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Most common salivary gland to get stones:
Ans. (b) SubmandibularRef: Bailey 26/e p732t 25/e p755Stones in Salivary glands:* MC site - Submandibular (80%), Parotid (10%), Sublingual (7%)* MC site is Wharton's Duct > Submandibular gland* Composition of Submandibular duct stone - Ca. and Mg, PO4 and CaCO3 * Submandibular stones are radio opaque* Submandibular secretions are viscid and has nondependent drainage (reason for stone being common here)* Duct stone produces referred pain in tongue (due to Lingual nerve)* Duct stone - Lay open* Gland Stone - Excision of gland
2
Parotid
Submandibular
Minor salivary gland
Sublingual
Surgery
Salivary Gland
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A child with acute respiratory distress showing hyperinflation of the unilateral lung in X-ray is due to –
Sudden onset of respiratory distress with hyperinflation of lung suggest the diagnosis of foreign body aspiration. "Foreign body aspiration should always be considered as a potential cause of stridor and airway obstruction in children". Congenital lobar emphysema can also cause respiratory distress with hyperinflation of lung. But congenital lobar emphysema produces respiratory distress immediately after birth i.e. in neonatal periods.
4
Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
Aspiration pneumonia
Congenital lobar emphysema
Foreign body aspiration
Radiology
null
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single
Circumcision is contraindicated in:
Ans: C (Hypospadias) Ref: Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th EditionExplanation:"Most of the procedures for hypospadias make use of prepuceal skin and so circumcision should be avoided until repair is done."Contraindications for CircumcisionIn infants with certain genital structure abnormalitiesMisplaced urethral opening (as in hypospadias and epispadias)Curvature of the head of the penis (chordee)Ambiguous genitaliaThis is because the foreskin may be needed for reconstructive surgery.Circumcision is also avoided in:Premature infantsClinically unstable infantsUndiagnosed bleeding conditions
3
Phimosis
Ballooning of prepuce
Hypospadias
Ca penis
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Urethra & Penis)
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multi
Reliable screening test for hemophilia is
null
1
aPTT
BT
PT
CBP
Pathology
null
ae8085c2-9032-424f-87f4-c79896812dee
single
In the physiologic system, nitric oxide is known to act through
null
3
Cyclic AMP
Calcium ions
Cyclic GMP
Prostacyclins
Biochemistry
null
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single
Muller's manoeuvre is used to
Muller's manoeuvre is used to find level and degree of obstruction in sleep-disordered breathing with flexible nasopharyngoscope Ref: Textbook of ENT, Dhingra; 6th edition; Pg no: 449 ref img
3
To find out opening of mouth
To remove laryngeal foreign body
To find degree of obstruction in sleep disordered breathing
To remove foreign body from ear
ENT
Miscellaneous ENT
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single
Investigation of choice in Thiamine deficiency is
Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with: Decreased RBC transketolase activity this is the earliest manifestation seen even before clinical disturbances Thiamin is a cofactor of Transketolase pyruvate, alpha-ketoglutarate and lactate level in blood increases in thiamine deficiency ref: DM Vasudevan 8th ed page 467
2
RBC-Thiamine levels
RBC - Transketolase levels
RBC - Glutathione reductase levels
WBC - Ascorbic acid levels
Biochemistry
vitamins
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single
Following can be used as a yardstick for the assessment of standards of therapy ?
Ans. is `d' i.e., Survival rate Survival rate o It is the propoion of survivors in a group (e.g. of patients) studied and followed over a period of time. o It is a method of describing prognosis in ceain disease conditions. o Survival experience can be used as a yardstick for the assessment of standard of therapy. o Survival rates have received special attention in cancer studies.
4
Specific death rate
Case fatality rate
Propoional moality rate
Survival rate
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
True about Helicobacter pylori is -
null
4
Culture and gram staining of biopsy is the gold standard investigation
Controlled urea breath is negative with massive infection.
Anti urease antibody are produced only by invasive strains
Urease activity provides protective environment to the bacilli.
Microbiology
null
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Last organ to be dissected during autopsy in death caused by asphyxia is:
Ans. a. Neck ast organ to be dissected during autopsy in death caused by asphyxia is neck Autopsy in Asphyxial Death Detailed study of the neck organs is required during autopsy of asphyxia death. Cranial, thoracic and abdominal organs are removed before dissecting the neck, so that, the body is drained of blood. Such draining provides a clean bloodless field for the study of neck organs and prevents any aificial seepage of blood in soft tissues of the neckQ
1
Neck
Head
Abdomen
Thorax
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Glue ear -
Glue Ear/serous Otitis Media is a painless condition Ref. Dhingra 5/e, p 72, 6/e, p 64; Current Otolaryngology 2/e, p 658
2
Is painful
Is painless
Radical mastoidectomy is required
NaF is useful
ENT
null
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single
Vicryl, the commonly used suture material is a:
- Vicryl - copolymer of glycolide and lactide - Work horse suture of general surgeon - Delayed absorbable suture (60-90 days)
2
Homopolymer of polydioxanone
Co-polymer of glycolide and lactide
Homopolymer of glycolide
Homopolymer of lactide
Surgery
Sutures and Anastomoses
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multi
True about fraternal twins are: UP 11
Ans. Comes from single egg
1
Dizygotic twins
Comes from single egg
Two eggs feilized at different period of gestation
Unrelated by bih
Forensic Medicine
null
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Post spinal headache can be prevented by
The most impoant causative factor for spinal headache is needle size, so use of small gauge needle is the best method to prevent post spinal headache. There is no evidence that any duration of bed rest after lumbar puncture has a role in preventing headache. Improving hydration by increased fluids (either oral or intravenous) has not been shown to prevent headache after lumbar puncture Ref Robbins 9/e pg 234
1
Use of thinner needle
NSAIDs
Preanesthetic medication
Plenty of oral fluids
Pathology
All India exam
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single
Which of the following is cariostatic?
null
4
Selenium
Magnesium
Cadmium
Molybdenum
Pathology
null
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single
Pediatirc airway differ from adult -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Large tongue Airway : Pediatric Vs Adulto Obligate nasal breather o Large tongueo Larynx & trachea are funnel shapedo Larynx located higher (C4) Vs C6 in adulto Narrowest part is cricoid (glottis in adults)
1
Large tongue
Short epiglotitis
Narrowest part is glottis
Larynx in lower posittion
Pediatrics
Disorders of the Respiratory Tract
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single
Thyroid gland is stimulated by which hormone during pregnancy ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., HCGThe endocrine system undergoes notewohy changes during pregnancy.The pituitary, thyroid and parathyroid glands appear enlarged.The enlargement of thyroid gland occurs under the influence of hCGs pituitary thyrotropin (TSH) and human chorionic thyrotropin from placenta. This results in an increase in thyroxine which stimulates metabolic activity in mother and fetus.Increased parathyroid hormone stimulates liberation of calcium ion from maternal bones for fetal use.Increased output of ACTH from pituitary stimulates secretion of :-Glucocoicoids : It mobilizes amino acids for protein synthesis in fetal tissues.Aldosterone : Promotes fluid retention in pregnancy.
