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Minimum recommended level of Residual chlorine in Swimming pools is:
- Level of residual chlorine to be maintained for swimming pool sanitation is > 1.0 mg/L with contact period of 1 hour. - Also Remember, Free/ residual chlorine levels recommended in:- Drinking water = >= 0.5 mg/ L ; with contact period of 1 hour. Drinking water to kill cyclops = >= 2.0 mg/L ; with contact period of 1 hour.
3
0.5 mg/L
0.7 mg/L
1.0 mg/L
2.0 mg/L
Social & Preventive Medicine
Water
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single
Cryoprecipitate contains: March 2009
Ans. C: Factor VIII Cryoprecipitate is prepared from plasma and contains fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, factor VIII, factor XIII and fibronectin. Cryoprecipitate is the only adequate fibrinogen concentrate available for intravenous use. Cryoprecipitate is indicated for bleeding or immediately prior to an invasive procedure in patients with significant hypofibrinogenemia ( Cryoprecipitate should not be used for patients with von Willebrand disease or Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency). It is not usually given for Factor XIII deficiency, as there are virus-inactivated concentrates of this protein available. Cryoprecipitate is sometimes useful if platelet dysfunction associated with renal failure does not respond to dialysis.
3
Factor II
Factor V
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Surgery
null
880ec375-65f6-4a4f-8bc0-a063a2917ee0
single
All are the Indications of a malignancy in a mammography except
Mammographic features suggestive of breast cancer A solid mass with or without stellate features Asymmetric thickening of breast Clustered microcalcification Presence of fine stippled calcium in and around a suspicious lesion is suggestive of breast cancer and occurs in as many as 50 % of nonpalpable cancers These microcalcifications are an especially impoant sign of cancer in younger women, in whom it may be the only mammographic abnormality
1
Nodular calcification
Speckled margin
Attenuated architecture
Irregular mass
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
68ded46e-15cc-4ac7-9530-b2480637b275
multi
A patient wanting to scratch for itching in his amputated limb is an example of:
-This is an example of phantom limb hallucination in which patient is getting sensations from a limb which has been amputated. - In reflex hallucinations, stimulus in one modality causes hallucinations in another modality. E.g- A patient repoed that when he heard the sound of water falling from the tap, he would also sta seeing the 'God' sitting in his room. -Illusion is false perception of a real object. E.g. Seeing a snake instead of the rope
1
Phantom limb hallucination
Reflex hallucination
Illusion
Pseudo hallucination
Psychiatry
Basics of Psychiatry
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multi
The deliusion which involves replacement of a familiar person by someone else is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Capgras syndrome DSM is characterized by misidentification delusions of other or self. Four main syndromes are differentiated : ? Capgras syndrome (Delusion of double) : - Patient falsely sees a familiar person as a complete stranger who is impoing on him as a familiar person. Fregoli syndrome (illusion de fregoli) : - The patient falsely identifies stranger as familiar person. Syndrome of subjective double : - The patients own self is perceived as being replaced by a double. Syndrome of intermetamorphosis : - A false belief that a person can transform into another person. These syndrome most commonly appear in schizophrenia. Other causes are Alzheimer syndrome, head injuries, and delusional disorders.
1
Capgras syndrome
Cotard syndrome
Othello syndrome
None
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Hysteroscope procedure is done for -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Uteruso Hysteroscopy is a procedure that allows your doctor to look inside your uterus in order to diagnose and treat causes of abnormal bleeding. Hysteroscope in the scope used for visualization of the uterus.
4
Vagina
Cervix
Fallopian tubes
Uterus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Diagnosis
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multi
A child has microcephaly, Blue eyes, Fair skin, and Mental retardation, Ferric chloride test is positive. What is the likely diagnosis
Individuals with phenylketonuria have profound and irreversible intellectual disability,microcepgaly,epilepsy and behavioral problems.These patients often have a musty body odour and skin conditions such as eczema caused by excretion of excessive phenylalanine and its metabolites.Decreased skin hair, and eye pigmentation may also be present due to reduced melanin synthesis.Ferric chloride test will be positive due to the presence of phenols,which are its metabolites. Reference:Essential pediatrics-Ghai,8th edition,page no:652
1
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Homocystinuria
Tyrosinosis
Alkaptonuria
Pediatrics
Metabolic disorders
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Maximum congestion is seen in :
C i.e. Strangulation
3
Choking
Hanging
Strangulation
Drowning
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
The drug which causes renal papillary necrosis is?
