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In a sampling technique, every 10th unit of population is chosen. What is this type of sampling technique called?
Systematic random sampling is a sampling technique. It is done by picking up every 5th or 10th unit at regular intervals. By this method, each in the sampling frame would have the same chance of being selected, but the number of possible samples is reduced. Other sampling methods are simple random sampling, stratified random sampling. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 913
1
Systematic random sampling
Systematic sampling
Simple random sampling
Cluster sampling
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Most common mode of treatment of a 1 year old child with asthma is:
Asthma in children between 1-3 years of age is treated with inhaled beta-2 adrenergics and/or theophylline administered by nebuliser or face mask. Ref: Diagnosis and Management of Asthma, Mani S. Kavuru, 2007 - Page 41; Pediatric Allergy, Asthma And Immunology, Springer, 2008 - Page 828; Ghai Essential Pediatrics - 6th Edition, Page 357
1
Inhaled sho acting beta 2 agonist
Oral sho acting theophylline
Oral ketotifen
Leukotriene agonist
Pediatrics
null
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A 10-year-old girl has multiple excoriations that have appeared on the skin of her hands over the past week. The child reports that she scratches her hands because they itch. Physical examination shows multiple 0.2- to 0.6-cm linear streaks in the interdigital regions. Treatment with a topical lindane lotion resolves the condition. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for these findings?
The small scabies mites burrow through the stratum corneum to produce the linear lesions, and the mites along with their eggs and feces produce intense pruritus. Scabies is easily transmitted by contact and typically occurs in community outbreaks. Ixodes scapularis is the tick that is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi organisms, which cause Lyme disease and erythema chronicum migrans. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by a poxvirus that produces a localized, firm nodule. The erythematous macules and pustules of impetigo in children are often caused by staphylococcal and group A streptococcal infection. Tinea corporis is a superficial dermatophytic fungal infection that can produce erythema and crusting.
4
Ixodes scapularis
Poxvirus
Staphylococcus aureus
Sarcoptes scabiei
Pathology
Skin
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All are substrates of Gluconeogenesis EXCEPT:
18 amino acids are glucogenic (out of 20). These all can form glucose. Only 2 amino acids are purely ketogenic which cannot form glucose i.e. Leucine, Lysine. As there is controversy regarding Lysine to be purely ketogenic we cannot mark this as not gluconeogenic. Hence its only safe to mark leucine in case one best answer is to marked. Ketogenic Amino Acids Glucogenic And Ketogenic Amino Acids Glucogenic Amino Acid Leucine Lysine(controversial) Tyrosine Tryptophan Threonine Isoleucine Phenyl Alanine Rest all are glucogenic Mostly 3C compounds are good substrates of Gluconeogenesis. Precursors which can be conveed to glucose are: Pyruvate(3C) Lactate(3C) Glycerol(3C) Propionic Acid(3C) Any TCA intermediate Amino Acids Source of pyruvate in Fasting Link Reaction not occurring so pyruvate accumulates lactate from anaerobic glycolysis gets conveed to pyruvate by enzyme lactate Dehydrogenase, which is reversible enzyme Glycerol conves into Glycerol-3-P by Glycerol Kinase in Liver and then Glycerol-3-P forms DHAP (an intermediate of glycolysis) by enzyme Glycerol-3-P dehydrogenase gets conveed to Succinyl CoA, which is intermediate of TCA form glucose as they can form OAA, which can be conveed to glucose
3
Lactate
Alanine
Leucine
Lysine
Biochemistry
Gluconeogenesis
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A wave in JVP is due to ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Atrial systole
1
Atrial systole
Atrial diastole
Ventricular systale
Ventricular diastole
Physiology
null
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single
Characteristics of Slow Wave Sleep are
(C) Heart rate and respiratory rate become irregular > Slow waves in the EEG and their behavioral correlate, slow-wave sleep, can be produced by stimulation of at least three subcortical regions.> The diencephalic sleep zone is in the posterior hypothalamus and the nearby intralaminar and anterior thalamic nuclei.> The stimulus frequency must be about 8 Hz; faster stimuli produce arousal.
3
Also called paradoxical slee
Dreams occur but not consolidated into memory
Heart rate & respiratory rate become irregular
EEG shows desynchronized pattern of b waves
Physiology
Nervous System
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The decrease in plasma osmotic pressure is the cause of edema in?
• Following conditions can cause edema :- 1) The increased hydrostatic pressure of capillaries : It causes an increase in outward driving force. It may be due to impaired venous return e.g. in CHF or DVT. 2) Decreased plasma osmotic pressure of capillaries: It causes decreases in inward driving force. It results from Hypoproteinemia. When total plasma protein is below 5 gm/dl (normal 6-8gm/dl) or albumin is below 2.5 gm/dl (normal 3.5-5 gm/dl) edema takes place. Conditions causing hypoproteinemia are a nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, protein-losing enteropathy, and PEM. 3) Defective removal of interstitial fluid by lymphatics: It is due to lymphatic obstruction, which may be inflammatory, neoplastic, post-surgical and post-irradiation.  4) Increased vascular permeability: It occurs in acute and chronic inflammation, and during angiogenesis (new vessels are leaky). 5) Sodium (salt) and water retention: It causes expansion of plasma volume (hydrostatic pressure) and dilution of plasma proteins (↓ osmotic pressure). The conditions responsible for this type of edema are ARF, acute glomerulonephritis, renal hypoperfusion, and increase renin angiotensin aldosterone system (RAAS) activity.
3
CHF
DVT
Nephrotic syndrome
None
Pathology
null
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A male 45 years old presents to the dental clinic with pain in lower back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals carious 36. Root canal treatment done and zirconia crown has to be placed. Dentist makes an impression with polysulfide impression material. All of the following are the disadvantages of this material except?
Key Concept: High tear resistance is an advantage of Polysulfide impression materials. Characteristics of Elastomeric Impression Materials:
1
High tear resistance
Stretching leads to distortion
Stains clothing
Obnoxious odor
Dental
null
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All of the following are mid line swellings in neck, except
(A) Branchial cyst # DD of midline swellings of neck: Ludwigs angina; Enlarged submental lymph node; Sublingual dermoid cyst; Subhyoid bursitis; Thyroglossal cyst; Enlarged isthmus of thyroid gland; Pretracheal and prelaryngeal lymph nodes; Retrosternal goitre; Thymic swelling; Enlarged lymph nodes of lipoma in the suprasternal space of burns
1
Branchial cyst
Sublingual dermoid cyst
Throglossal cyst
Subhyoid bursitis
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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Seen in rickets A/E –a) Cupping of metaphysicb) Defective Mineralizationc) Epiphyseal dysgenesisd) Defective osteoid formation
In rickets osteoid (protein matrix) is formed normally but mineralization of this osteoid does not occur i.e. there is defective mineralization. Pathophysiology of rickets 1)   Normal anatomy and physiology of mineralization Normal growing bone has following regions (moving from end to centre) -
2
ab
cd
bd
ac
Pediatrics
null
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The commonest cause of pathological fracture is generalized affection is:
B i.e. Ostoporosis
2
Carcinoma
Osteoporosis
Cyst
All of the above
Surgery
null
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A 24-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy presents with urinary frequency and burning for the past few days. She denies fever, or chills. She has mild suprapubic tenderness, and a urine dipstick is positive for WBC, protein, and a small amount of blood. Culture produces greater than 100,000 colonies of gram-negative bacilli. Which attribute of this uropathogenic organism is most strongly associated with its virulence?
