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Gurd test detects
| null | 4 |
Fat globules in sputum
|
Fat globules in blood
|
Fat globules in bone-marrow
|
Fat globules in urine
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
26d5387f-7a4a-449b-99f8-57b10ffd1025
|
single
|
Dying back neuropathy is seen in all except -
| null | 2 |
Arsenic neuropathy
|
Gullain Barre syndrome
|
Diabetic neuropathy
|
Vasculitic neuropathy
|
Medicine
| null |
4e06af10-488e-49a7-8a14-e496cdaa7da3
|
multi
|
Absolute maternal indications for termination of pregnancy are given below, EXCEPT:
|
Considering high maternal deaths, absolute indications for termination of pregnancy are; Primary pulmonary hypeension Eisenmenger's syndrome Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease Relative indications are; Grade I or II with previous history of cardiac failure in early months or in between pregnancy Parous women with grade III and IV cardiac lesions Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by DC Dutta, 6th edition, Page 279.
| 1 |
Parous woman with grade III and IV cardiac lesions
|
Eisenmenger's syndrome
|
Primary pulmonary hypeension
|
Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
ffdf5718-de23-4dbb-8ca3-545d9242e5a3
|
multi
|
To prevent KFD which of the following is not used ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Deforestation o Since KFD is tick born disease, so the central measures are directed towards control of ticks in forest (not by deforestation) by carabaryl, propoxur spraying in HOT SPOTS area (It is the area about 50m around the place where monkey death have been repoed).
| 3 |
Self protection against ticks
|
Vaccination
|
Deforestation
|
Control of cattle roaming in the forest
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
db12981b-6a86-4be7-bd8f-9c79345a9302
|
single
|
Coefficient of thermal expansion of amalgam is:
| null | 3 |
7.2a(ppm k-1).
|
10.0(ppm k-1).
|
25.0(ppm k-1).
|
48.5(ppm k-1).
|
Dental
| null |
19f336ce-288a-4502-a5c9-5a54940993ad
|
single
|
Blunt trauma abdomen maximum injury is to :
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Proximal jejunum
| 2 |
Proximal ileum
|
Proximal jejunum
|
Midilium
|
All
|
Surgery
| null |
64a6ecb6-afc8-48ce-99d5-9c48255fc708
|
multi
|
Treatment of choice in fracture neck of femur in a 40-year-old male presenting after 2 days is -
| null | 2 |
Hemiarthroplasty
|
Closed reduction and Internal fixation by cancellous screws
|
Closed reduction and Internal fixation by Austin Moore pins
|
Plaster and rest
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
3031aa99-a415-4ebd-960d-cf801bb0769e
|
single
|
A man is struck with lathi on lateral aspect of head of fibula. Which of the following can occur as a result of nerve injury
|
The nerve that is injured is common peroneal nerve. It winds around neck of fibula where it divides into superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Its injury causes: Motor loss: to dorsiflexers and eveors of foot causing " foot drop".sensory loss: is to the back of leg , lateral side if the leg and most of the dorsum of foot . aicular loss to lateral side of knee joint. Deep peroneal nerve divides into: Lateral terminal branch- supplies extensor digitorum brevis and tarsal joints Medial terminal branch- supplies skin adjoining 1 st web space of toe and proximal joints of big toe. Superficial peroneal nerve : Supplies skin over lower 1/3 of lat side of leg ,skin over entire dorsum of foot except lat border supplied by sural nerve , medial border upto base of great toe supplied by saphenous nerve cleft between 1 st and 2 nd toes supplied by deep peroneal nerve. Ref: BD Chaurasia ( 7 th edition pg 192)
| 2 |
Loss of sensation of lateral foot
|
Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe
|
Inversion inability
|
Dorsiflexion not possible
|
Anatomy
|
Lower limb
|
d0bc00b2-3c01-41fc-9b8c-c5829ec4b00c
|
single
|
A 2-month-old boy is evaluated for failure to thrive. As the pediatrician examined the child, she witnesses a seizure. Physical examination is remarkable for hepatomegaly, a finding later confirmed by CT scan, which also reveals renomegaly. Serum chemistries demonstrate severe hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, lactic acidosis, and ketosis. Which of the following diseases best accounts for this presentation?
|
Von Gierke's disease is a glycogen storage disease caused by a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase. It typically presents with neonatal hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, lactic acidosis, and ketosis. Failure to thrive is common in early life; convulsions may occur due to profound hypoglycemia. The glycogen accumulation in von Gierke's disease occurs primarily in the liver and kidneys, accounting for the enlargement of these organs. Gout may develop later because of the derangement of glucose metabolism. Even if you do not remember all of the details of the presentation of these genetic diseases, you should be able to narrow the choices: Gaucher's disease and Niemann-Pick disease are lipid storage diseases, and would not be expected to produce hypoglycemia. The other diseases are glycogen storage diseases, but McArdle's and Pompe's disease affect muscle rather than liver and would not be expected to produce profound hypoglycemia, since the liver is the major source for blood glucose.
| 4 |
Gaucher's disease
|
McArdle's disease
|
Niemann-Pick disease
|
Von Gierke's disease
|
Pediatrics
| null |
ca6f346c-7996-4a2d-9bf9-aff06b7944d6
|
single
|
Rowel-Jolly bodies may be seen after-
| null | 2 |
hepatectomy
|
Splenectomy
|
Pancreatectomy
|
Cholecystectomy
|
Medicine
| null |
9bdd2631-687c-430b-ba85-c0f1c548d1c4
|
single
|
Squamous papilloma is induced by
| null | 3 |
EBV
|
HSV
|
HPV
|
CMV
|
Pathology
| null |
b5dd8184-2dee-4732-bcd1-335617326270
|
single
|
Which is false about Crohn's disease?
|
Crohn's disease (CD) can invade any pa of GIT from the oral cavity to the anus. Studies show that 70% of patients with CD will require a bowel resection in the first decade after diagnosis and 40% will require a fuher resection * Since surgery does not cure CD, the fundamental principle is to preserve healthy gut and to maintain adequate function. As the disease might recur after the surgery. Surgery is palliative in Crohn's disease whereas curative in Ulcerative colitis (UC). In UC disease stas from rectum and the fuher proceeds to the colon. Hence a single proctocolectomy is performed which is curative.
| 1 |
No recurrence after surgery
|
Aphthous ulcer
|
Skip lesions
|
Fistula formation
|
Surgery
|
GIT
|
1895a606-ee63-430a-9a73-f3be8e85092c
|
multi
|
Ovarian aery is a branch of :
|
A. i.e. Abdominal aoa
| 1 |
Abdominal aoa
|
Anterior iliac aery
|
Common iliac aery
|
Posterior iliac aery
|
Anatomy
| null |
fc04f4e2-8cfc-45cc-b81c-f2536131ec24
|
single
|
Which of the following is the anatomical location of foramen of winslow?
|
The lesser omentum forms a sac known as the omental bursa, which forms a subdivision of the peritoneal cavity known as the lesser sac. The greater sac is the remaining pa of the peritoneal cavity. The greater and lesser sacs communicate with each other through the epiploic foramen (of Winslow).Also know: The omentum refers to modified mesenteries associated with the stomach and liver.Greater omentum. An apron-like fold of mesentery that attaches between the transverse colon to the greater curvature of the stomach. Lesser omentum. Mesentery that attaches between the liver, stomach, and proximal poion of the duodenum. As a result, the lesser omentum is also referred to as the hepatogastric ligament and hepatoduodenal ligament.Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 8. Serous Membranes of the Abdominal Cavity. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
| 1 |
Between greater and lesser sac
|
At hilum of liver
|
Transverse cervical ligament of uterus
|
Pouch of Douglas
|
Anatomy
| null |
406fd27f-5c84-4863-a5e4-0cb1388ca73c
|
single
|
The acceptable ambient temperature of summer in terms of thermal comfo is
|
Thermal comfo is defined as the state of mind that expresses satisfaction with the thermal environment.It is influenced by physical and physiological factors.According to this definition, comfo is a subjective sensation. Based on ASHRAE definition the zone of thermal comfo is the span of conditions where 80% of sedentary or slightly active persons find the environment thermally acceptable.In terms of climatic condition, the acceptable ambient temperature of comfo would be slightly higher in the summer than in the winter, being 23-27degC, respectively.
| 2 |
20 to 23degC
|
23 to 27degC
|
27 to 28degC
|
28 to 32degC
|
Microbiology
|
All India exam
|
71c7cf2c-9aee-4c04-9ca0-142b9043c688
|
single
|
Which of the following organelle is associated with production and destruction of H2O2 ?
|
Oxidases use O2 to oxidize organic substances and produce hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). Breakdown of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), a potentially dangerous product of fatty-acid oxidation. It is catalyzed by the enzyme catalase. Both enzymes are present in peroxisomes. Though Lysosomes produce H2O2 it can't degrade it.
