question: What became the final title of Kanye's next album?
Answer: The Life of Pablo
Question: What platform was The Life of Pablo officially released on?
Answer: Tidal
Question: What song by West was debuted in December 2015?
Answer: "Facts"
Question: On January 26, 2016, Kanye told the world he changed the name of his next album from SWISH to what?
Answer: Waves
Question: What artist did Kanye West have a feud with over Amber Rose?
Answer: Wiz Khalifa
Question: What was the name of Kanye's clothing line premiered at Madison Square Garden?
Answer: Yeezy Season 3
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Context: During the 19th century, an important producer of art was the Academia de San Carlos (San Carlos Art Academy), founded during colonial times, and which later became the Escuela Nacional de Artes Plásticas (the National School of Arts) including painting, sculpture and graphic design, one of UNAM's art schools. Many of the works produced by the students and faculty of that time are now displayed in the Museo Nacional de San Carlos (National Museum of San Carlos). One of the students, José María Velasco, is considered one of the greatest Mexican landscape painters of the 19th century. Porfirio Díaz's regime sponsored arts, especially those that followed the French school. Popular arts in the form of cartoons and illustrations flourished, e.g. those of José Guadalupe Posada and Manuel Manilla. The permanent collection of the San Carlos Museum also includes paintings by European masters such as Rembrandt, Velázquez, Murillo, and Rubens.
Question: What is the large art school in Mexico City?
Answer: Academia de San Carlos
Question: Where does most of the artwork produced as the Academia de San Carlos get featured?
Answer: Museo Nacional de San Carlos
Question: Who is one of the most famous people to graduate from the large art school of Mexico City?
Answer: José María Velasco
Question: The San Carlos Museum has art from who, among others?
Answer: Rembrandt, Velázquez, Murillo, and Rubens
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Context: In Croatia there are many polytechnic institutes and colleges that offer a polytechnic education. The law about polytechnic education in Croatia was passed in 1997.
Question: What year did Croatia pass a law regarding polytechnic education?
Answer: 1997
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Context: The Brazilian federal constitution states that the power to enter into treaties is vested in the president and that such treaties must be approved by Congress (articles 84, clause VIII, and 49, clause I). In practice, this has been interpreted as meaning that the executive branch is free to negotiate and sign a treaty, but its ratification by the president is contingent upon the prior approval of Congress. Additionally, the Federal Supreme Court has ruled that, following ratification and entry into force, a treaty must be incorporated into domestic law by means of a presidential decree published in the federal register in order to be valid in Brazil and applicable by the Brazilian authorities.
Question: What part of the Brazilian federal consitution states that the power to enter into treaties is vested in the president and that such treaties must be approved by Congress?
Answer: articles 84, clause VIII, and 49, clause I
Question: In practice the Brazilian president must get the prior approval of what body in order to negotiate and sign a treaty?
Answer: Congress
Question: What Brazilian institution has ruled that a treaty must be incorporated into domestic law by means of a presidential decree?
Answer: the Federal Supreme Court
Question: In order for a treaty to be valid in Brazil, a presidential decree incorporating the treaty into domestic law must be published where in order to be valid?
Answer: the federal register
Question: In what office is the power to enter into treaties vested according to the Brazilian federal constitution?
Answer: president
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Context: Gamal Abdel Nasser Hussein (Arabic: جمال عبد الناصر حسين, IPA: [ɡæˈmæːl ʕæbdenˈnɑːsˤeɾ ħeˈseːn]; 15 January 1918 – 28 September 1970) was the second President of Egypt, serving from 1956 until his death. Nasser led the 1952 overthrow of the monarchy and introduced far-reaching land reforms the following year. Following a 1954 attempt on his life by a Muslim Brotherhood member acting on his own, he cracked down on the organization, put President Muhammad Naguib under house arrest, and assumed executive office, officially becoming president in June 1956.
Question: What number president of Egypt was Nasser?
Answer: second
Question: What organization attempted to assassinate Nasser?
Answer: Muslim Brotherhood
Question: In what year did Nasser become president?
Answer: 1956
Question: In what year did Nasser die?
Answer: 1970
Question: What type of government did Nasser overthrow?
Answer: monarchy
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Context: Her Diamond Jubilee in 2012 marked 60 years on the throne, and celebrations were held throughout her realms, the wider Commonwealth, and beyond. In a message released on Accession Day, she stated: "In this special year, as I dedicate myself anew to your service, I hope we will all be reminded of the power of togetherness and the convening strength of family, friendship and good neighbourliness ... I hope also that this Jubilee year will be a time to give thanks for the great advances that have been made since 1952 and to look forward to the future with clear head and warm heart". She and her husband undertook an extensive tour of the United Kingdom, while her children and grandchildren embarked on royal tours of other Commonwealth states on her behalf. On 4 June, Jubilee beacons were lit around the world. On 18 December, she became the first British sovereign to attend a peacetime Cabinet meeting since George III in 1781.
Question: How many years has Elizabeth been Queen?
Answer: 60 years
Question: What celebration marks 60 years for Elizabeth as Queen?
Answer: Diamond Jubilee
Question: What year marks Elizabeth's Diamond Jubilee?
Answer: 2012
Question: Where did Elizabeth tour as a celebration of her jubilee?
Answer: United Kingdom
Question: When was the last time that a sovereign attended a peacetime cabinet meeting?
Answer: 1781
Question: In what year did George III begin his reign on the throne?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In what year did George III die?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: For how long was George III king?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How many Cabinet meetings did George III attend?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was King George III's Accession Day?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The Occupy Wall Street protests in Zuccotti Park in the Financial District of Lower Manhattan began on September 17, 2011, receiving global attention and spawning the Occupy movement against social and economic inequality worldwide.
Question: On what date did the Occupy Wall Street protests commence?
Answer: September 17, 2011
Question: In what park did the Occupy Wall Street protests occur?
Answer: Zuccotti Park
Question: In what borough did the Occupy Wall Street protests take place?
Answer: Manhattan
Question: In what district of Manhattan were the Occupy Wall Street protests?
Answer: Financial District
Question: The Occupy Wall Street protests that took place in Zuccotti Park was on which date?
Answer: September 17, 2011
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Context: Beginning in the 2007–2008 academic year, first-time freshman at KU pay a fixed tuition rate for 48 months according to the Four-Year Tuition Compact passed by the Kansas Board of Regents. For the 2014–15 academic year, tuition was $318 per credit hour for in-state freshman and $828 for out-of-state freshmen. For transfer students, who do not take part in the compact, 2014–15 per-credit-hour tuition was $295 for in-state undergraduates and $785 for out-of-state undergraduates; subject to annual increases. Students enrolled in 6 or more credit hours also paid an annual required campus fee of $888. The schools of architecture, music, arts, business, education, engineering, journalism, law, pharmacy, and social welfare charge additional fees.
Question: What was first instituted for first year students in the 2007-2008 school year?
Answer: fixed tuition rate
Question: For how long does the fixed rate of tuition last?
Answer: 48 months
Question: What was the edict approved by the Board of Regents that provided for the fixed tuition program?
Answer: Four-Year Tuition Compact
Question: How much did a student from outside of Kansas have to pay per course credit in 2014-15?
Answer: $828
Question: What is charged at KU's specialized professional schools?
Answer: additional fees
Question: What was last instituted for first year students in the 2007-2008 school year?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: For how long does the variable rate of tuition last?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was the edict rejected by the Board of Regents that provided for the fixed tuition program?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How much did a professor from outside of Kansas have to pay per course credit in 2014-15?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is charged at KU's unspecialized professional schools?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Numerous examples show influence in the opposite direction, including popular songs based on classical music, the use to which Pachelbel's Canon has been put since the 1970s, and the musical crossover phenomenon, where classical musicians have achieved success in the popular music arena. In heavy metal, a number of lead guitarists (playing electric guitar) modeled their playing styles on Baroque or Classical era instrumental music, including Ritchie Blackmore and Randy Rhoads.
Question: Pachelbel's Canon has influenced popular songs since what decade?
Answer: the 1970s
Question: What phenomenon sees classical musicians achieving success in popular music?
Answer: the musical crossover phenomenon
Question: Baroque or Classical era influence can be seen in what modern musical style?
Answer: heavy metal
Question: Ritchie Blackmore and Randy Rhoads play what instrument?
Answer: electric guitar
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Context: Beginning in first decade of the 15th century, Jan Hus—a Roman Catholic priest, Czech reformist and professor—influenced by John Wycliffe's writings, founded the Hussite movement. He strongly advocated his reformist Bohemian religious denomination. He was excommunicated and burned at the stake in Constance, Bishopric of Constance in 1415 by secular authorities for unrepentant and persistent heresy. After his execution, a revolt erupted. Hussites defeated five continuous crusades proclaimed against them by the Pope.
Question: Who started the Hussite movement?
Answer: Jan Hus
Question: Whose words were an inspiration for Jan Hus?
Answer: John Wycliffe
Question: How many crusades were waged against the Hussites?
Answer: five
Question: Who called the crusades against the Hussites?
Answer: the Pope
Question: How did Jan Hus die?
Answer: burned at the stake
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Context: Bermudians served in the British armed forces during both World War I and World War II. After the latter, Major-General Glyn Charles Anglim Gilbert, Bermuda's highest-ranking soldier, was instrumental in developing the Bermuda Regiment. A number of other Bermudians and their descendants had preceded him into senior ranks, including Bahamian-born Admiral Lord Gambier, and Bermudian-born Royal Marines Brigadier Harvey. When promoted to Brigadier at age 39, following his wounding at the Anzio landings, Harvey became the youngest-ever Royal Marine Brigadier. The Cenotaph in front of the Cabinet Building (in Hamilton) was erected in tribute to Bermuda's Great War dead (the tribute was later extended to Bermuda's Second World War dead) and is the site of the annual Remembrance Day commemoration.
Question: When did Bermudians serve in the British Armed forces?
Answer: World War I and World War II
Question: Who was key to establishing Bermuda's Regiment?
Answer: Major-General Glyn Charles Anglim Gilbert
Question: Who was the youngest Royal Marine Brigadier?
Answer: Brigadier Harvey
Question: What is the site for Bermuda's Remembrance Day?
Answer: Cenotaph in front of the Cabinet Building
Question: Who was Major-General Charles Glyn Gilbert Anglim?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was Major-General Charles Glyn Gilbert Anglim instrumental in?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who did Admiral Lord Gambier and Marines Brigadier Royal Harvey precede?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who became the youngest-ever Marine Royal Brigadier?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Eritrea is a one-party state in which national legislative elections have been repeatedly postponed. According to Human Rights Watch, the government's human rights record is considered among the worst in the world. Most Western countries have accused the Eritrean authorities of arbitrary arrest and detentions, and of detaining an unknown number of people without charge for their political activism. However, the Eritrean government has continually dismissed the accusations as politically motivated. In June 2015, a 500-page United Nations Human Rights Council report accused Eritrea's government of extrajudicial executions, torture, indefinitely prolonged national service and forced labour, and indicated that sexual harassment, rape and sexual servitude by state officials are also widespread.
Question: According to Human Rights Watch, how do the human rights in Eritrea compare to the rest of the world?
Answer: among the worst
Question: According to a 500-page UN Human Rights Council report, what was widespread behavior by state officials in Eritrea?
Answer: sexual harassment, rape and sexual servitude
Question: What type of state government exists in Eritrea?
Answer: a one-party state
Question: According to many western countries, why have Eritrean authorities detained an unknown number of people?