P pili are found in uropathogenic strains of E. coli. By using P pili, E. coli is able to attach to epithelial cells lining the urinary tract. Pili or fimbriae are hair like structures, which are formed by only gram-negative bacteria. They are organs of adhesion and allow the bacteria to adhere to mucosal surface. These are composed of protein subunits called as pilin.
4
Colonisation factor antigen
Heat labile toxins
Heat stable toxins
P pili
Surgery
null
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A child presents with a solitary white well-defined patch on his right thigh. Diagnosis is –
Information is this question are :- Lesion is on thigh Unilateral lesion (Isolated lesion on Right thigh) Both these suggest Nevus achromicus, i.e. Nevus acromicus involves :- Trunk and proximal extremity (thigh in this question) Lesion is unilateral Also keep in mind that, though Nevus achromicus presents since birth, it may be missed at birth and the patient may present in childhood
3
Piebaldism
Albinism
Nevus achromicus
Acral vitiligo
Dental
null
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X- linked recessive disease in male with clotting defect is-
X- linked recessive disease in male with clotting defect is Hemophilia A XR (X-linked recessive) Color blindness Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy Becker's Muscular Dystrophy Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase deficiency(G6PD) Testicular Feminization Hunter's Syndrome Fabry's disease Ornithine Transcarboxylase deficiency Lesch Nyhan syndrome Hemophilia A and B Agammaglobulinemia
1
Hemophilia A
Von - Willebrand disease
ITP
None
Biochemistry
Genetic Disorders
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Which of the following is seen retinitis pigmentosa?
Retinitis pigmentosaApoptosis of rodsAR - most common RISK FACTOR- Consanguineous marriagesC/F- Nyctalopia- Ring scotoma +nt- Progress to tubular vision (constriction of visual fields) O/E- TRIAD- Pale waxy disc- Aeriolar attenuation- BONE SPICLUE PIGMENTATION (characteristic) - Gold standard for Dx - ERG- Measures the potential difference ofNeuro sensory layerNORMAL ERG- Negative 'a' -wave- Positive 'b' -wave- Small 'c' -wave (sometimes)- a-wave - measures the potential difference of photoreceptors- b-wave - measures the potential differenceOf Muller's cells (neuroglia) & bipolarCells (neuronal cells) In Retinitis Pigmentosa- ERG becomes FLAT
1
Aeriolar attenuation
Neovascularization
Retinal aery thrombosis
Papilledema
Ophthalmology
FMGE 2019
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All of the following statements about renal regulations in a paient with hypovolemic shock are true, expect(2018)
Renin is secreted from the juxtaglomerular cells that surround the renal afferent aerioles.Aldosterone secretion is regulated the renin-angiotensin system in a feedback manner.Angiotensin II has a generalized vasoconstrictor action. A drop in ECF volume or intra-aerial vascular volume leads to a reflex increase in renal nerve discharge and decreases renal aerial pressure. Both changes increase renin secretion, and the angiotensin II formed by the action of renin increases the rate of secretion of aldosterone. The aldo- sterone causes Na+ and, secondarily, water retention, expanding ECF volume, and shutting off the stimulus that initiated increased renin secretion.renin causes renal vasoconstriction with decreased glomerular filtration and renal blood flow. Ref:-ganong, pg num:- 598, 370,675
3
Reduced renal plasma flow
Reduced glomerular filtration rate
Constriction of afferent aeriole more than the efferent aeriole
Renal vasoconstriction
Physiology
Renal physiology
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Best parameter measured by ultrasound to assess foetal maturity in the first trimester?
Ans. A. Crown - rump lengthThe most sensitive indicator of symmetric and asymmetric IUGR is the abdominal circumference, which has a sensitivity of over 95 percent if the measurement is below the 2.5th percentile. Head/abdomen ratio is very useful in suspected IUGR when sparing head growth is observed (asymmetrical IUGR) and ratio is increased. Between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation, the HC/AC ratio normally drops almost linearly from 1.2 to 1.0. The ratio is normal in the fetus with symmetric growth restriction and elevated in the infant with asymmetric growth restriction.1. First trimestercrown-rump length is most accurate. The image should be obtained in a sagittal plane and include neither the yolk sac nor a limb bud. If carefully performed, it has a variation of only 3 to 5 days.2. Second trimesterBetween 14 and 26 weeks, the biparietal diameter (BPD) is usually the most accurate parameter, with a variation of 7 to 10 days. By convention, the BPD is measured from the outer edge of the proximal skull to the inner edge of the distal skull, at the level of the thalami and cavum Septi pellucidi.The head circumference (HC) also is measured. If the head shape is flattened (dolichocephaly) or rounded (brachycephaly), this measurement is more reliable than the BPD.The femur length (FL) correlates well with both BPD and gestational age. The femur is measured with the beam perpendicular to the long axis of the shaft, excluding the epiphysis, and has a variation of 7 to 11 days in the second trimester.The abdominal circumference (AC) is the parameter with the widest variation of 2 to 3 weeks. This is because the AC measurement involves soft tissue rather than bone and is also the parameter most affected by fetal growth. The AC is measured at the skin line in a transverse view of the fetus at the level of the fetal stomach and umbilical vein.3. Third trimesterThe variability of gestational age estimation increases as pregnancy advances. By the third trimester, all individual measurements become less accurate. Estimates are improved by taking an average of the various parameters the BPD, HC, AC, and FL. Also, each measurement should be assessed individually; if one measurement is significantly different from the others, it can be excluded from the calculation. The outlier measurement could result from poor visibility, or it could indicate a fetal growth abnormality. If third-trimester ultrasound measurements must be used to determine gestational age, accuracy can be improved by performing serial examinations and documenting normal interval fetal growth
1
Crown - rump length
Biparietal diameter
Ratio of transverse diameter of abdomen to foetal head diameter
Transverse diameter of abdomen
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in Obstetrics
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Which is the following is an example of low grade Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Follicular Lymphoma is a low grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma Most common form of indolent lymphoma in adults. Hallmark is a (14;18) translocation that juxtaposes the IGH locus on chromosome 14 and the BCL2 locus on chromosome 18. The t(14;18) is seen in up to 90% of follicular lymphomas and leads to overexpression of BCL2. Tumor cells comprise of small lymphoid cells with condensed chromatin and irregular or cleaved nuclear outlines (centrocytes) are mixed with a population of larger cells with nucleoli (centroblasts). Following image shows Follicular lymphoma (variably-sized follicles effacing lymph node architecture) Following image of Follicular lymphoma showing centroblast and centrocyte DLBCL, Burkitt lymphoma and lymphoblastic lymphoma are all high-grade NHLs.
1
Follicular lymphoma
Burkitt lymphoma
Diffuse large cell lymphoma (DLBCL)
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Pathology
Non Hodgkin Iymphoma
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Which of the following is respiratory analeptic drug?
ANSWER: (D) DoxapramREF: KDT 6th edition page 470CNS STIMULANT CLASSIFICATIONConvulsants: Strychnine, Picrotoxin, Bicuculline, Pentylenetetrazol (PTZ)Analeptics: DoxapramPsychostimulants: Amphetamines, Methylphenidate, Modafinil, Pemoline, Cocaine, Caffeine.Doxapram: It acts by promoting excitation of central neurones. At low doses it is more selective for the respiratory centre than other anaieptics Respiration is stimulated through carotid and aortic body chemoreceptors as well. Falling BP rises. Continuous i v infusion of doxapram has been found to abolish episode of apnoea in the premature infant not responding to Theophylline
4
Picrotoxin
Methylphenidate
Caffeine
Doxapram
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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Increase in temperature during first 2 hours after death is due to?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., septicemia Postmortem caloricitv is seen in1) Due to disturbed heat regidation : Sun-stroke (heat stroke), pontine hemorrhage.2) Due to heat production by muscular activity: Tetanus, strychnine poisoning, asphyxial death.3) Acute bacterial or viral infections : Pneumonia, septicemia, liver abscess, peritonitis, typhoid, nephritis, meningitis, cholera etc.4) Very high atmosphere temperature.
