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Precursor of all steroid hormones -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pregnenolone o All steroid hormones originate from cholesterol.o Steps involved in biosynthesis of various steroid hormones are as follows :-Cholesterol is first acted upon by desmolase to form a 21-carbon product pregnenolone, which is the biosynthetic precursor of all steroid hormones.Pregnenolone is converted to progesterone by dehydrogenase.Progesterone is further converted to glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids by hydroxy lotions. These reactions are affected by monooxygenases w'hich require cytochrome P-450 as an intermediate electrone carrier. These monooxygenases are -17-hydroxylase and 21-hydroxylase - Microsomal11-hydroxyalse - Mitochondrial
1
Pregnenolone
Deoxycortisol
Androstenedione
Dehydroepiandrosterone
Biochemistry
Endocrinology
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Shanti, aged 27 yrs presented with complaints of difficulty in reading near print. There is ptosis and diplopia in all directions. She is having-
Amongst the given options ptosis can be caused by 3rd nerve palsy and myasthenia gravis. However, in 3rd nerve palsy diplopia will not occur on Down & out gaze (due to sparing of SO and LR) while in myasthenia gravis, diplopia will occur in all directions.
2
III CN palsy
Myasthenia gravis
Presbyopia
VI CN palsy
Ophthalmology
null
87b3ee3a-d6e3-4536-b6f9-0a15cbc748f2
multi
The combination of trimethoprima dn sulfamethoxazole is effective against which of the following oppounistic infections in the AIDS patient?
(Ref: KDT 6/e p686, 687) Cotrimoxazole is effective against Pneumocystis and toxoplasmosis.
3
Disseminated Herpes simplex
Cryptococcal meningitis
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Tuberculosis
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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Thiazides cause all the following side-effects except-
Loop agents and distal convoluted tubule agents, such as the thiazides, produce hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis that responds to potassium chloride replacement. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors produce less hypokalemia and volume depletion but commonly induce metabolic acidosis that is often symptomatic Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 354
3
Hypercalcemia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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multi
Adult non-pregnant female requires, calcium per day -
600 mg/dl calcium is required for a non pregnant adult female.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-588. Table no.29
2
400 mg
600 mg
800 mg
1000 mg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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Streptococcal Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor :
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Pyrogenic exotoxin Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is caused due to the release of pyrogenic exotoxins or erythrogenic exotoxins. * These exotoxins are produced only by few strains of beta hemolytic group A streptococci. *Usually these toxins cause scarlet fever but sometimes these strains produce exotoxins that are superantigens.These superantigens (exotoxins) directly super stimulate T cells to pour out inflammatory cytokines. This causes streptococcal toxic shock syndromeMore questions on erythrogenic or pyrogenic exotoxinsDick testIt is a test used to identify children susceptible to scarlet fever.Intradermal injection of erythrogenic toxin into susceptible individual produces an erythematous reaction.Schultz Charlton reactionIt is a diagnostic test for scarlet fever.Blanching of the rash produced during scarlet fever on local injection of convalescent serum is called Schultz Charlton reaction.Also know:
2
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Streptolysin O.
Carbohydrate cell wall.
Microbiology
Bacteria
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New RNTCP software online to monitor TB control programme is-
To keep a track of the TB patients across the country, the Government of India has introduced a system called NIKSHAY. * The word is combination of two Hindi words NI and KSHAY meaning eradication of tuberculosis. * NIKSHAY (www.nikshay.gov.in) is a web enabled application, which facilitates monitoring of universal access to TB patients data by all concerned. * The system has been developed jointly by the Central TB Division of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and National Informatics Centre (NIC) and it was launched by the Government of India in June 2012 with issue of required administrative directions from Central TB Division for use of NIKSHAY .
1
NIKSHAY
NISCHAY
NIRBHAI
E- DOTS
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
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single
All the given muscles help in inversion of foot except:
Ans. D. Peroneus longus* Peroneus longus and brevis are major evertors of the foot whereas running to the medial side of ankle (of both anterior and posterior compartment) like tibialis anterior, flexor digitorum longus, and long tendons of great toe act as invertors of foot.* Inversion: Medial border of the foot is raised so that the sole faces inside.* Eversion: Lateral border of the foot is raised so that the sole faces outside.* Inversion and eversion occur mainly at intertarsal joint.* Major movements occur at Talo-calcaneo-navicular joint.* Other involved joints are transverse tarsal/midtarsal joints.
4
Tibialis anterior
Tibialis posterior
Extensor hallucis longus
Peroneus longus
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
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Best marker for chronic Protein-energy malnutrition is
Stunting (deficit in height for age) signifies accumulated consequences of retarded growth over some years and generally points towards a chronic course of malnutrition. It may be a residue of past malnutrition or could be due to non-nutritional disorders like genetic sho stature or endocrinal disorders. Ref: Page 101, Ghai essential pediatrics; 6th edition
2
Weight for age
Height for age
Weight for Height
Head circumference
Pediatrics
Nutrition
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A 64-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with flank pain and fever. She noted dysuria for the past 3 days. Blood and urine cultures are obtained, and she is started on intravenous ciprofloxacin. Six hours after admission, she becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her intravenous fluid is normal saline (NS) at 100 mL/h. Her current blood pressure is 79/43 mm Hg, heart rate is 128/min, respiratory rate is 26/min, and temperature is 39.2degC (102.5degF). She seems drowsy yet uncomfortable. Extremities are warm with trace edema. What is the best next course of action?
This patient is septic, and immediate therapy should be directed at correcting her hemodynamic instability. Patients with sepsis require aggressive fluid resuscitation to compensate for capillary extravasation. This patient's vital signs suggest decreased effective circulating volume. Normal saline at 100 cc/h is insufficient volume replacement. The patient should be given a saline bolus of 2 L over 20 minutes, and then her blood pressure and clinical status should be reassessed. The elevated respiratory rate could be evidence of pulmonary edema or respiratory compensation for acidosis from decreased tissue perfusion. Even if the patient has evidence of pulmonary edema, fluid resuscitation remains the first intervention for hypotension from sepsis. She is more likely to die from hemodynamic collapse than from oxygenation issues related to pulmonary edema.Stress doses of hydrocortisone and intravenous norepinephrine are both used in patients with shock refractory to volume resuscitation but should be reserved until after the saline bolus. Vancomycin is a reasonable choice to cover enterococci, which can cause UTI-associated sepsis, but again would not address the immediate hemodynamic problem. If the patient does not improve, a central line (to measure filling pressures and mixed venous oxygen saturation) would allow the "early goal-directed" sepsis protocol to be used.
4
Administer IV hydrocortisone at stress dose.
Begin norepinephrine infusion and titrate to mean arterial pressure greater than 65 mm Hg.
Add vancomycin to her antibiotic regimen for improved gram-positive coverage.
Administer a bolus of NS.
Medicine
C.V.S.
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Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of mania:
Ans. (c) Heightened concentration* Abnormally & persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting for at least 1 week or any duration, if requires hospitalization.* > 3 are needed# Inflated self esteem or grandiosity# Decreased need for sleep (< 3 hours)# More talkative or pressure to keep talking# Flight of ideas or subjective experience that thoughts are racing# Distractibility (i.e. attention to easily drawn to unimportant or irrelevant external stimuli)# Increase in goal-directed activity (social spiritual religious, sexual) or psychomotor agitation# Excessive involvement in pleasurable activities (eg. unrestrained buying sprees, foolish business investments, donations or sexual indiscretions) that have a high potential for painful consequences.Why Mania: this patients satisfies the criteria and his conditions fits into it.The patient is irritable for 10 days (i.e. criteria A-abnormally & persistently elevated mood for atleast 1 week). There are > 3 criteria B features: increased sexual indulgence & alcohol consumption (excessive involvement in pleasureable activity), decreased need for sleep and career oriented prolonged work without getting tired.
3
Elated mood
Increased energy
Heightened concentration
Impaired judgment
Psychiatry
Personality Disorders
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Screening for which of the following disease is suggested in pre placement medical examination before employment in dye industry:
Prior to placement in dye industry, medical examination should be done to screen for asthma, skin, bladder and kidney diseases and precancerous lesions. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 753.
