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Water lilly appearance in chest X-ray is suggestive of:
Ans. Hydatid cyst
3
Bronchiectasis
Bronchopleural fistula
Hydatid cyst
Sequestration cyst of lung
Radiology
null
3703990c-3f96-419e-8297-ee7e7755a48c
single
Drug of choice in drug-induced parkinsonism is :
Central anticholinergics like trihexyphenidyl (Benzhexol) are the only drugs effective in drug-induced Parkinsonism.
2
Levodopa
Benzhexol
Amantidine
Carbidopa
Pharmacology
null
9755fb3d-f3ba-4235-ad34-a5eb085dbc13
single
A 13-year-old known asthmatic presents with severe wheezing and a respiratory rate of 40. Her pulse rate is 120. What is the next best step in management of this patient?
For severe acute asthma | Oxygen & Nebulized salbutamol is recommended Other option- Oxygen and metered dose inhale of salmeterol - for prevention of asthma Oxygen and Intravenous aminophylline - cause toxicity Oxygen & IV Magnesium sulphate - not recommended now days
1
Oxygen and nebulised salbutamol
Oxygen and Metered dose inhaler of salmeterol
Oxygen and intravenous Aminophylline
Oxygen and Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Medicine
COPD and Asthma
3b5dbb64-004a-4854-986e-b466ddbb757e
multi
The difference between primary and secondary healing is
In secondary healing : More granulation tissue and fibrosis occurs. Scar is loss cosmetic. Secondary healing occurs slower. Surgical wounds are clean cut, hence they heal by secondary healing.
1
More granulation tissue and fibrosis is seen in secondary healing
Scar is more cosmetic in secondary healing
Secondary healing occurs faster
Surgical wound heal commonly by secondary healing
Surgery
null
331c01c8-186b-4662-8f8f-f2227ccf5f4a
single
Stem cells are taken from?
ANSWER: (B) Bone marrowREF: Harrison s 18th ed ch: 65, 66, 67Stem cells are biological cells found in all multicellular organisms, that can divide (through mitosis) and differentiate into diverse specialized cell types and can self-renewT to produce more stem cellsThere are three accessible sources of autologous adult stem cells in humans:Bone marrow, which requires extraction by harvesting, that is, drilling into bone (typically the femur or iliac crest),Adipose tissue (lipid cells), which requires extraction by liposuction, andBlood, which requires extraction through pheresis, wherein blood is drawn from the donor (similar to a blood donation), passed through a machine that extracts the stem cells and returns other portions of the blood to the donor.Stem cells can also be taken from umbilical cord blood just after birth. Of all stem cell types, autologous harvesting involves the least risk. By definition, autologous cells are obtained from one's own body, just as one may bank his or her own blood for elective surgical procedures.
2
Skin
Bone marrow
Oral mucosa
Elementary tract
Pathology
General Immunity
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single
Medullary carcinoma thyroid arises from -
null
1
Parafollicular cells
Cells lining the acini
Capsule of thyroid
Stroma of the gland
Surgery
null
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single
'Knudson\'s two stage hypothesis is for –
Deletion or inactivation of RB gene by two mutations (Knudson's two hit hypothesis) results in occurrence of retinoblastoma.
2
Glaucoma
Retinoblastoma
Optic glioma
Meningioma
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Muscle pain after anaesthesia is caused by –
Succinylcholine can cause post-operative muscle pain (myalgia, muscle soreness).
3
Vecuronium
D-tubocurare
Suxamethonium
All
Anaesthesia
null
a8961631-7587-4dc8-874b-0b9047ac1f5e
multi
A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause?
Ans. (d) Steroid induced cataractRef: Ducker's ophthalmology 2/e, p. 412; Parson's 20/e, p. 251Steroid induced cataract is posterior subcapsular which causes the said complaints due to its central position. Age favours PSC than nuclear cataract.
4
Cortical cataract
Morgagnian cataract
Nuclear cataract
Steroid induced cataract
Ophthalmology
Lens
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single
Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti H. pylori triple drug regimen :
null
3
Amoxicillin
Vancomycin
Metronidazole
Clotrimazole
Pharmacology
null
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single
A 15 year old male has nominal aphasia. There is also history of scanty, foul smelling discharge in the past. The patient repos of some bleeding when cleaning the ear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Ans. is'b'i.e., Temporal lobe abscesslRef: Dhingra Sh/e p. 85Otogenic brain abscessEar infections are the most common cause of brain abscess.Most common site of cerebral abscess is temporal lobe.Due to increased ICT.HeadacheNausea/vomitingLethargy progressing to drowsiness, confusion, stupor and coma.
2
Extradural abscess
Temporal lobe abscess
Cavernous thrombosis
Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
ENT
null
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single
Blood-brain barrier is formed by
The foot process of astrocytes along with the capillary endothelial cells and tight junctions between them form the BBB. The blood-brain barrier(BBB) protects the brain and spinal cord from potentially harmful substances while allowing the gases and nutrients to enter. The tight junction between the endothelial cells of blood capillaries forms the most impoant component. The following areas are devoid of BBB: pineal gland, posterior lobe of the pituitary, tuber cinerum, area postrema, wall of supraoptic recess of third ventricle. (Ref: clinical neuroanatomy by Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, pg- 183)
3
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Type II Pneumatocytes
Anatomy
Brain
2b1716e6-96ab-4ba7-8538-83832d93876c
single
Watson Jones operation is done for which condition ?
ref : maheswari 9th ed
4
Polio
Muscle paralysis
Neglected clubfoot
Chronic ankle instability
Orthopaedics
Thigh, Knee,Leg,Foot & Ankle injuries
76a4e2c2-5e3f-4414-9959-17dd19eb4976
single
Most common emotion of man
null
1
Fear
Anger
Anxiety
Love
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3bdfe8ea-1c09-4256-8819-7521ac50c86b
single
San Joakin valley fever is caused by
San joakin valley fever ( also known as dese rheumatism) is caused by coccidoides immitis which is a dimorphic fungi. at 37 degree C - it is yeast at 25 degree C - it is mould Ahroconidial arrangement is seen in this fungus ( Rectangular arrangement ) H. capsulatum- cause Darling disease B. dermatitidis- cause Chicago disease
3
B. dermatitidis
Cryptococcous neoformans
Coccidioidomycosis immitis
H. capsulatum
Microbiology
Mycology
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multi
Which of the following is drug of choice for Toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?