4
Massive hemorrhage
Cyanide poisoning
Organophosphorus poisoning
Septicemia
Forensic Medicine
Death and Medicolegal Aspects
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All of the following occur in pregnancy EXCEPT
(C) Decrease in fibrinogen levels # PHYSIOLOGICAL CHANGES ASSOCIATED WITH PREGNANCY:> Blood Volume increases progressively from 6-8 weeks gestation (pregnancy) and reaches a maximum at approximately 32-34 weeks with little change thereafter.> Renal plasma flow and glomerular filtration rate begin to increase progressively during the first trimester.> Increases in blood volume and cardiac output.> Elevations in plasma flow and glomerular filtration result in an elevation in creatinine clearance.> Blood urea and serum creatinine are reduced by 40%.> here is also an increase in filtered sodium, but tubular absorption is increased by an increase in aldosterone secretion, via the renin-angiotensin meChanism.There is also a decrease in plasma osmolality.# RBC & Haemoglobin: RBC volume is increased to the extent of 20-30%. Total increase in volume is about 350ml; the amount to be regulated by the increased demand of oxygen transport during pregnancy. Disproportionate increase in plasma and RBC volume produces a state of haemodilution during pregnancy. Thus, even though the total haemoglobin mass increases during pregnancy to the extent of 18-20 percent, there is apparent fall in haemoglobin concentration. At term the fall is about 2 gm5 from the non-pregnant value. There is simultaneous fall in number of red cells by 15-20% and the hematocrit level.# Blood changes in Pregnancy: Blood volume +30-40% Plasma volume + 40-50% RBC volume +20-30% Hb+18-20% Hematocrit Diminished. Changes in blood coagulation factors: Platelets Static or-15% Fibrinogen + 50% ESR 4 times increases
3
Increase in Cardiac output
Increase in stroke volume
Decrease in fibrinogen levels
Rise in the venous pressure in the lower limb in supine position
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Obs)
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Who gave the basic concepts of "Analytical Psychology"?
Psychoanalysis : Sigmond Freud Child psychoanalysis: Anna Freud Analytical psychology: Carl Jung.
4
Sigmond Freud
Erik erikson
Anna Freud
Carl Jung
Psychiatry
null
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single
Consistency of the gas permeable contact lenses is:
Ans. Hard
1
Hard
Soft
Semisoft
None of the above
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Sudden inversion of foot leads to rupture of which tendon?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anterior talofibular ligament * The lateral collateral ligament is commonly sprained, mostly so the anterior talofibular component* Structures damaged due to inversion injury.i) Peroneal tendon injury.ii) Avulsion fracture of tip of lateral malleolus.iii) Avulsion fracture of anterolateral surface of talus & calcaneum (sustentaculum tali).iv) Fracture of base of 5th metatarsal.v) Lateral collateral ligament injury (anterior talo fibular > calcaneofibular > posterior- talofibular ligament).vi) Medial malleolus fracture.
2
Deltoid ligament
Anterior talofibular ligament
Posterior talofibular ligament
Spring ligament
Orthopaedics
Injuries to the Leg, Ankle & Foot
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All of the following are known side effects with the use of tocolytic therapy except:
Tocolysis for pregnancies beyond 34 weeks are associated with more complications and no clear benefits in fetal status. Hence tocolysis is now limited to pregnancies before 34 weeks. Common side effects of tocolytic therapy - Hypotension Tachycardia Hyperglycemia Pulmonary edema Cardiac arrythmias Hypokalemia Neonatal arrhythmias
4
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Hyperglycemia
Fever
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Labour - normal, abnormal, malposition, malpresentation and their management
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'Socialized medicine' concept was first given by
Socialized medicine - Free medical care by govt. regulated by professional groups or bodies. Concept given by Russia State medicine -free medical care by govt. Finger printing first given by - India Blindness control first staed by - India Compulsory sickness insurance given by- Germany
2
India
Russia
Germany
China
Social & Preventive Medicine
Definition and Concepts in Sociology & Psychology
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single
A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer. Drug that is absolutely contraindicated is:-
Misoprostol (PGE1 analogue) is the MOST SPECIFIC drug for treatment and prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcer (DOC is PPI). Commonest side effect of PG analogues is diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain. Misoprostol can cause aboion. It is therefore contraindicated in pregnancy.
3
Omeprazole
Ranitidine
Misoprostol
Famotidine
Pharmacology
Gastro-Intestinal Tract
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Discectomy can be performed using
Ans. D. ALLa. Discectomy is performed in case of accompanying LCS - fenestration with laminectomyb. Small disc with microscope/endoscope
4
Open surgery
Microscope
Endoscope
All
Orthopaedics
Management In Orthopedics
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Nocardia is stained by:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acid fast stainRef:(Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 393; 9th/e, p. 390-91)The first step in diagnosis is examination of sputum or pus for crooked, branching, beaded, gram-positive filaments 1 um wide and up to 50 um long. Most nocardiae are acid-fast in direct smears if a weak acid is used for decolorization (e.g., in the modified Kinyoun, Ziehl-Neelsen, and Fite-Faraco methods). The organisms often take up silver stains.
1
Acid fast stain
Kiram's stain
Alcian blue
Mucin stain
Microbiology
Bacteria
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Virus causing acute onset sensorineural deafness -a) Corona virusb) Rubella, measlesc) Mumpsd) Adeno viruse) Rota virus
“The most common postnatal cause of acquired SNHL is meningitis, while the most common prenatal cause is intrauterine infection (eg TORCH infections, syphilis, mumps, measles)”. According to Scotts Browth 7/e, p 3579 – Specific viruses like mumps and syphilis and encephalitis can cause sudden sensorineural hearing loss.
2
a
bc
ac
ad
ENT
null
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Urine concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by
Countercurrent mechanism is a system in the renal medulla that facilitates concentration of the urine as it passes through the renal tubules.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 687
1
Increased medullary hyperosmolarity
Increase in RBF
Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity
Increase in GFR
Physiology
Renal physiology
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a-Granules of platelet contains all of the following, EXCEPT:
Platelets play a critical role in normal hemostasis. Their function depends on several glycoprotein receptors, a contractile cytoskeleton, and two types of cytoplasmic granules. a-Granules have the adhesion molecule P-selectin on their membranes and contain fibrinogen, fibronectin, factors V and VIII, platelet factor 4 (a heparin-binding chemokine), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), and transforming growth factor-b (TGF-b). Dense (or d) granules contain ADP and ATP, ionized calcium, histamine, serotonin, and epinephrine. Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 4.
4
Fibrinogen
Fibronectin
factors V
ATP
Pathology
null
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multi
Periodic Acid Schiff stain shows block positivity in:
Lymphoblasts
2
Myeloblasts
Lymphoblasts
Monoblasts
Megakaryoblasts
Pathology
null
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single
Brazilian purpuric fever is caused by?
