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Which of the following fats the highest concentration of saturated fatty acids -
<p> Saturated fatty acids:- Fats yield fatty acids and glycerol on hydrolysis. Fatty acids are divided into saturated fatty acids such as lauric acid, palmitic and stearic acids and Unsaturated fatty acids which are fuher divided into MUFA and PUFA. Approximate saturated fatty acid composition in : Coconut oil - 92 Butter/ ghee- 83 Palmolein-39 Ground nut- 19 Safflower-9 Sunflower -12 Soyabean-14 Mustard-4 Vanaspati-46 {Reference: Park&;s textbook of community medicine 23 rd edition, pg no. 611}
3
Butter
Palm oil
Coconut oil
Margarine
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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Most common cause of Hirsutism :
Ans. is a i.e. Polycystic Ovarian Disease (PCOD) Hirsutism is defined as excessive growth of androgen dependant sexual hair or male distribution of hair in a female. "The most common cause of hirsutism is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome." "Polycystic ovarian syndrome accounts for 70 - 80% of cases of hirsutism, with idiopathic hirsutism being the second most frequent cause." Pathophysiology of Hirsutism : Figure showing effect of androgen on pilosebaceous unit Ted androgen leads to Ted sebum production acne formation. It conves vellus follicles to terminal follicles leading to hirsutism. Under the influence of androgens, terminal hairs that were previously not dependent on androgens reve to a vellus form and balding results. Elevated androgen levels play a major role in determining the type and distribution of hair. Within a hair follicle, testosterone is conveed by the enzyme 5a reductase to dihydrotestosterone (active metabolite). DHT conves sho, soft vellus hair to coarse terminal hair. This conversion is irreversible. Only hairs in androgen - sensitive areas are changed in this manner to terminal hairs. The sites affected are : upper hp - chin side burns - chest lines alba of the lower abdomen Ethinicity and familial tendency also influence hirsutism. Causes of Hirsutism : Remember : Hirsutism is associated with excess androgen production (either from ovaries or adrenals), so any cause which increases androgens causes hirsutism. Most of the testosterone is bound to sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) and is considered biologically inactive. Testosterone which is not bound to SHBG is considered biologically active, therefore any factor which decreases
1
Polycystic ovary disease
Arrhenoblastoma
Cushing syndrome
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Family consisting of a mother and her children is
null
4
Problem family
Broken family
Dysfunctional family
Matrifocal family
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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In Shigella dysentery associated hemolytic uremic syndrome, the false statement is
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)Salient featuresLaboratory findingsVessel wall disorder characterized by deposition of localized platelet and thrombi within the renal vasculature (afferent aerioles and glomerular capillaries are most commonly affected).Presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (microangiopathic destruction of RBC), thrombocytopenia or bleeding (microangiopathic destruction of platelets), renal failure.MC organism isE. coli 0157:H7 all over the world.Shigella dysenteriae type I is MC in India and Bangladesh1. Anemia: Microangiopathic hemolyticRed blood cell fragmentation on peripheral smearHelmet cells/Burr cells 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. WBC counts rise 4. LDH levels are elevated out of propoion to degree of hemolysis5. Coombs' test is negative6. Tests of coagulation are normal (exclude DIC) with the Exception of - elevatedfibrin degradation products (explains hypofibrinogenemia)(Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg no: 970, 1283)
3
Leucocytosis
Neurological abnormalities
Hepatic failure
Thrombotic angiopathy
Pathology
All India exam
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Which of the following is proof of eyes being open for few hours after death
Kevorkian sign (fragmentation & segmentation of retinal vessels) is a sign seen in retina; which is independent of eye opening. it appears within minutes after death and stays there for about an hour. Tache noir is the dust deposition in the sclera in the form of two triangles on either side of iris when eyes are open. it is brown in color and later turns black. appears after 3-4 hours after death.
2
Kevorkian sign
Tach noir
Both of above
None of above
Forensic Medicine
Thanatology
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Most common complication seen with prostatitis is
PROSTATITIS In both acute and chronic prostatitis, the seminal vesicles and posterior urethra are usually also involved. Acute prostatitis Aetiology Acute prostatitis is common, but underdiagnosed. The usual organism responsible is Escherichia coli, but Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus albus, Streptococcus faecalis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia may be responsible. The infection may be haematogenous from a distant focus or it may be secondary to acute urinary infectionClinical features General manifestations overshadow the local: the patient feels ill, shivers, may have a rigor, has 'aches' all over, especially in the back, and may easily be diagnosed as having influenza. The temperature may be up to 39degC. Pain on micturition is usual, but not invariable. The urine contains threads in the initial voided sample, which should be cultured. Perineal heaviness, rectal irritation and pain on defaecation can occur; a urethral discharge is rare. Frequency occurs when the infection involves the bladder. Rectal examination reveals a tender prostate; one lobe may be swollen more than the other, and the seminal vesicles may be involved. A frankly fluctuant hygiene abscess is uncommon. Treatment Treatment must be rigorous and prolonged or the infection will not be eradicated and recurrent attacks may ensue. Spread of infection to the epididymides and testes may occur. Prolonged treatment with an antibiotic that penetrates the prostate well is indicated (trimethoprim or ciprofloxacin) Chronic prostatitis Many urologists find the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis and 'prostatodynia' very difficult, for many men present with perigenital pain, testicular pain, prostatic pain exacerbated by sexual intercourse or pain that apparently renders sexual intercourse out of the question. Psychosexual dysfunction in such patients may be the underlying problem. The diagnosis of chronic prostatitis has to be based on: * persistent threads in voided urine; * prostatic massage showing pus cells with or without bacteria in the absence of urinary infection. Aetiology This is thought to be the sequela of inadequately treated acute prostatitis. While pus is present in the prostatic secretion, the responsible organism is often difficult to find. Other organisms such as Chlamydia species may be responsible for chronic abacterial prostatitis. Clinical features The clinical features are extremely varied. Only men with symptoms of posterior urethritis, prostatic pain and perigenital pain accompanied by intermittent fever and pus cells or bacteria in the post-prostatic massage specimen should be diagnosed as having chronic prostatitis. Diagnosis The three-glass urine test is valuable. If the first glass with the initial voided sample shows urine containing prostatic threads, prostatitis is present. Rectal examination of the prostate may be normal or may show a soft, boggy and tender prostate. Examination of the prostatic fluid obtained by prostatic massage should show pus cells and bacteria. Urethroscopy may reveal inflammation of the prostatic urethra, and pus may be seen exuding from the prostatic ducts. The verumontanum is likely to be enlarged and oedematous. In many men with the symptoms described above, all investigations are normal. Treatment Antibiotic therapy should be administered only in accordance with bacteriological sensitivity tests. Trimethoprim or ciprofloxacin penetrate well into the prostate. If Trichomonas or anaerobes are the responsible agent, a rapid response is obtained from administration of metronidazole (200mg t.d.s. for 7 days to both paners). If Chlamydia is suspected, doxycycline is the antibiotic treatment of choice. There is little evidence that prostatic massage helps in eradicating the infection. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1475
1
Epididymitis
Orchitis
Sterility
Seminal vesciculitis
Surgery
Urology
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Which CrPc is related to -
Cr.P.C. 1973- It provides the mechanism for punishment of offences against the substantive criminal law.It deals with the police duties in arresting offenders, dealing with absconders, in the production of documents and in investigating offences. Ref: K.S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29 th edition, Page-3.