Ans. (a) AcetophenetidinRef: Robbiris pathology 9th ed. /423. 936t* Renal papillary necrosis due to acetophenetidin/ phenacetin is a gradual process with slow loss of renal function.* The most common cause of renal papillary necrosis is diabetic glomerulopathy
1
Acetophenetidin
Gentamicin
Gold
Methicillin
Pathology
Diseases Affecting Tubules and Interstitium
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single
"Genital elephantiasis" is caused by
(Lymphogranuloma venereum) (428-A7th)LYMPHOGRANULOMA - VENEREUM (Lymphogranuloma inguinale, poradenitis, climatic or tropical bubo)- Caused by chlamydia -trachomatis - L2 (Most commonly)- Preferred site - regional lymphnodes- Primary lesions - painless papulovesicular lesion ** on the external genitalia- Women - hemorrhagic proctitis with regional lymphadenitis- Late sequelae in women leading to rectal strictures and elephantiasis of the vulva (esthiomene)**Chancroid or soft sore is caused by Haemophilus - ducryi "School of fish" or rail rod track" appearance- Tender nonindurated irregular ulcers on the genitalia
1
Lymphogranuloma venereum
Chancroid
Syphilis
Rickettsia
Microbiology
Bacteria
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single
Which of the following drug does not cause renal toxicity-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mycophenolate Mofetil o Nephrotoxicity is not an adverse effect of mycophenolate mofetil.
3
Cisplatin
Cisplatin
Mycphenolate mofetil
Methotrexate
Pharmacology
null
665d03cd-4f18-476b-836c-fcb019452b53
single
Coical representation of body in cerebrum is
B i.e. Veical
2
Horizontal
Veical
Tandem
Oblique
Anatomy
null
f1fa8d42-0b6d-4186-a6a2-b99bc1db895c
single
Which of the following type of renal tubular acidosis (A) is associated with hyperkalemia?
-Type IV A(hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism) is the most common A- It may occur in type 1 or 2 DM- Associated with moderate renal dysfunction and characterised by hyperkalemiaRef: Harrison's 18/e p2364
4
A type IV
A type I & II
A type II
A type IV
Medicine
All India exam
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single
The treatment of choice for Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid infiltrating trachea and sternum will be
Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid with distant metastasis or invasion into locally unresectable structures, such as the trachea or vasculatureof the anterior mediastinum, leads to a more conservative surgical approach, such as tracheostomy (palliation) as prognosis is very poor Postoperative external beam irradiation or adjunctive chemotherapy adds little to the overall prognosis but can be considered. note : question is treatment of choice, treatment of choice here is palliative care. Source : Sabiston 20th edition pg: 910
4
Radical excision
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Palliative treatment
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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multi
Lymphocytic colitis -
Lymphocytic colitis Lymphocytic colitis is characterised by chronic watery, non-bloody diarrhoea and a prominent intraepithelial infiltrate of lymphocytes. Lymphocytic colitis affects male and female equally. Pt. presented with 3-20 times non-inflammatory non-bloody watery diarrhoea and accompanied by cramping abdominal pain. Radiographic studies are unremarkable and endoscopy characteristically reveals normal. Lymphocytic colitis shows a strong association with autoimmune diseases including celiac disease, Thyroiditis, arthritis and autoimmune gastritis
2
Bloody diarrhoea
Intra epithelial lymphocytes
Lymphocytes is stools
Through Ileoscopy look for peyer's patches
Pathology
null
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single
Cytochrome C in apoptosis acts by
After releasing of cytochrome in cytosol, they binas to Apart 1 protein which leads to formation of a complex apoptosome. This complex binds to caspase-9 which is a critical initiator caspase of the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis. Also Know Most critical organ for apoptosis = Mitochondrion Most characteristic feature of apoptosis = Chromatin condensation Marker for apoptosis = Annexin V Molecular marker for apoptosis = CD 95
4
IL 10
Bcl-2
FADD
Apaf 1
Pathology
null
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single
True about a negatively skewed data
A left skewed distribution or negatively skewed distribution because it's long tail is in the negative direction on a number line. The mean is to the left of the peak.(mode) The tail is longer on the left. In most cases, the mean is to the left of the median. mean < median < mode
2
Mode is Less than median
Mode is More than median
Mode is equal to median
No correlation
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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multi
Sweating as a result of excretion is mediated through
Refer kDT 7/e p 93 Most aeries and veins in the body are innervated by sympathetic adrenergic nerves, which release norepinephrine (NE) as a neurotransmitter. Some blood vessels are innervated by parasympathetic cholinergic orsympathetic cholinergic nerves, both of which release acetylcholine (ACh) as their primary neurotransmitter.