Brazilian purpuric fever is caused by Haemophilus aegyptius. It is characterised by conjunctivitis which proceeds to fulminant septicemia in infants and children. There is high fatality. It was first recognized in Brazil in 1984. Ref: Ananthanarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition, p330,331.
3
Haemophilus haemolyticus
Haemophilus aphrophilus
Haemophilus aegyptius
Haemophilus parainfluenzae
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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A 7 year old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is true -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on renal biopsy This girl is having i) Generalized swelling (edema) ii) Grade 3 proteinuria iii) Fatty casts (lipiduria) iv) No hematuria o All these features suggest the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. o Minimal change disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. o Minimal change disease is characterized by absence of IgG deposits and/or complement on immunofluorescence.
1
No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on renal biopsy
C3 level will be low
IgA nephropathy is the likely diagnosis
Alpo's syndrome is the likely diagnosis
Pediatrics
null
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Which of the following has small representation in somatosensory area of cerebral cortex -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trunko A distinct topographic represention of the body can be demonstrated in somatosensory area-1.o Each side of the cortex receives sensory information from the opposite side of the body only (contralateral representation).o The body is represented upside down (vertical) in the postcentral gyrus, i.e. the face is represented at the foot of the gyrus whereas the legs and feet are represented at the top extending on the medial surface.o Some parts of body like face (especially lips, tongue) and fingers have a proportionately large representation than the other areas like the trunk. The cortical representation of the part of the body is proportionate to its innervation densitv (number of sensory receptors) rather than its size.Somatosensory cortex
4
Lips
Thumb/fmgers
Tongue
Trunk
Physiology
Nervous System
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Menorrhagia is defined as blood loss per vagina more than:
null
1
80 ml
110 ml
150 ml
50 ml
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5618436b-5205-45d0-8c7a-e3576228148f
single
All are true about Bullous keratopathy except -
It is seen in fuch's dystrophy.Stage of bullous keratopathy,this stage follows long-standing stromal oedema and is characterised by marked epithelial oedema with formation of bullae, which when rupture cause pain, discomfo and irritation with associated decreased visual acquity.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,4th edition,page no.119
1
See in Macular dystrophy
Treatment is keoplasty
Lenses can be prescribed for such patients
Seen in Fuch's dystrophy
Ophthalmology
Cornea and sclera
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multi
Which of the following is very effective in Rx of acute exacerbation of asthma and status asthmaticus?
Ans. D. None of the above. (Ref. KDT 6th/224 - 227)KDT 6th/pg. 225........Currently, inhaled steroids are not considered necessary for patients with mild and episodic asthma. They are indicated when inhaled beta2 agnoists are required almost daily or the disease is not only episodic. Peak effect is after 4-7 days of instituting inhaled steroids. They have no role in acute attack of asthma or in status asthmaticus.# While inhaled steroids differ markedly in their affinities for the glucocorticoid receptor, with fluticasone and budesonide having much higher affinities than beclomethasone, they are all effective in controlling asthma at the appropriate doses. High dose inhaled steroid are beneficial only in advanced COPD with frequent exacerbations; should not be used in early/mild cases. Hoarseness of voice, dysphonia, sore throat, oropharyngeal candidiasis are the most common side effects. There is no e/o mucosal damage or increased incidence of chest infections even on prolonged use. Systemic effects mainly at doses > 600 microgm/dy. Inhaled steroid are safe during pregnancy.INHALED STEROIDS# Are glucocorticoids with high topical and low systemic activity.# There are currently five glucocorticoids available for inhalation therapy of asthma:- Beclomethasone dipropionate,- Triamcinolone acetonide,- Flunisolide,- Budesonide and- Fluticasone propionate.Inhaled steroids|||||FluticasoneBudesonide:Flunisolide:Ciclesonide:# High potency,# Longer duration,# No oral bioavailability.# High topicalrsystemic activity ratio.# Contraindicated in infections/nasal ulcers.# Used in prophylaxis & Rx of seasonal & perenial allergic or vasomotor rhinitis, & nasal polyposis.# Used in prophylaxis and Rx of seasonal and perennial rhinitis.# Prodrug# Cleaved by esterase in bronchial epith.# Uses noval approach to | topicahsystemic activity ratio.# Oral bioavailability <1%.# Extensivley bound to plasma proteins.
4
Beclomethasone
Budesonide
Ciclesonide
None of the above
Pharmacology
Asthma
854ad2c1-5c62-44ed-8553-b2bd35c56cad
multi
B cells are induced to produce IgE by which of the following
ref : robbins 10th ed
2
IL-2
IL-4
IL-1
IL-6
Pathology
All India exam
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single
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is diffentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by -
null
1
Niacin test
AFB staining
PAS staining
None
Microbiology
null
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multi
cove sensitization is mainly used in
In cove sensitization also called as imagined punishment, the individual who wants to quit alcohol will be asked to think about adverse consequences of taking alcohol like getting arrested for drunken driving or facing a accident underintoxicated state. He would be told to dream as if if he is drunk and lies intoxicated in the road and has to be brought back to the home by family members where he will be given lot of advice from neighbours and there would be a loss of respect. While these imagined exposure the patient feels bad and makes sure thet he should quit alcohol and his thoughts ahgainst alcohol increases. Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845
2
schizoid personality
substance use
mania
schizophrenia
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
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single
Effective polymerase reaction was repeated for 3 cycleson a DNA molecule. What will be the resultingformation of the copies?
. 8 times
4
Double number of copies
Three times the number of DNA molecule
Four times the number of DNA molecule
8 times
Pathology
null
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single
Most common cause of aificial hea valve infection?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Staph epidermidis Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis upto 12 months is coagulase - negative staphylococci (staph. epidermidis). Most common causes of infective endocarditis In native wall - Staphylococcus aureus. In early prosthetic valve (up to 12 months after valve surgery) - Staphylococcus epidermidis (coagulase negative staphylococcus). In late prosthetic valve (more than 12 months after valve surgery) - streptococcus viridans. In IV drug abusers - Staphylococcus aureus. In patients with intravenous catheter - coagulase negative staphylococci. After dental procedure (tooth extraction) - streptococcus mutans.
3
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus mutans
Staph epidermidis
Pneumococcus
Microbiology
null
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single
A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia. There is no other significant past or present complain except that she had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. What would be the most probable diagnosis is:
Ans. B. Telogen effluviumAnagen Effluvium - hair loss during anagen - the onset may be rapid (within 2-4 weeks of the cause). Hair loss may be severe. Causes include: - Chemotherapy drugs (antimitotic agents), Radiotherapy, Malnutrition, Seborrheic dermatitis, Oral contraceptives, Vitamin A poisoning, Iron deficiency, Chronic infections and some drugs.Telogen Effluvium - relating to a specific form of diffuse alopecia - eviction of hair shafts that have prematurely entered the telogen phase. Excessive loss of hair can occur. Telogen Effluvium tends to become apparent 6-12 weeks following the cause. Such a hair loss can result in 1-2cm stubble in extreme cases within weeks. Causes include: Pyrexia (body temperature reaching 103.5degC+), Childbirth (rare), severe infection (especially toxemia), major surgery, protein deficiency due to unsupervised crash diets, drugs including beta blockers, anti-depressants, severe psychological stress.
