lighteval/med_mcqa · Datasets at Hugging Face

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Transverse fracture of maxilla is ?	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Le Fo-1 It is classified into 3 types : ? Le Fo I (transverse) fracture runs above and parallel to the plate. It crosses lower pa of nasal septum, maxillary antra and the pterygoid plates. Le Fo II (pyramidal) fracture passes through the root of nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper pa of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates. This fracture has some features common with the zygomatic fractures. Le Fo III (craniofacial dysfunction). There is complete separation of facial bones from the cranial bones. The fracture line passes through root of nose, ethmofrontal junction, superior orbital fissure, lateral wall of orbit, frontozygomatic and temporozygomatic sutures and the upper pa of pterygoid plates.	1	Le Fo-1	Le Fo-2	Le Fo-3	Cranifacial disruction	ENT	null	6b6b54ac-204c-4755-b0d8-b6ae65395370	single
O2 release to tissue is affected by all except	Ans: c (Bicarbonate) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/p.667O2 release to tissue depends on oxygen dissociation curve.Shift of oxygen dissociation curve depends upon 2,3 - DPG pH and globin chain.	3	2,3-DPG	pH	Bicarbonate	Globin chain	Physiology	Respiratory System	8ade7c18-5c92-448d-86e8-4ba343bf981d	multi
The proseal LMA has advantage over normal LMA	Advantage of proseal LMA over classical LMA is that it is comparable to ETT in preventing aspiration. The PLMA shows several modifications from the cLMA: The drain tube runs through the device from the tip to the proximal end. When the PLMA is correctly positioned, the tip of the device forms a high-pressure seal with the oesophageal inlet and the drain tube runs in continuity with the oesophageal lumen . oesophageal drain tube posterior inflatable cuff reinforced airway tube integral bite block introducer this reduces the risk of aspiration and hence may be suitable in non-supine positions (e.g., lateral, prone), in laparoscopic surgery (e.g., cholecystectomy, gynecological surgery), and in patients who are obese.	2	In being more easy to inse	Comparable to endotracheal tube in preventing aspiration	Can be inseed in concious patient.	Can be used for pulmonary toileting	Anaesthesia	Airway	3d59a333-060b-40c9-bff7-a9b96c70142a	single
Which among the following fluoroquinolone has longest half-life?	Among the given options, the drug with longest half life is moxifloxacin (around 12 hours) but overall longest acting is sparfloxacin. Half-life of fluoroquinolones Drug Half Life Drug Half Life Ciprofloxacin 4 hours Norfloxacin 3 hours Gatifloxacin 7-8 hours Levofloxacin 7-8 hours Lomefloxacin 8 hours Moxifloxacin 12-15 hours Ofloxacin 8-9 hours Sparfloxacin 18-20 hours Grepafloxacin 12-15 hours Trovafloxacin 12 hours	4	Levofloxacin	Lomefloxacin	Ciprofloxacin	Moxifloxacin	Pharmacology	Antimetabolites and Quinolones	e6711124-803e-494d-9cfd-f859cf46820c	single
Regarding fovea, which of the following statements is true –a) Has the lowest threshold for lightb) Contains only conesc) Contains only rodsd) Maximum visual acuitye) Is located at apex of optic nerve	Fovea centralis contains only cones; therefore, has maximum visual acuity and lowest threshold for light. Option d is absurd as there is no apex in the optic nerve. It is orbital apex where the optic nerve enters the eye socket.	4	acd	bcd	abc	abd	Ophthalmology	null	40ece149-0759-4f56-b6e2-3ee20c6fdc14	multi
Sprue should ideally be made of	null	4	Inlay wax	plastic rod	Hollow plastic	hollow metal	Dental	null	6f984290-fd4b-414f-8f2d-1a9c10b1ed00	multi
Serotonin is:	Ans. B. 5 Hydroxytryptamine5 Hydroxy Tryptophan is decarboxylated by Aromatic aminoacid decarboxylase to form 5 Hydroxytryptamine or Serotonin. Coenzyme is PLP.	2	5 Hydroxy tryptophan	5 Hydroxy tryptamine	5 Carboxy tryptamine	5 Carboxy tryptophan	Biochemistry	Proteins and Amino Acids	91945f21-0fb3-43da-9d38-9f519ba9b10f	single
Which of the following is more common in children?	Recent recognition that periodontal disease may have its origins in childhood has led dentists to be more aggressive in treatment. Studies confirm a high prevalence of gingival inflammation in children. Reference: McDONALD AND AVERY’S DENTISTRY for the CHILD and ADOLESCENT, 10th ed page no 243	1	Gingivitis	Periodontitis	ANUG	Pericoronitis	Dental	null	71acfd4f-4900-4977-9268-d68a1b2c28a6	single
Irreversible cell injury is characterised by which of the following?	The two key features of irreversible injury are: Inability to reverse mitochondrial dysfunction and Development of profound disturbances in the membrane function	1	Mitochondrial densities	Cellular swelling	Blebs	Myelin figures	Pathology	null	08ff3f4e-97f2-4bf6-9b3d-4a7ff7c611e1	single
Maternal viremia most commonly spreading to fetus in utero:	Ans. (a) CMV Ref. Nelson 17/e, p 568, 623, 626, 631 Transplacental transmission occure in Viruses Rubella CMV HSV Varicella zoster virus Parvo B - 19 Coxasackie viruses HIV West nile virus Coxasackie viruses HBV and HCV Measles Bacteria Syphilis TB Brucella Parasite Plasmodium T. cruzi Microsporidia Toxoplasma	1	CMV	Rubella	HIV	Herpes	Microbiology	null	2fe7a87c-de23-4c20-96be-8c951488f6ad	single
Injury to cervical sympathetic trunk produces Horner's syndrome, that includes all, except	Injury to cervical Symphathetic trunk (which are formed by T1 to T4 fibres of spinal cord) produces Horner's syndrome. It is characterized by • ptosis (dropping of the upper eyelid) • miosis (constriction of pupil) • anhydrosis (loss of sweating) • enophthalmos (retraction of eye ball)	4	Anhydrosis	Enopthalmos	Ptosis	Mydriasis	Anatomy	null	239371f7-936d-46de-a526-d9249676a2a4	multi
Not a criteria of J.R.A (Juvenile Rheumatoid Ahritis)	. juvenile Rheumatoid ahritis : age should be below 16 yrs Ref : Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 625	1	Age > 16 yrs	Ahritis > 3 wks	Ahritis > 6 months	1 or more joint involvement	Pediatrics	Musculoskeletal disorders	1ad4153a-e3ce-4628-b857-68a3a18fee13	single
The disease associated with miss folded proteins is:	Prions disease is produced due to miss folded proteins Most common type of prions disease is: creutzfeldt-jakob disease Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:10,11,12	2	Typhoid	Prions disease	Cholera	All	Anatomy	General anatomy	791a3030-3087-498e-8eef-8a31521eb2cc	multi
Slapped cheek appearance is caused by -	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Parvo virus DiseaseI.P.ProdromeRashOther diagnostic featureo Roseola Infantum (6th disease) caused byHHV-610-14 daysFever (3-4 days)o Pink macular rash appearing at the end of illness,o Resolves within 2 dayso It spares the faceo Usually occur in children between 2-6 yrs. of ageRubella14-21 daysUsually Noneo Mild maculo popular Rash, Rapidly spreads and gone by day 4o Postauricular & sub- occipital adenopathyo PolyarthralgiaErythema infectiosum (Fifth disease) caused by Parovirus13-18 daysNoneo Slapped cheek appearanceo Reticular rash that waxes & wanes over 3 wkso In 50% children rash remains after 10 dayso May cause Aplastic crisisMeasles10-14 dayFever (4 days)o Maculopapular rash begins behind ear and spread rapidly in a few hour over the face and neck extends down the body rash lasts for 1 weeko Koplik test	1	Parvo virus	Measles	Rubella	HHV-6	Skin	Skin Lesions And Disorders Of Pigmentation	03845b05-1c45-48d5-84dd-ac44a96963de	single
Which of the following is also known as collateral ligament?	The collateral ligaments attach the medial and lateral borders of articular disc to the poles of condyles and are commonly called as discal ligaments.	2	Sphenomandibular ligament	Discal ligament	Stylomandibular ligament	Lateral ligament	Dental	null	92611dda-1895-41f9-b449-1b76585b3c8c	single
Urinary bladder spasmolytic having local anaesthetic propey-	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Oxybutynin o Oxybutynin, a newer antimuscarinic, has high affinity for receptors in urinary bladder and salivary glands alongwith additional smooth muscle relaxant and local anaesthetic propeies.	3	Tamsulosin	Terazosin	Oxybutynin	Yohimbine	Pharmacology	null	4b0b6bd9-2ca7-4623-af4b-816360c47cfc	single
When subcondylar fractures on protrusion of mandible it deviates to	null	1	Same side	Opposite side	Does not move	retrudes	Surgery	null	c44825c7-ab2e-469d-b8b8-dcf0e31e4923	single
The drug of choice for the treatment of Pneumocystis jirovei (Pneumocystis carini) pneumonia is	Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is characterised by progressive dyspnoea with dry cough and fever.Chest X ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrate spreading out from hilar regions.High resolution CT scan is more sensitive,showing 'ground-glass' interstitial infiltrates.Diagnosis is made with silver stains,PCR,immunofluorescence of bronchoalveolar lavage(BAL)/induced sputum.Treatment is with high dose co-trimoxazole;together with adjunctive steroids if the patient is hypoxic. Reference: Davidson edition23rd pg 584	2	Lamivudine	Co-trimoxazole	Doxycycline	Itraconazole	Medicine	Respiratory system	8426170a-cc44-429e-8695-2644b4e796e2	single
Ewings sarcoma arises from:	Ewings sarcoma is a neuro ectodermal tumor.	3	Totipoetent cells	Blastemal cells	Neuroectodermal cells	Mesodermal cells	Pathology	null	5247fd89-39cd-4541-b787-f47e1486a5fc	single
Antidote of methyl alcohol poisoning is:	Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase & drug of choice for methanol poisoning by retarding its metabolism . Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed.	2	Barbiturate	Fomepizole	Phenytoin	Phenytoin	Pharmacology	Central Nervous system	754cab04-42ca-46f2-974b-5e65434b465d	single
A 5-year-old boy presents with ear pain and fever. The left eardrum is inflamed with a small perforation in it and pus is seen in the external canal. A swab of the area grows S. pneumoniae. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for S. pneumoniae to cause otitis media?	Infections of the middle ear, trachea, sinuses, bronchi, and lungs are caused by direct spread from nasopharyngeal colonization. Disease of the CNS, heart valves, bones, joints, and peritoneal are usually caused by hematogenous dissemination.	2	hematogenous spread	direct extension from the nasopharynx	direct inoculation on the ear	spread through lymphatic tissue	Medicine	Infection	d245bd4e-08eb-48b0-83f4-6edef3e91240	multi
Coombs test is:	Ans. is 'b' i.e., Agglutination test(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 109 and 8th/e, p. 108)* Coombs test (antiglobulin test or anti - Rh antibody test) is an agglutination test.* The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies that are stuck to the surface of red blood cells. Many diseases and drugs can cause this. These antibodies sometimes destroy red blood cells and cause anemia. Your doctor may order this test if you have signs or symptoms of anemia or jaundice.* The indirect Coombs test looks for free-flowing antibodies against certain red blood cells. It is most often done to determine if you may have a reaction to a blood transfusion.	2	Precipitation test	Agglutination test	CFT	Neutralization test	Microbiology	Immunology	07e304b2-6c82-4e59-a243-9704b8fb8e33	single
Live attenuated microorganisms are used in the following type of vaccine for the production of immunity:	Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine is the only widely used live bacterial vaccine. It consists of living bacteria derived from an attenuated bovine strain of tubercle bacilli. The bacilli used for vaccine production are descendants of the original Calmette strain of BCG. The WHO has recommended the 'Danish 1331' strain for the production of BCG vaccine. Since January 1967, the BCG Laboratory at Guindy, Chennai, has been using the 'Danish 1331' strain for the production of BCG vaccine. Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine by K Park, 19th edition, Page 160.	1	BCG	Salk	DPT	Tetanus toxoid	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	e9ddd9d9-8500-4daa-a3f9-ac2ca275ee61	single
Coical area controlling vestibular function is located in ?	Ans. is'b'i.e., Parietal lobe [Rel Gray's Anatomy'E book p. j20)Information from the vestibular nuclei also reaches the cerebral coex by way of thalamus (probably posterior pas of the ventroposterior complex and the medial pulvinar).The primary vestibular coical area is located in the parietal lobe	2	Frontal lobe	Parietal lobe	Occipital lobe	All of the above	Physiology	null	97e5c678-e69b-4156-b2fa-44161d015135	multi
Which of the following is not a component of carotid sheath	It is a condensation of the fibroareolar tissue around the main vessels of the neck. There are the common and internal carotid arteries and internal jugular vein and the vagus nerve	3	Vagus nerve	Internal jugular vein	External carotid artery	Internal carotid artery	Anatomy	null	e32aeaf6-0975-4b61-aa7b-d0467e8af601	single
Increased risk of liver adenoma is found in which of the following diseases?	Increased risk of hepatic adenomas is a feature of glycogen storage disorder type 1 (Von Geirke's disease). NARP stands for Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa. NARP is a disease featuring weakness of the muscles near the trunk, ataxia (wobbliness), retinal disease, seizures and developmental delay. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 269	3	Lipid storage disorder	Mitochondrial disease	Glycogen storage disorder	Lysosomal storage disorder	Biochemistry	All India exam	f57c38f8-a648-49f6-8456-a330c40d600d	single
A 29 year old male found HBsAg positive with highly increased SCOT levels but HBeAg negative. Which of the foUowing is true about the status ofthe patient -	Hepatitis B e antigen Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) is an indicator of viral replication. In acute hepatitis B it may appear only transiently at the outset of the illness; its appearance is followed by the production of antibody (anti-HBe). The HBeAg reflects active replication of the virus in the liver. Chronic HBV infection (see below) is marked by the presence of HBsAg and anti-HBc (IgG) in the blood. Usually, HBeAg or anti-HBe is also present; HBeAg indicates continued active replication of the virus in the liver. The absence of HBeAg usually implies low viral replication; the exception is HBeAg-negative chronic hepatitis B (also called 'pre-core mutant' infection) , in which high levels of viral replication, serum HBV-DNA and hepatic necroinflammation are seen, despite negative HBeAg. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg875	1	Precore mutant	Core-promoter mutant	Wild type mutant	Surface mutant	Medicine	G.I.T	fc98e962-fa25-44dd-8e86-492a16f74724	multi
Anti pruritic property is seen with	Propofol has anti pruritic property.	2	Thiopentone	Propofol	Etomidate	Ketamine	Anaesthesia	null	108e5590-53b9-4d43-83b3-6d06e55ab312	single
The frequently occurring value in a distribution of data is: September 2012, March 2013 (b)	Ans: B i.e. Mode The mode is the value that appears most often in a set of data.	2	Median	Mode	Standard detion	Mean	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	b9232c3f-460a-41be-91b2-6b65bb473529	single