| 1 |
Peroxisomes
|
Lysosomes
|
Ribosomes
|
Golgi bodies
|
Biochemistry
| null |
af94f7ba-7f17-40c6-95e0-3e4a9ae52c02
|
single
|
Addisonian disease is associated with:
| null | 1 |
Low blood pressure and oral pigmentation
|
Oral sores
|
Thyrotoxicosis
|
Keratosis
|
Medicine
| null |
99cc8a55-97f1-4a30-ab0f-e12fec0460b4
|
single
|
Orthodromic conduction is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., An axon can conduct impulse in one direction only o Experimentally, an axon can conduct impulse in either directionQ.o When an action potential is initiated in the middle of the axon, the impulse shall travel in both direction, i.e., one along the axon towards its terminal knobs and one in opposite direction, i.e., along the axon towards the cell body (soma) & dendrites.o However, in the intact body, i.e., in the natural situation, the impulses are conducted in the one direction onlyQ, i.e., from synaptic junction or receptors along axons to their termination.o Such conduction is called orthodromic conductionQ.o Conduction in opposite direction is called antidromic conduction, i.e., opposite to physiological direction.o However, antidromic conduction is very rare and may be seen only in muscle tissue.o In nerve fibers, the propagation of action potential is unidirectional (orthodromic) because transmission across neuromuscular junction and synpses is unidirectionalQ.
| 1 |
An axon can conduct impulse in one direction only
|
An axon can conduct impulse in both direction
|
The jumping of depolarization from node to node
|
The print at which a runaway spike potential
|
Physiology
|
Membrane Potentials and Action Potentials
|
2c488162-7523-49d7-9405-acbb35cc8a67
|
multi
|
NOT seen in salt water drowning:
|
Fresh water drowning is associated with both hyperkalemia and corresponding hyponatremia.
| 1 |
Hyperkalemia
|
Progressive hypovolemia
|
Circulatory collapse
|
Acute pulmonary edema
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Drowning
|
b8540326-61aa-4460-a1fe-f2cc85090512
|
single
|
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
| null | 2 |
Gram positive organisms
|
Gram negative organisms
|
Mycoplasma
|
Virus infections
|
Microbiology
| null |
19cbee26-449b-49a1-a16a-8193581740fe
|
single
|
Which of the following blood vessels will be affected by endothelial cell retraction:
| null | 1 |
Venules
|
Capillaries
|
Arterioles
|
None of the above
|
Pathology
| null |
c39f2415-be0b-4f83-bd7e-40d7cddbe452
|
multi
|
A 60 year old man is brought to a psychiatrist with a 10 year history, that he suspects his neighbours and he feels that whenever he passes by they sneeze and plan against behind his back. He feels that his wife has been replaced by a double and calls the police for help. He is quite well groomed alert, occasionally consumes alcohol, likely diagnosis is-
|
This patient has:-
Delusion of persecution (suspects his neighbours sneeze and plan against him).
Delusion of double (wife has been replaced by double).
No impairment in consciousness (patient is well alert)
Symptoms for 10 years.
Delusion of double is a bizarre delusion (i.e., belief which is impossible in reality). If delusion is bizarre, only one criteria is required for diagnosis.
About other options
Delusions are a feature of psychosis, and amongst the given disorder only schizophrenia is a typical example of schizophrenia.
Alcohol withdrawal can also cause psychotic symptoms, but it can be excluded because:-
In alcohol, withdrawal patient is not well alert (impaired consciousness)
Alcohol withdrawal is rare with occasional consumption
Symptoms will not persist for 10 years
Paranoid personality and conversion disorder are not psychosis → No delusion.
| 2 |
Paranoid personality
|
Paranoid schizophrenia
|
Alcohol withdrawal
|
Conversion disorder
|
Psychiatry
| null |
d59d9856-90e6-4489-af7b-8eef2d95cba6
|
multi
|
Ergometrine is commonly used for :
|
Obstetric indications of ergometrine (Ergonovine):
To control and prevent Postpartum hemorrhage. It is given at the time of delivery of the anterior shoulder.
After Caesarean Section/instrumental delivery - to prevent uterine atony.
To ensure normal involution in multipara.
| 1 |
PostPartum Hemorrhage
|
To shorten 2nd stage of labour
|
Dysmenorrhea
|
Toxemia of pregnancy
|
Pharmacology
| null |
341eea89-2365-401e-bd11-793b8a612802
|
single
|
An 18 year old male patient with history of fever for 2 weeks managed with OTC pills presents to the emergency depament with massive hemetemesis. Moderate splenomagaly is noted on clinical examination. What is most likely condition?
|
Hemorrhagic and erosive gastropathy (drug induced gastritis) do not cause major bleeding as in this case. So option drug induced gastritis is ruled out. Up to 10% of patients with NSAID-induced mucosal disease can present with a complication (bleeding, perforation, and obstruction) without antecedent symptoms. NSAID induced dudenal ulcer is more common in elderly population which rules out it as the diagnosis in this patient. Mallory-Weiss Tear generally follows Vomiting, retching, or vigorous coughing. So above all the most likey diagnosis in this young man is Esophageal varices. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 320-323, 2436-2437, 2441-2445
| 3 |
Drug induced gastritis
|
NSAID induced duodenal ulcer
|
Esophageal varices
|
Mallory-weiss tear
|
Medicine
| null |
d487d3fb-0fbc-4908-8b07-c8eea41ff5ac
|
multi
|
The most common histologic type of carcinoma of the oral cavity is
|
Carcinoma of the oral cavity accounts for approximately 5% of all human malignancies. More than 90% of oral carcinomas are of the squamous cell type. Precursor lesions include leukoplakia (dysplastic leukoplakia) and erythroplasia, with transformation rates of approximately 15 and 50%, respectively. Oral carcinoma is more common in males. Smoking, tobacco chewing, chronic irritation, heat exposure, and irradiation are all thought to contribute to carcinogenesis. The lower lip is the most common site, followed by the floor of the mouth, the anterior tongue, the palate, and the posterior tongue. Prognosis varies according to site but is best for lesions of the lip and worst for lesions in the floor of the mouth.
| 4 |
Adenocarcinoma
|
Clear cell carcinoma
|
Large cell undifferentiated carcinoma
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
Pathology
|
miscellaneous
|
c70833d8-ef38-437c-a7f7-44852931a534
|
single
|
A male patient of bipolar disorder with history of 5 episodes of mania and 1 episode of depression in last 8 years, under control by mood stabilizer, and manic symptoms appear as he tapered down the drugs. Which of the following intervention should be carried out to improve drug compliance?
|
Ans. a. Psychoeducation (Ref: Niraj Ahuja 7/e p67-68)In the question patient symptoms of bipolar disorder are well controlled by medication, which implies pharmacotherapy is efficient and added psychotherapy is necessary only to keep the patient compliant to the medication. In such a case, psychoeducation of the patient about adherence to strict treatment is most crucial psychotherapy modality in preventing relapse.PsychoeducationPsychoeducation refers to the education offered to individuals with a mental health condition & their families to help empower them & deal with their condition in an optimal way.Frequently psychoeducational training involves individuals with schizophrenia, clinical depression, anxiety disorders, psychotic illnesses, eating disorders, and personality disorders, as w ell as patient training courses in context of the treatment of physical illnesses.Family members are also included.A goal is for the consumer to understand and be better able to deal with the presented illness.Also, the patient's own capabilities, resources & coping skills are strengthened & used to contribute to their own health & well-being on a long-term basis.Since it is often difficult for the patient and their family members to accept the patient's diagnosis, psychoeducation also has the function of contributing to the destigmatization of psychological disturbances and to diminish barriers to treatment.The relapse risk is in this way lowered: patients & family members, who are more well- informed about the disease, feel less helplessQ.Important elements in psychoeducation are:Information transfer (symptomatology of the disturbance, causes, treatment concepts, etc.)Emotional discharge (understanding to promote, exchange of experiences with others concerning, contacts, etc.)Support of a medication or psychotherapeutic treatment, as cooperation is promoted between the mental health professional and patient (compliance, adherence).Assistance to self-help (e.g. training, as crisis situations are promptly recognized and what steps should be taken to be able to help the patient).Supportive PsychotherapyIt is a psychotherapeutic approach that integrates psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, & interpersonal conceptual models & techniques.The objective of the therapist is to reinforce the patient's healthy & adaptive patterns of thought behaviors in order to reduce the intrapsychic conflicts that produce symptoms of mental disorders.Unlike in psychoanalysis, in which the analyst works to maintain a neutral demeanor as a 'blank canvas' for transference, in supportive therapy, the therapist engages in a fully emotional, encouraging, and supportive relationship with the patient as a method of furthering healthy defense mechanisms, especially in the context of interpersonal relationships.This therapy has been used for patients suffering from severe cases of addiction as well as bulimia nervosa, stress and other mental illnesses.Supportive psychotherapy is used as an initial therapy, to be reduced and not to be prolonged, in situations or periods where there is a lack of means for a systematic approach or behaviorism. Examples of such situations include:Critical negotiationsVolatile but unavoidable everyday life or decisive situationsCompromises (to introduce at least minimal operational, efficient relationship conditions) in long-term, engaged relationships, based on lasting agreementsInsight-oriented PsychotherapyIt relies on conversation between the therapist & client.It helps people through understanding & expressing feelings, motivations, beliefs, fears and desires.As insight-oriented psychotherapy is a client-centered therapy, it is assumed that the client is healthy & his/her problem is a result of faulty thinking.During the therapy, the patient talks about what is on his/her mind and the therapist looks for patterns in situations in which the patient might feel stress or anxiety.Patients typically wish to explore their anxiety more deeply because of a belief that deeper exploration will lead to change.Insight-oriented psychotherapy can refer to:Psychoanalysis, a method of treatment of mental disorders by using talk-therapy to discover and process unconscious thoughts and desires.Psychodynamic psychotherapy, a more-brief & less intensive type of talk therapy that uses psychoanalytic theory & methods.