4
Withdrawal of cases by Session Judge
Withdrawal of cases by Judicial magistrate
Withdrawal of cases by executive magistrate
Reasons to be recorded
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
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HIV-E is more common
Since HIV/AIDS was first repoed in Thailand in 1984, 1,115,415 adults had been infected as of 2008, with 585,830 having died since 1984. ... In 2009 the adult prevalence of HIV was 1.3%. As of 2016, Thailand had the highest prevalence of HIV in Southeast Asia at 1.1 percent, the 40th highest prevalence of 109 nations According to the researchers, the shoer survival time measured in the studies suggests that HIV subtype E, which is the most common HIV subtype in Thailand, may be more virulent than other subtypes of the virus. The first study followed 228 men over a 14-year period staing in 1991. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 987
4
India
Africa
Europe
Thailand
Medicine
Infection
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The socioeconomic status of community is best indicated by -
Infant Moality Rate is the ratio of infant deaths registered in a given year to the total number of live bihs in same year,expressed as rate per 1000 live bihs. IMR is universally regarded as not only as the most impoant indicator of health status of community but also as the level of living of people and effectiveness ofMCH services in paicular. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 567
1
IMR
Under 5 moality rate
Maternal moality rate
Perinatal moality rate
Social & Preventive Medicine
obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics
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Investigation of choice for posterior chethral stricture is
Investigation of choice : a) Anterior Urethral stricture ⇒ Retrograde Urethrogram. b) Posterior Urethral stricture ⇒ Anterograde urethrogram.
2
Retrograde Urethrogram
Anterograde Urethrogram
IV Pydogram
Ascending Urethrogram
Surgery
null
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Which of following substances inhibit succinate dehydrogease in Kreb cycle?
Inhibitors of TCA Cycle Aconitase noncompetitively inhibited by Flouroacetate  Alpha Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase noncompetitively inhibited by Arsenite  Succinate Dehydrogenase is competitively inhibited by Malonate.(Inhibitor of complex II of ETC). Harper 30th edition pg-162
3
Flouroacetate
Arsenite
Malonate
Fluoride
Biochemistry
null
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The hormonal factor responsible for circadian rhythm is formed from which amino acid?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tryptophan In circadian rhythm maintenance melatonin is involved which is derived from tryptophan.Tryptophan is a precursor for synthesis of niacin (nicotinic acid), serotonin and melatonin.
2
Tyrosine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Histidine
Biochemistry
null
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Glycolipids are mostly found in
Glycolipids are mostly seen in Brain and spinalcord Two types of glycolipids are : ganglioside ,cerebroside
2
Hea
Brain
Spinalcord
Tetanus
Anatomy
General anatomy
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All of the following are cluster A personality disorders except:
Avoidant personality disorder is a cluster C personality disorder.
4
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Paranoid personality disorder
Avoidant personality disorder
Psychiatry
null
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Which emphysema is associated with Alpha- 1 antitrypsin deficiency:
Emphysema can be classified based on pattern of enlargement of air spaces as: Panacinar Associated with a1AT deficiency Diffuse loss of parenchymal tissue mainly in lower lobes In this, air spaces are abnormally large within and across the acinar unit Centriacinar Most commonly associated with cigarette smoking Enlarged air spaces in association with respiratory bronchioles involves upper lobes more frequently and superior pa of lower lobes. Alpha 1 antitrypsin : Anti elastase proteincoded by gene PiMM gene. Any mutation in this gene lead to abnormal formation of alpha 1 antitrypsin protein which leads to Pan acinar emphysema in basal pa of lung.
1
Panacinar emphysema
Paraseptal emphysema
Centriacinar emphysema
Irregular emphysema
Medicine
COPD and Asthma
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Somatic passivity is seen in?
Somatic passivity is a Schneiderian first rank of Schizophrenia. Ref : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21st ed
4
Depression
Hypomania
Body dysmorphic disorder
Paranoid Schizophrenia
Psychiatry
All India exam
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With accommodation at rest, total refractory power of crystalline lens is
Answer- B. 16DThe diopteric power of reduced eye is + 6OD, of which + 44D is contributed by cornea and + 16D by the crystalline lens.
2
14D
16D
18D
20D
Ophthalmology
null
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Most common type of schizophrenia is:
Paranoid
2
Simple
Paranoid
Catatonic
Undifferentiated
Psychiatry
null
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Two of 3 family members have dinner at a local restaurant and, within 48 hours, start experiencing double vision, difficulty in swallowing and speaking, and breathing problems. These symptoms are consistent with which of the following?
Campylobacter botulinum growing in food produces a potent neurotoxin that causes diplopia, dysphagia, respiratory paralysis, and speech difficulties when ingested by humans. The toxin is thought to act by blocking the action of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. Botulism is associated with high mortality; fortunately, C. botulinum infection in humans is rare. Activation of cyclic AMP is important in cholera disease, not botulism. Clostridia are gram-positive and have no endotoxin. Ingestion of the botulism toxin initiates the disease. The actual organism may or may not be alive when ingested. An enterotoxin, by definition, would affect the intestinal tract.
3
Activation of cyclic AMP
Endotoxin shock
Ingestion of a neurotoxin
Invasion of the gut epithelium by an organism
Microbiology
Bacteria
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All are seen in carcinoid syndrome
Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome comprising the signs and symptoms that occur secondary to carcinoid tumors. The syndrome includes flushing and diarrhea, and less frequently, hea failure, vomiting and bronchoconstriction. It is caused by endogenous secretion of mainly serotonin and kallikrein. Ref: Internet sources
2
Diarrhoea
Constipation
Liver metastasis
5-HT secretion
Surgery
Urology
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Which of the following combination of iron can be given both IM and IV
null
1
Iron dextran
Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution
ferrous Sulphate
ferrous Humourate
Pharmacology
null
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Which of the following is coagulase-negative staphylococcus?
Coagulase-positive StaphylococciBesides Staph.aureus, few others are coagulase positive like Staph.intermedius and Staph.hyicusCoagulase-negative StaphylococciStaph.epidermidis; Staph.hemolyticus and Staph.saprophyticusRef: Ananthanarayan; 7th edition; Page no: 200
2
Staph. aureus
Staph. epidermidis
Staph. Intermedius
Staph. Hyicus
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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A patient present with the following lesions.Investigation shows cocci in long chains.The diagnosis is
The image shows presence of classical " honey coloured crusts"  which are seen in Impetigo contagiosa.
2
Bullous impetigo
Impetigo contagiosa
Furuncle
Cellulitis
Dental
null
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Mucin clot test is done to detect-
mucin clot test. A test of synol fluid precipitation in acetic acid, formerly used to determine whether inflammatory ahritis was present in a joint. Other tests have replaced it, such as the cell count, cultures, Gram stain, and crystal examination Also helps in detection of hyaluronic acid in synol fluid Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1015
3
Mucin in stool
Protein in CSF
Hyaluronate in Synol fluid
Protein in pleural fluid
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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Diagnosis on CXR is?
Ans. (d) Pneumo mediastinumIn the area of arrows a continuous diaphragm sign is noted. Normally diaphragm is seen below lungs only. This kind of presentation is noted in pneumo-mediastinum.
4
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Bochdalek hernia
Pneumothorax
Pneumo-mediastinum
Medicine
Pleural Effusion & Pneumothorax
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Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiodarone therapy?
Impoant drugs that can cause hypothyroidism are iodides, lithium, and amiodarone. Amiodarone inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 toT3, also interferes with thyroid hormone action and cause hypothyroidism and rarely hypehyroidism may develop on chronic use. Pulmonary alveolitis and fibrosis is the most serious toxicity of prolonged use. (REF: ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D TRIPATHI-6th edition...Page No-516)
4
Pulmonary Fibrosis
hypothyroidism
hypehyroidism
Systemic lupus erythematosis
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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Excretory urography is contraindicated in: March 2011
Ans. C: Multiple myeloma Contraindication to excretory/intravenous urography are 1) iodine sensitivity or previous reaction to contrast media, 2) pregnancy, 3) intractable cardiac or renal failure and 4) multiple myeloma
3
Renal aery hypeension
Single kidney
Multiple myeloma
Trauma
Radiology
null
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Best site for taking biopsy for viral oesophagitis is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Edge of the ulcer o In viral esophagitis d/t Herpes simplex the biopsy sample is taken from the edge of the ulcer.
