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Name the dotted line being drawn:
The subcostal plane is a transverse plane which bisects the body at the level of the 10th costal margin and the veebra body L3. The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison's plane, Imaginary horizontal plane, located halfway between the suprasternal notch of the manubrium and the upper border of the symphysis pubis at the level of the first lumbar veebrae, L1. It lies roughly a hand's breadth beneath the xiphisternum or midway between the xiphisternum and the umbilicus. Structures Crossed by Transpyloric plane:- L1 veebra Pylorus Pancreatic neck Duodenojejunal flexure Fundus of gall bladder 9th costal cailage Hila of kidneys Origin of poal vein Transverse mesocolon 2nd pa of duodenum Superior mesenteric aery origin Hilum of spleen Termination of spinal cord
1
Transpyloric Plane
Transcostal Plane
Subcostal Plane
Transpectoral Plane
Anatomy
Upper limb : Miscellaneous
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Oxygen affinity increases with
Oxygen affinity increases with left shift of O2-Hb dissociation curve. It is seen in fetal hemoglobin and carbon monoxide.Oxygen affinity decreases with right shift of O2-Hb dissociation curve. It is seen in hypoxia, high altitude, anemia, acidosis, and exercise.Ref: Medical physiology for UG students, Indu Khurana, page: 328
1
Carbon monoxide
Acidosis
Hypoxia
Anemia
Physiology
Respiratory system
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A 36-year-old man from sub-Saharan Africa presents to the clinic with jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. On examination, the liver is palpably enlarged. Laboratory studies demonstrate an increase in liver enzymes. Computed tomography demonstrates a single large mass in the right lobe of the liver, and serum a-fetoprotein is markedly elevated. Which of the following is likely to have contributed to the patient's condition?
Aflatoxin B1 Fungal metabolite found on moldy nuts and grain Co-carcinogen with hepatitis B, Increase the incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma -C. sinensis is a parasite associated with cholangiocarcinoma. -Hepatitis A has no association with malignancy. -Polyvinyl chloride is associated with Angiosarcoma of the liver. -Tetracyclines can cause microvesicular fatty change in the liver. Pattern of injury Morphological features Examples Cholestatic Cholestasis without inflammation OCP, steroids, antibiotics, HAA Cholestatic hepatitis Cholestasis with necrosis & inflammation Antibiotics, phenothiazines, statins Hepatocellular necrosis Massive necrosis Chronic hepatitis Acetaminophen, halothane Isoniazid Fatty liver disease Microvesicular steatosis Steatohepatitis with Mallory Denk bodies Valproate, tetracyclin Ethanol, amiodarone Fibrosis & cirrhosis Peripoal & pericellular fibrosis Alcohol, methotrexate Granulomas Fibrin ring granulomas Allopurinol Vascular lesions Budd Chiari syndrome OCP
1
Aflatoxin B1
C. Sinensis
Hepatitis A
Polyvinyl chloride
Pathology
Miscellaneous
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Cutis anserina is a postmoem finding seen in :
Cutis anserina and postmoem lividity are two postmoem skin findings of drowning. Cutis anserina or goose skin appearance occur due to rigor mois of erector pilorum muscles of hair follicles in the skin and subcutaneous tissues. Postmoem lividity: It refers to the lividity which is seen in the dependent pas of the body. This depends upon the position in which body was floating. Common hand findings in drowning are cadaveric spasm and washerwoman's hands. Washerwoman's hands is a specific change that is seen in the skin of the palm, which comprises of wrinkled, swollen and whitish sodden appearance. In cadaveric spasm the hands of the dead body will be clenched and on opening it may show water, plants, seaweeds etc. If a dead body removed from water presents with cadaveric spasm it is a finding in or of antemoem drowning. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Jaypee Brothers, page 174.
1
Drowning
Suffocation
Lust murder
Electrocution
Forensic Medicine
null
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Third window effect is seen in
Ans. b. Dehiscent superior semicircular canal Dehiscence of bone overlying the superior semicircular canal can cause a constellation of vestibular and auditory symptoms and signs. These abnormalities can be understood in terms of the effect of the dehiscence in creating a third mobile window into the inner ear.
2
Perforated tympanum
Dehiscent superior semicircular canal
Round window
Oval window
ENT
null
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All of the following are done in case of VVF except
Ans. is d. i.e. MRIRef: Shaw 16th/ed, p221 & 222The Investigation done in VVF are:* Urine culture* USG* IVP* Cystoscopy* Methylene blue 3 swab test
4
Methylene blue 3 swab test
Urine culture
Cystoscopy
MRI
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Urinary Fistulas
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Regarding yaws, all are true except:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sexually transmitted(Ref: Anathnarayan, 9th/e, p. 370, 377 and 8th/e, p. 377; Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1132)Penicillin is the drug of choice for all treponematosis.Non Venereal Treponemes* Mode of transmission - Direct contact not sexual.* Endemic syphilis (Bejel) - Caused by T. pallidum subsp. endemicum.* Yaws - Caused by T. pallidum subsp. pertenue.* Pinta - Caused by T. pallidum subsp. carateum.* In Non-Venereal Treponematosis, Yaws and Pinta gives +ve for serological tests for syphilis.
2
Caused by T. pertenue
Sexually transmitted
Cross reactive antibodies with syphilis
Drug of choice is penicillin
Microbiology
Bacteria
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HPV oncogene expression is
The oncogenic potential of HPV can be related to production of two early viral genes E6&E7 Together they interact with variety of growth regulating proteins encoded by protooncogene and tumour suppressor genes E6- binds to and mediate the degradation of p53 E7-binds to Rb protein and release E2F transcription factor,also inactivates the CDKIs Robbins basic pathology 9th edition chapter 5 pageno. 202
4
E1E2
E1E3
E3E5
E6E7
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
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Adamantinoma usually arise from?
ANSWER: (D) Odotogenic tissueREF: With textAmeloblastoma (adamantinoma): It is a locally aggressive tumour that arises from the odontogenic tissue and invades the maxillary sinus. Treatment is surgical excision. (Ref: Dhingra 4th ed page 195)Ameloblastoma, which arises from odontogenic epithelium and shows no ectomesenchymal differentiation. It is commonly cystic, slow growing, and locally invasive but has an indolent course in most cases. (Ref: Robbins 8th ed chapter 16)
4
Dental lamina
Endodermal tissue
Periapical tissue
Odotogenic tissue
Pathology
Head & Neck
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Malignant otitis externa is caused by ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., P. aeruginosa Malignant otitis externa Malignant otitis externa, also called necrotizing external otitis, is a misnomer as it is not a neoplastic condition, rather it is an infectious condition. Malignant otitis externa is a disorder involving inflammation and damage of the bones and cailage at the base of skull in temporal bone as a result of spread of infection from outer ear. Malignant otitis externa is often caused by difficult to treat bacteria such as pseudomonas aeruginosa. Only rare cases of malignant otitis externa due to S.aureus, Proteus mirabilis and Aspergillus fumigatus have been repoed. The infection spreads from the floor of the ear canal to the nearby tissues and into the bones at the base of the skull. The infection and inflammation may damage or destroy the bones. The infection may spread more and affect the cranial nerves, brain, or other pas of the body. Predisposing factors for malignant otitis externa Elderly diabetics (most common predisposing factor) Individuals with altered immune function (immunodeficiency) Chemotherapy Clinical features of malignant otitis externa Severe pain :- inside the ear and may get worse when moving head. Granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, at the junction of bony and cailagenous pa. Drainage from the ear - yellow, yellow - green, foul smelling, persistent. Fever Itching of ear or ear canal Troubled swallowing & weakness of face. Complications Cranial nerve palsies :- most commonly facial nerve is involved. Other cranial nerves can also be involved (glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal, abducens, trigeminal). Jugular venous thrombosis Cavernous sinus thrombosis Meningitis Treatment of malignant otitis externa In all cases, the external ear canal is cleansed and a biopsy specimen of the granulation tissue sent for culture. IV antibiotics is directed against the offending organism. For Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the most common pathogen, the regimen involves an antipseudomonal penicillin or cephalosporin (3'd generation piperacillin or ceftazidime) with an aminoglycoside. A fluoroquinolone antibiotic can be used in place of the aminoglycoside. Ear drops containing antipseudomonal antibiotic e.g. ciproflaxacin plus a glucocoicoid is also used. Early cases can be managed with oral and otic fluoroquinolones only. Extensive surgical debridement once an impoant pa of the treatment is now rarely needed.