| 1 |
Psychoeducation
|
CBT
|
Supportive psychotherapy
|
Insight-oriented psychotherapy
|
Psychiatry
|
Psychoanalysis and Psychotherapy
|
2429ec43-75d5-4dfd-900d-0ed6a41d617f
|
single
|
Not true about hyperplastic tuberculosis -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Surgery is the treatment of choice
| 3 |
Most common site is ileo-caecal region
|
Presents as mass in right iliac fossa
|
Surgery is the treatment of choice
|
Barium studies are characteristic
|
Surgery
| null |
c2d52675-908e-4b0a-8abf-32378574554e
|
multi
|
All of the following decrease the Glomerular filtration rate except -
|
Plasma protein binding of a substance decreases is glomerular filtration. Only unbound substances are filtered.
| 1 |
Decreased plasma protein levels
|
Increased tubular hydrostatic pressure
|
Decreased effective filtration surface area
|
Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
|
Physiology
|
Glomerular Filtration, Renal Blood Flow, and Their Control
|
b5cfd59b-de0a-49e4-bf5b-2f500bc504dc
|
multi
|
Earliest congenital malformation that may be detected on USG is
|
C i.e. Anencephaly Neural tube defects (NTDs) i.e. anencephaly, meningomyelocele, encephalocele and spina bifidaQ can be caused by antifolate & antiepileptic drugs, maternal diabetes, lower maternal folate status, reduced activity of 5, 10, methylene - THE reductase (MTHFR) enzyme (d/t C677 T-polymorphism in MTHFR gene) and possibly by mutation of other enzymes eg. methionine synthase and serine-glycine hydroxymethylase. Folate supplementation at the time of conception and in first 12 weeks of pregnancy reduce 70% incidence of NTDs (and also hare lip and cleft palate). - Neural tube defects are best detected by amniocentesisQ. Earliest detectable congenital anomaly on USG is anencephalyQ. It can be diagnosed as early as at 10 weeksQ. It is best diagnosed (100% accuracy) at 12 week.Q - Karyotypic analysis (for chromosomal abnormalities), biochemical & molecular analysis of DNA obtained from cells can be done in either chronic villi of 1,, trimester or amniotic fluid of 2nd fetus. Test Done at Comment Amniocentesis 14-16 weeksQ - M.C. used procedure; M.C. reason to perform this is advanced maternal age (removal of small (early 2nd (>35 yrs), the best known correlate of trisomy amount of amniotic trimester) - Other reasons are ? fluid) 1. Abnormal (maternal serum) triple marker assayQ (HCGQ, a-FetoproteinQ and unconjugated estriolQ in maternalQ serum) and inhibin also (in quad marker assay) predict risk of trisomy 21 or 18 2. Mid trimester USG abnormalitiesQ - estimated risk of chromosomal abnormality is dependent on USG finding & is maximum in cystic hygromaQ >Omphalocele > congenital hea ds > nonspecific > choroid plexus cyst 3. More recently, 1, trimester screening involving measurement of nuchal translucency (on USG) and levels of PAAP-A and HCG are used to identify women at increased risk. Early Amniocentesis 12-14 weeks Has greater risk of spontaneous aboion or fetal injury but provides results at an earlier stage of pregnancy Chrionic Villus Earlier (8-12 - 2nd m.c. procedure. It allows for an earlier detectionQ of abnormalities & a safer Sampleing (CVS) wks)Q pregnancy termination (d/t early diagnosis), if desired (Transcervical/ preferably 10-12 - Spontaneous aboions are more common in comparison to amniocentesis but is abdominal biopsy of wks. overall a safe procedure (spontaneous aboions fetal trophoblastic - Risk of limb defectsQ increases if CVS is doneweeks.So it is applicable tissue/chorion) during very narrow window of time Percutaneous 2nd -- 3.1 trimester - Done under USG control. Usually performed when USG abnormalities are Umbilical Blood of pregnancy detected late in 2,,d trimester. Sampling (PUBS) (> 18 wks) - Also done to clarify cytogenetic results of amniocentesis as detection of (fetal blood for lvmphocvtic culture) mosaicism. Pre implantation Before implant- To detect single gene disorder such as -Mn : "SC ST" molecular diagnostic ation invitro S - Sickle Cell Anemia testing (eg- PCR) feilizationQ at C - Cystic fibrosis 8-10 cell stage ST - Sachs-Tay disease (Tay-Sachs ds) * Endometrial biopsy is done at Premenstrual periodQ to avoid risk of endometriosis. Chordocentesis is done at 18 wee Q. Amniocentesis is not useful in cleft lip detection. Golden Amniotic fluid is diagnostic of Rh incompatibilityQ. Saffron coloured meconium is seen in post maturityQ.
| 3 |
Down's syndrome
|
Hydrocephalous
|
Anencephaly
|
Sacral Agenesis
|
Radiology
| null |
35af115a-ca54-4e48-a172-db9cce930f12
|
single
|
A Malnourished child from a poor socioeconomic status, residing in overcrowded and diy areas present with a nodule around the limbus with hyperemia of surrounding conjunctiva in his left eye. He is also observed to have axillary and cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
|
Ans. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
| 1 |
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
|
Foreign body granuloma
|
Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
|
Episcleritis
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
2f934764-d18d-456b-824e-9f92fc7afd94
|
single
|
All of the following are pa of the ASEPSIS would score except:
|
Criterion Description Points A Additional treatment Antibiotics 0 10 Drainage of pus under local anaesthetics 5 Debridement of wound (General anaesthetics 10 S Serous discharge Daily 0-5 E Erythema Daily 0-5 P Purulent exudates Daily 0-10 S Separation of deep tissues Daily 0-10 I Isolation of bacteria 10 S Stay in hospital prolonged over 14 days 5 INDURATION IS NOT A PA OF ASEPSIS WOUND SCORING
| 3 |
Serous discharge
|
Purulent exudate
|
Induration
|
Erythema
|
Surgery
|
NEET Jan 2020
|
4a20b5a5-84dc-48ab-84d8-47b3cc5dfd69
|
multi
|
AIDS was first diagnosed in patients suffering from
| null | 2 |
Ciytococcus neoformans meningitis
|
Pneumocystis carini
|
Kaposi sarcoma
|
Tuberculosis
|
Medicine
| null |
1ffb73cd-b779-46bc-8b61-09612e9172f6
|
single
|
Minimum chlorine content of water after chlorination should be ?
|
park's textbook of preventive medicine 23rd edition *principle of chlorination is to ensure that a "free"residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/litre at end of one hour contact .
| 1 |
0.5mg\/L
|
5 mg\/L
|
0.05mg\/L
|
50mg\/L
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Environment and health
|
ab389666-1793-4f82-b640-27479fb2e971
|
single
|
Crumpled paper appearance of cells is a feature of ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher diseaseMorphology of Gauchers disease:Glucocerebrosides accumulate in massive amounts within phagocytic cells throughout the body in all forms of Gaucher disease.The distended phagocytic cells, known as Gaucher cells, are found in the spleen, liver, bone marrow, lymph nodes, tonsils, thymus, and Peyer patches. Similar cells may be found in both the alveolar septa and the air spaces in the lung.
| 1 |
Gaucher disease
|
Asbestosis
|
GVHD
|
Wilsons disease
|
Pathology
| null |
1afb5113-f1e9-41f9-8dbf-53b6bb246662
|
single
|
A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen revealed the presence of aerial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate in the aerial wall. The inflammation also extended into the neighbouring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is
|
Takayasu's Aeritis : does not involve the peripheral limb vessels. Its an inflammatory and stenotic disease of medium and large-sized aeries characterized by a strong predilection for the aoic arch and its branches (thus also k/an aoic arch syndrome) Giant cell aeritis: also, k/a cranial aeritis or temporal aeritis is a systemic chronic inflammatory vascular disease with many characteristics similar to Takayasu disease involves medium and large-sized aeries, characteristically one or more branches of the carotid aery, paicularly the temporal aery. Hypersensitivity angiitis hypersensitivity angiitis also k/a cutaneous vasculitis or leukocytoclastic vasculitis typically involves the small vessels of the skin. Postcapillary venules are most commonly involved vessels; capillaries and aerioles are involved less frequently. its the most commonly encountered vasculitis in clinical practice. the hallmark of idiopathic cutaneous vasculitis is the predominance of skin involvement. Skin lesions typically are palpable purpura.