1
Edge of ulcer
Base of ulcer
Adjacent indurated area around ulcer
Surrounding normal mucosa
Pathology
null
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Which of the following antiretrol drugs does not cause peripheral neuropathy
Lamivudine E-Emtricitabine and Lamivudine are safest NIs these are not assoscated with peripheral neuropathy or pancreatitis Refer KDT 6/e p771, 772
1
Lamivudine
Stavudine
Didanosine
Zalcitabine
Anatomy
General anatomy
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A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, she has enlarged cervical lymph nodes and spleen. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 2.7 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 40 x 109/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD 19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient, will most likely exhibit effacement of lymph node arachitecture by:
Patient in the question stem is showing features of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Histopathological examination in a case of CLL shows diffuse effacement of lymphocyte architecture by small to medium sized lymphocytes with clumped chromatin, indistinct or absent nucleoli and scanty cytoplasm. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is a clonal malignancy of B lymphocytes. It is manifested clinically by immunosuppression, bone marrow failure, and organ infiltration with lymphocytes. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 13
4
A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers
A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern
A predominantly follicular pattern
A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate
Pathology
null
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Secular trend is demonstrated by
null
2
Pic chart
Line diagram
Scatter diagram
Pictogram
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is -
Specifics for <a href=" and panels</a> are as follows: Specimen type - Whole blood Container - Culture bottles (one aerobic and one anaerobic) for blood and green-top tube (heparin) for fungus and mycobacteria (if warranted by clinical suspicion) Collection method - Venipuncture Specimen volume - Adults: 10-20 mL per culture set; Pediatric patients: 1.0-3.0 m The blood is inoculated into the bottle containing blood culture medium in the blood to the broth ratio of 1:10 .but in children where the amount of blood drawn is little a ratio of 1:5 may be achieved REF: MEDSCAPE
3
1:05
1:20
1:10
:100
Microbiology
general microbiology
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A diabetic patient developed cellulite is due to S. aureus, which was found to be methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate except:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Imipenem(Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, p. 1168 and 17th/e, p. 879)"The carbapenem imipenem has excellent activity against methicillin - sensitive S. aureus but not M.R.S.A." Because MRSA is resistant to all Beta-lactam antibiotics including cephalosporins and carbapenems.
2
Vancomycin
Imipenem
Teicoplanin
Linezolid
Microbiology
Bacteria
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A patient using a contact lens develops a corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment –
PHMD is the drug of choice. Chlorhexidene is an alternative "Treatment with PHMB or chlorhexidene is often combined with propamidine and neomycine". — Infections of eye
4
Propamidine
Neosporine
Ketoconazole
Polyhexamethylene biguanide
Ophthalmology
null
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Profuse watery diarrhea in an immuno-compromised child is due to:
Cryptosporidium induces severe and protracted diarrhea in AIDS patients.
1
Cryptosporidium
Amoeba
Giardia
Lactose intolerance
Pediatrics
Disorders of Gastrointestinal System Including Diarrhea
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Heat Rupture is characterized by-
Among the given options, only irregular margins are seen in heat rupture.
2
Regular margins
Irregular margins
Ruptured blood vessels
Ruptured Red Blood cells/clotted blood
Forensic Medicine
null
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A patient presents with mild jaundice. On examination he had splenomegaly and his USG abdomen showed gallstones. Peripheral smear showed generalized red cell targeting and occasional cells with angular crystals of hemoglobin C. Formation of hemoglobin C requires substitution of glutamic acid with which of the following amino acid?
Hemoglobin C is formed by a single amino acid substitution with lysine for glutamine at codon 6. Patients with homozygous hemoglobin C presents with mild hemolytic anemia with splenomegaly, mild jaundice, and pigment (calcium bilirubinate) gallstones. The peripheral blood smear shows generalized red cell targeting and occasional cells with angular crystals of hemoglobin C. Persons heterozygous for hemoglobin C are clinically normal. Ref: Linker C.A., Damon L.E., Damon L.E., Andreadis C. (2013). Chapter 13. Blood Disorders. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow (Eds),CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2013.
3
Valine
Leucine
Lysine
Arginine
Pathology
null
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In a Anti-moem burn which is NOT true:
D i.e. Non albuminous bulla
4
Line of redness
Increase in enzymes
Vesicle formation
Nonalbu minus bulla
Forensic Medicine
null
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True about HCG: September 2012
Ans. B i.e. Prevent involution of corpus luteum Beta-HCG HCG is secreted by: Synctiotrophoblasts Structurally HCG has: 2 subunits, It is a glycoprotein
2
Produced by cytotrophoblast
Prevent involution of corpus luteum
Value reaches maximum level at 20 week of pregnancy
Its secretion stas after 2 day of ovulation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Which is NOT a clinical feature of Addison's disease -
there is no hypocalcemia , there is weakness and fatiguability , hyperkalemia , hyponatremia, hypotension, hypoglycemia( Harrison 17 pg 2263)
3
Hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Medicine
Endocrinology
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Commonest stone in case of UTI
Phosphate or struvite stones are infection stones associated with urea-splitting organisms i.e. Proteus, Pseudomonas, Providencia, Klebsiella, Staphylococci and Mycoplasma. The high ammonium concentration desired from urea-splitting organisms results in an alkaline urinary pH, required for the precipitation of phosphate crystals. Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p1296
1
Phosphate
Urate
Cysteine
Calcium oxalate
Anatomy
Urology
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Cryopercipitate is Rich in which of the following clotting factor
ref Robbins 7/e p664 Cryoprecipitate is prepared from plasma and contains fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, factor VIII, factor XIII and fibronectin. Cryoprecipitate is the only adequate fibrinogen concentrate available for intravenous use. Cryoprecipitateis available in pre-pooled concentrates of five units.
4
Factor 2
Factor5
Factor 7
Factor 8
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Jefferson fracture is:
Ans. B. C1 fracture* Jefferson's fracture: Sudden severe load on the top of the head may cause a 'bursting' force which fractures the ring of the atlas.* There is no encroachment on the neural canal and, usually, no neurological damage.
2
C2 fracture
C1 fracture
Fracture of talus
Atlanto- axial dislocation
Orthopaedics
Spinal Injuries
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All are true statements regarding Lemborexant except :
Lemborexant FDA approved drug for the treatment of insomnia which got its approval after two Phase III clinical trials namely SUNRISE I and SUNRISE II. Useful in insomnia ,characterized by difficulties with sleep onset and/or sleep maintenance. Orexin neuropeptide signaling system plays a role in wakefulness. Blocking the binding of wake-promoting neuropeptides orexin A and orexin B to orexin receptors OX1R and OX2R is thought to suppress wake drive. Lemborexant binds to orexin receptors OX1R and OX2R and acts as a competitive antagonist with stronger inhibition effect to OX2R most common adverse effect is somnolence
2
It is used in the treatment of Insomnia
It is an orexin receptor agonist
It is useful in patients with difficulties with sleep onset/maintenance
The most common adverse effect is somnolence
Pharmacology
Sedative-Hypnotics and Parkinsonism
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multi
Which of the following is/are criteria for the expectant management in pre-eclampsia excepts
Ans. b. B.P.>140/90 mm HgCriteria for severe Preeclampsia:A persistent SBP of > 160 mm Hg systolic or DBP of > 110 mmHgPersistent severe epigastric painCerebral or visual disturbancesOliguria <400ml/24hrProtein excretion of > 5gm/dayHELLP syndromeRetinal haemorrhage, exudates or papilledemaIntrauterine growth restriction of the foetusPulmonary oedema
2
Platelet count <100000 ml
B.p.>140/90 mm Hg
Urine output < 400mUday
Persistent headache
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a3a86f81-ff1b-4bda-ac03-15a86ef780f3
multi
All are complication of formula fed baby over human milk fed baby except :
Ans. is d i.e. Vit. K deficiency Formula feeds contain a host of vitamin and minerals, as well as trace elements (zinc, mangnese, copper, iodine) and electrolytes. in formula feeds vitamin K is added in higher levels than in breast milk to reduce the risk of hemorrhagic diseases in new born. So, vitamin K deficiency can never be a complication of formula fed babies. Now let's see what Ghai 6/e. p 164 121. 177 has to say on the rest of options. Option ''a i.e. Necrotizing enterocolitis "Ail iiust all panel neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) are aificially fed prior to the onset of illness. Breast milk is protective for NEC." Option "b" i.e. Otitis media "Otitis media is one of the most common infections of early childhood. Anatomic features which make this age group paicularly susceptible to ear infection include shoer, more horizontally placed and compliant eustachian tube, which permits reflux of nasopharyngeal secretions into the middle year. A high incidence of bacterial carriage in the adenoids may also contribute to the frequency of otitis media in children. Other risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, over crowding, bottle feeding, cleft palate, allergic rhinitis, Down's syndrome and disorders of mucocilliary transpo." Option "c" i.e. Hypocalcemia period there is transient hypoparathyroidism. As a result, less phosphate is excreted in the urine. Human milk is low in phosphate, but cow's milk is rich in phosphate. Immature parathyroid in the neonates can not easily cope with excess phosphate in cow's milk leading to hypocalcemia in top fed babies".