2
Prolactin
HCG
Human placental lactogen
ACTH
Physiology
null
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You decide not to prescribe sildenafil in a patient because the patient told you that he is taking an antianginal drug. Which of the following can it be ?
null
3
Calcium channel blockers
β adrenergic blockers
Organic nitrates
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
Pharmacology
null
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Avascular necrosis for patients can be retarded by?
1500 mg Ca daily REF: Principles and practice of endocrinology and metabolism by Kenneth Becker Page 630 In renal, gastrointestinal or other diseases leading to avascular necrosis, daily calcium supplementation of 1500 mg is required to prevent and reatard avascular necrosis and other metabolic bones diseases.
3
500 mg Ca daily
1000 mg Ca daily
1500 mg Ca daily
2000 mg Ca daily
Surgery
null
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single
In glycolytic pathway, products formed are :
D i.e. All of the above
4
Fructose-2, 6-Biphosphate
Fructose-1, 6-Biphosphate
Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
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Preferred initial treatment for Ca anal canal is
Anal cancer Uncommon tumour, which is usually a squamous cell carcinoma Associated with HPV More prevalent in patients with HIV infection May affect the anal verge or anal canal Lymphatic spread is to the inguinal lymph nodes Treatment is by chemoradiotherapy in the first instance Major ablative surgery is required if the above fails Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1269
2
Surgery
Chemoradiation
Immunotherapy
Observation
Surgery
G.I.T
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Most common cause of mass in posterior mediastinum in children –
"Most common posterior mediastinal masses in children are neurogenic tumors".  Posterior mediastinal mass in children 1) Neurogenic tumors (Most common)                      2) Foregut cyst (Second most common) 3)   Lymphoma (Third most common)                      4) Germ cell tumors 5)   Lymphangiomas and agiomas Mediastinal neurogenic tumors are ❑ Mediastinal neuroblastoma ❑ Ganglioneuroma                                                                                                           ❑ Ganglioneuroblastoma ❑ Schwannoma       ❑ Mediastinal pheochromocytoma
4
Rhabdo sarcoma
Duplication cyst of oesphagus
Lymphoma
Neuroblastoma
Pediatrics
null
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An IV drug user is diagnosed to have infective endocarditis involving the tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Prosthetic valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Many of these strains are resistant to methicillin. It usually involves the tricuspid valve. Prosthetic valve endocarditis usually occur within 2 months of valve surgery. It is usually due to an intraoperative contamination of prosthesis or due to a bacteremic postoperative complication. This type is usually caused by S. aureus, Coagulase-negative staphylococci, facultative gram-negative bacilli, diphtheroids, and fungi. Ref: Karchmer A.W. (2012). Chapter 124. Infective Endocarditis. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds),Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
1
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus gallolyticus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pyogens
Microbiology
null
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Virchow's triad includes all of the following, except
Virchow's triad refers to three primary influences that predispose to thrombus formation. Endothelial injury (or vascular injury) Stasis or turbulence of blood flow Blood hypercoagulability Virchow's triad should be the cornerstone for assessment of risk factors for deep venous thrombosis. Stasis can occur with venous insufficiency, severe hea failure, or prolonged bed rest or immobility of an extremity following coma, pelvic or limb fracture, paralysis, extended aeroplane travel, or a lengthy operation. Endothelial injury can result from direct trauma (severed vein, venous cannulation, or transvenous pacing) or local irritation secondary to the infusion of chemotherapy, previous DVT, or phlebitis.
4
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagulability
Venous stasis
Venous thrombosis
Surgery
Vascular surgery
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multi
Red flag sign in child development if not attained ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Standing alone at l6 month Red flag sign of child developmentMilestoneAgeNo visual fixation or following by2 monthsNo vocalisation6 monthsNot siting without suppo9-10 monthsNot standing alone16 monthsNot walking alone18 monthsNot single word18 monthsLack of imaginative play3 years
4
Vocalization at 2 months
Walking at 12 months
Single word at 12 months
Standing alone at 16 month
Pediatrics
null
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single
Heart failure cells are -
Heart failure cells (siderophages) are hemosiderin containing macrophages in alveoli that are seen in left ventricular failure and denote previous episodes of pulmonary edema. Left-sided heart failure The major morphological and clinical effects of LVF are due to increased back pressure in the pulmonary circulation and the consequences of diminished peripheral blood pressure and flow, The extracardiac organs involved commonly are - 1. Lung (most common) 2. Kidney 3. Brain Lung The pressure in the pulmonary veins increases and transmitted retrogradely to capillaries and arteries, This results in pulmonary congestion and pulmonary-oedema → Wet lung. There is perivascular and interstitial translate, particularly in the interlobular septa → responsible for Kerley's B lines on X-rays. Edematous fluid accumulates in alveoli. Iron-containing proteins and hemoglobin leak out from the capillaries and are phagocytosed by macrophages and converted to hemosiderin. Hemosiderin - containing macrophages in the alveoli (called siderophages, or heart failure cells) denote previous episodes of pulmonary edema. The clinical manifestations of LVF are primarily due to these changes in lungs —> Dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Kidney Decreased cardiac output causes a reduction in renal perfusion. If it is severe enough to impair the excretion of nitrogenous product (BUN, Creatinine), Prerenal ARF (Prerenal azotemia) may be precipitated. Brain Reduced perfusion to the brain may cause hypoxic/ischemic encephalopathy.
2
Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
Pigmented alveolar macrophages
Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
Pigment cells seen in liver
Pathology
null
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Largest diameter of pelvis:
Ans. (a) TransverseRef.: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 99-104* If such questions are asked regardless of pelvic plain, then transverse diameter of pelvic inlet has largest diameter (13cm).If it is not in option, next best option is oblique diameter (12cm)* Smallest diameter regardless of pelvic plain- Bispinous (10cm)* For more details, please refer to above explanation.
1
Transverse
True conjugate
Oblique
Bituberous
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
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multi
PCR requires
A primer is a sho strand of RNA or DNA (generally about 18-22 bases) that serves as a staing point for DNA synthesisPolymerase chain reaction uses DNA primers because they are more temperature stable. In experiments, it is often impoant to use a primer with a similar Tm to the template strand it will be hybridizing to.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 638
1
Primer
DNA Polymerase
De-oxyribonucleotide phosphate
Di-oxyribonucleotide phosphate
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Xiphisternum is present at what level ?
Ans. is'c'i.e., T9(Ref. Keithl. Moore Clinically Oriented Anatomy Ple p. 84)Level of xiphisternum - T9
3
T5
T6
T9
T10
Anatomy
null
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Yersinia enterocolitica, formerly a Pasteurella, has more than 50 sero-types that can be isolated from rodents, sheep, cattle, swine, dogs, and cats and water contaminated by them, and is best described by which of the following?