1
Bladder cancer
Anaemia
Tuberculosis
Hypeension
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Which of the following is not useful in management of meconium aspiration syndrome: March 2011
Ans. C: Coicosteroids I/V fluids and oxygen are needed for mild distress and ventilatory suppo for severe cases of meconium aspiration syndrome Antibiotic coverage is needed as meconium invites infection
3
Oxygen
Ventilatory suppo
Coicosteroids
Antibiotics
Pediatrics
null
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Eplerenone is:
Ans. D. All of theseEplerenone like spironolactone is aldosterone antagonist. It is potassium sparing diuretic and can cause hyperkalemia.
4
Aldosterone antagonist
Can cause hyperkalemia
Diuretic
All of these
Pharmacology
Diuretic
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Feature of early dumping syndrome is
(A) Occurs immediately after meals FEATURES OF EARLY AND LATE DUMPING EarlyLate* Incidence5-10%5%* Relation to mealsAlmost immediateSecond hour after meal* Durations of attack30-40 minutes30-40 minutes* ReliefLying downFood* Aggravated byMore foodExercise* Precipitating factorFood, especiallyAs early dumping carbohydrate-rich & wet* Major symptomsEpigastric fullness, sweating, light- headedness, tachycardiaTremor, faintness, prostration, colic, sometimes diarrhoea
1
Occurs immediately after meals
Relieved with food
Aggravated by exercise
Symptoms are tremors, faintness, prostration
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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A 6 year old male patient came for a routine dental checkup. Patient is a known case of autism. Intraoral examination reveals restoration with right mandibular first molar. Radiographic finding suggests secondary caries visible beneath the restoration. This child will be considered under which of the following category?
Caries-Risk Assessment Form for Children 6 Years Old or Younger
3
High risk
Low risk
Moderate risk
Very high risk
Dental
null
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The most sensitive investigation for the diagnosis of asymptomatic Chlamydial infection is:
Ligase chain reaction (LCR) or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) are the most sensitive NAA methods. Isolation of C trachomatis has been the gold standard for diagnosis, but it is clear that it is less sensitive than specific nucleic acid amplification (NAA) assays. Culture is usually performed using idoxuridine or cycloheximide treated McCoy cells. C trachomatis inclusions contain glycogen and are stainable with iodine Serodiagnosis not helpful for most genital infections. Detection of IgM antibodies against C trachomatis is helpful in cases of infant pneumonitis. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 39. Chlamydia. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
1
Ligase Chain Reaction
Serodiagnosis
Iodine Staining
Culture
Microbiology
null
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Intraductal papillary mucin neoplasm is precursor of-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ductal adenocarcinoma Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN1 o IPMN is a papillary neoplasm that arises within the main pancreatic duct (MPD) or its branches. o IPMN is characterized by i) Intraductal, papillomatous growth pattern ii) Excessive mucin secretion iii) Excessive mucin secretion results in progressive ductal dilatation and cyst formation o IPMNs are most commonly localized to the head of pancreas, but they may occur at any site along the pancreatic ductal system. o IPMTs are premalignant and may histologically demonstrate areas ranging from hyperplasia to carcinoma within a single tumor. o IPMTs which is positive for MUC 2 (Intestinal-type secretory mucin) may form an adenocarcinoma (ductal adenocarcinoma).
3
Mucinous cystic neoplasm
Mucinous non-cystic neoplasm
Ductal adenocarcinoma
Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm
Pathology
null
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Which among the following statements is true regarding posts in Endodontics
null
2
They strengthen the tooth structure
Provide retention for the core
They stabilize a periodontally compromised tooth
Posts preserve the remaining tooth structure
Dental
null
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lesion at spinal sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve leads to loss of ?
3 pas of trigeminal nucleus : mesenchephelic sensory nucleus : position sense of eye , mandiblle, tongue main sensory nucleus= touch spinal sensory nucleus = pain temperature ipsilaterally ref : bd chaurasia
4
touch
position sensation
contralateral pain
ipsilateral temperature
Anatomy
All India exam
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single
Left anterior descending aery is a branch of
Ascending aoa Right coronary aery Left coronary aery SA Nodal aery AV Nodal Aery Posterior Interventricular Aery (PIVA) Anterior Interventricular Aery (AIVA) OR Left anterior descending aery Circumflex Aery AIVA supplies the anterior 2/3rd of interventricular septum PIVA supplies the posterior 1/3rd of interventricular septum
3
Ascending aoa
Right coronary aery
Left coronary aery
Circumflex aery
Anatomy
FMGE 2017
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"Rail Road pattern" in Neuroimaging is seen in :-
Powine stain is in the distribution of the first branch of the trigeminal nerve is a/w ipsilateral rail road pattern (also known as tram track pattern) of intracranial calcification and glaucoma. -presentation is with contralateral hemiparesis , focal seizures and/or intellectual disability features of Sturge:- weber syndrome includes (a) intracranial calcifications in left hemisphere on CT. ; and (b)Hemi-facial angioma or po wine stain
2
Tuberous sclerosis
Sturge weber syndrome
Ataxia Telengiectasia
Neurofibromatosis
Pediatrics
Neurocutaneous syndromes
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Which of the following produces enterotoxin-
All correct . Initially, when this and coming next questions were framed (AI 95), the best answer was shigella dysentriae because at that time new shigella enterotoxins were not discovered. . But, with discovery of new enterotoxins it is clear that all four shigella can produce enterotoxin (exotoxin) - Read text below. SHIGELLA TOXINS . Shigella dysenteriae type I forms a toxin (shiga toxin). . It is the earliest example of an exotoxin produced by a Gram negative bacilli. . Shigella has three type of toxic activity 1) Neurotoxicity Primary sites of action are blood vessels of the CNS, not the nervous tissue. Neurological effects are secondary. 2) Enterotoxicity . There are two enterotoxins - Sh. ET -1 ---> Is restricted almost exclusively S. flexneri 2a - encoded by chromosome - Sh. Et - 2 --> More widely distributed to all shigella - encoded by plasmid. . Both these enterotoxins alter electrolyte transpo by gut segment in vitro and cause net fluid secretion in ligated ileal loops in vivo. 3) Cytotoxicity . It is due to production of Shiga toxin (verocytotoxin) which is similar to VT1 expressed by EHEC. . It is produced by shigella dysentriae type 1. . Genes encoding shiga toxin are located on chromosome, while the VT1 of EHEC is phage-encoded. . Toxin constits of two subunits - b Subunits, helps is binding and A subunit which has the active poion of toxin. Subunit 'A' is divided into A1 and A2 fragment. A l fragments inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating 60s ribosome. Remember . The major factor in the pathogenicity of shigella is its ability to penetrate and multiply in colonic mucosa. . Invasive propey is related to the presence of large plasmids coding for the outer membrane protein responsible for cell penetration - Virulence marker antigen. Detection of VMA by ELISA serves as a virulence test for shigella, as for enteroinvasive E. col i. . Invasive propey of the bacillis can be demonstrated by its ability to penetrate cultured HeLa or Hep - 2 cells. . Majority of lesions occur in distal colon. . Enterotoxins are produced by all four type of shigellae.
4
Sh. dysenteriae
Sh. sonnei
Sh. flexneri
All
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following is related to 'NARP'?
Neurogenic weakness, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa (NARP) is characterized by moderate diffuse cerebral and cerebellar atrophy and symmetric lesions of the basal ganglia. The substitution of one nucleotide in the mitochondrial DNA at position 8993 gives rise to a maternally inherited syndrome of sensory NARP. The mutation creates a defective ATPase-6 of complex V of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. When >95% of mtDNA molecules are mutant, a more severe clinical neuroradiologic and neuropathologic picture (Leigh syndrome) emerges. Ref: Skorecki K., Mandel H. (2012). Chapter e18. Mitochondrial DNA and Heritable Traits and Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
4
Glycogen storage diseases
Lipid storage disease
Protein
Mitochondria
Biochemistry
null
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Nerve associated with pharyngeal cleft is derived from
Nerves of pharyngeal cleft - pretrematic nerve Eg: chorda tympani, tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve. Ganglia are derived from neural crest cells Thus, nerves of pharyngeal clefts are derived from Neural crest cells.
1
Neural crest cells
Mesoderm
Neural plate ectoderm
Notochord
Anatomy
General Embryology 2
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Where is bruit heard in thyroid gland in Toxicosis?
