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Deficiency of enzyme in Tay–Sack disease –
null
2
Galactosidase
Hexosaminidase
Acid lipase
Glucosidase
Pediatrics
null
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Number of permanent teeth at 8 years:
Ans. C. 12ToothLateral incisor (upper)Eruption7 to 9 monthsLateral incisor (lower)10-12 monthsFirst molar12 to 14 monthsCanine17 to 18 monthsSecond molar20 to 30 months ToothFirst molarEruption6 to 7 yearsCentral incisor6 to 8 yearsLateral incisor7 to 9 yearsFirst bicuspid9 to 11 yearsSecond bicuspid10 to 12 yearsCanine11 to 12 yearsSecond molar12 to 14 yearsThird molar17 to 25 years (17-21 in Parikh 6th/2. 7)
3
6
8
12
16
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
In which of the following situations should a court refuse to overturn a living will?
Living wills represent the chance for patients to declare their wishes in advance of situations in which they become no longer competent to do so. They are revocable by the patient at any time and are automatically invalid if the patient is pregnant, as another being is involved. Living wills can be set aside if a long period has elapsed since their drafting and the wishes are not known to be current. Also, there is the potential for conflict if the patient has signed a donor card and prolongation of life would be needed to carry out those wishes. Generally, such action would not be honored unless relatively expeditious arrangements were possible.
4
At the patient's request, even if he or she is delirious
If the patient is pregnant
If it has been many years since the signing
To allow an organ recipient 1 month to obtain a donated organ
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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Which does't cause hemolysis in G 6 PD deficiency-
null
1
Oestrogen
Salicylates
Primaquine
Nitrofurantoin
Medicine
null
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single
Incidence of suicide is-(
C i.e. 8-10/1 lac population
3
8-10 / 100 population
8-10 / 10000 population
8-10 / 1 lac population
8-10 / 10 lac population
Psychiatry
null
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The mechanism by which ergometrine stops postpaum hemorrhage is that it:
All drugs used in PPH including oxytocin, misoprostol and ergometrine cause uterine contraction. The blood vessels are pressed in the uterine muscle and bleeding stops Indications to sta oxytocin Post paum hemorrhage Uterine ineia Breast engorgement due to abnormal milk ejection reflex
2
Causes vasoconstriction of uterine aeries
Increases tone of uterine muscle
Promotes coagulation
Induces platelet aggregation
Pharmacology
Endocrine
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Which of the following has poorest oral bioavailability ?
null
2
Oseltamivir
Zanamivir
Rimantidine
Amantadine
Pharmacology
null
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Lt border of the heart in CXR is formed by – a) Pulmonary arteryb) Pulmonary veinc) Abdominal aortad) Arch of aortae) Rt ventricles
The left margin of heart is formed by aortic knuckle (prominence due to aortic arch), pulmonary trunk, left auricle, and left ventricle.
3
b
c
ad
ab
Radiology
null
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single
What is the surgical indication for performing the Hunterian Ligation operation?
Hunterian ligation (parent vessel occlusion) is generally only considered if occlusion of the aneurysm neck is dangerous or impossible. It reduces flow past the aneurysm, often reducing the size of the lesion and even occasionally causing spontaneous thrombosis. Ref: Neurosurgery: Principles and Practice By Anne J. Moore, David W. Newell, 2005, Page 323.
1
Aneurysm
Varicose veins
A V fistulas
Acute aerial ischemia Ans
Surgery
null
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In a person with normal kidneys and normal lungs who has chronic metabolic acidosis, you would expect to find all of the following, compared with normal, except:
Chronic metabolic acidosis : is, by definition, associated with Decreased HCO3- Increased excretion of NH4Cl occurs with renal compensation for the acidosis Respiratory compensation for the acidosis increases the ventilation rate, resulting in Decreased plasma Pco2.
4
Increased renal excretion of NH4Cl
Decreased urine pH
Decreased urine HCO3- excretion
Increased plasma HCO3- concentration
Physiology
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
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Most common cause of gastric varices is
Most common cause of gastric varices : Cirrhosis Most common cause of isolated gastric varices : Splenic vein thrombosis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1232
3
Splenic vein thrombosis
Splenectomy
Cirrhosis
Mesenteric thrombosis
Anatomy
G.I.T
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Vitamin A is stored mainly as retinol esters in -
Ans. is 'c' Liver Absorption, transport and storage of vitamin A.Absorption in intestineof vitamin A derived from animal sourceRetinol esters present in the diet are hydrolyzed in the intestinal mucosa, releasing retinol and free fatty acids.of vitamin A derived from plant source. b carotenes derived from plant source is cleaved to yield retinol Transport of Vitamin to liverRetinol, derived either from the esters or from the cleavage and reduction of carotenes is reesterified to long chain fatty acids in the intestinal mucosa and secreted as chylomicron into the lymphatic system and transported to the liver as chylomicron remnants.Storage and release of Vitamin A in liver.Retinol esters contained in chylomicrons are taken up by, and stored in the liver, when needed retinol is released from the liver and transported to extrahepatic tissues by the plasma retinol binding protein (RBP).
3
Kidney
Muscle
Liver
Retina
Biochemistry
Vitamins
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In HIV, which cells are affected
null
1
CD4
CD8
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Pathology
null
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HER-2/ neu receptor play a role in:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Predicting therapeutic response o Overexpression of HER-2/neu in breast cancer patients is associated with poor prognosis and increases disease recurrence. o Overexpression HER-2/neu also predicts good response to transtuzumab (Herceptin), a drug approved for HER-2/ neu overexpressing breast cancer. o Because of its prognostic role as well its ability to predict response to transtuzumab (Herceptin), breast cancers are routinely checked for overexpression of HER-2/neu.
1
Predicting therapeutic response
Determining treatment for recurrence of tumor
Diagnosis of breast Ca
Screening of breast Ca
Pharmacology
null
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Cobra poison is: Kerala 09; FMGE10; Bihar 12
Ans. Neurotoxic
1
Neurotoxic
Myotoxic
Cardiotoxic
Vasculotoxic
Forensic Medicine
null
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Hutchinson's teeth are seen in
It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis, and consists of three phenomena aka Hutchinson triad: Interstitial keratitis Hutchinson incisors Eighth nerve deafness.
2
Early congenital spirochete infection
Late congenital syphilis
Rickets
Scurvy
Pediatrics
null
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Which drug is given as a single dose to prevent mother to child HIV transmission: March 2007
Ans. B: Nevirapine Majority of mother to child transmission of HIV-1 occurs during the intrapaum period. Mechanism of veical transmission include infection after rupture of the membranes and direct contact of the fetus with infected secretions of blood from the maternal genital tract. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNI) used to treat HIV-1 infection and AIDS. It target the reverse transcriptase enzyme, an essential viral enzyme which transcribes viral RNA into DNA. Nevirapine is not effective against HIV-2, as the pocket of the HIV-2 reverse transcriptase has a different structure, which confers intrinsic resistance to the NNI class. Adverse effects The most common adverse effect of nevirapine is the development of mild or moderate rash (13%). Severe or life-threatening skin reactions have been observed in 1.5% of patients, including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis and hypersensitivity. Drug interactions Significant lowering of nevirapine levels occurs with the anti-tuberculosis drug, rifampicin. Nevirapine is an inducer of cytochrome P450 isoenzymes. It reduces the levels of several co-administered drugs including the antiretrovirals eirenz, indinavir, lopinavir, nelfinavir and saquinavir, as well as clarithromycin, ketoconazole, forms of hormonal contraception, and methadone. Preventing mother-to-child transmission A single dose of nevirapine given to both mother and child reduced the rate of HIV transmission by almost 50% compared with a very sho course of zidovudine (AZT) prophylaxis.(This 50% is the comparative reduction of HIV transmission between the two drugs) Zidovudine administered during pregnancy and labor and to the newborn reduces the risk of veical transmission by 70%. Cesarean section is associated with additional risk reduction compared to vaginal delivery.
2
Didanosine
Nevirapine
Acyclovir
Nelfinavir
Medicine
null
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Artery responsible for bleeding in hemoptysis is?