Reservoir for scrub typhus -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rodents DiseaseAgentInsect vectorMammalian reservoir1. Typhus group a. Epidemic typhusR. prowazekiiLouseHumansb. Murine typhus (Endemic typhus)R. typhiFleaRodentsc. Scrub typhusR. tsutsugamushiMiteRodents2. Spotted fever group a. Indian tick typhusR.conoriiTickRodents, dogsb. Rocky mountain spotted feverR.rickettsiiTickRodents, dogsc. Rickettsial poxR. akariMiteMice3. Others a. Q feverC.burnetiiNilCattle, sheep, goats.b. Trench feverRocholimaca quintanaLouseHumans	3	Mite	Humans	Rodents	Dogs	Social & Preventive Medicine	Communicable Diseases	6cd9fbd5-8748-4599-9dd5-7b9210bcba8d	single
To avoid contraception DMPA Is given :	Ans. is b i.e. 3 monthly	2	Monthly	3 Monthly	6 Monthl	Yearly	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	94125c72-5ada-4568-a2e1-8673c793efc5	single
What is the normal weight of uterus?	Ans. C 60 gRef: William's OB, 23rd ed. Ch 1* William's states "In nonparous women, the uterus averages 50 to 70 g, whereas in parous women it averages 80 g or more"* Since this question is asking just the normal weight of uterus, 60 gm is most appropriate given the option.UTERUS* Shape- pyriform* Size- 7.5 cm long x 5 cm broad x 2.5 cm thick* Weight- 60 g* Position- 90 degree with the long axis of vagina* Angulation- anteverted, anteflexed	3	20 g	40 g	60 g	100 g	Anatomy	Abdomen & Pelvis	f860c6d4-c4a9-4bf6-ab82-b7fdd7f00752	single
Frieberg's disease involve	condition characterized by infarction and fracture of the metatarsal head. Most often seen in 2nd metatarsal (MT) head, paicularly the dorsal aspect4th and 5th MT rarely affected Bony nucleus of epiphysis is affected in osteochondritis Ref: Maheshwari and Mhaskar 6e pg 318.	3	Tibial tuberosity	Calcaneal tuberosity	2nd metatarsal	5th metarasal	Orthopaedics	Anatomy and physiology of bone and fracture healing	8f3736dc-ca76-4bd5-ba51-2df147a4297e	single
Which of the following lymph nodes are known as Delphic nodes?	There is extensive lymphatic network seen in thyroid. Although some lymph channels pass directly to the deep cervical nodes, the subcapsular plexus drains principally to the central compament juxta thyroid - 'Delphian' or pretracheal - and paratracheal nodes and nodes on the superior and inferior thyroid veins, and from there to the deep cervical and mediastinal groups of nodes.	1	Pretracheal	Paratracheal	Supraclavicular	Posterior triangle	Anatomy	null	4a9e34a7-c0eb-47fb-b89a-9b3550d59e67	single
Salivary amylase is activated by	Both salivary and pancreatic α -amylases are activated by Cl–	4	Na+	K+	HCO3-	Cl-	Physiology	null	b48fcefc-35a5-47f3-aeb4-38814762ecaf	single
Filgrastim is used for the treatment of :	Filgrastim (G-CSF) and sargramostim (GM-CSF) are used to prevent or treat chemotherapy-induced neutropenia. Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure and cancer chemotherapy. Oprelvekin (IL-11) is used to prevent and treat thrombocytopenia.	1	Neutropenia	Anemia	Polycythemia	Neutrophilia	Pharmacology	null	23c51c99-169c-430f-bef4-2aad21ddbf61	single
Which among the following is not a branch of Arch of Aoa?	Right common carotid REF: Keith L. Moore 4th edition page 103The branches of the arch of the aoa are:Brachiocephalic trunk.Left common carotid aery.Left subclan aery.The brachiocephalic trunk, the first and largest branch of the arch, arises posterior to the manubrium, where it lies anterior to the trachea and posterior to the left brachiocephalic vein. It ascends superolaterally to reach the right side of the trachea and the right sternoclavicular joint, where it divides into the right common carotid and right subclan aeries.Ascending aoaLeft subclan aeryLeft veebral aeryLeft common carotid aeryBrachiocephalic aeryRight common carotidRight veebral aeryRight subclan aeryDescending aoaAoic arch	2	Brachiocephalic	Right common carotid	Left common carotid	Left Subclan	Anatomy	null	072d0d35-4e00-4e76-8168-dd06f5561fa7	single
Bactericidal inhibitors of protein synthesis are:	(Ref: KDT 6/e p669) Most protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotics are bacterostatic but aminoglycosides are bactericidal.	2	Tetracyclines	Aminoglycosies	Macrolides	Lincosamides	Pharmacology	Other topics and Adverse effects	58764465-7377-428d-bbba-4345d914e564	single
Proptosis is seen in	B option is also correct Neuroblastoma metastasizes in the orbit causing Proptosis Refer khurana 6/e	1	Neuroblastoma	Meningioma	Sympathetic Ophthalmia	Injuries	Anatomy	General anatomy	21eea28e-cf97-4c3f-8d4d-f2b096cd297a	single
True about Budd-chiari syndrome -a) Associated with coagulopathyb) Cirrhosis may occur c) Good prognosisd) Ascites may be present e) Hepatic vein thrombosis	Budd Chiari syndrome may be predisposed by hypercoagulable conditions, eg deficiency of antithrombin, protein C & S. Clinical features The acute syndrome presents with rapidly progressive - severe upper abdominal pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly (enlarge liver), ascites, elevated liver enzymes and eventual encephalopathy. The fulminant syndrome presents early with encephalopathy and ascites. Severe hepatic necrosis and lactic acidosis may be present as well. Caudate lobe hypertrophy is often present. The majority of patients have a slower-onset form of Budd-chiari syndrome. A system of venous collaterals may form around the occlusion which may be seen on imaging as a "spider's web". Patients may progress to cirrhosis and show signs of liver failure. An asymptomatic form may be totally silent and discovered only incidently. It is generally not concerning. Prognosis Several studies have attempted to predict the survival of patients with Budd-chiari syndrome. In general, nearly 2/3 of patients with Budd- chiari are alive at 10 years. Important negative prognostic indicators include ascites, encephalopathy, elevated Child-Pugh scores, elevated prothrombin time and altered serum levels of various substance(sodium, creatinine, albumin and bilirubin). Survival is also highly dependent on the underlying cause of the Budd-chiari syndrome, eg patients with myeloproliferative disorders may progress to acute leukemia independent of Budd-chiari syndrome.	4	abcd	bcde	acde	abde	Pathology	null	a7650716-43ac-466d-a73f-59e79c962469	multi
Which is false about Wuchereria bancrofti -	Definite host- man Intermediate host- mosquito No animal reservoir is known for W.bancrofti The adult worms are harboured in lymphatic system of man (refer pgno:166 baveja 3 rd edition)	4	Causes filariasis	Body is long and slender	Terminal nuclei absent	Man and anopheles are host	Microbiology	parasitology	62116417-e392-4b3a-b328-931da599fec1	multi
The blood supply of the medulla comes from all of the following, EXCEPT:	Blood supply to the medulla is supplied byAnterior spinal aery: The anterior spinal aery supplies the whole medial pa of the medulla oblongata.Posterior inferior cerebellar aery: It is a major branch of the veebral aery that supplies the posterolateral pa of the medulla.Veebral aery: It supplies an area between the other two main aeries, including the nucleus solitarius and other sensory nuclei and fibres. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 16. Brain. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy	4	Posterior inferior cerebellar aery	Veebral aery	Spinal aeries	Superior cerebellar aery	Anatomy	null	7be112b7-544a-4a05-ac99-3ec64356cf8a	multi
All of the following are true about Weber's syndrome. Except	Answer is D (Ipsilateral facial nerve palsy): Weber's syndrome is `midbrain' syndrome charachterized by Ipsilateral Occulomotor Nerve Palsy (Opthalmoplegia / Diplopia) and Contralateral Hemiplegia. Midbrain Syndromes Symptoms and Signs Structures involved Weber's syndrome * Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy * Oculomotor nerve * Contralateral hemiplegia including face * Coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts Benedikt's syndrome * Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy * Oculomotor nerve * Contralateral hemiparesis including face * Coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts * Contralateral intention tremor * Red nucleus Claude's syndrome * Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy * Oculomotor nerve * Contralateral hemiataxia and hemiasynergia * Red nucleus and brachium conjunctivum Parinaud's syndrome * Bilateral veical palsy * Superior colliculus * Bilateral paralysis of convergence * Superior colliculus	4	Ipsilateral occulomotor nerve palsy	Diplopia	Contralateral hemiplagia	Ipsilateral facial nerve palsy	Medicine	null	55f00124-0031-41b8-8a08-7b3b6452da0a	multi
H. Influenzae grows on all of the media except	Nutrient agar lacks factor V and X hence does not suppo it's growth.	3	Chocolate agar	Fields agar	Nutrient agar	Blood agar with S aureus streak line	Anatomy	Bacteriology	c7c1d7ed-bf87-42a3-b3f9-1af5cb04291e	multi
Chronic cocaine abuse have following features except:	Cocaine : Fatal dose: 1g oral/ 20 mg IV Chronic cocaine abuse: a) Ulceration of nasal septum / palate b) Peripheral gangrene c) Black color staining of tongue d) Cocaine bugs/ formication Chronic cannabis abuse: a. Amotivational syndrome b. Run amok: homicidal impulse/stabbing spree	4	Peripheral gangrene	Black staining of tongue	Formication	Run amok	Forensic Medicine	Drug Abuse	c3d7218d-6e1b-4ef5-9ead-7caadee5a52a	multi
During general dental treatment local anesthesia is feasible in?	null	2	Child	Adult	Mentally retarded	Physically challenged	Surgery	null	82830320-7989-4d62-8941-35aa94b0089e	multi
Gram-negative bacteria doesn't take gram stain because it is made of:	Ans. d. None of the above	4	Polysaccharide	Lipopolysaccharide	Techoic acid	None of the above	Microbiology	null	65ce78de-ff84-4103-b878-04fcc8663768	multi
Best screening method for Mirizzi syndrome is:	Mirizzi syndrome: Suspected cases should be examined with ultrasonography or CT for anatomical evaluation to avoid biliary injury or postoperative biliary leakage related to undetected fistula formation. ERCP has been recommended as the best screening method. Ref: Turk J Gastroenterol 2008; 19 (4): 258-263.	4	USG abdomen	CECT abdomen	Plain X-Ray abdomen	ERCP	Surgery	null	5e517c8d-4f09-4fbc-832a-d0ea758595a9	single
xylene and toluene ate types of	Inhalants * FAMOUS COMPONDS==Toluene, xylene, trichloroethylene AGE OF ONET-----------Adolescent * Breath only for minutes, * inexpensive, * legal to possess, * easily concealed * COMPLICATIONS * Respiratory depression, * aspiration, * temporal lobe epilepsy, * leukoencephalopathy * LAB INVESTIGATION * Urine.============. Gas chromatography Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.656	1	inhalants	hallicinigens	stimulants	anabolic androgenic steroids	Psychiatry	Substance abuse	87a3bac4-9464-46b1-a732-e88953375794	multi
Physiological locking involves	A i.e. Internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia Physiological locking occurs in last 30 degree of extension, when femur rotates medially (internally) over stabilized tibiaQ. This very stable position is caused by quadriceps femoris muscle. Unlocking needed to initiate flexion is carried out by popliteus muscle, which moves femur laterally on stabilized tibia.	1	Internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia	Internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur	External rotation of tibia over stabilized femur	External rotation of femur over stabilized tibia	Surgery	null	0c44fab8-128a-4bb8-a19c-edf2bd47d0aa	single
The approximate no of genes contained in human genome	Humans have a mere 30,000 genes rather than the 100000 predicted only recently . Recent ribbons mention the no of genes 20,000 to 25,000 Ribbons 7th/219	2	A. 40,000	B. 30,000	C. 80,000	D. 1,00,000	Anatomy	General anatomy	3237cac7-65d9-4859-b5b6-1ca98694ddd1	single
Acquired nasolacrimal duct obstruction is caused by	B i.e. Pilocarpine	2	Timolol	Pilocarpine	Brimonidine	Dorzolamide	Ophthalmology	null	b2792f26-5561-45cc-af6b-f3c214b24007	single
A patient is brought to the emergency room after being found by search and rescue teams. He was mountain climbing, got caught in a sudden snowstorm, and had to survive in a cave. He had no food for 6 days. In adapting to these conditions, which metabolic process has increased rather than decreased?	In the starvation state, muscle decreases the use of ketone bodies, causing an elevation of ketone bodies in the bloodstream. The brain uses the ketone bodies for energy and uses less glucose, decreasing the need for gluconeogenesis and thus sparing muscle protein degradation to provide the precursors for gluconeogenesis. Red blood cells cannot use ketone bodies and must utilize glucose. Therefore, the use of glucose by red blood cells would be unchanged under these conditions.	4	The brain's use of glucose	Muscle's use of ketone bodies	The red blood cells' use of glucose	The brain's use of ketone bodies	Biochemistry	Nutrition & Digestion	34f4dc0d-96fe-4617-ac46-270c631c1241	single
A 27 year old male is is incidentally HBsAg positive. DNA-PCR for hepatitis B revealed 1000 copies/ml.The patient is suffering from?	null	4	Active HBV carrier	Acute hepatitis B	Chronic hepatitis B	Inactive HBV carrier	Medicine	null	48b462ba-440a-4443-84fb-05021ae5fc8e	multi
In an adult patient with plural effusion, the most appropriate site for plurisentesis done by inseing a needle is in:	Answer is B (7th Intercostal space in mid axillary line): Site of pleural effusion drainage is seventh intercostal space in mid-axillary line. Pneumothorax	2	5th intercostals space in midclevicular line	7th intercostal space in mid axillary's bone	2nd intercostals space adjacent to the sternum	10th intercostal space adjacent to the veebral column	Medicine	null	048486c6-12e1-44a7-8918-383fad8bc75f	single
A patient presents with history of bullae involving >30% BSA along with rashes all over body with erosions of the lips and other mucosa for few days. What can be the triggering factor?	Ans. B. Drug induced* Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a potentially life-threatening dermatologic disorder characterized by widespread (TEN involves more than 30% of the body surface, whereas SJS involves less than 10%) erythema, necrosis, and bullous detachment of the epidermis and mucous membranes, resulting in exfoliation and possible sepsis and/or death. Mucous membrane involvement can result in gastrointestinal hemorrhage, respiratory failure, ocular abnormalities, and genitourinary complications.* TEN is most commonly treated by drug-induced antibiotics (sulfonamides), antiepileptic drugs (Phenobarbital, Phenytoin), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), ampicillin, allopurinol, and the antiretroviral drugs (nevirapine, abacavir).* The mainstay of treatment is supportive care until the epithelium regenerates.	2	Viral infection	Drug induced	Bacterial infection	Idiopathic	Skin	Miscellaneous	ca9ac082-dd5d-4387-ad90-ed37a10af084	multi