4
Necrotizing enterocolitis
Otitis media
Hypocalcemia
Vit K deficiency
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
2b2d8823-a395-4d9b-86eb-6d2fb3386920
multi
All of the following are true about type 1 HLA except?
Ans. (d) First line defense mechanism(Ref: R 9th/pg 191)a. True; It is present on all nucleated cells including antigen presenting cells as well as plateletsb. True; It activates cytotoxic T cell and kill virus infected cellc. True; It is present on platelets also, which are non- nucleated cellsd. False; It is a part of adaptive immunity (second line defense mechanism)
4
Present on APC
Activate cytotoxic T cell and kill virus infected cell
Present on nucleated cells
First line defense mechanism
Pathology
Immunity
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multi
Jeeps disease is known as
Pilonidal sinus is seen in drivers mainly hairy jeep drivers in military.
4
Hemorvhoids
Fissure in ano
Fistula in ano
Pilonidal sinus
Surgery
null
8b4a922b-bf1b-44b4-83c0-f0e57cd6cda1
single
nosocamial infection after how many hours ?
*Any infection causing illness that was not present or in its incubation period when the subject entered hospital or received treatment in outpatient clinic. *Infections are considered Nosocomial if they first appear 48 hours or more after hospital admission or within 30 days after discharge. *"Nosocomial" comes from two Greek words- "nosus" meaning "disease"+"komeion" meaning "to take care of"----disease contracted by a patient while under medical care. ref : harrisons 21st ed
1
48hrs
72hrs
7 days
1 day
Medicine
All India exam
ed77e81f-62e5-4fba-95e3-eb3db0a17d42
single
Thermoregulatory response activated by cold is-
* In cold environment, muscular contractions are increased and there is increased heat production Increased muscular contraction can be due to: 1) Increased tone of muscles. 2) Voluntary activities like foot stamping, hand rubbing, spoing activities etc. * Hypothalamic stimulation in cold environment brings about the following effects which help against cold- 1) Cutaneous vasoconstriction. 2) Shivering (involuntary muscular contractions). 3) Horripilation / Piloerection (standing up of body hair). 4) Adipose tissue lipolysis (generates heat).
3
Cutaneous vasodilatation
Anorexia
Increased voluntary activity
Increased respiration
Surgery
null
e1d56fd5-9b2f-4867-9c66-77d62105d66e
single
Chlaymydia in asymptomatic carriers, the most sensitive test is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nucleic acid amplification test . Recently Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT), have'been developed for chlamydial infections. . These tests are well suited for screening ( asymptomatic carriers) as well as diagnosis. . These tests are the most sensitive and specific chlamydial diagnostic methods available, they are also the most expensive. . The tests are ? - Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) - Ligase chain reaction ( LCR) - Transcription mediated amplification (TCR) - DNA strand displacement amplification (SDA)
2
Tissue culture
Nucleic acid amplification test
Serology
Serum electrophoresis
Microbiology
null
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single
20 yr old female diagnosed previously with adenocarcinoma stomach and on examination following is seen;
Sister Mary joseph nodule - Cutaneous metastatic deposit around umbilicus (Not Lymph node) Lymph Node involvement in Ca stomach - Involvement of left supraclavicular LN - Virchow's Node (Aka Troisier's Sign) - Involvement of Axillary LN - Irish nodes - Palpable intraperitoneal metastasis on digital rectal examination - Blummer's shelf
1
Sister Mary joseph nodule
Umbilical granuloma
Infected umbilical hernia
Irish node
Surgery
FMGE 2019
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single
Hypertrichosis is seen with following drugs EXCEPT:
(Barbiturates) (276-H 16th) (301-345-H17th)Hypertrichosis - Occurs in use of phenytoin, minoxidil, or cyclosporine, Diazoxide, Androgens, oral contraceptives containing androgenic progestins.
3
Minoxidil
Cyclosporine
Barbiturates
Phenytoin
Medicine
Drugs
e8bcf735-2968-4704-a55e-2ae706d6fe7c
multi
Tafenoquine - anti TB drug has been approved in July 2018 for
orally active 8 amino qinolone. It is a heame polymerase inhibitor. it is a prodrug and is active againist all liver forms includung hypnozoits. Molucular target is not exactly kmown
2
Radicle cure of P falciparum
Radicle cure of P vivax
Clinical cure of P falciparum
Clinical cure of P vivax
Pharmacology
All India exam
5c025311-06f3-474d-b902-40705765ee7e
single
Difference b w the incidence in exposed and non exposed group is best given by
attributable risk : Attributable Risk(AR) (sometimes called Attributable Propoion or Attributable Fraction) is a measure of the prevalence of a condition or disease. Given a group of people exposed to a risk, it&;s the fraction who develop a disease or condition. ref : park 21st ed
3
relative risk
attributable risk
population attributable risk
odd's ratio
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
c8c881e1-934a-45b5-8d98-241692c75dbc
single
A 55-year old man presented with a two-day history of headache, fever and generalized weakness. He had received a cadaveric kidney transplant 5 years earlier. His medications included 5 mg oftacrolimus twice a day and 10 mg of prednisone daily. On neurologic examination, he was confused and incoherent Cranial nerves were normal, but he had a hazy left retina. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with the administration of gadolinium showed multiple enhancing lesion in both cerebral hemispheres. The most probable diagnosis is -
Nocardiosis is an infectious disease affecting either the lungs (pulmonary nocardiosis) or the whole body (systemic nocardiosis). It is due to infection by a bacterium of the genus Nocardia, most commonly Nocardia asteroides or Nocardia brasiliensis. It is most common in adult males, especially those with a weakened immune system. In patients with brain nocardia infection, moality exceeds 80%; in other forms, moality is 50%, even with appropriate therapy. It is one of several conditions that have been called "the great imitator". Cutaneous nocardiosis commonly occurs in immunocompetent hosts Signs and symptoms Pulmonary infection Produces a virulent form of pneumonia (progressive) Night sweats, fever, cough, chest pain Pulmonary nocardiosis is subacute in onset and refractory to treatment with standard antibiotics Symptoms are more severe in immunocompromised individuals Radiologic studies show multiple pulmonary infiltrates, with a tendency to central necrosis Neurological infection: Headache, lethargy, confusion, seizures, sudden onset of neurological deficit CT scan shows cerebral abscess Nocardial meningitis is difficult to diagnose Cardiac conditions: Nocardia has been highly linked to endocarditis as a main manifestation In recorded cases, it has caused damage to hea valves whether natural or prosthetic Lymphocutaneous disease: Nocardial cellulitis is akin to erysipelas but is less acute Nodular lymphangeitis mimics sporotrichosis with multiple nodules alongside a lymphatic pathway Chronic subcutaneous infection is a rare complication and osteitis may ensue May be misidentified and treated as a staph infection, specifically superficial skin infections Cultures must incubate more than 48 hours to guarantee an accurate test Ocular disease: Very rarely, nocardiae cause keratitis Generally there is a history of ocular trauma Disseminated nocardiosis: Dissemination occurs through the spreading enzymes possessed by the bacteria Disseminated infection can occur in very immunocompromised patients It generally involves both lungs and brain Fever, moderate or very high can be seen Multiple cavitating pulmonary infiltrates develop Cerebral abscesses arise later Cutaneous lesions are very rarely seen If untreated, the prognosis is poor for this form of disease Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 712
3
Cerebral toxoplasmosis
Listeria monocytogenes infection
Nocardia asteroides infection
Miliary tuberculosis
Medicine
Miscellaneous
84a2a07c-4e4f-4ad2-a06a-1dc00ed34f6c
multi
Positive Screening test for Diabetes Mellitus:-
Screening test is a search for an unrecognized disease/defect in Apparently healthy individuals by means of RAPIDLY APPLIED TESTS. RBS is used for screening of Diabetes mellitus. Rest all tests are diagnostic tests. Screening tests of impoant diseases: Leprosy - Hypoanesthesia HIV - ERS Breast cancer - Mammography Cervical cancer - Visual inspection with 5% acetic acid > PAP smear Prostate cancer - PSA + DRE > PSA > DRE Lung cancer - chest X-ray Oral cancer - Bimanual oral palpation.