Ans. (a) Upper poleRef: Schwartz principles of surgery, 10th edition, Page 1531* At the level of insertion of superior thyroid artery due to increased blood flow the Bruit is heard at upper pole
1
Upper pole
Lower pole
Middle pole
Lateral side
Surgery
Thyroid Gland
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Feilised ovum is embedded in the endometrium at about which day after feilization :
Eight day
4
Second day
Fouh day
Sixth day
Eight day
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Structure passing along the aorta in the diaphragmatic opening -
Aortic opening -        Level- T12 -        At osseoaponeurosis between right and left crus -        Structures transmitted    Aorta    Thoracic duct    Azygos vein
1
Thoracic duct
Sympathetic duct
Greater splanchnic nerve
Lesser splanchnic nerve
Anatomy
null
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Alpha helix is stabilized by?
Secondary Structure includes * Alpha helix * Beta pleated sheet * Beta bend or turn * Alpha chain in collagen (not alpha helix) Structure Bonds Primary structure Covalent/amide/peptide bond Secondary structure Hydrogen bonds Teiary structure Disulphide, Hydrogen, Hydrophobic and Ionic bond Quaternary structure Hydrogen, hydrophobic and ionic bond
4
Disulfide linkage
Covalent bonding
Hydrophobic interactions
Hydrogen bonds
Biochemistry
Proteins bonds and structure
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Plasma volume is measured by ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Evans blue
2
Inulin
Evans blue
Mannitol
D2O
Physiology
null
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A mixture of rain and snow is called –
null
4
Glaze
Frost
Shower
Sleet
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Type I Respiratory failure is seen in
(B) Emphysema # RESPIRATORY FAILURE may be classified as hypoxic or hypercapnic and may be either acute or chronic.# Hypoxemic respiratory failure (Type I) is characterized by a Pa02of less than 60 mmHg with a normal or low PaCO2.> Most common form of respiratory failure, and it can be associated with virtually all acute diseases of the lung, which generally involve fluid filling or collapse of alveolar units.> Some examples of Type I respiratory failure are cardiogenic or noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, pneumonia, and pulmonary hemorrhage..> Common causes of Type I (hypoxemic) respiratory failure Pneumonia Pulmonary edema Pulmonary fibrosis Asthma Pneumothorax Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary arterial hypertension Pneumoconiosis Granulomatous lung diseases Cyanotic congenital heart disease Bronchiectasis Adult respiratory distress syndrome Fat embolism syndrome Kyphoscoliosis Obesity# Hypercapnic respiratory failure (Type II) is characterized by a PaCO2 of more than 50 mm Hg.> Hypoxemia is common in patients with hypercapnic respiratory failure who are breathing room air.> The pH depends on the level of bicarbonate, which, in turn, is dependent on the duration of hypercapnia.> Common etiologies include drug overdose, neuromuscular disease, chest wall abnormalities, and severe airway disorders < e.g., asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)# Common causes of Type II (hypercapnic) respiratory failure Chronic bronchitis and emphysema (COPD) Severe asthma Drug overdose Poisonings Myasthenia gravis Polyneuropathy Poliomyelitis Primary muscle disorders Porphyria Cervical cordotomy Head and cervical cord injury Primary alveolar hypoventilation Obesity hypoventilation syndrome Pulmonary edema Adult respiratory distress syndrome Myxedema Tetanus Guillain-Barre syndrome
2
Anaemia
Emphysema
Pulmonary oedema
Adult respiratory distress syndrome
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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Killian's Dehiscence is seen at the level of:
Killian dehiscence also known as "Gateway of tears'' M/C site for esophageal tear (perforation) In posterior pharyngeal wall the inferior constrictor muscle is divide into two pa thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus. Thyropharyngeus has oblique fibers Cricopharyngeus has Transverse fibers. And that creates a triangular space. This is anatomical week space is known as Killian dehiscence.
3
Superior Constrictor
Middle constrictor
Inferior Constrictor
Thyroepiglottis
ENT
FMGE 2019
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A old lady comes to you with history of fall in washroom and pain in gluteal region, limb is in lateral rotation. you did a X-ray pelvis which is found normal, Pain persists even after 24 hours, next step is?
Simple X-rays (anteroposterior and lateral) of the hip diagnose fracture in the majority of cases. In patients with pain in the hip and an inability to weight-bear with no fracture apparent on plain X-rays, fuher investigation is required. MRI is the most sensitive and specific to diagnose an occult hip fracture, although CT is often readily accessible and sufficient to detect most fractures of the femoral neck or elsewhere in the pelvic ring. If MRI is not available rapidly, CT is preferred. Occult fractures are detected in 50% of patients with normal X-rays and ongoing pain that prevents weight-bearing with additional imaging. Bone scans could be considered if MRI or CT scans are not available.
4
Closed reduction under general anesthesia
Rules out the possibility of a fracture, so send the patient home with analgesics for pain
Bone scan within the next 72 hours
MRI in 24 hours
Orthopaedics
Pelvis and Hip Injury
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Renal transplantation is most commonly done in:
Ans. (a) Chronic glomerulonephritisRef: Bailey and Love 26th edition, Page 1423Most common causes of renal failure and indications for transplant* Diabetes* Hypertension* Glomerulonephritis* PCKD* Renal Vascular disease* Pyleonephritis
1
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Bilateral staghorn calculus
Horse shoe kidney
Oxalosis
Surgery
Transplantation
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Gower's maneuver is classically seen in:
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2915-2985, Chai 8/e p 595-597)Gowers' sign indicates weakness of the proximal muscles, especially of the lower limb. It can be seen in Duchenne or Becker Muscular dystrophy, centronuclear myopathy and myotonic dystrophy.
3
Cerebral palsy
Friedreich's ataxia
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Parkinsonism
Pediatrics
Musculo Skeletal Disorders
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Which of the following is secondary lesion?
Skin Lesion Primary Special Depending on size <0.5cm >0.5cm Comedones-Acne <1cm >1cm Wheals- Uicaria(are transient hives). Flat Macule Patch Burrows-scabies Solid raised Papule Plaque - if horizontal diameter more Nodule - if veical diameter more Fluid filled Vesicle Bullae Pus filled Pustule Abscess D/t extravasation of blood Petechiae Purpura Ecchymosis i.e. >1cm Secondary lesions are lesions which develop over primary lesions. Eg. Scales. A flat plate or flake of stratum corneum. Types collarette - fine, peripherally attached and centrally detached scale at the edge of an inflammatory lesion Furfuraceous or pityriasiform - fine and loose. Ichthyotic - large and polygonal.
3
Papule
Bulla
Scale
Macule
Dental
Skin lesions
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When does surfactant production stas in the lungs of a fetus?
Surfactant production stas between 20 and 24 weeks. It appears in amniotic fluid between 28 and 32 week. Mature levels of pulmonary surfactant are usually present after 35 weeks. At 20 weeks of gestation, fetus has the capability to survive outside the uterus. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition By Wiiliam F Ganong, Page 656; Foundations of Maternal and Pediatric Nursing By Lois White, 3rd Edition, Page 9; Pediatric Thoracic Surgery By Dakshesh Parikh, Page 24.
1
28 weeks
32 weeks
34 weeks
36 weeks
Physiology
null
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Vaginal atresia is associated with:
Vaginal atresia is associated with uterine atresia and syndrome is called as Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome Surgery done is: Unification surgery (Strassman) where an incision is made over the uterus and the 2 horns are sutured together to form a single cavity. After such a surgery: if woman conceives she should be taken up for elective LSCS at 38 weeks of gestation. These days hysteroscopic metroplasty is being done.
1
Uterine atresia
Exostrophy of bladder
Ovarian atrophy
Imperforate hymen
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A 75-year old woman with chronic atrial fibrillation presented to the hospital with a 2-day of colicky abdominal pain. The physical examination revealed hypoactive bowel sounds and diffuse abdomina tenderness. Laboratory tests showed a white cell count of 19,400 per cubic millimeter with 92 /o neutrophils, a blood urea nitrogen level of 42 mg per deciliter (15 jimol per liter) and a syrum creatinine level of 3.0 mg per deciliter (267 per liter). The common cause for this problem would be-
Acute occlusion of the superior mesenteric aery (SMA) causes extensive bowel necrosis, resulting in a poor prognosis with an extremely high moality rate. As a result, the residual thrombus disappeared and all branches of the SMA became well visualized. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 790
2
Occlusion of the poal vein
Occlusion of the superior mesenteric vessel
Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric vessel
Perforation of the duodenum back.