The reproductive method by which fungi asexually produce rectangular spores by fragmentation of hyphae is known as-	Ahrospores Fungi asexually produce rectangular spores Produced by fragmentation of hypha. Eg.Coccidioides.	4	Chlamydospore	Blastospore	Conidiophore	Ahrospore	Microbiology	Mycology	004585b9-9349-4e0b-bebe-4e8e614a9dc5	multi
Which of the following is earliest sign of ulcerative colitis on double contrast barium enema (DCBE) study?	.	1	Fine Mucosal granularity	Loss of haustrations	'Collar-button' ulcers	Lead pipe colon	Pathology	All India exam	c5fb528c-1155-4523-bf4c-7e0cbe2b4729	single
The drug of choice for treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is	Refer KDT 6 /e p 250 Propylthiouracil does not cross placenta and us therefore The drug of choice in first trimester pregnancy	3	Iodine therapy	Carbimazole	Propylthiouracil	Methimazole	Pharmacology	Endocrinology	1d3d7abf-36bb-453d-9609-a701d1aead52	single
A city has a population of 10000 with 500 diabetic patients. A new diagnostic test gives true positive result in 350 patients and false positive result in 1900 patients. Which of the following is/are true regarding the test ?	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prevalence is 5%; 'b' i.e., Sensitivity is 70% & 'c' i.e., Specificity is 80% In this question : Total patients = 500 (diabetic patients) True positive patients = 350 Thus remaining 150 (500-350) are false negative. 350 So, sensitivity of test = 350+150 70% Similarly, Total non-diseased are = 9500 (10000-500) Among these false positive are = 1900 Thus remaining 7600 are ture negative (9500-1900) 7600 So, specificity of test = = 80% 9500 500 o Prevalance of disease = x 100 = 5% 10000	4	Prevalence is 5%	Sensitivity is 70%	Specificity is 80%	All	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	f3fa2639-9cba-4c2d-9629-8b1bb4858f36	multi
Which of the following is the most common tumor of the fetus and newborn –	Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT) is the most common neoplasm in the fetus and newborn. Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT) is the most common neoplasm in the fetus and newborn with an estimated prevalence of 1:30,000- 1:40,000 and with a 3:1 female preponderance. - Handbook of Fetal Medicine by Shailesh Kumar (Cambridge Univ Press) 2010/87 Most common tumor in fetus and neonate → sacrococcygeal teratoma Most common tumor in infancy → neuroblastoma	4	Neuroblastoma	Wilm's tumor	Leukemia	Sacrococcygeal Teratoma	Pediatrics	null	c93fdaea-b405-4b93-bf84-8887ad38be04	single
Efferent's from cerebellum is through	The only output from the cerebellum is the axons of Purkinje cells, they are the biggest neurons of CNS & are inhibitory in nature (GABA ) Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 250	3	Golgi cells	Basket cells	Purkinje cells	Bipolar cells	Physiology	Nervous system	9582b5cd-7ec8-442d-8112-8b45a4d4414a	single
Which of the following is not associated with ANCA?	null	4	Microscopic polyangitis	Churg strauss syndrome	Wegener's granulomatosis	Henoch shonlein purpura	Medicine	null	4b5221fd-1e3f-4c21-899b-19862447ec43	single
Antisperm antibodies are usually present in the :	Cervix	1	Cervix	Vagina	Uterus	Fallopian tube	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	a338af1c-6654-4287-af2e-c11106eb9f92	multi
The only oncogenic virus whose pathogenicity has been proved without doubt is -	HTLV1 present world wide.it causes adult T cell leukemia,tropical dpadtic paraparesid.it mainly infect CD4 cells .infected cell express more inter leukin2 REF:<\p>MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.567	1	HTLV - I	HTLV - II	HTLV - III	HTLV - IV	Microbiology	Virology	0a2247a4-63ca-4be1-ad62-0794e16a3091	single
All are features of dengue hemorrhagic fever expect:	1. Criteria for diagnosis of dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF): o Fever - acute, high, continuous for 2-7 days. o Positive tourniquet test o Enlargement of liver o Laboratory evidence o Thrombocytopenia (< 1000,000/mm3) o Haemoconcentration (Haematocrit raised by >20%) Narrow pulse pressure is not seen in DHF	2	Thrombocytopenia	Narrow pulse pressure	Hematocrit elevated	Positive torniquet test.	Microbiology	Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)	268a0f6c-6fd2-477b-885c-b3019453cd48	multi
Brown, spherical, septate bodies from pus are diagnostic of:	Chromoblastomycosis is also known as verrucous dermatitis. Lesions consist of way cutaneous nodule which resemble the florets of cauliflower. The disease is confined to subcutaneous tissue of feet and lower legs. Histologically lesions show, the presence of fungus as round / irregular, dark brown, yeast - like bodies with septae called sclerotic cells. Diagnosis is established by demonstration of sclerotic bodies in KOH mounts / in sections and by culture on sabouraud's agar. Also Know: Sporotrichosis is demonstrated by the presence of septate hyphae which carry flower like clusters of conidia on delicate sterigmata. Mucormycosis shows the presence of broad, non septate mycelia in tissues on sabouraud's medium. Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Paniker's 8th Ed Page 614.	2	Geotrichosis	Chromomycosis	Mucormycosis	Sporotrichosis	Microbiology	null	b4ae452b-78b9-417f-ab15-5a569565eddc	single
The deep ring is situated in	INGUINAL CANAL:- The oblique intermuscular passage in the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall. Extends from the deep inguinal ring to superficial. Deep ring- oval opening in fascia transversalis. 1.25 cm above mid-inguinal point. Superficial ring: triangular gap in external oblique aponeurosis. Length: 4cm Directed downwards forwards and medially.	3	External oblique	Internal oblique	Fascialis tranversalis	Cremasteric fascia	Anatomy	null	1d7f0b25-6249-410d-a6ad-fb4092f7c8b9	single
A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints of fever and weakness for the last one month. There is generalised lymphadenopathy. There was also associated hepatomegaly. Biopsy of liver showed non-caseating granuloma. There are most likely due to infection with:	Ans. is 'd' i.e., Brucella melitensis(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1066 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 339)Most common focal feature of brucellosis is musculoskeletal pain.Classic triad of fever - Profuse night sweating, arthralgia/arthritis and Hepatosplenomegaly are present in most patients.History of contact with animal followed by fever, lymphadenopathy and formation of non-caseating granuloma are features of brucellosis.	4	Yersinia pestis	Brucella canis	Francisella tularensis	Brucella melitensis	Microbiology	Bacteria	8cbe1669-ceae-4923-85ea-281077937fc7	single
Fulminant Amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., N. fowleri	2	Acanthamoeba	N.fowleri	E.Histolytic	E. Coli	Microbiology	null	9b7a66b0-d47f-42e4-ac7f-f641442f5a0e	single
Which is the only local anaesthesia which raises the BP:	Cocaine increases BP by inhibiting the reuptake of catecholamines.	2	Lignocaine	Cocaine	Prilocaine	Lidocaine	Pharmacology	null	4a99b01c-f8df-4710-823a-2dec1ec22502	single
A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of new-onset transient right arm weakness and word-finding difficulty lasting 3 hours. She is also experiencing exertional dyspnea, and had a syncopal event 1 month ago. Her medical history is only remarkable for 2 uneventful pregnancies, and she is not taking any medications.Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, and no residual focal neurological deficits. The ECG and CT brain are normal but an echocardiogram reveals a cardiac tumor in the left atrium, it is pedunculated, and attached to the endocardium. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this lesion?	The myxoma is a solitary globular or polypoid tumor varying in size from that of a cherry to a peach. About 75% are found in the left atrium, and most of the remainder in the right atrium. The clinical presentation is with one or more of the classical triad of constitution symptoms (fatigue, fever, anemia), embolic events, or obstruction of the valve orifice.Sarcomas are the most common malignant tumors of the heart but are usually seen on the right side, while rhabdomyomas and fibromas are more commonly seen in children, and usually occur in the ventricles.	1	myxoma	sarcoma	rhabdomyoma	fibroma	Medicine	C.V.S.	1484a9d5-4f10-411d-a901-f31ed68954ae	single
The chromosomal disorder in patau Syndrome is:	(Chromosome 13) (593-G) (615-Ghai 7th)* Down syndrome - 21* Edwards syndrome - 18* Patau syndrome - 13* Turner's syndrome - 45X/ 46XX* Klinefelter syndrome - 47XXY	3	Chromosome 21	Chromosome 18	Chromosome 13	Chromosome 45x / 46xx	Pediatrics	Genetics And Genetic Disorders	9d8f552f-c42b-46c7-9b17-d91f74c33a3e	single
Syncytium formation is a property of -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Measles virus Methods of detection of viral growth in cell cultures1. Cytopathic effecto Many viruses causes morphological changes in cultured cells knowm as cytopathic effect,o Examples are:EnterovirusMeasles virusHerpes virusAdenovirusSV40Crenation of cells and degeneration of the entire cell sheetSyncytium formationFocal degenrationLarge granular clump resembling bunches of grapesCytoplasmic vacuolation2. Metabolic Inhibition3. Hemadsorptiono Mainly for influenza and parainfluenza viruses.4. Interferenceo Growth of the first vims inhibit the growth of second vims.5. Transformationo For oncogenic viruses6. Immunofluoresenceo For detection of viral antigeno Give positive results earlier than other methods.	3	Herpes virus	Adenovirus	Measles virus	Rabies virus	Microbiology	Virology	4c4afcaa-25b9-4ee2-a8b6-127a2be9d5fe	single
Right hepatic duct drains all, Except:	B i.e. Segment III	2	Segment I	Segment III	Segment V	Segment VI	Anatomy	null	67d2dfed-1494-4d37-ae68-6e4c2601f6e5	multi
True about trematodes -	character cestodes trematodes nematodes shape tape like leaf like elongated and cylindrical body segmented unsegmented unsegmented sexes monoecious monoecious(except shistosoma) separate head contains suckers,often with suckers present,not hooks suckers and hooks absent body cavity absent absent present alimentary canal absent present(incomplete without anus) present and complete TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,BAVEJA,3RD EDITION,PAGE NO 115	1	Two host required	Segmented	Anus present	Body cavity present	Microbiology	parasitology	f97644fa-6899-4d39-841e-b487c9abf4e3	multi
Fracture of body of mandible with full arch of teeth (undisplaced) is treated by:	null	1	IMF	Open reduction and internal fixation	Close reduction and internal fixation	External pin fixation	Surgery	null	83d94b0b-1dc4-4b61-93ac-c9192aec71c9	single
Vigorous treatment of nephritis in SLE is indicated in:	Renal Biopsy in SLE: The pattern and severity of injury are impoant in diagnosis and selecting the best therapy. Aggressive immunosuppressive treatment is indicated in : Class III and IV disease Class V accompanied by III or IV disease Treatment for lupus nephritis is not recommended in class I or II disease or with extensive irreversible changes. Classification of Lupus Nephritis (International Society of Nephrology and Renal Pathology Society) Class I: Minimal Mesangial Lupus Nephritis Class II: Mesangial Proliferative Lupus Nephritis Class III: Focal Lupus Nephritis Class IV: Diffuse Lupus Nephritis Class V: Membranous Lupus Nephritis Class VI: Advanced Sclerotic Lupus Nephritis Ref:Harrison,E-18,P-2733	2	Class I & II	Class III & IV	Class IV & V	Class V & VI	Medicine	null	14f13ea0-4aa2-4611-9c1a-8f4013e24401	single
Pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is -	This question is slightly different from the previous one. Here the examiner is asking about the pathognomonic feature (not most consistent feature) both are different : A most consistent feature is the one which is always present in a fracture a. The pathognomonic feature is the one whose presence is diagnostic of a fracture Abnormal mobility at the fracture site and crepitus are two pathognomonic features of a fracture:- 1. Abnormal mobility is the most pathognomonic sign of a fracture:- "Abnormal mobility in the limb at the fracture site is diagnostic of a fracture". ____ Essentials of orthopaedics surgery "Abnormal mobility in fracture of a bone is characteristic or pathognomonic".___ British medical journal "Abnormal mobility between the fracture fragments is a sure sign of fracture". ____ Ebnezar 2. Crepitus is the second most pathognomonic sign of a fracture (after abnormal mobility):- "Crepitus can be considered as pathognomonic as abnormal mobility for a fracture". — Emergency medicine "Crepitus is common and essentially a reliable sign of a fracture". ____ Orthonet "Crepitus with abnormal mobility is pathognomonic of a fracture". ____ Miller	3	Redness	Swelling	Crepitus	Tenderness	Orthopaedics	null	54626b5b-99ba-42b1-a5d8-e5ba1f4e295b	single
Metcalfe's Criteria is used for:	Metcalfe's Criteria for Hea Disease in Pregnancy (Finding Suggestive of Hea Disease in Pregnancy) Symptoms Progressive dyspnea or ohopnea Nocturnal cough Hemoptysis Syncope Chest pain Clinical Findings Cyanosis Clubbing of fingers Persistent neck vein distention Systolic murmur grade 3/6 or greater Diastolic murmur Cardiomegaly Persistent split-second sound Criteria for pulmonary hypeension Persistent arrhythmias Atrial and ventricular premature contractions, 15deg Left Axis Detion and mild ST changes in inferior leads are considered normal during pregnancy.	3	Assessing risk of maternal moality in pregnancy	Grading congenital valvular hea diseases in pregnancy	Findings suggestive of hea disease in pregnancy	Classifying various cardiomyopathies	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy	90461301-7559-4478-b039-4579f7bb51d1	single
Renauld Braude phenomenon is seen in -	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Candida albicans Candida o Candida albicans is the most common cause of mucosal candidiasis. o All Candida species pathogenic for humans are also encountered as commensals of humans, particularly in the mouth, stool and vagina. o They grow rapidly on simple media as oval budding cells at 25deg to 37o C. o In tissue, both yeasts and pseudohyphae are present, o Candida albicans is differentiated by other Candida: It forms true hyphae (mycelia) or germ tubes when grown in serum. It forms thick walled large spores called chlamydospores when grown on corn meal agar. It is dimorphic. o A rapid method of identifying Co. albicans is based on its ability to form germ tubes within two hours when incubated in human serum at 37degC - Reynolds - Braude phenomenon {Also known as germ tube test).	1	Candida albicans	Candida pscittasi	Histoplasma	Cryptococcus	Microbiology	Mycology	ff79a598-4bfd-404b-bbd9-5c69353b6781	single