3
S. aureus
S. albus
P. aeruginosa
E. coli
ENT
null
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All of the following are true regarding tetralogy of Fallot except:
c. Predominantly left to right shunt(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2211-2217, Ghai 8/e p 420-423)Right to left shunt is seen in ToF i.e. blood going from the pulmonary circulation to the systemic circulation Physical examination in a case of TOF shows: Cyanosis and clubbing, Normal jugular venous pulse (as there is no heart failure), a Single second heart sound (S2) and Ejection systolic murmur in pulmonary area.
3
Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostal space
Single second heart sound
Predominantly left to right shunt
Normal jugular venous pressure
Pediatrics
C.V.S.
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Not an indication for tooth grinding:
null
1
Wear facets
TMJ pain
Crepitus
Cemental wear
Dental
null
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Both OX 2 and OX 19 are seen as positive test in case of:
RMSF(Rocky mountain spotted fever)
2
Scrub typhus
RMSF(Rocky mountain spotted fever)
Epidemic typhus
Scrub typhus
Microbiology
null
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Most common foreign body to cause penetrating injury to ciliary body
Ans. (b) Hammer and chisel Ref: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /163, 437
2
Ball
Hammer and chisel
Gun bullet
Vegetative material
Ophthalmology
Symptomatic Conditions
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True about Mallory Weiss tear
MALLORY WEISS SYNDROME is seen in adults with severe prolonged vomiting, causing a longitudinal tear in the mucosa of the stomach at and just below the cardia, leading to severe haematemesis.Violent vomiting often may be due to a migraine or veigo or following a bout of alcohol.* Presents with severe vomiting and later haematemesis, with features of shock. * It is common in one O'clock position.* Only 10% of cases involve lower oesophageal mucosa. Investigations employed mainly includes * Gastroscopy, Hb%, PCV, blood grouping.* During gastroscopy, if the stomach is not inflated properly, 50% cases may be missed.Differential diagnosis -* Bleeding peptic ulcer * Oesophageal varices * Erosive gastritis * Carcinoma stomachTreatment is* Conservative, as it is only a mucosal tear. * Blood transfusion. * IV fluids. * Sedation. * Haemostatic agents like vasopressin.* Endoscopic injection therapy is used if required. * Surgery is rarely required. Ref: SRB's manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 750
4
Hamman mediastinum
Esophagus perforates at all layers
Auscultation - Crunching sound
Symptoms improves after conservative Mx
Surgery
G.I.T
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Esmolol is a sho acting b blocker because
* Esmolol - Shoest acting b blocker * Nadolol - Longest acting b blocker * Esmolol is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase hence it is sho acting. * Drugs metabolized by pseudocholinesterase SUCCINYLCHOLINE ESMOLOL REMIFENTANIL
2
It has more plasma protein binding
Its plasma hydrolysis by esterases is rapid
It has high lipid solubility
It has high oral bioavailability
Pharmacology
Sympathetic System
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Nonavalent HPV vaccine consists of
Nonavalent HPV is 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52 and 58 Bivalent HPV is (HPV 16 and 18) Quadrivalent HPV vaccine is (HPV 6, 11, 16 and 18)
2
HPV (6,11,16,18,32,34,45,52 and 58)
HPV (6,11,16,18,31,33,45,52 and 58)
HPV(6,11,16,18,31,33,46,53 AND 59)
HPV(6,11,16,18,31,33,46,52 AND 58)
Microbiology
null
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Patients undergoing splenectomy require following vaccinations except
Postsplenectomy septicaemia may result from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitides, Haemophilus influenzae and Escherichia coli. (Oppounist post-splenectomy infection (OPSI))If elective splenectomy is planned, consideration should be given to vaccinating against pneumococcus, meningococcus C (both repeated every 5 years) and H. influenzae type B (Hib) (repeated every 10 years).Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1187
4
Pneumococcus
Gonococcus
Haemophilus
Influenza
Surgery
General surgery
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Enzyme used in PCR is
In step 3 i.e polymerization : New DNA strands are synthesized by Taq polymerase. This enzyme is derived from bacteria Thermus acquaticus that are found in hot springs.Therefore the enzyme is not denatured at high temperature. REFERENCE : DM.VASUDEVAN.TEXTBOOK; SEVENTH EDITION; PAGE NO :638.
2
Reverse transcriptase
Taq polymerase
RNA polymerase
None
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Glucose is transpoed in pancreas through which receptor?
The transcellular movement of glucose, in this case, involves one additional component: a unipo (Figure 40-19) that allows the glucose accumulated within the cell to move across the basolateral membrane and involves a glucose unipoer (GLUT2).Glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue is controlled by insulin, which is secreted by the b-islet cells of the pancreas in response to an increased concentration of glucose in the poal bloodRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry, 30th edition, page no: 491
2
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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A female with depression is resistant to antidepressants. Cognitive therapy for depression was developed by:
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a structured psychotherapeutic strategy, is an effective alternative to pharmacotherapy in the initial treatment of depression, developed by American psychiatrist Aaron T. Beck. Ref: Josephson S.A. . "Cognitive Behavioral Therapy an Effective Adjunct to Medications in Treatment-Resistant Depression" (update). In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
2
Ellis
Beck
Godfrey
Meicheinbanon
Psychiatry
null
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Which is NOT a clinical feature of Addison's disease:March 2004
Ans. C i.e. HypopigmentationHyperpigmentation is a feature of Addison's disease, paicularly of sun-exposed areas and at pressure points, such as the neck, knees and knuckles.
3
Hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Hypopigmentation
Hyperkalemia
Pathology
null
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Which one of the following is not included as major criteria in Jones criteria?
Rheumatic fever is characterized by a constellation of findings out of which major criteria of Jones include: (1) migratory polyahritis of the large joints, (2) pancarditis, (3) subcutaneous nodules, (4) erythema marginatum of the skin, and (5) Sydenham chorea, a neurologic disorder with involuntary rapid, purposeless movements.
4
Pancarditis
Ahritis
Subcutaneous nodules
Elevated ESR
Pathology
Rheumatic Fever
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Absolute contraindication of conservative breast cancer therapy is
Ans. is 'b' i.e. History of previous radiation Conservative breast cancer management: Absolute Contraindications Pregnancy is an absolute contraindication to the use of breast irradiation. However, in many cases, it may be possible to perform breast-conserving surgery in the third trimester and treat the patient with irradiation after delivery. Women with two or more primary tumors in separate quadrants of the breast or with diffuse malignant-appearing microcalcifications are not considered candidate for breast conservation treatment. A history of prior therapeutic irradiation to the breast region that would require retreatment to an excessively high total-radiation dose to a significant volume is another absolute contraindication. Persistent positive margins after reasonable surgical attempts. Relative Contraindications A history of collagen vascular disease is a relative contraindication to breast conservation treatment because published repos indicate that such patients tolerate irradiation poorly. Most radiation oncologists will not treat patients with scleroderma or active lupus erythematosus, considering it an absolute contraindication. In contrast, rheumatoid ahritisis not a relative or an absolute contraindication. The presence of multiple gross tumors in the same quadrant and indeterminate calcifications must be carefully assessed for suitability because studies in this area are not definitive. Tumor size is not an absolute contraindication to breast conservation treatment, although there is little published experience in treating patients with tumor sizes greater than four to five cm. However, a relative contraindication is the presence of a large tumor in a small breast in which an adequate resection would result in significant cosmetic alteration. In this circumstance, preoperative chemotherapy should be considered. Breast size can be a relative contraindication. Large pendulous breast is a relative contraindication, as it presents difficulty in delivering a uniform radiation dose. Centrally located tumor for which removal of the nipple areola complex is required to obtain a tumor free margin is a relative contraindication. It depends on patient acceptability. The nipple and areola can now be reconstructed.