1
RBS > 200mg/dl
GTT > 200mg/dl
HbA1C > 6.5 %
FBS > 126 mg/dl
Social & Preventive Medicine
Sensitivity, Specificity, PPV, NPV
d7642af5-decf-48cb-8b76-0686ca3dc383
single
Vascular sign of narath is seen in-
Vascular sign of Narath *Normally femoral pulse is felt in the groin against head of the femur. *In posterior dislocation of hip the vessels fall back unsuppoed, so femoral aerial pulsation, which isn't felt against the head of the femur will be feeble or even, may not be palpable. Ref: Textbook of Ohopaedics by kotwal p.25
1
Dislocation of hip
Dislocation of knee
Dislocation of elbow
Dislocation of shoulder
Orthopaedics
Pelvis and Hip injuries
ab0aec7c-4eaf-45bc-b2c0-f0dfc3170cde
single
Most frequent tooth to be impacted is
Impacted tooth Is the tooth that has failed to erupt completely or paially to its correct position in the dental arch and its eruption potential has been lost. Order of frequency Mandibular 3rd molar (i.e. Lower 3rd molar) Maxillary 3rd molar (Upper 3rd molar) Maxillary canine
2
Upper third molar
Lower third molar
Upper premolar
Lower premolar
Surgery
Head and neck
aa920f42-c195-43e9-9878-20de967df6c7
single
The gold standard investigation for renal aery stenosis in an 21 year old girl :
Angiography is the gold standard and definitive means to diagnose RAS, except for the risk of contrast reaction. In screening for stenosis of the main renal aeries and differentiation from fibromuscular dysplasia, the use of 3D contrast enhanced MRA provides optimum method for its detection and allows the demonstration of small accessory renal aeries and segmental branches Doppler evaluation has limited application as screening modality. The clinical signs of renal aery stenosis include Renovascular hypeension and azotaemia.
3
Renal scan
Ultrasound Doppler
Renal angiography
3D Contrast-enhanced MRA
Radiology
Genitourinary radiology
1ee1ab36-e7f7-425e-a494-e2448718e494
single
Premature fusion of coronal, sphenofrontal and frontoethmoidal sutures is seen in?
Premature fusion of coronal, sphenofrontal and frontoethmoidal sutures is seen in Turricephaly 1. Turricephaly Cone-shaped head caused by premature fusion of coronal, sphenofrontal and frontoethmoidal sutures 2. Dolicocephaly Due to premature closure of sagittal suture produces a long and narrow skull Also called scaphocephaly.It is the most common form of craniosynostosis 3. Plagiocephaly Asymmetrical distoion or flattening of one side of the skull 4. Trigonocephaly Caused by premature fusion of metopic suture - Keel-shaped forehead and hypotelorism Increased risk for associated developmental abnormalities of the forebrain
1
Turricephaly
Dolicocephaly
Plagiocephaly
Trigoncephaly
Pediatrics
Abnormalities of Head Size
12e460b9-96aa-49b7-93ca-e64913fe881a
single
Pulled elbow means
Pulled elbow occurs in children between 2-5 years of age. The head of radius is pulled paly out of annular ligament when child is lifted by the wrist. The child stas crying and is unable to move an affected limb. There might be swelling at the elbow.its not possible to see the subluxated head in x-ray as it is still cailaginous. Treatment includes head reduced by fully supinating the forearm and applying direct pressure overhead of radius. a sudden click is heard or felt as the head goes back. Ref: Essential Ohopaedics, Maheswari & Mhaskar, Edition 9, Page no: 105
2
Fracture of head of radius
Subluxation of head of radius
Fracture dislocation of elbow
Fracture ulna
Orthopaedics
Elbow injuries
77e4d9ff-3fbc-4601-b616-233d8137f18a
single
Most common site of lymphangiosarcoma is
Most common site of lymphangiosarcoma is arm following mastectomy, Occurs commonly after radical lymph nodes dissection- stewa treves syndrome Reference- SRB - 5th edition, sarcoma, page 311.
4
Liver
Spleen
Retroperitoneum
Post mastectomy arm
Surgery
Vascular surgery
e2f1527d-989d-49a6-99c3-be1855662f79
single
The following ocular structure in not derived from surface ectoderm:
B i.e. Sclera
2
Crystalline lens
Sclera
Corneal epithelium
Epithelium of lacrimal glands
Anatomy
null
0dac3eae-f650-42af-958d-7476ef07dbf7
multi
One of the following is not true of International Classification of Disease -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., It was devised by UNICEF ICD was devised by WHO.
2
It is revised once in 10 years
It was devised by UNICEF
The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters
It is accepted for National and International use
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
89983de3-54ae-4936-bf1d-35aee78643b7
multi
Operations for varicose veins are best accomplished by-
null
1
Stripping
Multiple subcutaneos ligatures
Subfascial ligatures
Division and ligation at the superficial venous system
Surgery
null
4484cd54-b70a-4f84-8b97-5dd27fae4b8e
single
All of the following metabolic functions occur in the mitochondria, Except:
B i.e. Biosynthesis of fatty acids
2
Beta-oxidation of fatty acids
Biosynthesis of fatty acids
Protein synthesis
Citric acid cycle
Physiology
null
87cb85b5-41dc-4f2f-b30d-c96c52fce614
multi
Management of a child with severe PEM having loose stools includes ________
Management of a child with severe protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) having stools includes Use of low sodium ORS for Rehydration 5ml/Kg every 30 min for first 2 hours. Donot give IV fluids unless the child is in shock Give ReSoMal (low sodium rehydration solution for malnutrition) 5ml/Kg every 30 min for first 2 hr orally or NasoGastric tube Then give 5-10 ml/Kg in alternate hours for upto 10 hr. The amount depends on stool loss and eagerness to drink. Feed in the other alternate hour. Give ReSoMal after each watery stool as preventive strategy. Treatment of hypoglycemia in malnutrition: If conscious: 10% glucose (50mL) or a feed or 1 teaspoon sugar under the tongue, whichever is the quickest. If unconsious : Immediately give sterile 10% glucose (5ml/Kg) by IV. Composition Low-osmolar ORS (mmol/L) ReSoMal(mmol/L) Glucose 75 125 Sodium 75 45 Potassium 20 40 Chloride 65 70 Citrate 10 7 Magnesium -- 3 Zinc -- 0.3 Copper -- 0.045 Osmolarity (mOsmol/L) 245 300 Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 340,341
4
Initiation of IV fluids immediately
Administration of 50ml of 10% glucose orally, if unconsious
Continuation of aggressive hydration, even after dehydration resolves
Use of low-sodium oral rehydration solution (ORS) for rehydration 5 ml/Kg every 30 min for the first 2 hours
Pediatrics
Nutrition
bd1ee837-ece0-4b6c-adbe-c087e675d060
multi
Which one of the following statements truly represents bell's paralysis -
Bell's paralysis is a lower motor neuron type of facial nerve palsy of unknown etiology, i.e., idiopathic nature. Lower motor neuron type of palsy causes ipsilateral paralysis, therefore bell's palsy causes ipsilateral facial paralysis. Except for facial nerve paralysis, another neurological examination is normal.