A young adult presents with proptosis and pain in eye after 4 days of trauma to eye. Chemosis, conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle palsy with inability to move eye are seen.Investigation of choice -	Information in this question are :- Presentation 4 days after trauma Traumatic proptosis along with chemosis and conjunctival congestion Extraocular muscle palsy (ophthalmoplegia) Given the patient's clinical presentation of proptosis with chemosis and conjunctival congestion in the setting of cranio-facial injury, a traumatic carotid-cavernous fistula is suspected. Most likely diagnosis is carotico-cavernous fistula. Selective carotid angiography using digital subtraction techniques is the investigation of choice. Another condition which may present with similar features is CST, but it is very rare after trauma.	2	MRI	Digital subtraction angiography	CT	MR angiography	Ophthalmology	null	15d5df51-a243-4432-8afd-b40da6b97281	single
Childhood obesity prevention is a type of?	null	1	Primordial prevention	Primary prevention	Secondary prevention	Tertiary prevention	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	913be714-9ac4-48f5-beb1-6a984658646b	single
Which of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma?	t (8 - 14) translocation is seen in 75% cases of Burkitt's lymphoma not multiple myeloma. Diagnostic criteria of multiple myeloma requires presence of more than 10% plasma cells in bone marrow, presence of monoclonal protein in serum or urine and presence of evidence of end organ damage (hypercalcemia, anemia, bone lesions or renal insufficiency). Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition chapter 111.	3	Recurrent infection	Neurological manifestation	t (8 - 14) translocation	Hypercalcemia	Medicine	null	ddf92300-1923-4dab-b7bc-03b67c37ce86	single
Which is the following is false regarding reversible cell injury?	On microscopic examination of reversibly injured cells, small clear vacuoles may be seen within the cytoplasm; these represent distended and pinched-off segments of the ER. This pattern of nonlethal injury is sometimes called hydropic change or vacuolar degeneration. The ultrastructural changes of reversible cell injury, visible by electron microscopy include the following: Plasma membrane alterations, such as blebbing, blunting, and loss of microvilli Mitochondrial changes, including swelling and the appearance of small amorphous densities Accumulation of "myelin figures" in the cytosol composed of phospholipids derived from damaged cellular membranes Dilation of the ER, with detachment of polysomes Nuclear alterations, with disaggregation of granular and fibrillar elements Phenomena that consistently characterize irreversible cell injury: inability to reverse mitochondrial dysfunction (lack of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation) even after resolution of the original injury profound disturbances in membrane function (breakdown of plasma membrane).	2	Detachment of ribosomes from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)	Breakdown of plasma membrane	Hydropic change	Accumulation of myelin figures in the cytoplasm	Pathology	Reversible Cell Injury	e28050e4-469c-437b-b91c-2c8eaa3b0c44	multi
A 15 years old girl complains of anterior knee pain which increases on going upstairs and getting up after prolonged sitting. The most probable diagnosis is:	Ans. A. Chondromalacia Patellaea. Bipartite patellae is congenital fragmentation of patellae and is usually asymptomaticb. Plica syndrome- presence of synovial fold in suprapatellar pouch which can undergo inflammation and presents as meniscal symptoms of lockingc. PFA will be seen in later age.	1	Chondromalacia Patellae	Plica syndrome	Bipartite patellae	Patellofemoral arthritis	Orthopaedics	Injuries Around the Thigh & Knee	2c82aac5-6bce-4865-8d84-2c7e63a1c85c	single
Which of the following is both PPAR - α & PPAR - γ agonist?	null	3	Pioglitazone	Bizofibrate	Beroglitazar	Bromocriptine	Pharmacology	null	6f053910-24c0-4269-a706-0f4843fe9f4f	multi
Which of the following produces dissociated anesthesia	Ans. is 'a' i.e. Ketamine Mechanism of action of ketamineKetamine dissociatesThalamus from limbic cortexThalamus relays sensory inputs from R.A.S. (reticular activating system) to limbic cortex. Clinically this produces dissociative anaesthesia. In this state the patient appears conscious (e.g. eye opening, swallowing, muscle contracture); but is unable to process or respond to sensory input.	1	Ketamine	Propofol	Thiopentone	Enflurane	Anaesthesia	Miscellaneous General Anesthesia	e7c27198-0cbe-4676-ae4c-52d1c05bdc22	single
Cocket & Dodd's operation is for	null	2	Saphenofemoral flush ligation	Subfascial ligation	Deep vein thrombosis	Diabetic foot	Surgery	null	ae226df4-32c7-4788-87fd-c9921f93a95b	single
Which of the following muscle relaxant undergo Hoffman's degradation?	Atracurium is an intermediate acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker which is inactivated in the plasma by spontaneous nonenzymatic degradation (Hoffman's elimination) in addition to that by cholinesterase.	1	Atracurium	Succinylcholine	Gallamine	Pancuronium	Anaesthesia	null	3d9ee2de-ca86-4a86-8582-452cf101aebf	multi
A 4-week old first-born, pre-term boy admitted to your dept. 3 days ago. Chief complaint was Vomiting which was projectile without bile in it, and follows each feeding, and the baby is hungry and eager to eat again after he vomits. The baby is dehydrated and has visible gastric peristaltic waves and a palpable "Olive sized" mass in the RUQ. What is the surgery of choice?	CHPS: Congenital Hyperophic Pyloric Stenosis IHPS: Infantile Hyperophic Pyloric Stenosis Clinical features After breast feeding, breast milk accumulates in stomach. Obstruction due to hyperophy at pylorus causes multiple episodes of non-bilious vomiting which can be projectile/non-projectile. IOC for diagnosis - Ultrasound Management Resuscitation by I.V fluids + correction of Dyselectrolytemia Fluid of choice- Normal Saline Treatment of choice after resuscitation	4	Duodenostomy	Billroth Type-I GJstomy	KASAI operation	Ramstedt's pyloromyotomy	Surgery	Pediatric Surgery	c70de274-6fa4-41c8-9450-e244aa8bfe29	single
A 41 year old obese female patient comes with acute abdominal pain in the right hypogastrium. USG examination shows a stone in the common bile duct. Which is the treatment of choice for stone in CBD?	A gallstone in the common bile duct may impact distally in the ampulla of Vater. More than 80% of gallstones contain cholesterol as their major component. If surgical removal of common bile duct stones is not immediately feasible, endoscopic retrograde sphincterotomy can be used. In this procedure, the endoscopist cannulates the bile duct the papilla of Vater. Endoscopic retrograde sphincterotomy is especially useful in patients who are critically ill with ascending cholangitis caused by impaction of a gallstone in the ampulla of Vater. A T tube is left in the duct after the procedure.	3	Observation	Chenodeoxycholic acid	Endoscopic sphincterotomy	Antibiotics	Surgery	null	b18afa5e-1de4-4ed6-b52e-50ecbf8abda9	single
Muscles of tongue develop from?	ANSWER: (A) Occipital myotomeREF: Langman's Medical Embryology 11th edition pg. 150 table 10.2The number of somites is one of the criteria for determining age of the embryo. Somites further differentiate into these components:Sclerotome forms the cartilage and bone components of the vertebral column.Myotome forms epimeric and hypomeric muscles.Dermatome forms dermis and subcutaneous area of skin.All voluntary muscles of the head region are derived from paraxial mesoderm (somitomeres and somites), including musculature of the tongue (somite 2 to 5 constituting the occipital myotome)Cervical myotomes, after dividing into primaxial and abaxial domains, develop into the upper limb musculatureThoracic myotomes mainly develop the chest wall and abdominal muscles.Muscular component of the pharyngeal arches gives rise to the muscles of mastication, facial expression, pharyngeal and intrinsic laryngeal muscles, palatine muscles, stapedius, tensor tympani, cricothyroid.	1	Occipital myotome	Cervical myotome	Thoracic myotome	Pharyngeal arches	Anatomy	Oral Cavity & Tongue	5a645856-06e6-4f05-a2a5-14048352d217	single
Which carries more weight in a cou of law :	B i.e. Dying deposition	2	Dying declaration	Dying deposition	Both carry the same weight	Both are not significant	Forensic Medicine	null	b7b23bf4-f83f-49b0-9dc9-c15366e8c03f	multi
Which of the following is an intermideiate level disinfectant -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypochlorite Categories of effective potencyo Sterilants are capable of completely eliminating or destroying in all forms of microbial life, including spores,o DisinfectantsDestroy some, but not necessarily all organisms. The category is further divided into subcategories:- i) High level disinfectants In their usual concentration and contact period, they destroy all microorganisms, with exception of high number of bacterial spores ( small number of spores can be destroyed). It is worth noting that at higher concentrations and prolonged contact period, high level disinfectant can act as steriliant. i.e. can kill high numbers of spores as well. Examples are :-2% gluteraldehyde, 8% formaldehyde, 6-10% hydrogen peroxide and ethylene oxide gas.ii) Intermediate level disinfectants :- Inactivate even resistant organisms such as mycobacterium tuberculosis as well as vegetative bacteria, most viruses and most fungi, but do not necessarily kill bacterial spores. Examples are :-0.5% iodine, 70-90% ethanol and isopropanol, chlorine compounds (hypochlorite), some phenolic compounds and iodophor based disinfectants.iii) Low level disinfectants kill most bacteria, some viruses and some fungi, but cannot be relied on to kill resistant microorganisms such as tubercular bacilli or bacterial spores. Examples are quarterly ammonium compounds, mercurials,some phenolic compounds and iodophores. Note:- the disinfectant levels of iodophors (iodines) and phenolic compounds may be classified as intermediate or low depending on the concentration employed.Levels of disinfectant ActivityLevel of activityBacteriaSporesFungiVirusesVegetativeTubercular Lipid medium sizeNonlipid & SmallHigh++++++Intermediate++-+++Low+--++-	3	2% glutarldyhyde	Ethylene oxide	Hypoclorite	None	Microbiology	General	7b768344-6c0b-451e-a630-6beefff3e2da	multi
Myasthenia gravis is most commonly associated with which of the following?	Myasthenia gravis Autoimmune disease with fluctuating muscle weakness that is caused by autoantibodies that target the neuromuscular junction. About 85% of patients have autoantibodies against post-synaptic ACh receptors, while most of the remaining patients have antibodies against the sarcolemmal protein muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase. C/F: - Ptosis or diplopia (Weakness in extraocular muscle) There is a strong association between pathogenic anti-ACh receptor autoantibodies and thymic abnormalities. Approximately 10% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma, a tumour of thymic epithelial cells. An additional 30% of patients (and paicularly young patients) have a different thymic abnormality called thymic hyperplasia. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that increase the half-life of ACh are the first line of treatment.	3	Thymoma	Thymic carcinoma	Thymic hyperplasia	Lymphoma	Pathology	Auto Immune Disorders Introduction	7fad7d23-600a-4317-bec6-b810b5cec853	single
High risk pregnancy includes all except:	High risk pregnancy is defined as one which is complicated by factor or factors that adversely affects the pregnancy outcome – maternal/perinatal or both. The high risk cases are: During pregnancy:	2	Twins	25 year old primi	Hydramnios	Previous LSCS	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	9f30c6f1-17fa-4355-b97b-454ed3a132a8	multi
All of the following disease show Mitochondrial diseases except	Huntington&;s disease (HD), also known as Huntington&;s chorea, is an inherited disorder that results in death of brain cells. The earliest symptoms are often subtle problems with mood or mental abilities. A general lack of coordination and an unsteady gait often follow. As the disease advances, uncoordinated, jerky body movements become more apparent. Physical abilities gradually worsen until coordinated movement becomes difficult and the person is unable to talk. Mental abilities generally decline into dementia. The specific symptoms vary somewhat between people. Symptoms usually begin between 30 and 50 years of age, but can sta at any age. The disease may develop earlier in life in each successive generation. About 8% of cases sta before the age of 20 years and typically present with symptoms more similar to Parkinson&;s disease. People with HD often underestimate the degree of their problems. HD is typically inherited from a person&;s parents, with 10% of cases due to a new mutation. The disease is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in either of an individual&;s two copies of a gene called Huntingtin. This means a child of an affected person typically has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease. The Huntingtin gene provides the genetic information for a protein that is also called "huntingtin". Expansion of CAG (cytosine-adenine-guanine) triplet repeats in the gene coding for the Huntingtin protein results in an abnormal protein, which gradually damages cells in the brain, through mechanisms that are not fully understood. Diagnosis is by genetic testing, which can occur at any point in time, regardless of whether or not symptoms are present. This fact raises several ethical debates: the age at which an individual is considered mature enough to choose testing; whether parents have the right to have their children tested; and managing confidentiality and disclosure of test results.Ref: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Huntington&;s_disease	4	Leigh syndrome	Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy	Myoclonic epilepsy	Huntington's disease	Biochemistry	Metabolism of nucleic acids	1e9fb98a-b5b4-4e62-a195-9bcd192867f7	multi
About otic ganglion true statement (s) is/are	The sensory root is by the auriculotemporal nerve Sympathetic root is by the sympathetic plexus around the middle meningeal aery Secretomotor root is by the lesser petrosal nerve from the tympanic plexus formed by tympanic branch of cranial nerve IX.Fibres of lesser petrosal nerve relay in the otic ganglion.Postganglionic fibres reach the parotid gland through auriculotemporal nerve Motor root is a by a branch from nerve to medial pterygoid. This branch passes unrelayed through the ganglion and divides intotwo branchesto supply tensor velipalatini and tensor tympani Ref BDC volume 3,6th edition pg 311	1	Lesser petrosal nerve forms parasympathetic root	Secomotor to parotid gland	Topographically connected to maxillary division of trigeminal nerve	Nerve to medial pterygoid connected to the ganglion	Anatomy	Head and neck	8d71d440-d1c5-4da8-b539-963e19b9f170	multi
Encephalitis is caused by :	Infections caused by HSV-1 Acute gingivo-stomatitis Herpes labialis Kerato-conjuctivitis Eczema herpeticum Encephalitis Dendritic keratitis Ref : textbook of microbiology, C P Baveja, 5th edition , Pg no:444	1	HSV-I	EBV	Infectious mononucleosis	CMV	Microbiology	null	c1cf0c57-9518-471c-96d8-44f3016fdc69	single