2
Androgenetic alopecia
Telogen effluvium
Anagen effluvium
Alopecia areata
Skin
Alopecia
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Following operations are used for genital prolapse, EXCEPT:
Fenton's method is used for perineoplasty. All others are surgical correction methods of genital prolapse. Types of operation for genital prolapse: Anterior colporrhaphy Colpoperineorrhaphy Repair of enterocele Pelvic floor repair (PFR) Fothergill's or Manchester operation Vaginal hysterectomy with PFR or Ward Mayo's operation Repair of vault prolapse Le Fo operation Cervicopexy or Sling operation or Purandare's operation Ref: Textbook of Gynaecology by D C Dutta, 4th edition, Page 198, 540.
2
Fothergill's operation
Fenton's method
Ward Mayo operation
Le Fo operation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Neo Vscularization of iris is not seen in:
Neovascularization of iris is not seen in pigment dispersion syndrome. Neovascularization of Iris. Seen in the conditions where there is VEGF release post inflammation. Can cause neovascular glaucoma. Rx: PRP followed by trabeculectomy/shunt. Causes: PDR CRVO Ocular ischemic syndrome Central Retinal Aery Occlussion Sickle cell Anemia Vasculitis
2
CRVO
Pigment dispersion syndrome
Ocular Ischemic Syndrome
Diabetic retinopathy
Ophthalmology
Vitreous Humour, Uveal Disorders
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single
All are transmitted by milk except
Leishmaniasis is caused by Leishmania donovani. It is a parasitic infection. L.donovani passes its life cycle in 2 hosts, veebrate host ( man and dog), inveebrate host (female sand fly of genus Phlebotomus). The disease is transmitted by the bite of the infected sand fly. In bovine tuberculosis infected cows excreted bacilli in the milk which can then infect people who drink it wrong. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology 4th edition.
4
Tuberculosis
Brucellosis
Q Fever
Leishmaniasis
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Earliest lesion seen in asbestosis is:
It is the most common manifestation of asbestosis exposure composed of plaques of dense collagen containing calcium.they are usually asymptomatic and develop on anteroir and postereolateral pas of parietal pleura and over diaphragm.(ref Robbins 9/e p691)
1
Pleural plaques
Hilar lymphadenopathy
Adenoma lung
Mesothelioma
Anatomy
Respiratory system
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single
A child plays a simple ball game at:
Playing a simple ball game comes at 1 year or 52 weeks.
1
52 weeks
36 weeks
12 weeks
40 weeks
Pediatrics
Social and Language Milestones
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multi
In Treacher collin's syndrome there is:
null
2
Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure
Poorly developed or absence of malar bones
Progenia and mandibular prognathism
No loss of hearing
Pathology
null
099bc60d-9c8e-434f-9fe6-9d91a6ff88f7
single
What is present in the retropharyngeal space ?
Preveebral Fascia anteriorly is separated from the pharynx and buccopharyngeal fascia by the retropharyngeal space containing loose areolar tissue. Neck infections in front of the preveebral fascia in the retropharyngeal space usually arise from suppuration, i.e. formation of pus in the retropharyngeal lymph nodes. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition.
2
Platysma
Loose areolar tissue & lymph nodes
Veebrae
Hypoglossal nerve
Anatomy
Head and neck
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All are Lyophilized vaccines except
null
4
BCG
Yellow fever
Measeles
Tetanus
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Nasopalatine cyst arises from
Nasopalatine cyst is also known as incisive canal cyst.
1
A Embryonic remnants of nasopalatine duct
Cell rest of malassez
Cell rest of serre
Cell remnants of maxillary sinus
Pathology
null
4a721608-358e-4f56-9327-7325fb16f1d6
single
Definitive laboratory diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is done by:
Answer is B (Serum Lipase) Serum lipase elevation is the most specific laboratory test for establishing a diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis `A three fold elevated serum lipase value is usually diagnostic of acute pancreatitis' - Harrison Serum Lipase levels and serum amylase levels are both used to establish the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis An elevated serum Lipase level is more specific for pancreatitis than- a serum amylase level because many other pathologic conditions may present with an elevated amylase level. Serum lipase is therefore the single best answer of choice.
2
Serum Amylase
Serum Lipase
Hyperglycemia
Hypercalcemia
Medicine
null
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single
In G-6PD deficient patient haemolysis is due to decrease in
Ans. is 'd' i.e. NADPH Glucose-6-POd dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyis an X-linked recessive disorder* that causes episodic hemolytic anemia because of decreased ability of RBCs to deal with oxidative stresses.G6PD is the first and the rate limiting enzyme of the hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP shunt) which is responsible for the production of NADPH in the cells.NADPH acts as a cofactor for glutathione reductase that generates reduced form of glutathione.Reduced glutathione is a potent antioxidant and detoxifies hydrogen peroxide and other oxidants.In the absence of reduced glutathione, haemoglobin may become oxidized.Oxidized haemoglobin denatures and forms precipitants called Heinz bodies*. These Heinz bodies cause membrane damage, which leads to removal of these cells by the spleen and hemolyzed (Hemolytic anemia).
4
H+
TPP
NADH
NADPH
Biochemistry
HMP Shunt Pathway, Fructose, Galactose Metabolism
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Macrocytic anemia is not seen in:
Anemia of chronic disease
4
Vitamin B12 deficency
Hemolytic anemia
Post haemmorgagic
Anemia of chronic disease
Pathology
null
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single
Dental pulp is derived from
null
1
Cephalic neural crest cells
Mesenchymal cells
Ectodermal cells
Endodermal cells
Dental
null
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All are true regarding killed polio vaccine except -
<p> IPV /salk polio vaccine. Strains - Mahoney( salk type 1) MEF1( salk type 2) saukett( salk type 3) Inactivated in formaldehyde. Final vaccine mixture contains 40 units of type1, 8 units of type 2, and 32 units of type3. Administration- intramuscular injection or subcutaneous. Should be refrigerated to ensure no loss of potency. Freezing avoided. Either administered alone or in combination with other vaccine antigens including diphtheria,tetanus,whole cell or acellular peussis,Hepatitis B, or Haemophilus influenza type b. Primary/initial course consists of 4 inoculation: first 3doses given at an interval of 1-2 months and 4 th dose 6-12 months after 3 rd dose. First dose given when the infant is 6 weeks old. Additional doses recommended prior to school entry and then every 5 yrs until the age of 18. Alternatively one/two doses of OPV can be safely given as boosters after an initial course of immunisation with inactivated vaccine. Immunity:- induces circulating humoral antibodies(IgM,IgG,IgA). Doesn&;t induce intestinal or local immunity. The circulating antibodies protect the individual against paralytic polio,but do not prevent reinfection of gut by wild viruses. In case of epidemic, IPV is unsustainable because immunity is not rapidly achieved as more than one dose required to induce immunity and injections are to be avoided during epidemic as they are likely to precipitate paralysis. Advantages:- it doesn&;t contain living virus ,so safe to administer : 1. To persons with immunodeficiency diseases. 2. To persons undergoing coicosteroid and radiation therapy. 3. To those over 50 years who are receiving vaccine for first time. 4. During pregnancy. 5. IPV is an alternative to OPV for immunisation of children with HIV infection. No serious adverse effects noticed {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.206 }</p>
3
Produces circulatory antibody
Does not require stringent refrigeration
Immunity againts paralytic and wild strains
Not effective in an epidemic
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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multi
Rapid infusion of blood causes
null
3
Acute Left heart failure
Ankle edema
Pulmonary edema
Respiratory Distress
Surgery
null
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Nine days following splenectomy, a 13-year- old patient presents with fever and leukocytosis. The chest x-ray shows free air under the diaphragm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Colon perforation is likely to show free air under the left hemidiaphragm. A subphrenic abscess presents with fever, leukocytosis, and a left pleural effusion. Gastric wall necrosis may likewise result in perforation with free air. There is air below the diaphragm following laparotomy, but it usually manifests symptoms clearly within the first week after operation.