ANSWER: (A) Bronchial arteryREF: Harrison's 17th ed table 34-1The bronchial arteries, which originate either from the aorta or from intercostal arteries and are therefore part of the high-pressure systemic circulation, are the source of bleeding in bronchitis or bronchiectasis or with endobronchial tumors.
1
Bronchial artery
Pulmonary artery
Intersegmental artery
Intercostal collaterals
Medicine
Blood
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Most common cause of gas gangrene -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cl welchii o Most common cause of gas gangrene is Cl perfringens (Cl welchii) causing 80% of cases of gas gangrene,o Other causes are Cl septicum, Cl novyi and Cl histolyticum.
1
Cl welchii
Clsepticum
Clnovyi
Clhistolyticum
Microbiology
Clostridium
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All are true regarding mesothelioma except?
• Malignant mesothelioma is MC tumor of the pleura • In 20% of malignant mesotheliomas, the tumor arises from peritoneum • Exposure to asbestos is the major known risk factor • More common in males, most common after 40 years of age. • Three types: Epithelial, sarcomatous, and biphasic • Epithelial types are associated with a more favorable prognosis Pathophysiology • Physical characteristics of specific fibers (referred to as serpentine or amphibole) have been shown to be important. • Serpentine fibers: Large and curly, not able to travel beyond larger airways. • Straight amphibole fibers: In particular the crocidoliteQ fibers navigate distally into the pulmonary parenchyma, most clearly associated with mesotheliomas. • Latency period between asbestos exposure and the development of mesothelioma is at least 20 years. • Multicentric tumor with multiple pleura-based nodules coalescing to form sheets of tumor (but not bilaterally symmetrical) • Natural history of the disease in untreated patients culminates in death due to local extension. Clinical Features • Most patients present with dyspnea and chest pain. • Over 90% have a pleural effusion. Diagnosis • Results of thoracentesis are diagnostic in <10% of patients. • Chest X-ray: Pleural effusion, generalized pleural thickening and shrunken hemithorax. • Thoracoscopy or open pleural biopsy with special staining of tumor samples is required to differentiate mesotheliomas from adenocarcinomas. Management • No effective therapy • Treatment options: Supportive care only, surgical resection, and multimodality approaches (using a combination of surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy).
1
Bilaterally symmetrical
Associated with asbestos exposure
Histopathalogy shows biphasic pattern
Occurs in late middle age
Surgery
null
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Atlanto axial joint is which type of a joint?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pivot Classification of JointsA. Fibrous joints* Lack intervening cartilage and hence have restricted mobility.1. Gomphosis2. Syndesmosis::Dento-alveolar pegInferior tibiofibular jointPosterior part of sacroiliac jointInterosseous membrane of forearm3. Schindylesis4. Sutures of the skull:Vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junctionB. Cartilagenous joints* These are of 2 types depending on intervening cartilage.I. Primary cartilaginous joints (Synchondrosis/Hyaline cartilage joints)1. Spheno-occipital joint2. Growth plate3. Costochondral joint4. 1st chondrosternal jointII. Secondary cartilaginous joints (Symphyses / fibrocartilagenous joints)Fibrocartilage is interposed between bone ends covered with articular hyaline cartilage.All of them occur in midline.1. Symphysis menti2. Pubic symphysis3. Sacrococcygeal joint4. Intervertebral joint5. Manubriosternal joint6. Xiphisternal jointC. Synovial joints I. Uniaxial 1. Plane/Flat joint-Acromioclavicular jointIntermetatarsal joints2. Hinge joints-Elbow joint3. Pivot joint-Atlantoaxial jointSuperior radioulnar jointII. Biaxial 1. Bicondylar (condyloid joint)-Knee jointTemporomandibular jointAtlanto occipital joint2. Ellipsoid joint-Wrist jointMetacarpophalangeal joint3. Saddle joint-1st carpo-metacarpal jointSternoclavicular jointCalcaneocuboid jointAnkle jointIncudomalleolar jointIII. Multiaxial Ball and socket joint-ShoulderHipIncudostapedial jointTalo-calcaneo-navicular joint
1
Pivot
Condylar
hinge
biaxial
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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All of the following indicators represent Human Development Index, except:
Human Development Index (HDI) is defined as "a composite index combining indicators representing three dimensions, longevity (life expectancy at bih), knowledge (adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling) and income (real GDP per capita in purchasing power parity in US dollars)." Ref: Preventive and Social Medicine, by K.Park, 19th edition, Page 15-17.
2
Life Expectancy at Bih
Life Expectancy at 1 year of age
Education
GDP
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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A patient presents to you with the features of biliary obstruction. He gives history of the consumption of fish while on the trip. Which of the following is most probable etiology
Ans. a. Clonorchis sinensis
1
Clonorchis sinensis
Ancylostoma
Strongyloides
Enterobius
Surgery
null
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Spermatocoeles are most commonly found at -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., The Head of epidydimis o A spermatocele is a benign cystic accumulation of sperm that arises from the head of the epididymis. Although often disconcerting to the patient when noticed, these lesions are benign. Spermatoceles can develop in varying locations, ranging from the testicle itself to locations along the course of the vas deferens. Nevertheless, in common usage, spermatoceles are intrascrotal, paratesticular cystic collections of sperm that arise from the epididymiso Usually smooth, soft, and well-circumscribed, spermatoceles are broadly described as scrotal masses. The differential diagnoses include hydrocele, varicocele, hernia, simple epididymal cyst, and neoplasm. History, examination, and ultrasonography can aid in the differentiation.o Spermatoceles typically arise from the caput (head) of the epididymis, which is located on the superior aspect of the testicle
1
The Head of epidydimis
Testis
Prostate
Seminal Vescicles
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Testis & Scrotum)
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Which of the following histological type lung carcinoma has worst prognosis -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Small cell CA o Small cell carcinomas are the most aggresive of lung tumors, metastatize widely and are virually incurable by surgical means.
4
Squamous cell CA
Adenocarcinoma
Alveolar-carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Pathology
Lung Tumors
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In perimenopausal women with menorrhagia we rule out all carcinoma except :
Ovary
1
Ovary
Uterus
Fallopian tube
Endometrium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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35 years male presents with a swelling in scrotum that is non tender and seperate from testes and on transillumination, chinese lantern pattern is seen diagnosis
Answer- C. Epididymal cystCysts of the epididymis (multiloculated epididymal cyst, spermatocele) are not swrounded by fluid and for this reason are felt as swellings above, behind the testis, which is also easily palpable in this situation.Because of the septation, multiloculated epididlmal cysts have a characteristic 'Chinese lantern' aPPearance on transillumination.
3
Vaginal hydrocele
Inguinal harnia
Epididymal cyst
Varicocele
Surgery
null
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what is the most commonly abused substance which course dependence
Dependence causing potential is higher with heroin compared to other drugs ,cannabis the among the list. ref : narayana reddy
2
Cocaine
Heroin
Amphetamine
cannabis
Forensic Medicine
All India exam
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Citric acid concentration in MTAD is:
Composition Tetracycline: – It is bacteriostatic, broad spectrum antibiotic. – It has low pH and acts as calcium chelator. – It removes smear layer. – It has property of substantivity.  – It promotes healing. Citric acid (4.25%): It is bactericidal in nature and removes smear layer. Detergent (Tween 80): It decreases surface tension.