DOC for Toxoplasma.gondi : Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine DOC for Toxoplasma.gondi in Immunocompromised : Cotrimoxazole DOC for Toxoplasma.gondi in Pregnancy : Spiramycin
4
Metronidazole
Pyrimethamine
Sulfadiazine
Spiramycin
Pharmacology
null
cac2b3b1-d367-488c-be5d-1377b3e71c39
single
Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of -
null
3
Amyloid associated protein
Mutant Calcitonin
Mutant Transthyretin
Normal transthyretin
Pathology
null
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Investigation for definitive identification of cryptosporodium: March 2010
Ans. B: Immunofluorescence test Diagnosis of cryptosporidium is made by demonstration of oocyst in feces Methods of detection and confirmation of cryptosporodium Wet mount-In bright-field microscopy using differential interference contrast (DIC), oocysts appear as small round structures (4 to 6 im) similar to yeasts. They do not autofluoresce. Modified acid-fast stain-Oocysts (4 to 6 im) often have distinct oocyst walls and stain from light pink to bright red. In paicular, infections that are resolving can have colorless oocyst "ghosts." Mature oocysts may have discernible sporozoites (up to 4). Indirect fluorescent antibody assay-This technique offers the highest combination of sensitivity and specificity and is considered the gold standard. However, it does not provide a stained slide that can be archived. It requires special equipment (fluorescence microscope) and commercially available test kits. Methods for detection (but not confirmation) of Cryptosporidium Oocysts may be detected by the following methods, but should be confirmed by the diagnostic techniques listed above. Safranin stain-Oocysts of Cryptosporidium often (but not always) stain a bright reddish-orange color. This method, advocated for Cyclospora, is not widely used for Cryptosporidium because the Cryptosporidium oocysts may not always properly stain. - Trichrome stain-Oocysts may be detected, but should not be confirmed, by this method. This staining method is inadequate for definitive diagnosis because all oocysts will appear unstained. Oocysts appear as small round structures measuring 4 to 6 im. Other methods for detecting Cryptosporidium in stool. - Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)-The EIA does not rely on microscopy skills, is highly sensitive and specific, and is useful for screening large numbers of specimens. - Rapid immunochromatographic caridge assays-The rapid caridge assays may be used with preserved specimens and are quick and easy to perform
2
ELISA
Immunofluorescence test
Demonstration of oocyte in feces
Fluoroscent staining with auramine
Microbiology
null
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single
Red degeneration of fibroid is due to :
Thrombosis of the veins
1
Thrombosis of the veins
Infection
Gangrene
Rupture of capsules
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
55bed34d-ba09-4799-b4a3-eb0955fd49c8
single
Which of the following cements is most irritant to pulpal tissues?
Because of its high acidity, silicates were classifed as severe irritant. High acidity can irritate and sometimes lead to irreversible pulpal damage. Ref: Mannapalli ed 3 pg 48
2
Zinc phosphate
Silicate
Glass ionomer
Polycarboxylate
Dental
null
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Following is feature of Fuchs&; heterochromic iridocyclitis -
Fuchs&; heterochromic iridocyclitis is a chronic non-granulomatous type of low grade anterior uveitis typically assosiated with early cataract formation. Clinical features: Heterochromia of iris, Diffuse stromal iris atrophy, (moth-eaten appearence), may cause transillumination defect, Fine stellate KPs at the back of cornea, Faint aqueous flare, Absence of posterior synechiae, A fairly common rubeosis iridis, sometimes assosiated with neovascularisation of the angle of anterior chamber, and Comparitively early development of complicated cataract and secondary glaucoma (usually popen angle type ) Ref:A K Khurana 6th edition pg:169
4
Heterochromia of iris
Keratic precipitates
cataract
All the above
Ophthalmology
Uveal tract
29ac9977-70ff-4f4e-80b9-b7d5873ba953
multi
Who discovered polymerase chain reaction
Karry B mullis discovered PCR.
4
Walter Gilbert
Barbara Mcclintock
Frederick Sanger
Karry B mullis
Microbiology
null
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single
Referred otalgia from base of tongue or oropharynx is carried by nerve:
The Jacobson nerve, tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) directly innervates the ear but also has pharyngeal, lingual, and tonsillar branches to supply the posterior one-third poion of the tongue, tonsillar fossa, pharynx, eustachian tube, and parapharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces. So any pathology involving those areas can lead to referred otalgia. Must know: Referred Otalgia: the source of the pain does not reside within the ear but, rather it originates from a source distant from the ear hence it is called as "referred otalgia". Any pathology residing within the sensory net of cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X and upper cervical nerves C2 and C3 can potentially cause referred otalgia. Ref: Diseases of Ear Nose & Throat, by P L Dhingra, 2nd edition.
3
Cranial nerve V
Cranial nerve VII
Cranial nerve IX
Cranial nerve X
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following drug prevent these renal stones?
The renal stones are hexagonal in shape so, cystine stonesCarbonic anhydrase inhibitors are useful for cystinuria.Ref: Goodman Gillman 12th ed. Pg: 680
1
Acetazolamide
Hydrochlohiazide
Mannitol
Furosemide
Pharmacology
Kidney
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single
Which paraneoplastic syndrome is not seen with Small Cell Ca Lung:
Ans. (a) PTH(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 715-717)Most common variety causing hypercalcemia is Squamous cell Ca, while all other hormones are usually secreted by small cell Ca
1
PTH
ACTH
ADH
Carcinoid syndrome
Pathology
Respiration
22b4aed6-a29d-416c-b8bc-3f0d586c8340
multi
Which of the following is not a 2nd generation antihistamine
Ans. b. Cyclizine
2
Cetrizine
Cyclizine
Loratidine
Fexofenadine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Anita 15-year-old, complains of heavy periods since 2 months. O/E: wt 40 kg and BP 120/80 mmHg. All of the following investigations are indicated, except:
null
4
STSH
Platelet count
Bleeding and clotting time
Estradiol levels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
423417d8-754d-485b-adf7-bcc7c7b65a38
multi
40 years male presents with translucent scrotal swelling in which it is possible to get above the swelling on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hydrocele * Hydroceles are typically translucent and it is possible to 'get above the swelling' on examination of the scrotum.Hydrocele* A hydrocele is an abnormal collection of serious fluid in a part of the processus vaginalis, usually the tunica.* Hydrocele fluid contains albumin and fibrinogen. If the contents of a hydrocele are allowed to drain into a collecting vessel, the liquid does not clot; however, the fluid coagulates if mixed with even a trace of blood that has been in contact with damaged tissue.* About 5% of inguinal hernias are associated with a vaginal hydrocele on the same side.* In congenital hydrocele, the processus vaginalis is patent and connects with the peritoneal cavity. The communication is usually too small to allow herniation of intra-abdominal contents. Pressure on the hydrocele does not always empty it but the hydrocele fluid may drain into the peritoneal cavity when the child is lying down; thus, the hydrocele is often intermittent.* Encysted hydrocele of the cord is a smooth oval swelling near the spermatic cord, which is liable to be mistaken for an inguinal hernia. The swelling moves downwards and becomes less mobile if the testis is pulled gently downwards.* Hydrocele of the canal of Nuck is a similar condition in females. The cyst lies in relation to the round ligament and is always at least partially within the inguinal canal.
1
Hydrocele
Indirect inguinal hernia
Varicocele
Sebaceous cyst
Surgery
Testis & Scrotum
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Microvesicular steatosis is seen in all except -
Microvesicular steatosis is characterized by small intracytoplasmic fat vacuoles (liposomes) which accumulate in the cell. Common causes are tetracyclines, acute fatty liver of pregnancy, Reye's syndrome, and hepatitis C. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 823
3
Alcoholic liver disease
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Methotrexate toxicity
Reye's sydromc
Medicine
G.I.T
74eb7ff6-eb25-4d2a-bb1f-cfc018c378ac
multi
Which among the following condition can cause an increase in growth hormone level in blood?