4
Adrenal harmone
Sympathetic adrenergic
Parasympathetic cholinergic
Sympathetic cholinergic
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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A 40-year-old woman had lower third molar extracted due to dental caries. Then she developed high fever and pain. On examination, tonsil deted medially and there was swelling in upper one-third of sternocleidomastoid muscle, Most likely diagnosis is:
Abscess of pharyngomaxillary or lateral pharyngeal space is also known as parapharyngeal abscess. Infection can come to this space from acute or chronic infections of tonsils and adenoids, bursting of peritonsillar abscess, dental infection of lower third molar teeth, Bezold's abscess, petrositis, infections of parotid, retropharyngeal, and submaxillary spaces, injuries of neck etc. Fever, odynophagia, sore throat, toicoilis and signs of toxemia may develop.
3
Hematoma
Retropharyngeal abscess
Parapharyngeal abscess
Ludwig's angina
ENT
null
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multi
'Favus' is caused by?
Favus Favus is an inflammatory type of Tinea capitis Commonest causative agent T. schoenleinii. Inflammatory (kerion, us) causing scarring/cicatricial alopecia Kerion common in children Tender boggy swelling over scalp, easily pluckable hair and enlarged lymphnode.(causative agent: T. mentagrophyte or T. verrucosum) DOC: Trichophyton - Terbinafine Microsporum spp -griseofulvin
1
T. schoenleinii
T. microsporum
Epidermophyton
Candida tropicalis
Dental
Fungal infections
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True statement about the upper half of anal canal is -
Upper part of anal canal above pectinate line is supplied by autonomic nerves and is therefore insensitive to pain. Upper part of anal canal above pectinate line is drained by inferior mesenteric node (into internal iliac nodes), lined by columnar epithelium and is supplied by superior rectal artery (Continuation of inferior mesenteric artery).
1
Insensitive to pain
Drained by superficial inguinal lymph node
Lined by squamous epithelium
Supplied by superior mesenteric artery
Anatomy
null
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multi
Among the following true about linezolid except
OXAZOLIDINONE Linezolid:- Mech of action:- Linezolid inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by acting at an early step and a site different from that of other AMAs. It binds to the 23S fraction (P site) of the 50S ribosome and interferes with formation of the ternary N-formylmethionine- tRNA (tRNAfMet) -70S initiation complex. Binding of linezolid distos the tRNA binding site overlapping both 50S and 30S ribosomal subunits and stops protein synthesis before it stas. uses:- Used in treatment of resistant gram-positive coccal (aerobic and anaerobic) and bacillary infections. It is active against MRSA and some VRSA, VRE, penicillin-resistant Strep. pyogenes, Strep. viridans and Strep. pneumoniae, M. tuberculosis, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Clostridia and Bact. fragilis. It is primarily bacteriostatic, but can exe cidal action against some strepto-cocci, pneumococci and B. fragilis. Gram- negative bacteria are not affected. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-758
4
It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step
It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci
It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion
It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis
Pharmacology
Antibiotics
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Which suture is absorbed in 180 days
Answer- A. PolydiaxononePolydioxanone suture provides wound suppo for longer period as compared to other synthetic absorbable sutures.Polydioxanone suture also offers far superior tensile strength. Polydioxanone suture is made from polymerizing para dioxanone monomer.