2
Large pendulous breast
History of previous radiation
Axillary node involvement
Subareolar lump present
Surgery
null
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Deep inguinal ring is the defect in:
Ans. d (Fascia transversalis). (Ref. BD Chaurasia, Anatomy 2nd vol., 3rd ed., 61, 177)Surgical anatomy of Inguinal region:AreaAnatomySuperficial inguinal ring# It is a triangular aperture in the aponeurosis of the external oblique and lies 1.25 cm above the pubic tubercle.# The ring is bounded by a superomedial and an inferolateral crus joined by the criss-cross intercrural fibres.# Normally, the ring will not admit the tip of the little finger.Deep inguinal ring# It is a U-shaped condensation of the transversalis fascia and it lies 1.25 cm above the inguinal (Poupart's) ligament, midway between the symphysis pubis and the anterior superior iliac spine.# The transversalis fascia is the fascial envelope of the abdomen and the competency of the deep inguinal ring depends on the integrity of this fascia.Inguinal canal# In infants the superficial and deep inguinal rings are almost superimposed and the obliquity of the canal is slight.# In adults the inguinal canal, which is 3.75 cm long, is directed downwards and medially from the deep to the superficial inguinal ring.# In the male the inguinal canal transmits the spermatic cord, the ilio-inguinal nerve and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.# In the female the round ligament replaces the spermatic cord.Boundaries of the canal# The anterior boundary comprises mainly the external oblique aponeurosis with the conjoined muscle laterally.# The posterior boundary is formed by the fascia transversalis and conjoined tendon (internal oblique and transversus abdominus medially). The inferior epigastric vessels lie posteriorly and medially to the deep inguinal ring.# The superior boundary is formed by the conjoined muscles (internal oblique and transversus) and the inferior boundary is the inguinal ligament.DEEP INGUINAL RING# It is an oval opening in fascia transversalis about half an inch above mid-inguinal point,# I It lies immediately lateral to inferior epigastric artery.# It transmits spermatic cord in male and round ligament in female.# Fascia transversalis is the inner surface of abdominal muscles lining.# Fascia separates peritoneum from extraperitoneal tissue.# An indirect hernia travels down the canal on the outer (lateral and anterior) side of the spermatic cord. A direct hernia comes out directly forwards through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.# While the neck of the indirect hernia is lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, the direct hernia usually emerges medial to this except in the saddle-bag or pantaloon type, which has both a lateral and a medial component.# An inguinal hernia can be differentiated from a femoral hernia by ascertaining the relation of the neck of the sac to the medial end of the inguinal ligament and the pubic tubercle,i.e.in the case of an inguinal hernia the neck is above and medial, while that of a femoral hernia is below and lateral.
4
External oblique
Transverse abdominis
Internal oblique
Fascia transversalis
Anatomy
Abdominal Wall
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Inverse agonist of the benzodiazepine receptor is:
null
3
Phenobarbitone.
Flumazenil.
Beta carboline.
Gabapentin.
Pharmacology
null
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Dissociative conversion disorder was previously described as -
The term "hysteria" which was once prevalent is no more in use. Instead, these disorders are now called dissociation or conversion disorders.
1
Hysteria
Dementia precox
Melancholia
Hypochondriasis
Psychiatry
null
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All are true about trigone of bladder except ?
The wall of the urinary bladder consists of an outer serous layer, a thick coat of smooth muscle and a mucous membrane.The mucous membrane is lined by transitional epithelium.The trigone is a smooth triangular region of the internal urinary bladder formed by the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice.Here the mucous membrane is always smooth even when the bladder is empty, when mucous membrane of the rest of the pa is thrown into folds. Smoothness of mucosa over trigone is because of the firm adherence to underlying muscular coat (Detrusor muscle).The bladder is derived from two sources, the cloaca and mesonephric ducts.
1
Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
Mucosa is smooth
Lined by transitional epithelium
Derived from absorbed pa of the mesonephric duct
Anatomy
null
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Most reliable method of identification is:
Ans. (B). Galton methodFingerprinting is the most specificQ method of identification.Gabon's system describes about fingerprinting.
2
Gustafson method
Galton method
Anthropometry
Scars
Forensic Medicine
Identification - Medicolegal aspects
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Regarding lung volumes, which of the following is true: March 2009
Ans. B: Residual volume keeps alveoli inflated between breaths The amount of air that moves into the lungs with each inspiration (or the amount that moves out with each expiration) is called the tidal volume (500 ml). The air inspired with a maximal inspiratory effo in excess of the tidal volume is the inspiratory reserve volume. (3000 ml) The volume expelled by an active expiratory effo after passive expiration is the expiratory reserve volume (1200 ml), and the air left in the lungs after a maximal expiratory effo is the residual volume (1200 ml). The space in the conducting zone of the airways occupied by gas that does not exchange with blood in the pulmonary vessels is the respiratory dead space. The vital capacity (4700 ml), the largest amount of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effo, is frequently measured clinically as an index of pulmonary function. It gives useful information about the strength of the respiratory muscles and other aspects of pulmonary function (ERV+TV+IRV) The fraction of the vital capacity expired during the first second of a forced expiration (FEV1, timed vital capacity) gives additional information; the vital capacity may be normal but the FEV1 reduced in diseases such as asthma, in which airway resistance is increased because of bronchial constriction. The amount of air inspired per minute (pulmonary ventilation, respiratory minute volume) is normally about 6 L (500 mL/ breath x 12 breaths/ min). The maximal voluntary ventilation (MVV), or, as it was formerly called, the maximal breathing capacity, is the largest volume of gas that can be moved into and out of the lungs in 1 minute by voluntary effo. The normal MVV is 125-170 L/ min. Inspiratory Capacity (TV + IRV) = 3500 ml Functional Residual Capacity (RV + ERV) = 2400 ml Total Lung capacity (RV + VC) = 5900 ml
2
Functional residual capacity accounts for 75% of total lung capacity
Residual volume keeps alveoli inflated between breaths
Vital capacity increases in elderly
Residual volume is about 500 ml
Physiology
null
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Which of the following muscle is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve
All the muscles which move the vocal cord ( abductors, adductors or tensors) are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid muscle. The latter receives its innervation from the external laryngeal nerve which is a branch of superior laryngeal nerve. Ref: PL Dhingra Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Edition 7, page - 337
4
Post cricoarytenoid
Thyroarytenoid
Lateral cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
ENT
Larynx
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All are true regarding sarcoma botryoides except:a) Seen in vaginab) Grape like clusters are seenc) Seen in elderly womend) It is an adenocarcinomae) Familial incidence is common
null
3
abd
acd
cde
ade
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Drug of Choice for hypehyroidism in pregnancy:
In a case of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, lodine-131 is contraindicated. Propylthiouracil is the drug of choice for thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy. It is highly protein bound and therefore less amount of drug is transferred across placenta and in milk. With carbimazole and methimazole there is risk of fetal hypothyroidism, aplasia cutis, and fetal agranulocytosis.
3
Methimazole
Carbimazole
Propylthiouracil
I-131
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
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Lateral pressure theory for tongue thrust habit was given by:
Bridgeman put forward the lateral pressure theory for tongue thrust habit in 1859.
2
Finn
Bridgeman
Benjamin
Pinkham
Dental
null
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Profuse watery diarrhoea in an immune compromised child is due to
Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia is a major cause of diarrhoea in children and travellers. Individuals with malnutrition,humoral immunodefeciencies,and cystic fibrosis are particularly susceptible. Features: acute diarrhoea with sudden onset of explosive, watery foul smelling stools, along with nausea and anorexia,abdominal distension,flatulence,epigastric camps and mild fever.
3
Cryptococcus
Amoeba
Giardia
Lactose intolerance
Pediatrics
null
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The MOST common site of Tuberculosis in female genital tract is?
The fallopian tube is the most frequently involved pa of the genital tract in tuberculosis. Also Know: A young girl with pubeal menorrhagia should be investigated for genital tuberculosis if she fails to respond to standard hormonal therapy. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 13th Ed, page 147; 14th Ed, page 137.