Answer: for their political activism
Question: In what year was the United Nations Human Rights Council report written?
Answer: 2015
Question: When was the last time national legislative elections were held?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What country has one of the better human rights records in the world?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How long was the Human Rights Watch report about Eritrea?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When was the Human Rights Watch report about Eritrea released?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What accusations has the Eritrean government owned up to?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: As conceptualized by the Polizeiwissenschaft,according to Foucault the police had an administrative,economic and social duty ("procuring abundance"). It was in charge of demographic concerns and needed to be incorporated within the western political philosophy system of raison d'état and therefore giving the superficial appearance of empowering the population (and unwittingly supervising the population), which, according to mercantilist theory, was to be the main strength of the state. Thus, its functions largely overreached simple law enforcement activities and included public health concerns, urban planning (which was important because of the miasma theory of disease; thus, cemeteries were moved out of town, etc.), and surveillance of prices.
Question: Who wrote about Polizeiwissenschaft?
Answer: Foucault
Question: How did Foucault describe the social duty of police?
Answer: procuring abundance
Question: Which economic theory did Foucault say supported the police?
Answer: mercantilist theory
Question: Why did the functions of police grow beyond law enforcement to urban planning?
Answer: because of the miasma theory of disease; thus, cemeteries were moved out of town, etc.
Question: Who never wrote about Polizeiwissenschaft?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How did Foucault describe the social duty of army?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which economic theory did Foucault say rejected the police?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which biology theory did Foucault say supported the police?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Why didn't the functions of police grow beyond law enforcement to urban planning?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Madonna's seventh studio album, Ray of Light, (1998) reflected a change in her image. She collaborated with electronica producer William Orbit and wanted to create a sound that could blend dance music with pop and British rock. American music critic Ann Powers explained that what Madonna searched for with Orbit "was a kind of a lushness that she wanted for this record. Techno and rave was happening in the 90's and had a lot of different forms. There was very experimental, more hard stuff like Aphex Twin. There was party stuff like Fatboy Slim. That's not what Madonna wanted for this. She wanted something more like a singer-songwriter, really. And William Orbit provided her with that."
Question: What is the name of Madonna's seventh album?
Answer: Ray of Light
Question: What year was "Ray of Light" released?
Answer: 1998
Question: Which electronica producer did Madonna team up with for Ray of Light?
Answer: William Orbit
Question: Which type of music was popular during the 90s?
Answer: Techno and rave
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Context: As regards publication titles it is, however, a common typographic practice among both British and U.S. publishers to capitalise significant words (and in the United States, this is often applied to headings, too). This family of typographic conventions is usually called title case. For example, R. M. Ritter's Oxford Manual of Style (2002) suggests capitalising "the first word and all nouns, pronouns, adjectives, verbs and adverbs, but generally not articles, conjunctions and short prepositions". This is an old form of emphasis, similar to the more modern practice of using a larger or boldface font for titles. The rules for which words to capitalise are not based on any grammatically inherent correct/incorrect distinction and are not universally standardized; they are arbitrary and differ between style guides, although in most styles they tend to follow a few strong conventions, as follows:
Question: What is capitalization of significant words applied to in the United States besides titles?
Answer: headings
Question: Capitalization of significant words refers to which family of typographic conventions?
Answer: title case
Question: Which book of literature standards suggests capitalizing the first word and all nouns, pronouns, adjectives, verbs, and adverbs?
Answer: R. M. Ritter's Oxford Manual of Style
Question: The use of bold fonts and capilization in titles falls under which unusual grammatical distinction?
Answer: not universally standardized
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Context: Cockfighting is said to be the world's oldest spectator sport and may have originated in Persia 6,000 years ago. Two mature males (cocks or roosters) are set to fight each other, and will do so with great vigour until one is critically injured or killed. Breeds such as the Aseel were developed in the Indian subcontinent for their aggressive behaviour. The sport formed part of the culture of the ancient Indians, Chinese, Greeks, and Romans, and large sums were won or lost depending on the outcome of an encounter. Cockfighting has been banned in many countries during the last century on the grounds of cruelty to animals.
Question: How long ago was the sport of fighting chickens been around?
Answer: Cockfighting is said to be the world's oldest spectator sport and may have originated in Persia 6,000 years ago.
Question: What is the termed used to define the game of fighting chickens called?
Answer: Cockfighting
Question: Do chickens die in the sport of cockfighting?
Answer: fight each other, and will do so with great vigour until one is critically injured or killed.
Question: Have theere been any types of chickens who were really good at cockfighting?
Answer: Breeds such as the Aseel were developed in the Indian subcontinent for their aggressive behaviour
Question: Do people bet on the cockfighting or is it just for entertainment?
Answer: large sums were won or lost depending on the outcome of an encounter.
Question: What breed of rooster was developed in the Chinese subcontinent?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is said to be Persia's oldest spectator sport?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Why has cockfighting has been banned in many cultures during the last century?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When was the sport of fighting chickens stopped?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is the term used to define the game of breeding chickens called?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What are chickens not going to do during a cockfight?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Have there been any types of kittens who were really good at cockfighting?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Why is cockfighting no longer something people want to be involved with?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: On October 25–28, 1990, Rukh held its second congress and declared that its principal goal was the "renewal of independent statehood for Ukraine". On October 28 UAOC faithful, supported by Ukrainian Catholics, demonstrated near St. Sophia’s Cathedral as newly elected Russian Orthodox Church Patriarch Aleksei and Metropolitan Filaret celebrated liturgy at the shrine. On November 1, the leaders of the Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church and of the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church, respectively, Metropolitan Volodymyr Sterniuk and Patriarch Mstyslav, met in Lviv during anniversary commemorations of the 1918 proclamation of the Western Ukrainian National Republic.
Question: Where was the UAOC protest held?
Answer: near St. Sophia’s Cathedral
Question: Who were in the cathedral at the time of the protest?
Answer: Russian Orthodox Church Patriarch Aleksei and Metropolitan Filaret
Question: What had Aleksei and Filaret been up to at the time of the protest?
Answer: liturgy
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Context: In September 2003, China intended to join the European Galileo positioning system project and was to invest €230 million (USD296 million, GBP160 million) in Galileo over the next few years. At the time, it was believed that China's "BeiDou" navigation system would then only be used by its armed forces. In October 2004, China officially joined the Galileo project by signing the Agreement on the Cooperation in the Galileo Program between the "Galileo Joint Undertaking" (GJU) and the "National Remote Sensing Centre of China" (NRSCC). Based on the Sino-European Cooperation Agreement on Galileo program, China Galileo Industries (CGI), the prime contractor of the China’s involvement in Galileo programs, was founded in December 2004. By April 2006, eleven cooperation projects within the Galileo framework had been signed between China and EU. However, the Hong Kong-based South China Morning Post reported in January 2008 that China was unsatisfied with its role in the Galileo project and was to compete with Galileo in the Asian market.
Question: How much was China going to invest in the European Galileo positioning system project?
Answer: €230 million (USD296 million, GBP160 million)
Question: In 2003, what was the planned purpose of the BeiDou navigation system?
Answer: only be used by its armed forces
Question: When did China join the Galileo project?
Answer: October 2004
Question: When was China Galileo Industries (CGI) founded?
Answer: December 2004
Question: Who said in 2008 that China was unsatisfied with its involvement in the Galileo project?
Answer: the Hong Kong-based South China Morning Post
Question: In January 2015, China was set to invest how much in Galileo over the following years?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How many million USD is equivalent to 160 million rupees?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which agreement did Japan sign to join the Galileo project officially?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which program says CGI founded in 2008?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: By April of 2006, how many cooperation projects between Japan and EU had been signed?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Livability.com named New Haven as the Best Foodie City in the country in 2014. There are 56 Zagat-rated restaurants in New Haven, the most in Connecticut and the third most in New England (after Boston and Cambridge). More than 120 restaurants are located within two blocks of the New Haven Green. The city is home to an eclectic mix of ethnic restaurants and small markets specializing in various foreign foods. Represented cuisines include Malaysian, Ethiopian, Spanish, Belgian, French, Greek, Latin American, Mexican, Italian, Thai, Chinese, Japanese, Vietnamese, Korean, Indian, Jamaican, Cuban, Peruvian, Syrian/Lebanese, and Turkish.
Question: What distinction was afforded to New Haven in 2014 by Livability.com?
Answer: Best Foodie City
Question: How many Zagat-rated restaurants are located in New Haven?
Answer: 56
Question: What city in Connecticut has the highest number of Zagat-rated restaurants?
Answer: New Haven
Question: How many restaurants can be accessed within a two block radius of New Haven Green?
Answer: More than 120
Question: What website gave critical acclaim to New Haven for the city's food?
Answer: Livability.com
Question: How many restaurant are located in the center of New Haven's city?
Answer: More than 120 restaurants
Question: There are about how many Zagat-rated restaurants located in the city?
Answer: 56
Question: Within the cities there are markets that focus on what sort of cuisines?
Answer: various foreign foods.
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Context: Theophrastus wrote some of the earliest descriptions of plants and animals, establishing the first taxonomy and looking at minerals in terms of their properties such as hardness. Pliny the Elder produced what is one of the largest encyclopedias of the natural world in 77 AD, and must be regarded as the rightful successor to Theophrastus. For example, he accurately describes the octahedral shape of the diamond, and proceeds to mention that diamond dust is used by engravers to cut and polish other gems owing to its great hardness. His recognition of the importance of crystal shape is a precursor to modern crystallography, while mention of numerous other minerals presages mineralogy. He also recognises that other minerals have characteristic crystal shapes, but in one example, confuses the crystal habit with the work of lapidaries. He was also the first to recognise that amber was a fossilized resin from pine trees because he had seen samples with trapped insects within them.
Question: What classification guide did Theophrastus create?
Answer: the first taxonomy
Question: In what year did Pliny the Elder publish the largest encyclopedia?
Answer: 77 AD
Question: What did Pliny the Elder observe about diamonds?
Answer: the octahedral shape
Question: Who do engravers use diamond dust for?
Answer: to cut and polish other gems
Question: What characteristic was Pliny the Elder the first to recognize about amber?
Answer: was a fossilized resin
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Context: In inorganic chemistry, hydrides can also serve as bridging ligands that link two metal centers in a coordination complex. This function is particularly common in group 13 elements, especially in boranes (boron hydrides) and aluminium complexes, as well as in clustered carboranes.
Question: What chemistry do hydrides serve as bridging ligands?
Answer: inorganic chemistry
Question: What do hydrides that are bridging ligands link up?
Answer: link two metal centers
Question: What group is briging ligands most common in?
Answer: group 13
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Context: In 1959, an international gathering of over 185 judges, lawyers, and law professors from 53 countries, meeting in New Delhi and speaking as the International Commission of Jurists, made a declaration as to the fundamental principle of the rule of law. This was the Declaration of Delhi. They declared that the rule of law implies certain rights and freedoms, that it implies an independent judiciary, and that it implies social, economic and cultural conditions conducive to human dignity. The Declaration of Delhi did not, however, suggest that the rule of law requires legislative power to be subject to judicial review.
Question: When did the Declaration of Delhi happen?
Answer: 1959
Question: How many judges participated in the Declaration of Delhi?
Answer: 185
Question: According to the Declaration of Delhi, what provides certain rights and freedoms?
Answer: rule of law
Question: According to the Declaration of Delhi, what type of conditions are needed for human dignity?
