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Fibrous scar in myocardial infection in well established by -
null
1
6 weeks
6 months
6 days
30 days
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is not true about silver sulfadiazine
Silver sulfadiazine is the most common dressing used for burns.
3
Used in burns dressings
Antibacterial action against Pseudomonas
Has immunomodulatory action
Side effect is hypersensitivity reaction
Surgery
null
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multi
The main advantage of composites over unfilled direct filling resin is their:
null
4
Higher solubility in saliva
Lower modulus of elasticity
Esthetic excellence
Lower thermal co-efficient of expansion
Dental
null
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single
Fletcher's medium containing Rabbit serum is used for-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leptospira o Media for the culture of leptospirae usually contain either rabbit serum (Fletcher medium, Stuart broth) or bovine serum albumin (EMJH medium plus long - chain fatty acids and vitamins (B1 & B12)
3
Streptococcus
Bacillus anthracis
Leptospira
Borrelia
Unknown
null
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Human retina consists about
(A) 100 million Rods & 5 million Cones # Total number of cones in fovea:> Approximately 200,000. There are 17,500 cones/degree> Rod free area is approximately 10 thus there are 17,500 cones in the central rod-free fovea.> Total number of cones in the retina. - 6,400,000> Total number of rods in the retina. - 110,000,000 to 125,000,000> Rod distribution.> Rods peak in density 180 or 5mm out from the center of the fovea in a ring around the fovea at 160,000 rods/mm2> No rods in central 200 pm.> Average 80-100,000 rods/mm2> Rod acuity peak is at 5.20 or 1.5 mm from foveal center where there are 100,000 rods/mm2
1
100 million Rods & 5 million Cones
5 million Rods & 100 million Cones
100 million Rods & 100 million Cones
5 million Rods & 5 million Cones
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
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single
GLUT-5 is transpoer for
GLUT5 is a fructose transpoer expressed on the apical border of enterocytes in the small intestine.GLUT5 allows for fructose to be transpoed from the intestinal lumen into the enterocyte by facilitated diffusion due to fructose&;s high concentration in the intestinal lumen.GLUT5 is also expressed in skeletal muscle, testis, kidney, fat tissue (adipocytes), and brain. Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 320
2
Glucose
Fructose
Mannose
Galactose
Biochemistry
Endocrinology
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Fibroma belongs to ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sex cord stromal tumor
2
Germ cell tumor
Sex cord stromal tumor
Surface epithelial stromal tumors
Metastatic tumors from non ovarian primary
Pathology
null
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A biopsy was performed for a patient with recurrent chalazion involving the upper lid. The most likely diagnosis on histopathology is:
Ans. (a) Sebaceous cell carcinomaRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 21, 4Sebaceous Gland Carcinoma* Typically arises from meibomian glands or glands of ZeisQ* Most frequently arises from the upper eyelids[?] where meibomian gland are most frequent (in contrast to basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma)* Highly malignant with mortality of 5-10%* Elderly females are typically affected.* Nodular SGC masquerades a 'chalazion' and hence any patient with recurrent chalazion with an unusual consistency should undergo a full thickness resection and histological examination to exclude SGC.
1
Sebaceous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Malignant Melanoma
Ophthalmology
Orbit
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In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of pregnancy increases after taking any of the following drugs, EXCEPT:
Cimetidine inhibits cytochrome P450 and reduces hepatic blood flow. As a result it inhibits the metabolism of OCP's and enhance their blood levels and increases their effectiveness. Phenytoin and Griseofulvin induces cytochrome P450 enzymes and thereby enhance the metabolism of oral contraceptive pills. Ampicillin suppresses the intestinal flora and decreases enterohepatic circulation of OCP. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 590
4
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Ampicillin
Cimetidine
Pharmacology
null
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Wahin-Finkelday giant cells in lymphoid tissue are characteristic of which of the following infections?
. A Wahin-Finkeldey cell is a type of giant multinucleate cell found in hyperplastic lymph nodes early in the course of measles and also in HIV-infected individuals, as well as in Kimura disease, and more rarely in a number of neoplastic (e.g. lymphoma) and non-neoplastic lymph node disorders. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 879
2
Mumps
Measles
Congenital cytomegalovirus infection
HIV infection
Medicine
Infection
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Which of the following has impoant role in initiation and maintenance of primitive streak
D i.e. Nodal gene The primitive streak is initiated and maintained by expression of nodal, a member of transforming growth factor /3 (TGF - 13) superfamilyQ.
4
FGF-8
BMP-4
EGRF
Nodal gene
Anatomy
null
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All are true about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma except:
Ans: D (X...) NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA P.LDhingra 6th/246-50As the tumour is predominantly seen in adolescent males in the second decade of life, it is thought to be testosterone dependentAge & sex: Tumour is seen exclusively in males in age group of 10-20 yearsProfuse, recurrent & spontaneous epistaxis is the most common presentationOther clinical features include: progressive nasal obstruction & denasal speech; conductive hearing loss & otitis media with effusion; mass in the nasopharynx etcCT scan of head with contrast is now the investigation of choiceSurgical excision is the treatment of choice though radiotherapy & chemotherapy singly or in combination have also been used
4
Seen exclusively in age group of 10-20 years
Seen exclusively in males
Recurrent bleeding is most common presentation
X-ray is IOC
ENT
Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
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Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by
Rate of mineralisation is determined by Labelled Tetracycline. ref:maheswari,5th edition page no.12
1
Tetracycline labeling
Alizarin red stain
Calcein stain
Van kossa stain
Orthopaedics
Anatomy and physiology of bone and fracture healing
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single
A patient with carbon monoxide poisoning is treated with hyperbaric oxygen that increases the aerial PO2 to 2000 mm Hg. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the aerial blood (in ml/100 ml) is:
Since the solubility of oxygen is 0.003 ml O2/100 ml blood, an aerial PO2 of 2000 mm Hg will increase the concentration of the dissolved oxygen to 6 ml O2/100 ml blood. Note that this actually exceeds the normal aerial-venous difference for the oxygen concentration.
4
2
3
4
6
Physiology
Respiratory System Pa 2
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Enthesopathy is commonly found in -
Enthesopathy Enthesopathy is any abnormality of the site where the tendons and ligaments join the bone. Abnormalities that can occur include inflammation (enthesitis) and calcification. Important causes are:- Ankylosing spondylitis       Plantar fascitis Other seronegative spondyloarthropaties    Golfer's elbow Reiter's syndrome           Postman's heel Tennis elbow     Iliotibial band syndrome
3
Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatic fever
Ankylosing spondylitis
Osteoarthritis
Orthopaedics
null
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The least common type of intussuception is
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple
1
Multiple
Colocolic
Ileoileal
Ileoilecolic
Surgery
null
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Substance responsible for erection of penis -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Papaverine Papaverineo It is a nonspecific phosphodiesterase inhibitor.o Injection of papaverine with or without phentolamine into corpus cavemosum produces penile tumiscence to permit intercourse.o Repeated injection can cause penile fibrosis.
2
Clomipramine
Papaverine
Buspirone
Amitriptyline
Psychiatry
Anxiety & Stress
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The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is:
Nucleus involved in Papez circuit is anterior nucleus of thalamus. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology by William ganong, 22nd Edition, Page 256
4
Pulvinar
Intralaminar
VPL nucleus
Anterior nucleus of Thalamus
Physiology
null
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All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells results from:
Cyclic AMP exerts most of its effects by stimulating cAMP-dependent protein kinases. These phosphorylate enzymes resulting in their activation or inhibition.