4
Cervix
Endometrium
Ovaries
Fallopian tubes
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Which chemical mediator is an arachidonic acid metabolite produced by cyclo oxygenase pathway
ref Robbins 9/e p84 Prostaglandin H2 is a type of prostaglandin and a precursor for many other biologically significant molecules. It is synthesized from arachidonic acid in a reaction catalyzed by a cyclooxygenase enzyme It is acted upon by: Prostacyclin synthase to create prostacyclin Thromboxane-A synthase to create thromboxane A2 and 12-(S)-hydroxy-5Z,8E,10E-heptadecatrienoic acid (HHT) (see 12-Hydroxyheptadecatrienoic acid) Prostaglandin D2 synthase to create prostaglandin D2 Prostaglandin E synthase to create prostaglandin E2 It rearranges non-enzymatically to: A mixture of 12-(S)-hydroxy-5Z,8E,10E-heptadecatrienoic acid (HHT) and 12-(S)-hydroxy-5Z,8Z,10E-heptadecatrienoic acid (see 12-Hydroxyheptadecatrienoic acid) Use of Prostaglandin H2: regulating the constriction and dilation of blood vessels stimulating platelet aggregation
4
LXA4
LXB4
5HETE
PGH 2
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
62 year old Male patient presents to the OPD with Right ear pain and reduced hearing. On examination EAC is blocked and shows wet news paper appearance. which organism is causing this Otomycosis
M/C Organism causing Otomycosis is Aspergillus Niger, has wet news paper appearance. Candida shows cotton wool appearance.
2
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus Niger
Candida
Tinea
ENT
null
05e18f9b-db2e-4fcf-9141-a142dbfa02c5
single
A 45-year-old woman has a severe asthmatic exacerbation and requires an aerial blood gas specimen for management. If you are planning to draw the sample from the brachial aery, where should you inse the needle
The brachial aery lies superficial and just medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii in the cubital fossa. The contents of the cubital fossa from medial to lateral are: the median nerve, the brachial aery and the tendon of biceps brachii. Note: * The brachial aery lies deep to the bicipital aponeurosis. It usually divides into the radial and ulnar aeries within the cubital fossa (although this can vary between individuals). * The median nerve exits the cubital fossa between the ulnar and humeral heads of pronator teres. * The medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm (a direct branch of the medial cord of the brachial plexus) lies superficial to pronator teres. * The radial nerve enters the anterior compament of the arm between brachialis and brachioradialis. It commonly divides into a deep motor and superficial cutaneous branch in the cubital fossa. * The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm emerges between biceps and brachialis. * Superficially, the median cubital vein lies between the basilic and cephalic veins.<img alt="" src=" /> Ref:- BD Chaurasia
3
In the lateral aspect of the arm, between the biceps and triceps brachii muscles
Just lateral to the biceps tendon in the cubital fossa
Just medial to the biceps tendon in the cubital fossa
Just medial to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle at the wrist
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with the clinical diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) secondary to pneumonia. She requires intubation and mechanical ventilation. On the second ICU day, she is difficult to ventilate, requiring increased airway pressures. On physical examination, vital signs are: pulse 159 bpm; temperature 100degF; blood pressure 90/56 mm Hg. Lung exam reveals diffuse crackles, and the patient has a palpable crunch on exam of her chest wall and abdomen. Chest radiograph is shown below.. What will you do next?
This poable chest x-ray taken in the ICU shows an intubated patient with hyperlucent lines in the soft tissue with striations along the fibromuscular bundles of the neck and chest musculature. There is a faint paracardiac hyperlucent line representing air around the pericardium. The diaphragm leaflets are seen clearly across the midline due to the contrasting air shadow representing the "continuous diaphragm sign". All the signs mentioned are representative of a pneumomediastinum. The lower edge of the diaphragm is also visible due to a pneumoperitoneum. Alveolar rupture with increased alveolar-interstitial space gradient can cause pneumomediastinum and subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema may occur after trauma such as esophageal rupture with direct introduction of air in the mediastinum. It can also occur where there is abdominal and thoracic muscular contraction against a closed glottis. Infection with a gas-forming organism can cause subcutaneous gas formation. Inflammatory bronchiolitis or overinflated alveoli due to mechanical ventilation can cause alveolar rupture, especially if there is airway obstruction with air moving along the bronchovascular sheaths. Pneumomediastinum refers to abnormal air collection within the mediastinum. Air can dissect into the mediastinum from areas of the neck and thorax or from the GI tract or lungs. Pathologically there is continuity between the periaerial and the peribronchial interstitium when an alveolar rupture occurs, creating an air collection within the interstitial connective tissues. Patient-related factors that are found to predispose to volutrauma include lung disease that weakens alveolar walls, such as COPD and necrotizing pneumonia. Mediastinal air accumulates and then decompresses into the subcutaneous tissues and the retroperiteoneal areas. Later, mediastinal pleura may rupture, resulting in a pneumothorax. The Hamman sign, a crunching sound synchronous with the cardiac cycle, is seen in 40% to 50% of patients with pneumomediastinum. When the pneumomediastinum extends caudally, it shows a so-called "continuous diaphragm sign." Treatment is usually conservative, with attempts to reduce airway resistance with bronchodilator therapy and minimize tidal volume and plateau pressure.
4
Place a chest tube
Change antibiotics
Perform an open thoracotomy
Continue management, minimizing volutrauma
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
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multi
Stage I seminoma testis, t/t of choice is
Ans. is 'b' i.e. high inguinal orchidectomy & radiotherapy Testicular Cancer - is mainly of two types - Germ cell tumors (GCT) 95% - Non germinal neoplasms -- 5% (includes leydig cells, seoli cells, gonadoblastoma) Germ cell tumors are of 2 types Seminomas (More common, better prognosis) Nonseminomas i.e. - Embryonal Ca Teratoma Choriocarcinoma Yalk sac (Endodermal sinus) Carcinoma Germ Cell Tumor Staging and Treatment Treatment Stage Extent of Disease Seminoma Nonseminoma IA Testis only, no vascular/ lymphatic invasion (TI) Radiation therapy RPLND or observation IB Testis only, with vascular/ lymphatic invasion (T2), or extension through tunica albuginea (T2), or involvement of spermatic cord (T3) or scrotum (T4) Radiation therapy RPLND HA Nodes <2 cm Radiation therapy RPLND or chemotherapy often followed by RPLND BE Nodes 2-5 cm Radiation therapy RPLND +/- adjuvant chemotherapy or chemotherapy followed by RPLND IIC Nodes >5 cm Chemotherapy Chemotherapy, often followed by RPLND III Distant metastases Chemotherapy Chemotherapy, often followed by surgery (biopsy or resection) RPLND : retroperitoneal lymph node dissection Extra gonadal Germ cell tumors --> Infrequently GCTs arise from an extra gonadal site. They have poor prognosis. They are treated by chemotherapy.
2
high inguinal orchidectomy
high inguinal orchidectomy & radiotherapy
radiotherapy and chemotherapy
trans-scrotal orchidectomy
Surgery
null
73c7c1b4-1696-4636-9a52-9e29221c2289
single
A child is presenting with erythmatous follicular papules on trunk. There are areas of normal skin within the lesions. There is thickening of Palms & soles. This child is suffering from -
Pityriaisis rubra pilaris is a rare chronic papulosquamous disorder characterised by 1. reddish orange scaly plaques 2.palmoplantar keratoderma 3.keratotic follicular papules etiology: unknown.sometimes autosomal dominantly in herited, hypovitaminosis A, HIV, hypogammaglobulinemia, staphlococcus are the predisposing factors. clinical features: 1.children <19 years and adults 40-60 years are commonly involved 2.small follicular pinkish yellow scaling papules coalese to form plaques. 3.reddish orange erythema is present 4.scalp: diffuse erythema and scaling 5. nutmeg grater - horny follicular papules on the back of proximal phalanges feel like a nutmeg grater 6.papules and plaques progress to erythroderma with islands of normal skin- nappes claires 7.palms and soles- hyperkeratosis with painful fissures with yellowish hue- PRP sandal histopathology- alternating ohokeratosis with parakeratosis in both veical and horizontal directions- Checker board pattern IADVL text book of dermatology, page 1020.