Factors that stimulate secretion of growth hormone: Decreased blood glucose Decreased blood free fatty acids Starvation or fasting, protein deficiency Trauma, stress, excitement, exercise Testosterone, estrogen Deep sleep (stage II & IV) Growth hormone-releasing hormone Deoxyglucose Fasting Increase in circulating levels of few amino acids Glucagon Pyrogen Lysine vasopressin L-Dopa and adrenergic antagonists that penetrates the brain Apomorphine and other dopamine receptor agonists Factors that decreases secretion of growth hormone: Increased blood glucose and free fatty acids Ageing and obesity Somatostatin Exogenous growth hormone Somatomedins (insulin-like growth factors) REM sleep Coisol Medroxyprogesterone
1
Hypoglycemia
Coisol
Methylprednisolone
Glucose
Physiology
null
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single
Which among the following diseases can prove fatal in combination with malnutrition among under 5 Children?
Measles caused by myxovirus is characterized by fever and catarrhal symptoms of the upper respiratory tract (coryza, cough)Measles tends to be very severe in the malnourished child, carrying a moality up to 400 times higher than in well-nourished children having measles. Additionally severely malnourished children have been shown to excrete measles virus for longer periods. Park 23e pg:146
3
Anemia
Tetanus
Measles
Diarrhoea
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
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single
Which is the watershed area between SMA and IMA that commonly undergoes ischemia?
Anatomic factors predisposing to colonic ischemia include the narrow caliber of the IMA and occasional vascular variations that lack significant collaterals between the SMA and IMA. Predisposing physiologic factors include the low perfusion pressure at the splenic flexure, a watershed area, a decrease in perfusion associated with colonic motility, and sustained mesenteric vasospasm associated with systemic hypotension or other severe physiologic stress produced by sympathetic activity. There are several weak points in the colonic blood supply, known as watershed areas, which result from incomplete anastomoses of the marginal aeries. These watershed areas are more vulnerable to ischemic injury than other pas of the colon. Splenic flexure is the watershed territory between SMA and IMA. Ref: Tyagi S., Cappell M.S. (2012). Chapter 162. Large Bowel Disorders. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. Retrieved March 6, 2013.
2
Hepatic flexure
Splenic flexure
Rectosigmoid Jn.
Ileocolic Jn.
Anatomy
null
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single
All of the following are displacements of Colie's fracture except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medial dispalcement Displacement in colie's fractureo The fracture line runs transversely at the cortico-cancellous junctiono In the majority of the cases, one or more displacements of the distal fragment occuri) Dorsal displacement (Dorsal shift)ii) Dorsal tilt (Dorsal angulation)iii) Lateral displacement (lateral shift)iv) Lateral tilt (lateral angulation)v) Supination (external rotation)vi) Impaction (proximal migration)
4
Dorsal tilt
Impaction
Supination
Medial dispalcement
Orthopaedics
Injuries of the Forearm
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multi
All of the following is true about Kevorkian sign except:
Kevorkian sign/ Cattle trucking sign: It is the earliest change in eye after death. Blood in the retinal vessels appear fragmented, visualized in opthalmoscope. It appears with in few seconds to minutes after death and persists for an hour.
1
Persist even after 1 day of death
Appear within minutes of death
Visualized using ophthalmoscope
Cattle tracking sign
Forensic Medicine
FMT Q Bank
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multi
Umbrella configration on fluorescein angiogrphy is seen in -
Central serous retinopathy is a retinal disorder characterised by serous retinal detachment in the macula affecting mostly young men ages 20-45 yrs. Fluorescein angiography shows two patterns- Ink blot pattern Smoke stack pattern - small hyperfluorescent spot which ascends veically like a smoke stack and gradually spreads laterally to take a mushroom or umbrella configuration. Ref : Khurana page no. 293 edition 6th
3
Retinitis pigmentosa
Rhegmatous retinal detachment
Central serous retinopathy
Eale's disease
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
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single
Lathyrism is due to:
The toxin present in lathyrus seeds has been identified as Beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA). Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21stedition, page-597
2
Afla toxin
Beta oxalyl amino acid
Saccharin
Cyclamate
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following statements regarding dyspnoea are True / False? a) Tripod positioned breathing, characterized by sitting with one's hands braced on the knees is indicative of increased airway resistance b) Paradoxical movement of the abdomen a sign of diaphragmatic weakness c) Left atrial failure should be considered when the patient complains of platypnea d) Raynaud's disease may be an indirect clue to the underlying pulmonary hypeension in a patient with dyspnoea e) If the hea rate is >85% of the predicted maximum an abnormality of the cardiovascular system is likely the explanation for dyspnoea
Evidence for increased work of breathing (use of accessory muscles of ventilation, and the tripod position) is indicative of increased airway resistance. Paradoxical movement of the abdomen (inward motion during inspiration), a sign of diaphragmatic weakness. Left atrial myxoma or hepatopulmonary syndrome should be considered when the patient complains of platypnea. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 277-78.
3
c,d,e -True a,b -False
a,d,e -True b,c -False
a,b,d,e -True c -False
a,d -True b,c,e -False
Medicine
null
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multi
Not a feature of orbital apex syndrome
A, b, c are triad of orbital apex syndrome.
4
Ophthalmoplegia
Amaurosis
Anaesthesia of ophthamic nerve
Enophthalmos
Ophthalmology
null
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single
A child of 3 years will be able to: March 2009
Ans. A: Copy Circle Copying a circle: 3 years Rides tricycle: 3 years Copies cross: 4 years Copying triangle: 5 years
1
Copy circle
Ride bicycle
Copy cross
Copy triangle
Pediatrics
null
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single
Kidney size is normal in
Kidney size : Normal - Medullary sponge kidney, Simple renal cysts. Small - Medullary Cystic kidney, Nephronophthisis .
4
Nephronophthisis
ADPCKD
Acquired renal cysts
Medullary sponge kidney
Medicine
null
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single
Cesarean delivery has following advantage over vaginal delivery
Elective cesarean delivery offers decreased risks for hemorrhage and chorio amnionitis compared to vaginal delivery.
1
Decreased risk of hemorrhage
Decreased risk of hysterectomy
Decreased rehospitalization rate
Decreased risk of thromboembolism
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Differential diagnosis of a lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hand/feet, include all of the following except: March 2005
Ans. A: Fibrosarcoma Lytic bony lesions: Differential Diagnosis (Mnemonic = FOGMACHINES): F = Fibrous Dysplasia 0 = Osteoblastoma G = Giant Cell Tumour M = Metastasis / Mveloma A = Aneurysmal Bone Cyst C = Chondroblastoma H = Hyperparathyroidism (brown tumours)/ Hemangioma I = Infection N = Non-ossifying Fibroma E = Eosinophilic Granuloma/ Enchondroma S = Solitary Bone Cyst
1
Fibrosarcoma
Enchondroma
Hyperpahyroidism
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Surgery
null
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multi
All of the following manifestations may be associated with lacunar infarcts, except:
Answer is D (Quadriplegia): Quadriplegia/Quadriparesis are not associated with lacunar infarcts.