Answer: social, economic and cultural
Question: Who made a declaration about the principle of rule of law in the nineteenth century?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What declaration stated that the rule of law applies to certain rights and freedoms?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What suggested that the rule of law requires legislative power?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What commission has fifty-three members?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In 1852, Elisha Otis introduced the safety elevator, which prevented the fall of the cab if the cable broke. The design of the Otis safety elevator is somewhat similar to one type still used today. A governor device engages knurled roller(s), locking the elevator to its guides should the elevator descend at excessive speed. He demonstrated it at the New York exposition in the Crystal Palace in a dramatic, death-defying presentation in 1854, and the first such passenger elevator was installed at 488 Broadway in New York City on March 23, 1857.
Question: Who created the safety elevator in 1852?
Answer: Elisha Otis
Question: What feature did the safety elevator display?
Answer: prevented the fall of the cab if the cable broke
Question: What did the govenor device engage to lock the elevator?
Answer: knurled roller(s)
Question: At what location was it first presented?
Answer: New York exposition in the Crystal Palace
Question: Where was the first safety elevator installed?
Answer: 488 Broadway in New York City
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Context: In 1898, the modern City of New York was formed with the consolidation of Brooklyn (until then a separate city), the County of New York (which then included parts of the Bronx), the County of Richmond, and the western portion of the County of Queens. The opening of the subway in 1904, first built as separate private systems, helped bind the new city together. Throughout the first half of the 20th century, the city became a world center for industry, commerce, and communication.
Question: In what year was the modern City of New York founded?
Answer: 1898
Question: In what year did the subway begin operation?
Answer: 1904
Question: Portions of what modern-day borough were included in the County of New York?
Answer: the Bronx
Question: The subway of New York was first available in what year?
Answer: 1904
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Context: Dogs have lived and worked with humans in so many roles that they have earned the unique nickname, "man's best friend", a phrase used in other languages as well. They have been bred for herding livestock, hunting (e.g. pointers and hounds), rodent control, guarding, helping fishermen with nets, detection dogs, and pulling loads, in addition to their roles as companions. In 1957, a husky-terrier mix named Laika became the first animal to orbit the Earth.
Question: What nickname have dogs earned for their relationship to humans?
Answer: man's best friend
Question: Pointers and hounds are bred to do what?
Answer: hunt
Question: Certain dogs are bred to help fishermen with what?
Answer: nets
Question: Who was the first dog to orbit the earth in 1957?
Answer: Laika
Question: What breed was Laika?
Answer: husky-terrier mix
Question: What phrase describing dogs is used in different languages?
Answer: man's best friend
Question: What dog types, in the text, are used for hunting?
Answer: pointers and hounds
Question: Some dogs help fishermen with what?
Answer: nets
Question: What is the name of the dog to first orbit the Earth?
Answer: Laika
Question: What year was the first dog sent into space?
Answer: 1957
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Context: In 1579 a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries signed the Union of Utrecht, in which they promised to support each other in their defence against the Spanish army. This was followed in 1581 by the Act of Abjuration, the declaration of independence of the provinces from Philip II.
Question: In what year was the Union of Utrecht signed?
Answer: 1579
Question: Who signed the Union of Utrecht?
Answer: a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries
Question: What was the declaration of independence of the provinces from Philip II called?
Answer: the Act of Abjuration
Question: In what year was the Act of Abjuration signed?
Answer: 1581
Question: What was the purpose of the Union of Utrecht?
Answer: to support each other in their defence against the Spanish army
Question: In what year did the provinces of the low countries sign the Union of Utrecht?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who promised to help each other attack the Spanish army?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who declared their independence from Philip II in 1579?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who did the Union of Utrecht declare independence from?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who did the provinces promise to support with the Act of Abjuration?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In 1581 who signed the Union of Utrecht?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was the name of the declaration of independence from the Low Countries?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did Low Country provinces sign promising to support each other against Philip II?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: During what year was the declaration of independence from the Spanish signed?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who promised to support each other while defending against Philip II?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Italians in different regions today may also speak regional varieties of standard Italian, or regional Italian dialects, which, unlike the majority of languages of Italy, are actually dialects of standard Italian rather than separate languages. A regional Italian dialect is generally standard Italian that has been heavily influenced or mixed with local or regional native languages and accents.
Question: Regional Italian dialects are often influenced by regional languages and what other language?
Answer: standard Italian
Question: What do Italians in different regions never speak?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is another term for national Italian dialects?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What dialect is regional Italian heavily influenced by native languages?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is another term for varieties of standard Italian?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: The majority of Italian languages are dialects of what?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: A number of novel ideas about religion developed with the Enlightenment, including Deism and talk of atheism. Deism, according to Thomas Paine, is the simple belief in God the Creator, with no reference to the Bible or any other miraculous source. Instead, the Deist relies solely on personal reason to guide his creed, which was eminently agreeable to many thinkers of the time. Atheism was much discussed, but there were few proponents. Wilson and Reill note that, "In fact, very few enlightened intellectuals, even when they were vocal critics of Christianity, were true atheists. Rather, they were critics of orthodox belief, wedded rather to skepticism, deism, vitalism, or perhaps pantheism." Some followed Pierre Bayle and argued that atheists could indeed be moral men. Many others like Voltaire held that without belief in a God who punishes evil, the moral order of society was undermined. That is, since atheists gave themselves to no Supreme Authority and no law, and had no fear of eternal consequences, they were far more likely to disrupt society. Bayle (1647–1706) observed that in his day, "prudent persons will always maintain an appearance of [religion].". He believed that even atheists could hold concepts of honor and go beyond their own self-interest to create and interact in society. Locke said that if there were no God and no divine law, the result would be moral anarchy: every individual "could have no law but his own will, no end but himself. He would be a god to himself, and the satisfaction of his own will the sole measure and end of all his actions".
Question: According to Thomas Paine, what is the definition of Deism?
Answer: the simple belief in God the Creator, with no reference to the Bible or any other miraculous source
Question: Which philosopher argued that atheists could indeed be moral men?
Answer: Pierre Bayle
Question: Which philosopher argued that without belief in a God who punishes evil, the moral order of society was undermined?
Answer: Voltaire
Question: Who felt that since atheists gave themselves no Supreme Authority and no law, they were more likely to disrupt society?
Answer: Voltaire
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Context: In some team matches, only one entrant from each team may be designated as the "legal" or "active" wrestler at any given moment. Two wrestlers must make physical contact (typically palm-to-palm) in order to transfer this legal status. This is known as a "tag", with the participants "tagging out" and "tagging in". Typically the wrestler who is tagging out has a 5-second count to leave the ring, whereas the one tagging in can enter the ring at any time, resulting in heels legally double-teaming a face.
Question: What does a "tag" entail?
Answer: Two wrestlers must make physical contact (typically palm-to-palm) in order to transfer this legal status.
Question: What are two things that can be done with tagging?
Answer: "tagging out" and "tagging in".
Question: How long does a wrestler have to leave the ring once they are tagged out?
Answer: has a 5-second count to leave the ring
Question: How much time does a wrestler have once they tag in?
Answer: the one tagging in can enter the ring at any time, resulting in heels legally double-teaming a face.
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Context: Excavations in and near Agordat in central Eritrea yielded the remains of an ancient pre-Aksumite civilization known as the Gash Group. Ceramics were discovered that were related to those of the C-Group (Temehu) pastoral culture, which inhabited the Nile Valley between 2500–1500 BC. Some sources dating back to 3500 BC. Shards akin to those of the Kerma culture, another community that flourished in the Nile Valley around the same period, were also found at other local archaeological sites in the Barka valley belonging to the Gash Group. According to Peter Behrens (1981) and Marianne Bechaus-Gerst (2000), linguistic evidence indicates that the C-Group and Kerma peoples spoke Afroasiatic languages of the Berber and Cushitic branches, respectively.
Question: What is the Gash Group?
Answer: an ancient pre-Aksumite civilization
Question: What did excavations around Agordat yield the remains of?
Answer: the Gash Group
Question: Where is Agordat located?
Answer: central Eritrea
Question: When did the C-Group inhabit the Nile Valley?
Answer: between 2500–1500 BC
Question: What type of evidence indicated that the C-Group spoke Afroasiatic languages of the Berber branches?
Answer: linguistic
Question: What city is located in northern Eritrea?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When can the Berber be dated back to?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where did the Berber live in ancient times?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What city lies in southern Eritrea?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What country is Peter Behrens from?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The University of Kansas is a large, state-sponsored university, with five campuses. KU features the College of Liberal Arts & Sciences, which includes the School of the Arts and the School of Public Affairs & Administration; and the schools of Architecture, Design & Planning; Business; Education; Engineering; Health Professions; Journalism & Mass Communications; Law; Medicine; Music; Nursing; Pharmacy; and Social Welfare. The university offers more than 345 degree programs.
Question: How many campuses are run by KU?
Answer: five
Question: What term describes the nature of how the university is partially funded?
Answer: state-sponsored
Question: What are two parts of the University of Kansas house in the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences?
Answer: the School of the Arts and the School of Public Affairs & Administration
Question: At least how many different degree-granting programs exist at KU?
Answer: 345
Question: How many campuses aren't run by KU?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What term describes the nature of how the university is fully funded?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What are three parts of the University of Kansas house in the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: At least how many different degree-granting programs don't exist at KU?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: At least how many different non-degree granting programs exist at KU?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The events of the Franco-Prussian War had great influence on military thinking over the next forty years. Lessons drawn from the war included the need for a general staff system, the scale and duration of future wars and the tactical use of artillery and cavalry. The bold use of artillery by the Prussians, to silence French guns at long range and then to directly support infantry attacks at close range, proved to be superior to the defensive doctrine employed by French gunners. The Prussian tactics were adopted by European armies by 1914, exemplified in the French 75, an artillery piece optimised to provide direct fire support to advancing infantry. Most European armies ignored the evidence of the Russo-Japanese War of 1904–05 which suggested that infantry armed with new smokeless-powder rifles could engage gun crews effectively. This forced gunners to fire at longer range using indirect fire, usually from a position of cover.
Question: The events of the Franco-Prussian War had great influence on what?
Answer: military thinking
Question: Lessons garnered from the war included recognizing the need for what kind of system?
Answer: general staff system
Question: Who adopted the Prussian artillery tactics in 1914?
Answer: European armies
Question: What was the French 75 optimised to directly support?
Answer: advancing infantry
Question: Evidence from what war suggested the increased benefits of smokeless poweder rifles?
Answer: Russo-Japanese War
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Context: Maternal factors also play a role in the body’s immune response. At birth, most of the immunoglobulin present is maternal IgG. Because IgM, IgD, IgE and IgA don’t cross the placenta, they are almost undetectable at birth. Some IgA is provided by breast milk. These passively-acquired antibodies can protect the newborn for up to 18 months, but their response is usually short-lived and of low affinity. These antibodies can also produce a negative response. If a child is exposed to the antibody for a particular antigen before being exposed to the antigen itself then the child will produce a dampened response. Passively acquired maternal antibodies can suppress the antibody response to active immunization. Similarly the response of T-cells to vaccination differs in children compared to adults, and vaccines that induce Th1 responses in adults do not readily elicit these same responses in neonates. Between six to nine months after birth, a child’s immune system begins to respond more strongly to glycoproteins, but there is usually no marked improvement in their response to polysaccharides until they are at least one year old. This can be the reason for distinct time frames found in vaccination schedules.
Question: In babies, what is another element impacting immune response?
Answer: Maternal factors
Question: Newborns can acquire antibodies from the mother through what means?
Answer: breast milk
Question: For how long do these antibodies have an effect on infants?