4
Left lower lobe pneumonia
Postsplenectomy sepsis
Gastric wall ulcer
Left colon perforation
Surgery
Trauma
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multi
Opioid agonist are all fo the following except
Ketamine
3
Morphine
Codeine
Ketamine
Methadone
Pharmacology
null
f050afe2-c1b9-49b2-a6d7-a2101f2aa212
multi
Which of the following acts as an acute phase reactant?
Ans: b (Serum ferritin) Ref: Rob7th ed, p. 84-85Acute phase reactants: They are a group of plasma proteins which rise during inflammation and trauma.Endotoxin (during an infection) stimulates the release of IL-1 from the Kupffer cells which leads to enhanced hepatic synthesis of the protein.Eg:FerritinHaptoglobulinCRPAlpha -1 - antitrypsinFibrinogen CeruloplasminAlpha -2- macroglobulinOf the most important is the C - reactive protein.It can activate the compliment by binding to some bacteria. Hence it performs a useful opsonizing effect.CRP is used as an index of severity of illness E.g.: acute pancreatitisConditions inducing acute phase response:Trauma, surgery, bumsInfectionInflammation- RA,spondyloarthitis (sero neg)VasculitisCrohn diseaseMalignancy
2
Se iron
Se ferritin
TIBC
% of saturation
Pathology
Inflammation & Repair
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single
Frequency of woods lamp is ?
Ans. is `a' i.e., 360 nm Wood's lamp Wood's lamp has an ultraviolet light lamp (365 nm) with a filter containing nickle oxide and barium silicate. The UV light, when absorbed by ceain substances, fluorescences in dark and the color of fluorescence is useful in diagnosis of the condition. Condition Fluorescent colours Tinea capitis Bright yellow green Erythrasma Coral red or pink Vitiligo Milky white Albinism Blue white Leprosy Blue white Tuberous sclerosis Blue white Pseudomonas infection Greenish white Porphyria Pinklorange Tinea versicolor Golden yellow
1
365 nm
400 nm
320 nm
200 nm
Skin
null
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single
Maximum chance of spread in accidental needle stick injury is?
Percentage of chances of transmission of infection with accidental stick injury HBsAg positive and HBeAg Positive 22-30% HBsAg positive and HBeAg Negative 1-6% Hepatitis C 1.8-3% HIV 0.3%
1
Hepatitis B
HIV
Hepatitis C
EBV
Medicine
Hepatitis
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single
A child presented with difficulty in seeing the blackboard at school. His teachers say that he frequently 'squint' his eyes. Most probable cause is:
For the myopic or nearsighted individual, objects nearby are in focus; those at a distance are blurred. This is because the plane of focus is anterior to the retina. The onset is typically at about age 8 years and may progress throughout adolescence and young adulthood. A myopic person may squint to produce a pinhole effect, which improves distance vision. Divergent lenses provide clear distance vision. Ref: Braverman R.S. (2012). Chapter 16. Eye. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.
2
Hypermetropia
Myopia
Presbyopia
Astigmatism
Ophthalmology
null
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Alpha rhythm on EEG is seen in:
Alpha wave is seen when the person is awake, in a quiet, resting stage of cerebration. Mental work (focused attention) will convert alpha to beta wave. Light sleep converts alpha to theta wave.
1
Awake state
Mental work
Light sleep
Deep sleep
Physiology
null
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single
Periodontal endoscopes work on the principle of:
null
1
Fiberoptics
Magnetorestrictive
Piezoelectric
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Pudendal nerve supplying motor part to external sphincter is derived from -
Ventral division of sacral plexus gives rise to pudendal nerve. So the root value is S2-4
4
L5-S1 roots
S1-S2 .roots
L2-L3 roots
S2-S3 roots
Anatomy
null
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single
Nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus
It is more commonly injured than the lateral epicondyle, because the epiphysis of the medial epicondyle appears early and fuses late with the main epiphysis of the lower humerus. This fracture is commonly associated with posterior dislocation of the elbow. It may be associated with an ulnar nerve injury. Ref essential ohopaedic, maheshwari and mhaskar 9th ed p 105
3
Anterior interosseous nerve
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Orthopaedics
Elbow injuries
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single
Hotspot on Tc-99 is seen in which parotid tumour?
Wahin tumour, or papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, is the second most common benign parotid tumour and occurs most often in older white men. Because of the high mitochondrial content within oncocytes, the oncocyte-rich Wahin tumour and oncocytomas incorporate technetium-99m and appear as hot spots on radionuclide scans.Ref: Sabiston, 20e, page no: 830
4
Pleomorphic adenoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Acinic cell tumour
Wahin tumour
Surgery
Head and neck
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single
Grafting done between genetically different individuals of same species is -
Ans. is' b' i.e., Allograft o Based on the donor, the graft may be >Autograft (autogenic graft) : Graft from self.Isograft (syngraft) : Graft from a genetically identical person, e.g. identical twin.Allograft (homograft or allogenic graft) : Graft from a genetically unrelated member of same species.Xenograft (heterograft) : Graft from different species.y Orthoptic grafty Het era topic graft- Graft appl ted in anatomically normal site eg. skin graft.- Graft applied in anatomically abnormal site.o After organ transplantation (graft), two types of reaction can occurHost versus graft reaction: It refers to the reaction of the host to grafted (transplanted) organ, i.e. graft rejection.Graft versus host (GVH) reaction: It refers to the immune response of graft against the antigens of the host, e.g. Runt disease in animals.
2
Autograft
Allograft
Isograft,
Xenograft
Unknown
null
121a9fa1-6274-4b8f-8f93-59d9b3a602f6
multi
All are seen in Tuberous sclerosis except –
Iris nodule (Lisch nodule) is seen in neurofibromatosis (not in tuberous sclerosis).
1
Iris nodule
Renal cortical cyst
Rhabdomyoma of heart and lung
Adenoma sebaceum
Dental
null
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multi
Nuclei controlling circadian rhythm:
null
1
Supra chiasmatic nuclei
Arcuate
Paraventricular
Vestibulocerebellar
Physiology
null
fe396688-6e78-426d-b519-41aee7158026
single
Which of the following is a cause for conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
Rotor's syndrome is a congenital illness which causes conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Dubin's Jhonson syndrome is also a similar condition. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from reduced secretion of conjugated bilirubin into the bile, such as occurs in patients with hepatitis, or it results from impaired flow of bile into the intestine, such as occurs in patients with biliary obstruction. Bile formation is sensitive to various hepatic insults, including high levels of inflammatory cytokines, such as may occur in patients with septic shock.