| 2 |
Aooaeritis
|
Thromboangiitis obliterans
|
Giant cell aeritis
|
Hypersensitivity aeritis
|
Surgery
|
Vascular surgery
|
92a9d7c9-1565-482a-941a-a7685c540d24
|
multi
|
cAMP is formed from:
|
Cyclic AMP - It consists of adenine, ribose and a phosphate. The membrane-bound enzyme Adenylate cyclase conves ATP to cAMP by cyclization. Extra information: cAMP is responsible for activation of protein kinases by phosphorylation (see fig.) cAMP is a secondary messenger and vital for regulation of many metabolic pathways in response to hormonal signal such as insulin and glucagon. Insulin will always decrease cyclic AMP and glucagon will increase its synthesis. cAMP is hydrolyzed by phosphodiesterase to 5'-AMP.
| 3 |
AMP
|
GMP
|
ATP
|
TTP
|
Biochemistry
|
Four Formulas
|
625848bf-6c60-48ab-a621-a08bb0abef35
|
single
|
Which of the following muscle in lid is a ached to upper margin of superior tarsus?
|
.
| 4 |
Superior rectus
|
Muller's muscle
|
Levator palpebrae
|
Superior oblique
|
Ophthalmology
|
All India exam
|
059f336a-7d80-483c-bfbf-fbf29e74ebd1
|
single
|
Drug used for intralesional injection keloid is:
|
Treatment of Hyperophic and Keloid scars Pressure - Local moulds or elasticated garments Silicone gel sheeting (mechanism unknown) Intralesional steroid injection (triamcinolone) Excision and steroid injections Excision and postoperative radiation (external beam or brachytherapy) Intralesional excision (keloids only) Laser - to reduce redness (which may resolve in any event) Vitamin E or palm oil massage
| 2 |
Prednisolone
|
Triamcinolone
|
Androgen
|
Hydrocoisone
|
Surgery
|
Wound Healing, Tissue Repair and Scar
|
be4e92b0-1c33-42a4-9997-d86cc1777019
|
single
|
A 40-year-old male presented to surgery OPD with complaints of right loin pain which was also referred to right iliac fossa. Surgeon examined the patient & asked to have an USG abdomen, given below. Right kidney left kidney Then NCCT KUB was done and diagnosis of renal stone of 8mm was made. What is the most probable location of stone?
|
USG shows normal kidneys. NCCT KUB showed a stone in the ureter. Pain of renal stone in renal pelvis refers to groin Upper ureter stone pain refers to medial aspect of thigh along with obturator nerve Mid ureter stone pains refer to iliac fossa along with iliohypogastric nerve Lower ureter stone pain refers to testicles along with ilioinguinal nerve
| 3 |
Renal pelvis
|
Upper ureter
|
Mid ureter
|
Lower ureter
|
Unknown
|
Integrated QBank
|
e54df6db-8896-4f50-9397-e0047b8fe3b9
|
single
|
Figure of 8 in chest X-ray is suggestive of: September 2010
|
Ans. B: TAPVC
| 2 |
TOF
|
TAPVC
|
Ebsteins anomaly
|
None of the above
|
Pediatrics
| null |
9be17e89-9995-411e-9910-65a555aef15d
|
multi
|
Choroidal neurovascularization is seen in all except aEUR'
|
Hypermetropia Choroidal neurovascularization (CNV) It is inappropriate ingrowth of blood vessels and accompanying cellular infiltrate originating in the choroid & it extends through Bruch's membrane to proliferate under retina, the retinal pigment epithelium or both. It is a common end stage process in a number of different diseases leading to severe visual loss. Conditions associated with it are ? - Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD)-most significant - Angioid streaks Choroidal rupture (trauma) - Pathological myopia - Chorioretinal scars - baraocular inflammation - Chorioretinal dystrophy Signs & symptoms? - Decreased central visual activity - Metamorphosia (apparent distoion of objects) - Intraretinal, subretinal pigment epithelium hemorrhage - Macular oedema - Subretinal.fluid Associated features ? - Lipid exudation - Detachment of the retinal pigment epithelium - Retinal pigment epithelium tear - Scarring Diagnosis - Diagnosis of CNV is done by fluorescein angiography with indocyanine green angiography Treatment options - Laser photo coagulation - Photodynamic therapy - Radiation (external beam radiotherapy) - Surgery (submacular surgery) - Pharmacological therapy - Intravitreal triamcinolone (long standing steroid)
| 4 |
Trauma
|
Angiod streak
|
Myopia
|
Hypermetropia
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
81a2d01b-5abe-45e1-a6a9-532952d02782
|
multi
|
Which one of the following cooking oils contains highest percentage of linoleic acid ?
| null | 1 |
Safflower oil
|
Sunflower oil
|
Corn oil
|
Groundnut oil
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
0440b7fb-182f-41c3-a035-362ef93af9db
|
single
|
Which of the following is not a common site for metastatic calci
|
Metastatic calcification may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects.
Interstitial tissues of gastric mucosa
Kidneys
Lungs
Systemic arteries and
Pulmonary veins
The common feature of all these sites, which makes them prone to calcification is that they can lose acid and therefore they have an internal alkaline component favourable for metastatic calcification.
Also, know
Metastatic calcification occurs in normal tissues whenever there is hypercalcemia.
Usually, deposition of the calcium does not cause any clinical dysfunction but sometimes massive deposition in the lung may produce abnormality and in kidneys may produce nephrocalcinosis.
| 4 |
Gastric mucosa
|
Kidney
|
Lung
|
Parathyroid
|
Pathology
| null |
13c50153-4729-4aac-84ef-a17c3a5d5184
|
single
|
Which of the following statements is true regarding Pityriasis rubra pilaris – a) Isolated patches of normal skin are foundb) Cephalocaudal distributionc) I.V. cyclosporine is effectived) More common in femalese) Oral cyclosporine is effective
|
A characteristic feature of plaques of pityriasis rubra pilaris is the presence of distinct islands of normal skin.
Lesions on the trunk evolve in craniocaudal (cephalo caudal) direction.
| 1 |
ab
|
c
|
ac
|
ad
|
Dental
| null |
f9443893-2d7e-4bc1-9a65-f516d3b2f3e9
|
multi
|
Which of the following is dermatome of umbilicus:
|
Ans. B T10Ref BDC, 6th ed. vol. II pg. 198* Dermatome of umbilicus is at T10.* T10 segment also supplies to:# Appendix: T9 - T10# Stomach: T6 - T10# Testis/Ovary: T10# Intestine: T9-T11
| 2 |
T8
|
T10
|
T12
|
L1
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen & Pelvis
|
11a0027b-49d6-416f-a885-6ef8c0930fea
|
single
|
All can be used for systematic fungal infections except:
|
Griseofulvin: It was one of the early antibiotics extracted from Penicillium griseofulvum. However, because of lack of antibacterial activity, little attention was paid to it: clinical utility in dermatophytosis was demonstrated only around 1960. Griseofulvin is active against most dermatophytes, including Epidermophyton, Trichophyton, Microsporum, etc, but not against Candida and other fungi causing deep mycosis. Bacteria are also insensitive. Dermatophytes actively concentrate it: this feature probably accounts for its selective toxicity. Resistance can be induced in vitro and this is associated with loss of concentrating ability. However, emergence of resistance during clinical use is rare. Griseofulvin interferes with mitosis-multinucleated and stunted fungal hyphae result from its action. It also causes abnormal metaphase configurations. However, unlike the typical mitotic inhibitors (colchicine, vinca alkaloids), it does not cause metaphase arrest; rather the daughter r tuclei fail to move apa or move only a sho distance. It does not inhibit polymerization of tubulin (microtubular protein which pulls the chromosomes apa), but binds to polymerized microtubules and somehow disorients them. Pharmacokinetics The absorption of griseofulvin from g.i.t. is somewhat irregular because of its very low water solubility. Absorption is improved by taking it with fats and by microfining the drug paicles; now ultramicrofine paicle preparations from which absorption is still better are available. Griseofulvin gets deposited in keratin forming cells of skin, hair and nails; it is especially concentrated and retained in tinea infected cells Because it is fungistatic and not cidal, the newly formed Keratin is not invaded by the fungus, but the fungus persists in already infected keratin. till it is shed off. Thus, the duration of treatment is dependent upon the site of infection, thickness of infected keratin and its turnover rate. Griseofulvin is used orally only for dermatophytosis . It is ineffective topically. Systemic azoles and terbinafine are equally or more efficacious; preferred now. Majority of localized tinea infections are treated with topical agents. Griseofulvin should be reserved for cases with nail, hair or large body surface involvement. It is effective in athletes foot, but not in pityriasis versicolor. ESSENTIALS FROM MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:760,761
| 4 |
Ketoconazole
|
Fluconazole
|
Amphotericin B
|
Griseofulvin
|
Pharmacology
|
Chemotherapy
|
65ffdf35-4f22-49e1-b169-643298ec9d6c
|
multi
|
In non pregnant uterus cervical incompetence is treated by ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Counselling Cervical incompetence treatment in INTERCONCEPTIONAL PERIOD (non pregnant uterus):To allete anxiety and to improve the psychology - couple should be counselled that even after three consecutive miscarriages, the chance of a successful pregnancy is high (70%). However, the success rate depends on the underlying etiology as well as the age of the woman.