1
Polydiaxonone
Catgut
Chromic Catgut
Nylon
Surgery
null
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multi
Sulfur granules in pus are seen in
null
2
Candida albicans
Actinomyces israelii
Nocarda braziliances
HistopLasma capsulatum
Pathology
null
c4d1e252-b6e5-4503-83fd-60a74de98f3f
single
Which of the following is a reference to Millards rule?
The timing of the lip repair in infancy varies from first 48 hours of life to 6 months of age, depending on the surgeon’s judgement. Although there is always a debate as to when the surgery should be performed, most surgeons follow ‘Millard’s rule of 10.’ 10 weeks of age with 10 gm of Hb and 10 pounds of weight. The trend is shifting towards early repair. In fact, few centres like to repair the lip as early as 5-7 days post-birth. But in a country like India, where postoperative neonatal care is less than ideal, rule of safety should be applied. In should be safe to anaesthetize the child and to look after postoperatively.
2
Standard rule regarding composition of local anaesthesia
Criteria for the surgery of cleft lip
Drug dosage depending on the child’s body weight
Rule regarding suture removal
Surgery
null
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A 32-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant visits her physician for a pre-pregnancy examination. Routine prenatal laboratory testing demonstrates the following profile: HBsAg (-), anti-HBsAg (+), anti-HBcAg (-), anti-HBeAg (-), and HBV DNA (-). Which of the following likely represents the status of the patient?
The patient is only positive for antibody to the hepatitis B antigen. This suggests that the patient has been vaccinated for hepatitis B virus (HBV). The vaccine consists of recombinantly produced HBV surface antigen (HBsAg) alone; Antibodies to the core protein (anti-HBcAg) appear during acute illness and between the disappearance of HBsAg and the appearance of anti-HBsAg, the "window period.
2
Hepatitis B carrier
Immunized against hepatitis B
Infected and within the "window period"
Infected with hepatitis B and highly transmissible
Pathology
Hepatitis
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Which is a GABA transaminase inhibitor ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Valproate Mechanism of action Facilitation of GABA mediated C1 channel opening Barbiturates and benzodiazepines bind to GABAAreceptor and open Cl- channel. Valprote and vigabatrine inhibit enzyme GABA transaminase which degrades GABA r conc. of GABA. Tiagabine inhibits the uptake of GABA into the neurones by inhibiting GAT-1. Gabapentine enhances the GABA release from synaptic vesicles.
3
TCA
Sealine
Valproate
Gabpentin
Pharmacology
null
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single
True about fetal circulation –
Blood in IVC has more saturation than blood in SVC as IVC carries the oxygenated blood of umbilical vein. The left ventricular blood has more oxygen saturation that right ventricular blood because it carries the blood of IVC, while blood in right ventricle is a mixture of blood from IVC and SVC. So, the brain and coronary circulation receive blood with higher saturation (through ascending aorta) than the lower half of body. The left ventricular output is approximately half of right ventricular output because volume of blood reaching in left atrium is considerably lower than volume of blood reaching in right atrium. In fact right atrium is the major source of blood to the left atrium. Aorta and pulmonary trunk are connected by ductus arteriosis, and pulmonary trunk has pressure slightly higher or equal to that of aorta → So, blood flows from pulmonary trunk to aorta. The pressure in right and left ventricles are equal.