4
Massive hematoma
Gilbe's syndrome
Crigler Najir syndrome
Rotor's syndrome
Medicine
null
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single
Regan isoenzyme is increased in
The Regan isoenzyme is a placental-type alkaline phosphatase that is expressed in a number of human tumors, paicularly in gonadal and urologic cancers. Evidence now points to seminoma as a consistent producer of Regan isoenzyme although much more work will be required to establish its clinical utility. Ref:
1
Seminoma
Paget's disease
Osteoporosis
Cholestasis
Biochemistry
Enzymes
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single
True about Chvostek's sign are all of the following except: March 2010, March 2013
Ans. C: Raised calcium levelPTH is essential for life. After parathyroidectomy, there is a steady decline in the plasma Ca2+ level. Signs of neuromuscular hyperexcitability appear, followed by full-blown hypocalcemic tetany.In humans, tetany is most often due to inadveent parathyroidectomy during thyroid surgery. Symptoms usually develop 2-3 days postoperatively but may not appear for several weeks or more. Injections of PTH correct the chemical abnormalities, and the symptoms disappear. Injections of Ca2+ salts give temporary relief.The signs of tetany in humans include Chvostek's sign, a quick contraction of the ipsilateral facial muscles elicited by tapping over the facial nerve at the angle of the jaw; and Trousseau's sign, a spasm of the muscles of the upper extremity that causes flexion of the wrist and thumb with extension of the fingers
3
Denotes neuromuscular hyperexcitability
Elicited over face
Raised calcium level
Facial nerve is stimulated by tapping
Physiology
null
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multi
Bacteria not affected by streptogramins is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., E. coli o Streptogramins are active against gram-positive cocci and organisms responsible for atypical pneumonia (e.g., M. pneumoniae, Legionella spp., and Chlamydia pneumoniae), but largely inactive against gram-negative organisms, o They are bactericidal against streptococci and many strains of staphylococci, but bacteriostatic against E.faecium.
1
E. coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Legionella
M. pneumoniae
Unknown
null
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single
Function of Larynx is A/E
(Immunity enhancement): (303-4- Dhingra 5th edition; 577-P Hazarika 3rd)Function of the Larynx1. Primary function is to protect lower respiratory tractProtection of tracheobronchial tree is fascilitated by'Three - tier' sphincter action- Laryngeal elevation - Mylohyoid- Laryngeal tilting - Stylopharyngeous- Cricopharyngeal sphincter relaxes- Cough reflex- Cessation of respirationLarynx is aptly, called the watch-dog of lungs as it immediately barks' at the entry of any foreign intruder2. Phonation - is also an important function of the lung which facilitates communication3. Respiration: Reflex adjustments of the glottis apparatus plays a role in the mechanism of respiration Larynx regulates flow of air into the lungs.Vocal cords abduct during inspiration and adduct during expiration4. Fixation of the chest - To increase intrathoracic pressure when larynx is closed, chest wall gets fixed and various thoracic and abdominal muscles can then act best. This function is important in digging, pulling and climbing. Coughing, vomiting, defaecation, micturition and childbirth (Straining) also require a fixed thoracic cage against a closed glottis.
4
Phonation
Protect lower respiratory tract from infection
Prevent food regurgitation
Immunity enhancement
ENT
Larynx
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single
Which of the following is/are caused by trachoma:
A. i.e. Entropion
1
Entropion
Ectropion
Pinguecula
All
Ophthalmology
null
58219a51-8797-479f-8553-e15fd8855936
multi
Spider naevi are due to action of -
The vascular spider, aerial spider or spider angioma or naevus is the most classical vascular lesion that is sometimes a presenting sign of chronic liver disease. Spider telangietasia occur in up to 10-15% of normal individuals and may also be seen in pregnant women (3rd trimester).They may also be seen in thyrotoxicosis, patients with rheumatoid ahritis, receiving estrogen therapy and women on oral contraceptives. In adults, spider nevi are usually seen over the face, neck, and upper pa of the trunk, and arms (vascular territory of the superior vena cava). It is unusual to find them below a line joining the nipples. They vary in size from 1 to 2 mm in diameter. It comprises a central aeriole represented by a red point from which numerous, small, twisted vessels radiate. Application of pressure on the central aeriole with the head of a pin or a match stick causes blanching of the whole lesion. Vascular spiders have been attributed to excessive levels of estrogen which cause blood vessels to enlarge and dilate. The presence of spider nevi is accompanied by an increased serum estradiol/free testosterone ratio in male cirrhotics. Reference : page 943 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition
1
Estrogen
Androgen
Steroids
Progesterone
Medicine
Endocrinology
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single
Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except:
Signs and symptoms of impending uterine rupture: 1. Non - reassuring FHR- Most common/ most consistent sign - first finding- fetal tachycardia - most common finding - fetal bradycardia 2. Maternal tachycardia 3. Scar tenderness 4. Uterine tenderness and hematuria are other signs
4
Fetal distress
Hematuria
Fresh bleeding per vaginum
Passage of meconium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Labour - normal, abnormal, malposition, malpresentation and their management
93fcd8bd-eb5e-4366-b799-7a37c257660f
multi
Passive forcible dorsiflexion of foot with knee extended causes pain in the calf. This is called
Homan's sign is test for deep vein thrombosis. Passive dorsiflexion of foot with knee extended causes pain in the calf.
2
Moses sign
Homan's sign
Schwartz sign
Fegan's test
Surgery
null
500b3d90-02ff-4e51-8f92-5c14f8d9b865
multi
True about SLE is?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All are true SLE (sytemic lupus Erythematosus) Autoimmune disorder Inflammation of blood vessel Childhood SLE had poor pnognosis than adult SLE Hall mark of SLE is presence of antinuclean antibody (ANA) More common in female. Malar rash in pathognomic of SLE Non - erosive ahritis Nephritis Encephalopathy Pleuritis / Pericarditis Cytopenia
4
Autoimmune disease
Childhood SLE had poor prognosis than adult SLE
Presence of ANA
All are true
Pediatrics
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Bacteria X has an adenine content of 33% in its genome. What is the expected thymine content in the genome of X?
Adenine= Thymine = 33% In a double stranded DNA, Chargaff's rule is followed Number of Purines = Number of pyrimidine = = = [?] Chargaff's rule is not applicable for RNA and ssDNA.
2
22%
33%
44%
67%
Biochemistry
Molecular Biology
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Cerebrospinal fever is due to
(C) Neisseria meningitides # Cerebrospinal meningitis and meningococcal septicaemia are the two main types of meningococcal disease.> Cocci spread from the nasopharynx to the meninges may be directly along the perineural sheath of the olfactory nerve, through the cribriform plate to the subarachnoid space or more probably through the blood stream.> In certain cases, the site of entry may be conjunctiva meningococcal purulent conjunctivitis occur.> On reaching the CNS, a suppurative lesion of meninges is set up, involving the surface of spinal cord, as well as the base and cortex of brain.
3
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria meningitides
None of the above
Microbiology
Misc.
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True about primary aldosteronnism -a) Pedal oedemab) Increased reninc) Increased Na+d) Decreased K.+ e) Hypertension
null
3
abd
acd
cde
ade
Medicine
null
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Harakiri means
Harakiri (seppuku) is a form of Japanese ritual suicide by disembowelment. Stab injury in the abdomen (L-shaped), causing instantaneous evisceration of bowel loops. It results in sudden decrease in abdominal pressure and cardiac return resulting in circulatory collapse and death.