2
Pityriasis rosea
Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Psoriasis
Seborrheic dermatitis
Dental
Papulosquamous disorders
0315b260-b8b2-425c-95dc-7f7ea2bdaf5a
single
Long acting glucocorticoid is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dexamethasone Relative activity of systemic corticosteroids CompoundGlucoMineraloEquiv, dose (antiinflammatory)Short acting, (Biological t 1/2 < 32 hr)1. Hydrocortisone (cortisol)1120 mgIntermediate acting, (Biologiat t 1/2 12-36 hr)2. Prednisolone3. Methylprednisolone4. Triamcinolone4550[?]80[?]505 mg4 mg4 mgLong acting, (Biological t 1/2 > 36 hr)5. Dexamethasone6. Betamethasone2525000-75 mg0-75 mg Equiv, salt retaining dose2-5 mg(sublingual)0-2 mgnot used clinically7. Desoxvcortico- sterone acetate (DOCA)01008. Fludrocortisone101509. Aldosterone0-33000Remembero Zero mineralocorticoid activity - Triamcinolone, Paramethasone, Dexamethasone, Betamethasoneo Mineralocorticoid with zero glucocorticoid activity - DOCA (Deoxycorticoisterone acetate)o Most potent glucocorticoid - Betametasoneo Least potent glucocorticoid - Cortisoneo Maximum mineralocorticoid activity' - Aldosteroneo Maximum glucocorticoid activity' - Dexamethosone & Betametasone
1
Dexamethasone
Triamcenolone
Prednisolone
Hydrocortisone
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
aaeb6d26-5f23-44a4-83da-6a7aa350da50
single
Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram-negative organism
1. Swarming - Proteus has an ability to swarm (or spread) on solid media. They spread on the surface of the plate in successive waves to form a thin filmy layer in concentric circles. This is known as swarming. 2. Organism which swarm: Proteus, Clostridium tetani, V. parahemolyticus, and Serratia. Clostridium welchii - non motile Clostridium tetani - Gram positive Bacillus cereus- motile, gram positive rod Proteus mirabilis - peritrichous flagella
4
Clostridium welchii
Clostridium tetani
Bacillus cereus
Proteus mirabilis
Microbiology
General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria)
c6290e7d-f07e-4b04-b39d-7ea87ef62bb0
single
A 15 year old boy complains of jerky movements which gets precipitated during awakening in the morning. There is no history of loss of conciousness. EEG showed 4-6 / second spike and wave pattern. What is the child suffering from
Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy Seen in adolescence age group Myoclonic jerks seen in morning EEG: 4-6 / seconds spike and wave pattern.
2
Lennox Gestaut syndrome
Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
Rolandic epilepsy
West syndrome
Pediatrics
null
8891bb74-6edf-43dc-9e21-6ad598fe964a
single
CSF findings in a patient with tubercular meningitis: March 2012
Ans: C i.e. Raised protein, decreased glucose, increased lymphocytes Conditions and CSF findings Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with normal/slightly raised WBC, normal glucose and raised protein Viral meningitis presents with 10-2000 lymphocytes (normal 0-4 X 106/L), normal glucose and normal/increased protein Tubercular meningitis presents with 50-5000 lymphocytes, decreased glucose and increased protein Acute bacterial meningitis shows 1000-5000 polymorphs, decreased glucose and increased protein
3
Raised protein, normal glucose, increased WBC
Raised protein, normal glucose, increased lymphocytes
Raised protein, decreased glucose, increased lymphocytes
Raised protein, decreased glucose, increased neutrophils
Medicine
null
bd2080e7-ab89-41d4-a6d8-3eb214c64f20
single
Maximum refraction takes place between?
Tear film and cornea REF: khurana 4th ed page 26 "Maximum refraction in eye takes place between tear film and cornea"
2
Air tear film
Tear film and cornea
Cornea and aqueous
Aqueous lens
Ophthalmology
null
139b754d-2485-41e5-a43b-046e79438f79
single
The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is characterized by the following:
In SIADH, the excessive retention of water expands extracellular and intracellular volume. This explains Dilutional Hyponatremia. Since the urine is concentrated hence urine sodium mEq/unit of time can be explained. Another plausible explanation is that expanded volume leads to release of ANF and resultant natriuresis explains the urine sodium> 20mEq/L. Hyponatremia sub-classified according to volume status Clinical example Sodium levels TBW Hypovolemic Hyponatremia Diarrhea Cerebral salt wasting Low Low Euvolemic Hyponatremia SIADH Normal Increased Hypervolemic Hyponatremia CHF Cirrhosis Nephrotic Increase Increased
1
Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mEq/L
Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mEq/L
Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia and hyperkalemia
Medicine
Disorders of pituitary gland
25225f9b-a396-462b-a016-b49abdb97762
single
Epidemics of conjunctivitis are known to occur with:
Ans. Both of the above
4
Bacterial infections
Viral infections
None of the above
Both of the above
Ophthalmology
null
1c3f1734-4e3f-4900-b141-967ce4a3c04b
multi
Carha's notch in audiometery is seen in:
Carhas notchBone conduction is normal in otosclerosis.In some cases there is a dip in bone conduction curve which is maximum at 2000 Hz / 2 KHZ called as Carhas notch.Carhas notch is seen only in bone conduction curve.It disappears after successful stapedectomy/stapedotomy. The reason why it disappears after successful surgery is that when the skull is vibrated by bone--conduction sound, the sound is detected by the cochlea 3 routes:- Route (a)--is by direct vibration within the skull.- Route (b)--is by vibration of the ossicular chain which is suspended within the skull.- Route (c)--is by vibrations emanating into the external auditory canal as sound and being heard by the normal air-conduction route.In a conduction type of hearing loss (as in otosclerosis) the latter two routes are deficient but regained by successful reconstruction surgery. Hence bone conduction thresholds improve following surgery.
4
Ocular discontinuity
Haemotympanum
Otomycosis
Otosclerosis
ENT
null
b1eb7dca-e9db-4744-9dc9-f5062645f455
single
Ophthalmia nodosa occurs due to:
Ans. Irritation by hair of caterpillar
4
Leprotic conjunctivitis
Syphilitic conjunctivitis
Sarcoidosis conjunctivitis
Irritation by hair of caterpillar
Ophthalmology
null
2959ce58-7385-41fb-964b-e73393f0b7a6
single
A 35 year old female patient, Radha, having children aged 5 and 6 years has history of amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Blood examination reveals increased prolactin. The CT of the head is likely to reveal:
Patient with amenorrhea, galactorrhea and increased prolactin level give the diagnosis of prolactinoma which is the most common pituitary adenoma. Ref: Current Obs and Gynae Diagnosis and Treatment, 9th Edition, Page 152 ; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 1989 and 17th Edition, Pages 2200, 2206
1
Pituitary adenoma
Craniopharyngioma
Sheehan's syndrome
Pinealoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
57fc73bd-5cfe-4013-afd9-bb86b3c80b6f
single
Deficiency of GpIIb-IIIa results in which of the following condition?
Platelet activation by ADP triggers a conformational change in the platelet GpIIb-IIIa receptors that induces binding to fibrinogen, a large protein that forms bridging interactions between platelets that promote platelet aggregation. Predictably, inherited deficiency of GpIIb-IIIa results in a bleeding disorder (Glanzmann thrombasthenia). Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 4.
1
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
Wiskot Aldrich syndrome
Bernard Soulier syndrome
None of the above
Pathology
null
2e71ccfe-35d3-4649-85f1-5eca337047ae
multi
What is the minimum recommended consumption level of PUFA by the WHO/ FAO expe group on diet, nutrition and prevention of chronic diseases?
As per the WHO/ FAO expe group recommendation, the following ranges have been decided: Total fat in diet: 15-30% Saturated fatty acids< 10% PUFAs 6-10% O-3 fatty acids: 1-2% O-6 fatty acids: 5-8% Trans fatty acids < 1% Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 565.
2
5%
6%
8%
10%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c75147a4-25eb-4f14-ac92-ba8d654ea2d2
single
"Sundowning" is seen in :
Sundowning is seen in cases of Delirium as worsening of symptons occur in the evening.
3
Night blindness
Parkinsonism
Delirium
Solar urticaria
Psychiatry
null
5945a759-c961-49ab-8a95-0f1ef53c3f14
single
If a parenteral needle stick injury/ occurs in a Health Care Worker dealing with AIDS patient; which of the following are necessary?