4
Pure motor loss
Pure sensory loss
Ataxia
Quadriplegia
Medicine
null
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multi
A middle aged man with chronuc renal failure is diagnostic to have sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis. His creatinine clearance is 25ml /min. All of the following drugs need modification in doses except
Refer Katzung 11/e p826 Rifamipicin is associated with bile Rifamipicin is secreted in bile So it does not require dose adjustment min renal failure
3
Isoniazid
Streptomycin
Rifamipicin
Ethambutol
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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multi
Febrile response in CNS is mediated by all except
Fever is produced in response to substances called pyrogens that act by stimulating prostaglandin synthesis in the vascular and perivascular cells of hypothalamus. They can be classified as: Exogenous pyrogens - Endotoxin of gram ‘-’ bacteria, superantigens (gram ‘+’ bacteria). Endogenous pyrogens - IL-1, TNF-alpha, Ciliary neurotropic factor and IFN-alpha. PGE 2 is the most important chemical responsible for elevation of hypothalamic set point in the body. So, NSAIDs reduce fever by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and reducing prostaglandin concentration.
3
Bacterial toxin
IL-l
IL-6
Interferon
Pathology
null
a99d5a89-d701-43bb-ab73-efb448fbc96d
multi
A patient presented with interstitial pneumonia,denied being bitten by insects.Of the following rickettsial diseases, which could have been caused without an insect bite?
- Since the patient denied of being bitten by insects, the most likely rickettsial disease is Q fever. - Since out of 4 option only Q fever has no ahropod transmission . - It is transmitted by aerosol. - It is caused by Coxiella burnetti. - No rash occur in Q fever In scrub typhus vector is trombiculid mite In rickettsial pox the vector is mite. Caused by Rickettsia akari Brill Zinsser's disease / recrudescent typhus is reactivation of epidemic typhus in the human body
4
Scrub typhus
Rickettsial pox
Brill-Zinsser disease
Q fever
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria)
101ac27c-5598-4428-8793-9556311d5d16
single
Malignant neoplasms shows all the following features EXCEPT
null
2
Disorganized cell structure
Encapsulation
Invasion of blood vessels
Rapid, erratic growth
Pathology
null
c479331e-a017-4ddb-bf0b-8583ba34249a
multi
JSB stain is used for which parasite ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malaria JSB (Jaswant-Singh-Bhattacherji) stain is a fairly rapid staining method for the detection of malarial parasites. This stain is superior to the field's stain because the parasites stain clearer and both thick and thin smears can be stained. However, preparations fade quite rapidly and this stain is, therefore, not recommended when permanent slides are desired. Stains used for staining malarial smears A number of Romanowsky stains are used for example Field's, Giemsa's, Wright's and Leishman's. For thick smear, the stains used are : (i) Field's or (ii) Giemsa's. For thin smear, the stains used are (i) Giemsa's or (ii) Leishman's. JSB stain is used for both thick and thin smears, and is the standard method used by laboratories under the National Malaria Eradication Programme in India.
1
Malaria
Filaria
Kala azar
Sleeping sickness
Microbiology
null
2609434b-0f22-41a2-9e8e-597ba7a6a159
single
Which of the following surgery is not contraindicated below 12 years of age?
FESS is the only surgery which can be perform before 17 years. In rarest circumstances, septal surgery is performed in children, septoplasty is also done and never SMR.
2
Rhinoplasty
FESS
SMR
Septoplasty
ENT
null
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single
Minimum effective dose of ethinyl estradiol in combination oral pills is:
Ans. is a, i.e. 10mgRef: Dutta Obs. 6th/ed, p542; Shaw 15th/ed, p231"Intensive pharmacological research clinical trials conducted to minimise the adverse effects of estrogen without reducing the contraceptive efficacy, resulted in lowering the dose of oestrogen to a minimum of 20mg or even 15mg"Thus, Remember: Low dose OCPs have estrogen = less than 50mcg (30-35mcg usually) - Ref: Dutta Obs 6th/ed, p542* Very low dose OCPs have estrogen =20mcg* Minimum effective dose of Estrogen =10mcg
1
10 mg
35 mg
50 mg
75 mg
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
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single
All of the following reactions are catalyzed by microsomal enzymes EXCEPT:
- Acetylation is done by N-acetyl transferase which is a non-microsomal enzyme. - Most of the Phase 1 reactions and Glucuronidation is done by microsomal enzymes.
2
Glucuronidation
Acetylation
Oxidation
Reduction
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Accessory muscle of mastication:
Ans. C BuccinatorRef: Gray's Anatomy 41st ed. P 495* It is a thin quadrilateral muscle of cheek, occupies the interval between maxilla and mandible.* It compresses the cheek against the teeth and gums during mastication and assists the tongue in directing the food between teeth.Classically the muscles of mastication are:* Masseter* Medial Pterygoid* Lateral Pterygoid* TemporalisAccessory muscles of mastication* Anterior belly of digastric* Mylohyoid muscle* Geniohyiod muscle* Buccinator
3
Risorius
Orbicularis oris
Buccinator
Platysma
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
638ba4b1-e6ea-4950-b9d0-6bcddecd9da4
single
Conjugate vaccines are available for the prevention of invasive disease caused by all of the following except - rpt
Question repeated
4
H influenzae
Strep pneumoniae
N. Meningitidis (group C)
N. Meningitidis (group B)
Microbiology
Bacteriology
730f6f32-3d91-4112-bcac-94b81b1b80b2
multi
Which of the following is an immature defense mechanism?
Regression is where a person returns back to earlier phase of development to avoid the tensions & conflicts of present phase of development. Ex: A businessman who is stressed because of financial problems goes to a park & plays with children.
4
Anticipation
Humor
Suppression
Regression
Psychiatry
null
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single
What is the advantage of fixed dose combination of drugs.
Ans. D. All of the aboveAdvantages of FDC:Safe and effective.Reduces "pill burden" a Enhancing overall treatment outcome.Increases efficiency.Reduce incidence of adverse drug effects.Improves patient compliance.Offers low cost (compared to individual components of active ingredients).