| 1 |
Counselling
|
Shirodkars cerclage suture
|
McDonalds cerclage suture
|
Abdominal cerclage
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
39b0e32a-9952-4266-81dc-c7626cd80302
|
single
|
A 25-year-old female presented with features of weight gain and loss of appetite and easy fatigue. On examination a swelling was noticed in anterior aspect of neck which moved with deglutination. Biopsy performed from neck revealed the following. What is your diagnosis?
|
Ans. (b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis*The history given suggests a thyroid swelling. The given biopsy from the same shows thyroid parenchyma containing a dense lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers. Residual thyroid follicles are lined by deeply eosinophilic Hurthle cells. This suggests Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
| 2 |
Reidel's thyroiditis
|
Hashimoto thyroiditis
|
Follicular carcinoma thyroid
|
Graves disease
|
Pathology
|
Endocrine
|
e04cc18b-459c-4176-bc35-2d14ca5722f9
|
single
|
Which of the following disease cannot be diagnosed by amino centesis :
|
Cleft lip
| 4 |
Trisomy 21
|
Duchenne's
|
Lesch Nyhan
|
Cleft lip
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
51a2e715-a513-47dd-8e25-dde11ad22abf
|
single
|
True about cystic hygroma -
|
Answer is 'a' i.e. Congenital sequestration of lymphatics "Bailey writes that spontaneous regression may occur in cystic hygroma but I am not sure whether it occurs by 5 yrs of age".
| 1 |
Congenital sequestration of lymphatics
|
Resolves spontaneouly by 5 year of age
|
Common in upper 1/3rd of lateral neck
|
All
|
Surgery
| null |
3b716a46-e3f5-41ea-94a0-54d35eabdd01
|
multi
|
Vector control for yellow fever around an airpo is done upto a distance of -
|
<p> international vector control for yellow fever. Aircraft and ships arriving from endemic areas are subjected to aerosol spraying with prescribed insecticides on arrival for destruction of insect vectors. Airpos and seapos kept free breeding of insect vectors over an area extending at least 400 metres around their perimeters. The Aedes aegypti index kept below 1. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.284}</p
| 1 |
400 m
|
200 m
|
500 m
|
100 m
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
27ec7fad-a67e-47b9-a227-0cf401fcac7f
|
single
|
Which of the following is not involved in generation of proton gradient?
|
Proton gradient : The inner mitochondrial membrane, as such, is impermeable to protons (H+) and hydroxyl ions (OH-). The transpo of electrons through ETC is coupled with the. translocation of protons (H+) across the inner mitochondrial membrane (coupling membrane) from the matrix to the intermembrane space. The pumping of protons results in an electrochemical . or proton gradient. This is due to the. accumulation of more H+ ions (low pH) on the outer side of the inner mitochondrial membrane than the inner side. The proton . gradient developed due to the electron flow in the respiratory chain is sufficient to result in the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 229
| 3 |
NADPH dehydrogenase
|
Coenzyme Q cytoreductase
|
Succinate CoQ reductase
|
Cytochrome reductase
|
Biochemistry
|
All India exam
|
7dc8310e-f9b6-4f24-b79a-fa105e1f4fc2
|
single
|
Commonest type of shoulder dislocation:
|
Anterior Dislocation of Shoulder--Most Common Type of Shoulder Dislocation Types: Subcoracoid>Preglenoid>Subclavicular Mechanism of Injury: Abduction and External rotation force.
| 1 |
Subcoracoid
|
Subglenoid
|
Posterior
|
Subclavicular
|
Orthopaedics
|
Upper Limb Traumatology
|
aced724b-eaf2-420e-b7fa-b9099296a53a
|
single
|
Ossification center of upper end of ulna is united by: DNB 10
|
Ans. 16 years
| 4 |
9 years
|
11 years
|
14 years
|
16 years
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
65b02165-56eb-4f3b-8a7a-975c882a28b1
|
single
|
False about hydatid cyst of liver
|
Surgery is still the choice and gold standard therapy for hydatid disease. The abdomen is opened, and the peritoneal cavity is packed with mops . *Fluid from the cyst is aspirated and scolicidal agents(cetrimide, chlorohexidine, alcohol, hypeonic saline(15%-20%), 10% povidone-iodine or H2O2 ) are injected into the cyst cavity (formalin should not be used). Hypeonic saline should be left within the cavity for 15-20 minutes to have effective scolicidal effect. * Detection of cystobiliary communications is very crucial as it may cause caustic sclerosing cholangitis when scolicidal agent like formalin is used. Communicating openings may be single or multiple. Cyst more than 10 cm is likely to have cysto-biliary communications. * Laparoscopic pericystectomy is becoming more popular. Contraindications are a deeply situated cyst, densely adherent cyst, and inaccessible cysts; more than 3 cysts; calcified cysts and cysts in other organs. The main problem with laparoscopic pericystectomy is spillage and difficulty in preventing it. * Liver resection - only occasionally segmental or hemihepatectomy is done. ref: SRB&;S manual of surgery, ed 3, pg no 536
| 1 |
Hepatic resection is never done
|
Laparoscopic aspiration of cyst is performed
|
Most commonly located in the right liver
|
Mostly asymptomatic
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
19a7982f-0af9-47c8-9c25-d2e7992deed3
|
multi
|
In pediatric patients, the risk of developing post-traumatic epilepsy is significantly increased by:
|
Late post-traumatic epilepsy is diagnosed when a seizure occurs for the first time more than one week after a head injury. Factors that correlate with an increased risk of developing post-traumatic epilepsy include presence of a depressed skull fracture, acute intracranial hemorrhage, cerebral contusion, or unconsciousness lasting more than 24 hours. Because the risk of a subsequent seizure is approximately 75%, acute and chronic treatment with anticonvulsants is indicated. Loss of consciousness, retrograde amnesia, and vomiting are relatively common immediate consequences of head trauma. They are usually transient and are not highly correlated with a risk of subsequent post-traumatic seizures. Ref: Smith W.S., English J.D., Johnston S.C. (2012). Chapter 370. Cerebrovascular Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
| 2 |
Brief loss of consciousness
|
Acute intracranial hemorrhage
|
Retrograde amnesia
|
Post-traumatic vomiting
|
Medicine
| null |
8a0b83e6-33e5-4011-9ae3-f4713df9f1cd
|
single
|
A person riding a mountain bike on a rustic trail hits a rut, the fork of the bike breaks and the person is thrown into a tree, severely fracturing the upper end of his humerus. During the repair the surgeon ties off the aery traveling through the quadrangular space to stop the hemorrhage. Which aery did he ligate?
|
The quadrangular space is bounded medially by the long head of the triceps tendon, laterally by the humerus, superiorly by teres major, and inferiorly by teres minor. It is traversed by the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex aery. The triangular space is medial to the quadrangular space and it is bounded laterally by the tendon of the long head of the triceps, superiorly by teres minor, and inferiorly by teres major. The circumflex scapular aery, which is a branch of the subscapular aery, traverses this space. The dorsal scapular aery and suprascapular aery contribute to the scapular anastomosis with the circumflex scapular aery, but neither of these vessels are in the quadrangular or triangular spaces.