3
Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal, and abducens nerves
Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye
ENT
null
8a1c8005-d053-4dea-bb2f-67ed1b22ffdb
multi
0steomas, adenomatous polyps of intestine & periampullary carcinomas are seen in
Gardner's Syndrome Gardner's syndrome is combination of familial polyposis coli and ceain extra-colonic lesions such as multiple osteomas (paicularly of the mandible and maxilla), sebaceous cysts and connective tissue tumours. mnemonics: GARDEN In FOREST Gardener syndrome Familial polyposis coli, Osteoma Retinal epithelium hyperophy Supernumerary Teeth TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6TH EDITION HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:585,586 IMAGE REF:
4
Cowden syndrome
Peutz Jegers syndrome
FAP
Gardener syndrome
Pathology
G.I.T
adf72e18-fb18-4391-9372-2ee1c755432d
single
All are contents of the Femoral traingle except
Femoral triangle : Lateral - Saorius Medial - Adductor longus Base - Inguinal ligament Contents - Femoral nerve, Femoral aery, Femoral vein,deep inguinal lymphatics, nerve to pectineus. Ref : Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 1362.
3
Femoral nerve
Femoral vein
Superficial inguinal lymphatics
Nerve to pectineus
Anatomy
Lower limb
832bf3b6-96e2-4cc2-82f3-9844279544c5
multi
Fatty acids are stored as ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., TriglyceridesTriglycerides (TGs) are formed by esterification of one molecule of glycerol with three molecules of fatty acids. Therefore, they are also called as triacylglycerol (acyl for fatty acid). Fatty acids esterified through their carboxyl group, resulting in a loss of negative charge and formation of neutral fat.Triglyceride = Glycerol + 3 fatty acidsTriglycerides are the major storage form of energy. They are stored mainly in adipocytes (fat cells) of adipose tissue.
2
Cholesterol
Triglycerides
Sphingomyelin
None
Biochemistry
null
c7a532d5-482a-4246-b5d9-ce26236f519d
multi
Mainstay of treatment of glue ear:-
Glue ear: - Long standing collection of serous / mucoid fluid in the middle ear cavity.- CHL (25-30 DB)- B curve on Tympanometry Mainstay treatment of glue ear should be treat the cause, like if its adenoids or tumor so removing it would be the treatment. But the cause is not mentioned in the question. So the mainstay treatment should be myringotomy in the anterio-inferior quadrant with grommet tube inseion.Option A - Radical mastoidectomy is done in the case of unsafe cholesteatoma, removal of glomus tumor.Option C - temporal bone reaction en bloc removal is done in a cancer of middle ear.
2
Radical Mastoidectomy
Myringotomy + aeration to middle ear
Temporal bone resection
Tonsillectomy & adenoidectomy
ENT
FMGE 2018
9957ba25-3fbb-4650-b6c9-881ceebc06f5
single
Bilateral centrocaecal scotoma more marked with red than white colour is a feature of:
Ans. Tobacco amblyopia
1
Tobacco amblyopia
Leber's disease
Papilledema
Quinine amblyopiafs
Ophthalmology
null
f6db5e4c-3491-48de-a595-d60986ca5892
single
Area of the brain most commonly undergoing atrophy in Alzheimer's disease:
Ans. a. Temporoparietal (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2598, 18/e p3304-3308)Area of the brain most commonly undergoing atrophy in Alzheimer's disease is Temporoparietal.'Pathologically, atrophy is distributed throughout the medial temporal lobes, as well as lateral and medial parietal lobes and lateral frontal cortex.'- Harrison 18th/3305Alzheimer's DiseaseAD can occur in any decade of adulthood, but it is the MC cause of dementia in the elderly.AD most often presents with an insidious onset of memory loss followed by a slowly progressive dementia over several years.Dementia from Alzheimer's disease is the classical prototype of cortical dementias.Alzheimer's dementia is the MC cortical dementiaQ.Predominantly affects the temporoparietal cortex (although frontal lobe is also frequently involved)Pathology:Pathologically, atrophy is distributed throughout the medial temporal lobes, as well as lateral and medial parietal lobes and lateral frontal cortex.Microscopically, there are neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles (INFTs) composed of hyperphosphorylated tau filaments, and accumulation of amyloid in blood vessel walls in cortex and leptomen ingesQ.At autopsy, the earliest and most severe degeneration is found in the medial temporal lobe (entorhinal/perirhinal cortex and hippocampus), lateral temporal cortex, and nucleus basalis of MeynertQ.Characteristic microscopic findings: Neuritic plaques and NFTsQ.Neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular accumulations that may appear extracellularly after degeneration of neuron (neuronal death)Q.A histopathological diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made in cases of progressive dementia when beta-amyloid plaques (Neuritic/Senile plaques) co-occur with Neurofibrillary TanglesQ.Decreased levels of ACH, its synthetic enzyme choline acetyltransferase and nicotinic cholinergic receptors are the primary biochemical abnormality observed in ADQ.Beta-Amyloid Plaques (Extracellular)Neurofibrillary Tangles (Intracellular)* Formed by extracellular accumulation of beta amyloid deposits.* Neuritic or senile beta- amyloid plaques are an early histopathological sign of AD* Amyloid beta-protein accumulated in single neuritic plaques is toxic to surrounding structures and adjacent neurons.* Clinicopathological studies have shown that amyloid burden does not directly correlate with severity or duration of dementia* Formed by intracellular accumulation of hyper phosphorylated microtubule binding protein 'tau'.* NFT's occur in many neurodegenerative diseases and/or a group of diseases called 'taupathies' (Frontotemporal dementia, Pick's disease).* The co-occurrence of beta-amyloid plaques with NFT's suggests a diagnosis of AD.* NFT's are toxic to the neurons and neurons with NFT's eventually die and degenerate leaving a residual 'ghost tangle', in the extracellular space reminding of the pyramidal cell body in which it was initially formed.* Ciinicopathoiogical studies have shown that dementia correlates more strongly with NFT's than with senile plaques (beta- amyloid)Epidemiology:Most important risk factors for AD: Old age and positive family history.Factors associated with increased risk of Alzheimer's disease* Increasing ageQ* Female sexQ* Lower educational attainmentQ* Family history of dementiaQ* Environmental factors (Al, Hg, Viruses and Prions)* Genetic factors: Amyloid Precursor Protein on chromosomes 21Q, adult with trisomy 21 (Down's)QClinical Manifestations:The cognitive changes of AD tend to follow a characteristic pattern, beginning with memory impairment and spreading to language and visuospatial deficits.Changes in environment (such as vacations or hospital stays) may be disorienting.Language becomes impaired-first naming, then comprehension, and finally fluency.In some patients, aphasia is an early and prominent feature.Apraxia emerges, and patients have trouble performing learned sequential motor tasks.Visuospatial deficits begin to interfere with dressing, eating, or even walking, and patients fail to solve simple puzzles or copy geometric figures.Approximately 10% of AD patients develop Capgras' syndrome, believing that a caregiver has been replaced by an impostor.Often death results from malnutrition, secondary infections, pulmonary emboli, heart disease, or, most commonly, aspiration.As AD progresses, more distributed but usually posterior-predominant cortical atrophy becomes apparent, along with atrophy of the medial temporal memory structures.Slowly progressive decline in memory and orientation, normal results on laboratory tests, and an MRI or CT scan showing only distributed or posteriorly predominant cortical and hippocampal atrophy is highly suggestive of AD.Treatment:DonepeziI (target dose, 10 mg daily),Rivastigmine (target dose, 6 mg twice daily or 9.5-mg patch daily)Galantamine (target dose 24 mg daily, extended-release)Memantine (target dose, 10 mg twice daily)TacrineDue to hepatotoxicity, tacrine is no longer used.Memantine appears to act by blocking overexcited A-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) glutamate receptors.