Transverse fracture of maxilla is ?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Le Fo-1 It is classified into 3 types : ? Le Fo I (transverse) fracture runs above and parallel to the plate. It crosses lower pa of nasal septum, maxillary antra and the pterygoid plates. Le Fo II (pyramidal) fracture passes through the root of nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper pa of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates. This fracture has some features common with the zygomatic fractures. Le Fo III (craniofacial dysfunction). There is complete separation of facial bones from the cranial bones. The fracture line passes through root of nose, ethmofrontal junction, superior orbital fissure, lateral wall of orbit, frontozygomatic and temporozygomatic sutures and the upper pa of pterygoid plates.

1

Le Fo-1

Le Fo-2

Le Fo-3

Cranifacial disruction

ENT

null

6b6b54ac-204c-4755-b0d8-b6ae65395370

single

O2 release to tissue is affected by all except

Ans: c (Bicarbonate) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/p.667O2 release to tissue depends on oxygen dissociation curve.Shift of oxygen dissociation curve depends upon 2,3 - DPG pH and globin chain.

3

2,3-DPG

pH

Bicarbonate

Globin chain

Physiology

Respiratory System

8ade7c18-5c92-448d-86e8-4ba343bf981d

multi

The proseal LMA has advantage over normal LMA

Advantage of proseal LMA over classical LMA is that it is comparable to ETT in preventing aspiration. The PLMA shows several modifications from the cLMA: The drain tube runs through the device from the tip to the proximal end. When the PLMA is correctly positioned, the tip of the device forms a high-pressure seal with the oesophageal inlet and the drain tube runs in continuity with the oesophageal lumen . oesophageal drain tube posterior inflatable cuff reinforced airway tube integral bite block introducer this reduces the risk of aspiration and hence may be suitable in non-supine positions (e.g., lateral, prone), in laparoscopic surgery (e.g., cholecystectomy, gynecological surgery), and in patients who are obese.

2

In being more easy to inse

Comparable to endotracheal tube in preventing aspiration

Can be inseed in concious patient.

Can be used for pulmonary toileting

Anaesthesia

Airway

3d59a333-060b-40c9-bff7-a9b96c70142a

single

Which among the following fluoroquinolone has longest half-life?

Among the given options, the drug with longest half life is moxifloxacin (around 12 hours) but overall longest acting is sparfloxacin. Half-life of fluoroquinolones Drug Half Life Drug Half Life Ciprofloxacin 4 hours Norfloxacin 3 hours Gatifloxacin 7-8 hours Levofloxacin 7-8 hours Lomefloxacin 8 hours Moxifloxacin 12-15 hours Ofloxacin 8-9 hours Sparfloxacin 18-20 hours Grepafloxacin 12-15 hours Trovafloxacin 12 hours

4

Levofloxacin

Lomefloxacin

Ciprofloxacin

Moxifloxacin

Pharmacology

Antimetabolites and Quinolones

e6711124-803e-494d-9cfd-f859cf46820c

single

Regarding fovea, which of the following statements is true –a) Has the lowest threshold for lightb) Contains only conesc) Contains only rodsd) Maximum visual acuitye) Is located at apex of optic nerve

Fovea centralis contains only cones; therefore, has maximum visual acuity and lowest threshold for light. Option d is absurd as there is no apex in the optic nerve. It is orbital apex where the optic nerve enters the eye socket.

4

acd

bcd

abc

abd

Ophthalmology

null

40ece149-0759-4f56-b6e2-3ee20c6fdc14

multi

Sprue should ideally be made of

null

4

Inlay wax

plastic rod

Hollow plastic

hollow metal

Dental

null

6f984290-fd4b-414f-8f2d-1a9c10b1ed00

multi

Serotonin is:

Ans. B. 5 Hydroxytryptamine5 Hydroxy Tryptophan is decarboxylated by Aromatic aminoacid decarboxylase to form 5 Hydroxytryptamine or Serotonin. Coenzyme is PLP.

2

5 Hydroxy tryptophan

5 Hydroxy tryptamine

5 Carboxy tryptamine

5 Carboxy tryptophan

Biochemistry

Proteins and Amino Acids

91945f21-0fb3-43da-9d38-9f519ba9b10f

single

Which of the following is more common in children?

Recent recognition that periodontal disease may have its origins in childhood has led dentists to be more aggressive in treatment. Studies confirm a high prevalence of gingival inflammation in children. Reference: McDONALD AND AVERY’S DENTISTRY for the CHILD and ADOLESCENT, 10th ed page no 243

1

Gingivitis

Periodontitis

ANUG

Pericoronitis

Dental

null

71acfd4f-4900-4977-9268-d68a1b2c28a6

single

Irreversible cell injury is characterised by which of the following?

The two key features of irreversible injury are: Inability to reverse mitochondrial dysfunction and Development of profound disturbances in the membrane function

1

Mitochondrial densities

Cellular swelling

Blebs

Myelin figures

Pathology

null

08ff3f4e-97f2-4bf6-9b3d-4a7ff7c611e1

single

Maternal viremia most commonly spreading to fetus in utero:

Ans. (a) CMV Ref. Nelson 17/e, p 568, 623, 626, 631 Transplacental transmission occure in Viruses Rubella CMV HSV Varicella zoster virus Parvo B - 19 Coxasackie viruses HIV West nile virus Coxasackie viruses HBV and HCV Measles Bacteria Syphilis TB Brucella Parasite Plasmodium T. cruzi Microsporidia Toxoplasma

1

CMV

Rubella

HIV

Herpes

Microbiology

null

2fe7a87c-de23-4c20-96be-8c951488f6ad

single

Injury to cervical sympathetic trunk produces Horner's syndrome, that includes all, except

Injury to cervical Symphathetic trunk (which are formed by T1 to T4 fibres of spinal cord) produces Horner's syndrome. It is characterized by • ptosis (dropping of the upper eyelid) • miosis (constriction of pupil) • anhydrosis (loss of sweating) • enophthalmos (retraction of eye ball)

4

Anhydrosis

Enopthalmos

Ptosis

Mydriasis

Anatomy

null

239371f7-936d-46de-a526-d9249676a2a4

multi

Not a criteria of J.R.A (Juvenile Rheumatoid Ahritis)

. juvenile Rheumatoid ahritis : age should be below 16 yrs Ref : Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 625

1

Age > 16 yrs

Ahritis > 3 wks

Ahritis > 6 months

1 or more joint involvement

Pediatrics

Musculoskeletal disorders

1ad4153a-e3ce-4628-b857-68a3a18fee13

single

The disease associated with miss folded proteins is:

Prions disease is produced due to miss folded proteins Most common type of prions disease is: creutzfeldt-jakob disease Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:10,11,12

2

Typhoid

Prions disease

Cholera

All

Anatomy

General anatomy

791a3030-3087-498e-8eef-8a31521eb2cc

multi

Slapped cheek appearance is caused by -

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Parvo virus DiseaseI.P.ProdromeRashOther diagnostic featureo Roseola Infantum (6th disease) caused byHHV-610-14 daysFever (3-4 days)o Pink macular rash appearing at the end of illness,o Resolves within 2 dayso It spares the faceo Usually occur in children between 2-6 yrs. of ageRubella14-21 daysUsually Noneo Mild maculo popular Rash, Rapidly spreads and gone by day 4o Postauricular & sub- occipital adenopathyo PolyarthralgiaErythema infectiosum (Fifth disease) caused by Parovirus13-18 daysNoneo Slapped cheek appearanceo Reticular rash that waxes & wanes over 3 wkso In 50% children rash remains after 10 dayso May cause Aplastic crisisMeasles10-14 dayFever (4 days)o Maculopapular rash begins behind ear and spread rapidly in a few hour over the face and neck extends down the body rash lasts for 1 weeko Koplik test

1

Parvo virus

Measles

Rubella

HHV-6

Skin

Skin Lesions And Disorders Of Pigmentation

03845b05-1c45-48d5-84dd-ac44a96963de

single

Which of the following is also known as collateral ligament?

The collateral ligaments attach the medial and lateral borders of articular disc to the poles of condyles and are commonly called as discal ligaments.

2

Sphenomandibular ligament

Discal ligament

Stylomandibular ligament

Lateral ligament

Dental

null

92611dda-1895-41f9-b449-1b76585b3c8c

single

Urinary bladder spasmolytic having local anaesthetic propey-

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Oxybutynin o Oxybutynin, a newer antimuscarinic, has high affinity for receptors in urinary bladder and salivary glands alongwith additional smooth muscle relaxant and local anaesthetic propeies.

3

Tamsulosin

Terazosin

Oxybutynin

Yohimbine

Pharmacology

null

4b0b6bd9-2ca7-4623-af4b-816360c47cfc

single

When subcondylar fractures on protrusion of mandible it deviates to

null

1

Same side

Opposite side

Does not move

retrudes

Surgery

null

c44825c7-ab2e-469d-b8b8-dcf0e31e4923

single

The drug of choice for the treatment of Pneumocystis jirovei (Pneumocystis carini) pneumonia is

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is characterised by progressive dyspnoea with dry cough and fever.Chest X ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrate spreading out from hilar regions.High resolution CT scan is more sensitive,showing 'ground-glass' interstitial infiltrates.Diagnosis is made with silver stains,PCR,immunofluorescence of bronchoalveolar lavage(BAL)/induced sputum.Treatment is with high dose co-trimoxazole;together with adjunctive steroids if the patient is hypoxic. Reference: Davidson edition23rd pg 584

2

Lamivudine

Co-trimoxazole

Doxycycline

Itraconazole

Medicine

Respiratory system

8426170a-cc44-429e-8695-2644b4e796e2

single

Ewings sarcoma arises from:

Ewings sarcoma is a neuro ectodermal tumor.

3

Totipoetent cells

Blastemal cells

Neuroectodermal cells

Mesodermal cells

Pathology

null

5247fd89-39cd-4541-b787-f47e1486a5fc

single

Antidote of methyl alcohol poisoning is:

Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase & drug of choice for methanol poisoning by retarding its metabolism . Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed.

2

Barbiturate

Fomepizole

Phenytoin

Pharmacology

Central Nervous system

754cab04-42ca-46f2-974b-5e65434b465d

single

A 5-year-old boy presents with ear pain and fever. The left eardrum is inflamed with a small perforation in it and pus is seen in the external canal. A swab of the area grows S. pneumoniae. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for S. pneumoniae to cause otitis media?

Infections of the middle ear, trachea, sinuses, bronchi, and lungs are caused by direct spread from nasopharyngeal colonization. Disease of the CNS, heart valves, bones, joints, and peritoneal are usually caused by hematogenous dissemination.

2

hematogenous spread

direct extension from the nasopharynx

direct inoculation on the ear

spread through lymphatic tissue

Medicine

Infection

d245bd4e-08eb-48b0-83f4-6edef3e91240

multi

Coombs test is:

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Agglutination test(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 109 and 8th/e, p. 108)* Coombs test (antiglobulin test or anti - Rh antibody test) is an agglutination test.* The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies that are stuck to the surface of red blood cells. Many diseases and drugs can cause this. These antibodies sometimes destroy red blood cells and cause anemia. Your doctor may order this test if you have signs or symptoms of anemia or jaundice.* The indirect Coombs test looks for free-flowing antibodies against certain red blood cells. It is most often done to determine if you may have a reaction to a blood transfusion.

2

Precipitation test

Agglutination test

CFT

Neutralization test

Microbiology

Immunology

07e304b2-6c82-4e59-a243-9704b8fb8e33

single

Live attenuated microorganisms are used in the following type of vaccine for the production of immunity:

Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine is the only widely used live bacterial vaccine. It consists of living bacteria derived from an attenuated bovine strain of tubercle bacilli. The bacilli used for vaccine production are descendants of the original Calmette strain of BCG. The WHO has recommended the 'Danish 1331' strain for the production of BCG vaccine. Since January 1967, the BCG Laboratory at Guindy, Chennai, has been using the 'Danish 1331' strain for the production of BCG vaccine. Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine by K Park, 19th edition, Page 160.

1

BCG

Salk

DPT

Tetanus toxoid

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

e9ddd9d9-8500-4daa-a3f9-ac2ca275ee61

single

Coical area controlling vestibular function is located in ?

Ans. is'b'i.e., Parietal lobe [Rel Gray's Anatomy'E book p. j20)Information from the vestibular nuclei also reaches the cerebral coex by way of thalamus (probably posterior pas of the ventroposterior complex and the medial pulvinar).The primary vestibular coical area is located in the parietal lobe

2

Frontal lobe

Parietal lobe

Occipital lobe

All of the above

Physiology

null

97e5c678-e69b-4156-b2fa-44161d015135

multi

Which of the following is not a component of carotid sheath

It is a condensation of the fibroareolar tissue around the main vessels of the neck. There are the common and internal carotid arteries and internal jugular vein and the vagus nerve

3

Vagus nerve

Internal jugular vein

External carotid artery

Internal carotid artery

Anatomy

null

e32aeaf6-0975-4b61-aa7b-d0467e8af601

single

Increased risk of liver adenoma is found in which of the following diseases?

Increased risk of hepatic adenomas is a feature of glycogen storage disorder type 1 (Von Geirke's disease). NARP stands for Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa. NARP is a disease featuring weakness of the muscles near the trunk, ataxia (wobbliness), retinal disease, seizures and developmental delay. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 269

3

Lipid storage disorder

Mitochondrial disease

Glycogen storage disorder

Lysosomal storage disorder

Biochemistry

All India exam

f57c38f8-a648-49f6-8456-a330c40d600d

single

A 29 year old male found HBsAg positive with highly increased SCOT levels but HBeAg negative. Which of the foUowing is true about the status ofthe patient -

Hepatitis B e antigen Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) is an indicator of viral replication. In acute hepatitis B it may appear only transiently at the outset of the illness; its appearance is followed by the production of antibody (anti-HBe). The HBeAg reflects active replication of the virus in the liver. Chronic HBV infection (see below) is marked by the presence of HBsAg and anti-HBc (IgG) in the blood. Usually, HBeAg or anti-HBe is also present; HBeAg indicates continued active replication of the virus in the liver. The absence of HBeAg usually implies low viral replication; the exception is HBeAg-negative chronic hepatitis B (also called 'pre-core mutant' infection) , in which high levels of viral replication, serum HBV-DNA and hepatic necroinflammation are seen, despite negative HBeAg. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg875

1

Precore mutant

Core-promoter mutant

Wild type mutant

Surface mutant

Medicine

G.I.T

fc98e962-fa25-44dd-8e86-492a16f74724

multi

Anti pruritic property is seen with

Propofol has anti pruritic property.