(C) Zidovudine (AZT) prophylaxis to health care worker # Treatment of Needle stick injury of a health care worker: Immediately clean the contaminated area by washing under running water# Post exposure prophylaxis should be started within 1 hour of injury Zidovudine 250 mg BD- for 1 month Lamivudine 150 mg BD-- Indinavir 800 mg TID- > Hepatitis prophylaxis should also be given> HIV test should be repeated approx 12 wks after contaminated determine whether seroconversion has occured.> Post exposure prophylaxis with zidovudine and lamivudine is necessary.> Wound should be cleansed immediately and antiseptic applied> Postexposure prophylaxis 2 nucleoside analonuge reverse transcriptase inhibitor X 4 week or combination of 2 nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase Inhibitor + a protease inhibitor for 4 weeks
3
Serial serological testing of the source person
Serial serological testing of the healthcare worker
Zidovudine (AZT) prophylaxis to health care worker
Wash the part with soap and water
Surgery
Miscellaneous
976c93c2-7f6d-4d22-adf9-f63686dff1bb
single
ACTH secretion is highest during -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Morning o Coisol levels in blood are normally elevated at 8.00 AM and decrease to less than 50% by midnight.
3
Noon
Evening
Morning
Night
Pediatrics
null
419398f2-e09d-4255-9baa-dc6c91ce22df
single
Renal aery stenosis is caused by all except
Renal aery stenosis: aCauses- Atherosclerotic disease(most common cause) - Fibromuscular Dysplasia(FMD) - Extrinsic compression of the vessel a It is considered a specifically treatable "secondary" cause of hypeension a Pathogenesis: Critical levels of stenosis - reduction in perfusion pressure - Activation of the renin-angiotensin system and sympathetic adrenergic pathways - systemic hypeensiona LVH and renal fibrosis (later stages) a Renal aery stenosis is also labelled ischemic nephropathy; ARAS and SHT tend to affect both the poststenotic and contralateral kidneys, reducing overall (GFR) in ARAS Fibromuscular Dysplasia(FMD Atherosclerotic renal aery stenosis (ARAS) - Occurs in 3-5% of normal subjects - Presents clinically with hypeension in younger individuals (age 15-50), most often women. - lesions are frequently bilateral and, tend to affect more distal poions of the renal aery. - Usually does not affect kidney function, but may cause total occlusion and can be associated with renal aery aneurysms - Common in the general population, prevalence increases with age and in patients with CAD, PAD. - obstruction most commonly at the origin - If untreated may progress to total occlusion in 50% cases - It is a strong predictor of morbidity- and moality-related cardiovascular events a Evaluation: -Captopril renography with technetium 99m Tc meiatide (99mTc MAG3) a Normal study excludes renovascular hypeension-Nuclear imaging with technetium meiatide or technetium-labelled pentetic acid (DTPA)a Allows calculation of single-kidney GFR -Duplex ultrasonographyaInexpensive, non-invasive - Magnetic resonance angiographyaExpensive; not nephrotoxic but gadolinium toxicity excludes use in GFR<30 ml/min, unable to visualize stented vessels -computed tomographic angiographyaExpensive, potentially nephrotoxic, stents do not cause aefacts -Intra-aerial angiographyaConsidered "gold standard" for diagnosis of large vessel disease; Expensive, associated risk of atheroemboli, contrast toxicity, procedure-related complications, e.g., dissection a Treatment: -blockade of the renin-angiotensin system, attainment of goal blood pressures, cessation of tobacco, statins, and aspirin -percutaneous transluminal renal angioplasty (PTRA) (for FMD), endovascular stenting or surgical renal revascularization(for ARAS) Ref: Harrison's 18/e p2048
4
Atherosclerosis
Fibromuscular dysplasia
Takayasu aeritis
Buerger's disease
Medicine
All India exam
1140f8ca-3b4d-40b0-b4c4-da70d0780f3e
multi
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is
It is due to reactivation of herpes in ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve.
2
Reactivation of herpes in optic nerve
Reactivation of herpes in trigeminal nerve
Reactivation of herpes in occulomotor nerve
herpes in immunocompromised
Microbiology
null
5debd42c-8272-4117-b56d-5343e3ea078e
single
Pulmonary hypertension in COPD is due toa) Constriction of pulm vesselsb) Hypoxiac) Interstitial fibrosisd) Bronchoconstriction
null
1
ab
a
ad
bc
Medicine
null
7d8c7885-5afd-41dc-8f4a-eb611ac04fc5
single
A male patient presents with headache, profuse sweating and palpitations with a blood prssure of 180/120 mmHg. The drug of choice would be -
Answer- D. Phenoxy benzamineSymptoms of the patient suggests pheochromocytoma .The drug of choice for pheochromocytomas is phenoxybenzamine
4
Nifedipine
Labetalol
Prazocin
Phenoxy benzamine
Medicine
null
1b1fbe73-6d4c-46c0-aeb5-59a5a67c69e3
single
Feature of a NiTi file that a surface project axially from the central core to the cutting edge between the flutes is known as:
Land: It is the area between the flutes which projects axially from central core to the cutting edge. Rake angle: It is the angle formed by leading-edge with the radius of file. Acute angle is considered as a negative rake angle and obtuse angle is  considered as a positive rake angle. Taper: It signifies per millimeter increase in file diameter from the tip towards handle of file. Pitch: It is the distance between two cutting edges. A file with short pitch has more flutes when compared to file with longer pitch.
2
Taper
Land
Pitch
Rake angle
Dental
null
146e5d08-2d13-45b3-b222-5f8971e62365
multi
WHO Malaria Mass Drug Administration –
First you should know what does mass prophylaxis mean in malaria. In areas with high malaria prevalence, presumptive treatment is given to all people. This is know as mass treatment. Presumptive treatment is given when API is >2
2
API >5
> 2
15
25
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
50283d71-2ff0-4491-bbe2-ab83b38c0256
single
A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe pallor. Investigation showed Hb-3.8 mg%; MCV-58 fl; MCH-19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
This child is having microcytic (MCV-58Fl), hypochromic(MCHC-19.4pg/cell) anemia with normal osmotic fragility. This is suggestive of iron deficiency anemia (Normal Hb at this age is 12g/dL, MCV is 78 fL). Severe iron deficiency will produce bizzare peripheral blood smear with severely hypochromic cells, target cells, hypochromic pencil shaped cells and occasionally small number of nucleated red blood cells. Ref: O P Ghai Essential Pediatrics, 6th Edition, Pages 300-302
1
Iron deficiency anemia
Acute lymphoblastic anemia
Hemoglobin D disease
Hereditary spherocytosis
Pediatrics
null
068c6274-bd22-4e30-86f2-1bd02f12411a
multi
All are major criteria for AIDS except-
null
3
10% weight loss
Diarrhoea for 1 month
Cough for 1 month
Fever for 1 month
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b9203ca3-6daf-41d6-adfc-639bcaef35f1
multi
Secondary attack rate is defined as-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Number of cases developing disease within incubation period following exposure to primary case * SAR is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary case".SAR=No of exposed persons developing disease within the range of the incubation period----------------------------------------Total number of exposed/susceptible contactx 100
2
Number of total cases developing disease within maximum incubation period
Number of case developing disease within incubation period following exposure to primary care
Number of cases developing diseare after exposure to primary case in any period of time
Number of cases developing after exposure to secondary case
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
b19cf9e7-cc26-4aa8-be45-7b6717d85164
single
Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as per which schedule: September 2005
Ans. C: 0, 1, 6 months The dose for the adult is 10-20 micrograms initially and again at 1 and 6 months. Children under 10 years should be given half of the adult doses at the same intervals or at 6, 10 and 14 weeks as per Indian National Immunization Schedule. For greater reliability of absorption, deltoid is the preferred for injection as gluteal injection often results in deposition of the vaccine in fat rather than in muscle. For Children under 2 years of age, anterolateral aspect of thigh is used as vaccination site.
3
0,1,6 days
0,1,6 weeks
0,1,6 months
0,1,6 years
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
4c6f5de1-747d-4d45-b21e-af05452477a3
single
A 5 year old boy comes with overnight petechial spots 2 weeks back he had history of abdominal pain and no hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura Petechial spots without hepatosplenomegaly in a 5 year old boy suggest the diagnosis of ITP. About other options Acute leukemia o Acute leukemia will give features of involvement of all the three lineages i.e. anemia (erythrocyte involvement) fever (due to neutrophil involvement) bleeding (due to platelet involvement) Moreover splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy are usually present in Acute leukemias. Aplastic anemia o Aplastic anemia too will present with features, characteristic of involvement of all the three lineages i.e. severe anemia, fever bleeding.