1
Temporoparietal
Parieto-occipital
Frontoparietal
Temporo-occipital
Medicine
Dementia
6765afd4-7ddc-46df-9d87-30241a54a9f6
single
All of the following statements about parvovirus B-19 are true, except -
null
1
<10% spread by transplacental route
Respiratory route is the primary mode of transmission
It is a DNA virus
Affects erythroid progenitors
Microbiology
null
f5d1281f-3c97-4291-a5e9-bc1ddeb699c0
multi
Protective species or non cariogenic bacteria among the following is/are:
null
4
Veillonella.
Capnocytophega.
Streptococcus mitis.
Both AB
Pathology
null
f2ec29a3-a4a1-4c4d-841e-28815afe5d3b
multi
False about sternocleidomastoid is
Actions of sternocleidomastoid - When one sternocleidomastoid muscle contracts, a) It turn the chin to the opposite side, b) It can also tilt the head towards the shoulder of same side Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , sixth edition, volume 3 , pg. no. 89
4
Arises from sternum and clavicle
Inses on mastoid process
Motor supply by spinal accessory nerve
Tilt the head on opposite side
Anatomy
Head and neck
1ff8ed33-8481-4476-8c2a-7d322caa6054
multi
All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a 2 month old child, except -
diagnosis of HIV in 2 month old child is by p24 Sg asday ,PCR&viral culture.ELISA id not used REF:<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.575
3
DNA_PCR
Viral culture
HIV ELISA
p24 antigen assay
Microbiology
Virology
1a279fea-ce74-41e2-9636-cc958607b624
multi
Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin D?
Good sources of vitamin D include fatty fish,fish liver oils, egg yolk etc. Milk is not a good source of  vitamin D. Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-128
2
Fatty fish
Milk
Fish liver oils
Egg yolk
Biochemistry
null
00e4839d-7c88-4c91-b7a0-e78671853ad7
single
Otoacoustic emissions arise from:
Ans. B Outer hair cellsOtoacoustic Emissions (OAEs)Otoacoustic emissions are acoustic signals emitted from the cochlea to middle ear and into the external ear canal where they are recordeD.They are low intensity sounds probably generated by acute mechanical contraction of the outer hair cellsThey are produced either spontaneously or in response to the acoustic stimuliSound produced by outer hair cells moves in reverse direction viz:Outer hair cell ~ Basilar membrane -Perilymph-Oval window -Ossicles -Tympanic membrne -Ear canal.OAEs are present when outer hair cells are healthy.Abscence of OAE indicate structurally damaged or non-functional outer hair cells.?They do not dissappear in eighth nerve pathology as cochlear hair cells are normal." UsesOAEs are used as a screening test of hearing in neonates and to test hearing in uncooperative or mentally challenged individuals after sedation. Sedation does not interfere with OAEs.They help to distinguish cochlear from retrocochlear hearing loss as they are absent in cochlear but not in retrocochlear leisons.OAEs are also useful in diagnosing retrocochlear pathology, especially auditory neuropathy.
2
Inner hair cells
Outer hair cells
Both inner and outer hair cells
Organ of Coi
ENT
null
db11829d-93b8-46d4-8fd1-2a398e62bc19
multi
An obese female having hirsutism on laboratory investigation has a high level of LH and androgens. Likely cause is
The clinical and laboratory features of the patient described in the question match with those of PCOS as depicted in the table. So the most appropriate answer is PCO
1
PCOS
Exogenous steroid ingestion
Turner syndrome
Kleinfelter syndrome
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Common ocular manifestation in Trisomy 13 is :
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Bilateral microphthalmos Abnormalities seen in trisomy 13 {Patau's syndrome)MicrophthalmiaMicrocephaly and mental retardationCleft lip and palatePolydactylyCardiac defectsUmbilical herniaRenal defectsRocker bottom feet
2
Capillary hemangioma.
Bilateral microphthalmos.
Neurofibroma.
Dermoid Cyst.
Ophthalmology
Anatomy
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Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma is seen in ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Face; 'b' i.e., Neck; 'c' i.e., Nasal cavity Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma o Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common subtype of rhabdomyosarcoma, observed in children. o The tumor can occur at any site but the two most common sites are: i) Head and neck (including face and nose) --> Most common Genitourinary region (including vagina) ---> 2nd most common o Other sites involved are: Extremities Trunk Perianal and anal regions Retroperitonium GIT Intrathoracic Prostate
4
Face
Neck
Nasal cavity
All
Pathology
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The role of mitochondria is in all of the following, except:
Mitochondria is not involved in Fatty acid biosynthesis. Fatty acid biosynthesis takes place in cytosol.
4
ATP production
Apoptosis
Tricarboxylic acid cycle
Fatty acid biosynthesis
Biochemistry
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Which is the most common type of shock in surgical practice
Hypovolemic shock is probably the most common form of shock, and to some degree is a component of all other forms of shock. Hypovolemic shock is due to reduced circulating volume. Reference : Bailey & Love, 27th Edition, page no = 13.
2
Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Neurogenic
Septic shock
Surgery
General surgery
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Swimming pool odor in classical of which inborn error of metabolism?
Tyrosinemia - Boiled cabbage odor. Hawkinsinuria - Swimming pool odor. Phenylketonuria - Mousey odor. Multiple carboxylase deficiency - Tomcat urine.
2
Tyrosinemia
Hawkinsinuria
Phenylketonuria
Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Biochemistry
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Round, ribbon-shaped, ovoid, bowling pin and kidney-bean are all types of root canals seen on
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Oblique section
Longitudinal section
Sagittal section
Cross section
Dental
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All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except-
Effects of hyperkalaemia on the ECG Serum potassium > 5.5 mEq/L is associated with repolarization abnormalities: Peaked T waves (usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia) Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1456 Serum potassium > 6.5 mEq/L is associated with progressive paralysis of the atria: P wave widens and flattens PR segment lengthens P waves eventually disappear Serum potassium > 7.0 mEq/L is associated with conduction abnormalities and bradycardia: Prolonged QRS interval with bizarre QRS morphology High-grade AV block with slow junctional and ventricular escape rhythms Any kind of conduction block (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks) Sinus bradycardia or slow AF Development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm) Serum potassium level of > 9.0 mEq/L causes cardiac arrest due to: Asystole Ventricular fibrillation PEA with bizarre, wide complex rhythm (Warning! In individual patients, the serum potassium level may not correlate closely with the ECG changes. Patients with relatively normal ECGs may still experience sudden hyperkalaemic cardiac arrest.) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 463
2
Peaked T waves
Presenceof U waves
Sine waves pattern
Loss of P waves
Medicine
C.V.S
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With the use of DMPA contraceptive, the side effects are all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans. is 'a' ie change in quantity and quality of breast milk. Change in quantity and quality of breast milk is seen with the use of estrogen contraceptives not progesterone.Infact is a plus point of DMPA that it does not affect lactation. It can be therefore used in the post-partum period, without affecting the lactation.Side effects of Depot Medroxy Progesterone Acetate (DMPA)Weight gain*Irregular menstrual bleeding*Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy *Increased risk of ovarian cystsProlonged anovulation and infertility after its use is discontinuedOsteoporosis.I could not get any information on the option 'd' (ie increased reproductive tract infection) despite exhaustive search in Williams, Dutta, Shaw's and Park.The only information which I have is that, the risk of vaginitis or vulvovaginitis (Candida) is increased by use of combined pills. Which component of the pill (estrogen or progesterone) is responsible for this is not known.