All the organisms are short, ovoid, gram-negative rods. For the most part, they are nutritionally fastidious and require blood or blood products for growth. These and related organisms are unique among bacteria in that, though they have an animal reservoir, they can be transmitted to humans. Humans become infected by a variety of routes, including ingestion of contaminated animal products (B. abortus in cattle), direct contact with contaminated animal material or with infected animals themselves (Y. enterocolitica and B. bronchiseptica in dogs), and animal bites (P. multocida in many different animals). The laboratory differentiation of these microbes may be difficult and must rely on a number of parameters, including biochemical and serologic reactions, development of specific antibody response in affected persons, and epidemiologic evidence of infection.Yersinia enterocolitica are motile at 77degC (25degC) and nonmotile at 98.6degF (37degC). They are found in the intestinal tract of animals and cause a variety of clinical syndromes in humans. Transmission to humans probably occurs via animal fecal contamination of food, drink, or fomites.The brucellae are obligate parasites of animals and humans and are located intracellularly. Brucella abortus is typically found in cattle. Brucellosis (undulant fever) has an acute bacteremic phase followed by a chronic stage that may last years and involve many tissues. Brucella abortus requires CO2 for growth and is most often isolated from blood and bone marrow. Species differentiation is due to dye (thionine) sensitivity.Bordetella bronchiseptica causes diseases in animals (kennel cough in dogs) and occasionally respiratory disease and bacteremia in humans.Bordetella requires enriched medium (Bordet-Gengou) and is strongly urease-positive.Pasteurella multocida occurs worldwide in the respiratory and GI tracts of many domestic and wild animals. It is the most common organism in human wounds inflicted by cat and dog bites. It is one of the common causes of hemorrhagic septicemia in rabbits, rats, horses, sheep, fowl, cats, and swine. It can affect many systems in humans, as well as bite wounds.
2
Commonly inhabits the canine respiratory tract and is an occasional pathogen for humans; strongly urease-positive
Gram-negative bipolar stained bacilli that cause diarrhea by means of a heat-stable enterotoxin, with abdominal pain that may be mistaken for appendicitis
Pits agar, grows both in carbon dioxide and under anaerobic conditions, and is part of the normal oral cavity flora
Typically infects cattle, requires 5% to 10% carbon dioxide for growth, and is inhibited by the dye thionine
Microbiology
Bacteria
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Most common unfavourable sequelae of serial extraction:
Early extraction of the buccal teeth and uprighting of incisors can result in deepening of the bite. This can be corrected with bite plane. Ref: textbook of orthodontics gowrishankar 2nd edition page 533
4
Disto-axial inclination of canine
Residual space at the extraction site
Mesio-axial inclination of second premolar
Increase in overbite
Dental
null
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single
A 28 Years of old lady presented with wrist pain. X-ray wrist us showing lytic eccentric lesion in lower end of radius with soap bubble appaerance, what is the next plan for managemnt
It is a case of giant cell tumor Actually next investingation should be MRI followed by biopsy In bone tumors :x ray ------MRI-----biopsy------treatment ref : maheswari 9th ed
3
Bone curettage and bone grafting
Extended curettage with phenol
Biopsy of lesion
Extended curettage with phenol and bone grafting
Anatomy
null
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A child is able to build blocks of 5 Cubes developmental age is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 18 month
3
12 months
15 months
18 months
24 months
Pediatrics
null
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Remote after loading is used in
ref : david sutton 9th ed
1
Brachytherapy
proton beam
Electron beam
Cyberknife therapy
Radiology
All India exam
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single
Tuning fork of 512 FPS is used to test the hearing because it is -
Tuning fork tests can be done with tuning forks of different frequencies like 128, 256, 512, 1024, 2018 and 4096 Hz but most commonly used is 512 Hz because “Tests are done with various tuning forks, but 512 Hz is the most commonly used as it has longer tone decay and sound is quite distinct from ambient noise.” Forks of lower frequencies produce a sense of bone vibration while those of higher frequency have a shorter decay time and therefore not commonly used Ref. Tuli 1/e, p 28
1
Better heard
Better felt
Produces over tones
Not heard
ENT
null
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single
In which of the following the serum C3 not persistently low?
SerumC3 levels are persistently low in membranoproliferative GN, lupus nephritis, and glomerulonephritis related to infective endocarditis. Poststreptoccal glomerulonephritis: SerumC3 Levelsaredepressed within2weeksinalmost90%ofcases.However,C3 levelsreturntonormal within6to 8weeks. Persistentlydepressedlevelsaftehisperiodshouldsuggestanothercausesuchas C3 nephriticfactor (membranoprolif-erativeglomerulonephritis)
1
Poststreptococcal glomerulonepheritis
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Lupus nephritis
Glomerulonephritjis related to bacterial endocarditis
Surgery
null
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VDRL is a -
The VDRL test for syphilis is an example of a slide flocculation test. When a drop each of the antigen and the antiserum are placed on a slide and mixed by shaking, floccules appear. Reference: Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 106 <\p>
1
Slide flocculation test
Tube floccolation test
Gel precipitation test
Indirect haemagglutination test
Microbiology
Immunology
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35 Year primigravida visited your clinic. USG given below: what is the diagnosis?
Ans. (c) Nuchal translucency Ref.: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 735 * Nuchal translucency is a fluid behind the neck of the fetus. It is an anechoic space visible and seen in all fetuses between 11-14 weeks of age * The most common cause of increased nuchal translucency(> 3 mm) is aneuploidy where TURNER syndrome is the most common cause followed second by Down syndrome. * The reason why it is seen in 11-14 weeks is because at that time fetal lymphatics are developing and peripheral resistance is high and gradually disappears. * Remember: Cystic hygroma which is seen in Turner syndrome is high incidence is due to defective development of lymphatics.
3
Anencephaly
Holoprocencephaly
Nuchal translucency
Hydrocephaly
Unknown
null
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Dicumarol is a drug that impairs the utilization of vitamin K by the liver. Dicumarol therapy, therefore, would decrease the plasma concentration of which of the following procoagulants
Ans. (a) ProthrombinRef: Ganong, 25th ed/p.567Factor II is also called Prothrombin. It is a vitamin K dependent factorWarfarin - acts by inhibiting Vitamin K Epoxide reductase (VKORC1)
1
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Antihemopilic factor (factor VIII)
Ac - globulin (factor V)
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
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Best skin disinfectant for central line inseion is
Chlorhexidine is now the disinfectant recommended for all catheter placementprocedures and for routine site cleansing during dressing changes. "Use of antiseptic solution for skin disinfection at the catheter inseion site helps prevent catheter-related infection. Chlorhexidine-based solutions appear to be superior to both aqueous and alcohol-based povidone-iodine in reducing the risk for catheter colonization and catheter-related bloodstream infection. If there is a contraindication to chlorhexidine, tincture of iodine, an iodophor or 70 per cent alcohol can be used as alternatives
4
Povodine iodine
Alcohol
Cetrimide
Chlorhexidine
Anatomy
General surgery
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single
In MCH programme the sampling is done by which method –
null
4
Systemic
Stratified
Group
Cluster–30
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
All of the following statements about Diploic veins are true except
Diploic veins form sinuses in cancellous tissue between laminae of cranial bones.The skull is unilamellar at bih without any dipole. The diploic veins sta to develop at around 2 years of age along it diploe.These veins are lined by endothelium suppoed by some elastic tissue and are valveless.Reference"Chaurasia&;s human anatomy vol 3 ,4th edition, page no.96
1
Develop around 8th wks of gestation
These have no valves
Present in cranial bones
Have a thin wall lined by single layer of endothelium
Anatomy
Head and neck
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Which of the following features are not seen a case of carcinoma of penis ?