1
4.25%
3.75%
1%
0.50%
Dental
null
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Reversible dementia is a feature of:
Ans: D (Hypothyroidism) Ref: Harrison 's Textbook of Internal MedicineExplanationDementiaIt is a syndrome characterized byMemory disturbances (typically acquisition & recent memory are impaired)Agnosia (inability to recognise like one's name)Aphasia (inability to talk properly)Apraxia (inability to do which were done with ease before)Executive dysfunction (unable to perform the previously performed.dearned activities)Dementia is basically due to degeneration of neurons of brain.Depending upon the site, it may be cortical (Alzheimer's disease) or subcortical (Parkinson's disease) or mixed (Vascular/Multi-infarct dementia).While the degeneration is progressive, sometimes if the cause is removed or treated, the dementia resolves.Hence, depending upon the "reversibility", there are1. Irreversible dementias (Alzheimer's disease. Multi-infarct dementia)2. Reversible [FEDUP|Failure of other organs (CCF, CO PD Respirator}' failure. Renal failure, etc.)Endocrine (hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes)Drugs (chemotherapy )Under/Over minerals & vitamins (defieciency states esp. Vitamin B 1,2,6,12) (Toxicity due to chronic exposure / ingestion of to aluminium, arsenic, lead)Psychiatric conditions (depression, schizophrenia)
4
Alzheimer's disease
Pick's disease
Multiinfarct dementia
Hypothyroidism
Psychiatry
Dementia Due to Metabolic Causes
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Which is the most common complication of of undescended testis
null
4
Torsion
Infertility
Epididymo-orchitis
Indirect inguinal hernia
Surgery
null
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All of the following are true regarding disinfectants except:
Ans.d. Phenol isbactericidaiand readily inactivated by organic matter Ref: Ananthanarayan 7/e p30, 31, 32; Jawetz 24/e p6]Phenols are bactericidal, but these are not readily inactivated by organic matter. Effective againstSusceptible to organic matterDisinfectantBacteriaSporesVirusFormaldehyde+++++++++-Glutaraldehyde+++++++++-Chlorine (hypochlorite)++++/-++++++Phenols++(+)-++/-
4
Glutaraldhyde is sporicidal
Hypochlorites are virucidal
Ethylene oxide is intermediate disinfectant
Phenol is bactericidal and readily inactivated by organic matter
Microbiology
General
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Most common tumor of kidney in children is:
a. Wilms' tumor(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2464-2465)Wilms' tumor (WT), also known as nephroblastoma, is the most common primary malignant renal tumor of childhood;It is the second most common malignant abdominal tumor in childhood.The most common sites of metastases from Wilms tumor are the lungs, regional lymph nodes, and liver.
1
Wilms' tumor
Neuroblastoma
Polycystic kidney disease
Renal cell carcinoma
Pediatrics
Childhood Tumors
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Formula shown is known as
Pearl index
4
Chandler index
Human development index
Life table analysis
Pearl index
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
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Lactic acidosis is common in
(Phenformin) (247-KDT) (689-BB) (267-KDT 6th)* Lactic acidosis more common in Phenformin and rare in Metformin* * Hypoglycemia is the most common adverse effect with sulphonyl ureas.Repaglinide indicated only in type 2 DM as an alternative to sulfonyl ureas.* It should be avoided in liver diseaseRosiglitazone - Thiozolidinediones* It is indicated once daily in patients not controlled by metformin alone.* It is contraindicated by cardiac or hepatic failure.* Weight gain and oedema are the main adverse effects others - headache, myalgia and mild anaemia
2
Metformin
Phenformin
Repaglinide
Rosiglitazone
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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Which of the following structures is derived from the diencephalon
Neurohypophysis develops from the diencephalon. Adenohypophysis (pars distalis, pars tuberalis, and pars intermedia) develops from the Rathke's pouch, ectodermal diveiculum of the stomodeum. Caudate nucleus & olfactory bulbs develop from the telencephalon. Cerebellum develops from the metencephalon Primary Vesicles Secondary Vesicles Adult Derivatives Prosencephalon Telencephalon Cerebral hemispheres, Caudate , putamen, amygdaloid, claustrum, lamina terminalis, olfactory bulbs, hippocampus Diencephalon Epithalamus, subthalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, mammilary bodies, neurohypophysis, pineal gland, retina, iris, ciliary body, optic nerve (CN II), optic chiasma, optic tract. Mesencephalon Mesencephalon Midbrain Rhombencephalon Metencephalon Pons, Medulla Myelencephalon Medulla Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 238
4
Caudate nucleus
Cerebellum
Olfactory bulbs
Neurohypophysis
Anatomy
Brain
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Drug used in aneliorative test for Myasthenia gravis is
Drug used in amellorative test (tensilon test) for myasthena gavis is edrophonium. It is a cholinergic drug and can be used for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis becaise of its sho duration of action (10-30 min) Ref-KDT 6/e p104
2
Physostigmine
Edrophonium
Tacrine
Pyridostigmine
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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According to Killey and Key all the following are absolute indications for removal of a tooth from fracture line EXCEPT
null
4
Vertical fracture of the root
Pre-existing periapical lesion
Luxation and subluxation of the tooth from the socket
Tooth which is intact but present in the line of fracture and shows no evidence of mobility or inflammation.
Surgery
null
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Minimum criteria to diagnose PID includes all except :
Minimum criteria lower abdominal tenderness adnexal tenderness cervical motion tenderness D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,Pg no:130 6th edition
4
Lower abdominal pain
adnexal tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness
Leucocytosis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Infections of the genital tract
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All of the following statements about recurrent laryngeal papillomatosis are true, Except -
null
3
Caused by human papilloma virus (HPV)
HPV6 and HPV11 are most commonly implicated
HPV6 is more virulent than HPV11
Transmission to neonate occurs through contact with mother during vaginal delivery
ENT
null
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The section defining the rape -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 375 IPC Rapeo According to Section 375 IPC, a man is said to commit rape, if he has sexual intercourse with a womenAgainst her willWithout her consentWith her consent, if she isi) Less than 16 years of age.ii) With his own wife less than 15 years of age.iii) Intoxicated or has an unsound mind so that she is unable to understand the consequences.iv) Consent is obtained by unlawful means, i.e. fears of death or hurt to herself or to someone whom she is interested.v) Impersonation, i.e. when the man knows he is not her husband and her consent is given because she believes that he is another man to whom she is lawfully married.
3
304 B IPC
302 IPC
375 IPC
376 IPC
Unknown
null
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Posterior relation of hilum of lung ?
Vagus nerve
3
Azygous vein
SVC
Vagus nerve
Arch of aoa
Anatomy
null
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All of the following investigation findings about Haemophilia A are TRUE, EXCEPT:
PT which measure the activity of extrinsic pathway of coagulation cascade is not affected in hemophilia. In hemophilia aPTT which measure the intrinsic coagulation cascade activity is prolonged, and is associated with normal bleeding time and platelet count. Hemophilia is an X linked disorder of coagulation caused by the deficiency in a circulating plasma protein. Hemophilia A is caused by the deficiency of factor VIII, and hemophilia B is caused by the deficiency of factor IX. Bleeding is the common manifestation of hemophilia and the common bleeding manifestations are hemahoses, hematomas, mucocutaneous bleeding, intracranial bleeding, hematuria and pseudotumor. Ref: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 680
2
PTT increased
PT increased
Clotting time is increased
Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
Medicine
null
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Call exner body is seen in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Granulosa cell tumor FeatureOvarian tumoro Call-Exner bodieso Reinke crystalloidso Psammoma bodieso Pseudomyxoma peritoneio Signet ring cellso Rokitansky's protuberanceo Granulosa-theca cell tumoro Hilus cell tumors (pure leydig cell tumor)o Serous cystadenomao Mucinous cystadenomao Metastatic krukenberg's tumorso Mature (benign) teratoma (Dermoid cyst)
2
Leydig cell tumor
Granulosa cell tumor
Brenner tumor
Ovarian fibroma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Pathology (Carcinoma Ovary)
267377fb-4aac-484f-b384-b972df6dff8e
multi
A 40-year-old primiparous woman suspected to be suffering from endometriosis is subjected to diagnostic laparoscopy. Findings indicate - uterus normal, both the ovaries show presence of chocolate cysts; endometriotic deposits are seen on the round ligament right side, both the fallopian tubes and the pouch of Douglas; moderately dense adhesions are present between the fallopian tubes and the pouch of Douglas. The treatment of choice in this case is
Surgery indications Severe symptoms unresponsive to hormone therapy Severe and deeply infiltrating endometriosis which distort pelvic anatomy Endometriomas > 4cms Laparoscopy is done to destroy endometriotic lesions by excision or ablation or electrodiatherapy,or laser vaporization. Conservative surgical treatment improves fertility outcome.