2

Thiopentone

Propofol

Etomidate

Ketamine

Anaesthesia

null

108e5590-53b9-4d43-83b3-6d06e55ab312

single

The frequently occurring value in a distribution of data is: September 2012, March 2013 (b)

Ans: B i.e. Mode The mode is the value that appears most often in a set of data.

2

Median

Mode

Standard detion

Mean

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

b9232c3f-460a-41be-91b2-6b65bb473529

single

Reservoir for scrub typhus -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rodents DiseaseAgentInsect vectorMammalian reservoir1. Typhus group a. Epidemic typhusR. prowazekiiLouseHumansb. Murine typhus (Endemic typhus)R. typhiFleaRodentsc. Scrub typhusR. tsutsugamushiMiteRodents2. Spotted fever group a. Indian tick typhusR.conoriiTickRodents, dogsb. Rocky mountain spotted feverR.rickettsiiTickRodents, dogsc. Rickettsial poxR. akariMiteMice3. Others a. Q feverC.burnetiiNilCattle, sheep, goats.b. Trench feverRocholimaca quintanaLouseHumans

3

Mite

Humans

Rodents

Dogs

Social & Preventive Medicine

Communicable Diseases

6cd9fbd5-8748-4599-9dd5-7b9210bcba8d

single

To avoid contraception DMPA Is given :

Ans. is b i.e. 3 monthly

2

Monthly

3 Monthly

6 Monthl

Yearly

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

94125c72-5ada-4568-a2e1-8673c793efc5

single

What is the normal weight of uterus?

Ans. C 60 gRef: William's OB, 23rd ed. Ch 1* William's states "In nonparous women, the uterus averages 50 to 70 g, whereas in parous women it averages 80 g or more"* Since this question is asking just the normal weight of uterus, 60 gm is most appropriate given the option.UTERUS* Shape- pyriform* Size- 7.5 cm long x 5 cm broad x 2.5 cm thick* Weight- 60 g* Position- 90 degree with the long axis of vagina* Angulation- anteverted, anteflexed

3

20 g

40 g

60 g

100 g

Anatomy

Abdomen & Pelvis

f860c6d4-c4a9-4bf6-ab82-b7fdd7f00752

single

Frieberg's disease involve

condition characterized by infarction and fracture of the metatarsal head. Most often seen in 2nd metatarsal (MT) head, paicularly the dorsal aspect4th and 5th MT rarely affected Bony nucleus of epiphysis is affected in osteochondritis Ref: Maheshwari and Mhaskar 6e pg 318.

3

Tibial tuberosity

Calcaneal tuberosity

2nd metatarsal

5th metarasal

Orthopaedics

Anatomy and physiology of bone and fracture healing

8f3736dc-ca76-4bd5-ba51-2df147a4297e

single

Which of the following lymph nodes are known as Delphic nodes?

There is extensive lymphatic network seen in thyroid. Although some lymph channels pass directly to the deep cervical nodes, the subcapsular plexus drains principally to the central compament juxta thyroid - 'Delphian' or pretracheal - and paratracheal nodes and nodes on the superior and inferior thyroid veins, and from there to the deep cervical and mediastinal groups of nodes.

1

Pretracheal

Paratracheal

Supraclavicular

Posterior triangle

Anatomy

null

4a9e34a7-c0eb-47fb-b89a-9b3550d59e67

single

Salivary amylase is activated by

Both salivary and pancreatic α -amylases are activated by Cl–

4

Na+

K+

HCO3-

Cl-

Physiology

null

b48fcefc-35a5-47f3-aeb4-38814762ecaf

single

Filgrastim is used for the treatment of :

Filgrastim (G-CSF) and sargramostim (GM-CSF) are used to prevent or treat chemotherapy-induced neutropenia. Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure and cancer chemotherapy. Oprelvekin (IL-11) is used to prevent and treat thrombocytopenia.

1

Neutropenia

Anemia

Polycythemia

Neutrophilia

Pharmacology

null

23c51c99-169c-430f-bef4-2aad21ddbf61

single

Which among the following is not a branch of Arch of Aoa?

Right common carotid REF: Keith L. Moore 4th edition page 103The branches of the arch of the aoa are:Brachiocephalic trunk.Left common carotid aery.Left subclan aery.The brachiocephalic trunk, the first and largest branch of the arch, arises posterior to the manubrium, where it lies anterior to the trachea and posterior to the left brachiocephalic vein. It ascends superolaterally to reach the right side of the trachea and the right sternoclavicular joint, where it divides into the right common carotid and right subclan aeries.Ascending aoaLeft subclan aeryLeft veebral aeryLeft common carotid aeryBrachiocephalic aeryRight common carotidRight veebral aeryRight subclan aeryDescending aoaAoic arch

2

Brachiocephalic

Right common carotid

Left common carotid

Left Subclan

Anatomy

null

072d0d35-4e00-4e76-8168-dd06f5561fa7

single

Bactericidal inhibitors of protein synthesis are:

(Ref: KDT 6/e p669) Most protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotics are bacterostatic but aminoglycosides are bactericidal.

2

Tetracyclines

Aminoglycosies

Macrolides

Lincosamides

Pharmacology

Other topics and Adverse effects

58764465-7377-428d-bbba-4345d914e564

single

Proptosis is seen in

B option is also correct Neuroblastoma metastasizes in the orbit causing Proptosis Refer khurana 6/e

1

Neuroblastoma

Meningioma

Sympathetic Ophthalmia

Injuries

Anatomy

General anatomy

21eea28e-cf97-4c3f-8d4d-f2b096cd297a

single

True about Budd-chiari syndrome -a) Associated with coagulopathyb) Cirrhosis may occur c) Good prognosisd) Ascites may be present e) Hepatic vein thrombosis

Budd Chiari syndrome may be predisposed by hypercoagulable conditions, eg deficiency of antithrombin, protein C & S. Clinical features The acute syndrome presents with rapidly progressive - severe upper abdominal pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly (enlarge liver), ascites, elevated liver enzymes and eventual encephalopathy. The fulminant syndrome presents early with encephalopathy and ascites. Severe hepatic necrosis and lactic acidosis may be present as well. Caudate lobe hypertrophy is often present. The majority of patients have a slower-onset form of Budd-chiari syndrome. A system of venous collaterals may form around the occlusion which may be seen on imaging as a "spider's web". Patients may progress to cirrhosis and show signs of liver failure. An asymptomatic form may be totally silent and discovered only incidently. It is generally not concerning. Prognosis Several studies have attempted to predict the survival of patients with Budd-chiari syndrome. In general, nearly 2/3 of patients with Budd- chiari are alive at 10 years. Important negative prognostic indicators include ascites, encephalopathy, elevated Child-Pugh scores, elevated prothrombin time and altered serum levels of various substance(sodium, creatinine, albumin and bilirubin). Survival is also highly dependent on the underlying cause of the Budd-chiari syndrome, eg patients with myeloproliferative disorders may progress to acute leukemia independent of Budd-chiari syndrome.

4

abcd

bcde

acde

abde

Pathology

null

a7650716-43ac-466d-a73f-59e79c962469

multi

Which is false about Wuchereria bancrofti -

Definite host- man Intermediate host- mosquito No animal reservoir is known for W.bancrofti The adult worms are harboured in lymphatic system of man (refer pgno:166 baveja 3 rd edition)

4

Causes filariasis

Body is long and slender

Terminal nuclei absent

Man and anopheles are host

Microbiology

parasitology

62116417-e392-4b3a-b328-931da599fec1

multi

The blood supply of the medulla comes from all of the following, EXCEPT:

Blood supply to the medulla is supplied byAnterior spinal aery: The anterior spinal aery supplies the whole medial pa of the medulla oblongata.Posterior inferior cerebellar aery: It is a major branch of the veebral aery that supplies the posterolateral pa of the medulla.Veebral aery: It supplies an area between the other two main aeries, including the nucleus solitarius and other sensory nuclei and fibres. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 16. Brain. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy

4

Posterior inferior cerebellar aery

Veebral aery

Spinal aeries

Superior cerebellar aery

Anatomy

null

7be112b7-544a-4a05-ac99-3ec64356cf8a

multi

All of the following are true about Weber's syndrome. Except

Answer is D (Ipsilateral facial nerve palsy): Weber's syndrome is `midbrain' syndrome charachterized by Ipsilateral Occulomotor Nerve Palsy (Opthalmoplegia / Diplopia) and Contralateral Hemiplegia. Midbrain Syndromes Symptoms and Signs Structures involved Weber's syndrome * Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy * Oculomotor nerve * Contralateral hemiplegia including face * Coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts Benedikt's syndrome * Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy * Oculomotor nerve * Contralateral hemiparesis including face * Coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts * Contralateral intention tremor * Red nucleus Claude's syndrome * Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy * Oculomotor nerve * Contralateral hemiataxia and hemiasynergia * Red nucleus and brachium conjunctivum Parinaud's syndrome * Bilateral veical palsy * Superior colliculus * Bilateral paralysis of convergence * Superior colliculus

4

Ipsilateral occulomotor nerve palsy

Diplopia

Contralateral hemiplagia

Ipsilateral facial nerve palsy

Medicine

null

55f00124-0031-41b8-8a08-7b3b6452da0a

multi

H. Influenzae grows on all of the media except

Nutrient agar lacks factor V and X hence does not suppo it's growth.

3

Chocolate agar

Fields agar

Nutrient agar

Blood agar with S aureus streak line

Anatomy

Bacteriology

c7c1d7ed-bf87-42a3-b3f9-1af5cb04291e

multi

Chronic cocaine abuse have following features except:

Cocaine : Fatal dose: 1g oral/ 20 mg IV Chronic cocaine abuse: a) Ulceration of nasal septum / palate b) Peripheral gangrene c) Black color staining of tongue d) Cocaine bugs/ formication Chronic cannabis abuse: a. Amotivational syndrome b. Run amok: homicidal impulse/stabbing spree

4

Peripheral gangrene

Black staining of tongue

Formication

Run amok

Forensic Medicine

Drug Abuse

c3d7218d-6e1b-4ef5-9ead-7caadee5a52a

multi

During general dental treatment local anesthesia is feasible in?

null

2

Child

Adult

Mentally retarded

Physically challenged

Surgery

null

82830320-7989-4d62-8941-35aa94b0089e

multi

Gram-negative bacteria doesn't take gram stain because it is made of:

Ans. d. None of the above

4

Polysaccharide

Lipopolysaccharide

Techoic acid

None of the above

Microbiology

null

65ce78de-ff84-4103-b878-04fcc8663768

multi

Best screening method for Mirizzi syndrome is:

Mirizzi syndrome: Suspected cases should be examined with ultrasonography or CT for anatomical evaluation to avoid biliary injury or postoperative biliary leakage related to undetected fistula formation. ERCP has been recommended as the best screening method. Ref: Turk J Gastroenterol 2008; 19 (4): 258-263.

4

USG abdomen

CECT abdomen

Plain X-Ray abdomen

ERCP

Surgery

null

5e517c8d-4f09-4fbc-832a-d0ea758595a9

single

xylene and toluene ate types of

Inhalants * FAMOUS COMPONDS==Toluene, xylene, trichloroethylene AGE OF ONET-----------Adolescent * Breath only for minutes, * inexpensive, * legal to possess, * easily concealed * COMPLICATIONS * Respiratory depression, * aspiration, * temporal lobe epilepsy, * leukoencephalopathy * LAB INVESTIGATION * Urine.============. Gas chromatography Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.656

1

inhalants

hallicinigens

stimulants

anabolic androgenic steroids

Psychiatry

Substance abuse

87a3bac4-9464-46b1-a732-e88953375794

multi

Physiological locking involves

A i.e. Internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia Physiological locking occurs in last 30 degree of extension, when femur rotates medially (internally) over stabilized tibiaQ. This very stable position is caused by quadriceps femoris muscle. Unlocking needed to initiate flexion is carried out by popliteus muscle, which moves femur laterally on stabilized tibia.

1

Internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia

Internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur

External rotation of tibia over stabilized femur

External rotation of femur over stabilized tibia

Surgery

null

0c44fab8-128a-4bb8-a19c-edf2bd47d0aa

single

The approximate no of genes contained in human genome

Humans have a mere 30,000 genes rather than the 100000 predicted only recently . Recent ribbons mention the no of genes 20,000 to 25,000 Ribbons 7th/219

2

A. 40,000

B. 30,000

C. 80,000

D. 1,00,000

Anatomy

General anatomy

3237cac7-65d9-4859-b5b6-1ca98694ddd1

single

Acquired nasolacrimal duct obstruction is caused by

B i.e. Pilocarpine

2

Timolol

Pilocarpine

Brimonidine

Dorzolamide

Ophthalmology

null

b2792f26-5561-45cc-af6b-f3c214b24007

single

A patient is brought to the emergency room after being found by search and rescue teams. He was mountain climbing, got caught in a sudden snowstorm, and had to survive in a cave. He had no food for 6 days. In adapting to these conditions, which metabolic process has increased rather than decreased?

In the starvation state, muscle decreases the use of ketone bodies, causing an elevation of ketone bodies in the bloodstream. The brain uses the ketone bodies for energy and uses less glucose, decreasing the need for gluconeogenesis and thus sparing muscle protein degradation to provide the precursors for gluconeogenesis. Red blood cells cannot use ketone bodies and must utilize glucose. Therefore, the use of glucose by red blood cells would be unchanged under these conditions.

4

The brain's use of glucose

Muscle's use of ketone bodies

The red blood cells' use of glucose

The brain's use of ketone bodies

Biochemistry

Nutrition & Digestion

34f4dc0d-96fe-4617-ac46-270c631c1241

single

A 27 year old male is is incidentally HBsAg positive. DNA-PCR for hepatitis B revealed 1000 copies/ml.The patient is suffering from?

null

4

Active HBV carrier

Acute hepatitis B

Chronic hepatitis B

Inactive HBV carrier

Medicine

null

48b462ba-440a-4443-84fb-05021ae5fc8e

multi

In an adult patient with plural effusion, the most appropriate site for plurisentesis done by inseing a needle is in:

Answer is B (7th Intercostal space in mid axillary line): Site of pleural effusion drainage is seventh intercostal space in mid-axillary line. Pneumothorax

2

5th intercostals space in midclevicular line

7th intercostal space in mid axillary's bone

2nd intercostals space adjacent to the sternum

10th intercostal space adjacent to the veebral column

Medicine

null

048486c6-12e1-44a7-8918-383fad8bc75f

single

A patient presents with history of bullae involving >30% BSA along with rashes all over body with erosions of the lips and other mucosa for few days. What can be the triggering factor?