3
Aute lymphatic leukemia
Aplastic anemia
Idiopathic thrombocytopenis purpura
Acute viral infection
Pediatrics
null
a4cb0c0b-24db-47ac-be8e-bb580a2ab19d
single
All of the following steps in synthesis of thyroid hormones is catalysed by thyroid peroxidase enzyme except
Iodide trapping is not catalysed by thyroid peroxidase. Oxidation, organification and coupling are catalysed by it. Steps in synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormone: Thyroglobulin synthesis by thyroid follicular cells Iodide trapping:Na+ - I- sympoer (NIS) actively transpos I- into the follicular cells. This is inhibited by thiocyanate and perchlorate anions and is stimulated by TSH. Iodide is transpoed into the lumen of the follicle by I -- Cl- transpoer called Pendrin. Oxidation of I- to I2 catalysed by the thyroid peroxidase (TPO). Organoification/ Iodination of tyrosine residues of thyroglobuli: Binding of I2 to tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin to form MIT (monoiodotyrosine) and DIT (Diiodotyrosine). Catalysed by TPO. Coupling reaction mediated by TPO: MIT+DIT - T3, DIT - T4. Storage and release: T3 and T4 are stored bound to thyroglobulin. When stimulated, they are cleaved from thyroglobulin and released into the circulation. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 951
4
Coupling
Oxidation
Organification
Iodide trapping
Physiology
Endocrinology
ff403e70-2be9-4b48-8f2d-7c621ad70dfb
multi
Largest lymphoid organ is
(B) Spleen [BDC II4-279# Largest lymphatic organ in the human body is the spleen.> Primary function of the spleen is to purify the blood and store blood cells.> It helps the immune system identify and combat foreign antibodies.> Spleen consists of white pulp and red pulp.> White pulp generates blood cells and synthesizes antibodies, and the red pulp removes old blood cells and filters the blood.
2
Liver
Spleen
Thymus
Kidney
Anatomy
Misc.
e91e7fd1-be6f-4a7d-b9b8-378944a3e01d
single
Which of the following tumor does have perineural spread?
Perineural spread from head and neck tumors most commonly occurs with squamous cell carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma. Perineural spread most commonly involves cranial nerve V (all three divisions may be involved) and may be retrograde (toward the brain) or anterograde (toward the orbit). Perineural tumor extension is also seen in lymphoma, melanoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and malignant nerve sheath tumors. To know - CN VII is the second most common cranial nerve affected by perineural invasion. Ref: Ophthalmic Oncology edited by Bita Esmaeli, 2010, Page 359; Textbook of dermatologic surgery by Rusciani Robins, Luigi Rusciani, Perry Robins, Page 454.
4
Wahin's tumor
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Mixed tumors
Adenoid cystic tumor
Surgery
null
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What type of joint is the growth plate
Epiphysis & diaphysis of bone is connected by growth plate/ epiphyseal plate It is made up of hyaline cailage Epiphyseo-diaphyseal joint is primary cailaginous joint called synchondrosis
2
Fibrous
Primary cailaginous
Secondary cailaginous
Plane joint
Anatomy
Osteology
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In newborn the most common cause of intestinal obstruction is
null
3
Annular pancreas
Esophageal atresia
Duodenal atresia
Jejunal atresia
Surgery
null
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Which one of the following is not included in the treatment of malignant melanoma-
null
1
Radiation
Surgical excision
Chemotherapy
Immunotherapy
Surgery
null
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A sign of Aphakia ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Iridodonesis Aphakia Aphakia refers to absence of crystalline lens from the eye. Most common cause of aphakia is surgical removal of cataractous lens. Other causes are congenital absence of lens, traumatic absorption of lens matter and posterior dislocation of lens. The typical signs of aphakia are deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis (tremulousness of iris) and a dark pupillary reflex. Only 1st and 2nd Purkinje images are present, 3rd and 4th are absent. As the lens is not there, eye become highly hypermetropic. Therefore, principle of treatment is to correct the error by convex lenses of appropriate power. Intraocular lens implantation in posterior chamber is the treatment of choice. Other treatment modalities are spectacles and contact lenses.
4
Shallow anterior chamber
White pupillary reflex
Absent 1st & 2nd Purkinje images
Iridodonesis
Ophthalmology
null
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Ramsted's operation is for -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Congenital pyloric stenosis
4
Duodenal atresia
Volvulus of small intestine
Anorectal malformation
Congenital pyloric stenosis
Surgery
null
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All are true about normal response curve except:
Ans: C (SD=0) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Mediciner K Park,21st edition feb 2011.page no:788.Explanation:The standard normal curve : smooth,bell shaped.perfectly symmetrical curve (based on infinitely large number of observations).Total area of curve=lMean=0SD=1Mean, median and mode all coincides.
3
Bell shaped
Total area of curve=l
SD = 0
Mean, mode, median coincide
Social & Preventive Medicine
Measures of Central Tendency and Distribution
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Pseudo buboes are found in -
Ans-C
3
Chancroid
LGV
Granuloma inguinale
All of the above
Unknown
null
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Facial nerve is injured during parotid surgery. Best management -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Immediate repair o Iatrogenic facial nerve injury' is most common after mastridctomy. When this occurs interoperatively, it is explaned. Injury' to greater than 50% of the neural diameter of facial nerve is addressed either with primary reanestomosis or reconstructed with the use of a nerve graft.o Reconstruction with nerve graft (aka cable grafting) is done using either. The greater auricular nerve or sural nerve as donar.
1
Immediate repair
Repair at a later date
Physiotherapy
Nothing
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Salivary Gland)
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Cystic fibrosis is associated with all except -
Ref:Textbook of pathology (harsh mohan)6th edition, page no.645 Cystic Fibrosis Cystic fibrosis of the pancreas or fibrocystic disease is a hereditary disorder characterised by viscid mucous secretions in all the exocrine glands of the body (mucoviscidosis) and associated with increased concentrations of electrolytes in the eccrine glands. The terms 'cystic fibrosis' and 'fibrocystic disease' are preferable over 'mucoviscidosis' in view of the main pathologic change of fibrosis produced as a result of obstruction of the passages by viscid mucous secretions. The disease is transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait with apparent clinical features in homozygotes only. The defect is a genetic mutation in CFTR gene, acronym for coding protein for cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator located on chromosome 7. It is quite common in the whites (1 per 2000 livebihs). The clinical manifestations may appear at bih or later in adolescence and peain to multiple organs and systems such as pancreatic insufficiency, intestinal obstruction, steatorrhoea, malnutrition,azoospermia,nasal polyps, hepatic cirrhosis and respiratory complications
4
Infeility
Azoospermia
Nasal polyps
Renal failure
Pathology
Respiratory system
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Nucleus of basal ganglia
Ans. (c) Caudate(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.243)Basal ganglia nuclei are,#Caudate and Putamen#Globus pallidus#Substantia nigra#Subthalamic nucleus
3
Dentate
Thalamus
Caudate
Red nucleus
Physiology
Nervous System
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Time of ovulation is detected by all EXCEPT:September 2012
Ans. B i.e. Urine FSHPhysiologyBest predictor of ovulation: Pre-ovulatory rise in LHIn normal menstrual cycle, progesterone is secreted by: Corpus luteumInhibin is secreted by: Graffian follicleLH precedes ovulation by: 24 hours (Ovulation coincides with LH surge)Ovulatory period: Corresponds to 14 days before next menstruationFSH stimulates: Growth of granulosa cells (measure of ovarian reserve)LH stimulates: Follicle rupture and ovulation.
2
Urine LH
Urine FSH
Serum progesterone
Basal body temperature
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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The most common site for hypeensive bleed is?
Answer is C (Putamen): The putamen (Basal Ganglia) is the most common site for hypeensive haemorrhage External capsule refers to a thin layer of white matter that separates the lateral pa of lentiform nucleus (putamen) from claustrum and is invariably damaged along with the putamen.