2
Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Fulguration of endometriotic deposits
Progesterone therapy
Danazol therapy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a13d6378-cc48-4db1-84a7-4ae3fd8934b3
multi
Which of the following statements about Premature ventricular beats is false-
PVC prevalence increases with age Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are extra heabeats that begin in one of your hea's two lower pumping chambers (ventricles). These extra beats disrupt your regular hea rhythm, sometimes causing you to feel a fluttering or a skipped beat in your chest If PVCs are frequent or troublesome, medication (beta blockers or ceain calcium channel blockers) may be used. Very frequent PVCs in people with dilated cardiomyopathy may be treated with radiofrequency ablation Although there are many possible symptoms associated with PVCs, PVCs may also have no symptoms at all. PVCs may be perceived as a skipped hea beat, a strong beat, palpitations, lightheadedness. They may also cause chest pain, a faint feeling, fatigue, or hyperventilation after exercise.Symptoms may be more pronounced at times of stress. Women may be more aware of PVCs at the time of the menstrual period. Premature ventricular contractions may be associated with underlying hea disease, and ceain characteristics are therefore elicited routinely: the presence of signs of hea disease or a known history of hea disease (e.g. previous myocardial infarction), as well as hea disease or sudden cardiac death in close relatives. PVCs and palpitation associated with syncope (transient loss of consciousness) or provoked by exeion are also concerning. Physical examination is focused on identifying evidence of underlying hea disease Premature ventricular contractions can occur in a healthy person of any age, but are more prevalent in the elderly and in men. In a very significant propoion of people they occur spontaneously with no known cause. Some possible underlying causes of PVCs include: Adrenaline excess High blood calcium Cardiomyopathy, hyperophic or dilated Ceain medicines such as digoxin, which increases hea contraction or tricyclic antidepressants Chemical (electrolyte) problems in the blood Contact with the carina (trachea/bronchi) when performing medical suctioning stimulates vagus nerve Drugs such as: Alcohol Caffeine Cocaine Theobromin Myocardial infarction Hypercapnia (CO2 poisoning) Hypeension (high blood pressure) Hypokalemia--low blood levels of potassium. Can occur in those taking diuretics ("water pills")[ Hypomagnesaemia--low blood levels of magnesium Hypoxia Lack of sleep/exhaustion[ Magnesium and potassium deficiency Mitral valve prolapse Myocardial contusion Myocarditis Sarcoidosis[ Smoking Stress[ Ref Harrison 20th ed pg 1434
3
Sequential depolarization of ventricles
Wide, Bizzare, Notched QRS complexes
Prevalence decreases with age
Palpitations is a common presenting feature
Medicine
C.V.S
88aa8cd9-beb5-4068-add4-9baafa62222a
multi
Which statement (s) is/are true about Neuroblastoma with respect to wilms tumor
Both occur in early childhood and typically present as large abdominal masses closely related to the kidneys. Distinguishing between the two is impoant, and a number of features are helpful. Neuroblastoma calcification very common: 90% encases vascular structures but does not invade them younger age group (<2 years of age) poorly marginated elevates the aoa away from the veebral column more commonly crosses the midline, especially behind the aoa 2 more common to have extension into the chest bony metastasis are common (Hutchinson syndrome) extension into spinal canal can be seen. retroperitoneal lymph nodes are more often seen. Wilms tumor calcification uncommon: 10-15% (10% rule of Wilm&;s tumor) displaces adjacent structures without insinuating between them slightly older age group: peak 3-4 years of age well circumscribed <a href=" sign</a> with the kidney extension into IVC/renal vein. bony metastasis are rare, rather lung metastasis are common. extension into spinal canal never seen. retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy is uncommon. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
1
Neuroblastoma causes displacement of kidney inferolaterally without distoion of collecting system
Stippled calcification is present in wilm's tumor
Aoic and IVC invasion by neuroblastoma
Neuroblastoma crossing mid line
Pediatrics
Childhood tumors
e456efef-9b49-43fd-9828-6a2e302755a5
multi
Glutathione peroxidase is a/an -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Antioxidant o A series of enzymes acts as free radical-scavenging systems and breakdown hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion.1. Catalaseo Present in peroxisomes and decomposes H2O2,2. Superoxide desmutase (SOD)o Manganese - superoxide dismutase is present in mitochondria, while copper-zinc-superoxide dismutase is found in the cytosol,o It converts superoxide to H2O2,3. Glutathione peroxidaseo Present in mitochondria & cytosolo It catalyzes free radical breaksown.H2O2,+ 2GSH - GSSG + 2H2O20H+2GSH - GSSG + 2 H2Oo Intracellular ratio of oxidized glutathione (G S S G) to reduced glutathione (G S M) is a reflection of the oxidative state of the cell.
2
Catalase
Antioxidant
Microsomal enzyme
None
Biochemistry
Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
6699d4eb-1cc8-47a6-b2ee-a8a462f3f304
multi
IL-2 is secreted by:
Answer is A (CD4 and lymphocytes) : IL-2 is produced by T helper (CD4) lymphocytes
1
CD4 and lymphocytes
CD8 cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Medicine
null
8a148be6-af78-426f-84ac-e112b627e726
single
Jelly formed around the hea tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
C i.e. Myocardium Dorsal mesocardium forms transverse pericardial sinusQ; somatopleuric mesoderm forms parietal pericardiumQ; splanchnopluric mesoderm forms myocardium & conduction system of heas (i.e. Purkinje fibers) Q; neural creast cells form subpulmonary infundibulumQ.Cardiac jelly forms endocardial cushion and myocardiumQ
3
Pericardium
Mesocardium
Myocardium
Endocardium
Anatomy
null
1c0b0c8c-48f7-4d90-829d-5f8c50524fb0
single
Health education-
WHO definition-&;&; the extension to all people of the benefits of medical psychological and related knowledge is essential to the fullest attainment of health &;&;. Health education is not only delivered through public agencies, but also NGOs ref; PARK 23RD edition, page 43
1
Is health promotion
Is health distoion
Is delivered through public health agencies only
Does not help in prevention of cancer
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health education & planning
a3ce2988-49ff-4eb0-822a-9743f8be0c38
single
Interstitial nephritis is seen in all EXCEPT :
Drugs causing interstitial nephritis are Antibiotics: Cephalosporins, penicillins, ciprofloxacin, ethambutol, isoniazid, macrolides, rifampicin. Sulfonamides, tetracyclines and vancomycin. All NSAIDs. Diuretics: Thiazides, furosemide, triamterene. Others: Allopurinol, acyclovir, amlodipine, azathioprine, carbamazepine, captopril.
2
Diuretics
Beta lactams
Allopurinol
Isoniazid
Pharmacology
null
953b1730-42e6-4dac-bca7-3d595aeb896e
multi
What is not true about point source epidemic ?