3
Activation of the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase
Activation of synthetase
Activation of protein kinase
Phosphorylation of G protein
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Which is best used for sex differentiation
The pelvis is the bone best used for sex determination. There are many differences between male and female pelvis. Listed below are some of the important points.
3
Skull
Femur
Pelvis
Humerus
Forensic Medicine
null
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Dilated pupil, dry mouth is a feature of poisoning due to
null
3
Morphine
Organophosphorus
Dhatura
Phenothiazines
Forensic Medicine
null
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The following are characteristic of autism except -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Onset after 6 years of age
1
Onset after 6 years of age
Repetitive behaviour
Delayed language development
Severe deficit in social interaction
Pediatrics
null
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The commonest prostaglandin used for the termination of 2nd trimester pregnancy:
Methods of termination of pregnancy: Second Trimester (13-20 weeks): Intrauterine instillation of hypertonic solutions Intra amniotic à 20% saline, 40% urea mannitol Extra amniotic à Ethacrydine lactate Prostaglandins F2a and E2 Oxytocin infusion Hysterotomy
4
PGE1
PGI2
PGA2
15 methyl PGF2
Unknown
null
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Drug of choice for treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., DantroleneNeurological side effects of Neuroleptic DrugsReactionFeaturesTime of Maximal RiskProposedMechanismTreatmentAcute dystoniaSpasm of muscles of tongue, face, neck, back, may mimic seizures; not hysteria1 to 5 daysUnknownAntiparkinsonian ages are diagnostic and curativeAkathisiaMotor restlessness; not anxiety or "agitation"5 to 60 daysUnknownReduce dose or change drug; antiparkinsonian agents, benzodiazepines or propranolol may helpParkinsonismBradykinesia, rigidity, variable tremor, mask facies, shuffling gait5 to 30 days; can recur even after a single doseAntagonism of dopamineAntiparkinsonian agents helpfulNeurolepticmalignantsyndromeCatatonia, stupor, fever unstable blood pressure myoglobinemia; can be fatalWeeks; can persist for days after stopping neurolepticAntagonism of dopamine may contributeStop neuroleptic immediately; dantrolene orbromocriptine may help; antiparkinsonism agents not effectivePerioral tremor"rabbitsyndrome"Perioral tremor (may be a late variant of parkinsonism)After months or years of treatmentUnknownAntiparkinsonian agents often helpTardivedyskinesiaOral-facial dyskinesia; widespread choreo- athetosis or dystoniaAfter months or years of treatment (worse on withdrawal)Excess function of dopamine hypothesizedPrevention crucial; treatment unsatisfactory
1
Dantrolene
Beta blocker
Central anticholiergic
None of the above
Psychiatry
Symptoms & Signs
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A newly married couple, the woman is having irregular menstruation. What is the contraceptive of choice?
- Contraceptive of choice in above case is OCP Non contraceptive benefits of use of oral contraceptives Help in treating Menstrual disturbances: irregularity, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, ovulation pain Cancers: protective for endometrial and ovarian cancers and choriocarcinoma Reduction in Benign tumors: benign breast disease, ovarian cysts Treat Endometriosis Acne improvement Inhibition of hirsutism progression Decrease incidence of Rheumatoid ahritis Reduce Anemia and malnutrition: by preventing pregnancy and decreasing menorrhagia Increase bone density
2
Barrier method
OCP
Calendar method
Progesterone only pills
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
FMGE 2019
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A 32 yr old male is known hypeensive and is being planned for cholecystectomy. Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in this person
Refer Katzung 11/e p437 Ketamine increases all pressures in the body It is therefore intravenous anesthetic of choice for shock and should be avoided in hypeensive patients. Fuher it is contraindicated in glaucoma and Head and injuries
2
Propofol
Ketamine
Midazolam
Etomidate
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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Skeletal muscle relaxant of choke in the liver and renal disease is?
ANSWER: (B) AtracuriumREF: Lee synopsis of anesthesia 12th ep. 215Repeat from December 2010, June 2011Muscle relaxantRoute of eliminationPancuronium, Vecuronium ,, RapacuroniumLiverVecuronium, RocuroniumBiliarySch, MivacuriumPseudocholinesteraseGallamine, MetocurineRenalAtracurium t ds-atracuriumHoffman's elimination
2
Mivacurium
Atracurium
Gallium
Vecuronium
Unknown
null
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Sterilization is defined as ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Complete destruction of all microorganisms Sterilization The process by which an aicle surface or medium is freed of all living microorganisms either in the vegetative or spore state Complete absence of microorganism. Disinfection Destruction or removal of all pathogenic organisms capable of giving rise to infection reduction in the microorganisms to such a level which is deemed no longer harmful to health. Unlike sterilization, disinfection is not sporicidal (does not kill spores). Decontamination The process of rendering of an aicle or area free of danger from contaminants, including microbial, chemical, radioactive and other hazards. Antisepsis It is defined as" Prevention of infection, usually by inhibiting the growth of bacteria in wound or tissues". Antiseptics Chemical disinfectants which can be safely applied to skin or mucous membrane are called antiseptics or skin disinfactant. Best and most commonly used antiseptic is povidone iodine (betadine). Commonly used skin disinfactants for hand washing are povidone iodine (betadine), chlorhexidine and isopropyl alcohol. Disinfectants Antimicrobials applied only to inanimate object. They are not used for surface disinfection(A"9) (skin or mucous membrane). Germicides These include both antiseptics and disinfectant.
2
Disinfection of skin
Complete destruction of all microorganisms
Destruction of pathogenic organisms
Decrease bacterial count from objects
Microbiology
null
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Intractable secondary galucoma is seen in:
Diffuse iris melanomas are associated with intractable secondary glaucomas. 'Iris melanomas are usually nodular, but diffuse tumors can involve the iris stroma extensively and infiltrate the out flow system to cause intractable secondary glaucoma'. Ref: The Wills Eye Hospital Atlas of Clinical Ophthalmology, By William Tasman, Edward A. Jaeger, Wills; The Eye:Basic sciences in Practice, 2nd Edition, Page 422
1
Diffuse iris melanoma
Nodular iris melanoma
Melanocyte deposits in anterior pa of iris
Melanocyte proliferation in posterior uveal tissue
Ophthalmology
null
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Wing beating tremor is seen in
null
2
Huntington disease
Wilson disease
Parkinsonism
Thyrotoxicosis
Medicine
null
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All of the following are considered microskeletal units of the mandible as per the matrix theory EXCEPT:
null
2
Chin
Glenoid fossa
Coronoid process
Angle of the mandible
Dental
null
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The second heart sound is caused by
The second is a shorter, high-pitched “dup” (second sound), caused by vibrations associated with closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves just after the end of ventricular systole.
1
Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
Vibrations in the ventricular wall during systole.
Ventricular filling.
Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves.