The tumor has a tendency to metastasis to inguinal lymphnodes. Distant metastasis is rare.
4
Circumcision is protective
Lesion is painless to begin with
Commonest site is glans penis
Distant metastasis is common
Surgery
null
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Dupuytren's contracture following is true except NOT RELATED -OHO
Dupuytren's contracture (contracture of palmar aponeurosis)a. It is characterized by flexion deformity of one or more fingers due to the thickening and shoening of the palmerb. aponeurosis.c. Etiology:i. Unknownii. Hereditary predispositioniii. Cirrhosis of liveriv. Epileptic patients on phenytoind. The fingers are drawn in flexion at MCP and PIP joints.e. The ring finger is most commonly affected.f. The contracture is usually limited to the medial three fingers.g. Peyronie's disease and planter fascia thickening are also known associations.h. An elderly with mild contracture does not need any Rx.i. If the deformity is severe and hampers routine activity, subtotal excision of palmar aponeurosis may be required.j. Evidence also points to heredity as a predisposing factor in Dupuytren&;s disease. The lesion seems to occur earlier and more frequently in some families, and James suggested an autosomal dominant pattern. Vascular insufficiency and cigarette smoking have been linked to Dupuytren disease as possible causative factors .
1
Autosomal recessive inheritance
Alcoholic cirrhosis may predispose
More common in male than female
The ring finger is most commonly affected
Pharmacology
All India exam
a32f4e1e-4d29-4a24-9786-d5a984f44d5e
multi
Bilirubin UDP glucuronyl transferase activity is absent in
Syndrome Bilirubin UDP glucuronyl transferase activity Crigler-Najjar type I Crigler-Najjar type II Gilbert syndrome Absent Markedly reduced : 0-10% of Normal Reduced : 10-30% of Normal
1
Crigler-Najjar type I
Crigler-Najjar type II
Rotor syndrome
Gilbert syndrome
Pediatrics
null
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Hemolytic disease of newborn is an example of -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type 2 hypersensitivity
2
Type III hypersensitivity
Type Il hypersensitivity
Ahus reaction
Type IV hypersensitivity
Pathology
null
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single
A chronic tobacco chewer came to OPD with diminution of vision. Which of the following nutritional supplement can be provided to him:
Vitamin B12 is used for tobacco associated amblyopia. Tobacco associated amblyopia Seen in men doing heavy smoking, drinking and diet deficient in protein and vitamin B complex. Toxic agent involved is cyanide. B/L centrocecal scotomas are seen. Vitamin B12, 1000 microgram i.m injection weekly.
4
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12
Ophthalmology
Neuro Ophthalmology
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Proton consists of:
Protons are spin-½ fermions and are composed of three valence quarks, making them baryons (a sub-type of hadrons). The two up quarks and one down quark of a proton are held together by the strong force, mediated by gluons.
1
2 up quarks + 1 down quarks
2 up quarks + 2 down quarks
1 up quarks + 2 down quarks
1 up quarks + 1 down quarks
Radiology
null
428c6615-5214-4f40-b4ac-3f1b497e6dc1
single
Which enzyme deficiency causes hemolytic anaemia –
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency Normally, RBCs are protected from oxidant injury by reduced glutathione. Reduced glutathione is generated from oxidized glutathione and the reducing equivalent for this reaction is provided by NADPH. This NADPH is generated in HMP shunt by enzyme Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, while oxidizing glucose-6-phosphate. If G6PD is deficient, NADPH production will be reduced that results in increased susceptibility of RBC to oxidative damage because of unavailability of reduced glutathione. So, whenever there is oxidant stress, e.g. by drugs, infection or foods, hemolysis occurs. G6PD deficiency causes episodic intravascular and extravascular hemolysis. Important peripheral smear findings → Heinz bodies, Bite cells, Spherocytes.
1
G–6–PD
Aldolase
Isomerase
Enolase
Pediatrics
null
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single
Positive schick's test indicates that the person is-
- Schick test: intradermal test to demonstrate circulating diphtheria antitoxin. This antitoxin may be present either due to previous infection or immunisation. -this test demonstrate immunity or susceptibility of a person against diphtheria. - positive Schick test signifies that the person is susceptible to diphtheria due to absence or lack of adequate amount of circulating antitoxin. Reference: Baveja text book of microbiology, 4th edition, pg no:219,220 <\p>
3
Immune to diphtheria
Hypersensitive to diphtheria
Susceptible to diphtheria
Susceptible and hypersensitive to diphtheria
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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single
Tyrosine becomes essential in which of the following condition:
The amino acids arginine, cysteine, glycine, glutamine, histidine, proline, serine and tyrosine are considered conditionally essential, meaning they are not normally required in the diet, but must be supplied exogenously to specific populations that do not synthesize it in adequate amounts. Individuals living with PKU must keep their intake of phenylalanine extremely low to prevent mental retardation and other metabolic complications. However, phenylalanine is the precursor for tyrosine synthesis. Without phenylalanine, tyrosine cannot be made and so tyrosine becomes essential in the diet of PKU patients.
4
Wilsons disease
Alkaptonuria
Thyrosinosis
Phenylketonuria
Biochemistry
null
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Best level of anaesthesia for LSCS:
Anaesthesia can be regional or general.Regional is always better and can be spinal or epidural.If general anaesthesia is given as an emergency procedure to a women who is not fasting there is always the danger of aspiration of gastric contents and chemical pneumonitis (refer pgno:459 Sheila textbook of obstetrics 2 nd edition)
4
T8
T10
T6
T4
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abnormal labor
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An emerging organism responsible for causing Pyelonephritis in Renal Allografts is?
ANSWER: (A) Polyoma virusREF: With text"An emerging viral pathogen causing pyelonephritis in kidney allografts is polyoma virus"REF: Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease 7th edition Volume 1 page 1000"The current average half-life of a kidney transplant is 8 to 10 years. Allograft loss can occur from rejection (cell mediated or antibody mediated), recurrent urinary tract infections, polyoma virus associated nephropathy or recurrent kidney disease" REF: Mayo Clinic Internal Medicine Board Review 9th edition by Amit Ghosh page 658
1
Polyoma virus
Herpes virus
Hepatitis B virus
Rota virus
Pathology
Miscellaneous (Kidney)
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Tissue cartilages tendons are best visualized by:
(MRI - 246-Sutton 7th)* There is little doubt however that MR is superior to other techniques in the detection and discrimination of most aspects of soft tissues except fine calcification, and is the method of choice in the investigation of musculoskeletal and joint lesions.* It can differentiates muscle, tendon, cartilage, discs, menisci, nerves, blood vessels, fat and bone and has multi planar and contrast enhanced ability.