Ans. B. Drug induced* Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a potentially life-threatening dermatologic disorder characterized by widespread (TEN involves more than 30% of the body surface, whereas SJS involves less than 10%) erythema, necrosis, and bullous detachment of the epidermis and mucous membranes, resulting in exfoliation and possible sepsis and/or death. Mucous membrane involvement can result in gastrointestinal hemorrhage, respiratory failure, ocular abnormalities, and genitourinary complications.* TEN is most commonly treated by drug-induced antibiotics (sulfonamides), antiepileptic drugs (Phenobarbital, Phenytoin), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), ampicillin, allopurinol, and the antiretroviral drugs (nevirapine, abacavir).* The mainstay of treatment is supportive care until the epithelium regenerates.

2

Viral infection

Drug induced

Bacterial infection

Idiopathic

Skin

Miscellaneous

ca9ac082-dd5d-4387-ad90-ed37a10af084

multi

The reproductive method by which fungi asexually produce rectangular spores by fragmentation of hyphae is known as-

Ahrospores Fungi asexually produce rectangular spores Produced by fragmentation of hypha. Eg.Coccidioides.

4

Chlamydospore

Blastospore

Conidiophore

Ahrospore

Microbiology

Mycology

004585b9-9349-4e0b-bebe-4e8e614a9dc5

multi

Which of the following is earliest sign of ulcerative colitis on double contrast barium enema (DCBE) study?

.

1

Fine Mucosal granularity

Loss of haustrations

'Collar-button' ulcers

Lead pipe colon

Pathology

All India exam

c5fb528c-1155-4523-bf4c-7e0cbe2b4729

single

The drug of choice for treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is

Refer KDT 6 /e p 250 Propylthiouracil does not cross placenta and us therefore The drug of choice in first trimester pregnancy

3

Iodine therapy

Carbimazole

Propylthiouracil

Methimazole

Pharmacology

Endocrinology

1d3d7abf-36bb-453d-9609-a701d1aead52

single

A city has a population of 10000 with 500 diabetic patients. A new diagnostic test gives true positive result in 350 patients and false positive result in 1900 patients. Which of the following is/are true regarding the test ?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prevalence is 5%; 'b' i.e., Sensitivity is 70% & 'c' i.e., Specificity is 80% In this question : Total patients = 500 (diabetic patients) True positive patients = 350 Thus remaining 150 (500-350) are false negative. 350 So, sensitivity of test = 350+150 70% Similarly, Total non-diseased are = 9500 (10000-500) Among these false positive are = 1900 Thus remaining 7600 are ture negative (9500-1900) 7600 So, specificity of test = = 80% 9500 500 o Prevalance of disease = x 100 = 5% 10000

4

Prevalence is 5%

Sensitivity is 70%

Specificity is 80%

All

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

f3fa2639-9cba-4c2d-9629-8b1bb4858f36

multi

Which of the following is the most common tumor of the fetus and newborn –

Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT) is the most common neoplasm in the fetus and newborn. Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT) is the most common neoplasm in the fetus and newborn with an estimated prevalence of 1:30,000- 1:40,000 and with a 3:1 female preponderance. - Handbook of Fetal Medicine by Shailesh Kumar (Cambridge Univ Press) 2010/87 Most common tumor in fetus and neonate → sacrococcygeal teratoma Most common tumor in infancy → neuroblastoma

4

Neuroblastoma

Wilm's tumor

Leukemia

Sacrococcygeal Teratoma

Pediatrics

null

c93fdaea-b405-4b93-bf84-8887ad38be04

single

Efferent's from cerebellum is through

The only output from the cerebellum is the axons of Purkinje cells, they are the biggest neurons of CNS & are inhibitory in nature (GABA ) Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 250

3

Golgi cells

Basket cells

Purkinje cells

Bipolar cells

Physiology

Nervous system

9582b5cd-7ec8-442d-8112-8b45a4d4414a

single

Which of the following is not associated with ANCA?

null

4

Microscopic polyangitis

Churg strauss syndrome

Wegener's granulomatosis

Henoch shonlein purpura

Medicine

null

4b5221fd-1e3f-4c21-899b-19862447ec43

single

Antisperm antibodies are usually present in the :

Cervix

1

Cervix

Vagina

Uterus

Fallopian tube

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

a338af1c-6654-4287-af2e-c11106eb9f92

multi

The only oncogenic virus whose pathogenicity has been proved without doubt is -

HTLV1 present world wide.it causes adult T cell leukemia,tropical dpadtic paraparesid.it mainly infect CD4 cells .infected cell express more inter leukin2 REF:<\p>MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.567

1

HTLV - I

HTLV - II

HTLV - III

HTLV - IV

Microbiology

Virology

0a2247a4-63ca-4be1-ad62-0794e16a3091

single

All are features of dengue hemorrhagic fever expect:

1. Criteria for diagnosis of dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF): o Fever - acute, high, continuous for 2-7 days. o Positive tourniquet test o Enlargement of liver o Laboratory evidence o Thrombocytopenia (< 1000,000/mm3) o Haemoconcentration (Haematocrit raised by >20%) Narrow pulse pressure is not seen in DHF

2

Thrombocytopenia

Narrow pulse pressure

Hematocrit elevated

Positive torniquet test.

Microbiology

Virology Pa-2 (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)

268a0f6c-6fd2-477b-885c-b3019453cd48

multi

Brown, spherical, septate bodies from pus are diagnostic of:

Chromoblastomycosis is also known as verrucous dermatitis. Lesions consist of way cutaneous nodule which resemble the florets of cauliflower. The disease is confined to subcutaneous tissue of feet and lower legs. Histologically lesions show, the presence of fungus as round / irregular, dark brown, yeast - like bodies with septae called sclerotic cells. Diagnosis is established by demonstration of sclerotic bodies in KOH mounts / in sections and by culture on sabouraud's agar. Also Know: Sporotrichosis is demonstrated by the presence of septate hyphae which carry flower like clusters of conidia on delicate sterigmata. Mucormycosis shows the presence of broad, non septate mycelia in tissues on sabouraud's medium. Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Paniker's 8th Ed Page 614.

2

Geotrichosis

Chromomycosis

Mucormycosis

Sporotrichosis

Microbiology

null

b4ae452b-78b9-417f-ab15-5a569565eddc

single

The deep ring is situated in

INGUINAL CANAL:- The oblique intermuscular passage in the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall. Extends from the deep inguinal ring to superficial. Deep ring- oval opening in fascia transversalis. 1.25 cm above mid-inguinal point. Superficial ring: triangular gap in external oblique aponeurosis. Length: 4cm Directed downwards forwards and medially.

3

External oblique

Internal oblique

Fascialis tranversalis

Cremasteric fascia

Anatomy

null

1d7f0b25-6249-410d-a6ad-fb4092f7c8b9

single

A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints of fever and weakness for the last one month. There is generalised lymphadenopathy. There was also associated hepatomegaly. Biopsy of liver showed non-caseating granuloma. There are most likely due to infection with:

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Brucella melitensis(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1066 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 339)Most common focal feature of brucellosis is musculoskeletal pain.Classic triad of fever - Profuse night sweating, arthralgia/arthritis and Hepatosplenomegaly are present in most patients.History of contact with animal followed by fever, lymphadenopathy and formation of non-caseating granuloma are features of brucellosis.

4

Yersinia pestis

Brucella canis

Francisella tularensis

Brucella melitensis

Microbiology

Bacteria

8cbe1669-ceae-4923-85ea-281077937fc7

single

Fulminant Amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., N. fowleri

2

Acanthamoeba

N.fowleri

E.Histolytic

E. Coli

Microbiology

null

9b7a66b0-d47f-42e4-ac7f-f641442f5a0e

single

Which is the only local anaesthesia which raises the BP:

Cocaine increases BP by inhibiting the reuptake of catecholamines.

2

Lignocaine

Cocaine

Prilocaine

Lidocaine

Pharmacology

null

4a99b01c-f8df-4710-823a-2dec1ec22502

single

A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of new-onset transient right arm weakness and word-finding difficulty lasting 3 hours. She is also experiencing exertional dyspnea, and had a syncopal event 1 month ago. Her medical history is only remarkable for 2 uneventful pregnancies, and she is not taking any medications.Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, and no residual focal neurological deficits. The ECG and CT brain are normal but an echocardiogram reveals a cardiac tumor in the left atrium, it is pedunculated, and attached to the endocardium. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this lesion?

The myxoma is a solitary globular or polypoid tumor varying in size from that of a cherry to a peach. About 75% are found in the left atrium, and most of the remainder in the right atrium. The clinical presentation is with one or more of the classical triad of constitution symptoms (fatigue, fever, anemia), embolic events, or obstruction of the valve orifice.Sarcomas are the most common malignant tumors of the heart but are usually seen on the right side, while rhabdomyomas and fibromas are more commonly seen in children, and usually occur in the ventricles.

1

myxoma

sarcoma

rhabdomyoma

fibroma

Medicine

C.V.S.

1484a9d5-4f10-411d-a901-f31ed68954ae

single

The chromosomal disorder in patau Syndrome is:

(Chromosome 13) (593-G) (615-Ghai 7th)* Down syndrome - 21* Edwards syndrome - 18* Patau syndrome - 13* Turner's syndrome - 45X/ 46XX* Klinefelter syndrome - 47XXY

3

Chromosome 21

Chromosome 18

Chromosome 13

Chromosome 45x / 46xx

Pediatrics

Genetics And Genetic Disorders

9d8f552f-c42b-46c7-9b17-d91f74c33a3e

single

Syncytium formation is a property of -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Measles virus Methods of detection of viral growth in cell cultures1. Cytopathic effecto Many viruses causes morphological changes in cultured cells knowm as cytopathic effect,o Examples are:EnterovirusMeasles virusHerpes virusAdenovirusSV40Crenation of cells and degeneration of the entire cell sheetSyncytium formationFocal degenrationLarge granular clump resembling bunches of grapesCytoplasmic vacuolation2. Metabolic Inhibition3. Hemadsorptiono Mainly for influenza and parainfluenza viruses.4. Interferenceo Growth of the first vims inhibit the growth of second vims.5. Transformationo For oncogenic viruses6. Immunofluoresenceo For detection of viral antigeno Give positive results earlier than other methods.

3

Herpes virus

Adenovirus

Measles virus

Rabies virus

Microbiology

Virology

4c4afcaa-25b9-4ee2-a8b6-127a2be9d5fe

single

Right hepatic duct drains all, Except:

B i.e. Segment III

2

Segment I

Segment III

Segment V

Segment VI

Anatomy

null

67d2dfed-1494-4d37-ae68-6e4c2601f6e5

multi

True about trematodes -

character cestodes trematodes nematodes shape tape like leaf like elongated and cylindrical body segmented unsegmented unsegmented sexes monoecious monoecious(except shistosoma) separate head contains suckers,often with suckers present,not hooks suckers and hooks absent body cavity absent absent present alimentary canal absent present(incomplete without anus) present and complete TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,BAVEJA,3RD EDITION,PAGE NO 115

1

Two host required

Segmented

Anus present

Body cavity present

Microbiology

parasitology

f97644fa-6899-4d39-841e-b487c9abf4e3

multi

Fracture of body of mandible with full arch of teeth (undisplaced) is treated by:

null

1

IMF

Open reduction and internal fixation

Close reduction and internal fixation

External pin fixation

Surgery

null

83d94b0b-1dc4-4b61-93ac-c9192aec71c9

single

Vigorous treatment of nephritis in SLE is indicated in:

Renal Biopsy in SLE: The pattern and severity of injury are impoant in diagnosis and selecting the best therapy. Aggressive immunosuppressive treatment is indicated in : Class III and IV disease Class V accompanied by III or IV disease Treatment for lupus nephritis is not recommended in class I or II disease or with extensive irreversible changes. Classification of Lupus Nephritis (International Society of Nephrology and Renal Pathology Society) Class I: Minimal Mesangial Lupus Nephritis Class II: Mesangial Proliferative Lupus Nephritis Class III: Focal Lupus Nephritis Class IV: Diffuse Lupus Nephritis Class V: Membranous Lupus Nephritis Class VI: Advanced Sclerotic Lupus Nephritis Ref:Harrison,E-18,P-2733

2

Class I & II

Class III & IV

Class IV & V

Class V & VI

Medicine

null

14f13ea0-4aa2-4611-9c1a-8f4013e24401

single

Pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is -

This question is slightly different from the previous one. Here the examiner is asking about the pathognomonic feature (not most consistent feature) both are different : A most consistent feature is the one which is always present in a fracture a. The pathognomonic feature is the one whose presence is diagnostic of a fracture Abnormal mobility at the fracture site and crepitus are two pathognomonic features of a fracture:- 1. Abnormal mobility is the most pathognomonic sign of a fracture:- "Abnormal mobility in the limb at the fracture site is diagnostic of a fracture". ____ Essentials of orthopaedics surgery "Abnormal mobility in fracture of a bone is characteristic or pathognomonic".___ British medical journal "Abnormal mobility between the fracture fragments is a sure sign of fracture". ____ Ebnezar 2. Crepitus is the second most pathognomonic sign of a fracture (after abnormal mobility):- "Crepitus can be considered as pathognomonic as abnormal mobility for a fracture". — Emergency medicine "Crepitus is common and essentially a reliable sign of a fracture". ____ Orthonet "Crepitus with abnormal mobility is pathognomonic of a fracture". ____ Miller

3

Redness

Swelling

Crepitus

Tenderness

Orthopaedics

null

54626b5b-99ba-42b1-a5d8-e5ba1f4e295b

single

Metcalfe's Criteria is used for:

Metcalfe's Criteria for Hea Disease in Pregnancy (Finding Suggestive of Hea Disease in Pregnancy) Symptoms Progressive dyspnea or ohopnea Nocturnal cough Hemoptysis Syncope Chest pain Clinical Findings Cyanosis Clubbing of fingers Persistent neck vein distention Systolic murmur grade 3/6 or greater Diastolic murmur Cardiomegaly Persistent split-second sound Criteria for pulmonary hypeension Persistent arrhythmias Atrial and ventricular premature contractions, 15deg Left Axis Detion and mild ST changes in inferior leads are considered normal during pregnancy.