Answer: up to 18 months
Question: At 6 to 9 months, an infant's immune system begins to respond to which proteins?
Answer: glycoproteins
Question: The difference in responses in infant immune systems is the cause of what?
Answer: distinct time frames found in vaccination schedules
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Context: Infrared cleaning is a technique used by some Motion picture film scanner, film scanners and flatbed scanners to reduce or remove the effect of dust and scratches upon the finished scan. It works by collecting an additional infrared channel from the scan at the same position and resolution as the three visible color channels (red, green, and blue). The infrared channel, in combination with the other channels, is used to detect the location of scratches and dust. Once located, those defects can be corrected by scaling or replaced by inpainting.
Question: What is the name of the technique used in scanners to minimize the effects of dust and scratches?
Answer: Infrared cleaning
Question: Along with red and blue, what is the third visible color channel?
Answer: green
Question: Along with replacement via inpainting, what procedure is used in infrared cleaning to remove the effect of scratches and dust?
Answer: scaling
Question: Along with the visible light channels, what channel is used to locate scratches and dust in scanners?
Answer: infrared
Question: What cleaning technique is used to find position and resolution?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What can be corrected by scanning or scaling?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What color channels are used to detect inpainting?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What does infrared cleaning do to detect scaling?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What removes the effects of an additional infrared channel on the scanner?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Although people often think that memory operates like recording equipment, it is not the case. The molecular mechanisms underlying the induction and maintenance of memory are very dynamic and comprise distinct phases covering a time window from seconds to even a lifetime. In fact, research has revealed that our memories are constructed. People can construct their memories when they encode them and/or when they recall them. To illustrate, consider a classic study conducted by Elizabeth Loftus and John Palmer (1974) in which people were instructed to watch a film of a traffic accident and then asked about what they saw. The researchers found that the people who were asked, "How fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other?" gave higher estimates than those who were asked, "How fast were the cars going when they hit each other?" Furthermore, when asked a week later whether they have seen broken glass in the film, those who had been asked the question with smashed were twice more likely to report that they have seen broken glass than those who had been asked the question with hit. There was no broken glass depicted in the film. Thus, the wording of the questions distorted viewers’ memories of the event. Importantly, the wording of the question led people to construct different memories of the event – those who were asked the question with smashed recalled a more serious car accident than they had actually seen. The findings of this experiment were replicated around the world, and researchers consistently demonstrated that when people were provided with misleading information they tended to misremember, a phenomenon known as the misinformation effect.
Question: What has research shown about our memories?
Answer: our memories are constructed
Question: How does a person build their memories?
Answer: when they encode them and/or when they recall them.
Question: What did a study done by Elizabeth Loftus and John palmer show?
Answer: that when people were provided with misleading information they tended to misremember, a phenomenon known as the misinformation effect.
Question: In their study what did people say they say when they really hadn't due to having the word "smashed" inserted into the question?
Answer: broken glass
Question: What has research not shown about our memories?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How does a person build their confidence?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did a study done by John Loftus and Elizabeth Palmer show?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who conducted a study in 1794?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is known as the information effect?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: A number of other health conditions occur more frequently in those with asthma, including gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD), rhinosinusitis, and obstructive sleep apnea. Psychological disorders are also more common, with anxiety disorders occurring in between 16–52% and mood disorders in 14–41%. However, it is not known if asthma causes psychological problems or if psychological problems lead to asthma. Those with asthma, especially if it is poorly controlled, are at high risk for radiocontrast reactions.
Question: Do other health concerns happen less frequently or more frequently with asthma?
Answer: more frequently
Question: What are three of the other health conditions that occur more frequently with asthma?
Answer: gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD), rhinosinusitis, and obstructive sleep apnea
Question: What other type of disorders are frequent in asthma sufferers?
Answer: Psychological disorders
Question: What are those with asthma that is poorly controll more susceptable to?
Answer: radiocontrast reactions
Question: If GERD is poorly controlled, what does it make you at risk for?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What other conditions happen frequently with radiocontrast reactions?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What percentage of people with GERD also have anxiety disorders?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What percentage of people with radiocontrast reactions have mood disorders?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Do we know if GERD causes psychological problems?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Mexico City is home to a number of orchestras offering season programs. These include the Mexico City Philharmonic, which performs at the Sala Ollin Yoliztli; the National Symphony Orchestra, whose home base is the Palacio de Bellas Artes (Palace of the Fine Arts), a masterpiece of art nouveau and art decó styles; the Philharmonic Orchestra of the National Autonomous University of Mexico (OFUNAM), and the Minería Symphony Orchestra, both of which perform at the Sala Nezahualcóyotl, which was the first wrap-around concert hall in the Western Hemisphere when inaugurated in 1976. There are also many smaller ensembles that enrich the city's musical scene, including the Carlos Chávez Youth Symphony, the New World Orchestra (Orquesta del Nuevo Mundo), the National Polytechnical Symphony and the Bellas Artes Chamber Orchestra (Orquesta de Cámara de Bellas Artes).
Question: Where does the Mexico City Philharmonic perform?
Answer: Sala Ollin Yoliztli
Question: When was the first wrap-around concert hall in the Western Hemisphere opened?
Answer: 1976
Question: What is the name of one of the main orchestras of Mexico City?
Answer: National Symphony Orchestra
Question: The Palace of Fine Arts hosts what main symphony?
Answer: National Symphony Orchestra
Question: What does OFUNAM stand for?
Answer: Philharmonic Orchestra of the National Autonomous University of Mexico
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Context: Edwin Chadwick's 1829 article, "Preventive police" in the London Review, argued that prevention ought to be the primary concern of a police body, which was not the case in practice. The reason, argued Chadwick, was that "A preventive police would act more immediately by placing difficulties in obtaining the objects of temptation." In contrast to a deterrent of punishment, a preventive police force would deter criminality by making crime cost-ineffective - "crime doesn't pay". In the second draft of his 1829 Police Act, the "object" of the new Metropolitan Police, was changed by Robert Peel to the "principal object," which was the "prevention of crime." Later historians would attribute the perception of England's "appearance of orderliness and love of public order" to the preventive principle entrenched in Peel's police system.
Question: Who wrote 'Preventive Police'?
Answer: Edwin Chadwick
Question: When was 'Preventive Police' published?
Answer: 1829
Question: Where was 'Preventive Police' published?
Answer: London Review
Question: What did Chadwick say police should be focused on?
Answer: prevention
Question: What was the alternative to prevention?
Answer: a deterrent of punishment
Question: Who co-wrote 'Preventive Police'?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When was 'Preventive Police' not published?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where was 'Preventive Police' unpublished?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did Chadwick say police shouldn't be focused on?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was the same as prevention?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In January 1953, Nasser overcame opposition from Naguib and banned all political parties, creating a one-party system under the Liberation Rally, a loosely structured movement whose chief task was to organize pro-RCC rallies and lectures, with Nasser its secretary-general. Despite the dissolution order, Nasser was the only RCC member who still favored holding parliamentary elections, according to his fellow officer Abdel Latif Boghdadi. Although outvoted, he still advocated holding elections by 1956. In March 1953, Nasser led the Egyptian delegation negotiating a British withdrawal from the Suez Canal.
Question: What was Nasser's first title in the Liberation Rally?
Answer: secretary-general
Question: What did Nasser and naguib ban in 1953?
Answer: all political parties
Question: What was Nasser alone in supporting?
Answer: parliamentary elections
Question: What was Nasser negotiating in 1953?
Answer: British withdrawal from the Suez Canal
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Context: During his voyage, Cook also visited New Zealand, first discovered by Dutch explorer Abel Tasman in 1642, and claimed the North and South islands for the British crown in 1769 and 1770 respectively. Initially, interaction between the indigenous Māori population and Europeans was limited to the trading of goods. European settlement increased through the early decades of the 19th century, with numerous trading stations established, especially in the North. In 1839, the New Zealand Company announced plans to buy large tracts of land and establish colonies in New Zealand. On 6 February 1840, Captain William Hobson and around 40 Maori chiefs signed the Treaty of Waitangi. This treaty is considered by many to be New Zealand's founding document, but differing interpretations of the Maori and English versions of the text have meant that it continues to be a source of dispute.
Question: When was New Zealand discovered by the Dutch?
Answer: 1642
Question: Who discovered New Zealand for the Dutch?
Answer: Abel Tasman
Question: When did Cook visit New Zealand and claim the North Island?
Answer: 1769
Question: What is New Zealand's native population called?
Answer: Māori
Question: Who signed a treaty with the Maori?
Answer: Captain William Hobson
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Context: The breed with the shortest lifespan (among breeds for which there is a questionnaire survey with a reasonable sample size) is the Dogue de Bordeaux, with a median longevity of about 5.2 years, but several breeds, including Miniature Bull Terriers, Bloodhounds, and Irish Wolfhounds are nearly as short-lived, with median longevities of 6 to 7 years.
Question: What is the canine breed with shortest median lifespan?
Answer: Dogue de Bordeaux
Question: What is the median length of life for the canine breed that lives the least amount of years?
Answer: 5.2 years
Question: What is the average lifespan of an Irish Wolfhound?
Answer: 6 to 7 years.
Question: Which dog has the shortest lifespan?
Answer: Dogue de Bordeaux
Question: What is the average lifespan for a Dogue de Borddeaux?
Answer: 5.2 years
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Context: At the turn of the 21st century, a post-punk revival developed in British and American alternative and indie rock, which soon started appearing in other countries, as well. The earliest sign of a revival was the emergence of various underground bands in the mid-'90s. However, the first commercially successful bands – the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors – surfaced in the late 1990s to early 2000s, as did several dance-oriented bands such as the Rapture, Radio 4 and LCD Soundsystem. Additionally, some darker post-punk bands began to appear in the indie music scene in the 2010s, including Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum, who were also affiliated with the darkwave revival, as well as A Place to Bury Strangers, who combined early post-punk and shoegaze. These bands tend to draw a fanbase who are a combination of the indie music subculture, older post-punk fans and the current goth subculture. In the 2010s, Savages played a music reminiscent of early British post-punk bands of the late '70s.
Question: When did a post-punk revival start happening in England and the Colonies?
Answer: turn of the 21st century
Question: What early sign heralded the post-punk revival?
Answer: emergence of various underground bands
Question: When did some of the darker post-punk bands start to appear in the indie scene?
Answer: the 2010s
Question: The post-punk revival bands bring in a fanbase from what subculture?
Answer: indie music
Question: What band played music similar to that of the early British post-punk bands of the late '70s as recently as 2010?
Answer: Savages
Question: When was the post-punk revival in British and American cultures?
Answer: turn of the 21st century
Question: What was the earliest sign of the post-punk revival?
Answer: emergence of various underground bands in the mid-'90s
Question: Who were the most commercially successful bands of the post-punk revival?
Answer: the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors
Question: When did the commercially successful post-punk bands begin to hit the scene?
Answer: late 1990s to early 2000s
Question: Which dark post-punk bands began to emmerge in the indie scene?
Answer: Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum
Question: When did post-punk music lose popularity?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which bands never found commercial success?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which bands disliked dance?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Which post-punk bands avoided darker style?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What subculture avoided darker post-punk bands the most?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In Ancient Rome, Tyrian purple was the color of the Emperor, but red had an important religious symbolism. Romans wore togas with red stripes on holidays, and the bride at a wedding wore a red shawl, called a flammeum. Red was used to color statues and the skin of gladiators. Red was also the color associated with army; Roman soldiers wore red tunics, and officers wore a cloak called a paludamentum which, depending upon the quality of the dye, could be crimson, scarlet or purple. In Roman mythology red is associated with the god of war, Mars. The vexilloid of the Roman Empire had a red background with the letters SPQR in gold. A Roman general receiving a triumph had his entire body painted red in honor of his achievement.
Question: Which color was said to be the Emperor's color in ancient Rome?
Answer: Tyrian purple
Question: At what time were togas with red were worn by Romans?
Answer: holidays
Question: What is a flammeum?
Answer: a red shawl
Question: What color was correlated with the Army in ancient Rome?
Answer: Red
Question: After what event would a general of the Roman army be painted red?
Answer: triumph
Question: What was the color of the emperor in Ancient Tryian?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What are the red stripes on togas called?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What were the red tunics worn by Roman soldiers called?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where were the gold letters SQRP found?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The process of making beer is known as brewing. A dedicated building for the making of beer is called a brewery, though beer can be made in the home and has been for much of its history. A company that makes beer is called either a brewery or a brewing company. Beer made on a domestic scale for non-commercial reasons is classified as homebrewing regardless of where it is made, though most homebrewed beer is made in the home. Brewing beer is subject to legislation and taxation in developed countries, which from the late 19th century largely restricted brewing to a commercial operation only. However, the UK government relaxed legislation in 1963, followed by Australia in 1972 and the US in 1978, allowing homebrewing to become a popular hobby.
Question: What is the process of making beer called?
Answer: brewing
Question: What is a building called that is used for making beer?
Answer: a brewery
Question: What is company that makes beer typically known as?
Answer: a brewing company
Question: What is beer classified as when it is made for non-commerical consumption?
Answer: homebrewing
Question: In what year was home brewing first allowed in the UK?
Answer: 1963
Question: In 1973 what did Australia allow?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: The US was the last contry to allow homebrewing in which year?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: A commercial building for brewing beer is called what?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Brewing beer is subject to what in all countries?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What country relaxed brewing legislation in 1936?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What country relaxed brewing legislation in 1927?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What country relaxed brewing legislation in 1987?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What became a hobby in the US due to relaxed laws in 1987?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Energy transfer can be considered for the special case of systems which are closed to transfers of matter. The portion of the energy which is transferred by conservative forces over a distance is measured as the work the source system does on the receiving system. The portion of the energy which does not do work during the transfer is called heat.[note 4] Energy can be transferred between systems in a variety of ways. Examples include the transmission of electromagnetic energy via photons, physical collisions which transfer kinetic energy,[note 5] and the conductive transfer of thermal energy.
Question: What can be considered for the special case of systems which are closed to transfers of matter?
Answer: Energy transfer
Question: The portion of energy which does not do work during the transfer is called what?
Answer: heat
Question: Give one example of how energy can be transferred between systems?
Answer: transmission of electromagnetic energy via photons
Question: What can be considered for the typical case of systems which are opened to transfers of matter?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: The portion of energy which works during the transfer is called what?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Give one example of how energy cannot be transferred between systems?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: the inductive transer of what kind of energy?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: what are physical collisions which don't transfer kinetic energy?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In 1929, Lionel Robbins assumed the helm of the London School of Economics (LSE). Eager to promote alternatives to what he regarded as the narrow approach of the school of economic thought that then dominated the English-speaking academic world (centred at the University of Cambridge and deriving largely from the work of Alfred Marshall), Robbins invited Hayek to join the faculty at LSE, which he did in 1931. According to Nicholas Kaldor, Hayek's theory of the time-structure of capital and of the business cycle initially "fascinated the academic world" and appeared to offer a less "facile and superficial" understanding of macroeconomics than the Cambridge school's.
Question: Lionel Robbins came to head which school in 1929?
Answer: London School of Economics
Question: In regards to economics, Lionel Robbins believe English-speaking academics had what?
Answer: narrow approach
Question: Which man's works were mostly the cause of the ''narrow approach''?
Answer: Alfred Marshall
Question: Who was responsible for bringing on Hayek at the LSE?
Answer: Lionel Robbins
Question: What did Nicholas Kaldor say Hayek brought to macroeconomics?
Answer: less "facile and superficial" understanding
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Context: Instead of being defined by "non" words, some organizations are suggesting new, positive-sounding terminology to describe the sector. The term "civil society organization" (CSO) has been used by a growing number of organizations, such as the Center for the Study of Global Governance. The term "citizen sector organization" (CSO) has also been advocated to describe the sector – as one of citizens, for citizens – by organizations such as Ashoka: Innovators for the Public. A more broadly applicable term, "Social Benefit Organization" (SBO) has been advocated for by organizations such as MiniDonations. Advocates argue that these terms describe the sector in its own terms, without relying on terminology used for the government or business sectors. However, use of terminology by a nonprofit of self-descriptive language that is not legally compliant risks confusing the public about nonprofit abilities, capabilities and limitations.
Question: What type of language has it been suggested that NPOs should begin to get away from?
Answer: "non" words
Question: What type of language are organizations being directed towards?
Answer: new, positive-sounding terminology
Question: What is a new term for NPOs that has started to see more use?
Answer: civil society organization
Question: What is a term being used for organizations that are for the citizens, by the citizens?
Answer: citizen sector organization
Question: What would a group like Crowdfund, GoFundMe or Kickstarter possibly belong to?
Answer: Social Benefit Organization
Question: What do some innovators want to be defined by instead of non-words?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What type of descriptive definition confuses the Study of Global Governance?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What term does Ashoka: Innovators for the Public support as more broadly used?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How do these non words describe business capabilities and limitations?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What might the new terminology used confuse advocates about?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: On 15 August 2006, Brian May confirmed through his website and fan club that Queen + Paul Rodgers would begin producing their first studio album beginning in October, to be recorded at a "secret location". Queen + Paul Rodgers performed at the Nelson Mandela 90th Birthday Tribute held in Hyde Park, London on 27 June 2008, to commemorate Mandela's ninetieth birthday, and again promote awareness of the HIV/AIDS pandemic. The first Queen + Paul Rodgers album, titled The Cosmos Rocks, was released in Europe on 12 September 2008 and in the United States on 28 October 2008. Following the release of the album, the band again went on a tour through Europe, opening on Kharkiv's Freedom Square in front of 350,000 Ukrainian fans. The Kharkiv concert was later released on DVD. The tour then moved to Russia, and the band performed two sold-out shows at the Moscow Arena. Having completed the first leg of its extensive European tour, which saw the band play 15 sold-out dates across nine countries, the UK leg of the tour sold out within 90 minutes of going on sale and included three London dates, the first of which was The O2 on 13 October. The last leg of the tour took place in South America, and included a sold-out concert at the Estadio José Amalfitani, Buenos Aires.
Question: Which band performed at Nelson Mandela's 90th birthday?
Answer: Queen + Paul Rodgers
Question: When did Queen + Paul Rodgers release their debut album?
Answer: 2008
Question: What was the name of Queen + Paul Rodgers debut album?
Answer: The Cosmos Rocks
Question: How many people were at the Queen + Paul Rodgers concert in 2008 in Kharkiv?
Answer: 350,000
Question: In 2008 what disease did Queen perform benefit concerts for?
Answer: HIV/AIDS
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Context: On July 1, 1988, the fourth and last day of a bruising 19th Party Conference, Gorbachev won the backing of the tired delegates for his last-minute proposal to create a new supreme legislative body called the Congress of People's Deputies. Frustrated by the old guard's resistance, Gorbachev embarked on a set of constitutional changes to try to separate party and state, and thereby isolate his conservative Party opponents. Detailed proposals for the new Congress of People's Deputies were published on October 2, 1988, and to enable the creation of the new legislature the Supreme Soviet, during its November 29–December 1, 1988, session, implemented amendments to the 1977 Soviet Constitution, enacted a law on electoral reform, and set the date of the election for March 26, 1989.
Question: What ws the final day of the 19th Party Conference?
Answer: July 1, 1988
Question: What did Gorbachev hope to create?
Answer: new supreme legislative body
Question: What was Gorbachev trying to separate?
Answer: party and state
Question: What was the proposed legislative body called?
Answer: Congress of People's Deputies
Question: What was the ideology of Gorbachev's opponents?
Answer: conservative
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Context: The name iPod was proposed by Vinnie Chieco, a freelance copywriter, who (with others) was called by Apple to figure out how to introduce the new player to the public. After Chieco saw a prototype, he thought of the movie 2001: A Space Odyssey and the phrase "Open the pod bay door, Hal!", which refers to the white EVA Pods of the Discovery One spaceship. Chieco saw an analogy to the relationship between the spaceship and the smaller independent pods in the relationship between a personal computer and the music player. Apple researched the trademark and found that it was already in use. Joseph N. Grasso of New Jersey had originally listed an "iPod" trademark with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) in July 2000 for Internet kiosks. The first iPod kiosks had been demonstrated to the public in New Jersey in March 1998, and commercial use began in January 2000, but had apparently been discontinued by 2001. The trademark was registered by the USPTO in November 2003, and Grasso assigned it to Apple Computer, Inc. in 2005.
Question: Who came up with the name for Apple's portable mp3 player?
Answer: Vinnie Chieco
Question: What was Vinnie Chieco's profession?
Answer: freelance copywriter
Question: What film inspired the name of the iPod?
Answer: 2001: A Space Odyssey
Question: Who first trademarked the iPod name?
Answer: Joseph N. Grasso
Question: In what year was Apple given rights to the iPod name?
Answer: 2005
Question: What movie inspired the iPod name?
Answer: 2001: A Space Odyssey
Question: What was the name of the copywriter that proposed the name "iPod"?
Answer: Vinnie Chieco
Question: Who held the original trademark for the iPod name?
Answer: Joseph N. Grasso
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Context: Antimatter is not found naturally on Earth, except very briefly and in vanishingly small quantities (as the result of radioactive decay, lightning or cosmic rays). This is because antimatter that came to exist on Earth outside the confines of a suitable physics laboratory would almost instantly meet the ordinary matter that Earth is made of, and be annihilated. Antiparticles and some stable antimatter (such as antihydrogen) can be made in tiny amounts, but not in enough quantity to do more than test a few of its theoretical properties.
Question: Where is antimatter found naturally in large quantities?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What does antimatter annihilate?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Where is ordinary matter created?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is an example of an antiparticle?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Large quantities of what can be created for testing?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Because of the general instability of the federal government during 1828, the installation of the new legislature did not take place until the middle of the following year. It was quickly dissolved by Governor Santiago de Baca Ortiz, who replaced it with a more pronounced Yorkino type. When Guerrero's liberal administration was overthrown in December, Gaspar de Ochoa aligned with Anastasio Bustamante, and in February 1830, organized an opposition group that arrested the new governor, F. Elorriaga, along with other prominent Yorkinos. He then summoned the legislature, which had been dissolved by Baca. The civil and military authorities were now headed by J. A. Pescador and Simón Ochoa.
Question: During which year was the federal government unstable?
Answer: 1828
Question: Who dissolved the government eventually?
Answer: Governor Santiago de Baca Ortiz
Question: With which type of government did Ortiz replace the old one?
Answer: Yorkino
Question: Which new governor was arrested by Ochoa and Bustamente?
Answer: F. Elorriaga
Question: Who now headed the civil and military authorities?