4
Increases efficacy of drug
Decreases adverse effects
Patient compliance improved
All of the above
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Live attenuated vaccines are A/E-
null
2
Measles
Rabies
Oral polio
Yellow fever
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Characteristics of normal distribution curve includes:
Characteristics of normal distribution curve: Bell Shaped Symmetrical  Asymptotic – The two tails never touches the X-axis Standard deviation = variance Mean=median=mode=0 (Coincide)
4
Bell Shaped
Symmetrical
Mean=median=mode=0
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Causes of physiological jaundice :
All the above
4
T Hb-F destruction
Conversion of bilirubin to urobilinogen
Inadequate conjugation of bilirubin
All the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
7796fbda-6623-4ba3-9e29-92165033eecf
multi
Which of the following congenital lesion is deformity:
Ans: B (CTEV) CONGENITAL ANOMALIES Robbins 7th/470-74# Congenital anomalies are morphologic defects that are present at birth, but some, such as cardiac defects and renal anomalies, may not become clinically apparent until years later.The term congenital does not imply or exclude a genetic basis for the birth defect. It is estimated that about 3% of newborns have a major anomaly, defined as an anomaly having either cosmetic or functional significance.Various kinds of errors in morphogenesis are--mal- formations, disruptions, deformations, sequences, and syndromes.MalformationsIt represents primary errors of morphogenesis, in other words there is an intrinsically abnormal developmental process.They are usually multifactorial rather than the result of a single gene or chromosomal defect.Some, such as congenital heart defects and anencephaiy (absence of brain), involve single body systems, whereas in other cases multiple malformations involving many organs may coexist.DisruptionsIt result from secondary destruction of an organ or body region that was previously normal in development; thus, in contrast to malformations, disruptions arise from an extrinsic disturbance in morphogenesis.Understandably, disruptions are not heritable and hence are not associated with risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies.Deformations Robbins 7th/472It like disruptions, also representan extrinsic disturbance of deve/opmentratherthananintrinsicerrorofmorphogenesis.Deformations are common problems, affecting approximately 2% of newborn infants to varying degrees. Fundamental to the pathogenesis of deformations is localized or generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces, leading eventually to a variety of structural abnormalities.The most common underlying factor responsible for deformations is uterine constraint. Between the 35th and 38th weeks of gestation, rapid increase in the size of the fetus outpaces the growth of the uterus, and the relative amount of amniotic fluid (which normally acts as a cushion) also decreases. Thus, even the normal fetus is subjected to some form of uterine constraint.Several factors increase the likelihood of excessive compression of the fetus resulting in deformations. Maternal factors include first pregnancy, small uterus, malformed (bicornuate) uterus, and leiomyomas. Fetal or placental factors include oligohydramnios, multiple fetuses, and abnormal fetal presentation.An example of a deformation is clubfeet (CTEV), often a component of Potter sequenceSequenceIt is a pattern of cascade anomalies. Approximately half the time, congenital anomalies occur singly; in the remaining cases, multiple congenital anomalies are recognized.In some instances, the constellation of anomalies may be explained by a single, localized aberration in organogenesis (malformation, disruption, or deformation) leading to secondary effects in other organs.A good example of a sequence is the oligohydramnios (or Potter) sequenceSyndromeIt is a constellation of congenital anomalies, believed to be pathologically related, that, in contrast to a sequence, cannot be explained on the basis of a single, localized, initiating defect.Syndromes are most often caused by a single etiologic agent, such as a viral infection or specific chromosomal abnormalitv, which simultaneously affects several tissues.Fig. Malformations. Human malformations can range in severity from the incidental to the lethal. Polydactyly (one or more extra digits) and syndactyly (fusion of digits), both of which are illustrated in A, have little functional consequence when they occur in isolation. Similarly, cleft lip (B), with or without associated cleft palate, is compatible with life when it occurs as an isolated anomaly; in the present case, however, this child had an underlying malformation syndrome (trisomy 13) and expired because of severe cardiac defects. The stillbirth illustrated in C represents a severe and essentially lethal malformation, where the midface structures are fused or ill-formed; in a/most all cases, this degree of external dysmorphogenesis is associated with severe internaI anomalies such as maldevelopment of the brain and cardiac defects.
2
Potter sequence
CTEV
Congenital heart disease
Cleft lip
Pathology
Disease of Infancy & Childhood
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single
NOT a true content of Inguinal canal among the following is
Ilioinguinal nerve is NOT a true content of Inguinal canal
3
Vas deferens
Pampiniform plexus of Veins
Ilioinguinal nerve
Artery to Vas
Anatomy
null
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multi
Keratomalacia is due to -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vit-A deficiency o Keratomalacia It is a common condition in developing countries and is due to deficiency of vitamin A.o The condition is usually bilateral.o In keratomalacia, the cornea becomes dull and insensitive, hazy and yellow infiltrates form until finally the whole tissue undergoes necrosis and seems to melt away within a few hourso A characteristic feature is the absence of inflammatory reaction.o Keratomalacia is often precipitated by an acute systemic illness such as measles, penumonia or severe diarrhoea.
1
Vit-A deficiency
Keratoconus
Vitamin E deficiency
Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa
Ophthalmology
Cornea
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single
A woman at 32 weeks of pregnancy, presents with Labour pains. On examination, her cervix is dilated and Uterine contractions are felt. The management is:
Now, in this case note - patient is presenting at 32 weeks (i.e., third trimester) with cervix dilated and uterine contractions are felt, which indicate it is a case of early preterm labour and should be managed by giving tocolytics i.e. isoxsuprine hydrochloride. The tocolytic will delay labor by 48 hours, in the mean while we will give corticosteroids, so that the lung of the fetus matures
1
Isoxsuprine hydrochloride
Dilatation and Evacuation
Termination of pregnancy
Wait and watch
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Ribs develop from ?
Ribs which are attached to veebra posteriorly is derived from paraxial mesenchyme which is derived from mesoderm. Mesoderm - Paraxial Mesoderm, Intermediate Mesoderm, Lateral plate Mesoderm Paraxial mesoderem forms somites -sclerotome, myotome and dermatome. Sclerotome forms veebra and ribs. Myotome forms skeletal muscles. Dermatomeforms dermis(skin)
2
Endothoracic fascia
Para axial mesenchyme
Deep intercostal fascia
Superficial intercostal fascia
Anatomy
General Embryology 2
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single
HHV - 8 causes all the following disease except
Duncan syndrome is lymphoproliferative syndrome caused by EBV(HHV - 4).
4
Kaposi sarcoma
Castleman's disease
Primary effusion lymphoma
Duncan syndrome
Microbiology
null
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multi
In cerebral angiography, the dye is injected through –
On MRI, diagnostic confusion occasionally arises between arachnoid cysts and epidermoid cysts. The two masses may have similar characteristics on T1-weighted and T2-weighted images, and neither shows enhancement with gadolinium. However, arachnoid cysts follow CSF signals on all sequences, in particular on FLAIR sequence, in contradistinction to epidermoid cyst. Diffusion-weighted images (DWIs) allow easier differentiation of the two masses.