null
1
Plateau phase
No secondary waves
Explosive epidemic
Only one peak
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
bf677827-b859-43b3-b7e9-d898617564e2
multi
Leg ulcers are not seen in -
Ans is 'd' i.e., Psoriasis Leg UlcerCausesVascularVenous InsufficiencyVenous Stasis UlcerArteriovenous MalformationArterial or ischemic causesPeripheral Vascular DiseaseBuerger's DiseaseRaynaud's Syndrome (Raynaud's Phenomenon)EmbolismVasculitic UlcerRheumatoid ArthritisSystemic Lupus ErythematosusSclerodermaPolyarteritisLymphaticLymphangitisLymphedemaInfectiousCellulitisOsteomyelitisSyphilisDermatitisContact Dermatitis or other allergic conditionBullous DiseaseMiscellaneousPrimary or metastatic neoplasmTraumaDrug-inducedWarfarinErgotismInjection ulcerPeripheral Neuropathy or PostitioningDiabetic NeuropathyCharcot JointPressure Sore (Decubitus Ulcer)Systemic Diseaseo Diabetes Mellituso Congestive Heart Failureo Malnutritiono Anemia
4
TB
Syphilis
anemia
psoriasis
Skin
Papulosquamous Disorders
e2ce2783-b5cb-4f26-9aed-e5b08ec9cae4
single
In CO poisoning all of the following clinical features are seen, EXCEPT:
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odorless, tasteless, and non irritating gas produced by the incomplete combustion of any carbon-containing material. CO binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 250 times that of oxygen, resulting in reduced oxyhemoglobin saturation and decreased blood oxygen-carrying capacity. CO may also directly inhibit cytochrome oxidase, fuher disrupting cellular function, and it is known to bind to myoglobin, possibly contributing to impaired myocardial contractility. Symptoms of intoxication are predominantly in organs with high oxygen consumption, such as the brain and hea. The majority of patients describe headache, dizziness, and nausea. Patients with coronary disease may experience angina or myocardial infarction. With more severe exposures, impaired thinking, syncope, coma, convulsions, cardiac arrhythmias, hypotension, and death may occur. Cerebral edema (swelling of the brain) is also a common result of severe carbon monoxide poisoning. Survivors of serious poisoning may experience numerous ove neurologic sequelae consistent with a hypoxic-ischemic insult, ranging from gross deficits such as parkinsonism and a persistent vegetative state to subtler personality and memory disorders. Cyanosis is not seen in CO poisoning. Ref: Olson K.R. (2012). Chapter 44. Carbon Monoxide. In K.R. Olson (Ed), Poisoning & Drug Overdose, 6e.
1
Cyanosis
Cerebral edema
Convulsions
Bradycardia
Forensic Medicine
null
7eb197ec-b574-4da6-b44f-daaa8b5e05ea
multi
Epilepsia partialis continua is present in
(B) Rasmussen's encephalitis # Epilepsia Partialis Continua Epilepsia partialis continua can be defined as a form of partial status epilepticus with simple motor manifestations that are maintained for over 1 hour, with clonic activity restricted to one body part and recurring at fairly regular intervals not responding fairly to medications. The unique clinical features of EPC are likely to reflect its anatomical location rather than its etiology. Idiopathic causes of EPC: Rasmussen chronic encephalitis Autoimmune Multiple sclerosis Anti-GluR3 or Anti-NMDA-GluR-Epsilon2 antibodies Genetic Alpers disease Kufs disease Leigh syndrome and cytochrome C oxidase deficiency Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) coenzyme Q reductase deficiency Mitochondrial cytopathies including mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke (MELAS)
2
Japanese encephalitis
Rasmussen's encephalitis
Tuberculosis meningitis
None of the above
Medicine
Miscellaneous
203f50cc-d63a-40f5-9fc1-2e8f876cf237
multi
Percentage of newborn with deviation of nasal septum-
Ans- C 20% Reference- Neonatal septal deviation is quite common, being present in approximately 20% of all newborns. Greater amount of birth trauma, like in primiparas, instrumental deliveries or emergency LSCS, and high birth weight predisposes more to neonatal septal deviation and increases the incidence. Strut test being a simple, non-invasive, and fairly accurate is quite useful for diagnosis of Neonatal septal deviations. The test can be carried out by a trained nurse or ANMs at the peripheral centres and positive NSD cases can be referred for proper management
3
60%
10%
20%
50%
ENT
Disease of External Nose & Nasal Septum
c69ff1c0-809f-4a43-9693-e2ba075a6196
single
Which of the following proton pump inhibitor has enzyme inhibitory activity
Omeprazole inhibits oxidation of certain drugs like diazepam, phenytoin and warfarin levels may be increased. Clarithromycin inhibits omeprazole metabolism and increases its plasma concentration.
4
Rabeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
Omeprazole
Pharmacology
null
94f5feb3-3056-48f7-a4f9-01e32768b117
single
A patient receives a toxic dose of lignocaine i.v., the patient is likely to exhibit :
null
4
Excessive salivation
Mydriasis and diarrhea
Respiratory paralysis
Seizures and coma
Pharmacology
null
7aa9d6c9-1182-418a-a718-15b4f9845fd6
single
Taurine is synthesized from which amino acid?
Taurine, a major constituent of bile is synthesized from cysteine
3
Tryptophan
PhenylAlanine
Cysteine
Alanine
Biochemistry
Methionine and Cysteine details
4f23ecbf-920a-41eb-b7a4-40d0c609c100
single
In anklyosing spondylitis joint involvement is least in?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Wrist and hand Ankylosing spondylitis (marie - strumpell disease) Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic progressive inflammatory disease of the sacroiliac joints and the axial skeleton. Prototype of seronegative (absence of rheumatoid factor) spondyloahropathies. Inflammatory disorder of unknown cause. Usually begins in the second or third decade with a median age of 23, in 5% symptoms begin after 40. Male to female ratio is 2-3 : 1 Strong correlation with HLA-B27 90-95% of cases are positive for HLA - B27. Joints involved in ankylosing spondylitis Primarily affects axial skeleton. The disease usually begins in the sacro-iliac joints and usually extends upwards to involve the lumbar, thoracic, and often cervical spine In the worst cases the hips or shoulders are also affected. o Hip joint is the most commonly affected peripheral joint. o Rarely knee and ankle are also involved. Pathology Enthesitis i.e. inflammation of the inseion points of tendons, ligaments or joint capsule on bone is one of the hallmarks of this entity of disease. Primarily affects axial (spinal) skeleton and sacroiliitis is often the earliest manifestation of A.S.. Involvement of costoveebral joints frequently occur, leading to diminished chest expansion (normal 5 cm) Peripheral joints e.g. shoulders, and hips are also involved in 1/3rd patients. Extraaicular manifestations like acute anterior uveitis (in 5%); rarely aoic valve disease, carditis and pulmonary fibrosis also occur. Pathological changes proceed in three stages? Inflammation with granulation tissue formation and erosion of adjacent bone. Fibrosis of granulation tissue Ossification of the fibrous tissue, leading to ankylosis of the joint. Inflammatory bowel disease (CD, UC) may also be seen. Clinicalfeatures (symptoms) Low back pain of insidious onset Duration usually less than 3 months Significant morning stiffness and improvement with exercise Limited chest expansion Diffuse tenderness over the spine and sacroiliac joints Loss of lumbar lordosis, increased thoracic kyphosis Decreased spinal movements (especially extension) in all directions. Radiological features of an kvlasing spondylitis Radiographic evidence of sacroiliac joint is the most consistent finding in ankylosing spondylitis and is crucial for diagnosis. The findings are :- D Sclerosis of the aiculating surfaces of SI joints Widening of the sacroiliac joint space Bony ankylosis of the sacroiliac joints Calcification of the sacroiliac ligament and sacro-tuberous ligaments Evidence of enthesopathy - calcification at the attachment of the muscles, tendons and ligaments, paicularly around the pelvis and around the heel. X-ray of lumbar spine may show :- Li Squaring of veebrae : The normal anterior concavity of the veebral body is lost because of calcification of the anterior longitudinal ligament. Loss of the lumbar lordosis. Bridging 'osteophytes' (syndesmophytes) Bamboo spine appearance In the early disease process, plain x-rays may be read as normal. More accurate and early diagnosis can be done by using MR1 and/or CT scan. Dynamic MRI with fat saturation, either sho tau inversion recovery (STIR) sequnece or TI weighted images with contrast enhancement is highly sensitive and specific for identifying early intra-aicular inflammation, cailage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroilitis. Magnetic resonance imaging allows for visualization of acute sacroilitis, spondylitis, and spondylodiscitis, and can also detect acute inflammation of the entheses, bone and synovium. The ability to detect early inflammatiion and acurately visualize cailaginous and enthesal lesions makes magnetic resonance imaging a useful assessment tool in the spondyloahropathies.