4
Stabbing hea
Cutting the genitalia
Shooting in mouth
Stabbing in abdomen
Forensic Medicine
Regional injuries
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Iceberg phenomena is not seen in
The only source of measles infection is case. Carriers are not know to occur. So, iceberg phonomena is not seen in measles. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition - Pgno 147
1
Measles
AIDS
Polio
Rubella
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
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Major cell involved in interstitial nephritis -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymphocyteo Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) is a renal lesion that causes decline in creatinine clearance and is characterized by inflammatory infiltrate in the kidney interstitium.o The definitive diagnosis of interstitial nephritis is made by biopsyo The major histological changes are interstitial edema and marked interstitial infiltrate consisting primary of T lymphocyte and monocytes.Eosinophils plasma cells and neutrophils may also be found.The classic lesion of tubulitis is found when inflammatory cells invade the tubular basement membrane.Tubulointerstitial disease -o It is a group of renal disease that is characterized by histological and functional pathology that predominantly involves the tubules and the interstitium.o The primary' function of tubules is reabsorption of salt and water, thus the main symptom of tubulointerstitial disease is impairment in the ability of the kidney to concentrate urine which is clinically manifested as.# Polyuria nocturia# Salt wasting# Diminished ability to excrete acids# Isolated defects in tubular reabsorption or secretiono These are also sometimes called salt wasting nephritis.o These diseases can be easily distinguished from glomerular diseases by their clinical features,o. The hallmark of glomerular diseases clinically are the presence of nephritic and nephrotic syndrome where as the main feature of tubulointerstitial disease is impairment in the ability of kidney to concentrate urine which is manifested as polyuria or nocturia.o These distinctions are prominent in the early stages of the diseases, and advanced form of both the diseases are clinically indistinguishable.Causes of interstitial nephritis; -Drugs (with antibiotic responsible for 1/3 cases) 75%Infections (5-10%)Tubuloiinterstitial nephritis and uveitis (5-10%).Systemic disease including sarcoidosis. Sjogren's syndrome SLE and others(10-15%).
3
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Macrophage
Unknown
null
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Which of the following are alkylating agents ? a) Cyclophosphamide b) Ifosfamide c) Paclitaxel d) Methotrexate e) Vincristine
null
3
ad
c
ab
ac
Pharmacology
null
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single
Combined OCPs can be used in all conditions except
Breast cancer is an absolute contraindication for the use in Breast cancer.
2
Fibroadenoma
Breast cancer
Ectopic pregnancy
Iron deficiency anemia
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Following statements about sarcoidosis is false?
Answer is C (Pleural Effusion is common): Pleural Effusion is an uncommon atypical manifestation in Sarcoidosis repoed in up to 5 percent of patients. Parotid enlargement is a classic feature of Sarcoidosis and bilateral involvement is the rule. Neurological disease is repoed in 5-10 percent of patients with Sarcoidosis. Facial nerve palsy is the single most common neurological manifestation of Sarcoidosis seen in up to 50 percent of patients with Neurosarcoidosis. Angiotensin Conveing Enzyme (ACE) levels are raised in up to 60 percent ofpatients with acute disease and 20 percent of patients with chronic disease. Pleural Effusion and Cavitation are uncommon and atypical manifestations of Sarcoidosis `The pleura is involved in 1 to 5 percent of cases, almost always manifesting as a unilateral pleural e usion -Harrison `Pleural effusion can be seen in 1 to 2 percent ofpatients' - Imaging of Diffuse Lung Disease.
3
Elevated level of angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE)
Bilateral parotid enlargement is the rule
Pleural effusion is common
Facial nerve palsy may be seen
Medicine
null
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All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except
Hb-O2 dissociation curve shift to left indicates more affinity of Hb to O2 and thus less delivery of O2 to tissues. Shift to left seen in -        Increased pH -        Decreased 2,3 DPG, temperature, PCO2 -        HbF (Fetal) Shift to right seen in -        Decreased pH -        Increased 2,3DPG, temperature, PCO2 -        HbS (Sickle cell)
1
Chloride ion concentration
CO2 tension
Temperature
2–3 DPG levels
Physiology
null
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multi
Cancer cells derive nutrition from
In fast-growing cancer cells, glycolysis proceeds at a high rate, forming large amounts of pyruvate, which is reduced to lactate and expoed. This produces a relatively acidic local environment in the tumor, which may have implications for cancer therapy. The lactate is used for gluconeogenesis in the liver, an energy-expensive process, which is responsible for much of the hypermetabolism seen in cancer cachexia. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 168
1
Glycolysis
Oxidative phosphorylation
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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single
Risk period for maximum fetal damage by congenital rubella -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., First trimester of pregnancy In general, the earlier in pregnancy infection occurs, the greater the damage to the fetus. Maximum damage to the fetus occurs when infection is acquired in the first trimester of pregnancy.Rubellao Rubella virus belongs to togavirus family - enveloped RNA virus .o Only one antigenic type of virus exists,o Source of infection - clinical or sub-clinical case.o A large number of rubella infections are sub-clinical, this represents one of the major differences between measles and rubella.o There is no known carrier state in postnatally acquired rubella, but infants bom with congenital rubella may shed virus for many months.o Infective period - A week before the onset of symptoms to about a week after rash appears,o Rubella is much less communicable than measles because of absence of coughing in rubella,o Age group -3-10 vears.o Transmission -Droplet infection by respiratory route.Vertical transmission from mother to fetus.o Incubation period - 2-3 weeks.o Clinical manifestationsProdromalLow grade fever, sore throat, coryza.LymphadenopathyPosterior auricular, cervical and sub-occipital.RashBegins on the face and spreads down the body.A petechial exanthem on the soft palate - Forschheimer spots.Complicationso Arthralgiao Encephalitiso Thrombocytopenic purpuraCongenital rubella syndromeo Maternal viremia associated with rubella infection during pregnancy may result in infection of the placenta and fetus.o The most important factor in the pathogenicity of rubella virus for the fetus is gestational age at the time of infection. The earlier in pregnancy infection occurs, the greater the damage to the fetus.Risk of damage to foetus by maternal rubella during pregnancyStage of gestation (weeks) when mother infected (symptomatic plus asymptomatic)Percentage of fetuses infectedPercentage of infected fetuses damagedOverall risk of damages of foetus (per cent)< 1111-1617-2627-36905533531003700902000o Fetus infected in the twentieth week may have isolated deafness,o Clinical manifestationsThe classical triad of congenital rubella consists of cataract, deafness and congenital heart diseases,o Laboratory diagnosisIsolation of virus in cell cultures of throat samples, urine or other secretions.Normally, maternal rubella antibodies in the form of IgG is transferred to infants and is gradually last over a period of 6 months. Persistent beyond 1 year in an unvaccinated child suggests the diagnosis of congenital rubella.Presence of ig M antibodies is diagnostic.PCR for rubella RNA.
1
First trimester of pregnancy
Second trimester of pregnancy
Third trimester of pregnancy
Risk is same throughout the pregnancy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
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single
A sinus associated with a periapical pathology requires:
null
4
Broad spectrum antibiotics
RCT with excision of sinus
RCT with Periapical curettage
RCT with no treatment for sinus
Dental
null
68a1d22b-04e5-44a4-ba27-0efc7b1a0cd9
single
Which is not transmitted by Aedes aegypti?
null
3
Yellow fever
Dengue
Japanese encephalitis
Filariasis
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6044a29d-3adf-4a36-9d5e-86aec5d0e01b
single
Intranasal calcitonin is given in ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Post menopausal osteoporosis o Salmon calcitonin is approved for clinical use. The latter product also is available as a nasal spray, introduced for once-daily treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis. o For Paget c disease, calcitonin generally is administered by subcutaneous injection because intranasal delivery is relatively ineffective owing to limited bioavailability.
4
Pagets's disease
MEN syndrome
Hypercalcemia
Post menopausal osteoporosis
Pharmacology
null
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single
In embryo, Hemopoiesis is first demonstrable in
In the early embryo, hemopoiesis is demonstrable first in the yolk sac, followed by the liver and finally bone marrow.Reference: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 7; Embryogenesis and Fetal Morphological Development
1
Yolk sac
Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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