2
CT
MRI
Radionucleid scan
Ultrasound
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
A patient after sustaining RTA, developed fracture left shaft of femur with guarding and rigidity in the abdomen. He is hemodynamically unstable. Whats the next step in management
In a pt with multiple injuries, they are treated according to severity Hemodynamically unstable pts eFAST is done.
3
Open reduction and fixation of femur
CECT abdomen
Stabilize the fracture and monitor the patient and do eFAST
Stabilize the fracture only
Surgery
null
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Earliest phenotypic manifestation of Idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosis is :
Increased transferrin saturation Elevation in transferrin saturation is the earliest phenotypic manifestation of idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosisQ. Hereditary hemochromatosis is a common inherited single gene disorder. It is characterized by increased intestinal absorption of iron, with deposition of iron in multiple organs. Persons with hereditary hemochromatosis absorb only a few milligrams of iron each day in excess of need. Therefore, clinical manifestations often occur only after 40 years of age, when body iron stores have reached 15-40g (normally, the body stores approximately 4g of iron). In the past hereditary hemochromatosis was usually diagnosed at an advanced stage. The classical description was : ? - Cutaneous hyperpigmentation. - Diabetes mellitus - Cirrhosis Currently, most patients with newly diagnosed hereditary hemochromatosis are asymptomatic i.e., diagnosed at an early state when the patient is still asymptomatic. The shift towards earlier diagnosis is probably the result of including serum iron indices in the diagnosis. Such as : Serum iron - Serum iron binding capacity - % transferrin saturation and serum ferritin These are elevated in hemochromatosis long before the symptoms of hemochromatosis have developed. Therefore serum iron indices are used as screening test for the diagnosis of Heruochromatosis. A.Percent transferrin saturation Percent transferrin saturation is the earliest phenotypic marker of hereditary hemoehromatosisQ. "It is the best screening test used for the diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis." Biron binding capacity Now days iron binding capacity is being increasingly used as the screening test for the diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis. Many trials have proved that : Iron binding capacity is better than % transferrin saturation as a screening test, but its wide scale use has not been staed till now. C.Serum Ferritin Serum ferritin concentration is usually a good index of body iron stores. Serum ferritin is increased in most untreated patients with hemochromatosis. Asymptomatic or symptomatic family members with the disease have increased serum ferritin. But serum ferritin is not used as screening marker because its act as acute phase reactant and its level is increased in various inflammatory conditions. Besides that its level is also increased in alcoholic liver disease and other hepatocellular injury due to increased release from tissues. Confirmatory testing of hereditary hemochromatosis : Is done by genetic analysis, which is more reliable than determining iron content in liver biopsies. Hereditary hemochromatosis is associated with mutations in the HFE genee. Between 60-93 percent of patients with this disorder are homozygous for mutation designated C282Ye. Liver biopsy is also done to assess if liver fibrosis is present or not.
4
Post prandial increase in serum iron concentration
Elevated serum ferritin level
Slate grey pigmentation of skin
Increased transferrin saturation
Surgery
null
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A 31-year-old woman has had vulvar pruritus along with a thick, whitish, odorless, globular vaginal discharge for the past week. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears erythematous, but there are no erosions or masses. A Pap smear shows budding cells and pseudo hyphae. No dysplastic cells are present. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to produce these findings?
The presence of the budding cells with pseudo hyphae indicates a fungal infection with Candida. Candidal (monilial) vaginitis is common; this organism is present in about 5% to 10% of women. Recurrent episodes of vaginal candidiasis may be associated with non-albicans species. The inflammation tends to be superficial, and there is typically no invasion of underlying tissues. Urea plasma is a bacterial agent, as is Chlamydia, and both can produce cervicitis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus, is the causative agent of gonorrhea. Infection with Trichomonas vaginalis can produce a purulent vaginal discharge, but the organisms are protozoa and do not produce hyphae.
1
Candida albicans
Chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Trichomonas vaginalis
Pathology
Female Genital Tract
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Kegel's exercises should begin :
Pelvic floor exercises were introduced by kegel in the 1950s in women suffering from stress incontinence. Studies recommend that pelvic floor muscle training can be offered as a first line conservative treatment in women. (refer pgno:350 sheila 2 nd edition)
2
Immediately after delivery
24 hours after delivery
3 weeks after delivery
6 weeks after delivery
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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Helper cells belong to -
Ans. is 'a' i..e.,T cells T-cells . T cells are amongst the two impoant cells of adaptive immune system (others are B-cells). . T cell precursors arise in bone marrow (also in yolk sac & liver before bih) and migrate to the thymus. . Maturity of T-cells takes place in the thymus (So, T cells arise in bone marrow and mature in thymus).
1
T cells
Macrophages
B cells
Monocytes
Microbiology
null
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Acute pyelonephritis and uncomplicated UTI may be differentiated by all of the following, except:
Although acute pyelonephritis may be associated with organisms in excess of 100,000CFU/ml, this test cannot be used to localize the infection to the kidneys as such high counts are also seen in uncomplicated UTIs. All other tests mentioned are used to localize the infections to the kidney. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1717; Diagnosis of Genitourinary Disease By Resnick and Older, 2nd Edition, Pages 275-77
3
WBC cast
Concentrating defect
Organisms in excess of 100,000 cfu/ml
Antibody to Tomm Horsfall protein
Medicine
null
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Astigmatism is:
Astigmatism It is that condition of refraction wherein a point focus of light cannot be formed' upon the retina. It includes those anomalies in the optical system wherein an appreciable error is caused by the unequal refraction of light in different meridians. Hence it may be an error either of curvature, of centering or of refractive index. There fore this question is controversial as both the options are given. But since the commonest form of astigmatism is due to curvature defect, this will be the answer.
1
Defect in curvature
Defect in thickness of cornea
Defect in refractive index
Defect in opacity of lens
Unknown
null
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A 7-year-old child with rheumatic heart disease presents with pallor, fever and a palpable spleen. The following investigations would be needed to arrive at a diagnosis except:
a. Electrocardiogram(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2269-2271, Ghai 8/e p 433-443)Infective endocarditis should be suspected in presence of pallor, fever and splenomegaly in a known case of RHDUrine examination shows albuminuria and microscopic hematuriaBlood culture should be done for diagnosis of the causative agentEchocardiography is done to detect the cardiac changes like vegetations.
1
Electrocardiogram
Echocardiogram
Blood culture
Urine examination
Pediatrics
C.V.S.
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Which of the following subtype of AML is characterized by gum hyperplasia, bleeding and visceral infiltration?