Medicine
Miscellaneous
689b7012-8ffa-4b07-91bb-2a35ea6400ac
single
The characteristic "sulfur grains"of actinomycosis are composed chiefly of
null
1
Organisms
Neutrophils and monocytes
Monocytes and lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Medicine
null
b8fee47a-5b07-472a-bf12-a5388a1d68ea
single
A 21 year old lady who is on an oral contraceptive pill presents with light brown pigmentation of the malar eminences. What is the likely diagnosis?
Melasma is light brown pigmentation of the skin which is harmless. They are gradually blotchy macular hyperpigmentation especially of the malar surfaces, chin or forehead. Origin can be pregnancy related to the use of Oral Contraceptives. A good number of cases are idiopathic. They are self limiting after pregnancy and when OCP is discontinued. Ref: In a Page: Signs and Symptoms By Scott Kahan, 2004, Pages 81-82
3
Haemochromatosis
Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
Melasma
Melanoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
596a95cd-cb16-43a0-b362-732a49666338
single
Aggregates of 'tau protein' seen in Hippocampus of an elderly man is
Neurofibrillary tangles (Disease: Alzeihmer's disease)
2
Miculicz cells
Neurofibrillary'tangles
Senile plaques
Alcoholic/ Mallory hyaline bodies
Pathology
null
867a01ba-9ba2-46e5-bd2b-99a5376698c6
multi
A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with an indirect inguinal hernia. During an open hernioplasty (in contrast to a laparoscopic procedure), the spermatic cord and the internal abdominal oblique muscles are identified. Which component of the spermatic cord is derived from the internal abdominal oblique muscle?
The contents of the spermatic cord include ductus deferens; testicular, cremasteric, and deferential arteries; the pampiniform plexus of testicular nerve; the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve; the cremasteric nerves; and the testicular sympathetic plexus and also lymph vessels. The cremaster muscle and fascia originate from the internal abdominal oblique muscle. The external spermatic fascia is derived from the aponeurosis and fascia of the external oblique muscle. The tunica vaginalis is a continuation of the processus vaginalis (from parietal peritoneum) that covers the anterior and lateral sides of the testes and epididymis. The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the transversalis fascia. The dartos tunic consists of a blending of the adipose (Camper) and membranous (Scarpa) layers of the superficial fascia, with interspersed smooth muscle fibers.
2
External spermatic fascia
Cremaster muscle
Tunica vaginalis
Internal spermatic fascia
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
2791eb1e-0077-4b34-b099-22deb52339d0
single
As per MCI regulations, a medical practitioner should maintain the records of in patients for a minimum period of
(Refer: Rajesh Bardale - Principles of Forensic medicine & Toxicology, 1st edition, pg no: 32) Every physician shall maintain the medical records pertaining to his / her indoor patients for a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of the treatment in a standard proforma laid down by the Medical Council of India
2
2 years
3 years
4 years
5 years
Unknown
null
f6efb07c-78b3-4b4b-b6f3-5cec518a6675
single
True statement regarding Prostate gland:
Ans. (c) Glandular tissue and fibromuscular stromaRef: Gray's anatomy, 39th ed./1302* The anterior part of the prostate is composed mainly of fibromuscular stroma, which is continuous with detrusor fibers.* Toward the apex of the gland, this fibromuscular tissue blends with striated muscle from the levator.* Pubosprostatic ligaments also blend with this area.
3
Only glandular tissue
Glandular tissue covered with transitional epithelium
Glandular tissue and fibromuscular stroma
Entire gland is composed of collagen
Anatomy
Male Genital System
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multi
Thickness of wax in inter occlusal records
null
2
9 mm
2 mm
2 cm
10 mm
Dental
null
5a88c8f2-10b2-4fd9-9acc-c3fbab6cd65a
single
The drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia is
Refer katzung 11e 243,244 KDT 6/e p517 Adenosine is drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia termination Verapamil is a drug of choice for prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and for the management of sustained supraventricular tachycardia
1
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Digoxin
Phenytoin
Anatomy
General anatomy
71b5bb49-f0c5-4a3c-8360-958501d70216
single
XDR-TB is defined as:
XDR -TB - resistant to - (1) INH & rifampicin (2) Any fluoroquinolone (3) 1 of 3 injectable drug (Amikacin, kanamycin or Capreomycin) MDR-TB - Resistance to INH & Rifampicin.
4
Resistance to at least INH & rifampicin +/- other drugs
Resistance to any of the 3 first line drugs
Resistance to all 1st line drugs & any 3 second line injectable drugs
Resistance to at least INH & rifampicin + any quinolones + at least 1 injectable 2nd line drug
Medicine
Tuberculosis
8b77b044-f0c1-4dbb-b3ba-cd03b2d95d1c
multi
Which of the following is not true about Annual Infection rate of tuberculosis ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1% increase in AIR is equivalent to 70 new cases of TB Annual Infection Rate (also known as Tuberculin conversion index) o AIR is the % of population under study who will be newly infected by M. tuberculosis amongst the noninfected of the preceeding survey during the course of one year. o It reflects the annual risk of being infected (or reinfected) in a given community. o In other words, it expresses the attacking force of TB in a community. o It is considered one of the best indicator to evaluvate the TB problem and its trend. o In developing countries, every I% of of annual risk of infection is said to correspond to 50 new cases of smear positive pulmonary TB, per year for 1,00,000 general population. o The higher the rate the greater the problem. o Good treatment programme lowers the risk of TB infection in the community.
1
1% increase in AIR is equivalent to 70 new cases of TB
It is one of the best indicator for evaluating tuberculosis problem and its trend
It expresses attacking force of Tuberculosis in community
It is 1.7 % in India
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
5d4e3974-c3fe-45db-b6ae-6d12619cca13
multi
The coagulation profile in a 13-year old girl with Menorrhagia having von Willebrands disease is
In Von willebrand disease there will be abnormal aPTT and normal PT. Activated Paial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) Test This test measures how long it takes for blood to clot. It measures the clotting ability of factors VIII (8), IX (9), XI (11), and XII (12). If any of these clotting factors is too low, it will take longer than normal for the blood to clot. The results of this test will show a longer clotting time among some people with VWD. However, the results of this test will be normal among people with mild VWD. Prothrombin Time (PT) Test This test also measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It measures primarily the clotting ability of factors I (1), II (2), V (5), VII (7), and X (10). If the level of any one of these factors is too low, it will take longer than normal for the blood to clot. The results of this test will be normal among most people with VWD. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
1
Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT
Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT
Prolongation of both PT and PTT
Prolongation of thrombin time
Pediatrics
Hematology
f6311107-fe73-47f9-9ff7-05e6808b405c
multi
Bat is the reservior for,
null
2
Japanese encephalitis
Ebola
Zika
Malaria
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c2eb7540-e6b5-495e-8204-cceca3f08676
single
Pouch of Douglas is between:September 2006, March 2013
Rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas) is the most dependent pa of the entire peritoneal cavity (when the patient is in the standing position), hence it frequently becomes the site for the accumulation of blood (from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy) or pus (from a ruptured pelvic appendicitis or in gonococcal peritonitis).Because the pouch lies directly behind the posterior fornix of the vagina, it is commonly violated by misguided nonsterile instruments, which pierce the wall of the posterior fornix in a failed attempt at an illegal aboion.A needle may be passed into the pouch through the posterior fornix in the procedure known as culdocentesis.Surgically, the pouch may be entered in posterior colpotomy. The interior of the female pelvic peritoneal cavity may be viewed for evidence of disease through an endoscope.