1
Femoral artery
Brachial artery
Axillary artery
Radial artery
Radiology
null
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single
Steroid induced cataract
Drug induced cataract Coricosteroid-induced cataract Posterior subcapsular opacities are associated with the use of topical as well as systemic steroids. Prolonged use of steroids in high doses may result in cataract formation. Children are more susceptible than adults. Reference: A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no:195
3
Nuclear cataract
Cupuliform cataract
Posterior subcapsular cataract
Anterior subcapsular cataract
Ophthalmology
Optics and refraction
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single
'Bulla spread sign' is seen in :
In the traditional "bulla spread" sign or Lutz sign, the margin of an intact bullae is first marked by a pen. Slow, careful and unidirectional pressure applied by a finger to the bulla causes peripheral extension of the bulla beyond the marked margin. The bulla thus extended has an irregular angulated border in pemphigus vulgaris, while a regular rounded border is observed in bullous pemphigoid or other subepidermal blistering disorders. Ref :Longo D.L., Fauci A.S., Kasper D.L., Hauser S.L., Jameson J.L., Loscalzo J. (2012). Chapter 54. Immunologically Mediated Skin Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
3
Herpes gestational
Bullous pemphigoid
Pemphigus vulgaris
Herpes simplex
Skin
null
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single
Pulsus paradoxus is present in -
null
4
Emphysema
Pulmonary embolism
Hypovolemic shock
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
If Apgar score is 6 then:
Ans. b. Child is moderately distressedApgar evaluation of new-born infantsEvaluation0 Point1 Point2 PointsHeart rate0<100/min>100/minRespirationNoneIrregular, shallow, gaspsGood, CryingColourBluePale, blue extremitiesPinkMuscle ToneNoneWeak, passiveActiveReflex irritabilityNoneFacial grimaceActive withdrawalINFERENCE OF SCORINGScore 0-3: Poor conditionScore 4-7: Fair conditionScore 8-10: Good condition Note:An infant with score of 0-3 requires immediate resuscitation.Infants with 5 min, Apgar score of 7-10 served as the reference group.
2
Child is normal
Child is moderately distressed
Severely distressed
It requires immediate resuscitation
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
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single
Microsomia" is defined as -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bih weight below 10' percentile Microsomia means small for date baby, i.e. newborn baby with a bih weight less than 10th percentile.
2
Bih weight below 90th percentile
Bih weight below 10th percentile
Bih weight below 20th percentile
Bih weight below 50th percentile
Pediatrics
null
d76dbb9c-1c3e-43f0-a543-1bc1113ba1be
single
steven johnsons syndrome is a side effect of
- SIDE EFFECTS OF THE DRUG - APLASTIC ANEMIA - AGRANULOCYTOSIS - Hyponatremia - Steven Johnson's syndrome - Liver enzyme elevation - It has teratogenic potential Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiaty, 11 th edition, pg no.923
1
carbamezepine
lithium
clozapine
clonazepam
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
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single
All of the following are true about interstitial lung disease, Except:
Answer is C (Decreased FEVI/FVC): Interstial lung diseases produce a restrictive pattern on Pulmonary function testing and are characterized by a normal or elevated FEVIFVC ratio which is greater than 0.7 FEV and FVC are both reduced in interstitial lung disease but the decrease in FEVI is in propoion to decrease in FVC and hence the FEVI/FVC ratio is normal (or increased)
3
Decreased FVC
Decreased FEV1
Decreased FEV 1 /FVC
Decreased Diffusion capacity
Medicine
null
4e9540b9-1043-4196-8319-eaf356964ad3
multi
Drug of choice for Norwegian scabies
Drug of choice for Norwegian scabies - Oral ivermectin 200ug/kg/dose, two doses 10 days apa. topicals are not effective in the treatment as the crusted plaques will hinder the absorption of topical drugs. iadvl textbook of dermatology page 459
3
permethrin 5%
Lindane1%
Oral ivermectin
Sulphur6%
Dental
Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis
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single
True about vibrio vulnificus -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Halophiiic V. Vulnificuso V. vulnificus is a halophiiic vibrio. It has been linked to two distinct syndrome. V. VulnificusPrimary sepsisy Occurs in patients with underlying liver diseasey Occurs due to ingestion of raw oystersy Incubation period - 16 hoursy Begins with malaise, chills, fever and prostrationy 1/3rd cases develop hypotensiony Most patients develop cutaneous manifestation, with lower extremities are involved more commonly than uppery T/t - Fluroquinolone (ciprofloxacin) or minocycline + ceftazidimePrimary wound infectiony Either a fresh or on old woundy Occurs after contact with sea watery Begins with swelling, erythema and intense pain around the woundy Rapidly spreading cellulitis follows with vesicular, bullous or necrotic lesionsy T/t - Antibiotic plus debridmentRemembero Virulence is due to capsule which protects against phagocytosis and the bacteriocidal activity of human serum as well as a cytolysin.o Iron overload increases its virulence, e.g. hemochromatosis.
2
Causes diarrhea commonly
Halophilic
Drag of choice is penicillin
Produces shiga toxin
Microbiology
Bacteria
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multi
Multinucleated giant cells are seen in smear from the lesions of: March 2013
Ans. B i.e. Herpes simplex virus Herpes simplex and herpes zoster viruses cause abnormal cell division in epidermal cells, and this creates multinucleated giant cells. These are epidermal cells that are much larger than the normal epidermal cells, and they contain multiple nuclei.
2
Poliovirus
Herpes simplex virus
Rabiesvirus
HIV
Microbiology
null
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single
Multienzyme complex in humans
Fatty acid synthetase  Enzymes used in the fatty acid synthesis are multienzyme complexes:- Acetyl-CoA carboxylase Fatty acid synthase
1
Fatty acid synthetase
Malonyl CoA Carboxylase
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase
Biochemistry
null
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single
Quinsy is
null
1
Pertonsillar abscess
Infratemparal space infection
Para Pharyngeal space infection
Lateral pharyngeal space infection
Surgery
null
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single
Which of the following is/arc didactic methods of health communication?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Demonstration
3
Group discussion
Workshop
Demonstration
All
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c434b1ab-0f72-458e-9975-2488349e28a2
multi
'Dawn phenomenon' refers to:
A more common cause of pre breakfast hyperglycemia is the waning of the evening or bedtime insulin and/or the dawn phenomenon. That is, reduced tissue sensitivity to insulin between 5am and 8am (dawn), due to spikes of growth hormone released hours before, at onset of sleep. For hyperglycemia due to waning of overnight basal insulin and/or dawn phenomenon, an increase in the evening dose of the basal insulin or shifting it from dinneime to bedtime (or both) can be effective. Ref: German M.S. (2011). Chapter 17. Pancreatic Hormones and Diabetes Mellitus. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds), Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e.
3
Early morning hypoglycemia
Non-ketotic hyperglycemia
Pre breakfast hyperglycemia
Recurrent hypoglycemia
Biochemistry
null
5eed3cb4-b629-42eb-9e57-5f679523830b
single
Lung cysts are caused by which parasite -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Echinococcus LOCALIZATION OF PARASITE IN HUMAN BODYOrgan/ tissueProtozoan parasitesHelminthsMuscle* Toxoplasma gondii* Trichinella spiralis* Gnathostoma spinigerum* Spirometra* Echinococcus* Taenia solium (cysticercus cellulosae)Brain* Acanthamoeba sp* Entamoeba histolytica* Naegleria fowleri* Plasmodium falciparum* Trypanosoma brucei* Trypanosoma cruzi* Toxoplasma gondii* Angiostrongylus Cantonensis (larva)* Echinococcus granulosus (Hydatid cyst)* Gnathostoma spinigerum (larva)* Paragonimus westermani (adult)* Schistosoma japonicum (egg)* Spirometra sp (larva)* Toxocara sp (larva)* Taenia multiceps* Taenia solium (cysticercus cellulosae)Eyes* Acanthamoeba* Gnathostoma spinigerum(larva)* Loa-Loa (adult)* Onchocerca (microfilaria)* Echinococcus (hydatid cyst)* Toxocara (larva)Heart* Trypanosoma Cruzi* Echinococcus (hydatid disease)* Toxocara (Larva)Lymph nodes* Trypanosoma brucei* Toxoplasma gondii* B malayi* W bancroftiLiver* E histolytica* Leishmania donovani* Plasmodium* Ascaris (larva)* Echinococcus (hydatid cyst)* Fasciola hepatica* Clonorchis sinensis* Opisthorchis viverrini* Opishorchis felnicus* ToxocaraLung* E histolytica* Leishmania donovani* Trypanosoma cruzi* Ascaris lumbricoides (larvae)* Echinococcus granulosus (hydatid cyst)* Ancylostoma duo den ale (larvae)* Nector americanus (larvae)* Strongyloides stercoralis (larvae)* Toxocara (larvae)* Paragonimus westermaniSpleen* Leishmania donovani* Plasmodium falciparum* E. granulosus (hydatid cyst).