| 2 |
Dorsal scapular
|
Posterior circumflex humeral
|
Scapular circumflex
|
Subscapular
|
Anatomy
| null |
9b425e30-327b-4d7a-9598-cbdf0a43136d
|
single
|
In a patient with UTI, CLED (Cysteine, Lactose Electrolyte Deficient) Media is preferred over Mac'conkeys media because:
|
CLED is preferable to Mac Conkey's bile-salt lactose medium for the culture of coliform and other bacteria from infected urine. Like McConkey medium, it distinguishes between lactose-fermenting (yellow) and lactose non-fermenting (blue, grey or green) colonies, inhibits the swarming of proteus and shows the greenish colour, matt surface and rough periphery of pseudomonas colonies. However, it has the advantage of suppoing the growth of ceain staphylococci, streptococci and candidas that fail to grow on MacConkey. Ref: Practical Medical Microbiology by Mackie McCaney; 14th edition
| 4 |
It is a differential medium
|
It inhibits swarming of Proteus
|
Promotes growth of Pseudomonas
|
Promotes growth of staph aureus and Candida
|
Microbiology
| null |
1fa64b55-ded5-4b8e-a6a3-e86e672d678d
|
single
|
Renal GFR is estimated by -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tc99m - DTPA Renal Scintigraphy1) Static renal scintigraphyo For static renal scintigraphy Tc - 99m - DMSA(Dimercaptosuccinic acid) is used. DMSA is cleared by renal tubules. When DMSA is labeled with Tc - 99 and injected intravenously, it can be used to create an image of the renal cortex which reflects vascular flow and tubular function. It is called static scintigraphy because radiopharmaceutical is tubularly fixed in the renal cortex.o Beside Tc - 99m - DMSA, other radiopharmaceuticals used for static scintigraphy are Tc - 99m - glucoheptone, (Tc-GH)o Indications for static renal scintigraphy (Tc - 99m - DMSA)i) Assessment of individual functionii) Investigation of UTI (particularly in children)iii) Assessment of reflux nephropathy (scars)iv) Space occupying lesions (cortical mass)v) Investigation of horse shoe, solitary or ectopic kidney2) Dynamic renal scintigraphy (functional imaging)o For dynamic renal scintigraphy Tc - 99m - DTPA (Diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid) and Tc - 99m - MAG 3 (mercaptoacetyltriglycine) and I - 123 - OIH (O - iodohippurate) are used.o Tc - 99m - DTPA is filtered completely by the glomerulus but are not reabsorbed, metabolized or secreted by renal tubules. Therefore this agent can be used to measure GFR.o Tc - 99m - MAG3 and I - 123 - OIH are secreted by renal tubules. These are used to determine effective renal plasma flow.o Tc - 99m - MAG3 is the best (amongst three) for dynamic renal scintigraphy, but is costly.o This is called dynamic scintigraphy because tracers are readily transported either by glomerulus or renal tubules (in contrast to static scintigraphy, where tracer is tubularly fixed in the renal cortex).o Indications of dynamic renal scintigraphy :-i) Diagnosis of obstructed vs non - obstructed dilatationii) Diagnosis of renal artery stenosisiii) Assessment of perfusion in ARFiv) Demonstration of vesico-urethral refluxv) Assessment of renal transplantationvi) Renal trauma
| 2 |
Iodohippurate
|
Tc99m-DTPA
|
Tc99m - MAG3
|
Tc99m - DMSA
|
Radiology
|
Urogenital System
|
a20de8a0-9b09-4779-a7bd-85eb1f4d97fb
|
single
|
Frozen DPT vaccine should be -
| null | 3 |
Shaken thoroughly before use
|
Allowed to melt before use
|
Discarded
|
Brought to room temperature before use
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
d6917d18-4289-4638-8cd3-c2c7c930150b
|
multi
|
The most common mechanism for transfer of resistance in Staphylococcus aureus is :
|
Transduction is particularly important in the transfer of resistance among staphylococci.
Multidrug resistance is transferred by conjugation.
| 2 |
Conjugation
|
Transduction
|
Transformation
|
Mutation
|
Pharmacology
| null |
5e4fb329-df39-491b-8f7c-79ff55e81eb4
|
single
|
the above condition is due to execessive usage of ?
|
image shows red man syndrome which is a side effect of vancomycin usage which increases histamines and causes flushing of the skin Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome * Constellation of symptoms : Pruritus, flushing, erythroderma common : Hypotension uncommon * Due to nonspecific histamine release that is rate related (rare repos of IgE-anaphylaxis) * Severity correlates with amount of histamine released into plasma * Severity reduced by reducing rate to < 500 mg/hr and premedication with H1-antagonists ref : kd tripathi 8th ed
| 3 |
ticeplanin
|
pipericellin
|
VANCOMYCIN
|
metronidazole
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
346a203f-77e6-460c-9249-d3afdbbe54d9
|
multi
|
Shoest acting NDMR
|
Rapacuronium Among the given options Rapacuronium is the shoest ating drug. Rapacuronium has been withdrawn from the market because it produces intense bronchospasm in a significant number of patients. Alcuronium is a relatively sho acting muscle relaxant. Always remember this
| 2 |
Succinyl choline
|
Rapac uroni um
|
Atracurium
|
Pancuronium
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
9e8b40da-669b-47ff-97f9-268e1f3a4999
|
single
|
IQ between 50-70 indicates -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mild mental retardation Classification of mental retardation o A child with IQ 70 is called as mentally retarded. Degree of MR IQ Mild 51-70 Moderate 36-50 Severe 21-35 Profound 0-20 o IQ level between 71-90 is designated as borderline intelligence.
| 1 |
Mild mental retardation
|
Moderate retardation
|
Severe retardation
|
Profound retardation
|
Pediatrics
| null |
fabc097d-1d6b-4314-a234-9a7e6ad8ef24
|
single
|
All of the following are known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma except :
|
Ans. is d i.e. Early menopause Friends, this is the most frequently asked question on Endometrial cancer. Mug up predisposing factors by hea. Endometrial carcinoma occurs as a result of unopposed estrogen exposure in body. Predisposing factors are : Family Family history Has Hypeension m Obesity L Late menopause / Early menarche Diabetes A Atypical endometrial hyperplasia U Unopposed estrogen or increased estrogen in body as in : H Fibroid PCOD Feminizing ovarian Tumour N Nulliparity H/o infeility / menstrual irregularity Mnemonic : Family has OLD AUNT Oral contraceptive pills (combined addition of Progesterone to H). Smoking (as it decreases leygirtpf estrogen, decreases weight& is associated with earlier age at menopause). H Fibroid PCOD Feminizing ovarian Tumour
| 4 |
Obesity
|
Family History
|
Use of Hormone Replacement Therapy
|
Early Menopause
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
c0bdbc31-226a-42bb-b4f5-216808bb83da
|
multi
|
Which of the following is a strategy used to increase the yield of protein produced in recombinant protein synthesis?
|
B i.e. Genes for protease inhibitors Expression vector is a vector which synthesize/produce/express the protein coded by a gene introduced DNA recombination technology. So it is used to produce protein by genetic engineering and detect specific c-DNA molecules in library. Expression vectors are specially constructed so that they contain very active inducible promoters, proper in phase translation initiation codons, both transcription & translation termination signalsQ (to increase transcription & translation) and appropriate protein processing signals, if needed (to produce processed function protein). To enhance the final yield of protein product, some expression vectors even contain genes that code for protease inhibitorsQ.
| 2 |
Promoter induction
|
Genes for protease inhibitors
|
Translation initiation
|
Translation and transcription termination
|
Medicine
| null |
c4d76c10-41f2-4e07-9ba9-48fce7d2f6a9
|
single
|
Disposable syringes are sterilized by ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ethylene oxide "Ethylene oxide used mainly by industry for the sterilization of plastic and other thermolabile material that can not withstand heating" -- Greenwood 16th/e p. 74. Other methods for sterilization of heat labile instruments Ionizing radiation Formaldehyde in combination with subatmospheric steam.
| 3 |
Autoclave
|
Cidex (2% glutaraldehyde)
|
Ethylene oxide
|
Hot air oven
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
5b997f4a-c4ae-4048-a6b5-7577c04a8953
|
single
|
Primary' hyperaldosteronism doesn't lead to -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyperkalemia Clinical manifestations of hvperaldosteronismo Excess activation of the mineralocorticoid receptor leads to potassium depletion and increased sodium retention, with the latter causing an expansion of extracellular and plasma volume,o Increased ENaC activity also results in hydrogen depletion that can cause metabolic alkalosis,o Aldosterone also has direct effects on the vascular system, where it increases cardiac remodeling and decreases compliance. Aldosterone excess may cause direct damage to the myocardium and the kidney glomeruli, in addition to secondary damage due to systemic hypertension,o Hypokalemia can be exacerbated by thiazide drug treatment, which leads to increased delivery of sodium to the distal renal tubule, thereby driving potassium excretion.o Severe hypokalemia can be associated with muscle weakness, overt proximal myopathy, or even hypokalemic paralysis. Severe alkalosis contributes to muscle cramps and, in severe cases, can cause tetany.
| 1 |
Hyperkalemia
|
Hypernatremia
|
Hydrogen depletion and metablic alkalosis
|
Hypertension
|
Pathology
|
Adrenal Cortex and Medulla
|
3af6559d-e673-4752-9018-0da71dac154b
|
single
|
In the first trimester screening for Down syndrome which of the following test is to be done?
|
a. Beta HCG, PAPPA(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 610-615)Methods for Antenatal Screening for Down Syndrome - In 1st Trimester pg 79Screening methodDetection rateMaternal age + Biochemical markers (b-hCG, PAPPA)Q70%Maternal age + Radiology (USG- NT>3mm)80%-83%Combined test: Mat. Age + Radiology (USG-NT>3mm)82%-87%*PAPPA is Pregnancy Associated Plasma Protein A
| 1 |
Beta HCG, PAPPA
|
MSAFP, PAPPA
|
Inhibin, PAPPA
|
Unconjugated Estriol, PAPPAs
|
Pediatrics
|
Genetics And Genetic Disorders
|
4fd5eeaa-5a40-472c-80be-7d535d1c5829
|
single
|
Nerve affected in trendenlenberg test is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Superior gluteal nerve
| 1 |
Superior gluteal nerve
|
Inferior gluteal nerve
|
Obturator nerve
|
Pudendal nerve
|
Orthopaedics
|
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
|
d5063ba8-b5d9-451b-9926-5f12a8e7c746
|
single
|
True about gastric juice secretion is?
|
ANSWER: (B) 20% in cephalic phaseREF: Ganong s 22nd ed p. 484 , Guytons 11th ed p. 834-845Phases of gastric acid secretion:Cephalic phase: Accounts for 20% of secretion and occurs when food is not even in mouth, stimulated by sight or smell of food. The impulses originate in cortex and reach the glands my dorsal motor nuclei and then through vagus nervesGastric phase: Occurs by vago gastric reflexes, enter entero reflexes and by gastrin. It accounts for around 70% (1500 ml)of secretion and occurs when food reaches stomachIII, Intestinal phase: remaining 10% is produced when food is especially in duodenum. It is caused by reflex feed backs.
| 2 |
70% in cephalic phase
|
20% in cephalic phase
|
Cephalic influences are mainly local
|
Vagal stimulation decreases gastric secretion in cephalic phase
|
Physiology
|
Secretory Functions of the Alimentary Tract
|
20cae0fc-c5ad-4177-a85e-293abc5917c9
|
multi
|
pH of set MTA is:
|
Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) is composed of tricalcium silicate, tricalcium aluminate, tricalcium oxide and silicate oxide.