Physiology
null
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What is not a part of triad of Renal Cell Carcinoma?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oliguria o The three classical diagnostic features (classical triad) of renal cell carcinoma are costovertebral pain, palpable mass and hematuria. The most reliable of three is hematuria.Signs and Symptoms of Renal Cell Carcinoma (In decreasing order of frequency)o Hematuriao Flank Masso Anaemiao Hypertensiono Hypercalcemiao Neuromyopathyo Increased ESRo Flank Paino Weight losso Fevero Abnormal Liver functiono Erytjhrocytosiso Amyloidosis
4
Loin Mass
Hematuria
Loin Pain
Oliguria
Surgery
Renal Tumors
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Cytosolic Cytochrome C mediates
A i.e. Apoptosis Cytochrome C has two very opposite roles. Within the mitochondrial membrane it serves as electron carrier in oxidative phosphorylation. But when it leaks out into cytosol it combines with Apaf I and activates caspase-9 to mediate apoptosisQ. This dual functioning is known as moonlighting.
1
Apoptosis
Electron transpo
Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
Biochemistry
null
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Malampatti grading is for
D i.e. Inspection of oral cavity before intubation Malampatti grading is for assessment of difficult air way (inspection of oral cavity for intubation)Q
4
Mobility of cervical spine
Mobility of atlanto axial joint
Assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
Anaesthesia
null
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The first step for lymphatic vessels to remove excess fluid from interstitial tissue spaces is by:
Ans. A. Generating a lower intravascular than tissue hydrostatic pressureAlthough all of the choices are events that happen in lymph vessels, the first key event is lowering the lymphatic hydrostatic pressure to enable tissue fluid to enter the lymphatic vessel.
1
Generating a lower intravascular than tissue hydrostatic pressure
Contracting and forcing lymph into larger lymphatics
Opening and closing one-way valves in the lymph vessels
Lowering the colloid osmotic pressure inside the lymph vessel
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
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Low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in
Normal specific gravity of urine is 1.015 - 1.025. Theoretical extremes are 1.003 to 1.032. The specific gravity will be decreased(hyposthenuria) in excessive water intake, in chronic nephritis, in acute glomerulonephritis, in pyelonephritis and in diabetes insipidus. It is increased(hypersthenuria) in diabetes mellitus, in nephrosis and in excessive perspiration. In chronic renal failure, the specific gravity of urine is low and fixed at 1.010 (isosthenuria). The earliest manifestation of renal damage may be the inability to produce concentrated urine. Reference : page 317-18 Textbook of Biochemistry D M Vasudevan 6th edition
3
Diabetes mellitus
Diabates insipidus
Chronic renal failure
Acute glomerulonephritis
Surgery
Urology
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Initial treatment for perforated corneal ulcer is:March 2009
Ans. B: Tissue adhesive glueBacterial corneal ulcer requires intensive foified antibiotic therapy to treat the infection.Fungal corneal ulcers require intensive application of topical anti-fungal agents.Viral corneal ulceration caused by herpes virus may respond to antivirals like topical acyclovir ointment instilled at least five times a day.Alongside, suppoive therapy like pain medications are given, including topical cycloplegics like atropine or homatropine to dilate the pupil and thereby stop spasms of the ciliary muscle.All forced expiration like blowing the nose, coughing etc. must be avoided.Proper nutrition, including protein intake and Vitamin C are usually advised.In cases of Keratomalacia, where the corneal ulceration is due to a deficiency of Vitamin A, supplementation of the Vitamin A by oral or intramuscular route is given.Drugs that are usually contraindicated in corneal ulcer are topical coicosteroids and anesthetics - these should not be used on any type of corneal ulcer because they prevent healing, may lead to superinfection with fungi and other bacteria Fuher option is the use of a tissue adhesive such as N-butyl 2-ethyl cyanoacrylate monomer which is applied to the area of perforation after careful debridement. Drying of the adhesive may take few minutes after which anterior chamber may reform.Following this, a continuous-wear soft contact lens can be applied or a definite surgical procedure such as therapeutic penetrating keratoplasty or conjunctival flap undeaken.Superficial ulcers may heal in less than a week.
2
Conjuctival flap grafting
Tissue adhesive glue
Contact lens
Local anesthetics drops instillation
Ophthalmology
null
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A 7-days-old neonate present with recurrent seizures. On examination, tachycardia and S3 gallop, bruit in anterior fontanelle. Blood investigations are normal. Neurosonogram shows a hypoechoic lesion. What is the diagnosis?
b. Vein of Galen malformation(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1193)Newborn presenting with features of heart failure and cranial bruit with a hypoechoic lesion seen on cranial ultrasound suggests Vein of Galen malformationVein of Galen malformation is an arteriovenous connection between primitive choroidal vessels & median prosencephalic vein of Markowski, that develops between 6th & 11th weeks of gestation, after development of circle of Willis.
2
Arachoid cyst
Vein of Galen malformation
Dilated ventricles
Intraventricular hemorrhage
Pediatrics
Central Nervous System
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Yoyo Reflex is a feature of:
Ans. (a) Duplicated ureterRef. Bailey and Love 27th Edition, Page 1401 and Internet SourcesDuplex Renal Pelvis and Ureter:* Incidence 1:150 Live births* Most common congenital anomaly of upper urinary system* Unilateral duplication is more common than bilateral.* Most common on left side* Most common in girls.* Increased risk is seen in siblings.* Incomplete duplex ureter with' Y' Ureter arise if ureteric bud bifurcates after initial development from mesonephric duct.* Complete cases have two buds -- one in normal position and the other in low position. Normal bud ends in trigone and there is no reflux, but in the lower bud which drains the lower pole of kidney will end more laterally in the bladder via a submucosal tunnel and will usually have vesicoureteric reflux.* If detected in children VUR is common, if detected in adults usually have no symptoms.* Reflux of urine from one ureter to other ureter instead of flowing distally is known as "Yoyo reflex" and is seen in such types of duplicated ureters and renal pelvis.
1
Duplicated ureter
PCKD
Medullary Spongy kidney
Pseudo kidney
Surgery
Kidney & Ureturs
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Lymphatic drainage of the outer upper quadrant of the breast is mainly to:
Ans: a (Anterior axillary nodes) Ref: BDC Vol. I, 4th ed, p. 42About 75% of the lymphatics from the breast drain into the axillary nodes. Among the axillary nodes, the lymphatics mostly end in the anterior group (pectoral group), closely related to the axillary tail of the breast.
1
Anterior axillary group
Internal mammary group
Posterior axillary group
Apical nodes
Anatomy
Thorax
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Umami taste sensation is due to-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Glutamic acid o The umami taste is the fifth taste which is unique. The proposed mechanism of umami taste is through glutamate taste sensors (glutamate receptors) with release of neuronal glutamic acid.o Umami taste sensation is the most recent one, discovered in early 1900s.Taste sensationso There are four basic tastes namely Sweet, bitter, Salty and Sour. There mechanisms of sensory transduction are : o There are different mechanisms of sensory transduction.1) Sweet receptor is a Gprotein coupled receptor and leads to an increase in cAMP concentration in the sensory cells which results in closure of K+ channels and depolarization.2) Bitter receptors are also G protein coupled receptors and causes rise in intracellular Ca+2 by IP3-DAG system. Rise in intracellular Ca+2 triggers neurotransmitter release.3) Salty-tasti ttg substances depolarize taste cells by activating amiloride-sensitive Na+ channels.4) Sour-tasting substances depolarize taste cells by raising the intracellular //+ ion concentration, which causes closure of K+ channels.o The umami taste is the fifth taste which is unique. The proposed mechanism of umami taste is through glutamate taste sensors (glutamate receptors) with release of neuronal glutamic acid.