3
Pons
Putamen
Frontal lobe
Thalamus
Medicine
null
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The intercondylar distance can be adjusted in the
null
3
Hanau H2 articulator
Hanau arcon H2 articulator
Whipmix articulator
Mean value articulator
Dental
null
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The time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and appearance of the first sign or symptoms of the disease is
(B) Incubation period # Incubation period:> "The time interval between invasion by on infectious agents and appearance of the first sign or symptom of the disease in question"> Generation time:> It is the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host. In general generation time is largely equal to the incubation period.> Serial Interval: It is the gap in time between the onset of primary case and the secondary case. Serial Interval also helps us to guess the incubation period.> Latent Period: Is used in non-infectious diseases as the equivalent to incubation period in infectious disease regarding period of communicability. It is the time during which a disease is communicable i.e. can be transferred from one agent to another. "'As a rule infectious disease are not communicable during the incubation periods but there are certain exceptions as for example measles chickenpox whooping cough and hepatitis are communicable during the later part of incubation period" So Period of communicability is not a proxy of Incubation period.> The communicable period is defined as 'the time during which an infectious agent may be transferred directly or indirectly from an infected person to another person.'> The period of communicability bears absolutely no relation to the incubation period, and merely reflects the duration when the infectious agent may be transferred.> This may occur during the incubation period or during the actual illness.
2
Generation time
Incubation period
Lead time
Latent period
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
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A 51-year-old complains of abdominal pain of 2-month duration. A CT scan of the patient's abdomen is shown. An angiogram indicates that several arteries of the gastrointestinal tract are occluded due to atherosclerosis, producing bowel ischemia. Which of the following arteries is most likely occluded in the CT scan?
(c) Source: GAS 336; GA 147, 160 The arrows in the CT scan point to the descending colon. Therefore, the left colic artery, which supplies the descending colon, is the one most likely occluded in the CT scan. The middle colic, right colic, and ileocolic artery supply the ascending colon, and the marginal artery provides an anastomosis between branches of the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery.
3
Middle colic
Right colic
Left colic
Iliocolic
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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Pick up the wrong type of Cell in myelodysplastic syndrome
Ringed sideroblasts with iron laden mitochrondria P. Seudo - pelger - Huet → Neutrophics with only two lobes Pawn Ball megakaryocytes - megakaryocytes with multiple nuclei Threre are three type of cells found in MDS.
2
Ringed Siduoblasts
Megakaryocytes with normal single multilobulated nuclei
P - seudo - pelger - Huet
Pawn - Ball megakaryocytes.
Pathology
null
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A man comes with aphasia, is unable to name things and repetition is poor. However, comprehension, fluency and aiculation are unaffected. He is probably suffering from
A patient with conduction aphasia presents with inability to name things and poor repetition of language. These features are evident in other conditions as well but since the comprehension is good, it's not a case of Wernicke's and on the other hand intact fluency rules out Broca's aphasia Ref: Gray's39e/p-518
3
Anomic aphasia
Transcoical sensory aphasia
Conduction aphasia
Broca's aphasia
Anatomy
Brain
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Treatment of retained CBD stone is?
Endoscopic Sphincterotomy REF: Maingot's 10th e p. 1746 Retained stone: stones diagnosed sholy after cholecystectomy Recurrent stone: diagnosed months or years after Treatment of retained stones: Found on T tube cholangiogram Removal of stones radiologically after maturation of T tube tract after 4 weeks Treatment of recurrent CBD stones Endoscopic sphincterotomy is treatment of choice since T tube is not present after 4 weeks In unsuccessful cases ESWL has proven beneficial
1
Endoscopic Sphincterotomy
Laparoscopic CBD exploration
Percutaneous stone extraction
ESWL
Surgery
null
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The secretomotor fibres supplying lacrimal gland relay in:
null
2
Otic ganglion
Pterygopalatine ganglion
Submaxillary ganglion
None of the above
Anatomy
null
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Obstructive sleep apnea may result in all of the following except?
OSAHS raises 24-hour mean blood pressure. The increase is greater in those with recurrent nocturnal hypoxemia and is at least 4-5 mmHg. The resultant hypoxia also leads to pulmonary aery constriction leading to PAH. Other effects of OSAHS- Personality and mood changes, depression and anxiety, sexual dysfunction- impotence and decreased libido, gastroesophageal reflux. Atrial fibrillation and stroke are also repoed.
3
Systemic hypeension
Pulmonary hypeension
Hea block
Impotence
Medicine
Cystic fibrosis & Sleep apnea
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Type of anaemia caused by pulmonaryTB -
<p>Pulmonary TB causes anemia of chronic disorder .In anemia of chronic disorder, the type of anemia is normocytic normochromic, but may have slight microcytosis & hypochromia.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 302.</p>
4
Iron-deficiency
Megaloblastic
Sideroblastic
Microcytic Hypochromic anaemia
Medicine
Haematology
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Illuminated frenzel glasses are used in detecting-
Frenzel goggles are a diagnostic tool used in ophthalmology, otolaryngology and audiovestibular medicine for the medical evaluation of involuntary eye movement (nystagmus). They are named after Frenzel, a German physician Ref AK khurana 6/e p515
1
Nystagmus
Heterophoria
Esotropia
Astigmatism
Ophthalmology
Neuro-ophthalmology
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True about mosquito preventive nets are all except?
Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Best pattern is circular The best pattern of mosquito net is the rectangular net.There should not be a single rent in the net.The Size of openings in the net is of utmost impoance, the size should not exceed 0.0475 inch in any diameter.The number of holes in one square inch in usually 150..
3
Hole size < 0.0475
150 holes per square inch
Best pattern in circular
There should be no rent
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Vitamin E toxicity causes
(A) Reduce platelet aggregation # Vitamin E Toxicity:> It is likely that patients with vitamin E toxicity have been using vitamin E supplements; obtain the dose and duration of vitamin E usage. Assess concurrent use of anticoagulants or aspirin.> A nutritional assessment for vitamin K deficiency is useful in patients who present with bleeding or an elevated PT.> Effects of acute vitamin E toxicity include the following: Nausea; Gastric distress; Abdominal cramps; Diarrhea; Headache; Fatigue.> Easy bruising and bleeding - Prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).> Inhibition of platelet aggregation: Diplopia - At dosages as low as 300 IU; Muscle weakness; Creatinuria.> Chronic toxicity effects include all of the above, suppression of other antioxidants, and increased risk of hemorrhagic stroke.
1
Reduce platelet aggregation
Polyneuropathy
Spinocerebellar ataxia
Retrolental fibroplasia
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
Which condition doctor is passive -
In psychoanalysis (classical psychoanalysis) the therapist remains passive, whereas in psychoanalytic psychotherapy therapist talks quite a lot.
1
Classical psychoanalysis
Psychoanalytic psycoanalysis
Both
None
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Vascular dementia is characterised by all except
Dementia is a chronic organic mental disorder, characterized by the following main clinical features: 1. Impairment of intellectual functions, 2. Impairment of memory (predominantly of recent memory, especially in early stages), 3. Deterioration of personality with lack of personal care. Reference: A sho textbook of Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, page no.22.
1
Visual hallucination
Memory deficit
Emotional liability
None of the above
Psychiatry
Organic mental disorders
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Drug used in heparin overdose is
Refer Katzung 11/e p 593 Protamine sulfate is antidote of heparin overdose whereas vitamin K is used as antidote for warfarin toxicity
1
Protamine sulfate
Phylloquinone
Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel
Pharmacology
Respiratory system
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The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage Is
*Subarachnoid hemorrhage commonly,but exclusively results from rupture of congenital berry aneurysms in the interpeduncular cistern . Subarachnoid haemorrhage, a medical emergency, is usually from a bulging blood vessel that bursts in the brain (aneurysm). It may lead to permanent brain damage or death if not treated promptly Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567
3
Aerio-venous malformation
Cavernous angioma
Aneurysm
Hypeension
Medicine
C.N.S
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single
Which one of the following is a cyanotic congenital hea disease ?
TOF is a cyanotic hea disease. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:420
4
Patent ductus aeriosus
Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot
Pediatrics
C.V.S
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