1
Wrist and hand
Sacroiliac joint
Acromio-clavicular joint
Costochondral junction
Medicine
null
b0ead8e5-a511-49fc-9e76-5ee2f55a0e75
single
If the probability of full recovery following polio is 0.3 and the probability of paial recovery is 0.4, then the total probability of full or paial recovery following polio is:
In case of mutually exclusive events, for example total and paial recovery, the total probability can be calculated by applying the law of addition. i.e. P (full or paial recovery)= P(full recovery)+ P(paial recovery) = 0.4+0.3=0.7 Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 191
2
0.12
0.7
1.2
0.1
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
766b5cb9-79d0-4ded-ad1b-38cf78ba981d
single
'Cold Turkey' term is used to denote which of the following?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Abrupt cessation of heroin * 'Cold Turkey' means abrupt and complete cessation of taking a drug to which one is addiced.* Alcohol is not the only drug whereby quitting cold turkey poses a danger to the patient. People who are addicted to opiates (heroin, methadone, morphine, Suboxone, and even prescription benzodiazepines) are at immense risk if they try to stop their drug intake without a plan.
2
Consumption of heroin
Abrupt cessation of heroin
Gradual withdrawal of heroin
Place to withdraw a drug in a group
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
78a84990-384c-463a-9cc3-ba9a4c79aae1
single
For generic root form implant, each .25mm increase in diameter corresponds to increase in surface area by
With a greater surface area of implant-bone contact, less stress is transmitted to the bone, improving the implant prognosis. For a generic root-form implant design, each 0.25 mm increase in diameter corresponds to a surface area increase of 5% to 8%. Therefore, a cylinder root-form implant 1 mm greater in diameter will have a total surface area increase of 20% to 30%.
4
2%
3%
4%
5%
Dental
null
ad9ec1fd-4ec1-4cdc-8c15-976dfac9e2e9
single
All are seen in stage 3 Trachoma except
Stage 3 is scarring stage characterized by Tarsal epitheliofibrosis Herbe pits Disaaperance of Bowman's membrane Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 65
4
Tarsal epitheliofibrosis
Herbe pits
Disappearance of Bowman's membrane
Trichiasis
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
557c5603-cf93-4799-b8d9-e0787791f99b
multi
True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation beds programme is -
Ans. is `c' i.e., To provide Sterillisation facilities to hospitals where they are not available Sterlization bed scheme A scheme for reservation of sterilization beds in Hospitals run by Government, local bodies and voluntary organization was introduced as early as in the year 1964 in order to provide immediate facilities for tubectomy operations in hospitals where such cases could not be admitted due to lack of beds etc. o But later with the introduction of the post paum programme some of the beds were transferred to Post paum programme and there after the beds were only senctioned to hospitals run by local bodies and voluntary organizations. o Ai present 301 voluntary organizations paicipating in the scheme. o The grant for maintenance of the sterlization beds has been raised from 4500 Rs to 6000 Rs per bed per annum with effect from 07/02/2001 for the institution/Local bodies/Voluntary organization paicipating under the scheme subject to the condition that a minimum of 60 tubectomies per bed per annum are achieved. o If the local bodies / Voluntary organization fails to achieve the above mentioned target but achieves a level of 45 tubectomies per bed per annum, the maintenance grant Rs 4000 per bed per annum is admissible. o If the performance of an institution is below the target level of 45 tubectomies per bed per annum, propoionate grant at the norm of 45 tubectomies per bed per annum and at the rate of Rs 3000 per bed per annum would be admissible.
3
To have 2000 beds by 1987
To provide Rs. 1000/- per bed
To provide Sterillisation facilities to hospitals where they arc not available
Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ddc620f1-29cc-4a4c-b12a-907532f84334
multi
Auditory fatigue occurs at ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 90 dB Auditory effects of noice A uditoryfatigue- 90 dB and 4000 Hz. Deafness Temporary - 4000 to 6000 Hz Repeated prolonged exposure to 100 dB Permanent Single exposure to 160 dB (due to rupture of ear drum)
4
50 dB
60 dB
80 dB
90 dB
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
95593842-45b8-4778-af31-cf7ce14c4a29
single
Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis causes ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Granuloma venerum Granuloma inguinale or Granuloma venerum or Donovanosis Caused by Calymmatobecterium granulomatis, a gram negative intracellular bacteria. IP is 1- 4 weeks. Begins as one or more subcutaneous nodules that erode through skin to produce ulcer. Ulcer has following characterstics. Painless Bleeding withred granulation tissue Indurated Subcutaneous granulomas of inguinal region in Donovenosis look like enlarged lymph nodes but these are not enlarged lymph nodes. Therefore, these are known as Pseudobubos. Sites of the lesions are genitalia (90%), inguinal (10%), and anal regions. Complications are pseudoelephentiasis, phimosis, paraphymosis. Diagnosis Preferred method is demonstration of typical intracellular Donavan Bodies within large mononuclear cells visualised in smear prepared from lesion or biopsy specimen. It shows safety pin appearance. Treatment Azithromycin is the DOC. Alternatives are doxycycline (2nd choice) and chloremphenicol. Streptomycin, once used, is not used now. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is caused by - Chlamydia trachomatic Granuloma venerum (Donovanosis) is caused by --> Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis
2
Lymphogranuloma venerum
Granuloma venerum
Syphilis
None
Skin
null
a8151bc6-98d0-4d38-bc58-73cc89febb1b
multi
Which drug is not used in CHF -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trimetazidine o Trimetazidine is an antianginal drugs which act by inhibiting fatty acid oxidation.
2
Spironolactone
Trimetazidine
Nitroglycerine
Nesiritide
Pharmacology
null
c8121243-e62c-4afb-86e1-09a514e609af
single
Tachycardia caused by hypoxia is due to:-
The primary reflex evoked by hypoxic stimulation of carotid chemoreceptor leads to excitation of the medullary vagal center. This will decrease the hea rate There is also a secondary reflex. Hyperventilation caused by hypoxic stimulation of chemoreceptor initiates pulmonary inflation reflex. Stretch receptors in the thorax stimulated by hyperventilation initiate this reflex which will inhibit medullary vagal center. This will result in tachycardia. There is also the effect of hypocapnia produced by hyperventilation; it will also add to the secondary reflex-induced tachycardia.
4
Reflexes initiated by peripheral chemoreceptors
Diffuse vasodilatation
central chemoreceptor stimulation
Secondary reflex after hyperventilation
Physiology
Respiratory System Pa 3
0d09e9c7-fa39-40c0-89ce-c7b7a9acec29
single
All of the following statements are true about wiskott aldrich syndrome except ?
null
1
It is an autosomal recessive disorder
There is failure of aggregation of platelets in response to agonists
Thrombocytopenia is seen
Patient presents with eczema
Medicine
null
a4f83d84-7321-4ceb-a225-a8975826fe17
multi
Scholastic performance is impeded by all, EXCEPT:
SLD and ADHD are well known to impair scholastic performance. Anxiety can lead to significant attention and concentration deficits and this can impair performance. Pica can indirectly be associated with the same as children with pica can have malnutrition, anemia and language problems. But among the given options pica is the best bet.Ref: The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychiatry By Robe E. Hales, 2008, Page 871
2
ADHD
Pica
Anxiety
SLD
Psychiatry
null
2eff9098-182d-4f48-b971-0ec6010a9099
multi
Iodine RDA is
Requirement of iodine The daily requirement of iodine for adults is placed at 150 micrograms. The recommendations of WHO of 250 mcg per day for iodine during pregnancy have also been adopted. This amount is normally supplied by well- balanced diet and drinking water except in regions where Food and water are deficient in iodine. Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed Pgno : 662
3
300 micrograms
200 micrograms
150 micrograms
50 micrograms
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
1ca4ce75-7cb1-4797-9c60-5e43251c313d
single
Hea failure cells are found in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lung o Hea failure cells (siderophages) are hemosiderin containing macrophages in alveoli that are seen in left ventricular failure and denote previous episodes of pulmonary edema.