2
Glucose
Glutamic acid
Quinine
Sodium chloride
Physiology
General Principles of Gastrointestinal Function
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Most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV) encephalitis is?
Ans. D. HSV polymerase chain reactiona. HSV encephalitis is the most common cause of acute sporadic encephalitis in the world.b. 95% of cases are due to HSV1.c. Age distribution appears to be biphasic, with peaks at ages 5 to 30 years and more than 50 years of age.d. It may follow a primary infection/reactivation of latent virus in the neurons.e. HSV meningitis or encephalitis is difficult to diagnose by laboratory tests, as there is a low titer of virus present in the cerebrospinal fluid.f. Only PCR is sensitive enough to detect HSV DNA in the CSF.
4
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein analysis
HSV culture
HSV IgG antibody
HSV polymerase chain reaction
Microbiology
Virology
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The preferred bypass procedure in case of non resectable carcinoma of head of pancreas is-
Surgery for advanced, non-resectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma can palliate obstruction of CBD or duodenum, as well as control visceral pain. Hepaticojejunostomy, choledochojejunostomy or choledochoduodenostomy offers durable drainage of an obstructed bile duct. Cholecystojejunostomy is less reliable but can be employed when tumor bulk precludes common duct procedure. Gastrojejunostomy (antecolic anastomosis) palliates gastric outlet obstruction. Antecolic anastomosis is done to avoid complications from an expanding lesser sac tumor.
1
Cholecystojejunostomy
Cholecystogastrostomy
Choledochoduodenostomy
Choledochojejunostomy
Surgery
null
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In which of the following conditions " Onion Skin" fibrosis of bileduct is seen
Concentric periductal fibrosis is known as onion skin fibrosis and is classical of Primary sclerosing cholangitis.
2
Ulcerative collitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Cholangiocarcinoma
Pathology
null
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single
Goat milk anemia is because of deficiency of
For cultural and other reasons, such as parental preference, goat milk is sometimes given in place of formula although this is not recommended. Goat milk has been shown to cause significant electrolyte disturbances and anemia because it has low folic acid concentrations.Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics; 20th edition; Page no: 290
2
Iron deficiency
Folate deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
8d81147b-6241-4aa7-b022-9382de97a976
multi
Chloride responsive alkalosis, causes are -a) Severe vomitingb) Bartter's syndromec) Milk alkali syndromed) Frusemide therapy
null
1
acd
bcd
abc
ab
Medicine
null
060fe5ba-2c51-4767-bef3-f774100bf25e
single
Triple helix is found in -
Ans is 'b' i.e., Collagen Collageno Collegen is the most common protein in the animal world,o It is a component of ECM.o The collegens are composed of a triple helix of three polypeptide a-chains.o It provides tensile strength to tissues.o Collegen type IV with laminin is the main component of basement membrane.o Fibrillar collegen is synthesized from procollegen.o First there is hydroxylation of lysin & proline residues of procollegen.o After hydroxylation of lysine and proline residues of procollegen three procollegen chains align in phase to form triple helix.o After that oxidation of lysine & hydroxylysine by lysyl oxidase, and proline & hydroxyproline by prolyl oxidase, take place - this results in cross-linking between the chains of adjacent molecules, thus stabilizing the array thatis characteristic of collegen.o Cross-linking is a major contributor of the tenile strength of collegen.o Vit 'c'is requiredfor hydroxylation of lysine & proline residues ofprocollegen -In scurvy (Vit 'c' deficiency) poor wound healing is due to inhibition of this step.
2
Cystine
Collagen
Pectin
DNA
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
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single
Functional impression technique can be applied in:
Functional impression using tissue conditioners is a closed mouth, patient-driven impression technique, indicated for well-formed and firm ridges in patients with good dexterity and neuromuscular control.
1
Uniformly firm ridge consistency
All variety of residual ridges
Knife edge ridge
Displaceable alveolar ridge
Dental
null
c99cc442-7ef1-4ad7-8e1f-27f150adb2e8
multi
Hemolytic disease of new born is commonly due to incompatibility of which antigen?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., D antigen in Rh group o Repeat from previous sessions
2
C antigen in Rh group
D antigen in Rh group
E antigen in Rh group
Lewis antigen
Pediatrics
Blood Disorders
17c83a87-c605-439b-99d6-43ba22e02dd4
single
According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following best describes primary processes?
Primary process thinking is primitive, nonlogical, and timeless. Primary processes characterize the operational style of the id and are manifested in dreams. According to Freud's theory; condensation, displacement, and symbolic representation are forms of primary processes.
3
Typically conscious
Absent during dreaming
Nonlogical and primitive
Characteristic of the neuroses
Pathology
All India exam
e20dac52-22bd-4634-9f07-de300b73b75d
multi
Which of the following structure DO NOT develop in dorsal mesentery
The gut tube is suspended by ventral mesentery - Anteriorly Dorsal mesentery - Posteriorly Ventral mesentery: Liver Ventral pancreatic bud Right & Left triangular ligaments Coronary ligaments of liver Falciform ligament of liver Lesser omentum Dorsal mesentery: Spleen Dorsal pancreatic bud Gastrophrenic ligament Gastrosplenic ligament Leinorenal ligament Greater omentum - Ventral pancreatic bud forms: uncinate process & inferior pa of pancreatic head - Rest of the pancreas formed by the dorsal bud. - Pancreatic duct of wirsung formed by the distal pa of dorsal duct & the entire ventral pancreatic duct. - Proximal pa of dorsal pancreatic duct is either obliterated or persists as the accessory pancreatic duct of Santorini.
3
Greater omentum
Head of pancreas
Uncinate process of pancreas
Lienorenal ligament
Anatomy
Mesentry, neurovascular bundle
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single
Bone dysplasia is invariably seen in:
Ans. d. Developmental defect Bone dysplasia is invariably seen in developmental defect. Developmental abnormalities of the skeleton are complex, variable, frequently genetically based, and first become manifest during the earliest stages of bone formation. They can be of two types-Dysostoses or Dysplasias.'-Robbins 8/e p1210 Developmental anomalies resulting from localized problems in the migration of mesenchymal cells and their formation of condensations are known as dysostoses. They are usually limited to defined embryologic structures and may result from mutations in ceain transcription factors (Homeobox genes). Mutations in the regulators of skeletal organogenesis, such as cellular signaling mechanisms (e.g., growth factors and their receptors), and matrix components (e.g., types 1 and 2 collagen), affect cailage and bone tissues globally, and these disorders are known as dysplasias.-
4
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteosarcoma
Osteomalacia
Developmental defect
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Gradcnigo's syndrome is characterized by a/e
Ans. a (Conductive deafness). (Ref. PL Dhingra, ENT, 2nd ed., 78)GRADENIGO'S SYNDROME# Petrositis, a complication of otitis media classically presents with a triad of symptoms, known as Gradenigo's syndrome characterized by:- Abducent nerve (lateral rectus) palsy.- Deep seated ear or retro-orbital pain (Vth nerve involvement)- Persistent ear discharge# However, fever, headache, vomiting & sometimes neck stiffness occurs.# Towne's & Stenver's (StockholmC) view for petrous apex and internal auditory meatus point towards diagnosis whileHRCT of temporal bone is confirmatory & gives greater anatomical details. CTT1 MRIT2MRICEMRIAcute petrous apecitis with osteomyelitis (Gradenigo syndrome)Opacified air cells with bony breakdown; nonexpansileLowHighrim enhancement or enhancement of adjacent meninges# Rx these days is antibiotic therapy alone, but sometimes mastoidectomy may be required.