Bismuth oxide is added to the mixture for radiopacity.
pH - 12.5 (when set).
Setting time is 2 hours 45 minutes.
Compressive strength—40 MPa (immediately after setting) which increases to 70 MPa after 21 days.
| 4 |
7.2
|
10.2
|
11
|
12
|
Dental
| null |
0db93963-2afc-4207-a81c-2168539f0fc9
|
single
|
Floor of mouth is made by which muscle?
| null | 3 |
Genioglossus
|
Geniohyoid
|
Mylohyoid
|
Masseter
|
Anatomy
| null |
b7d9959b-6808-483c-a711-5bbd278d5e7e
|
single
|
A radiolucent root canal suddenly disappears at the mid root portion, the most probable diagnosis is
| null | 2 |
Calcifications within the pulp
|
Bifurcation of the canal
|
Sclerosis of the adjacent bone
|
Ankylosis
|
Dental
| null |
43b711c9-c1dc-4714-8af6-6f360b027d0d
|
single
|
Most common extraintestinal site for amoebiasis is:
|
Liver
| 1 |
Liver
|
Blood
|
Lung
|
Brain
|
Microbiology
| null |
2b8f8b8b-fe5d-442d-b2a0-2dbd3ed938df
|
single
|
In Medical termination of pregnancy, according to FDA, Misoprostol is given after how many hours of Mifepristone?
|
FDA approved protocol - (Original protocol) 600 mg of mifepristone (i.e., 3 tablets) given orally on day 1 followed 2 days (48 hours) later by oral misoprostol 400 tig (2 tablets) on day 3. The treatment should be staed no more than 48 days from the sta of the last menstrual period. But according to the recent protocol 200 mg of mifepristone (it is as effective as 600 mg of mifepristone) is given orally on Day 1 followed 2 days (48 hours) later by vaginal misoprostol 800 pg. This regime provides highest efficacy within 63 days of amenorrhea. Ref : Dutta book of obstetrics 8th Ed
| 2 |
24 hours
|
48 hours
|
72 hours
|
96 hours
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
All India exam
|
27786bec-7bef-4c42-92f7-16bb35f0f83e
|
single
|
Drug of choice for peussis is?
|
Macrolides are preferred agents in Peussis Due to increased risk of infantile hyperophic pyloric stenosis in neonates treated with oral erythromycin, Azithromycin is the preferred agent in all age groups.
| 4 |
Penicillin
|
Ceftriaxone
|
Erythromycin
|
Azithromycin
|
Pediatrics
|
Impoant Bacterial Diseases in Children
|
0e066fb4-1387-40fd-b73f-768a8896bc86
|
single
|
Not implicated in congenital transmission is:
|
Hepatitis A is transmitted by feco-oral route. vertical transmission is not seen.
| 1 |
Hepatitis A
|
Toxoplasmosis
|
Herpes
|
Syphilis
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
26138266-d8b7-49f3-8f43-50b13eb369b8
|
single
|
Which of these is a conservative mutator:
|
C i.e. Alanine - leucine
| 3 |
Glutamic acid- glutamine
|
Histidine-glycine
|
Alanine- leucine
|
Arginine-aspaic acid
|
Biochemistry
| null |
7b96fc83-0bab-4a95-9360-22f77a1f5f28
|
single
|
A 1 year old girl presents with a 2-day history of fever, vomiting, and watery, nonbloody diarrhea. On physical exam, she appears dehydrated. Which of the following best describes the most likely infecting organism?
|
Rotavirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children between 3 months and 2 years of age. It is most prevalent in the winter. Rotavirus, one of the reoviruses, looks like a wheel (which ROTAtes) and possesses a double-shelled icosahedral capsid with no envelope. Its genome consists of 11 segments of double-stranded RNA. A complex double-stranded DNA genome is found in enteric adenoviruses, the third most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and children. This organism possesses an icosahedral nucleocapsid. A paially double-stranded circular DNA genome is characteristic of hepatitis B. Its envelope contains surface antigen (HBsAg). Its capsid is icosahedral and contains the genome along with DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, which also has reverse transcriptase activity. A single-stranded circular RNA genome is characteristic of hepatitis D virus. Its envelope consists of HBsAg. The virus is defective and is able to replicate only in cells infected with hepatitis B. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 15. Viruses of Diarrhea. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
| 3 |
It has a complex double-stranded DNA genome
|
It has a paially double-stranded circular DNA genome
|
It has a segmented, double-stranded RNA genome
|
It has a single-stranded circular RNA genome
|
Microbiology
| null |
e25e8450-6781-4648-b8f5-5f4369f1ee07
|
multi
|
A 2 year old child presented with leukocoria in the right eye since 2 months. On examination a total retinal detachment was present in the same eye. Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogenous sub retinal mass with calcification. The most likely clinical diagnosis is –
|
Leukocoria with calcification in subretinal mass suggests the diagnosis of exophytic retinoblastoma.
Exophytic retinoblastoma can cause retinal detachment.
| 2 |
Coats- disease
|
Retinoblastoma
|
Toxocariasis
|
Retinal tuberculoma
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
d2ac1eba-1f6e-41eb-8f3c-6f1a90fca02a
|
single
|
Sensitive investigation to detect ectopic parathyroid
|
Sestamibi scan is very sensitive to detect parathyroid adenoma and ectopic parathyroid.
| 3 |
CECT neck
|
MRI
|
Sestamibi scan
|
Thallium scan
|
Radiology
| null |
117fe1c0-c185-474d-a686-1dac17a94ac7
|
multi
|
Lice are not the vectors of -
|
Vector Diseases transmitted Soft tick Relapsing fever, Q fever, KFD (outside India) Hard tick Tularemia, Babesiosis, KFD (India), Tick paralysis, Tick encephalitis, Indian tick typhus, Tick hemorrhagic fever, Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Lice Epidemic typhus Trench fever relapsing fever REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 841
| 2 |
Relapsing fever
|
Q fever
|
Trench fever
|
Epidemic typhus
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Environment and health
|
8a053024-42f4-455b-b8fb-59d964fb4201
|
single
|
Most common subtype of thyroid cancer is ?
|
Papillary Carcinoma is the most common subtype. It is 70-80% common. Common in females and younger age group. It is a slowly progressive and less aggressive tumor. Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no= 468.