Ans. a (Monocytic AML). (Ref. Robbins, Pathology, 8th ed. Table 12-11A ; 7th ed.,692)Revised FAB Classification of Acute Myelogenous Leukemias (AML)CLASSDEFINITIONINCIDENCE (%)MORPHOLOGY/COMMENTSM0Minimally differentiated AML2-3Blasts lack Auer rods and myeloperoxidase but express myeloid lineage surface markers.M1AML without maturation20Some blasts (>3%) are myeloperoxidase positive; few granules or Auer rods and very little maturation beyond the myelo- blast stage of differentiation.M2AML with maturation30-40>20% of marrow cells are myeloblasts, but many cells are seen at later stages of granulocyte differentiation;Auer rods are usually present; often associated with t(8;21).M3Acute pro- myelocytic leukemia5-10Most cells are abnormal promyelocytes, often containing many Auer rods per cell; patients are younger on average (median age 35-40yr); high incidence of DIC; strongly associated with t(15;17).M4Acute myelomono- cytic leukemia15-20Myelocytic and monocytic differentiation evident by cytochemical stains; monoblasts are positive for nonspecific esterase; myeloid cells show a range of maturation; variable numbers of Auer rods; subset associated with inv(16).M5Acute monocytic leukemia10Monoblasts and immature monocytic cells (myeloperoxidase negative, nonspecific esterase positive) predominate;Auer rods are usually absent;older patients;more likely to be associated with organomegaly,adenopathy, and tissue infiltration; the M5b subtype is defined by the predominance of mature-appearing monocytes in the peripheral blood, whereas only immature cells are seen in the M5a subtype.M6Acute erythro leukemia5Most commonly associated with abundant dysplastic erythroid progenitors; >20% of cells of the marrow nonerythroid cells are myeloblasts, which may contain Auer rods; usually occurs in advanced age or following exposure to mutagens (e.g., chemotherapy).M7Acute megakaryo- cytic leukemia1Blasts of megakaryocytic lineage predominate, as judged by expression of platelet-specific antigens;myelofibrosis or increased marrow reticulin often present;Auer rods are absent.
1
Monocytic
Promyelocytic
Megakaryocytic
Erythrocytic
Pathology
Blood
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True about the following virus: A. Enveloped, Club or petal shaped projections, Positive ss RNA- Largest genome of RNA virus. B. Diseases caused by these viruses are SARS, MERS. C. Reservoir is horseshoe bats for SARS, likely spread from palm-civets cats contact with humans. D. Symptoms of MERS appear within a day following contact with an infected patient. E. SARS is more severe than MERS. F. MERS infection is more servere in individuals who have a preexisting illness like diabetes and hea diseases.
The given image is of Corona virus. It is an Enveloped virus with Club or petal shaped projections, Positive ss RNA virus. The Wuhan coronavirus or the 2019-nCoV is a positive-sense, single-stranded RNA coronavirus first repoed in late 2019 and linked in the 2019-2020 pneumonia outbreak in Wuhan City in central China. 100-160 nm in size. Disease caused by these viruses are: SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) MERS (Middle East respiratory syndrome ) COVID19. Reservoir for SARS is HORSESHOE bats, likely spread from palm-civets cats contact with humans. MERS has a median Incubation Period of 5 days, symptoms appear between 2-14 days. MERS is more severe in individuals who have a preexisting illness like diabetes and hea diseases.
3
Only A, B, D, E, F are True
Only A, B, C, D are True
A, B, C, F are True
All are True
Microbiology
Virology (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
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Biopsy finding (s) of celiac disease is/are all except:
<p>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *celiac disease is an inflammatory disease of small bowel. *histological features includes sub total villi atrophy,blunting of villi,crypt hyperplasia,inflammatory infiltration in lamina propria.</p>
1
Cryptitis
Villous atrophy
Crypt hyperplasia
Absence of Giardia lambalia
Medicine
G.I.T
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multi
Which of the following enzyme does not catalyse the irreversible step in glycolysis?
Step 1 of Glycolysis - i. Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6- phosphate. ii. The enzyme is hexokinase (HK),which splits the ATP into ADP, and the Pi is added on to the glucose. The energy released by the hydrolysis of ATP is utilized for the forward reaction. iii. Hexokinase is a key glycolytic enzyme. Hexokinase catalyses a regulatory step in glycolysis that is irreversible. But this irreversibility is circumvented by another enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase (see gluconeogenesis). Step 3 of Glycolysis - i. Fructose-6-phosphate is fuher phosphorylated to fructose1,6-bisphosphate. The enzyme is phosphofructokinase. ii. PFK is an allosteric, inducible, regulatory enzyme. It is an impoant key enzyme of this pathway. This is again an activation process, the energy being derived by hydrolysis of yet another molecule of ATP. This irreversible step is the rate limiting reaction in glycolysis. However, during gluconeogenesis, this step is circumvented by fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. Step 9 of Glycolysis - i. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is dephosphorylated to pyruvate, by pyruvate kinase. First PEP is made into a transient intermediary of enol pyruvate; which is spontaneously isomerized into keto pyruvate, the stable form of pyruvate. ii. One mole of ATP is generated during this reaction. This is again an example of substrate level phosphorylation. iii. The pyruvate kinase is a key glycolytic enzyme. This step is irreversible. REF: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, EIGHTH EDITION,PG.NO.,129,131.
2
Hexokinase
Phosphoglycero kinase
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused due to abnormalities in:
Ans. B. Nucleotide excision repaira. It is transmitted as autosomal recessive and DNA repair mechanism is defective. DNA damage is produced by UV irradiation especially thymine dimers, cannot be incised. Inborn deficiency of the enzyme "nicking endonuclease" is there.b. Clinical manifestations: produces blisters on the skin.c. Dry keratosis, hyperpigmentation and atrophy of skin.d. May produce corneal ulcers.
2
A SOS repair
Nucleotide excision repair
Base excision repair
Mismatch repair
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
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single
Which of the following does not result in the release of NO?
Ans. (A) Fenoldopam(Ref: KK Sharma 2007/176, 261, 292; Katzung 11th/e p180-181)*Nitric oxide donors include:-Sodium nitroprusside-Organic nitrates-Nitrites-Hydralazine-Propofol-Nebivolol*Fenoldopam is a selective D1 agonist useful in hypertensive emergencies.
1
Fenoldopam
Hydralazine
Nitroprusside
Nitroglycerine
Pharmacology
C.V.S
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Which of the following is not included in Picorna group of viruses?
HEV is not included in Picorna group of viruses. It belongs to Family Caliciviridae. Rhinovirus, HAV and Polio virus belong to the Family Picornaviridae. Characteristics of the Family Picornaviridae: Very small ( pico: measuring small; rna: RNA virus) RNA viruses. The genome consists of a single linear molecule of single-stranded RNA. The family Picornaviridae consists of following genera: Enterovirus: disease in humans. Rhinovirus: disease in humans. Hepatovirus: disease in humans. Apthovirus Cardiovirus Ahrovirus and Cardiovirus : cause foot-and-mouth disease in cattle and meningoencephalomyelitis in mice.