1
Conductive deafness
Retroorbital pain
Ear discharge
Diplopia
ENT
CSOM and its Complications
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single
According to Ann Arbor staging Hodgkins lymphoma, stage III includes?
null
3
Involvement of the nodes of same side
Liver infiltration
Involvement of Lymph node region on lymphoid structure on both sides of the diaphragm
Disseminated involvement of the extralymphatic sites including the bone marrow and bronchial infiltration.
Medicine
null
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multi
Flexor of hip joints are all except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gluteus maximus Muscles producing movements at the hip jointMovementChief musclesAccessory muscles1. FlexionPsoas major and illiacusPectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius; adductors (mainly adductor longus) participate in early stages2 ExtensionGluteus maximus and hamstrings--3. AdductionAdductor longus, brevis and magnusPectineus and gracilis4. AbductionGlutei medius and minimusTensor fasciae latae and sartorius5. Medial rotationTensor fasciae latae and the anterior fibres of the glutei medius and minimus 6. Lateral rotationTwo obturators, two gemelli and the quadratus femorisPiriformis, gluteus maximus and sartorius
3
Psoas major
Sartorius
Gluteusmaximus
Rectusfemoris
Anatomy
Gluteal Region
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multi
A 30year old male with past history of otitis media and mastoiditis presented with severe throbbing headache , high grade fever ,nausea, vomiting, confusion, gait disturbance. On examination he was febrile, ataxic with nystagmus and there was no neck rigidity. Mri brain with contrast revealed a brain abscess. Which of the following is likely site of brain abscess?
Approximately one-third of brain abscesses are associated with otitis media and mastoiditis, often with an associated cholesteatoma. Otogenic abscesses occur predominantly in the temporal lobe (55-75%) and cerebellum (20-30%). In some series, up to 90% of cerebellar abscesses are otogenic. The clinical presentation of a brain abscess depends on its location, the nature of the primary infection if present, and the level of the ICP. Hemiparesis is the most common localizing sign of a frontal lobe abscess. A temporal lobe abscess may present with a disturbance of language (dysphasia) or an upper homonymous quadrantanopia. Nystagmus and ataxia are signs of a cerebellar abscess. Signs of raised ICP--papilledema, nausea and vomiting, and drowsiness or confusion--can be the dominant presentation of some abscesses, paicularly those in the cerebellum. Meningismus is not present unless the abscess has ruptured into the ventricle or the infection has spread to the subarachnoid space. Ref Harrison 20th edition page 1013,1014.
4
Temporal lobe
Frontal lobe
Midbrain
Cerebellum
Medicine
C.N.S
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single
Drug used for treatment of methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus is :
null
3
Teicoplanin
Vancomycin
Both
None
Pharmacology
null
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multi
All are features of catatonia except :
B. i.e. Cataplexy
2
Automatic obedience
Cataplexy
Catalepsy
Negativism
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Hemophilia A has increased:
PTT (Ref: Robbin's 7th Ed/Pg 656) "Patients with hemophilia, typically have a normal BT, platelet count & PT & a prolonged PTT." Remember these, BT is prolonged in: 1.Thrombocytopenic purpura 2. Von willebrand's disease CT is prolonged in Hemophilia PT: normal =10-14 sec Prolonged in deficiency of: 1. Factors I, II, V, VII, X 2. In VitK deficiency 3. Liver diseases 4. Patients on anti- coagulant & salicylate therapy PTT: normal = 30-40 sec Prolonged in deficiency of: Factors I, II, V, VII, IX, X, XI E.S.R is raised in: 1. Infections 2. Myocardial infarction 3. Connective tissue disorders 4. Inflammatory disorders 5. Malignant lymphomas 6. Myeloma E.S.R is decreased in: 1. Sickle cell anemia 2. Allergic conditions 3. Jaundice
2
PT
PTT
PT & PTT
None
Surgery
null
2dac9898-4a0f-4e4a-b960-5afad0b338c2
multi
Which of the following is called "flipping effect"?
Option A = LDH 1>LDH 2 In Normal person, LDH2>LDH1 LDH 1 is present in cardiac Myocyte. If MI occurs, LDH1 levels | Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): Tetrameric enzyme formed by combination of 2 subunits: H (Hea) and M (Muscle): Type Subunit Tissues of origin LDH-1 H4 Hea muscle LDH-2 H3M1 RBCs LDH-3 H2M2 lungs LDH-4 H1M3 Liver LDH5 M4 Muscles
1
LDH 1 >LDH 2
LDH 2 > LDH 1
LDH 2 > LDH 3
LDH 3 > LDH 2
Medicine
Acute coronary syndrome
4d84ba6b-7bec-4549-8370-8633649bb844
multi
A 40-year-old male presented with rapidly progressive dementia for 3 weeks along with rigidity, mask-like facies and mild choreoathetoid movements along with fatigue, sleep disturbance, weight loss, headache, anxiety, veigo, malaise, and ill-defined pain. There is no history of fever. O/E, Visual disturbances Cerebellar disturbances Myoclonus CSF revealed nothing except that there was increase in 14-14-3 protein. CSF revealed nothing except that there was increase in 14-14-3 protein. MRI EEG STUDY
This is a case of Creutzfeldt Jacob disease as there is rapid and progressive sho-term memory loss along with classical MRI signs and CSF finding of stress protein 14-14-3. The other conditions can be easily ruled as MRI will show specific abnormalities in these conditions. EEG shows slowing and periodic lateralized discharges over the right hemisphere with triphasic morphology. MRI IMAGE shows the classical Pulvinar sign whichrefers to bilateral flair hyperintensities involving thepulvinar thalamic nuclei DWI images show the classical coical ribbon sign. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease Rapidly progressive Fatal neurodegenerative disorder Caused by an abnormal isoform of a cellular glycoprotein known as the prion protein Presents with acute dementia, visual and cerebellar disturbances Classical Triphasic morphology on EEG waves Positive 14-3-3 CSF assay High signal in caudate/putamen on MRI.
1
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
Dementia with Lewy bodies
Alzheimer's disease
Frontotemporal dementia
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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multi
All dentists must take a prophylaxis for hepatitis B by vaccinating themselves at
null
4
0,1 and 6 months intervals
0 and 6 months intervals
0,1 and 2 months intervals
0,1,2 and 12 months intervals
Microbiology
null
c004b132-0f15-4ad9-b116-1599191fa2e1
multi
Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed mainly by: September 2005, September 2012
Ans. B: Micturating cysto urethrogram
2
X-ray KUB
Micturating cysto urethrogram
CT scan
MRI scan
Surgery
null
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single
The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is :
null
1
Foscarnet
Valacyclovir
Abacavir
Ganciclovir
Pharmacology
null
3ef49d44-d949-4cdb-b31d-8be0a34b3429
single
Commonest site of Atopic dermatitis is:
Ans:C.)Antecubital Fossa. Atopic dermatitis It is a chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin disease (see image below) of unknown origin that usually stas in early infancy, but also affects a substantial number of adults. AD is commonly associated with elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE). That it is the first disease to present in a series of allergic diseases--including food allergy, asthma, and allergic rhinitis, in order--has given rise to the "atopic march" theory. The earliest lesions affect the creases (antecubital and popliteal fossae), with erythema and exudation. Over the following few weeks, lesions usually localize to the cheeks, the forehead and scalp, and the extensors of the lower legs; however, they may occur in any location on the body, usually sparing the diaper area and the nose. Lesions are ill-defined, erythematous, scaly, and crusted (eczematous) patches and plaques.