| 2 |
Medullary carcinoma
|
Papillary carcinoma
|
Follicular carcinoma
|
Anaplastic carcinoma
|
Surgery
|
Endocrinology and breast
|
8db0ebad-719c-4850-b292-84f6c16f9c4f
|
single
|
Parakeratosis is defined as:
|
Increased thickness in stratum corneum
| 3 |
Retention of cytoplasmic contents in stratum corneum
|
Retention of nuclei in stratum corneum
|
Increased thickness in stratum corneum
|
Decreased thickness of stratum corneum
|
Skin
| null |
516cb92c-830f-4a2f-b1e6-ac64ada0c626
|
single
|
Digoxin toxicity is increased by all except:
|
Hypokalemia increases the binding of digoxin to Na-k ATPase and enhances its toxicity. Hypokalemia decreases digoxin toxicity Diuretics also interfere with the action of digoxin (REF. Essentials of medical pharmacology KD TRIPATHI 8th Edition)
| 2 |
Renal impairment
|
Hyperkalemia
|
Hypercalcemia
|
Hypomagnesemia
|
Pharmacology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
79c28430-f8fd-43f5-909b-e625ae3749eb
|
multi
|
Not true regarding Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia is -
| null | 4 |
Lymphadenopathy is usually present
|
Blood viscosity increased
|
IgM immunoglobulin increased
|
Hypercalcemia
|
Pathology
| null |
704e9916-0836-44de-9fba-5f92afb53e8f
|
multi
|
Paradoxical splitting of second hea sound is seen in-
|
A split S2 is a finding upon auscultation of the S2 hea sound. It is caused when the closure of the aoic valve (A2) and the closure of the pulmonary valve (P2) are not synchronized during inspiration. The second hea sound (S2) is caused by the closure of the aoic and pulmonic valves, which causes vibration of the valve leaflets and the adjacent structures. The aoic valve closes slightly before the pulmonic, and this difference is accentuated during inspiration when S2 splits into two distinct components (physiological splitting). During expiration, the pulmonic valve closes at nearly the same time as the aoic, and splitting of S2 cannot be heard Exercise increases the intensity of both the aoic and pulmonic components of S2, whereas deep inspiration increases the intensity of the pulmonic component only. Ref Harrison 20th ed pg 1456
| 3 |
RBBB
|
ASD
|
LBBB
|
VSD
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
83689266-30a4-43cf-9fed-cc4bdfb4095a
|
single
|
Copper-T with threads is visible in a case of early pregnancy. Treatment of choice is
|
If the woman wishes to continue with the pregnancy and the threads of Cu T are visible, the device should be removed by gently pulling through threads. Removal of IUCD in the early pregnancy has been found to reduce the aboion rate Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 499
| 1 |
Remove CuT only
|
Suction evacuation with Copper-T removal
|
Reassurance and continue pregnancy
|
Laparotomy
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Demography and family planning
|
1e7b247b-8c73-47e2-8a2b-ce74f9f7a575
|
single
|
An apparently healthy newborn with a hardy appetite has begun feedings with formula. When she is laid down in the crib after feeding, she experiences projectile vomiting. Which of the following conditions is a probable cause of this vomiting?
|
An esophageal hiatal hernia is a herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus into the thoracic cavity. This compromises the esophagogastric sphincter so that stomach contents can easily reflux into the esophagus. The combination of a full stomach after feeding and lying down in the crib will cause vomiting in this newborn. TOF presents with cyanotic spells in baby. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with breathing difficulty . Physiological umbilical herniation is not associated with vomiting.
| 2 |
Physiological umbilical herniation
|
Esophageal hiatal hernia
|
Tetralogy of Fallot
|
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
|
Anatomy
|
Umblicial cord and diaphragm
|
3976e0d7-e571-4c5d-9cd1-10e6e1eed6ac
|
multi
|
Occulomotor nucleus is located in -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Midbrain o Cranial nerves I, IIo Cranial nerves III, IVo Cranial nerves V, VI, VII, VIIIo Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, XII----ForebrainMidbrainPonsMedulla
| 2 |
Forebrain
|
Midbrain
|
Pons
|
Medulla
|
Anatomy
|
Cranial Nerves
|
52b545a1-5a6d-4fa9-ba76-79e274ca2312
|
single
|
Liquid chemical waste is discarded in:
|
Liquid chemical waste used for disinfection purposes, cleaning and housekeeping are discarded in yellow bag. Chemical treatment is done followed by draining the liquid. Category Type of waste Yellow Human Anatomical Waste Animal Anatomical Waste Soiled Waste Expired or Discarded Medicines Chemical Waste Discarded Linens, mattresses, beddings contaminated with blood or body fluid, routine mask and gown g) Micro, Bio-t and other clinical lab waste h) Chemical liquid Waste Red Contaminated Waste (Recyclable) White (Translucent) Waste sharps including Metals Blue Glassware and Metallic Body Implants
| 1 |
Yellow bag
|
Red bag
|
White bag
|
Blue bag
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
NEET Jan 2020
|
12080677-f1e0-4b67-8aec-e47b1e666867
|
single
|
A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50D sphere both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nose he will feel that his near vision –
|
The farther a convex lens is from the eyes the more it relieves accommodation because its focus is brought by so much nearer to the retina, hence a weak lens at a distance has the same effect as a more proximal and stronger one.
For this reason, old people sometimes prefer to wear their spectacles on the tip of the nose.
"In this reason, old people sometimes prefer to slip the concave reading glasses for down towards the tip of the nose, in order to make a weak glass to do the office of a stronger glass in improving the distinctness of the print". ___ The optician's manual
| 1 |
Becomes enlarged
|
Becomes distorted
|
Becomes decreased
|
Remains the same
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
2e8e5056-5cb7-466b-91db-a10ec5ca4302
|
multi
|
Only nerve that originates from the dorsal surface of the brain stem is
| null | 1 |
Trochlear
|
Occulomotor
|
Vagus
|
Abducent
|
Anatomy
| null |
d6a73566-d855-4a51-8b1c-9696be76b26a
|
single
|
who gave the topographical theory of mind
|
CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciousness in the form of dreams Thus by analyzing ones dreams we could understand the unconscious conflicts o Psychosexual stages of life o Freud divided development into 5 stages namely psycho sexual development o It is divivded namely oral , anal , phallic, latent, genital phase. o Conversion disorders conversion disorder is conveing a psychological pain to physical symptoms present physical symptoms which has some connection with unconscious conflict is called SYMBOLIZATION present physical symptoms which has some resemblance with illness in family members, which is called MODELLING patient has illness like neurological deficit but they have apparent in concern towards their own illness which is known as LA BELLE INDIFFERENCE main defense mechanism in conversion disorder is REPRESSION o Repression defence mechanism * REPRESSION is called QUEEN of defense mechanisms o COUCH and FREE ASSOSIATION * He introduced a technique called as a couch technique where he makes the patient lie on the couch, he asks the patient to speak from 'cabbages to kings. This method is called FREE ASSOSIATION. By allowing the patient to speak whatever that comes to their mind randomly so that by analyzing their thoughts we could understand the conflict in the unconscious. o Topographical theory of mind Freud gave topographical theory mind It is divided into pre conscious, unconscious, conscious Later he disregarded topographical theory of mind and gave structural theory of mind o Structural theory of mind It is divided into id, ego, super ego Id= instinctual desires like anger, hunger, sexual instinct Ego= function of mind to work based on ego to avoid guilt from super ego Super ego= based on moral principle, obtained from family members and relatives, teachers Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition pg no. 845
| 2 |
erikson
|
freud
|
morel
|
bleuler
|
Anatomy
|
Treatment in psychiatry
|
29240f17-5097-4978-bb81-14ca9a5b4926
|
single
|
The patients of Down syndrome has high risk of developing ________ in the future :
|
Patients with Down syndrome i.e 21st trisomy has highest risk for developing Alzheimer's disease as gene for APP (Amyloid precursor protein) is present on chromosome 21.
| 3 |
Parkinson syndrome
|
Lewy body dementia
|
Alzheimer's disease
|
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
|
Psychiatry
| null |
43a98b12-4ccc-4d47-95fd-07c94472eb6b
|
single
|
Refrigerated blood stored up to 48 hours before transfusion can destroy which of the following -
| null | 3 |
HIV
|
Hepatitis B
|
Treponema pallidum
|
P. Vivax
|
Microbiology
| null |
c4ac7b98-4b95-4ff4-8e5d-e4ad620aeb04
|
multi
|
What is the interpretation of the given cervix biopsy of 50 yr old lady? NOT RELATED-PATHO
|
.
| 3 |
CMV infection
|
Cervical carcinoma
|
Carcinoma in situ
|
HPV induced koilocytosis
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
4bbea752-bada-4b6b-9f56-6e96d0103551
|
single
|
Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis is by?
|
D i.e. Alanine
| 4 |
Lactate
|
Glyerol
|
Ketones
|
Alanine
|
Biochemistry
| null |
5803ca6c-4b83-42d6-868a-2ecf7ee39dc8
|
single
|
A 50yearold patient with abdominal discomfo since last 2 years, was found to have a large spleen of 3 kg. Bone marrow is difficult to aspirate. Most probable diagnosis is: March 2011
|
Ans. B: Myelofibrosis Most patients of myelofibrosis present over the age of 50 years. The spleen can be massively enlarged due to extramedullary haematopoiesis The marrow is often difficult to aspirate Myelophthisic syndrome Primary myelofibrosis: - Due to invading by tumour cells, usually of an epithelial cancer of the breast, lung, and prostate or neuroblastoma - Infections such as TB, HIV, sarcoidosis, Gauchers dsease Secondary myelofibrosis: - Radiation therapy - Treatment with radiomimetic drugs Pathophysiology: - Proliferation of fibroblasts in the bone marrow - Extension of heamatopoiesis into the long bones and most parricularly into extramedullary tissues, usually the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes (myeloid metaplasia) - Ineffectiv eerythropoiesis Blood picture: - Anemia (secondary myelofibrosis) is usually normocytic and normochromic - Erythrocyte morphology is very abnormal, with circulating nucleated RBCs. Tear drop cells etc - Increased WBC count, sometimes mimicking leukaemoid reaction - Bone marrow aspirate: Inability to aspirate bone marrow, the characteristic "dry tap" can allow a presumptive diagnosis
| 2 |
Sickle cell anemia
|
Myelofibrosis
|
Haemochromatosis
|
Iron deficiency anemia
|
Medicine
| null |
dec8cb8f-de04-4877-9ff3-99a4a0344271
|
single
|
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