2
Rhinovirus
HEV
HAV
Poliovirus
Microbiology
Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
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single
Pleomorphic bacteria is:
Pleomorphic bacteria: Pleomorphic bacteria (e.g., Yersinia pestis) may show considerable variation in size and shape called pleomorphism. Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:17
1
Changing shape with time
Rod shaped structure
Dumble shape
Bacteria in clusters
Microbiology
null
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single
The disulfiram alcohol reaction occurs due to inhibition of which enzyme:
null
4
Alcohol reductase
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Aldehyde reductase
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Pharmacology
null
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single
65 year old female presented to OPD with complaint of abdominal pain just after eating food , episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. She gave history of Coronary aery disease from last 20 years . BP - 160/100 mm Hg , pulse- 80/min .On abdominal examination, there is no tenderness or rigidity. What shall be the most likely diagnosis:
CHRONIC MESENTERIC ISCHEMIA MC cause - Advanced atherosclerosis of multiple mesenteric vessels Risk factors Positive family history Hypeension Smoking Hypercholesterolemia C/F Post prandial abdominal pain Lasts for 15-45 min D/t ischemia of mesenteric vessels as there will be increase demand for blood after meals Diffuse crampy pain Intestinal angina / intestinal claudication Fear/aversion for food Weight loss Dx: Duplex scan - to assess flow in Mesenteric vessels Investigation of choice - Aoography Rx Revascularization by Balloon angioplasty or stent placement in elderly Definitive Rx - Trans aoic endaerectomy or Bypass grafting
4
Peptic ulcer
Wilkie's disease
Ulcerative colitis
Chronic mesenteric ischemia
Surgery
Aerial disorders
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Stalking is ------------------------ type of offense -
Ref:The essential of forensic medicine and toxicology Dr.K.S NARAYAN REDDY 32nd edition pg no 394 S.354-D IPc: Stalking Whoeverfollows a person and contacts or attempts to contact such person to foster personal interaction repeatedly,despite a clear indication of disinterest by such a person or whom ever monitors the use by a person of the internet,e-mail or any other forms of electronic communicationor watches or spies on a person in a manner that results in a fear of violence or serious alaram or distress in the mind of such person or interferes with mental peace of such person, commits the offence of stalking (imprisonment of not less than one year, may extend to 5 years and fine).
1
Cognisible and Bailable
Non-cognisible and Bailable
Cognisible and Non-Bailable
Non-congnisible and Non Bailable
Forensic Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
Which of the following branch of CN V3 runs in the mandibular canal?
.
1
Inferior alveolar nerve
Auriculotemporal nerve
Lingual nerve
Buccal nerve
Anatomy
All India exam
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single
Candida is most often implicated in causation of
Candida infection causes mucosal lesion like vaginitis and oral thrush. oral thrush found commonly in bottle-fed infants and aged and debilitated. This condition is characterised by creamy white patches appear on the tongue and buccal mucosa following removal, this leaves a red oozing surface. Tinea capitis is caused by dermatophytes. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition
4
Conjunctivitis
Tinea capitis
Dese rheumatism
Thrush
Microbiology
mycology
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single
If death of a married women occurs within 7 years of her marriage, the inquest is done by:
ANSWER: (B) MagistrateREF: Parikh 6th edition page 1.7Magistrate inquest means an inquiry conducted by a magistrate to ascertain the matter of fact. It is commonly held in following cases.Admission of a mentally ill person in a psychiatry hospital or a psychiatric nursing home under certain provisions of Mental health act 1987Death of a convict in jailDeath of a person in police custody or police interrogationDeath as a result of police shooting/ killingExhumation casesDowry deaths (ie with in 7 years of marriage) (Section 176 CrPC)
2
Police
Magistrate
Coroner
None
Forensic Medicine
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
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multi
Which condition is most commonly associated with coarctation of aoa?
Answer is B (Bicuspid Aoic Valve) The most common associated cardiac anomaly with coarctation of aoa is bicuspid aoic valve (Harrison's 17th /1462) Coarctation of aoa is associated with a bicuspid aoic valve in more than 70% of cases - (Nelson 18th / 1900) Associated anomalies with coarctation of Aoa Q Shone complex * Bicuspid Aoic valve(' (commonest) Coarctation of Aoa * PDAQ * VSDQ Left sided obstructive lesions * Tubular hypoplasia of aoic arch(' (Mitral valve abnormalities * Aoic stenosisQ (valvular / subvalvular) and subaoic stenosis) Other Associated lesions that have been asked previously Mitral valve abnormalities (Subvalvular mitral ring /parachute mitral valve) Turner's syndrome('
2
PDA
Bicuspid aoic valve
Aoic stenosis
VSD
Medicine
null
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single
Prolactin levels:
Prolactin increases tremendously in pregnancy and this ensures lactation.
2
Lowest in pregnancy
Highest during pregnancy
Unaffected by pregnancy and lactation
Variable in every pregnancy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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single
A 18 month baby can do?
ANSWER: (D) Walk short distanceREF: Nelson 18th ed chapter 10In questions like this we must see milestones achieved on or before 18 months.Option (A) Play increases in complexity and imagination, from simple imitation of common experiences, such as shopping and putting baby to bed (2 or 3 yr of age), to more extended scenarios involving singular events, such as going to the zoo or going on a trip (3 or 4 yr of age), to the creation of scenarios that have only been imagined, such as flying to the moon (4 or 5 yr of age). By age 3 yr, cooperative play is seen inactivities such as building a tower of blocks together; later, more structured role-play activity, as in playing house, is seen. Play also becomes increasingly governed by rules, from early rules about asking (rather than taking) and sharing (2 or 3 yr of age), to rules that change from moment to moment, according to the desires of the players (4 and 5 yr of age), to the beginning of the recognition of rules as relatively immutable (5 yr of age and beyond).Option (B) By 6 years of age a child should be able to write the alphabetOption (C) Child starts speaking short sentences from 19 months onwardsOption (D) Child starts walking short distance from 13-15 months
4
Hide 8t seek game
Write Alphabet
Say short sentence
Walk short distance
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
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single
Which of the following would help in the bridging the fibrin in a clot and stabilize the clot?
Factor XIII is also called fibrin stabilizing factor or Laki-Lorand factor Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 566
1
Factor XIII
Factor V
Factor VIII
Factor III
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
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single
A 20 year old male presents with chronic constipation, head ache and habitus, neuromas of tongue, medullated corneal nerve fibers and nodule of 2*2 cm size in left lobe of thyroid. This patient is a case of:
MEN-2A (Sipple Syndrome MEN) MEN-2B (MEN-3) Components Medullary carcinoma thyroid Pheochromocytoma Parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma Hirschprung&;s Disease Cutaneous lichen amyloidosis Medullary carcinoma thyroid Pheochromocytoma Intestinal ganglioneuromas Mucosal neuromas Megacolon Marfanoid features Defect RET oncogenic (Cysteine codon) Chromosome: 10 RET oncogene (tyrosine kinase domain) Chromosome: 10 Transmission Autosomal dominant Autosomal Dominant Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 993,1003
4
Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid
MEN-2A
MEN-2B
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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single
A 67-year-old woman with a prosthetic aoic valve develops progressive anemia. Examination of a peripheral blood smear reveals reticulocytosis and schistocytes. What is the appropriate diagnosis?
- Given features suggests the diagnosis of Macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia Macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia most commonly results from direct erythrocyte trauma due to abnormal vascular surface (e.g., prosthetic hea valve, synthetic vascular graft). Anemia is mild to moderate & is accompanied by an appropriate reticulocyte response. Blood smear examination reveals fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes) and polychromasia. Although microangiopathic hemolytic anemia results in morphologically-similar red blood cells, it reflects changes in small blood vessels.
4
Acanthocytosis
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Pathology
Hemolytic Anemias: Basic concepts and classification
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Drug used for smoking cessation AIE-
null
2
Naltrexone
Bupropion
Buprenorphine
Methadone
Medicine
null
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What is the drug of choice for listeriosis caused by Listeroa monocytogenes?
Ampicillin is considered the drug of choice for treatment of infections caused by susceptible strains of enterococci and Listeria monocytogenes. Cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones are not active against L monocytogenes. Vancomycin is the drug of choice for staphylococcal infections. Amoxicillin is the drug of choice for acute otitis media, sinusitis, and other respiratory tract infections.
1
Ampicillin
Amoxycillin
Vancomycin
Amikacin
Microbiology
null
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Erysipelas is caused by -
Erysipelas is due to S. pyogenes and is characterized by an abrupt onset of fiery-red swelling of the face or extremities. the distinctive features of erysipelas are well-defined indurated margins, particularly along the nasolabial fold; rapid progression; and intense pain. extension to deeper soft tissues is rare. treatment with penicillin is effective
3
Staph aureus
Staph albus
Strep pyogenes
Hemophilus
Surgery
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Toxic shock syndrome caused by Staphylococcus is due to:
Ans: B (Super antigens) Ref: Ananthnarayan R, Paniker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press; 2009. Pg. 198-9.Explanation:Microbial super antigens such as Streptococcal protein A and Staphylococcal enterotoxin can stimulate the broad range T & B cells irrespective of their antigenic specificity.Toxic Shock SyndromeTSST is the cause of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). TSST is a superantigen.Superantigens stimulate T cells non- specifically without normal antigenic recognitionUp to one in five T cells be activated, whereas only 1 in 10,000 are stimulated during a usual antigen presentation.Cytokines are released in large amounts, causing the symptoms of TSS.Superantigens bind directly to class II major histocompatibility complexes of antigen-presenting cells outside the conventional antigen-binding grove.
2
Hemolysins
Super antigens
Coagulase
Hyaiuronidase
Microbiology
Bacteria
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Which is not vitamin D resistant rickets is:
Vitamin D-resistant rickets: (Familial hypophosphatemia, refractory rickets, phosphate diabetes)
1
Osteomalacia
Familial hypophosphatemia.
Refractory rickets.
Phosphate diabetes.
Pathology
null
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Delayed eruption of teeth is seen in:
Delayed eruption of teeth: Rickets (Hypovitaminosis D) Hypothyroidism Hypoparathyroidism’ Trick = ALL “Hypo” conditions Hyper Parat Hyroidism → No effect on teeth only effects bone
4
Hypovitaminosis.
Hypothyroidism.
Hypoparathyroidism
All of the above.
Pathology
null
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Serum sickness is which type of reaction?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Type -3 hypersensitivity Type ni (IgG IgM. complement and leucocyte mediated)o Local-Arthus reactiono Systemic-serum sicknesso Schick testo Polyarteritis nodosa (PANo Rheumatoid arthritisoSLEo Acute viral hepatitiso Penicillamine toxicityo Hyperacute graft rejectiono Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)o Hypersensitivity pneumonitiso R.Ao Infective endocarditiso Henoch schonlein purpurao Glomerulonephritis
3
Type-1 hypersensitivity
Type -2 hypersensitivity
Type -3 hypersensitivity
Type -4 hypersensitivity
Pathology
Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury
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Nodal Metastases is absent in:
As vocal cord is free of lymphatics, nodal metastasis is rase in Glottic carcinoma.
2
Supraglottic carcinoma
Glottic carcinoma
Subglottic carcinoma
All of the above
Surgery
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Pseudoclaudication is due to the compression of ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cauda Equina Pseudoclaudication is intermittent claudication due to compression of the Cauda Equina. Cauda Equina Claudication: is produced as a result of compression of the cauda equina due to conditions such as lumbar canal stenosis (congenital or spondylosis) or protrusion of disc.
3
Femoral aery
Femoral nerve
Cauda Equina
Popliteal aery
Surgery
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Rate of oxygen consumption of odontoblast
null
1
3.4 ml/min/100g of tissues
10.2 ml/min/100g of tissues
0.6 ml/min/100g of tissues
All of the above
Dental
null
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Most common manifestation of cardiac lupus is-
the most common manifestation of cardiac lupus is pericardial inflammation or pericarditis Pericarditis. Pericarditis is the most common hea problem associated with active lupus and occurs in about 25% of people with SLE. The condition occurs when the pericardium--the thin membrane surrounding your hea--becomes swollen and irritated, causing it to leak fluid around the hea. Ref Davidson 23rd edtion pg 470
1
Pericarditis
Myocarditis
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
Aoic regurgitation
Medicine
C.V.S
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A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established.The following is the best drug for treatment-
Polyhexamethylene biguanide PHMB (Drug of choice) Chlorhexidine is an alternative
4
Propamide
Neosporine
Ketoconazole
Polyhexamethylene biguanide
Ophthalmology
null
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All of the following factors decrease the Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anaesthetic agent except.
C i.e. Hypocalcemia
3
Hypothermia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Anemia
Anaesthesia
null
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Which of the following steroids possess maximum glucocoicoid activity?
Maximum glucocoicoid activity: Dexamethasone Maximum mineralocoicoid activity: Aldosterone Glucocoicoid with maximum mineralocoicoid activity: Hydrocoisone Least potent glucocoicoid: Coisone Most potent glucocoicoid: Betamethasone Selective mineralocoicoid activity(zero glucocoicoid activity):DOCA Selective glucocoicoid activity( no mineralocoicoid activity): Dexamethasone
4
Prednisolone
Coisol
Aldosterone
Dexamethasone
Pharmacology
Adrenal
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. The most commonly practiced operative procedure for a perforated duodenal ulcer is -
null
4
Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
Vagotomy and antrectomy
Vagotomy and perforation closure
Graham's omentum patch repair
Surgery
null
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Which one of the following is frequent cause of serum alpha feto protein level greater than 10 times the normal upper limit -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metastaic carcinoma of liver
2
Seminoma
Metastaic carcinoma of liver
Cirrhosis of liver
Oat cell tumour of lung
Surgery
null
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The ENT manifestation of Peutz-Jegher's syndrome with benign intestinal polyps is:
Polyps in Peutz-Jegher's syndrome are seen in small intestine. However, macules due to deposition of melanin may appear at mucocutaneous junction of oral cavity (perioral), nasal cavity (perinasal), orbit or buccal mucosa for which ENT consultation is sought.
2
Vocal polyp
Perioral and buccal mucosal pigmentation
Nasal polyps
Sensorineural hearing loss
ENT
Nose and PNS
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Age to define statuary rape is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Less than 18 years After 3 february 2013, age to define rape has been changed.The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which means any sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below the age of 18 will constitute statutory rape.
3
Less than 16 years
Less than 17 years
Less than 18 years
Less than 20 years
Forensic Medicine
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