3
Scalp
Elbow
Ante-cubital fossa
Trunk
Skin
null
38394434-f812-4a8f-9fd8-c2127ad33651
single
Wandering acetabulum is seen in -
Wandering acetabulum is seen in tuberculosis of hip when destroyed head dislocates from the acetabulum.
4
Fracture acetabulum
Dislocation of femur
CDH
Tubeculosis of hip
Orthopaedics
null
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single
Malignantchangeinachoroidalnevusisevidenced by:
Ans. All of the above
4
Increased pigmentation or height of the nevus
Appearance of orange patches of lipofusin over the surface
Appearance of serous detachment in the area of nevus
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
2ea12e41-4730-453d-8322-46f030c403c9
multi
A 55-year-old diabetic man has a long history of renal failure. He is currently waiting for an organ for transplant and has been on hemodialysis in the interim. If this man develops amyloid deposits around his joints, they are likely to be composed of which of the following substances?
Amyloid deposits appear similar by light and electron microscopy, but actually represent a heterogeneous population of proteins that have a common teiary structure forming a beta-pleated sheet. Questions about the type of amyloid seen in different disease states are orites on examinations. Here are two tables to help you out: Systemic amyloidosis: Chronic active diseaseAA amyloid from serum amyloid- associated (SAA) protein from liver (choice A)Myelomas and related diseasesAL amyloid from immunoglobulin light chain (choice B)Chronic hemodialysisBeta2 microglobulin (related to high plasma levels) (choice C)Nephropathic hereditary forms (familial Mediterranean fever)AA amyloid from SAA (choice A)Cardiomyopathic hereditary forms (senile systemic amyloidosis)Prealbumin/transthyretin Neuropathic hereditary syndromesPrealbumin/transthyretin Localized amyloidosis: Senile cardiac amyloidosisAtrial natriuretic peptide-related fibrilsCerebral amyloid in Alzheimer disease, Down syndromeCerebral amyloid in Alzheimer disease, Down syndromeMedullary carcinoma of thyroidCalcitonin precursors (choice D)Isolated, massive, nodular deposits (skin, lung, urogenital tract)AL from light chains (choice B)
3
Amyloid-associated protein
Amyloid light chains
Beta2 microglobulin
Calcitonin precursors
Pathology
null
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single
Next to HBV, virus implicated in hepatocellular Ca is
Ans. is 'a' i.e. HCV Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses can cause hepatocellular carcinoma.
1
HCV
Herpes
HAV
HEV
Microbiology
null
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single
On blood agar target appearance of Cl. perfringens is due to which toxin -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above * Two important characteristic feature of Cl. perfringens are1) Target hemolysis (double zone hemolysis) on blood agar. It is a narrow zone of complete hemolysis by theta toxin which is surrounded by a wider incomplete hemolysis by alpha-toxin.2) Naegler's reaction detects alpha toxin (phospholipase or lecithinase C). When Cl. perfringens is grown on a medium with the antitoxin spread on one half of the plate, colonies on the other half without the antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. There will be no opacity around the colonies on the half of the plate with the antitoxin, due to the specific neutralisation of the alpha-toxin.* Alpha toxin is phospholipase (lecithinase-C).
4
Lecithinase
Phospholipase
a-toxin
All of the above
Microbiology
Bacteria
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multi
Which of the following is not a co-factor for pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
Co-factor for PDH complex are: Thiamine pyrophosphate (vit B1), FAD (vit B2), NAD (vit B3), coA (vit B5), Lipoic acid.
4
Thiamine pyrophosphate
FAD
NAD
Biotin
Biochemistry
null
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single
Toxic shock syyndrome caused by staphylococcus is due to -
The pyrogenic toxin superantigens are a family of small-molecular-size, structurally similar proteins that are responsible for two diseases: TSS and food poisoning. TSS results from the ability of enterotoxins and TSST-1 to function as T cell mitogens. Enterotoxins bind directly to the invariant region of MHC--outside the MHC class II groove. The enterotoxins can then bind T cell receptors the vb chain, and thisbinding results in a dramatic overexpansion of T cell clones (up to 20% of the total T cell population). The consequence of this T cell expansion is a "cytokine storm," with the release of inflammatory mediators that include interferon g, IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a, and TNF-b. The resulting multisystem disease produces a constellation of findings that mimic those in endotoxin shock; however, the pathogenic mechanisms differ. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1162)
2
Hemolytic antigen
Super antigens
Hyaluronidase
Coagulase
Medicine
Infection
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The retention for class 5 restoration are placed:
null
2
In mesial and distal areas
Occlusal and gingival area
In all except the axial wall
At expense of axial wall
Dental
null
b4d51fd6-a285-4f8e-928b-c5f9f9ea1041
multi
A fetus was found to have congenital heart block what should be evaluated in the mother?
Ans. (c) SLERef- Williams Obstetrics 25th Ed; Page No-1139-42* Congenital heart block develops almost exclusively in fetuses of women with antibodies to the SS-A or SS-B antigens for Anti-Ro (SS-A) antibody.* Prevalence rate with these antibodies are 30-49%.* Fetal cardiac monitoring is performed between 18 and 26 weeks' gestation in pregnancies with either of these antibodies.* Incidence of fetal myocarditis is only 2-3%; if these antibodies are present.Extra MileAutoantibodies produced in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)AntibodyClinical associationsPrevalenceAntihistoneCommon in drug-induced lupus70%Anti-Ro (SS-A)Associated with sicca syndrome, predisposes to cutaneous lupus, neonatal lupus with heart block, reduced risk of nephritis30-49%Anti-La (SS- B)Associated with anti-Ro10-35%Anti-dsDNAMay correlate with disease activity, nephritis, and vasculitis Anti- RNPhigh titers associated with rheumatic syndromes33-40%Antinuclear (ANA)Best screening test, multiple antibodies; a second negative test makes SLE unlikely84-98Anti-Sm (Smith)Specific for SLE25-38%Antiphospho- lipidLupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin anti bodies associated with thrombosis, fetal loss, thrombocytopenia, valvular heart disease; false positive test for syphilis21-50%AntierythrocyteDirect Coo m b s test, may develop hemolysis60%
3
Apla Syndrome
Congenital heart defects
SLE
Hemolytic anemia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
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single
Among the pulses, the highest quantity of protein is present in:
Soyabean
3
Green gram
Red gram
Soyabean
Black gram
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
299ffcfd-c702-4fa5-af18-c6a4193bfb60
single
For a term small for date baby, true is –
First let me differentiate the following three terms Low birth weight neonates Preterm infant (Premature infant) Small for gestational age (small for date) i)  Low birth weight Any neonate weighing less than 2500 gms at birth irrespective of the gestational age. ii) Preterm infant (premature infant) Any neonate born before 37 weeks of gestation irrespective of the birth weight. Because birth weight is a function of gestation, a preterm baby is expected to have less weight. iii) Small for date (MGR) Babies with a birth weight less than 10 percentile for that gestational age. These may be preterm (born before 37th week) or term (born between 37 to 42 weeks). So, both preterm infant and small for date neonate have low birth weight.