3

Assessing risk of maternal moality in pregnancy

Grading congenital valvular hea diseases in pregnancy

Findings suggestive of hea disease in pregnancy

Classifying various cardiomyopathies

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy

90461301-7559-4478-b039-4579f7bb51d1

single

Renauld Braude phenomenon is seen in -

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Candida albicans Candida o Candida albicans is the most common cause of mucosal candidiasis. o All Candida species pathogenic for humans are also encountered as commensals of humans, particularly in the mouth, stool and vagina. o They grow rapidly on simple media as oval budding cells at 25deg to 37o C. o In tissue, both yeasts and pseudohyphae are present, o Candida albicans is differentiated by other Candida: It forms true hyphae (mycelia) or germ tubes when grown in serum. It forms thick walled large spores called chlamydospores when grown on corn meal agar. It is dimorphic. o A rapid method of identifying Co. albicans is based on its ability to form germ tubes within two hours when incubated in human serum at 37degC - Reynolds - Braude phenomenon {Also known as germ tube test).

1

Candida albicans

Candida pscittasi

Histoplasma

Cryptococcus

Microbiology

Mycology

ff79a598-4bfd-404b-bbd9-5c69353b6781

single

A young adult presents with proptosis and pain in eye after 4 days of trauma to eye. Chemosis, conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle palsy with inability to move eye are seen.Investigation of choice -

Information in this question are :- Presentation 4 days after trauma Traumatic proptosis along with chemosis and conjunctival congestion Extraocular muscle palsy (ophthalmoplegia) Given the patient's clinical presentation of proptosis with chemosis and conjunctival congestion in the setting of cranio-facial injury, a traumatic carotid-cavernous fistula is suspected. Most likely diagnosis is carotico-cavernous fistula. Selective carotid angiography using digital subtraction techniques is the investigation of choice. Another condition which may present with similar features is CST, but it is very rare after trauma.

2

MRI

Digital subtraction angiography

CT

MR angiography

Ophthalmology

null

15d5df51-a243-4432-8afd-b40da6b97281

single

Childhood obesity prevention is a type of?

null

1

Primordial prevention

Primary prevention

Secondary prevention

Tertiary prevention

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

913be714-9ac4-48f5-beb1-6a984658646b

single

Which of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma?

t (8 - 14) translocation is seen in 75% cases of Burkitt's lymphoma not multiple myeloma. Diagnostic criteria of multiple myeloma requires presence of more than 10% plasma cells in bone marrow, presence of monoclonal protein in serum or urine and presence of evidence of end organ damage (hypercalcemia, anemia, bone lesions or renal insufficiency). Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition chapter 111.

3

Recurrent infection

Neurological manifestation

t (8 - 14) translocation

Hypercalcemia

Medicine

null

ddf92300-1923-4dab-b7bc-03b67c37ce86

single

Which is the following is false regarding reversible cell injury?

On microscopic examination of reversibly injured cells, small clear vacuoles may be seen within the cytoplasm; these represent distended and pinched-off segments of the ER. This pattern of nonlethal injury is sometimes called hydropic change or vacuolar degeneration. The ultrastructural changes of reversible cell injury, visible by electron microscopy include the following: Plasma membrane alterations, such as blebbing, blunting, and loss of microvilli Mitochondrial changes, including swelling and the appearance of small amorphous densities Accumulation of "myelin figures" in the cytosol composed of phospholipids derived from damaged cellular membranes Dilation of the ER, with detachment of polysomes Nuclear alterations, with disaggregation of granular and fibrillar elements Phenomena that consistently characterize irreversible cell injury: inability to reverse mitochondrial dysfunction (lack of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation) even after resolution of the original injury profound disturbances in membrane function (breakdown of plasma membrane).

2

Detachment of ribosomes from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

Breakdown of plasma membrane

Hydropic change

Accumulation of myelin figures in the cytoplasm

Pathology

Reversible Cell Injury

e28050e4-469c-437b-b91c-2c8eaa3b0c44

multi

A 15 years old girl complains of anterior knee pain which increases on going upstairs and getting up after prolonged sitting. The most probable diagnosis is:

Ans. A. Chondromalacia Patellaea. Bipartite patellae is congenital fragmentation of patellae and is usually asymptomaticb. Plica syndrome- presence of synovial fold in suprapatellar pouch which can undergo inflammation and presents as meniscal symptoms of lockingc. PFA will be seen in later age.

1

Chondromalacia Patellae

Plica syndrome

Bipartite patellae

Patellofemoral arthritis

Orthopaedics

Injuries Around the Thigh & Knee

2c82aac5-6bce-4865-8d84-2c7e63a1c85c

single

Which of the following is both PPAR - α & PPAR - γ agonist?

null

3

Pioglitazone

Bizofibrate

Beroglitazar

Bromocriptine

Pharmacology

null

6f053910-24c0-4269-a706-0f4843fe9f4f

multi

Which of the following produces dissociated anesthesia

Ans. is 'a' i.e. Ketamine Mechanism of action of ketamineKetamine dissociatesThalamus from limbic cortexThalamus relays sensory inputs from R.A.S. (reticular activating system) to limbic cortex. Clinically this produces dissociative anaesthesia. In this state the patient appears conscious (e.g. eye opening, swallowing, muscle contracture); but is unable to process or respond to sensory input.

1

Ketamine

Propofol

Thiopentone

Enflurane

Anaesthesia

Miscellaneous General Anesthesia

e7c27198-0cbe-4676-ae4c-52d1c05bdc22

single

Cocket & Dodd's operation is for

null

2

Saphenofemoral flush ligation

Subfascial ligation

Deep vein thrombosis

Diabetic foot

Surgery

null

ae226df4-32c7-4788-87fd-c9921f93a95b

single

Which of the following muscle relaxant undergo Hoffman's degradation?

Atracurium is an intermediate acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker which is inactivated in the plasma by spontaneous nonenzymatic degradation (Hoffman's elimination) in addition to that by cholinesterase.

1

Atracurium

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

Pancuronium

Anaesthesia

null

3d9ee2de-ca86-4a86-8582-452cf101aebf

multi

A 4-week old first-born, pre-term boy admitted to your dept. 3 days ago. Chief complaint was Vomiting which was projectile without bile in it, and follows each feeding, and the baby is hungry and eager to eat again after he vomits. The baby is dehydrated and has visible gastric peristaltic waves and a palpable "Olive sized" mass in the RUQ. What is the surgery of choice?

CHPS: Congenital Hyperophic Pyloric Stenosis IHPS: Infantile Hyperophic Pyloric Stenosis Clinical features After breast feeding, breast milk accumulates in stomach. Obstruction due to hyperophy at pylorus causes multiple episodes of non-bilious vomiting which can be projectile/non-projectile. IOC for diagnosis - Ultrasound Management Resuscitation by I.V fluids + correction of Dyselectrolytemia Fluid of choice- Normal Saline Treatment of choice after resuscitation

4

Duodenostomy

Billroth Type-I GJstomy

KASAI operation

Ramstedt's pyloromyotomy

Surgery

Pediatric Surgery

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A 41 year old obese female patient comes with acute abdominal pain in the right hypogastrium. USG examination shows a stone in the common bile duct. Which is the treatment of choice for stone in CBD?

A gallstone in the common bile duct may impact distally in the ampulla of Vater. More than 80% of gallstones contain cholesterol as their major component. If surgical removal of common bile duct stones is not immediately feasible, endoscopic retrograde sphincterotomy can be used. In this procedure, the endoscopist cannulates the bile duct the papilla of Vater. Endoscopic retrograde sphincterotomy is especially useful in patients who are critically ill with ascending cholangitis caused by impaction of a gallstone in the ampulla of Vater. A T tube is left in the duct after the procedure.

3

Observation

Chenodeoxycholic acid

Endoscopic sphincterotomy

Antibiotics

Surgery

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Muscles of tongue develop from?

ANSWER: (A) Occipital myotomeREF: Langman's Medical Embryology 11th edition pg. 150 table 10.2The number of somites is one of the criteria for determining age of the embryo. Somites further differentiate into these components:Sclerotome forms the cartilage and bone components of the vertebral column.Myotome forms epimeric and hypomeric muscles.Dermatome forms dermis and subcutaneous area of skin.All voluntary muscles of the head region are derived from paraxial mesoderm (somitomeres and somites), including musculature of the tongue (somite 2 to 5 constituting the occipital myotome)Cervical myotomes, after dividing into primaxial and abaxial domains, develop into the upper limb musculatureThoracic myotomes mainly develop the chest wall and abdominal muscles.Muscular component of the pharyngeal arches gives rise to the muscles of mastication, facial expression, pharyngeal and intrinsic laryngeal muscles, palatine muscles, stapedius, tensor tympani, cricothyroid.

1

Occipital myotome

Cervical myotome

Thoracic myotome

Pharyngeal arches

Anatomy

Oral Cavity & Tongue

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single

Which carries more weight in a cou of law :

B i.e. Dying deposition

2

Dying declaration

Dying deposition

Both carry the same weight

Both are not significant

Forensic Medicine

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multi

Which of the following is an intermideiate level disinfectant -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypochlorite Categories of effective potencyo Sterilants are capable of completely eliminating or destroying in all forms of microbial life, including spores,o DisinfectantsDestroy some, but not necessarily all organisms. The category is further divided into subcategories:- i) High level disinfectants In their usual concentration and contact period, they destroy all microorganisms, with exception of high number of bacterial spores ( small number of spores can be destroyed). It is worth noting that at higher concentrations and prolonged contact period, high level disinfectant can act as steriliant. i.e. can kill high numbers of spores as well. Examples are :-2% gluteraldehyde, 8% formaldehyde, 6-10% hydrogen peroxide and ethylene oxide gas.ii) Intermediate level disinfectants :- Inactivate even resistant organisms such as mycobacterium tuberculosis as well as vegetative bacteria, most viruses and most fungi, but do not necessarily kill bacterial spores. Examples are :-0.5% iodine, 70-90% ethanol and isopropanol, chlorine compounds (hypochlorite), some phenolic compounds and iodophor based disinfectants.iii) Low level disinfectants kill most bacteria, some viruses and some fungi, but cannot be relied on to kill resistant microorganisms such as tubercular bacilli or bacterial spores. Examples are quarterly ammonium compounds, mercurials,some phenolic compounds and iodophores. Note:- the disinfectant levels of iodophors (iodines) and phenolic compounds may be classified as intermediate or low depending on the concentration employed.Levels of disinfectant ActivityLevel of activityBacteriaSporesFungiVirusesVegetativeTubercular Lipid medium sizeNonlipid & SmallHigh++++++Intermediate++-+++Low+--++-

3

2% glutarldyhyde

Ethylene oxide

Hypoclorite

None

Microbiology

General

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multi

Myasthenia gravis is most commonly associated with which of the following?

Myasthenia gravis Autoimmune disease with fluctuating muscle weakness that is caused by autoantibodies that target the neuromuscular junction. About 85% of patients have autoantibodies against post-synaptic ACh receptors, while most of the remaining patients have antibodies against the sarcolemmal protein muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase. C/F: - Ptosis or diplopia (Weakness in extraocular muscle) There is a strong association between pathogenic anti-ACh receptor autoantibodies and thymic abnormalities. Approximately 10% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma, a tumour of thymic epithelial cells. An additional 30% of patients (and paicularly young patients) have a different thymic abnormality called thymic hyperplasia. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors that increase the half-life of ACh are the first line of treatment.

3

Thymoma

Thymic carcinoma

Thymic hyperplasia

Lymphoma

Pathology

Auto Immune Disorders Introduction

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single

High risk pregnancy includes all except:

High risk pregnancy is defined as one which is complicated by factor or factors that adversely affects the pregnancy outcome – maternal/perinatal or both. The high risk cases are: During pregnancy:

2

Twins

25 year old primi

Hydramnios

Previous LSCS

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

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multi

All of the following disease show Mitochondrial diseases except

Huntington&;s disease (HD), also known as Huntington&;s chorea, is an inherited disorder that results in death of brain cells. The earliest symptoms are often subtle problems with mood or mental abilities. A general lack of coordination and an unsteady gait often follow. As the disease advances, uncoordinated, jerky body movements become more apparent. Physical abilities gradually worsen until coordinated movement becomes difficult and the person is unable to talk. Mental abilities generally decline into dementia. The specific symptoms vary somewhat between people. Symptoms usually begin between 30 and 50 years of age, but can sta at any age. The disease may develop earlier in life in each successive generation. About 8% of cases sta before the age of 20 years and typically present with symptoms more similar to Parkinson&;s disease. People with HD often underestimate the degree of their problems. HD is typically inherited from a person&;s parents, with 10% of cases due to a new mutation. The disease is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in either of an individual&;s two copies of a gene called Huntingtin. This means a child of an affected person typically has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease. The Huntingtin gene provides the genetic information for a protein that is also called "huntingtin". Expansion of CAG (cytosine-adenine-guanine) triplet repeats in the gene coding for the Huntingtin protein results in an abnormal protein, which gradually damages cells in the brain, through mechanisms that are not fully understood. Diagnosis is by genetic testing, which can occur at any point in time, regardless of whether or not symptoms are present. This fact raises several ethical debates: the age at which an individual is considered mature enough to choose testing; whether parents have the right to have their children tested; and managing confidentiality and disclosure of test results.Ref: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Huntington&;s_disease

4

Leigh syndrome

Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy

Myoclonic epilepsy

Huntington's disease

Biochemistry

Metabolism of nucleic acids

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multi

About otic ganglion true statement (s) is/are

The sensory root is by the auriculotemporal nerve Sympathetic root is by the sympathetic plexus around the middle meningeal aery Secretomotor root is by the lesser petrosal nerve from the tympanic plexus formed by tympanic branch of cranial nerve IX.Fibres of lesser petrosal nerve relay in the otic ganglion.Postganglionic fibres reach the parotid gland through auriculotemporal nerve Motor root is a by a branch from nerve to medial pterygoid. This branch passes unrelayed through the ganglion and divides intotwo branchesto supply tensor velipalatini and tensor tympani Ref BDC volume 3,6th edition pg 311

1

Lesser petrosal nerve forms parasympathetic root

Secomotor to parotid gland

Topographically connected to maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

Nerve to medial pterygoid connected to the ganglion

Anatomy

Head and neck

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multi

Encephalitis is caused by :

Infections caused by HSV-1 Acute gingivo-stomatitis Herpes labialis Kerato-conjuctivitis Eczema herpeticum Encephalitis Dendritic keratitis Ref : textbook of microbiology, C P Baveja, 5th edition , Pg no:444

1

HSV-I

EBV

Infectious mononucleosis

CMV

Microbiology

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single