Answer: J. A. Pescador and Simón Ochoa
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Context: The state also has five Micropolitan Statistical Areas centered on Bozeman, Butte, Helena, Kalispell and Havre. These communities, excluding Havre, are colloquially known as the "big 7" Montana cities, as they are consistently the seven largest communities in Montana, with a significant population difference when these communities are compared to those that are 8th and lower on the list. According to the 2010 U.S. Census, the population of Montana's seven most populous cities, in rank order, are Billings, Missoula, Great Falls, Bozeman, Butte, Helena and Kalispell. Based on 2013 census numbers, they collectively contain 35 percent of Montana's population. and the counties containing these communities hold 62 percent of the state's population. The geographic center of population of Montana is located in sparsely populated Meagher County, in the town of White Sulphur Springs.
Question: How much of the states population does the "Big 7" have?
Answer: 35 percent
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Context: The high metabolic rates of birds during the active part of the day is supplemented by rest at other times. Sleeping birds often use a type of sleep known as vigilant sleep, where periods of rest are interspersed with quick eye-opening "peeks", allowing them to be sensitive to disturbances and enable rapid escape from threats. Swifts are believed to be able to sleep in flight and radar observations suggest that they orient themselves to face the wind in their roosting flight. It has been suggested that there may be certain kinds of sleep which are possible even when in flight. Some birds have also demonstrated the capacity to fall into slow-wave sleep one hemisphere of the brain at a time. The birds tend to exercise this ability depending upon its position relative to the outside of the flock. This may allow the eye opposite the sleeping hemisphere to remain vigilant for predators by viewing the outer margins of the flock. This adaptation is also known from marine mammals. Communal roosting is common because it lowers the loss of body heat and decreases the risks associated with predators. Roosting sites are often chosen with regard to thermoregulation and safety.
Question: Sleeping birds often use a type of sleep known as what?
Answer: vigilant sleep
Question: What are believed to be able to sleep in flight?
Answer: Swifts
Question: Why is communal roosting common?
Answer: because it lowers the loss of body heat
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Context: The term "Sumerian" is the common name given to the ancient non-Semitic inhabitants of Mesopotamia, Sumer, by the Semitic Akkadians. The Sumerians referred to themselves as ùĝ saĝ gíg-ga (cuneiform: 𒌦 𒊕 𒈪 𒂵), phonetically /uŋ saŋ giga/, literally meaning "the black-headed people", and to their land as ki-en-gi(-r) ('place' + 'lords' + 'noble'), meaning "place of the noble lords". The Akkadian word Shumer may represent the geographical name in dialect, but the phonological development leading to the Akkadian term šumerû is uncertain. Hebrew Shinar, Egyptian Sngr, and Hittite Šanhar(a), all referring to southern Mesopotamia, could be western variants of Shumer.
Question: What is the common name given to the non-Semitic dwellers of Mesopotamia by the Akkadians?
Answer: Sumerian
Question: What did the Sumerians refer to themselves as in their language?
Answer: "the black-headed people"
Question: How did the Sumerians refer to their land?
Answer: "place of the noble lords"
Question: Shumer, an Akkadian word, could reference what type of name?
Answer: geographical
Question: What compass point of Mesopotamia did the Hebrew Shinar refer to?
Answer: southern
Question: What is the common name for the Semitic people Mesopotamia?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What were the Semitic Akkadians called?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did the term Shumer lead to?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Space Control is defined as "operations to ensure freedom of action in space for the US and its allies and, when directed, deny an adversary freedom of action in space. This mission area includes: operations conducted to protect friendly space capabilities from attack, interference, or unintentional hazards (defensive space control); operations to deny an adversary's use of space capabilities (offensive space control); and the requisite current and predictive knowledge of the space environment and the operational environment upon which space operations depend (space situational awareness)" (JP 1-02).
Question: What is the definition of Space Control according to the US and its allies?
Answer: operations to ensure freedom of action in space
Question: What is one of the areas of operation that space control serves to protect?
Answer: operations conducted to protect friendly space capabilities from attack
Question: What is the operational environment that Space Control depends on?
Answer: space situational awareness
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Context: The top three single agent/disease killers are HIV/AIDS, TB and malaria. While the number of deaths due to nearly every disease have decreased, deaths due to HIV/AIDS have increased fourfold. Childhood diseases include pertussis, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, measles and tetanus. Children also make up a large percentage of lower respiratory and diarrheal deaths. In 2012, approximately 3.1 million people have died due to lower respiratory infections, making it the number 4 leading cause of death in the world.
Question: What are the top three killer diseases?
Answer: HIV/AIDS, TB and malaria
Question: How much have deaths due to HIV/AIDS increased?
Answer: fourfold
Question: What are some popular childhood diseases?
Answer: pertussis, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, measles and tetanus
Question: Who makes up a large percentage of diarrheal deaths?
Answer: Children
Question: What is the number 4 leading cause of death in the world?
Answer: lower respiratory infections
Question: What are the top three healing diseases?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: How much have births due to HIV/AIDS increased?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What are some recently cured childhood diseases?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who makes up no percentage of diarrheal deaths?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is the number 4 leading cause of life in the world?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: While the Philippines is generally considered a civil law nation, its Supreme Court is heavily modelled after the American Supreme Court. This can be attributed to the fact that the Philippines was colonized by both Spain and the United States, and the system of laws of both nations strongly influenced the development of Philippine laws and jurisprudence. Even as the body of Philippine laws remain mostly codified, the Philippine Civil Code expressly recognizes that decisions of the Supreme Court "form part of the law of the land", belonging to the same class as statutes. The 1987 Philippine Constitution also explicitly grants to the Supreme Court the power of judicial review over laws and executive actions. The Supreme Court is composed of 1 Chief Justice and 14 Associate Justices. The court sits either en banc or in divisions, depending on the nature of the case to be decided.
Question: What type of legal system is the Philippines officially?
Answer: a civil law nation
Question: The high court in The Philippines is modeled after what judicial body?
Answer: the American Supreme Court
Question: What document grants the Philippines Supreme Court the right of judicial review?
Answer: 1987 Philippine Constitution
Question: How many justices make up the Philippines Supreme Court?
Answer: 1 Chief Justice and 14 Associate Justices
Question: When all judges of a court hear a case at once it is called?
Answer: en banc
Question: What nation's court is the American Supreme Court heavily modeled after?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In addition to the Philippines, what country was Spain colonized by?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was written in 1897?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What does the Philippine Statute Code state about the decisions of the Supreme Court?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Wherever the Magisterial Reformation, which received support from the ruling authorities, took place, the result was a reformed national Protestant church envisioned to be a part of the whole invisible church, but disagreeing, in certain important points of doctrine and doctrine-linked practice, with what had until then been considered the normative reference point on such matters, namely the Papacy and central authority of the Roman Catholic Church. The Reformed churches thus believed in some form of Catholicity, founded on their doctrines of the five solas and a visible ecclesiastical organization based on the 14th and 15th century Conciliar movement, rejecting the papacy and papal infallibility in favor of ecumenical councils, but rejecting the latest ecumenical council, the Council of Trent. Religious unity therefore became not one of doctrine and identity but one of invisible character, wherein the unity was one of faith in Jesus Christ, not common identity, doctrine, belief, and collaborative action.
Question: The Reformed churches based their beliefs about ecclesiastical organization on what movement?
Answer: Conciliar
Question: Who supported the Magisterial Reformation?
Answer: the ruling authorities
Question: What are the doctrines of the Reformed churches called?
Answer: the five solas
Question: What ecumenical council did the Reformed churches reject?
Answer: the Council of Trent
Question: What type of character became central to religious unity in Reformed churches?
Answer: invisible
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Context: Nasser made Egypt fully independent of British influence, and the country became a major power in the developing world under his leadership. One of Nasser's main domestic efforts was to establish social justice, which he deemed a prerequisite to liberal democracy. During his presidency, ordinary citizens enjoyed unprecedented access to housing, education, jobs, health services and nourishment, as well as other forms of social welfare, while feudalistic influence waned. By the end of his presidency, employment and working conditions improved considerably, although poverty was still high in the country and substantial resources allocated for social welfare had been diverted to the war effort.
Question: What did Nasser completely eliminate from Egypt?
Answer: British influence
Question: What did Nasser work to put into place in Egypt?
Answer: social justice
Question: How were working conditions and employment at the end of Nasser's presidency?
Answer: improved considerably
Question: What had drained resources from Nasser's social programs?
Answer: war effort
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Context: Jiangsu Art Gallery is the largest gallery in Jiangsu Province, presenting some of the best traditional and contemporary art pieces of China; many other smaller-scale galleries, such as Red Chamber Art Garden and Jinling Stone Gallery, also have their own special exhibitions.
Question: What is the name of the largest art gallery in Jiangsu Province?
Answer: Jiangsu Art Gallery
Question: What type of art does Jiangsu Art Gallery contain?
Answer: traditional and contemporary art pieces of China
Question: What are two smaller galleries in Nanjing?
Answer: Red Chamber Art Garden and Jinling Stone Gallery
Question: What type of exhibitions do Red Chamber Art Garden and Jinling Stone Gallery show?
Answer: their own special exhibitions
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Context: Some critics of intellectual property, such as those in the free culture movement, point at intellectual monopolies as harming health (in the case of pharmaceutical patents), preventing progress, and benefiting concentrated interests to the detriment of the masses, and argue that the public interest is harmed by ever-expansive monopolies in the form of copyright extensions, software patents, and business method patents. More recently scientists and engineers are expressing concern that patent thickets are undermining technological development even in high-tech fields like nanotechnology.
Question: What can be harmed by pharmaceutical patents?
Answer: health
Question: IP benefits concentrated interests to whose detriment?
Answer: the masses
Question: Whose interests are harmed by expanding IP?
Answer: the public
Question: Developments in nanotechnology are being undermined by what type of IP?
Answer: patent
Question: What type of monopolies does IP create?
Answer: intellectual
Question: What is suppoerted by pharmaceutical patents?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: what concentrated intersts for tha benefit of the masses?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What kind of monopolies does IP break up?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Whose interests are helped by expanding IP
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The most familiar, and historically the oldest, types of glass are "silicate glasses" based on the chemical compound silica (silicon dioxide, or quartz), the primary constituent of sand. The term glass, in popular usage, is often used to refer only to this type of material, which is familiar from use as window glass and in glass bottles. Of the many silica-based glasses that exist, ordinary glazing and container glass is formed from a specific type called soda-lime glass, composed of approximately 75% silicon dioxide (SiO2), sodium oxide (Na2O) from sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), calcium oxide, also called lime (CaO), and several minor additives. A very clear and durable quartz glass can be made from pure silica, but the high melting point and very narrow glass transition of quartz make glassblowing and hot working difficult. In glasses like soda lime, the compounds added to quartz are used to lower the melting temperature and improve workability, at a cost in the toughness, thermal stability, and optical transmittance.
Question: Which kinds of glass existed the furthest in the past?
Answer: silicate glasses
Question: What kind of glass are containers made from?
Answer: soda-lime glass
Question: What is sand mostly made of?
Answer: silica
Question: What can a very strong and transparent glass be made from?
Answer: pure silica
Question: What types of glass is the word commonly used to mean?
Answer: silicate glasses
Question: Which kinds of containers existed furthest in the past?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What kind of glass are windows made from?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is calcium oxide mostly made of?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What can a very strong and transparent transmittance be made from?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What types of workability is the word commonly used to mean?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Old English was not static, and its usage covered a period of 700 years, from the Anglo-Saxon settlement of Britain in the 5th century to the late 11th century, some time after the Norman invasion. While indicating that the establishment of dates is an arbitrary process, Albert Baugh dates Old English from 450 to 1150, a period of full inflections, a synthetic language. Perhaps around 85 per cent of Old English words are no longer in use, but those that survived, to be sure, are basic elements of Modern English vocabulary.