3
No nipple nodule
No palmar/plantar crease
Weight less than 10th percentile
Hyperbilirubinemia
Pediatrics
null
33a2f127-7cb1-448a-ac2e-1d9480a639b2
multi
True about location of Ig chromosome:
A i.e. lc- 2In humans, genes for light chains-Kappa (lc) is in chromosome 2; for light chain lambda (X) is in chromosome 22 and genes for heavy chains are in chromosome 14Q.Each of the 5 classes of immunoglobulin has a characterstic type of heavy chain - alpha (a) in IgA, gamma (y) in IgG, delta (8) in IgD, mu (.t) in IgM and epsilon (c) in IgE.Immunoglobin has 2 identical light (L) & 2 identical heavy (H) chains, each containing variable (V) & constant (C) regions. Variable regions of light- & heavy chains (i.e. VL & VH) bind to specifc antigen and form a pa of Fab (antigen binding fragment).IgM is natural antibody produced in primary response to antigen. It does not cross placenta, therefore, the fetus even though it carries an incompatible antigen, is protected from natural antibodies of mother. It fixes complementQ (like IgG) and agglutinates bacteria (like IgA & G). It has antigen receptors on B cells, surface (IgD is found on surface of B cells where it acts as a receptor for antigen).Newly mature B cells produce both IgM and IgD, which can switch to other class of immunoglobulin (i.e. IgG, IgA or IgE) in a process k/a isotype/class switching.
1
K- 2
K - 6
K - 14
All
Biochemistry
null
8eadc2a9-6a71-4392-9085-a812e602ca2b
multi
Which of the following is used as screening for systemic lupus erythmetosus?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antinuclear antibody Autoantibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)AntibodyPrevalence %Antigen RecognizedClinical UtilityAntinuclear98Multiple nuclearBest screening test; repeated negative tests make SLE unlikelyantibodiesAnti-dsDNA70DNA (double-stranded)High titers are SLE-specific and in some patients correlate with disease activity, nephritis, vasculitisAnti-SmAOProtein complexed to 6 species of nuclear U1RNASpecific for SLE; no definite clinical correlations; most patients also have anti-RNP; more common in blacks and asians than whitesAnti-RNP Protein complexed to U1RNAgNot specific for SLE; high titers associated with syndromes that have overlap features of several rheumatic syndromes including SLE; more common in blacks than whitesAnti-Ro (SS-A)30Protein complexed to hYRNA, primarily 60 kDa and 52 kDaNot specific for SLE; associated with sicca syndrome, predisposes to subacute cutaneous lupus, and to neonatal lupus with congenital heart block; associated with decreased risk for nephritisAnti-La (SS-B)1047-kDa protein complexed to hY RNAUsually associated with anti-Ro; associated with decreased risk for nephritisAntihistone70Histones associated with DNA (in nucleosome, chromatin) Phospholipids, b2More fequent in drug-induced ilupus than in SLEAntiphosphoilpid50glcoprotein 1 cofactor, prothrombinThree tests available-ELISAs for cardiolipin and b2Gl, sensitive prothrombin time (DRWT); predisposes to clotting, fetal loss, thrombocytopeniaAntierythrocyte60Erythrocyte membraneSurface and alteredMeasured as direct coombs' test; a small proportion develops overt hemolysisAntiplatelet30cytopiasmic antigens on plateletsAssociated with thrombocytopenia but sensitivity and specificity are not good; this is not a useful clinical testAntineuronal (includes anti- glutamate receptor)Antiribosomal P60Neuronal and lymphocyte surface antigensIn some series a positive test is CSF correlates with active CNS lupus.20Protein in ribosomesIn some series a positive test in serum correlates with depression or psychosis due to CNS lupusAbbreviations: CNS, central nervous system, CSF, cerebrospinal fluid; DRWT, dilute Russell viper venom time; ELISA, enzyme linked immunosorbent assay.
1
Anti nuclear antibody
Anti smith antibody
Anti-RNP antibody
Anti phospholipid antibody
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
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single
Neovascular glaucoma is not seen in
In JRA, glaucoma generally presents as acute angle closure, due to posterior synechiae, or chronic angle closure, which results from progressive, peripheral anterior synechiae.
1
JRA
CRVO
CRAO
Eales' disease
Physiology
All India exam
e5d62bfc-0cc8-4e49-b297-217cd3c67856
single
Inhalation agent of choice in head injury with raised ICT is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoflurane Isoflurane It is an isomer of enflurane with similar propeies but 11/2 times more potent. BP falls due to vasodilation, while cardiac output is maintained inhalation anaesthetic of choice in Cardiac surgery (intravenous anaesthetic of choice for cardiac surgery is etomidate). It does not sensitize the hea to Adr --> Safe in pheochromocytoma. Isoflurane causes minimum increase in ICT Preferred agent in increased ICT. It does not provoke seizures --> preferred in neurosurgery. Uterine and skeletal muscle relaxant action is similar to halothane --> can be used for assisting version as an alternative to halothane. It causes significant respiratory depression. Isoflurane is the volatile agent of choice in liver disease as it has least effect on hepatic blood flow. It can cause coronary steal phenomenon. It can be used for day care surgery (also sevoflurane and desflurane). It is also used to produce controlled hypotension, as it causes maximum decrease in systemic vascular resistance.
1
Isoflurane
Enflurane
Sevoflurane
c
Anaesthesia
null
ca1a626d-8b9c-4061-aae9-93e40bb1f97b
single
Localised regional cerebral atrophy is seen in -
null
2
Alzheimer's disease
Frontotemporal dementia
C.J. disease
Friedreich's ataxin
Medicine
null
a4530319-2e33-4794-b21d-91fbc35d52ff
single
Diagnosis of aoic calcification is done by fluoroscopy by seeing:
Ans. Side to side movement
1
Side to side movement
Up and down movement
Combined movement
None
Radiology
null
d79f3b66-9dea-493b-baf5-5795c8c5e5f3
multi
Incidence of congenital glaucoma is:
Ans. 1 in 10,000 bihs
3
1 in 1000 bihs
1 in 5000 bihs
1 in 10,000 bihs
1 in 34,000 bihs
Ophthalmology
null
728f7f69-82c1-4d5e-bae4-62f55bbf2f95
single
All of the following are common causes of haematemesis except -
null
2
Chronic peptic ulcer
Pernicious anemia
Esophageal varices
Carcinoma of stomach
Surgery
null
ea7d3ab8-2fcc-4b0e-940c-9b6d080b851c
multi
Testes are not palpable in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., SRY deletion o WT-1 and SF-1 genes stimulate genital ridge to form primitive (bipotential) gonad which then differentiate either into ovary or testis.o SRY geneis involved in development of male gonds (testes) from primitive (bipotential gonads)o DAX-1, WNT-4 and RSPO1 genes are involved in development of female gonads (ovary);
1
SRY deletion
DAX 1 deletion
WNT- 4 gene mutation
RSPO-1 gene mutation
Pediatrics
Assessment of Fetal Growth and Development
9beb795e-71a6-4f99-a3bb-9f9fd39f0a56
single
Which Vitamin is involved in Redox reactions
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Riboflavin
4
Pyridoxin
Biotin
Folic acid
Riboflavin
Biochemistry
null
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single
Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6 months to 2 years of age is:
Most common cause of meningitis from 3months to 2-3 years is due to Hemophilus Influenza, Streptococcus Pneumonia, Meningococci. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 602, "Central Nervous System Infections", In the book, "NELSON TEXTBOOK OF PEDIATRICS", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Page 2514
3
Pneumococcus
Staphylococcus
H influenza
E.coli
Pediatrics
null
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single
Which of the following mineral has similar action like vitamin E
Selenium is needed for the enzyme glutathione peroxidase involved in the defence against free radical mediated damage of lipid bilayer Vitamin E is also involved in the same So, selenium has sparing effect on Vitamin E, i.e. Vitamin E deficiency can be corrected with selenium and vice versa.