2
Myocardium
Lungs
Liver
Spleen
Pathology
null
16652561-58e4-4c35-87bb-8c0a5551d131
single
Assessment of patient with prostatism include all except
Evaluation of patient with lower urinary tract infection (LUTI) Urine analysis and culture Hemoglobin, total count, ESR, blood urea and serum creatinine Digital examination of rectum (P/R) CNS examination PSA, acid phosphatase Uroflowmetry, flow rate assessment, residual urine analysis US abdomen, IVU to see upper urinary tract, CT abdomen in selected patients only Cystoscopy, transrectal US (TRUS) Prostatic abscess aspiration/drainage through perineal approach under guidance. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1048
3
Rectal examination
Serum prostate specific antigen
Pressure flow urodynamic studies
Transrectal ultrasound scanning
Surgery
Urology
11891cd4-e2d7-431a-bd3c-80cf283e1b19
multi
FDA approved locally delivered minocycline for subgingival placement is marketed under trade name
null
3
periochip
atridox
arestin
elyzol
Dental
null
b0d4b69d-102d-4fcb-a748-8b75735ebe89
multi
Which of the following statements are true regarding pulmonary hypeension (PAH)?
PAH most commonly presents with progressive breathlessness. As right ventricular dysfunction develops patients can experience exeional dizziness and syncope. Oedema and ascites occur late in the disease. Anginal chest pain may occur due to exeional myocardial hypoperfusion in the setting of right ventricular hyperophy, left main coronary aery compression by the pulmonary aery, or ischaemic hea disease. Patients are prone to tachyarrhythmias, most commonly atrial flutter, which can cause sudden decompensation. Haemoptysis, although uncommon, can occur in Eisenmenger's syndrome and CTEPH, where bronchial aeries may be enlarged. Signs suggestive of pulmonary hypeension include a loud pulmonary second hea sound, systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation, raised jugular venous pressure, peripheral oedema and ascites, but these signs may be subtle or absent in early disease. Ref: 1. Rich S, Dantzker DR, Ayres SM, Bergofsky EH, Brundage BH, Detre KM, et al. Primary pulmonary hypeension. A national prospective study. Ann Intern Med1987;107:216-23.MedlineWeb of Science 2. Bonderman D, Fleischmann D, Prokop M, Klepetko W, Lang IM. Images in cardiovascular medicine. Left main coronary aery compression by the pulmonary trunk in pulmonary hypeension. Circulation2002;105:265.
1
Progressive breathlessness is the most common presentation
Oedema is an early feature of PAH
Prone to bradyarrhythmias
Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation present
Medicine
null
67f3da5d-2c74-4d9a-90d7-bf1eecbb6360
multi
In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of -
In the human intestines, Anaerobes out number aerobic bacteria a thousand fold
3
10:01
100:01:00
1000:01:00
10,000:1
Microbiology
null
7666f741-cba0-4aa3-9c1b-bc9e55f6ef50
single
Best method to evaluate bone defect is
Transgingival probing is known as sounding.
1
Sounding
IOPA
Bitewing radiograph
Use of florid probes
Dental
null
d52bea84-e333-4da8-8086-e3d2ac493081
single
Osteoblastic metastases is seen in:
(Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease,8thedition, pg no: 1205)
2
Lung Ca
Prostate Ca
Breast Ca
Hepatocellular Ca
Unknown
null
ffb49293-9ebc-4ae3-ac17-423c0bffa9fa
single
What is the drug of choice for treatment of trachoma?
The antibiotic of choice for treatment of trachoma is 1% ophthalmic ointment or oily suspension of tetracycline. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 283.
1
Tetracycline eye ointment
Ciprofloxacin eye ointment
Doxycycline eye ointment
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
0d074be2-6d59-4a6a-b101-b1bc0921fb7b
multi
Rapid examination of tubercle bacilli is possible with:
Auramine-rhodamine stains are the fluorescent stains that are used as variation of the traditional ZN stain for demonstration of AFB. In this method, the smears are stained with auramine-rhodamine or auramine-phenol fluorescent dyes and are examined by fluorescent microscope under ultraviolet illumination. This AFB appear as bright fluorescing rods against a dark background. The bacilli, because of their contrast, are visualized even under a high power objective in contrast to oil immersion objective in ZN stain, thus enabling rapid screening of the larger areas of the smear. These fluorescent-stained slides can be screened faster, because the AFB stands against the nonfluorescent background. This is the major advantage of this staining method, hence is adopted in the laboratories where many smears are to be examined for AFB. However, it is always essential to confirm fluorochrome-positive smears by ZN staining. Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page: 352
3
Ziehl–Neelsen stain
Kinyoun stain
Auramine-Rhodamine stain
Giemsa stain
Microbiology
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single
Which of the following enzyme defect is the most commonly inherited metabolic disorder of glycolysis?
Pyruvate kinase is the most commonly inherited metabolic disorder of glycolysis Pyruvate kinase Produces an ATP at the level of substrate level phosphorylation(SLP) Deficiency loss of ATP inability to maintain ion pumps in erythrocytes-Hemolysis Autosomal recessive Presentation Hydrops fetalis, Prolonged neonatal jaundice, Anemia In a glycolytic enzyme deficiency, there is a reduced rate of glycolysis, leading to decreased ATP production. This results in a few alterations in the RBC membrane, thereby leading to changes in cell shape. Such deformed RBCs are later phagocytosed by cells of the reticuloendothelial system, and this results in a state of hemolytic anemia. The most common enzyme deficiency causing hemolytic anemia is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency(pentose phosphate pathway). The second most common enzyme deficiency causing hemolytic anemia is the pyruvate kinase. Note: Though hemolysis is seen in PFK-1 deficiency, it does not always manifest as anemia.
4
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Biochemistry
Glycolysis
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Carpopedal spasm with normal serum ionic calcium level is due to:
(A) Hypomagnesemia # Hypomagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is an abnormally low level of magnesium in the blood.> Usually a serum level less than 0.7 mmol/l is used as reference. Hypomagnesemia is not equal to magnesium deficiency.> Causes: It may result from a number of conditions including inadequate intake of magnesium, chronic diarrhea, malabsorption, alcoholism, chronic stress, diuretic use and other disorders> Clinical Features: Deficiency of magnesium causes weakness, muscle cramps, cardiac arrhythmia, increased irritability of the nervous system with tremors, athetosis, jerking, nystagmus and an extensor plantar reflex. In addition, there may be confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, depression, epileptic fits, hypertension, tachycardia and tetany.
1
Hypomagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Acidosis
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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Desensitizing paste has
null
2
NaCl
KnO3 (Potassium Nitrate)
HnO3
KCl
Dental
null
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Which of the following drugs have least affinity for CYP3A4?
Ans. (D) Rabeprazole(Ref: Katzung 13th/1060, KDT 8th/e p701)Proton pump inhibitors are metabolized by CYP3A4 and CYP2C19. They are also inhibitors of these enzymes. Rabeprazole and pantoprazole has less affinity for these enzymes.
4
Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
Esomeprazole
Rabeprazole
Pharmacology
Anti-Ulcer
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All are Aryl phosphate group of Organophosphorus compounds except:
Alkyl phosphates : HETP, TEPP, OMPA, isopestox ,Malathion , Sulfotepp , Trichlorfon Aryl phosphates : Parathion , Methyl parathion , Chlohion , Paraoxon, Diazinon
2
Follidol
Malathion
Diazinon
Parathion
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology - 2
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multi
Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by –
No option is absolutely correct. The pulmonary angiography has traditionally been considered as the gold standard test for pulmonary embolism. But, now a days CT contrast (MDCTA) is the investigation of choice. Amongst the given options, lung V/Q scan is the best option as it is the 2nd choice of the investigation after MDCTA.
4
USG
X-ray chest
Ventilation – Perfusion scan
CT scan
Radiology
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single
Which of the following deformity is evident in case of erbs palsy?
Ans. is 'a* i.e., Policeman tip deformity
1
Policeman tip deformity
Winging of scapula
Claw- hand
Wrist drop
Orthopaedics
Erb's Palsy
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single
The alternative of Eugenol is
null
1
Orthoethoxy benzoic acid
Ortho phosphoric acid
Poly(acrylic acid)
Citric acid
Dental
null
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single
In Carpal tunnel syndrome, features are of -
The carpal bones form an arch which is convex on the dorsal side of the hand and concave on the palmar side. The groove on the palmar side is covered by flexor retinaculum, thus forming carpal tunnel. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of median nerve.