4
Rectum and Sacrum
Uterus and Urinary bladder
Bladder and pubis symphysis
Rectum and Uterus
Anatomy
null
4279801b-8afd-4b2f-b1a3-3af5aaf8551a
single
True about Octreotide are all, EXCEPT:
Octreotide is a synthetic analogue of Somatostatin which is administered sub-cutaneously, intra-muscularly or intra-venously but not available in the oral form. Ref: Basic and Clinical Pharmacology By Beram G. Katzung ,10th Edition, Pages 605, 1024; K D Tripathi Textbook of Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 217, 622
1
Is active orally
Suppresses growth Hormone secretion
Useful for variceal bleeding
Useful in secretory diarrhea
Pharmacology
null
e85fc6c9-2604-43e5-bd33-7d7f84c4cbe1
multi
FAST USG focuses on all of the following areas except-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pleura FAST stands for Focused Abdominal Sonar for Traymao technique whereby USG is used to assess the presence of blood, either in the abdominal cavity or in the pericardium.o It is a non- invasive bed - side test,o It focuses only on four areas:PericardiumSpleenHepaticPelvic
3
Splenic
Hepatic
Pleura
Pelvic
Radiology
Ultrasonography, CT, and MRI
0d0e4192-fbc9-428f-ba4e-e66877f26a66
multi
Maximum Biological value is for
null
1
Egg
Soya
Milk
Rice
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
d7aee94d-4732-4893-ada5-adea7ec1cd9b
single
Which of the following viral infections is associated with highest risk of progression to fulminant disease and acute liver failure:
Answer is D (HDV/HBV Superinfection) HDV superinfection of chronic Hepatitis B is associated with a 20 percent risk of progression to fulminant hepatitis and Acute Hepatic Failure. Feature HAV HCV HEV HBV Fulminant Infection 0.1% 0.1% 1-2 % HBV : 1 % (Acute Liver Failure) in HEV pregnant p HBV/HDV Co-infection : 5 % Women: 20% HDV/HBV Superinfection: 20 % Tendency to cause acute liver failure (fulminant infection) is highest with HDV Superinfection on Chronic Hepatitis B and Hepatitis E infection in pregnant women (up to 20 percent) Note: Hepatitis E is the most common cause of Acute Liver Failure in India Hepatitis B remains the most common viral agent responsible for Acute Liver Failure Worldwide Although Hepatitis E has a higher tendency to cause fulminant infection (1-2 %) in comparison to Hepatitis B infection (Up-to 1%), Hepatitis B is the most common cause of fulminant infection overall since the overall incidence of Hepatitis B Hepatitis is higher than the incidence of Hepatitis E Hepatitis Tendency to cause acute liver failure (fidminant infection) is highest with HDV Superinfection on Chronic Hepatitis B and Hepatitis E infection in Pregnant women (up to 20 percent)
4
HEV infection
HBV Infection
HBV/HDV coinfection
HDV /HBV Superinfection
Medicine
null
9eda33f5-2c66-4471-b08a-fa1ec05d3140
single
Which of the following cancers tends to metastatize to the lymphnodes -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pappilary carcinoma Papillary Ca thyroido PTC are the most common type of thyroid carcinomao More common in females with female : male ratio of 2 : 1.o Mean age at presentation is 30 to 40 yearso Most common presentation is a painless nodule in neck or a cervical lymph node (lateral aberrant thyroid)o Spread to the lymph nodes is common but blood borne metastasis is unusual.o Multiple foci may occur in the same lobe as the primary tumor or, less commonly in both lobes (this may be due to lymphatic spread in the rich intrathyroidal lymph plexus, or due to multicentric growth)o Diagnosis is confirmed by FNA biopsy of the thyroid mass or lymph node.Important points about thyroid malignancy: Least MalignantPapillary CaMost MalignantAnaplastic CaMC type of thyroid cancer after radiationPapillary Ca*Latent period for radiation induced thyroid CaAbout 30 yrs*Type of thyroid cancer assoc with MEN syndromeMedullary Ca*Thyroid Ca assoc with amyloidosisMedulalry Ca*Thyroid Ca assoc with dystrophic calcificationPapillary*Psammoma bodies are seen inPapillary Ca*Orphan Annie-eyed nuclei are seen inPapillary Ca*Thyroid cancer occurring in longstanding multinodular goitreFollicular Ca*Carcinoma derived from the C cells of thyroidMedullary*
2
Follicular Carcinoma
Pappilary carcinoma
Medullary Carcinoma
Thyroid Lymphoma
Surgery
Thyroid Malignancies
64ae86d8-b383-440c-ac0c-f2bccf77bd99
single
Impoant intermediate product of biosynthesis of fatty acid is
Carboxylation of Acetyl CoA The first step in the fatty acid synthesis is the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form malonyl CoA. The acetyl CoA carboxylase is not a pa of the multienzyme complex. But it is the rate-limiting enzyme. Biotin, a member of B complex vitamins, is necessary for this reaction. The enzyme is allosterically regulated, the major effectors being citrate (positive) and palmitoyl CoA (negative). The reaction is similar to carboxylation of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate. The elongation of the fatty acid occurs by addition of 2 carbon atoms at a time. But the 2-carbon units are added as 3-carbon, malonyl units. The whole reaction sequence occurs while the intermediates are bound to ACP (acyl carrier protein).Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 137
2
Cholesterol
Malonyl CoA
Acetyl CoA
Thioesterases
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
b7d8e9b0-fee2-4a8c-986d-445fae0ce902
single
A 6-year-old boy presented to ENT OPD with recurrent UI, mouth breathing and impaired hearing. The boy was diagnosed as having adenoid hyperophy for which adenoidectomy was done and grommet inseed; 1 week after surgery the boy was again brought to the OPD with toicollis. Which of the following are true
ADENOIDECTOMY COMPLICATIONS:- Grisel syndrome:- Patient complains of neck pain and develops toicollis. Mostly it is due to spasm of paraspinal muscles, but can be due to atlantoaxial dislocation requiring cervical collar and even traction. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:- 432
4
Adenoidectomy should not have been done in the patient as adenoids would have spontaneously regressed
Toicollis is not a complication after adenoid surgery and it is a sheer coincidence
The condition is most common in children with Down's syndrome
Atlantoaxial subluxation is the cause for his toicollis
ENT
Pharynx
d7dae56e-3a9e-4e02-a77c-95d2148b522b
multi
Which of the following drug is contraindicated in G-6PD deficiency
(Primaquine): (878-79- Harrison 18th edition; 1025-Davidson 21st)Drugs That Carry Risk of Clinical Hemolysis in Persons With G6PD Deficiency Definite RiskPossible RiskDoubtful RiskAntimalarialPrimaquineDapsone/chlorproguanilChloroquineQuinineSulphonamides / sulphonesSulfamethoxazoleOthersDapsoneSulfasalazineSulfisoxazoleAntibacterial/ antibioticsCotrimoxazole Nalidixic acid Nitrofurantoin NiridazoleCiprofloxacinNorfloxacinChloramphenicol p-Aminosalicylic acidAntipyretic/ AnalgesicAcetanilidePhenazopyridineAcetylsalicylic acid high dose (>3g/d)Acetylsalicylic acid (<3 g/d)AcetaminophenPhenacetinOthersNaphthaleneMethylene blueVitamin K analogues Ascorbic acid > 1g RasburicaseDoxorubicinProbenecid Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiencyClinical features* Acute drug-induced haemolysis to (e.g)Analgesics:aspirin, phenacetinAntimalarials: primaquine, quinine, chloroqine, pyrimethamineAntibiotics: sulphonamides, nitrofuration, ciprofloxacinMiscellaneousrquinidine, probenecid, vitamin K, dapsoneChronic compensated haemolysisInfection or acute illnessNeonatal jaundice: may be a feature of the B enzymeFavism, i.e. acute haemolysis after ingestion of the broad been Vicia faba* Laboratory featuresNon spherocytic intravascular haemolysis during an attackThe blood film will show:Bite cells (red cells with surface blistering of the membrane)Blister cells (red cells with surface blistering of the membrane)Irregularly shaped small cellsPolychromasia reflecting the reticulocytosisDenatured haemoglobin visible as Heinz bodies within the red cell cytoplasm, if stained with a supravital stain such as methyl violetG6PD levelCan be indirectly assessed by screening methods which usually depend upon the decreased ability to reduce dyesDirect assessment of G6PD is made in those with low screening valuesCare must be taken close to an acute haemolyti episode because reticulocytes may have higher enzyme levels and give rise to a false normal result.
1
Primaquine
Pytimethamine
Chloroquine
Artether
Medicine
Drugs
5082fe2d-8a6a-4d34-8209-9ceabc1be45f
single
Following statements are true about Mifepristone except:
Mifepristone: Progesterone antagonist with paial agonist activity. Administration of this drug to females early in pregnancy usually results in aboion of the fetus due to interference with the progesterone needed to maintain pregnancy. Mifepristone is often combined with the prostaglandin analog misoprostol (administered orally or intravaginally) to induce uterine contractions. It is SPRM: selective progesterone receptor modulator. Its action are: Progesterone R antagonist in endometrium Glucocoicoid R antagonist Androgen antagonist Its uses can be remembered as:M - Morning after PillsI - Induction of aboionF - FibroidE - Endometriosis P R - Progesterone receptor + cancer( Breast cancer and meningioma) I S : Increased Steroids (Cushing syndrome) Tone
3
It is used for induction of aboion
It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator
It is a glucocoicoid receptor agonist
It is progesterone receptor antagonist in endometrium
Pharmacology
Osteoporosis, Sex Hormones and OCPs
2b0ebaad-a093-401d-ba92-0e2b239a9f5e
multi
A 30 year old manic patient was prescribed haloperidol one week back. For last two days he has become restless and kept pacing in the room for a day. One examination he was found to have tremors of hand. he is most likely suffering from-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Akathisia Akathisia o Restlessness, feeling of discomfo, agitation (complete desire to move about), but without anxiety. o Between 1-8 weeks of therapy. o Treatment --> Propranolol is DOC (central anticholinergic is alternative).
4
Anhedonia
Dystonia
Restless leg syndrome
Akathisia
Pharmacology
null
e1b5f88d-bba3-4155-95cd-1d2731e4ee61
single
The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except
FEMORAL CANAL:- Medial compament of the femoral sheath.Conical shape, wide above and narrow below.Contents:1. Lymph node of cloquet / Rosenmuller. The lymph node drains glans penis in males and clitoris in females.2. Lymphatics 3. Areolar tissue.The base or upper end of femoral canal is called femoral ring.FEMORAL RING:-Boundaries:- Ant: inguinal ligament. Post: pectineus and it's covering fascia. Medially: concave margin of lacunar ligament. Laterally: septum separating it from femoral vein. Inferior epigastric vessels closely related to the ring.The ring is closed by condensation of extraperitoneal connective tissue called femoral septum. {Reference: BDC 9E}
3
Femoral vein
Inguinal ligament
Femoral aery
Lacunar ligament
Anatomy
Lower limb
d021f75b-70e8-41ad-8112-15f1ee69350c
multi
AFP is increased in all conditions except?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Seminoma o Repeat from previous sessions.
2
Pregnancy
Seminoma
HCC
Lung carcinoma
Pathology
Hallmarks of Cancer
10c171e6-2a5d-403b-a1a1-d3b1c0887cf7
multi
True statement about transgenic mice -
Transgenic mice are generated by pronuclear injection of foreign DNA into fertilized mouse oocytes and subsequent transfer into the oviduct of pseudopregnant foster mothers. This process of generating transgenic animal would alter germ cell lines and be passed on to offsprings. So, the transgenic animals have the same genome as parents except for few (1 or more) genes that have been integrated or inactivated. This replacement of one gene in embryonic stem cell creates a heterozygous transgenic animals. The mating in 2 such animals will result in 25% homozygous offsprings. Careful breeding will establish a transgenic line in which all animals are homozygous for new genes.
4
Developed from DNA insertion into fertilized egg
Have same genome as parents except one or more genes
Homozygous are selected
All of these
Biochemistry
null
ed690f12-403d-4a3d-9f3e-bf28ee913bb9
multi
The neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic sympathetic fibers innervating sweat glands is: (Repeat)
Ans: C (Acetylcholine) Ref: Katznng, l0th edExplanation:* NE is the neurotransmilter of all postganglionic sympathetic fibers except the ones innervating the sweat glands, where acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter.Fig: Schematic diagram comparing some anatomic and neurotransmitter features of autonomic and somatic motor nerves. (ACh. acetylcholine; D, dopamine; Epi. epinephrine: NE. norepinephrine; N. nicotinic receptors: M. muscarinic receptors)Parasympathetic ganglia are present near the wall of the organ innervated.Some sympathetic postganglionic filters release acetylcholine or dopamine rather than norepinephrine.The adrenal medulla, a modified sympathetic ganglion, receives sympathetic preganglionic fibers and releases epinephrine and norepinephrine into the blood.The autonomic nervous system lends itself to division on anatomic grounds into two major portions: the sympathetic (thoracolumbar) division and the parasympathetic (craniosacral) division.The sympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the central nervous system through the thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves.The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the central nervous system through the cranial nerves (especially the third, seventh, ninth and tenth) and the third and fourth sacral spinal roots.Most of the sympathetic preganglionic fibers terminate in ganglia located in the paravertebral chains that lie on either side of the spinal column.The remaining sympathetic preganglionic fibers terminate in prevertehral ganglia, which lie in front of the vertebrae, usually on the surface of the aorta.From the ganglia, postganglionic sympathetic fibers run to the tissues innervated. Some preganglionic parasympathetic fibers terminate in parasympathetic ganglia located outside the organs innervated: the ciliary, ptery gopalatine, submandibular, otic, and several pelvic ganglia.The majority of parasympathetic preganglionic fibers terminate on ganglion cells distributed diffusely or in networks in the walls of the innervated organs.
3
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Pharmacology
Skin
1ab8f540-8b98-41f8-b504-4814fa43bf79
single
HIV - positive patient with a viral load of 750.000 copies of HIV RNA/ml and a total CD4 count of 50 is at an increased risk for a number of infectious diseases. For which of the following diseases the paitent has no added risk than an immune complete host?
A low CD4 count does not predict progression to AIDS but does indicate increased chance of oppounistic infection such as those listed. Kaposi's sarcoma, which has been linked to herpesvirus typ 8, pneumocystis, and mycobacterial disease are three of the most prevalent oppounistic infections. While HIV- positive patients contract pneumococcal pneumonia, they are probably at no more risk than the general population, as protection against pneumococcal disease is linked to the presence of anticapsular antibody.
1
Pneumocystic pneumonia
Mycobacterial disease
Kaposi's sarcoma
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Surgery
null
bc309843-4957-40c7-b6f3-fcafd5f7a4f6
single
Angle of tracheal bifurcation is increased in enlargement of:
Ans. Left atrium
4
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Left atrium
Radiology
null
b250d3ca-9346-4b16-a051-41daa7fd7b18
single
The pharmacokinetic propeies of a new drug are being studied in normal volunteers during phase I clinical trials. The volume of distribution and clearance determined in the first subject are 40 L and 2.0 L/hour, respectively. The half-life of the drug in this subject is approximately?
The half-life of a drug can be determined using the following equation: t1/2 = (0.693 x Vd)/Cl =0.693 X 40/2 = 13.86 ~14. Ref: Buxton I.L., Benet L.Z. (2011). Chapter 2. Pharmacokinetics: The Dynamics of Drug Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Elimination. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
3
2
6
14
21
Pharmacology
null
d637e2c8-fc11-4907-863d-be6117a19d99
single
Bacteria can transfer genetic information through all of the following methods except:
Genetic information can be transferred from one bacterium to another through three methods transformation, transduction and conjugation. Methods of transfer Mechanism Nature of DNA transferred Transformation Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another Any gene Transduction Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by bacteriophage Any gene in generalized transduction, only selected genes in specialized transduction Conjugation Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another through sex pilus Chromosomal or plasmid DNA Ref: Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan and Panicker, 6th Edition, Page 53 ; Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology By Parija, Pages 54-7
3
Through conjugation
Through bacteriophages
Through incorporation of pa of host DNA
By taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species
Microbiology
null
d08c7afa-6b44-4d31-b06a-040c3d72460a
multi
Feature of fungal corneal ulcer is/are all except:
C. Flat and mobile hypopyonThe hypopyon, if present, is thick and immobile, and may even have a convex upper surface- Parson 22nd/199"Common symptoms of a patient with a fungal keratitis may include pain, photophobia, conjunctival injection, tearing, discharge (usually mucopurulent) and foreign-body sensation'- www.healio.comMycotic Corneal Ulcer Khurana 6th/106-07The incidence of suppurative corneal ulcers caused by fungi has increased in the recent years due to injudicious use of antibiotics and steroids.The fungi more commonly responsible for mycotic corneal ulcers are Aspergillus (most common), Candida and FusariumSymptoms are similar to the central bacterial corneal ulcer, but in general they are less marked than the equal-sized bacterial ulcer and the overall course is slow and torpid.Signs: A typical fungal corneal ulcer has following salient featuresCorneal ulcer is dry-looking, greyish white, with elevated rolled out marginsDelicate feathery finger-like extensions are present into the surrounding stroma under the intact epithelium.A sterile immune ring (yellow line of demarcation) may be present where fungal antigen and host antibodies meetMultiple, small satellite lesions may be present around the ulcer.Usually a big hypopyon is present even if the ulcer is very small. Unlike bacterial ulcer, the hypopyon may not be sterile as the fungi can penetrate into the anterior chamber without perforation.Perforation in mycotic ulcer is rare but can occur.Corneal vascularization is conspicuously absent.Fungal Corneal Ulcer Parson 22nd/201Symptoms are much milder than the clinical signs would suggest. The slough in these ulcers is dry in appearance with feathery borders, surrounded by a yellow line of demarcation which gradually deepens into a gutter and there may also be a hypopyonAn immune ring (Wesseley) may be visible due to deposition of immune complexes and inflammatory cells around the ulcer. Satellite lesions may also be seen.There is marked ciliary and conjunctival congestion, but symptoms of pain, watering and photophobia are disproportionately less as compared to those in cases of bacterial corneal ulcers.Bacterial corneal ulcer: accumulation of purulent exudate on the cornea- Khurana 6th/ 100
3
Mucopurulent discharge may be present
Satellite lesion may be present around the ulcer
Flat and mobile hypopyon
Fungi can penetrate into the anterior chamber without perforation
Ophthalmology
Cornea
3f64b892-1e35-4cad-842b-a0f35795c5b0
multi
All the following statements are true about pertussis except:
Leucocytosis does not correlate with the severity of cough.
3
SAR is > 90%
There is no Subclinical or Chronic Carrier state
Leucocytosis correlates with the severity of cough
Doc is erythromycin
Medicine
null
c6315b36-0fa9-4a7f-8097-7b2db24509df
multi
What is the drug of choice for management of hypeension in Pheochromocytoma?
Preoperative patient preparation is essential for safe surgery. a- Adrenergic blockers (Phenoxybenzamine) should be initiated at relatively low doses (e.g. 5-10 mg orally three times per day) and increased as tolerated every few days. Adequate alpha blockade generally requires 7 days, with a typical final dose of 20-30 mg phenoxybenzamine three times per day.
1
Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Labetalol
Esmolol
Medicine
Disorders of Adrenal Gland
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Maxwell - Voigt model is to determine:
The simplest model that demonstrates the viscoelastic behavior is a Maxwell-Voigt model, which consists of a spring (S1) and a dashpot (D1) in series and a second set (S2 and D2) in parallel. Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 163
3
Elastic behavior
Plastic behavior
Viscoelastic behavior
All the above
Dental
null
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Werneks's encephalopathy is characterized by all except
*wernicke's encephalopathy is characterised by nystagmus ,opthalmoplegia due to 6th cranial nerve involvement,ataxia and confusion. Wernicke's encephalopathy is the presence of neurological symptoms caused by biochemical lesions of the central nervous system after exhaustion of B-vitamin reserves, in paicular thiamine (vitamin B1). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2775
3
Global confusion
Ataxia
Aphasia
Abducent nerve paralysis
Medicine
C.N.S
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An anaesthetic agent with boiling temperature more than 75 C
.
4
Ether
Halothane
Cyclopropane
Methoxyflurane
Anatomy
All India exam
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The earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is :
Tachycardia
1
Tachycardia
Oliguria
Postural hypotension
Low body temperature
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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Salter's pelvic osteotomy is done for treatment of-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., DDHTreatment of CDH/DDHo The aim of treatment in DDH is to achieve and maintain an early concentric reduction and maintain it until the hip becomes clinically stable and a round acetabulum cover it.o Treatment plan is according to the age1-6 months of agePavilk harness and/or Von-rosen splint are used to maintain the reduction. If dislocation persists, closed reduction or traction followed by casting is done.6-18 months of age Closed reduction or traction followed by casting. If closed reduction fails, open reduction followed by casting is recommended.18 months - 3years:- Open reduction with femoral shortening (if femoral site is involved) or salter asteotomy (if acetabulum is involved).3 - 8 yearsOpen reduction with femoral shortening with or without acetabular reconstructive osteotomy,o Acetabular reconstruction procedures areSalter s osteotomyChiari s pelvic displacement osteotomyPemberton s pericapsular osteotomy
3
CTEV
SCFE
DDH
None
Orthopaedics
Management In Orthopedics
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Two weeks after bih, a neonate develops sepsis, skin vesicles, and conjunctivitis. Over the next several days, the baby's condition deteriorates with development of seizures, cranial nerve palsies, and lethargy. The baby dies approximately one week after onset of symptoms. Which of the following infectious agents would most likely cause this clinical presentation?
This is the history of neonatal herpes that manifests as a generalized infection in the neonate. Most common cause is HSV2. HSV2 is the most common cause of genital herpes, which manifests as painful vesicular lesions that ulcerate. The site of latent infection is sacral nerve root ganglia.
2
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex
Rubella
Syphilis
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is LEAST likely to be accompanied by lymphocytosis in the peripheral blood? (NOT RELATED)
.
3
Viral infection
Fungal infection
Bacterial infection
Protozoal infection
Pharmacology
All India exam
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A patient had genital ulcer, with no blisters for which ASHA had given blue kit. After that patient presented with rash and fever. Which kit has to be given by ASHA to replace blue kit?
Patient has non herpetic genital ulcer (no blisters) for which blue kit was given to cover syphilis and chancroid. Patient presented with rash and fever suggestive allergy to pencillin present in blue kit. Now it has to be replaced with white kit that contains Doxycycline instead of penicillin. Blue kit : Injection benzathine penicillin(single dose) + T.Azithromycin 1g (single dose) White kit : T.Doxycycline 100 mg BD for 2 weeks + T.Azithromycin 1g single dose
3
Gray
Red
White
Yellow
Dental
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A 50 year old man known to have diabetes since many years presents with poor urinary stream, hesitancy, difficulty in micturition and failure to void completely. What is he most likely suffering from?
The above mentioned clinical features of poor urinary stream, hesitancy, difficulty in micturition and failure to void completely are consistent with both BPH and autonomic neuropathy. Since the the patient is diabetic, he would most likely be suffering from diabetic autonomic neuropathy. Ref: Harrison's Principles Of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 2165,2166; R Alagappan, Manual Of Practical Medicine, 3rd Edition, Page, 372, 373.
4
BPH
UTI
Atonic bladder
Autonomic neuropathy
Surgery
null
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In a rural clinic, a 3-year-old girl child is brought by her mother and is emaciated. Her hemoglobin was 5 g/dL. The girl also has edema over her knees and ankles with discrete rash on her knees, ankles and elbows. The most likely worm infestation causing these manifestations is:
a. Hookworm(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 1734-1735)Hookworm infestation:Leads to intestinal blood loss - iron deficiency anemia & malnutrition - growth retardationDermatitis referred to as ground itch when they penetrate human skin, manifests as vesiculation & edemaInfection with a zoonotic hookworm, especially A. braziliense cutaneous tracts of cutaneous larva migransCough occurs when larvae migrate through lungs 1 week after exposure; Eosinophilia is often seen
1
Hookworm
Roundworm
Whipworm
Pinworm
Pediatrics
General Considerations - Infectious Diseases
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who gave the repression as a defence mechanism
CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciousness in the form of dreams Thus by analyzing ones dreams we could understand the unconscious conflicts o Psychosexual stages of life o Freud divided development into 5 stages namely psycho sexual development o It is divivded namely oral , anal , phallic, latent, genital phase. o Conversion disorders conversion disorder is conveing a psychological pain to physical symptoms present physical symptoms which has some connection with unconscious conflict is called SYMBOLIZATION present physical symptoms which has some resemblance with illness in family members, which is called MODELLING patient has illness like neurological deficit but they have apparent in concern towards their own illness which is known as LA BELLE INDIFFERENCE main defense mechanism in conversion disorder is REPRESSION o Repression defence mechanism * REPRESSION is called QUEEN of defense mechanisms o COUCH and FREE ASSOSIATION * He introduced a technique called as a couch technique where he makes the patient lie on the couch, he asks the patient to speak from 'cabbages to kings. This method is called FREE ASSOSIATION. By allowing the patient to speak whatever that comes to their mind randomly so that by analyzing their thoughts we could understand the conflict in the unconscious. o Topographical theory of mind Freud gave topographical theory mind It is divided into pre conscious, unconscious, conscious Later he disregarded topographical theory of mind and gave structural theory of mind o Structural theory of mind It is divided into id, ego, super ego Id= instinctual desires like anger, hunger, sexual instinct Ego= function of mind to work based on ego to avoid guilt from super ego Super ego= based on moral principle, obtained from family members and relatives, teachers Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition pg no. 845
2
seligman
freud
lorenz
adler
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
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Which of the following organisms causes fastest food poisoning:
Ans. (a) Staph. AureusRef.: Harriosti 18th ed. / 128y Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. /198Bacterial Food PoisoningIncubation period, organismSymptomsCommon sources1-6 H Staphylococcus aureusNausea, vomiting, diarrheaHam, poultry, potato or egg salad, mayonnaise, cream pastriesBacillus cereusNausea, vomiting, diarrheaFried rice8-16 H Clostridium perfringensAbdominal cramps, diarrhea (vomiting rare)Beef, poultry, legumes, graviesB. cereusAbdominal cramps, diarrhea (Vomiting rare)Meats, vegetables, dried beans, cereals>16 H Vibrio choleraeWatery diarrheaShellfishEnterotoxigenic Escherichia coliWatery diarrheaSalads, cheese, meats, waterEnterohemor- rhagic E. coliBloody diarrheaGround beef, roast beef, salami, raw milk, raw vegetables, apple juiceSalmonella spp.Inflammatory diarrheaBeef, poultry, eggs, dairy productsCampylobacter jejuniInflammatory diarrheaPoultry, raw milkShigella spp.DysenteryPotato or egg salad, lettuce, raw vegetablesVibrio parahaemolyticusDysenteryMollusks, crustaceans
1
Staph. Aureus
Clostridium Perfringins
Bacillus Cereus
Vibrio cholerae
Microbiology
Staphylococci
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A 32-year-old man comes to physician complaining of excessive sleepiness for the past several months. He repos falling asleep while dealing with customers, had an almost accident when he fell asleep while driving The patient repos that he occasionally hears voices while falling asleep and finds himself "temporarily frozen" and unable to move on awakening.Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
The above history is suggestive of narcolepsy as patient complains of: -Excessive daytime sleepiness -Hypnagogic hallucinations(on falling asleep) -Sleep paralysis * Hypocretin, also known as orexin, is released from the hypothalamus and regulates wakefulness and arousal. * Hypocretin-1 deficiency, measured cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), is now a pa of DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for narcolepsy. * Hypocretin deficiency is considered to be less than 110 pg/ml in CSF. Treatment- Modafinil(DOC) Advise patient not to do any dangerous activity like driving and swimming as he might sleep in between and can harm him
4
Clonazepam
Continuous positive airway pressure
Melatonin
Modafinil
Psychiatry
Sleep Disorders
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YAG laser wave is: March 2004
Ans. A i.e. Colorless
1
Colorless
Red
Green
Blue
Ophthalmology
null
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Pyrimidine metabolism end product
Unlike the low solubility products of purine catabolism, catabolism of the pyrimidines forms highly water-soluble products-- CO2, NH3, b-alanine, and b-aminoisobutyrate (Figure 33-12). Humans transaminate b-aminoisobutyrate to methylmalonate semialdehyde, which then forms succinyl-CoA (see Figure 19-2). Excretion of b-aminoisobutyrate increases in leukemia and severe x-ray radiation exposure due to increased destruction of DNA. However, many persons of Chinese or Japanese ancestry routinely excrete b-aminoisobutyrate.Ref: Harpers Illustrated Biochemistry, 30th edition, page no: 355
3
Urea
Uric acid
Beta alanine
Allantoin
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Phagocytosis of TB bacilli does not occur because of -
Virulent strains of tubercle bacilli form microscopic "serpentine cord" in which acid fast bacilli are arranged in parallel chains, cord formation is correlated with virulence. A "cord factor" has been extracted from virulent bacilli with petroleum ether. It inhibits migration of leukocytes, causes chronic granulomas, and can serve as an immunologic "adjuvant"
3
Wax D
Muramyl dipeptide
Cord factor
Peritrichate Cilia
Pathology
null
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A young couple has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child over a 4-month period. The 28-year-old wife had been extensively investigated by a female reproductive specialist, and no abnormalities were detected. The husband, who initially refused to undergo semen analysis now agreed to this investigation, which revealed a low volume and azotemia. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
In congenital absence of the vas deferens, mutation of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane receptor gene (CFTg) occurs. The epididymis vas deferens, seminal vesicle, membranous urethra, part of the trigone of the bladder, and ureter arise from the mesonephric duct. In the presence of a normal FSH level, testicular biopsy would most likely confirm normal sperm formation. In the presence of a Sertoli cell tumor, spermatozoa are unlikely to form, and the FSH level is elevated.
2
Bilateral testicular atrophy
Congenital absence of the vas deferens
Hydrocele
Varicocele
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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Zero orded kinetics in following drug with high dose
Zero order kinetics is seen in alcohol and theoplylline Ref-KDT 7/e p31
4
Phenytoin and propranolol
Digoxin and prapranolol
Amiloride and propranolol
Alcohol and theoplylline
Anatomy
General anatomy
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A newborn has fused eyes and single nasal chamber & undeveloped callosum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Holoprosencephaly: brain doesn't properly divide into right and left hemispheres. Associated with trisomy 13 (MC), trisomy 18, CHARGE syndrome Schizencephaly- characterized by abnormal slits or clefts in the cerebral hemispheres of the brain. Plagiocephaly- characterized by an asymmetrical distoion (flattening of one side) of the skull. Brachycephaly- result of premature synostosis of both coronal sutures.
1
Holoprosencephaly
Schizencephaly
Plagiocephaly
Brachycephaly
Pediatrics
JIPMER 2017
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Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
Class II elastics work in the direction that would be used to correct a Class II malocclusion, to pull the mandibular teeth forward and the maxillary teeth distally.
4
From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
Dental
null
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A 22-year-old woman delivers an apparently healthy female infant after an uncomplicated pregnancy. By 4 years of age, the girl has progressive, severe neurologic deterioration. Physical examination shows marked hepatosplenomegaly. A bone marrow biopsy specimen shows numerous foamy vacuolated macrophages. Analysis of which of the following factors is most likely to aid in the diagnosis of this condition?
The clinical features of this child neurologic involvement, hepatosplenomegaly, and accumulation of foamy macrophages - suggest a lysosomal storage disorder. One such disorder, with which the clinical history is quite compatible, is Niemann-Pick disease type A. It is characterized by lysosomal accumulation of sphingomyelin owing to a severe deficiency of sphingomyelinase. Globules of a1 -antitrypsin are seen in the liver cells of individuals with inherited deficiency of a1 -antitrypsin. The glycogen storage disease known as von Gierke disease results from glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency. In familial hypercholesterolemia, there are fewer LDL receptors on hepatocytes, leading to early and accelerated atherosclerosis by young adulthood. Collagen synthesis is impaired in individuals with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
3
Level of a1-antitrypsin in the serum
Level of glucose-6-phosphatase in hepatocytes
Level of sphingomyelinase in splenic macrophages
Number of LDL receptors on hepatocytes
Pathology
Genetics
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All of the following statements about lignocaine are true EXCEPT :
null
3
It blocks active sodium channels with more affinity than resting sodium channels
It can cause cardiotoxicity
It is given orally for treatment of cardiac arrhythmias
Adrenaline increases the duration of action of lignocaine when used for infiltration anaesthesia.
Pharmacology
null
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Which of the following is not true regarding Vestibular neuroma
The earliest cranial nerve involved is V nerve which causes reduced corneal sensitivity and corneal reflex. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 125
4
Nystagmus
High frequency sensorineural deafness
Absense of caloric response
Normal Corneal reflex
ENT
Ear
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Gonads to testes differentiation
SRY sex determining region on the Y chromosome . Reference: OP Ghai,essential paediatrics ,8 th edition,page no 537,fig 17.20
1
SRY gene
WNT-4 gene
DAXI gene
None
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
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All of the following are true about below procedure, except
Ans. (c) Can be used in cases of hazy ocular mediaOption a - It is a hand-held instrument, used with the examiner standing or seated slightly above the patient. It can be performed in any position.Option b - It is a uniocular examination, so Stereopsis (depth perception), Grade III of Binocular Single Vision is not possible.Option c - The visibility is poor in cases of hazy media, so not of good use.Option d - Because of high magnification, the field of view is smaller, thus, retinal periphery cannot be examined.
3
It can be done with the patient being in any position
There is no stereopsis
Can be used in cases of hazy ocular media
The retinal periphery cannot be examined
Ophthalmology
Retina
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Destruction of ovaries prior to 7th week following feilization results in :
Pseudohermaphroditism: May be result of abnormalities of development of the gonads sex ducts and external genitaliaUterine agenesis: Mullerian aplasiaMasculinisation: 47,XXY UsuallySHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:94,15th edition
4
Pseudohermaphroditism
Uterine agenesis
Masculinisation
None of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Sexuality and intersexuality
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