3
Calcium
Iron
Selenium
Magnesium
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
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single
POEMS Syndrome includes all, EXCEPT:
The features of this syndrome are polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, multiple myeloma, and skin changes (POEMS). Patients usually have a severe, progressive sensorimotor polyneuropathy associated with sclerotic bone lesions from myeloma. Polyneuropathy occurs in ~1.4% of myelomas, but the POEMS syndrome is only a rare subset of that group. Unlike typical myeloma, hepatomegaly and lymphadenopathy occur in about two-thirds of patients, and splenomegaly is seen in one-third. Ref: Harrison's principle of internal medicine 17th edition, Chapter 106.
4
Polyneuropathy
Organomegaly
Endocrinopathy
Multiple sclerosis
Medicine
null
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multi
Oral and topical drug for nasal decongestion is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenylephrine Phenvlephrine It is selective alpha 1 agonist. Topically it is used as nasal decongestant and in eye for producing mydriasis when cycloplegia is not required. It is also a pa of oral nasal decongestant preparations.
1
Phenylephrine
Histamine
Methoxamine
Dopamine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Which of the following is the constituent of mini pill?
Ans: a (Only progesterone) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed, p. 228The constituent of minipill is only progesterone. It does not contain estrogen. It is also known as progesterone only pill.OCP(a) Combined- Monophasic- Multiphasic -Sequential pill (only estrogen in 1st 14 days and estrogen + progesterone in next 14)(b) Minipill -Progesterone only pillMechanism of action of OCPCombined OC pills suppress pituitary hormones FSH and LH and through their suppression prevents ovulation. At the same time, progesterone causes atrophic changes in the endometrium and prevents nidation.Benefits of OCP(1) Contraceptive - Prevention of pregnancy(2) Non contraceptive(a) Cycle stabilization(b) Cure of menstrual disorder (c) Protection against cancer- Ovarian- Endometrial(d) Benign tumour- Benign breast disease- Ovarian functional cyst- Fibromyoma uterus(e) Protects against- P1D-Anaemia- Endometriosis- Acne, hirsuitism- Rheumatoid arthritis- OsteoporosisOCP reduces the incidence of ectopic pregnancy is due to suppression of ovlulation, and reduction inPIDSide effects of OCPI. MinorNausea, vomiting, lack of appetite, break- through bleedingBreast tendernessVaginal dischargeHeadache, migraineChloasmaWeight gainAcne, Oily skinII. Major(a) Cardiovascular disease- Stroke- Venous Thromboembolism- HT- Coagulation abnonnalities(b) Cancer - Breast Ca, Ca cervix, Liver Ca(c) Diabetes(d) Gall stones(e) Affects lactation
1
Only progesterone
Only estrogen
Estrogen + progesterone
Norethisterone + estradiol
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Methods - Progestogen-Only Contraception
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single
Obesity Predisposes to all except -
null
3
Hypoventilation
Hypertension
Hyperventilation
Diabetes Melitus
Medicine
null
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multi
In a neonate, kidney is supplied by?
Upto 5th week of intrauterine life, kidney is in lumbar region and renal aeries are branches of common iliac aery (see above explanation). After that, differential growth of abdominal wall causes the kidney to ascent to lumbar region. Adult position (lumbar region of abdomen) is attained by 9th week. Druing progressive ascent, the aeries to kidney are derived from different levels of aoa. After full ascent, definitive renal aery is branch of aoa at 2nd lumbar segment. Thus, neonatal kidney is supplied by aoa.
4
Internal pudendal aery
External iliac aery
Common iliac aery
Aoa
Anatomy
null
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single
A 3 year old child presented to OPD with the symptoms of influenza. Aspirin is contraindicated in this patient because of increased risk of :
null
4
Gastric bleeding
Thrombocytopenia
Fanconi syndrome
Reye's syndrome
Pharmacology
null
bd7919b0-a651-44b4-bc23-2e7b3f91caaf
single
Cilastatin is given along with
.
1
Imipenem
Amoxycillin
Erythromycin
Ampicillin
Pathology
All India exam
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single
60 yrs old man presents in OPD with history of opium addiction for the last 20 yrs. He has given up opium from 2 days. Withdrawal symptoms will include -
Manifestations of morphine withdrawal Lacrimation, Rhinorrhoea, sweating, anxiety & fear, yawning, restlessness, Goose flesh (piloerection), mydriasis, insomnia, abdominal colic, diarrhea, rise in BP, dehydration, palpitation, muscle cramp & body pain, rapid weight loss.
3
Drowsiness
Constricted pupil
Rhinorrhea
↓ed Blood pressure
Forensic Medicine
null
04f9c51b-7d0b-4c69-aa7a-8a00a92ea44d
single
Which of them is not affected by vitamin K deficiency:
null
4
Factor IX
Factor VII
Factor II
Factor VIII
Physiology
null
78e87caa-927c-4ab4-90ea-ffc3301d609c
single
Most common complication of electroconvulsive therapy is
Electroconvulsive therapyCentral Nervous System Effects: Headache, confusion, and delirium sholy after the seizure while the patient is coming out of anaesthesia. Memory: memory impairment is seen in 75% following ECT. Except for retrograde memory impairment, other cognitive effects generally return to pre-ECT baseline or even improve over baseline with right unilateral ECT.Other Adverse Effects: Fractures, nausea, vomitingRef: P.3300 31.34a Electroconvulsive Therapy(Kaplan & Sadock&;s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Ed)
2
Antegrade amnesia
Retrograde amnesia
Depression
Cognitive defects
Psychiatry
All India exam
a87a1e31-f0a8-4e89-b8bc-4be3a3bd14b5
single
All of the following factors accelerate the development of rigor mois in a dead body, EXCEPT:
Cold temperature slows the onset and progression of rigor mois. It is because of the slow onset and breakdown of ATP in cold weather. Rigor mois usually has an onset 1-2 hours after death and gets well established in the entire body in about 9-12hrs. Factors accelerating the onset of rigor mois are: Warm temperature Thin body built Aerobic exercise Strychnine poisoning (produces convulsions) Ref: Forensic Science: Fundamentals & Investigations By Anthony J. Beino, page 315.
3
Thin body built
Aerobic exercise
Cold temperature
Strychnine poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi