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Genu of internal capsule carries:
D i.e. Coiconuclear
4
Optic radiation
Coicospinal
Coicorubral tract
Coiconuclear tract.
Anatomy
null
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single
All are contents of axilla, except
AXILLA: Is a pyramidal space situated between the upper pa of the arm and the chest wall. CONTENTS: 1)Axillary aery and its branches. 2)Axillary vein and its tributaries. 3)Infraclavicular pa of the brachial plexuses. 4)Five groups of axillary lymph nodes and the associated lymphatics. 5)The long thoracic and intercostobrachial nerves. 6)Axillary fat and aerolar tissue in which the other contents are embedded. REF: BD Chaurasia 7th edition page no:50.
4
Axillary tail of breast
Axillary vessels
Axillary sheath
Roots of brachial plexus
Anatomy
Upper limb
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multi
Ptosis results from trauma to which nerve-
*Ptosis is due to occulomotor nerve paralysis. Ref: Principles of ophthalmology 4th/e p.1107
3
VII
VIII
III
VI
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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single
Effect of inhalational agent on neuromuscular system which is true -
Halogenated volatile anesthetics have a potentiating effect on nondepolarizing muscle relaxants. The mechanism appears to be incompletely understood, but is likely a combination of: effect on central motor neurons augmentation of the NMB's affinity for the receptor site inhibition of post-synaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors Clinically, the presence of inhaled anesthetics will decrease the ED50, as well as both prolong the duration of action and recovery from neuromuscular blockade. The degree of potentiation depends on the specific agent and concentration used. For example, desflurane > sevoflurane > isoflurane. With deeper planes of anesthesia, the degree of potentiation is enhanced due to a dose-dependent inhibition of current through the nicotinic receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Studies attempting to quantify the magnitude of these effects have led to conflicting results due to the time factor, or duration of anesthesia. The older halogenated agents (halothane, enflurane, isoflurane) may take up to 2 hours to equilibrate with muscle, so in practice the potentiating effects of these vapors might not be immediately apparent. In contrast, newer agents such as sevoflurane and desflurane equilibrate more rapidly with muscle, and the effects may be seen after as little as 30 minutes. Nitrous oxide has largely been considered as having no effect on neuromuscular blockade.
3
They relax skeletal muscle and decreases the effect of neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBD)
They contract skeletal muscle and potentiate the effect of NMBD
They directly relax skeletal muscle and they potentiate the action of NMBD
No effect on neuromuscular system
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
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Cell type which lacks HLA antigen is -
Class I products of the genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), HLA-A, -B, and -C, are present on viually all nucleated cells. Mature human red blood cells are not nucleated and do not generally have easily detectable HLA antigens, Reff: www.mayoclinin.com
4
Monocyte
Thrombocytes
Neutrophil
Red blood cell
Microbiology
Immunology
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single
Which one of the following is diagnosed by latex agglutination for antigen in CSF?
(A) Cryptococcus # Approximately 90% of patients with cryptococcal meningoencephalitis, including all those with a positive CSF smear, have capsular antigen detectable in CSF or serum by latex agglutination.# Certain important points about cryptococcus> Cryptococcus is the only pathogenic yeast> It is characterized by a prominent polysaccharide capsule, which stands out in Indian ink preparation> Features which are seen in only in pathogenic cryptococci are Ability to grow at 37degC Ability to hydrolyse urea
1
Cryptococcus
Aspergillosis
Candida
Histoplasmosis
Microbiology
Misc.
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single
Tamsulosin, a competitive α adrenoceptor antagonist has an affinity for which of the following receptors
The actions of the α1-adrenoceptor antagonist tamsulosin have been examined at functional α1-adrenoceptor subtypes and compared with those at the human prostate receptor. At the α1D-adrenoceptors of the rat aorta, tamsulosin acted as a competitive antagonist with a high affinity (pKB=10.1). At the α1B-adrenoceptor of the rat spleen and rabbit corpus cavernosum penis, tamsulosin again acted as a competitive antagonist but with a significantly lower affinity (pKB=8.9–9.2). Tamsulosin acted as an insurmountable antagonist of the α1A-adrenoceptor-mediated responses of the rat and human vas deferens, reducing maximal responses to phenylephrine by 20% and 50%, respectively, at an antagonist concentration of 1 nm. Responses of depolarized (100 mm KCl) rat vas deferens preparations were unaffected by 10 nm tamsulosin but this concentration reduced maximal responses to 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) in this tissue. When longer antagonist incubation periods (⩾60 min) were used, tamsulosin behaved as a competitive antagonist on the human prostate with a significantly higher affinity (pKB=10.0) than obtained at the α1B-adrenoceptor. The data demonstrate that tamsulosin is a high-affinity antagonist at functional α1-adrenoceptors with a selectivity α1D⩾α1A>α1B. In some tissues, the compound exhibits an additional unsurmountable antagonist action, the clinical significance of which is unknown.
2
α1A
α1D
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
Pharmacology
null
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"MAC" of desflurane is:
In 20-30 year old patients Minimum Alveolar Concentration(MAC)for Halothane. 0.75 Isoflurane. 1.15 Sevoflurane. 1.85 Desflurane. 6 From Tripati 7th edition
4
1.15
2
4
6
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
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single
Drugs used in the treatment of MRSA are :
Staphylococcal infections are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. However, the incidence of infections due to Staphylococcus epidermidis and other coagulase-negative staphylococci has also been steadily rising. Pharmacotherapy Patients with serious staphylococcal infections should be initially staed on agents active against MRSA until susceptibility results are available. Many coagulase-negative staphylococci are oxacillin-resistant. The duration of treatment and the use of synergistic combinations depend on the type of infection encountered. The following antibiotics may be used in the management of staphylococcal infections (listed alphabetically, not necessarily in order of preference): Cefazolin Ceftaroline Cefuroxime Clindamycin Dalbavancin Daptomycin Dicloxacillin Doxycycline Linezolid Minocycline Nafcillin Oritavancin Quinupristin/dalfopristin Tedizolid Telavancin Tigecycline Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Vancomycin REFERENCE: www.medscape.com
1
Quinupristin\/dalfopristin
Atropine
Teicoplanin
Penicillin G
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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True about Pertussis is/are -a) Incubation period is 7-14 daysb) Main source of infection is chronic carriersc) Can affect any aged) Secondary attack rate in unimmunised persons is 90%e) More common in summers
null
2
abc
acd
bc
bde
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Treatment of stage III B carcinoma cervix is:
Ans. is d, i.e. Intracavitary brachytherapy followed by external beam RT.Ref: Novak 14th/ed, p1436, 1427; Shaw 15th/ed, p414The best treatment for stage III B of invasive cancer is chemoradiation. Since this option is not given - we will go for next best option, i.e. RadiotherapyGenerally from stage II a-IV A when radiotherapy is given - external beam pelvic radiation precedes brachytherapy. But again since we don't have this option, we are going for vice versa (which is not incorrect).
4
Wertheim procedure
Schauta's procedure
Chemotherapy
Intracavitary brachytherapy followed by external beam RT
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Carcinoma Cervix
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Muller's manoeuver is
Muller's manoeuvre: Used to find the level and degree of obstruction in sleep-disordered breathing. It is performed while using flexible nasopharyngoscope. First, the examiner sees the upper airways at rest and then during the time when the patient makes a maximal inspiratory effo with nose and mouth closed. The base of tongue, lateral pharyngeal wall and palate are examined for collapsibility and then rated from 0 (minimal collapse) to 4+ (complete collapse). Ref: Textbook of ENT, Dhingra; 6th edition; Pg no: 449
4
Forceful expiration against closed glottis
Forceful inspiration against closed glottis
Forceful expiration against open glottis
Reverse of Valsalva's maneuver
ENT
Miscellaneous ENT
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Which of the following fungus does not infect hair
Trichophyton infects hair, skin and nail. Microsporum infects hair and skin. Epidermophyton infects skin and nail. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition
1
Epidermophyton
Microsporum
Trichophyton
None of the above
Microbiology
mycology
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APACHE-II score includes
Acute Physiologic Assessment and Chronic Health Evaluation II (APACHE II) score generates a point score ranging from 0 to 71 based on 12 physiologic variables, age, and underlying health. The point score is calculated from a patient's age and 12 routine physiological measurements: AaDO2 or PaO2 (depending on FiO2) Temperature (rectal) Mean aerial pressure pH aerial Hea rate Respiratory rate Sodium (serum) Potassium (serum) Creatinine Hematocrit White blood cell count Glasgow Coma Scale Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345
4
Age
Blood pressure
Pa02
All
Medicine
C.N.S
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Obsessive personality disorder is also called:
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD), as defined by the current version of DSM-5, and termedanankastic personality disorder in the ICD-10. Pre occupation with rules and regulations Perfection that slows them down Stubborn and inflexible Impoant to work, no time for leisure activities Formal, don't like humor No obsessions or compulsions
1
Anankastic personality disorder
Dissocial personality disorder
Eccentric personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Psychiatry
Personality Disorders
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Position of internal hemorrhoid in anus is especially common in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 11 o' clock position Classification of hemorrhoids|||Internal hemorrhoidsExternal hemorrhoids* Located proximal to the dentate line* Covered by transitional and columnar epithelium therefore are usually painless* Internal haemorrhoids (Greek: haima, blood; rhoos, flowing; synonym: piles, Latin: pila, a ball) are symptomatic anal cushions and characteristically lie in the 3, 7 and 11 o'clock positions (with the patient in the lithotomy position)* located distal to dentate line* Covered by richly innervated squamous epithelium thus its thrombosis causes severe pain. For the same reason external hemorrhoid are not ligated
2
4 o' clock position
11 o' clock position
8 o' clock position
9 o' clock position
Surgery
Anal Canal
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Women with PCOD and Hirsutism, Management is
Treatment of Hirsutism Estrogen-Progestin Contraceptives Antiandrogens Mechanism of action Androgen production in hirsuite women usually is an LH-dependent process Estrogen-progestin contraceptives suppress pituitary LH secretion and thus suppress ovarian androgen production The high level of estrogen in oral contraceptives stimulates hepatic SHBG production, which decreases the amount of free/active androgen Directly or indirectly, estrogen-progestin contraceptives decrease adrenal DHEA-S secretion Contraceptive progestins inhibit 5 alfa-reductase activity in the skin, which decreases the production of dihydrotestosterone (DHT), the major nuclear androgen in hair follicles and sebaceous glands. Treatment with estrogen-progestin contraceptives induces regular, predictable menses and attenuates endometrial growth, thereby eliminating the risk for developing endometrial hyperplasia and neoplasia Current oral contraceptives contain ethinyl estradiol, in doses ranging from 20 mcg to 50 mcg daily, and one of a variety of progestins All low-dose oral contraceptives (containing 20–35 µg ethinyl estradiol) have similar effectiveness in the treatment of acne and hirsutism Cyproterone is a derivative of 17a-hydroxyprogesterone (17OHP), has potent progestational activity that inhibits gonadotropin secretion and also acts as competitive androgen receptor antagonist which inhibits enzymes involved in androgen synthesis “Dianette” or “Diane 35” contains 2 mg cyproterone acetate and 35 mg ethinyl estradiol Antiandrogens are an effective treatment for hirsutism but are best used in combination with oral contraceptives or another means of highly effective contraception, because they adversely affect sexual development in a male fetus if the patient conceives during treatment
1
Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate
Ethinyl estradiol
Levonorgestrel
Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Schwangerschafts protein 1 (SP1), is a biochemical marker of-
Schwangerschafts protein 1 (SP1), also known as pregnancy-associated plasma protein C (PAPP-C) or pregnancy-specific b-glycoprotein (PSBS), is produced by the syncytiotrophoblast . It is a biochemical marker of Ectopic pregnancy
2
Gestatinal trophoblastic disease
Ectopic pregnancy
Placenta accreta
Severe PIH
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ectopic Pregnancy (Hello ! Where are you ?)
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All drugs cause interstitial lung disease, except :
Drugs causing interstitial lung disease are: Amiodarone Nitrosoureas Busulfan Phenytoin Methotrexate Sulfonamides Penicillamine Cyclophosphamide Nitrofurantoin Gold salts Bleomycin
4
Phenytoin sodium
Sulfonamide
Busulfan
Alpha methyldopa
Pharmacology
null
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Strored blood, which h. as been preserved in a blood bank, is deficient in which of the following coagulation factors?
The temperature in all areas of a refrigerator used for the storage of Red Blood Cells must be maintained between 1 and 6degC, and should have a fan for circulating air or be of capacity and design to ensure that the designated temperature is maintained and the blood may be deficit of v and vlll coagulation factors Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 729
3
II only
II and VII
V and VIII
IX and X
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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The life of preserved semen for aificial insemination is -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ten years
4
One year
Two year
Five year
Ten year
Surgery
null
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Source of maltose is
SugarSourceSucroseCane and beet sugar, sorghum and some fruits and vegetablesLactoseMilkMaltoseEnzymic hydrolysis of starch (amylase);germinating cereals and maltIsomaltoseEnzymic hydrolysis of starch (the branch points in amylopectin)LactuloseHeated milk (small amounts), mainlysyntheticTrehaloseYeasts and fungi; the main sugar of insect hemolymphRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 15 Carbohydrates of Physiological Significance
3
Beet sugar
Milk
Germinating Cereals
Yeast
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
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A 45-year-old woman visits the outpatient clinic with past history of dysphagia, nighttime fits of coughing, repeated chest infections, and a palpable swelling in her neck. Radiographic examination reveals the presence of a congenital pharyngeal pouch. Between which muscles is this pouch located?
The pharyngeal (Zenker) diverticulum is usually located between the cricopharyngeal and thyropharyngeal portions of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor. This is the most common site for development of a pharyngeal diverticulum due to the inherent weakness between the pharyngeal muscles in this location. Stasis of materials within this diverticulum can lead to inflammation, infection, and abscess. This site is also known as Killian's triangle.
4
Between styloglossus and stylopharyngeus
Between palatoglossal arch and median glossoepiglottic fold
Between upper and middle pharyngeal constrictors
Between the cricopharyngeal and thyropharyngeal portions of inferior pharyngeal constrictor
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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Which of the following statements is true regarding kappa, lambda and heavy chain immunoglobins -
The variable region of each immunoglobulin heavy or light chain is encoded in several pieces--known as gene segments (subgenus). These segments are called variable (V), diversity (D) and joining (J) segments.V, D and J segments are found in Ig heavy chains, but only V and J segments are found in Ig light chains. Multiple copies of the V, D and J gene segments exist and are tandemly arranged in the genomes of mammals. In the bone marrow, each developing B cell will assemble an immunoglobulin variable region by randomly selecting and combining one V, one D and one J gene segment (or one V and one J segment in the light chain). As there are multiple copies of each type of gene segment, and different combinations of gene segments can be used to generate each immunoglobulin variable region, this process generates a huge number of antibodies, each with different paratopes, and thus different antigen specificities.
3
Coded in the same site of a chromosome
Coded in different sites of same chromosome
The chains are formed by genetic rearrangement after maturation
Different chains of same immunoglobulins are coded by different chromosomes
Microbiology
Immunology
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Differentiating features b/w neurosis and psychosis :
B i.e. Lack of insight
2
Insight is preserved
Lack of insight
Personality and behavior preserved
None
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Which of the following is used to differentiate tumour recurrence and radiation necrosis?
ANSWER: (A) PET scanREF: Devita oncology 6th ed chapter 27PET may be used in therapeutic monitoring after chemotherapy or radiotherapy, with a classic indication being assessment for recurrent tumor versus radiation necrosis. Conventional imaging can not differentiate recurrent tumor from radiation necrosis
1
PET scan
MRI
3D CT
USG
Unknown
null
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Drugs associated with ischemic stroke include the following except
*misuse of oestrogen containing drugs like oral contraceptive pills ,hormone replacement therapy,cocaine ,amphetamine,alcohol are modifiable risk factors of ischemic stroke . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2445
4
Cocaine
Oral contraceptives
Amphetamines
Barbiturates
Medicine
C.N.S
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All are seen in malignant hypehermia except:
A i.e. Bradycardia
1
Bradycardia
Hyperkalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Hypeension
Anaesthesia
null
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In a case of anisocoria, when 1% pilocarpine le is instilled into the eye with abnormally dilated pupil, no response occurs. Cause of anisocoria may be:
Ans is 'c' i.e. Pharmacological blockage Anisocoria (inequality of pupillary size) implies disease of the efferent (motor) nerve of the light reflex, iris or muscles of the pupil.If, on application of pilocarpine 1% in each eye, the affected pupil reacts little or not at all and the unaffected pupil constricts normally, the pupil is not dilated because of innervation problems but because of a problem in the sphincter muscle, itself. Non-neuronal causes of mydriasis are:Anticholinergic mydriasis (e.g., scopolamine (hyoscine), cyclopentolate, atropine).Traumatic iridoplegia (sphincter rupture, pigment dispersion, angle recession).Angle-closure glaucoma (ischemia of the iris sphincter).Fixed pupil after anterior segment surgery.Bound down iris (synechia) after iritis."
3
Adie's pupil
Horner's syndrome
Pharmacological blockage
Uncal herniation
Ophthalmology
Pupillary Reflexes and their Abnormalities
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Tracheostomy is not indicated in:
null
4
Emphysema
Bronchiectosis
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
ENT
null
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A patient presents with cough with expectoration. Diagnosis of farmer's lung is suspected. True statement regarding this condition:
Farmer`s lung:- caused by Thermophilic Actinomycetes it is occupational disease - So, no seasonal predilection occur in Asthma - Hypersensitivity pneumonitis occurs due to inhalational exposure to variety of antigens leading to inflammatory response of alveoli and small airways. Choice A is ruled out as asthma attacks are seasonal in nature. Choice B is ruled out as major complaint of the patient in Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis is dyspnea associated with fever, chills and malaise. Choice D is ruled out as alveoli are involved in HP. The answer by exclusion is choice C. Causes of Upper lobe involvement of lungs Inhaled injurious gases Smoke inhalation Centrilobular emphysema Impaired mucociliary clearance Cystic fibrosis Inhaled paiculates: pneumoconiosis Silicosis Coal worker pneumoconiosis Berylliosis Miscellaneous pneumoconiosis (hard metal disease, kaolinosis, bauxite pneumoconiosis, fuller eah disease) Inhaled antigens Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia Granulomatous disease Granulomatous disease Tuberculosis Sarcoidosis Langerhans Cell histiocytosis Broncho centric granulomatous Abnormal perfusion kinetics Right-sided localized pulmonary edema in acute mitral regurgitation Neurogenic pulmonary edema Metabolic disease Metastatic pulmonary calcification Increased mechanical stress Ankylosing spondylitis
3
May to June seasonal
Persistent cough with expectoration
X- ray features upper lobe predominant in chronic HP
Pleural effusions are common
Medicine
JIPMER 2018
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A deficiency of 5-8 mm usually requires extraction of:
null
3
First molars
Second premolars
First premolars
Second molars
Dental
null
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Most common tumour occurring in appendix includes
Carcinoid tumours arise in argentaffin tissue (Kulchitsky cells of the crypts of Lieberkuhn) and are most common in the vermiform appendix.The tumour can occur in any pa of the appendix, but it is frequently found in the distal third Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1217
1
Carcinoid tumour
Melanoma
Adeno carcinoma
Mucinous
Surgery
G.I.T
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HIV contains: March 2013
Ans. D i.e. All of the above HIV virus It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus's nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion paicle.
4
Integrase
RNA directed DNA polymerase
Ribonuclease
All of the above
Microbiology
null
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Rigor mortis start in -
null
2
Eyelids
Heart
Voluntary muscles
Limbs
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Most common type of RCC associated with dialysis:
Ans. (b) Papillary CA
2
Clear cell CA
Papillary CA
Medullary CA
Chromophobe
Unknown
null
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All are true about Erythema multiforme except
null
2
Target lesion
Does not involve mucosa
Associated with HSV
Extensor involvement
Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following is true about Ganer cyst ?
Ganer cyst is basically a remnant of mesonephric or wolffian duct which remains vestigeal and functionally inactive in females. In males it forms collecting pa of male reproductive system.
1
It is remnant of Mesonephric duct in females.
It is functionally active in females.
It is remnant of Paramesonephric duct in females.
In males,it forms excretory system of male reproductive system.
Anatomy
Development of GU system and Neuro-vascular supply of pelvis & perineum
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multi
Main mechanism in thermoregulation-heat loss is
Heat is lost from the body mainly by radiation (60%), evaporation (22%) and Conduction (18%).
1
Radiation
Evaporation
Conduction
Convection
Physiology
null
3ef7c2b9-06b0-419a-af6a-3171fa549bea
single
Which of the muscle in male is equivalent for vaginal sphincter in female?
The sphincter vaginae (levator prostatae in the male) form a sling around the vagina and are inseed into a mass of fibrous tissue, called the perineal body. Ref: Clinical Anatomy by Systems By Richard S. Snell, 2007, Page 861.
1
Levator prostatae
Anococcygeal body
Puborectalis
Bulbospongiosus
Anatomy
null
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single
Drug of choice for CML is?
ANSWER: (A) ImatinibREF: Harrison s 17th ed, CMDT 2008 p. 444The drug treatment of choice for CML when Allogenic SCT (stem cell therapy) is not feasible is IMATINIBIFN-tz used to be the drug treatment of choice for CML when IMATINIB was not available
1
Imatinib
Hydroxurea
Infliximab
IFN
Medicine
Blood
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The ideal replacement for the oesophagus after oesophagus after esophagectomy is
.Only 20% of oesophageal cancers present early and becomes curable. In such early growths confirmed with an absence of nodal spread, curative surgery is the main approach - radical oesophagectomy. Proximal extent of resection should be 10 cm above a macroscopic tumour and distal extent of resection is 5 cm from the macroscopic distal end of a tumour. Proximal stomach has to be removed commonly especially in lower 1/3 a tumour. Sufficient removal of contiguous structures may be needed in the curative resection. Orringer approach, i.e. Trans hiatal blind total oesophagectomy with anastomosis in the left side of the neck. Through laparotomy, stomach and lower pa of the oesophagus are mobilised. Through left-sided neck approach, the upper pa of the oesophagus is mobilised using a finger. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 740
1
Stomach
Jejunum
Colon
Synthetic stent
Surgery
G.I.T
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Egg has all vitamins except -
Expect vitamin C, egg contain all fat soluble vitamin. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 582
3
B1
B6
C
E
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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Lewy bodies contain
(A) a-synuclein # Examination of brain in Parkinson's Disease (PD):> Grossly reveals mild frontal atrophy with loss of the normal dark melanin pigment of the midbrain.> Microscopically there is degeneration of the dopaminergic cells with the presence of Lewy bodies (LBs) in the remaining neurons and processes of the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc), other brainstem nuclei, and regions such as the medial temporal, limbic, and frontal cortices.> LBs have a high concentration of a-synuclein and are the pathologic hallmark of the disorder.> Mutations in the a-synuclein gene can cause familial PD by promoting the formation of a-synuclein-positive filaments that aggregate into LBs and Lewy neuritis.
1
a-synuclein
Tirofiban
Melanin
Amyloid
Medicine
Miscellaneous
e9e4d293-04ea-45a8-a654-63cad69b26d0
single
Which peak on MR spectroscopy is seen in tuberculoma?
MR-spectroscopy usually reveals a large lipid lactate peak at 0.9 to 1.33 ppm and reduced NAA. The lipid peak in tuberculoma is primarily due to the predominant lipid content in the cell wall of tubercle bacillus. Presence of lactate indicates anaerobic glycolysis and necrosis within the Tuberculoma. However, lipid lactate peak can also be seen in other conditions having necrosis like high grade gliomas .
1
Lipid lactate
N-acetyl aspaate
Creatinine
Choline
Radiology
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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single
In Wilson disease, hepatic copper content usually exceeds_____________ dry weight
In Wilson's disease, hepatic copper content usually exceeds 250 mg/g dry weight (>4 mmol/g dry weight is the best biochemical evidence for Wilson disease).
2
200 mg/g
250 mg/g
300 mg/g
350 mg/g
Pediatrics
Liver disorders
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multi
Lunate sulcus is present in
The occipital lobe sulciA. Transverse occipital B. Lateral occipital C. Lunate D. Superior and inferior polarReference: Chaurasia; 6th edition; 417 page
4
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
Occipital lobe
Anatomy
Brain
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single
Regarding transpo of Ca++ across a membrane, which of the following is true?
Calcium transpo occurs by secondary active transpo. Hence, option A is incorrect It is an antipo or counter transpo; occurring as Na+/ Ca++ exchanger. Hence, option B is incorrect It is primarily aimed at maintaining a low cytosolic Ca++. Thus, option C is incorrect. To maintain a low intracytoplasmic Ca++, calcium is extruded out of the cell or pumped out from cytosol into the endoplasmic reticulum. Ca2+ ATPase - The enzyme that transpos Ca2+ out of the cytoplasm and into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells. These are called P-type ATPases because they form a key phosphorylated intermediate.
4
It is a passive transpo
It is a sympo
Maintains a high intracellular Ca++ concentration
Requires hydrolysis of ATP
Physiology
Transpo Processes
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Adenovirus causes -
It causes epidemic keratoconjunctivitis REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.482
1
Keratoenjuctivitis
Diarrhea
Parotid enlargement
All of the above
Microbiology
Virology
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multi
Testosterone in male secreted from:
Ans. (a) Leydig cellRef: LB. Singh 9th ed. /14-16* Leydig cell secrete testosterone* Sertoli cells helps in maturation of spermatozoa* Epididymis:store sperm* Seminal vesicle: secretes thick alkaline fluid.
1
Leydig cell
Sertoli cell
Seminal vesicle
Epididymis
Anatomy
Male Sex Glands
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Role of neo-adjuvant chemotherapy in breast carcinoma patient is: March 2011
Ans. B: To shrink the tumour to enable breast conserving therapy Primary chemotherapy (neoadjuvant) is being used in many centres for large but operable tumours that would traditional require a mastectomy (and almost ceainly postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy) The aim of this treatment is to shrink the tumour to enable breast conserving surgery to be performed
2
Curing distant metastasis
To shrink the tumour to enable breast conserving therapy
Limiting metastasis
Symptomatic
Surgery
null
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single
Sialography report of a 46-year-old female suggests:
Image shows cherry blossom appearance.
3
Sialiolithiasis.
Normal parotid appearance.
Sjogren syndrome.
None.
Pathology
null
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Which response is not seen in newborns as a measure of thermogenesis?
ANSWER: (A) ShiveringREF: O.P Ghai 6th ed p. 151,152"Newborn cannot produce heat by shivering"Mechanisms for thermogenesis in new born are mainly due to rapid increase in circulating catecholamines due to cold stressLipolysis and re-esterification of brown fatPeripheral vasoconstrictionIncrease heart rate
1
Shivering
Breakdown of brown fat
Universal flexion
Cutaneous vasoconstrictions
Pediatrics
Newborn Infant - Physical Examination
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Which of the following is more prone to Carcinoma?
Ans. (a) Barrett esophagusRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. ch 62! 1000* Barrett's metaplasia, endoscopically recognized by tongues of reddish mucosa extending proximally from the gastroesophageal junction or histopathologically by the finding of specialized columnar metaplasia (intestinal type with goblet cells), is associated with at least a 20- fold increased risk for development of esophageal development of adenocarcinoma.
1
Barret esophagus
Boerhaave syndrome
Mallory Weiss tear
Esophageal varices
Surgery
Esophageal Diseases - Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease, Carcinoma
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Berkesonian bias refers to -
This special example of berkesonian bias is termed after Dr. Joseph Berkesonian who recognized this problem. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 81, 82
1
Bias arsing from different rates of admission to the hospital
Bias arising from presence of confounding factors
Bias arising from the case not being representative of general population
Bias arising from improper selection of cases
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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single
Which does not indicate fetal lung maturity' -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reactive NST
1
Reactive NST
Gestation 37 weeks
Presence of phosphatidyl choline
L/S ratio
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Assessment
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A 20 years old nulliparous women is on oral contraceptives pills. She is currently diagnosed as having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which anti-tubercular drug decreases the effect of OCP
Ans. is d i.e. Rifampicin Interacuons of OCP's with other Drugs
4
INH
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Rifampicin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
339e8ba7-6b74-497b-96ec-3dc4aced515a
single
All are toxicity seen with amiodarone therapy except
Refer katzung 11e p 241 Amiodarone-induced pulmonarytoxicity (APT) is one of the most serious side effects of use. Incidence is approximately 5% when doses of 400 mg or more are used daily. ... Amiodarone pulmonarytoxicity can present in various ways: pneumonia interstitial disease, respiratory distress or solitary pulmonary masses.
4
Pulmonary fibrosis
Corneal microdeposits
Cirrhosis of liver
Productive cough
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Cerebrospinal fluid is filled between:
Subarachnoid space is a wide space between the pia and the arachnoid, filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It surrounds the brain and spinal cord like a water cushion. The spinal subarachnoid space is wider than the space around the brain. It is widest below the lower end of the spinal cord where it encloses the cauda equina. Lumbar puncture is usually done in the lower widest part of the space, between third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Reference: B D Chaurasia’s Head and Neck anatomy, 6th ed page no 184
2
Dura mater and arachnoid mater
Arachnoid mater and Pia mater
Pia mater and Brain surface
Dura mater and Pia mater
Anatomy
null
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Stroke volume is increased by ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased end-diastolic volume and decreased end-systolic volumeThe stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out by left ventricle in each stroke.Stroke volume is given by the difference between end-diastolic ventricular volume (the volume of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole; normal 120 inl) and end-systolic ventricular volume (the volume of blood at the end of systole; normal 50 ml).Stroke volume (70 ml) = End-diastolic ventricular volume (120 ml) - End-systolic ventricular volume (50 ml)
3
Increased end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes
Decreased end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes
Increased end-diastolic volume and decreased end-systolic volume
Decrased end-diastolic volume and increased end-systolic volume
Physiology
null
5220900c-0455-46e8-8887-3ef5fd472a17
single
No anti - inflammatory action is seen with which of the following-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Paracetamol o It does not possess anti-inflammatory activity because it is ineffective in the presence of peroxides generated at the site of inflammation.
2
Indomethacin
Paracetamol
Ketorolac
Ibuprofen
Pharmacology
null
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single
Westermark sign is seen in:
Ans. (a) Pulmonary embolism Ref- Westermark sign is a sign of pulmonary embolus seen on chest radiographs. It is one of several described signs of pulmonary embolus on chest radiographs. Pathology The theory behind the sign is either obstruction of the pulmonary artery or distal vasoconstriction in hypoxic lung 3. In one study (PIOPED) this sign was present on ~10% of chest x-rays of patients with confirmed pulmonary embolus 2. Radiographic features Plain radiograph focal peripheral hyperlucency secondary to oligaemia resulting in a collapsed appearance of vessels distal to the occlusion 2-4 central pulmonary vessels may also be dilated 3 History and etymology The Swedish radiologist Nils Johan Hugo Westermark (1892-1980) 7 first described this sign in 1938 5. Westermark was also an accomplished sailor and won a silver medal, as a member of the Swedish team, at the 1912 Olympics in Stockholm 7. Differential diagnosis emphysema 2 CXR may be normal, or may show Focal oligemia of affected segment (Westermark sign Q) Dilated right descending pulmonary artery (Palla's sign Q) Wedge-shaped opacities above the diaphragm (Hampton's Hump Q) Small pleural effusion
1
Pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary sequestration
Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
Pneumothorax
Unknown
null
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True about Congenital Rubella syndrome is
* Rubella infection gets transmitted by veical transmission and bih defects is more common when acquired during first trimester of pregnancy. * Bih defects are uncommon when infection is acquired after 20 weeks of gestation. * Congenital Rubella syndrome leads to cardiac defects, cataract and deafness; (Classical triad). Other manifestations are hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenic purpura, myocarditis and bone lesions. * Intrauterine infection of Rubella is associated with chronic persistence of disease. * Viral detection can be done in all fluids and it is excreted upto 12-18 months of age. Ref:- Jawetz TB of medical microbiology 27th edition; pg num:- 597
1
It will become a chronic infection
Virus can be isolated only upto 6months after bih
Triad of CRS are cataract, cardiac defects, cerebral palsy
Infection is most serious after five months of pregnancy
Microbiology
Virology
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multi
Scarring alopecia is seen in -
Causes of cicatricial alopecia: -Discoid lupus erythematosus and morphea - developmental /hereditary : aplasia cutis -traumatic, post radiation -herpes zoster and bacterial infections -lichen planopilaris - neoplastic disorders Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1234
4
T.Capitis
Androgenic alopecia
Alopecia areata
Lichen planus
Dental
Anatomy of skin
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single
Donesumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANK ligand is used for the treatment of:
Ans. (B) Osteoporosis(Ref: Principles of pharmacolpg HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2007/641)Receptor for activated nuclear factor kB (RANK) is present on osteoclast progenitors. Binding of RANK-ligand to these receptors causes differentiation and activation of osteoclast progenitors to mature osteoclasts. Donesumab is a monoclonal antibody that prevents the binding of RANK-ligand with RANK. This prevents activation of osteoclasts and it can therefore, be used in osteoporosis.Osteoblasts synthesize and release osteoprotegerin (OPG), identical with RANK, which functions as a 'decoy receptor'. OPG, thus inhibits the binding to RANK-L to RANK. Hence OPG analogs can be the potential therapeutic agents of osteoporosis.
2
Rheumatoid arthritis
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosis
Pharmacology
Immunomodulatory: DMARDS, Monoclonal Antibodies
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Type IV hypersensitivity is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cell mediated Cell mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity o It is initiated by activated T-lymphocytes. o It includes Delayed type hypersensitivity - mediated by CD-4 T cells. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity - mediated by CD8- T cells. 1. Delayed type hypersensitivity In delayed hypersensitivity reactions, CD-4 T cells and macrophages are primarily involved. o The term delayed is used to differentiate it from a secondary cellular response, which appears at 48-72 hours after antigen exposure and from an immediate hypersensitivity response, which generally appears within minutes. Delayed hypersinsitivity is a major mechanism of defence against various intracellular pathogens, including mycobacteria, fungi and ceain parasites. Pathophysiology Delayed hypersensitivity is characterized by formation of granuloma - a localized mass that contains activated macrophages (epitheloid) cells surrounded by collor of lymphocytes and giant cells. o It is also called granulomatous inflammation. o The cellular events stas when antigen (eg tuberculin antigen) on antigen presenting cell comes in contact with naive CD-4 T cells ---> naive CD-4 T cells recognize these peptide antigen in association with MHC - II and differentiate in to T4-1 cells. o Induction of T4-I cells is of central impoance because the expression of delayed hypersensitivity largely depends on the cytokines secreted by T4-1 cells. 2. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity In this type of hypersensitivity, cytotoxic T cells kill virus infected or tumor cells.
3
Ig E mediated
Immune complex mediated
Cell mediated
Antibody mediated
Pathology
null
4751aa6f-f229-4e0e-9c5a-6d3089dfd11d
single
The sulphur granules in the wound are diagnostic of:
Actinomyces
2
Nocardia
Actinomyces
Clostridium welchii
Aspergillus flavum
Microbiology
null
3f9efec2-d27f-4f64-a42d-b8aab523f023
single
Infraorbital anesthesia involves which nerve:
null
1
Anterior superior alveolar nerve
Posterior superior alveolar nerve
Facial nerve
Mandibular nerve
Surgery
null
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single
Vector borne diseases are – a) Syphilisb) Typhusc) Dengued) J.E.
null
2
abc
bcd
ac
bd
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which one of the following deficits results from the destruction of the ciliary ganglion?
Destruction of the ciliary ganglion interrupts postganglionic parasympathetic fibers, which innervate the sphincter pupillae and ciliaris; this results in- loss of the direct pupillary reflex, mydriasis, and loss of accommodation.
2
Loss of corneal reflex
Loss of direct pupillary reflex
Loss of lacrimation
Miosis
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy 3
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single
Loosers Zones/ Pseudofractures are commonly seen in the following areas except -
Answer- D. RadiusScapulaMedial femoral neck & shaftPubic & Ischial ramiLesser trochanteRibs & clavicleProximal ulna & radiusPhalanges, metacarpals & metatarsals
4
Scapula
Ribs
Pelvis
Radius
Surgery
null
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multi
Psammoma bodies features are all except:
Ans. (d) Seen in teratoma(Ref: R 9th/pg 65; 8th/pg 38)Psammoma bodies (PBs) are concentric lamellated calcified structures, observed most commonly in papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC), meningioma, and papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovaryThey represent a process of dystrophic calcification
4
Seen in meningioma
Concentric whorled appearance
Seen in papillary thyroid carcinoma
Seen in teratoma
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
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multi
Test for detection or old blood stain is -
Amongst the given options, only benzidine test is used to detect the nature of stain, i.e. whether it is blood or not.
4
Gel diffusion
Precipitin test
Absorption elution test
Benzidine test
Forensic Medicine
null
52eff98b-36b7-4295-b175-ac544a6385e9
single
Cirrhotic ascites has all the features except
Serum-ascites albumin gradient g/dl > 1.1 in ascitic fluid caused by cirrhosis
4
Straw colour
Specific gravity < 1060
Leucocyte count < 200/cu mm
Serum ascitic albumin gradient <1
Pathology
All India exam
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multi
Myasthenia gravis may be associated with
Ref Robbins 7/e p1344; 9/e p1235-1236; Harrison 16/e p2521 table 366-3 MYASTHENIA GRAVIS (MG) is an autoimmune disease characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission due to circulating antiacetylcholine receptor autoantibodies (AchRAb) (1). The frequent association of MG with thymic disease, such as follicular hyperplasia and thymoma, suggests that the thymus plays a role in its pathogenesis Patients with MG may have evidence of coexisting autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITD)
4
Thymoma
Systemic lupus erythematous
Hypehyroidism
All the above
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
The recognized behaviour in a society is called
null
4
Custom
Tradition
Culture
Folkways
Dental
null
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multi
The maximum depression of the soft palate is recorded when Frankfort horizontal plane is
null
1
30° below the horizontal plane
10° below the horizontal plane
60° below the horizontal plane
80° below the horizontal plane
Dental
null
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single
A Central midline neck swelling is noted in a 4 yr old girl posted for tonsillectomy. The swelling is, painless. mobile, and cystic, just below the hyoid bone of size 2x1.1x1cm. U/S showed a thick walled cystic lesion. Management would include
Mid line cystic swelling, mostly just below hyoid is thyroglossal cyst. Treatment is surgical removal (Sistrunk operation).
1
Surgical removal
Antibiotics
Percutaneous aspiration
Chest X-ray
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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multi
Mesh is sutured to the edge of the defect, this is called
A well-placed mesh should have good overlap around all margins of the defect, at least 2 cm but up to 5 cm if possible. Suturing a mesh edge to edge into the defect is inlay mesh, this is not recommended.The mesh can be placed:Just outside the muscle in the subcutaneous space (onlay); Within the defect (inlay) - only applies to mesh plugs in small defects;Between fascial layers in the abdominal wall (intraparietal or sublay);Immediately extraperitoneally, against muscle or fascia (also sublay);Intraperitoneally.Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1027
2
Onlay mesh
Inlay mesh
Underlay mesh
Sublay mesh
Surgery
General surgery
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A patient presents with hematuria for many days. On investigations he is found to have calcifications in the wall of urinary bladder and small contracted bladder; most probable cause is
Schistosomiasis sometimes heralded by painless, recurrent hematuria, dysuria, or urinary frequency. It is first suspected cause for hematuria in endemic areas (sub saharan africa) Long-term urogenital schistosomiasis results in fibrosis that may obstruct urinary drainage and result in organ dysfunction. Ultrasonography may demonstrate bladder or ureteral wall thickening, polypoid lesions, hydroureter, hydronephrosis, urinary tract calcifications, and even bladder carcinoma Treatment includes praziquental.
1
Schistosomiasis
Amyloidosis
Tuberculosis
Ca urinary bladder
Surgery
Urology
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Plasmapharesis is used in all of the following except
Plasmapheresis of the autologuous and exchange types is used to treat a variety of disorders, including those of the immune system, such as Goodpasture's syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome, lupus, Polymyositis , myasthenia gravis, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Ref - pubmed.com
2
Myaesthenic crisis
Cholinergic crisis
Gullian Barre syndrome
Polymyositis
Medicine
Immune system
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multi
Conduction velocity of nerve is reduced in all of the following conditions, except
Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN) is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome. It is characterized by acute paralysis and loss of reflexes without sensory loss. Pathologically, there is motor axonal degeneration with antibody-mediated attacks of motor nerves and nodes of Ranvier The syndrome typically presents as a progressive flaccid symmetric paralysis with areflexia, often causing respiratory failure. Electromyographic studies and nerve conduction studies show normal motor conduction velocity and latency with decreased amplitude of compound muscle action potentials. Pathologically, it is a noninflammatory axonopathy without demyelination.Antibodies attack the coating of the motor neurons without causing inflammation or loss of myelin. It does not affect sensory neurons, so sensation remains intact despite loss of movement Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456
1
Acute Motor Axonal Neuropathy (AMAN)
Acute Inflammatroy Demyelinating Neuropathy(AIDP)
Hereditary Sencory Motor Neuropathy (HSM)
Multifocal Motor Neuropathy
Medicine
C.N.S
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multi
Antemoem burn differ from postmoem burns by all except
Vesicle containing air. In Antemoem burns, vesicles contain serous fluids with proteins & chlorides while in postmoem burns vesicles contain air. Trait Antemoem Burns Postmoem Burns 1 Line of redness Present Absent 2 Veiscles Contain albuminous fluid and chlorides Contain air 3 Infection Pus and sloughing Nil 4 Healing Granulation Nil 5 Soot in upper respiratory tract Carboxyhaemoglobin in blood Present Present Absent Absent 6 7 Enzymes Increase in enzymes No such increase The presence of antemoem blisters, finding of paicles of soof in air passage oesophagus and stomach and cherry red colour of blood due the presence of carbon monoxide are ceain signs of death from burning.
3
Pus in vesicle
Vesicle with hyperemic base
Vesicle containing air
Infammatory red line
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Alpha-fetoprotein in maternal serum and/or amniotic fluid is increased in all except -
null
2
Fetal neural tube defects
Down's syndrome
Anencephaly
Encephalocele
Medicine
null
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multi
All are true about panel discussion except –
Panel discussion It is a two way communication. 4 - 8 persons who are qualified to talk about a topic and discuss a given problem in front of a large group or audience. The panel comprises a chairman. The chairman opens the meeting, welcomes the group and introduces the panel speakers. He introduces topic briefly and invite the panel speakers to present their point of view. After the main aspects of subject are explored by panel speakers, the audience is invited to take part. If members of the panel are unacquainted with this method, they may have a preliminary meeting, prepare the material on the subject and decide upon the method and plan of presentation.
2
Two way discussion
6 to 20 members participates
Chief members initiates
Each one prepares the topic of discussion
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
867491aa-2a0a-4718-98ea-9d2493b5df89
multi
All of the following are X-linked except:
Answer is C (Von Willebrand disease) : Von Willebrand disease is inherited as autosomal dominant disorder. It is not X-linked.
3
G-6 PD deficiency
Hemophilia -A
Von Willebrandt's disease
Fragile X syndrome
Medicine
null
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multi
A patient has a functional shift towards right due to cross bite, the indicated treatment is
null
1
Maxillary expansion bilaterally
Expansion of maxilla on the side of functional shift
Expansion of maxilla opposite to the side of functional shift
None of the above
Dental
null
015f8b1c-8bdc-4c2f-8e4b-1ee1b20f7ab6
multi
Humoral immunodeficiency is suspected in a patient and he is under investigation. Which of the following infections would not be consistent with the diagnosis?
Answer is B (Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) : Pneumocystis carinii infections are associated with deficient cell mediated immunity and not with humoral immunodeficiency. Humoral immunodeficiencies i.e. predominantly antibody deficiencies are associated with recurrent serious infections with pyogenic bacteria and giardiasis. Recurrent sinusitis and recurrent subcutaneous abscess result from infection with pyogenic bacteria and hence are consistent with diagnosis of humoral immunodeficiency.
2
Giardiasis
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Recurrent sinusitis
Recurrent subcutaneous abscesses
Medicine
null
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single
The resting uretric pressure ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e. 0-5 cm of H20 "Baseline or resting ureteral pressure is approx. 0 to 5 cm 1120, and superimposed ureteral contraction ranging from 20 to 80 cm H20 occur two to six times per minute." - Cambell's Urology
4
5-7 cm of Hp
15-30 cm of Hp
7-10 cm of Hp
0-5 cm of 1-120
Surgery
null
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single
True about heat hematoma: PGI 12
Ans. Between skull and dura mater
2
Inside the brain
Between skull and dura mater
Between skull and pericranium
Between scalp and pericranium
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Under National Cancer control Programme, oncology wings were sanctioned to -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Medical college Hospital o Government hospital and government medical colleges arc provided with a grant of Rs 3.00 crores for the development of oncology wing.
3
Regional Cancer institutes
District Hospitals
Medical college Hospitals
Voluntary Agenecies treating cancer patients
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
The first gastrectomy was performed in 1881 by ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Billroth
3
Mickuliz
Wolfer
Billroth
Moynihan
Surgery
null
5953863f-3390-4116-b2b7-38668eb888ab
single
Which of the following is not a second generation antihistamines
Antihistamines are classified as first generation and second generation compounds on the basis of CNS penetration and anticholinergic propeies. first generation antihistamines can penetrate blood brain barrier and possess additional anticholinergic propeies which are lacking in second generation drugs. cyclizine is a first generation Where are citirizen ,loratidine and fexofenadine are second generation drugs Refer Goodman and Gilman 12/e p92
1
Cyclizine
Fexofenadine
Loratidine
Acrivastine
Pharmacology
Autacoids
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single
All of the following are features of post-tubal ligation syndrome except:
Ans. is d, i.e. DyspareuniaRef: Dutta obs 7th/ed, p 557Post ligation syndrome-Some patients after tubal ligation can experience post-ligation syndrome characterized by menstrual irregularities like menorrhagia, or irregular periods along with pelvic pain or congestive dysmenorrhea and cystic ovaries.It is vascular in origin and its incidence can be reduced if the blood vessels adjacent to the mesosalpix are not unduly disturbed.
4
Abnormal menstrual bleeding
Dysmenorrhea
Pelvic pain
Dysparaunia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
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multi
Post coital test is used to assess :
Cervical factor
1
Cervical factor
Vagical factor
Uterine factor
Nose
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Reid index is useful in the diagnosis of:
Ref: Chapter 15. The Lung: page: 688: Robbins and Cot ran Pathologic Basis of Disease: 8th editionExplanation:* The Reid index is ratio of the thickness of the mucous gland layer to the thickness of wall between the epithelium and cartilage.The normal Reid index is 0.4 and it is increased in chronic bronchitis, usually in proportion to the severity and duration of the disease.Asthma is associated with type 1 hypersensitivity reaction and shows Curschmann spirals and Charcot -Leyden crystals in the mucous plugs.Bronchiectasis is associated with Kartagener syndrome: Bronchiectasis, infertility, sinusitis and situs inversus.Emphysema is commonly associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency resulting in protease-anti protease imbalance.
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Chronic bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Bronchiectasis
Emphysema
Pathology
Obstructive Lung Diseases
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Secondary hemorrhage after hysterectomy usually occurs
Ans. c (Between 5-10 days) (Ref. Dutta Gynecology 4th ed., 208; Shaw's Gynecology, 14th ed., p 228)# Hemorrhage (COMPLICATIONS OF HYSTER CTOMY)- Primary: within 24 hours (due to slipping of ligature usually that of vaginal angle)- Secondary: usually between 5-10 days (but may occur even in 3rd week)
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Immediately
Within 2 days
Between 5-10 days
Between 10-14 days
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Operative Gynaecology
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A 67-year-old woman has pulmonary function tests performed to evaluate symptoms of dyspnea. The most prominent finding is a reduction of the ratio of FEV1/FVC. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The VC is reduced in emphysema, but the FEV1 is grossly reduced because of high airway resistance. In predominant emphysema, diffusing capacity is more profoundly decreased than in predominant bronchitis.
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COPD
ankylosing spondylitis
Pickwickian syndrome
scleroderma of the chest wall
Medicine
Respiratory
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If 100 woman experience 20 accidental pregnancies after using a contraceptive method for 2 years each, Pearl index:
Pearl index is defined as the number of "failures of contraception(i.e, accidental pregnancies) per 100 woman-years of exposure (HWY)" Failure rate per HMY = Total accidental pregnancies X 1200 ----------------------------------- Total months of exposure Thus, on entering values given in question, we get 10 as answer. ** A minimum of 600 months of exposure is usually considered necessary before any firm conclusion can be reached regarding the contraceptive efficacy of a method Contraceptive Method Pearl Index (Per HWY) Calender method 24 Coitus interruptus 18 Male condoms 2-14 Female condoms 5-21 Diaphragm 12 Vaginal sponge Parous women Nulliarous women 20-40 9-20 IUCD 1- 5 OCP 0.1- 2.0 Centchroman (Saheli/CHHAYA) 1.83 - 2.84 Sterilization 0.1
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0.1 per 100 women years
100 per 1000 woman years
10 accidental pregnancies per 1000 woman years using contraceptives
10 accidental pregnancies per 100 woman years using contraceptives
Social & Preventive Medicine
JIPMER 2017
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Unfamiliarity of familiar things is seen in:
Jamais vu refers to the feeling of unfamiliarity for familiar things. Deja vu refers to the feeling that an event which is being currently experienced has also happened in the past.
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Deja vu
Jamais vu
Deja entendu
Deja pence
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
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