4
Ascaris
Toxocara
Trypanosoma
Echinococcus
Microbiology
Parasitology
b4f13833-38e9-4054-b03e-fa690a8e3c7f
single
You have noticed ape like thumb in a 30 years young man from bihar who is a known patient of leprosy? Which of the following test is not done to show the nerve involved in this condition?
Common in leprosy-The involvement of the: median nerve at the wrist ulnar nerve at the elbow common peroneal nerve at the fibular head Here median nerve (C5-T1) is involved all other tests done for median nerve palsy Card test is done for ulnar nerve A high/proximal lesion of the median nerve manifests in the hand of benediction
1
Card test
Pen test
Benediction sign (pointing index deformity)
Oschner clasp sign
Orthopaedics
Nerve Injuries - 1
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single
Trypsin cleaves
Activation of zymogens: Enteropeptidase (formerly called enterokinase), an enzyme synthesized by and present on the luminal surface of intestinal mucosal cells of the brush border membrane, conves the pancreatic zymogen trypsinogen to trypsin by removal of a hexapeptide from the N-terminus of trypsinogen. Trypsin subsequently conves other trypsinogen molecules to trypsin by cleaving a limited number of specific peptide bonds in the zymogen. Enteropeptidase, thus, unleashesa cascade of proteolytic activity because trypsin is the common activator of all thepancreatic zymogens .
1
Arginine
Glutamate
Lysine
Proline
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
817c9981-6b26-4a1c-96ad-95e626f171bc
single
Interstitial cells of cajal are located in
Interstitial cells of cajal are located in the gastrointestinal tract They act as pace makers and produce slow waves which help in peristalsis Ref: Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition ,page no :396
1
Gi
Hea
Lung
Bone
Physiology
G.I.T
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single
The earliest morphological evidence of ovulation is:
Subnuclear (basal) vacuolation : Ist HPE evidence of ovulation ( evidence of progesterone secretion ) Endometrial biopsy Invasive test EBX: HPE (Formalin) and AFB for TB( Normal saline ) Done usually 2-4 days before expected date of menses(D24 - D26) Not done Post menses Secretory endometrium( Progesterone acts) on EBxtells cycle is ovulatory Proliferative endometrium: anovulatory Early secretory Subnuclear vacuolation (Ist HPE evidence of progesterone secretion) Seen on D16 of cycle Nuclei of glands gone up Stromal edema Late secretory Toous/ coiled glands All secretions in lumen of gland Cork screw glands( on D20 of cycle) Max stromal edema seen around D22of cycle) HPE of Proliferative endometrium Pseudostratification Long tubular glands
2
Pseudo stratification
Basal vacuolation
Decrease in glycogen content
Predecidual reaction
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Tests of Ovulation
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single
All the following are true regarding dietary fibres EXCEPT:
Ans: a (Increases stool transit time) Ref: Park, 20th ed. Pg. 530 Dietary fibre * Non starch polysaccharide which is physiologically important component of the diet. * Broadly divided into cellulose and non cellulose polysaccharide. * Non cellulose polysaccharide include hemicellulose, pectin, storage polysaccharide like inulin * Degraded by the microflora in human intestine * Insoluble dietary fibre o Cellulose, hemi cellulose and lignin * Soluble dietary fibre o Pectin gum, and mucilage Functions of dietary fibres: Absorb water, increase the bulk of stool thereby encouraging bowel movement. Emulsification of fibre by the intestinal bacteria will make stool softer and more easier for passage. Decreases the putrefaction and and formation of gases and toxic substance by reducing the transit time. Inhibits faecal mutagen synthesis by changing colonic pH and bacterial metabolism. Its binding to bile salts and prevention of its reabsorption will reduce the cholesterol in circulation thereby reducing the incidence of coronary heart disease. Fibres particularly gums and pectin reduce the post prandial blood glucose.
1
Increases stool transit time
Binds to bile salt and reduce its reabsorption
Inhibit faecal mutagen synthesis
Reduces post prandial glucose level
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and Health
0d5a21db-258d-4930-ab99-9139ceeff791
multi
Which of the following aminoacids is a component of Thioredoxin reductase-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Selenocysteine* The 21st proteinogenic aminoacid is selenocysteine (It is represented as sec or as U).* Selenocysteine is a component of:# Thioredoxin reductase# 5' deiodinase# Glutathione peroxidase* Selenocysteine is coded by one of the stop codons UGA, if it is followed by selenocysteine insertion element in the 3' untranslated region of mRNA* tRNAsec (tRNA which is charged with selenocysteine) is first attached to serine by seryl tRNA synthetase or seryl tRNA ligase. But this tRNA is not identified by EF1A (the translation factor which attaches every aminoacyltRNA to A site of ribosome during chain elongation of protein synthesis).* Serine attached tRNAsec is converted into selenocysteine attached tRNAsec by selenocysteine synthetase (Pyridoxal phosphate dependent enzyme) and is guided by EFsec to A site of 60 s ribosome* Please note the 22nd aminoacid is pyrrolysine (represented as pyl or O) is also coded by amber codon UAG. It is not found in human proteins.
1
Selenocysteine
Cysteine
Methionine
Homocysteine
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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single
In osteosynthesis all are used except:
null
4
Lag screw
Wires
Clampy bone plate
Eyelet wiring
Surgery
null
fb1a21ab-d05d-4085-9adc-f4269343188c
multi
The prognosis of rapidly proliferating glomerulonephritis (Crescentric GN) depends upon
Ans. is 'a' No. of crescents (Ref: Robbins (Basic) 6/e, p453]Following lines from Robbins (Basics) gives us fair idea of the answer.Robbins says about rapidly progressive glomerulo nephritis that.- " prognosis can be roughly related to the number of crescents; patients with crescents in less than 80% ~ of the glomeruli have a slightly better prognosis than those with higher percentage of crescents"
1
Number of crescents
Size of crescents
Shape of crescents
Cellularity of crescents
Pathology
Glomerular Diseases
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single
Angiofibroma bleeds excessively because:
Angiofibroma is a benign, vascular, locally invasive tumor. It has a fibrous stroma with irregular vascular channels, lined by endothelial cells without elastic membrane. Smooth muscle are often absent or incompletely present in it due to which it has tendency to bleed profusely. It is usually found in adolescent boys between ages of 10 and 17 years. Patients presents with symptoms of nasal obstruction and epistaxis in localized tumors. It usually originates in the posterolateral aspect of the nasal cavity. CT is the best method for diagnosing it.