1
Change in quantity and quality of breast milk
Weight gain
Irregular bleeding
Increased reproductive tract inflection
Social & Preventive Medicine
Family Planning
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All of the following are features of atrial myxoma except: September 2008
Ans. B: HypeensionFindings of atrial myxoma?Jugular venous pressure may be elevated, and a prominent a wave may be present.A loud S1 is caused by a delay in mitral valve closure due to the prolapse of the tumor into the mitral valve orifice (mimicking mitral stenosis).P2 may be delayed. Its intensity may be normal or increased, depending on the presence of pulmonary hypeension.In many cases, an early diastolic sound, called a tumor plop, is heard. This sound is produced by the impact of the tumor against the endocardial wall or when its excursion is halted.An S3 or S4 may be audible.A diastolic atrial rumble may be heard if the tumor is obstructing the mitral valve.If there is valve damage from the tumor, mitral regurgitation may cause a systolic murmur at the apex.A right atrial tumor may cause a diastolic rumble or holosystolic murmur due to tricuspid regurgitation.The major clinical manifestation are due to valvular "ball-valve" obstruction. Embolization, or a syndrome of constitutional symptoms such as fever, cyanosis, digital clubbing, rash, or petechiae. Sometimes fragmentation and systemic embolization calls attention to these lesion.Patients with familial myxoma may have a variety of features called syndrome myxoma or Carney syndrome, as follows:- Myxomas in breast, skin, thyroid gland, or neural tissue- Spotty pigmentation such as lentigines (i.e., flat brown discoloration of skin), pigmented nevi, or both- Endocrine hyperactivity such as Cushing syndrome- Multiple cerebral fusiform aneurysms may be seen in patients with Carney syndrome.Other described syndromes associated with atrial myxomas include the following:- NAME syndrome features nevi, atrial myxoma, myxoid neurofibroma and ephelides (i.e., freckles (tanned macules found on the skin)).- LAMB syndrome features lentigines, atrial myxoma, and blue nevi.
2
Clubbing
Hypeension
Emboli
Fever
Pathology
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Fluid, which has high potassium and low sodium contents, is -
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CSF
Ectolymph
Endolymph
Pleural fluid
ENT
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A healthy 22-year-old female medical student with normal kidneys decreases her sodium intake by 50% for a period of 2 months. Which of the following parameters is expected to increase in response to the reduction in sodium intake?
A reduction in sodium intake leads to a decrease in extracellular fluid volume and therefore a decrease in aerial pressure. The decrease in aerial pressure stimulates renin release, which in turn leads to an increase in the formation of angiotensin II. The angiotensin II increases the renal retention of salt and water (ie, decreases sodium excretion, which returns the extracellular fluid volume nearly back to normal. Atrial natriuretic peptide is released from the two atria of the hea as a result of an increase in the extracellular fluid volume. Therefore, a decrease in sodium intake would tend to decrease the release of atrial natriuretic peptide.
4
Aerial pressure
Atrial natriuretic peptide release
Extracellular fluid volume
Renin release
Physiology
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'C' wave in JVP is due to-
Answer is B (Tricuspid valve bulging into right atrium) The 'C' Wave is a positive wave produced by the bulging of tricuspid valve into the right atrium during right Ventricular isovolumetric systole and by impact of the carotid aery adjacent to the jugular vein.
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Atrial contraction
Tricuspid valve bulging into right atrium
Right atrial filling
Rapid ventricular filling
Medicine
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Which is the most common complication of this Rash?
Ans. (c) Secondary skin infectionsNotice the presence of vesicles on an erythematous base caused by varicella-zoster virus. The most common complication of chicken pox is secondary skin infections.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">
3
Otitis media
Bronchopneumonia
Secondary skin infections
Reye syndrome
Microbiology
Bacteria
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A patient while lifting a heavy weight presents with sudden onset pain in the lower back radiating along the postero-lateral thigh and lateral leg to the big toe with numbness. The most likely diagnosis is:
C i.e. L4 -- L5 Disc prolapsed Sudden onset lower back pain with radioculopathy while lifting something heavy from ground (i.e. in spinal flexion) indicates acute PIVD (prolapsed of interveebral disc). Pain or paresthesia along posterolateral aspect of lower thigh, anterolateral aspect of knee and leg and dorsal surface of foot covering great toe, 1st web space upto 3rd MTP joint (but never little toe) indicates compression of L5 nerve root (i.e. prolapsed of L4 --L5 disc). Level of Disc Prolapse Compressed Nerve Root Pain and Sensory Loss Motor Weakness Reflex Affected L3-L4 L4 - Over medial malleous - Ankle dorsiflexion (TA) a/t Knee (quadriceps/patella) (ASIA) - Medial aspect (both anterior ASIA - Knee extension (Quadriceps; jerk | & posterior) of lower thigh, knee, leg (calf) and ankle L4 is main root) - Hip/thigh adduction L4-L5 L5 - Dorsal of foot at 3rd MTP - Great toe extensor (EHL; a/t Knee & Ankle jerks are joint (ASIA) ASIA)Q normal; or knee - Posterolateral buttock (+-) & - Foot eversion (peroneii; paradoxically increased due thigh (esp lower), lateral aspect (anterior > posterior) of knee and leg (calf) and dorsum of foot covering great toe, 1st web space & 3rd main root) - Ankle/foot dorsiflexion (TA) - Toe dorsiflexors - Hip abduction (gluteus medius) to weak knee flexion MTP joint but never little toe. - Knee flexion L5-S1 S1 - Lateral aspect of calcaneus (ASIA) - Lateral aspect of ankle & foot (both on dorsal & plantar aspect) involving lateral malleolus, lateral border of foot & little toe - Ankle & foot plantar flexion (gastrocnemius & soleus; main root; ASIA) - Abductor hallucis (great toe flexion; main root) - Hip extension (gluteus maximus) Ankle jerk |
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L5 fracture
L3 - IA Disc prolapsed
L4 - L5 Disc prolapsed
L5 - SI Disc prolapse
Surgery
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In glycolysis, the first committed step is catalysed by
Phosphofructokinase catalyzes the committed step of glycolysis, meaning that once fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate is formed it must go for the glycolytic pathway only.
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2, 3 DPG
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Biochemistry
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multi
In pantamograph, if patient chin is placed anterior to the focal trough, the structures appears to be
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1
Blurred and Diminished
Blurred and Magnified
Either magnified or diminished
Only Blurred
Radiology
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Lacrimal punctum of upper and lower eyelids are?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., They are opposed
1
They are opposed
No relation
Upper punctum is medial
Upper punctum is lateral
Ophthalmology
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single
Diameter of the optic disc is –
Actually, optic disc is vertically oval with vertical diameter 1.88 mm and horizontal diameter 1.76 mm. However, some textbooks (like khurana) have metioned it as circular area of 1.5 mm diameter.
2
0.5 mm
1.5 mm
2.5mm
3.5 mm
Ophthalmology
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