Question: For about how many years was Old English used?
Answer: 700
Question: In what century was Old English first used?
Answer: 5th
Question: In what century did Old English cease to be used?
Answer: 11th
Question: According to Albert Baugh, what was the period in which Old English was used?
Answer: 450 to 1150
Question: About what percentage of Old English words are not present in Modern English?
Answer: 85
Question: Where did Anglo-Saxons settle in the 500's?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What language stopped being used in Britain during the 1100's?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who claims Old English was in use for from 450 to 1150 years?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: 85% of what language is still in use today?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The effect of these differences was accentuated by the pre-war preparations. The Prussian General Staff had drawn up minutely detailed mobilization plans using the railway system, which in turn had been partly laid out in response to recommendations of a Railway Section within the General Staff. The French railway system, with multiple competing companies, had developed purely from commercial pressures and many journeys to the front in Alsace and Lorraine involved long diversions and frequent changes between trains. Furthermore, no system had been put in place for military control of the railways, and officers simply commandeered trains as they saw fit. Rail sidings and marshalling yards became choked with loaded wagons, with nobody responsible for unloading them or directing them to the destination.
Question: The effect of German victory and ensuing influence stems back to what factor?
Answer: pre-war preparations
Question: What was the Prussian General staff quick to utilize at the onset of the war?
Answer: detailed mobilization plans using the railway system
Question: What was one factor behind the inefficiency of the French railway system?
Answer: multiple competing companies
Question: What factor especially affected travel to the front in Alsace and Lorraine?
Answer: frequent changes between trains
Question: Who was responsible for dealing with chaotic train yards and unloaded wagons?
Answer: nobody
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Context: In Homer's Iliad, the names Danaans (or Danaoi: Δαναοί) and Argives (Argives: Αργείοι) are used to designate the Greek forces opposed to the Trojans. The myth of Danaus, whose origin is Egypt, is a foundation legend of Argos. His daughters Danaides, were forced in Tartarus to carry a jug to fill a bathtub without a bottom. This myth is connected with a task that can never be fulfilled (Sisyphos) and the name can be derived from the PIE root *danu: "river". There is not any satisfactory theory on their origin. Some scholars connect Danaans with the Denyen, one of the groups of the sea peoples who attacked Egypt during the reign of Ramesses III (1187-1156 BCE). The same inscription mentions the Weshesh who might have been the Achaeans. The Denyen seem to have been inhabitants of the city Adana in Cilicia. Pottery similar to that of Mycenae itself has been found in Tarsus of Cilicia and it seems that some refugees from the Aegean went there after the collapse of the Mycenean civilization. These Cilicians seem to have been called Dananiyim, the same word as Danaoi who attacked Egypt in 1191 BC along with the Quaouash (or Weshesh) who may be Achaeans. They were also called Danuna according to a Hittite inscription and the same name is mentioned in the Amarna letters. Julius Pokorny reconstructs the name from the PIE root da:-: "flow, river", da:-nu: "any moving liquid, drops", da: navo "people living by the river, Skyth. nomadic people (in Rigveda water-demons, fem.Da:nu primordial goddess), in Greek Danaoi, Egypt. Danuna". It is also possible that the name Danaans is pre-Greek. A country Danaja with a city Mukana (propaply: Mycenea) is mentioned in inscriptions from Egypt from Amenophis III (1390-1352 BC), Thutmosis III (1437 BC).
Question: In Homer's poems who were the Greeks at odds with ?
Answer: Trojans
Question: From where did the basis of the Argos tales originate ?
Answer: Egypt
Question: What did the female descendants of Argos have to accomplish ?
Answer: His daughters Danaides, were forced in Tartarus to carry a jug to fill a bathtub without a bottom
Question: What community did the Denyen live in ?
Answer: Denyen
Question: What country is spoken of in the inscriptions of a country in Northern Africa from 1390-1352 BC ?
Answer: A country Danaja with a city Mukana (propaply: Mycenea) is mentioned in inscriptions from Egypt
Question: In Homer's poems who were the Greeks not at odds with?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: From where did the basis of the Argos tales not originate?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did the male descendants of Argos have to accomplish?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What country is spoken of in the inscriptions of a country in Northern Africa from 1390-1352 AD?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The World Bank has sponsored a project to curb air pollution through public transport improvements and the Mexican government has started shutting down polluting factories. They have phased out diesel buses and mandated new emission controls on new cars; since 1993 all new cars must be fitted with a catalytic converter, which reduces the emissions released. Trucks must use only liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). Also construction of an underground rail system was begun in 1968 in order to help curb air pollution problems and alleviate traffic congestion. Today it has over 201 km (125 mi) of track and carries over 5 million people every day. Fees are kept low to encourage use of the system and during rush hours the crush is so great, that authorities have reserved a special carriage specifically for women. Due to these initiatives and others, the air quality in Mexico City has begun to improve, with the air becoming cleaner since 1991, when the air quality was declared to be a public health risk for 355 days of the year.[citation needed]
Question: What do new cars in Mexico need to have?
Answer: catalytic converter
Question: When did the underground rail system begin construction?
Answer: 1968
Question: How many people ride the Mexico city subway system each day?
Answer: 5 million people
Question: How many days of the year in 1991 was the air pollution a serious health risk?
Answer: 355
Question: What is one way the government helps with the "Crush" of the rush hour riding of the subway system?
Answer: reserved a special carriage specifically for women
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Context: George Dayton had founded his Dayton's Dry Goods store in Minneapolis in 1902 and the AMC cooperative in 1912. His descendants built Southdale Center in 1956, opened the Target discount store chain in 1962 and the B. Dalton Bookseller chain in 1966. Dayton's grew to 19 stores under the Dayton's name plus five other regional names acquired by Dayton-Hudson. The Dayton-Hudson Corporation closed the flagship J. L. Hudson Department Store in downtown Detroit in 1983, but expanded its other retail operations. It acquired Mervyn's in 1978, Marshall Field's in 1990, and renamed itself the Target Corporation in 2000. In 2002, Dayton's and Hudson's were consolidated into the Marshall Field's name. In 2005, May Department Stores acquired all of the Marshall Field's stores and shortly thereafter, Macy's acquired May.
Question: Who opened Dayton's Dry Goods?
Answer: George Dayton
Question: In what year was Dayton's Dry Goods established?
Answer: 1902
Question: When was the Southdale Center opened?
Answer: 1956
Question: What store did the Dayton-Hudson Corporation purchase in 1978?
Answer: Mervyn's
Question: Who closed Dayton's Dry Goods?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In what year wasn't Dayton's Dry Goods established?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In what year was Dayton's Dry Goods closed?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When was the Southdale Center closed?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What store did the Dayton-Hudson Corporation purchase in 1987?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: iPods with color displays use anti-aliased graphics and text, with sliding animations. All iPods (except the 3rd-generation iPod Shuffle, the 6th & 7th generation iPod Nano, and iPod Touch) have five buttons and the later generations have the buttons integrated into the click wheel – an innovation that gives an uncluttered, minimalist interface. The buttons perform basic functions such as menu, play, pause, next track, and previous track. Other operations, such as scrolling through menu items and controlling the volume, are performed by using the click wheel in a rotational manner. The 3rd-generation iPod Shuffle does not have any controls on the actual player; instead it has a small control on the earphone cable, with volume-up and -down buttons and a single button for play and pause, next track, etc. The iPod Touch has no click-wheel; instead it uses a 3.5" touch screen along with a home button, sleep/wake button and (on the second and third generations of the iPod Touch) volume-up and -down buttons. The user interface for the iPod Touch is identical to that of the iPhone. Differences include a lack of a phone application. Both devices use iOS.
Question: How many buttons do most iPods use?
Answer: five
Question: On what part of newer iPods can you find the buttons?
Answer: click wheel
Question: Where are the controls located on the 3rd gen iPod Shuffle?
Answer: earphone cable
Question: What kind of interface does the iPod touch use instead of the click wheel?
Answer: touch screen
Question: What other device shares the interface used by the iPod Touch?
Answer: iPhone
Question: Most iPods feature how many buttons?
Answer: five
Question: The 3rd generation of which iPod model had its controls only on the earphone cable?
Answer: Shuffle
Question: Which other Apple product does the iPod Touch share an interface and OS with?
Answer: iPhone
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Context: Viking invasions began in the 9th century, followed by more permanent settlements, particularly along the east coast of Ireland, the west coast of modern-day Scotland and the Isle of Man. Though the Vikings were eventually neutralised in Ireland, their influence remained in the cities of Dublin, Cork, Limerick, Waterford and Wexford. England however was slowly conquered around the turn of the first millennium AD, and eventually became a feudal possession of Denmark. The relations between the descendants of Vikings in England and counterparts in Normandy, in northern France, lay at the heart of a series of events that led to the Norman conquest of England in 1066. The remnants of the Duchy of Normandy, which conquered England, remain associated to the English Crown as the Channel Islands to this day. A century later the marriage of the future Henry II of England to Eleanor of Aquitaine created the Angevin Empire, partially under the French Crown. At the invitation of a provincial king and under the authority of Pope Adrian IV (the only Englishman to be elected pope), the Angevins invaded Ireland in 1169. Though initially intended to be kept as an independent kingdom, the failure of the Irish High King to ensure the terms of the Treaty of Windsor led Henry II, as King of England, to rule as effective monarch under the title of Lord of Ireland. This title was granted to his younger son but when Henry's heir unexpectedly died the title of King of England and Lord of Ireland became entwined in one person.
Question: When did Viking invasions begin in the British Isles?
Answer: 9th century
Question: What is one area where the Vikings created a permanent settlement in the British Isles?
Answer: east coast of Ireland
Question: England became a possession of which country when it became conquered after the first millennium?
Answer: Denmark
Question: When did the Norman Conquest occur?
Answer: 1066
Question: In 1169, Ireland was invaded by which people?
Answer: Angevins
Question: During the 10th century, who was invading?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Around the turn of the first millennium AD, which country was quickly conquered?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: The Norman conquest of Spain took place during which year?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: The Angevin Empire was created by the marriage between Henry VI and who?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: In what year did the Angevins invade Adrian?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In the 2004 Democratic presidential primaries, John Kerry defeated several Democratic rivals, including Sen. John Edwards (D-North Carolina.), former Vermont Governor Howard Dean and retired Army General Wesley Clark. His victory in the Iowa caucuses is widely believed to be the tipping point where Kerry revived his sagging campaign in New Hampshire and the February 3, 2004, primary states like Arizona, South Carolina and New Mexico. Kerry then went on to win landslide victories in Nevada and Wisconsin. Kerry thus won the Democratic nomination to run for President of the United States against incumbent George W. Bush. On July 6, 2004, he announced his selection of John Edwards as his running mate. Democratic strategist Bob Shrum, who was Kerry's 2004 campaign adviser, wrote an article in Time magazine claiming that after the election, Kerry had said that he wished he'd never picked Edwards, and that the two have since stopped speaking to each other. In a subsequent appearance on ABC's This Week, Kerry refused to respond to Shrum's allegation, calling it a "ridiculous waste of time."
Question: Where was John Edwards a senator?
Answer: North Carolina
Question: Where was Howard Dean a governor?
Answer: Vermont
Question: What was Wesley Clark's former job?
Answer: Army General
Question: Who won the 2004 Iowa Democratic Caucus?
Answer: John Kerry
Question: When did Kerry choose John Edwards to be his VP?