2
It lacks a capsule
Vessels lack a contractile component
It has multiple sites of origin
All of the above
ENT
null
0a6a63c6-8c49-4102-a7a0-c3fce6df2288
multi
Head shape in Down's syndrome is:
General manifestations of Down’s Syndrome of Skull a. Brachycephalic (round) skull resulting in a flattened face and occiput. b. Presence at birth of third fontanelle. Just anterior to the posterior fontanelle. c. Flat nasal bridge with a small maxilla. Eyes a. Oblique palpebral fissures with prominent epicanthic folds. b. Brushfield’s spots appear on the iris in a ring concentric with the pupil. c. Scanty eyelashes.  d. Cataracts, squint and nystagmus are common. Ears a. Dysplastic ears with abnormal pinna. Neck Short and broad with excess skin posteriorly. Hands a. Broad and short (clinodactyly) with a single transverse palmar crease (simian crease). b. Short incurved little finger. c. Multiple loops on finger tips. Muscles And Joints Hypotonicity and hyperextensibility. IQ Often severely retarded with an IQ of 25-50. Paediatric Dentistry / Shobha Tandon - 2nd Ed  P: 539,540
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Mesocephalic
Dolichocephalic
Brachycephalic
Acephalic
Dental
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Eaton Lambe syndrome is associated with
Lambe-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a rare autoimmune disorder characterized by muscle weakness of the limbs. In normal neuromuscular function, a nerve impulse is carried down the axon (the long projection of a nerve cell) from the spinal cord. At the nerve ending in the neuromuscular junction, where the impulse is transferred to the muscle cell, the nerve impulse leads to the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC), the influx of calcium ions into the nerve terminal, and the calcium-dependent triggering of synaptic vesicle fusion with plasma membrane. These synaptic vesicles contain acetylcholine, which is released into the synaptic cleft and stimulates the acetylcholine receptors on the muscle. The muscle then contracts. In LEMS, antibodies against VGCC, paicularly the P/Q-type VGCC, decrease the amount of calcium that can enter the nerve ending, hence less acetylcholine can be released from the neuromuscular junction. Apa from skeletal muscle, the autonomic nervous system also requires acetylcholine neurotransmission; this explains the occurrence of autonomic symptoms in LEMSP/Q voltage-gated calcium channels are also found in the cerebellum, explaining why some experience problems with coordination. The antibodies bind paicularly to the pa of the receptor known as the "domain III S5-S6 linker peptide".Antibodies may also bind other VGCCs.Some have antibodies that bind synaptotagmin, the protein sensor for calcium-regulated vesicle fusion.Many people with LEMS, both with and without VGCC antibodies, have detectable antibodies against the M1 subtype of the acetylcholine receptor; their presence may paicipate in a lack of compensation for the weak calcium influx anti p/Q antibodies are produced against voltage gated channels mainly P/Q voltage gates Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 567
1
Anti P/Q antibody
Anti HU antibody
Anti Jo 1 antibody
Large cell carcinoma
Medicine
Oncology
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Sin of Gomorrah is also known as:
Oral coitus
2
Anal coitus
Oral coitus
Lesbianism
Bestiality
Forensic Medicine
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Commonest type off Hodgkins lymphoma is -
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1
Nodular sclerosis
Lymphocytic depletion
Lymphocytic predominant
Mixed cellularity
Pathology
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Midpalmar space of hand communicates with all except -
First lumbrical is a content of thenar space, not midpalmar space.
2
Forearm space
Fascial sheath of 1st lumbrical
Fascial sheath of 2nd lumbrical
Fascial sheath of 3rd lumbrical
Anatomy
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Presynaptic facilitation is caused by
Presynaptic facilitation: when a third neuron facilitates the presynaptic neuron at it ternimal end is called presynaptic facilitation It causes increased neurotransmitters by opening ca+ channals Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:675,676,677
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Prolonged opening of calcium channels
Prolonged opening of chloride channels
Prolonged opening of sodium channels
Prolonged closure of potassium channels
Physiology
General physiology
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BIRAD's Score is designed to
Answer- A. Maintain uniformity in the repoing of imaging findings of various breast diseasesBIRADS stands for Breast Imaging-Repoing and Data System. It's a quality assurance tool developed by American college of Radiology.The system is designed to standardize both the repoing of imaging findings and the recommendations for fuher management.
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Maintain uniformity in the repoing of imaging findings of various breast diseases
Prognosticate CA Breast
Evaluate the effect of brachial aery thrombosis
Clinicoradiological association of breast malignancy
Surgery
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Hallucination and illusion are disturbances in
Ans. b (Perception ) (Ref. Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th ed., p. 278)Hallucination and illusion are disturbance in perception.Schizophrenia is a heterogeneous syndrome characterized by perturbations of language, perception, thinking, social activity, affect, and volition.Key Symptoms Of Depersonalization# Depersonalization: Believe that he/she is not real, "Out-of-Body Experience"# Derealization: Believe that the world is not real# Perception Distortion of the environment during episodes of Depersonalization# Jamais vu (a sense of familiar things being strange)# Deja vu (a sense of unfamiliar things being familiar)
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Thought
Perception
Sensation
Mood
Psychiatry
Symptoms & Signs
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Which of the following drugs inhibits de novo synthesis of purines?
By inhibiting the enzyme IMP (Inosine 5' Monophosphate) dehydrogenase, mycophenolate inhibits the de novo synthesis of purines.
3
Cyclosporine
Tacrolimus
Mycophenolate
Infliximab
Pharmacology
Targeted Anticancer Drugs and Immunosuppressants
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Not a common feature of Duchene muscular dystrophy is?
ANSWER: (C) Distal muscle involvementREF: Nelson's 18th ed p. 2541Duchene muscular dystrophy is the most common hereditary neuromuscular disease affecting all races and ethnic groups. The abnormal gene is on the X chromosome at the Xp21 locus and is one of the largest genes identified.Becker muscular dystrophy is the same fundamental disease as Duchene dystrophy, with a genetic defect at the same locus, but clinically it follows a milder and more protracted course.Duchene recognized most of the characteristic clinical features in 1861: hypertrophy of the calves, progressive weakness, intellectual impairment, and proliferation of connective tissue in muscleClinical featuresGower's sign positivePseudo hypertrophy of calvesLoss of muscle strength is progressiveProximal muscles and neck flexors are involved moreLeg involvement more severe than armContractures of heels and illiotibial tract by 6 yrs. AgeProgressive scoliosis ComplicationsCardiomyopathy and CHFIntellectual impairmentChest deformity
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X- linked recessive
Gower sign positive
Distal muscle involvement
Pseudo hypertrophy
Pediatrics
Genetic Approach to Pediatric Medicine
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A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 "Rs" i.e. rats, ricefields, and rainfall is-
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Leptospirosis
Plague
Melioidosis
Rodent - bite fever
Microbiology
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