2
Compression of ulnar nerve
Compression of median nerve under the flexor retinaculum
Anaesthesia over thenar eminence
Atrophy of hypothenar muscles
Orthopaedics
null
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single
Last taste sensation discovered is
Umami a savory taste is one of the five basic tastes (together with sweetness, sourness, bitterness, and saltiness)People taste umami through receptors specific to glutamate. Glutamate is widely present in savory foods, such as meat broths and fermented products, and commonly added to some foods in the form of monosodium glutamate (MSG) since umami has its own receptors rather than arising out of a combination of the traditionally recognized taste receptors, scientists now consider umami to be a distinct taste. Ref: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Umami
1
Umami
Sweetness
Bitter
Sour
ENT
Oral cavity & Oesophagus
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'Meckel's cartilage' develops from?
Ans. a (First branchial arch) (Ref Embryology by IB Singh 7th/113)Meckel's cartilage =first arch; and Reichert cartilage =second arch.First arch derivatives1) Meckel's cartilageMandible, Malleus, Incus, Sphenomandibular ligament, Anterior ligament of malleus.2) MusclesFour muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, lateral and medial pterygoids).Tensor tympani, Tensor veli palatini, Mylohyoid, Anterior belly of digastric.3) Nerve of first archMandibular nerve (post-trematic) and chorda tympani (pretrematic).4) Artery of first archMaxillary artery.Second arch derivatives1) Reichert's cartilageStapes, Styloid, Smaller (lesser) horn of hyoid & upper half of hyoid, Stylohyoid ligament2) MusclesMuscles of facial expression, Stapedius, Stylohyoid, Posterior belly of digastric.3) Nerve of second archFacial nerve4) Artery of second archStapedial arteryThird arch derivatives1) CartilageGreater horn of hyoid, lower half of hyoid.2) MuscleStylopharyngeus.3) Nerve of third archGlossopharyngeal nerve.Fourth arch derivatives1) CartilagesThyroid, cricoid, arytenoids, comiculate and cuneiform.2) MusclesMost pharyngeal constrictors, Cricothyroid, Levator veli palatini.3) Nerve of fourth archSuperior laryngeal branch of vagus nerve.Fifth arch makes no major development contributions. Sixth arch derivatives1) MusclesAll intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid.2) Nerve of sixth archRecurrent laryngeal branch of vagus nerve. Remember:Each pharyngeal arch is supplied by its own cranial nerve.# The trigeminal nerve supplying the first pharyngeal arch has three branches: the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibu- lar. The nerve of the second arch is the facial nerve; that of the third, the glossopharyngeal nerve. The musculature of the fourth arch is supplied by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve, and that of the sixth arch, by the recurrent branch of the vagus nerve.
1
First branchial archb.
Second branchial arch
Third branchial arch
Fourth branchial arch
Anatomy
Pharyngeal Arches
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Term 'schizophrenia' was coined by: TN 06; Ranchi 10; NEET 13
Ans. Eugene Bleuler
1
Eugene Bleuler
Kraepelin
Freud
Schneider
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
A 24 week pregnancy scan showed frontal facial fetal defects suggestive of Moebius syndrome. Which of the following could account for the teratogenic effects?
Misoprostol is a methyl ester prostaglandin E1 analogue used for cervical ripening and first trimester aboion. The first trimester exposure to Misoprostol might lead to the development of Moebius syndrome. Mifepristone (RU - 486) is a potent progesterone receptor antagonist which is used in first trimester aboion and as a post-coital contraceptive. The most common side effects are vomiting, giddiness, pain or cramps, weakness and headache. Dinoprostone is a PGE2 analogue used in cervical ripening along with misoprostol. There exists a risk for the patient to develop uterine rupture. Methotrexate is a analogue of folic acid and it prevents the synthesis of DNA by inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase. It is used in medical termination of pregnancy, medical management of ectopic pregnancy, prophylactic chemotherapy of hyatidiform mole and also in the treatment of placenta accreta. The commonly repoed side effects are leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, bone marrow aplasia, ulcerative stomatitis, hemorrhagic enteritis, elevated liver enzymes, alopecia, pneumonitis and diarrhea. Ref: Berek and Novak's Gynecology, Issue 935, Volume 2007 By Emil Novak, Page 622; Syndromes of the Head and Neck By Robe J. Gorlin, Meyer Michael Cohen, Raoul C. M. Hennekam, Page 826; Pediatric Ophthalmology, Neuro-Ophthalmology, Genetics: By Birgit Lorenz, Michael C. Brodsky, Pages 70-71; Merritt's Neurology By Lewis P. Rowland, Timothy A. Pedley, Hiram Houston Merritt, Page 602
2
Mifepristone
Misoprostol
Dinoprostone
Methotrexate
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Ion exchange chromatography is based on
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Charge
2
Size
Charge
Solubility
Polarity
Biochemistry
null
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single
A 44 year old male presents to the OPD with a swelling on the palate. On intraoral examination, marked swelling is seen in the region of palatine papilla, situated mesial to the roots of 11 & 21. These teeth respond normally to vitality test. IOPA is given below. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Clinical feature The age distribution is broad, with most cases being discovered in the fourth through sixth decades. The incidence is three times higher in males. Most of these cysts are asymptomatic or cause such minor symptoms that they are tolerated for long periods. The most frequent complaint  is a small, well-defined swelling just  posterior to the palatine papilla. This swelling usually is fluctuant  and  blue if the cyst is near  the surface. The deeper nasopalatine duct cyst is covered by normal-appearing  mucosa, unless it is ulcerated from masticatory trauma. If the cyst expands, it  may  penetrate  the  labial  plate  and  produce  a  swelling  below the maxillary labial frenum or to one side. The lesion also may bulge into the nasal cavity and distort the nasal septum. Pressure from  the  cyst  on  the  adjacent  nasopalatine  nerves  that  occupy the same canal may cause a burning sensation or numbness over. Differential Diagnosis The most common differential diagnosis is a large incisive foramen. A  foramen larger than 6 mm may simulate the appearance of a cyst. However, a clinical examination should reveal the expansion. A radicular cyst or granuloma associated with a central incisor is similar in appearance to an asymmetric nasopalatine cyst. The presence or  absence  of  the lamina dura and enlargement of the periodontal ligament space around the apex of the central incisor indicate an inflammatory lesion. A vitality test of the central incisor may be useful. characteristic of a cyst and other changes that occur with a space-occupying lesion, such as displacement of teeth. Oral Radiology, Principles and Interpretation / Stuart C. White, Michael J. Pharoah - 7th ed pg-352
4
Globulomaxillary cyst
Radicular cyst
Cyst of palatine papilla
Nasopalatine cyst
Radiology
null
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multi
Length of the cailaginous pa of "Eustachian tube"
The external auditory meatus is 4 cm long and conducts sound waves from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. The framework of the anterior and medial two-thirds of the meatus is elastic cailage (measures 25 mm in length), and the posterior and lateral one third is bony, formed by the tympanic plate (measures 12 mm in length). The sensory nerve supply of the lining skin is derived from the auriculotemporal nerve and the auricular branch of the vagus nerve.The lymph drainage is to the superficial parotid, mastoid, and superficial cervical lymph nodes.
3
15 mm
20 mm
25 mm
30 mm
Anatomy
null
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single
Following are examples of human "dead end" disease except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Leishmaniasis Dead and host o A dead end host is an infected person from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible host or from which a parasite cannot escape to continue its life cycle. o The diseases in which human acts as dead end host, i.e., dead and disease : ? Japanies encephalitis 3. Trichinosis 5. Bubonic plaque Echynococcosis (hydatid disease) 4. Tetanus
4
Bubonic plague
Japanies ecephalitis
Hydatid disease
Leishmaniasis
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Maximum CO2 is seen in ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pulmonary aeryPulmonary aeries carry deoxygenated blood (with maximum CO2) to lung from right ventricle.In lung CO2 is removed and oxygenation of blood takes place.Pulmonary veins, then, transpo this oxygenated blood (with less CO2) to the left atrium.
2
Pulmonary vein
Pulmonary aery
Left ventricle
Left atrium
Physiology
null
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single