Answer: July 6, 2004
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Context: The history of Islam in Somalia is as old as the religion itself. The early persecuted Muslims fled to various places in the region, including the city of Zeila in modern-day northern Somalia, so as to seek protection from the Quraysh. Somalis were among the first populations on the continent to embrace Islam. With very few exceptions, Somalis are entirely Muslims, the majority belonging to the Sunni branch of Islam and the Shafi`i school of Islamic jurisprudence, although a few are also adherents of the Shia Muslim denomination.
Question: In what geographic part of Somalia is Zeila located?
Answer: northern
Question: From whom were the early Muslims fleeing?
Answer: the Quraysh
Question: Along with the Shafi'i, to what sect of Islam do most Somalis belong?
Answer: Sunni
Question: What is the majority religion in Somalia?
Answer: Islam
Question: A small minority of Somalis belong to what branch of Islam?
Answer: Shia
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Context: In 2011 a new, improved version of the Wayback Machine, with an updated interface and fresher index of archived content, was made available for public testing.
Question: When was an upgrade of the Wayback Machine released for testing?
Answer: 2011
Question: When was an upgrade of the game released for testing?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What did the Wayback Machine keep the same?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was closed for testing?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What used the same index of archived content?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: When was the Wayback Machine retired?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Mahayana Buddhism flourished in India from the 5th century CE onwards, during the dynasty of the Guptas. Mahāyāna centres of learning were established, the most important one being the Nālandā University in north-eastern India.
Question: What was the most important Mahayana centre of learning?
Answer: Nālandā University
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Context: For much of Eton's history, junior boys had to act as "fags", or servants, to older boys. Their duties included cleaning, cooking, and running errands. A Library member was entitled to yell at any time and without notice, "Boy, Up!" or "Boy, Queue!", and all first-year boys had to come running. The last boy to arrive was given the task. These practices, known as fagging, were partially phased out of most houses in the 1970s. Captains of House and Games still sometimes give tasks to first-year boys, such as collecting the mail from School Office.[citation needed]
Question: What term was given to juniors who acted as servants to older students?
Answer: "fags"
Question: What were common duties of younger servant students?
Answer: cleaning, cooking, and running errands
Question: What words were yelled by Librarians that required first year students to come?
Answer: "Boy, Up!" or "Boy, Queue!"
Question: Which first year student was given the task yelled for by the Librarian?
Answer: The last boy to arrive
Question: What year was "fagging" phased out of most houses?
Answer: 1970s
Question: When was fagging mostly eliminated from all Houses?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What were older students known as?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What was the Captain of House and Captain of Games called?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What would junior boys yell at older students?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What were Library members known as?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: Over the course of adolescence, the amount of white matter in the brain increases linearly, while the amount of grey matter in the brain follows an inverted-U pattern. Through a process called synaptic pruning, unnecessary neuronal connections in the brain are eliminated and the amount of grey matter is pared down. However, this does not mean that the brain loses functionality; rather, it becomes more efficient due to increased myelination (insulation of axons) and the reduction of unused pathways.
Question: Does the amount of white matter in the brain increase or decrease over the course of adolescence?
Answer: increases
Question: Does the amount of grey matter in the brain increase linearly or follow an inverted-U pattern over the course of adolescence?
Answer: inverted-U pattern
Question: During which process are unnecessary neuronal connections in the brain eliminated?
Answer: synaptic pruning
Question: Does the brain become more or less efficient as a result of synaptic pruning?
Answer: more efficient
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Context: The Basic Law of the Federal Republic of Germany, the federal constitution, stipulates that the structure of each Federal State's government must "conform to the principles of republican, democratic, and social government, based on the rule of law" (Article 28). Most of the states are governed by a cabinet led by a Ministerpräsident (Minister-President), together with a unicameral legislative body known as the Landtag (State Diet). The states are parliamentary republics and the relationship between their legislative and executive branches mirrors that of the federal system: the legislatures are popularly elected for four or five years (depending on the state), and the Minister-President is then chosen by a majority vote among the Landtag's members. The Minister-President appoints a cabinet to run the state's agencies and to carry out the executive duties of the state's government.
Question: Which article stipulates that the structure of each Federal State's government must "conform to the principles of republican, democratic, and social government, based on the rule of law"?
Answer: Article 28
Question: Most states are governed by what figure?
Answer: Ministerpräsident
Question: What are most state legislatures called?
Answer: Landtag
Question: How is the Minister President chosen?
Answer: a majority vote among the Landtag's members
Question: Who does Minister-President choose to run state agencies?
Answer: a cabinet
Question: What principles does the basic law suggest that Germany is not required to conform to?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who is the federal government in Germany governed by?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What is the name of the federal legislative body?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What relationships differ between parliamentary republics and federal systems?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: Who chooses the cabinet in the Landtag?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: The role of the gas is to prevent evaporation of the filament, without introducing significant heat losses. For these properties, chemical inertness and high atomic or molecular weight is desirable. The presence of gas molecules knocks the liberated tungsten atoms back to the filament, reducing its evaporation and allowing it to be operated at higher temperature without reducing its life (or, for operating at the same temperature, prolongs the filament life). It however introduces heat losses (and therefore efficiency loss) from the filament, by heat conduction and heat convection.
Question: What is a potential problem with the use of gas in a light bulb?
Answer: introduces heat losses (and therefore efficiency loss)
Question: What are the ideal chemical properties for the gas in a light bulb?
Answer: chemical inertness and high atomic or molecular weight
Question: What is the purpose of the gas in a light bulb?
Answer: to prevent evaporation of the filament, without introducing significant heat losses
Question: How do gases prevent evaporation of the filament?
Answer: The presence of gas molecules knocks the liberated tungsten atoms back to the filament
Question: Whose role is to allow evaporation of the filament?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What type of properties are not ideal for gas in a light bulb?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What does not knock the liberated tungsten atoms back to the filament?
Answer: Unanswerable
Question: What introduces heat gain from the filament?
Answer: Unanswerable
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Context: In the early 1970s (1973, to be particular) when the military junta took over power in Uruguay, art suffered in Montevideo. The art studios went into protest mode, with Rimer Cardillo, one of the country's leading artists, making the National Institute of Fine Arts, Montevideo a "hotbed of resistance". This resulted in the military junta coming down heavily on artists by closing the Fine Art Institute and carting away all the presses and other studio equipment. Consequently, the learning of fine arts was only in private studios run by people who had been let out of jail, in works of printing and on paper and also painting and sculpture. It resumed much later.
Question: What suffered when the military junta took over power in Uruguay?
Answer: art
Question: Rimer Cardillo was one of the country's leading what?
Answer: artists
Question: Who made the National Institute of Fine Arts?
Answer: Rimer Cardillo
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Context: Nuclear strike is the ability of nuclear forces to rapidly and accurately strike targets which the enemy holds dear in a devastating manner. If a crisis occurs, rapid generation and, if necessary, deployment of nuclear strike capabilities will demonstrate US resolve and may prompt an adversary to alter the course of action deemed threatening to our national interest. Should deterrence fail, the President may authorize a precise, tailored response to terminate the conflict at the lowest possible level and lead to a rapid cessation of hostilities. Post-conflict, regeneration of a credible nuclear deterrent capability will deter further aggression. The Air Force may present a credible force posture in either the Continental United States, within a theater of operations, or both to effectively deter the range of potential adversaries envisioned in the 21st century. This requires the ability to engage targets globally using a variety of methods; therefore, the Air Force should possess the ability to induct, train, assign, educate and exercise individuals and units to rapidly and effectively execute missions that support US NDO objectives. Finally, the Air Force regularly exercises and evaluates all aspects of nuclear operations to ensure high levels of performance.
Question: What is the definition of a nuclear strike?
Answer: the ability of nuclear forces to rapidly and accurately strike targets
Question: What action by the US Air Force would deter adversaries from threatening US Security?
Answer: deployment of nuclear strike capabilities
Question: Who has the authorization in the US to terminate a conflict?
Answer: President
Question: What organization does the US Air Force support on its missions?
Answer: US NDO objectives
Question: What is one of the areas where the US Air Force might operate its missions?
Answer: Continental United States
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Context: Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the "thumb in the direction of the propagation" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.
Question: What are electrical fields projected on to?
Answer: imaginary plane
Question: What is the imagenary plane perpindicular to?
Answer: radio wave
Question: What is the name to describe polarization of radio waves varies over times?
Answer: elliptical
Question: How many directions does the E-plane of the radio waves oscillates back and forth?
Answer: one direction
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Context: The organizational structure as shown above is responsible for the peacetime organization, equipping, and training of aerospace units for operational missions. When required to support operational missions, the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) directs the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) to execute a Change in Operational Control (CHOP) of these units from their administrative alignment to the operational command of a Regional Combatant Commander (CCDR). In the case of AFSPC, AFSOC, PACAF, and USAFE units, forces are normally employed in-place under their existing CCDR. Likewise, AMC forces operating in support roles retain their componency to USTRANSCOM unless chopped to a Regional CCDR.
Question: Who directs the Secretary of the Air Force during operational missions?
Answer: Secretary of Defense
Question: What does the abbreviation CHOP stand for?
Answer: Change in Operational Control
Question: Who is in charge of these Change in Operational Control missions?
Answer: Regional Combatant Commander
Question: Who does the AMC forces usually retain their componency to?
Answer: USTRANSCOM
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Context: In November 1997, the website mp3.com was offering thousands of MP3s created by independent artists for free. The small size of MP3 files enabled widespread peer-to-peer file sharing of music ripped from CDs, which would have previously been nearly impossible. The first large peer-to-peer filesharing network, Napster, was launched in 1999.
Question: Which website offered MP3s for free?
Answer: mp3.com
Question: How many MP3s were offered for free by the website?
Answer: thousands
Question: What kind of file sharing became popular due to the file sizes of MP3s?
Answer: peer-to-peer
Question: How did people come into possession of MP3s?
Answer: ripped from CDs
Question: Which network was the first large peer to peer file sharing network?
Answer: Napster
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Context: Until the 1970s most of the larger pubs also featured an off-sales counter or attached shop for the sales of beers, wines and spirits for home consumption. In the 1970s the newly built supermarkets and high street chain stores or off-licences undercut the pub prices to such a degree that within ten years all but a handful of pubs had closed their off-sale counters, which had often been referred to colloquially as the jug and bottle.
Question: In what decade did pubs tend to cease selling alcohol for off-premises drinking?
Answer: 1970s
Question: What was the name of the counter where pubs traditionally sold alcohol to drink at home?
Answer: off-sales counter
Question: What was a colloquial term for the off-sales counter?
Answer: the jug and bottle
Question: Along with high street chain stores and off-licenses, what stores undercut pub alcohol sales in the 1970s?
Answer: supermarkets
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Context: Montana contains thousands of named rivers and creeks, 450 miles (720 km) of which are known for "blue-ribbon" trout fishing. Montana's water resources provide for recreation, hydropower, crop and forage irrigation, mining, and water for human consumption. Montana is one of few geographic areas in the world whose rivers form parts of three major watersheds (i.e. where two continental divides intersect). Its rivers feed the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of Mexico, and Hudson Bay. The watersheds divide at Triple Divide Peak in Glacier National Park.
Question: How many miles of rivers are known for high class trout?
Answer: 450
Question: What Bay do rivers from Montana feed?
Answer: Hudson Bay
Question: Where do the watersheds divide at?
Answer: Triple Divide Peak in Glacier National Park.
Question: What ocean do rivers flow into from Montana?
Answer: Pacific Ocean
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