4
Blood in SVC has more oxygen saturation
Pressure in left ventricle is more
Brain receives blood with low oxygen saturation
Heart receives blood with high oxygen saturation
Pediatrics
null
fae87758-ce39-43e3-b16d-55be4b1a0037
multi
Most sensitive and specific investigation for screening of Renovascular hypertension –
null
3
MRI
Captopril enhanced radionuclide scan
Spiral CT Scan
Duplex – Doppler flow study
Radiology
null
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single
Zone of Weil is
null
2
Cell rich zone
Cell free zone
Odontoblastic zone
None of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Hypnogogic hallucination is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., If experienced while falling asleep o Hallucinations which occur just prior to falling asleep are called hypnagogic hallucinationso Hallucination which occur just prior to waking up are called hypnopompic hallucinations.Also remember1) Functional hallucinations:- Hallucination accompanies a provoking stimulus in the same modality,i.e., water tricking from a leaking tap is heard along with voices of his neighbor cursing him.2) Synaesthesiae (reflex hallucination): - Stimulation of one sensory modality produces sensation pertaining to another, e.g., when the light flashes the patient gets tingling sensation. Synaesthesiae are common under the influence of LSD and other hallucinogenic drugs.3) Extracompine hallucinations:- They are hallucinations experienced outside the limits of one's sensory fields, e.g., hearing voices of people who are talking several kilometer away; seeing the people in the next room through the wall; seeing through the back of one's head.4) Scenic (Panoramic) hallucinations:- Here the hallucinations are vivid, continuous and complex as if one is seeing a movie.5) Autoscopy hallucinations:- These hallucinations are related to oneself or part of oneself. Autoscopy hallucinations may be : -a) Positive autoscopy:- The person experiences of seeing onself in the external environment. It is seen in schizophrenia and parieto-occipital lesions.b) Negative autoscopy:- when the person does not see his image in the mirror.c) Internal autoscopy:- when a person experiences of seeing internal organ of the body.6) Phantom limb hallucination:- The person feels his body parts intact in their respective places even after they are lost through amputation or injury.7) Pseudohallucination:- Pseudohallucination is a perceptual experience, which differs from a hallucination in that it appears to arise in the inner subjective space, not through one of the external sensory organs. Patients tend to describe these sensations as being perceived with the 'inner eye' or 'mind eye' (or ear). However, like true hallucinations pseudohallucinations are not under voluntary control. Example include :- Distressing flashbacks in post-traumatic stress disorder or the recently bereaved widow waking up to briefly 'see' her husband sitting at the foot of the bed. Profound MR IQ - 0-19.
1
If experienced while falling asleep
If experienced while awakening
After head trauma
After convulsion
Psychiatry
Sleep-Wake Disorders
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Rhinopyma is (Potate nose) –
null
4
Septal deviation of nose
Sweat gland hypertrophy
Mucous gland hypertrophy
Sebaceous gland hypertrophy
Dental
null
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single
All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except -
null
4
Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
Acute intermittent porphyria
Lead intoxication
Arsenic intoxication
Medicine
null
27f6d22a-3b90-4b2c-a379-ad2f8d4ff0fc
multi
Which of the following is false about plunging ranula
Diagnosis is made by USG or MRI.
2
Seen in submandibular and sublingual glands
Diagnosis is made by CT
Treatment is excision
Dumb-bell shaped mass
Surgery
null
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multi
A child is brought to the paediatric OPD with fever of 24 hours duration. History reveals 3 episodes of chest infection and passage of foul smelling stools. The most probable diagnosis is –
Recurrent chest infection in a child with evidence of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (bulky, foul smelling stool) suggest a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.
1
Cystic Fibrosis
Maple Syrup urine Disease
Bilirubin Congugation Defect
Criggler Najar Syndrome
Pediatrics
null
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Metyrosin is used in ?
Ans: D PheochromocytomaRef: KDT 7/e p. 128, 129; Katzung rlth/e p. g4lRate limiting step (tyrosine hydrorylation) in synthesis of epinephrine is inhibited by metyrosine.
4
Acromegaly
Cushing syndrome
Addison's disease
Pheochromocytoma
Pharmacology
null
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In congenital adrenal hyperplasia, deficient enzyme is - most womon
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 21-a Hydroxylase Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) Group of AR disorder MC adrenal disorder in childhood Most common 21-hydroxylase deficiency In 21a-hyroxylese deficiency There is deficiency of mineralocoicoids & glucocoicoid. This leads to hypoglycemia, hyponatremia
2
11(3 hydroxylase deficiency
21 a hydroxylase deficiency
3a hydroxylase deficiency
17a hydroxylase deficiency
Pediatrics
null
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Calculate the mean & mode of the given values: 2,2,3,4,4,4,4,5,5,7,8,8,9
Ans. (b) 5 and 4Ref: Park 22nd ed/789-90Therefore, mean =2+2+3+4+4+4+4+5+5+7+8+8+913= 65/13Mean = 5* Mode is most repeated/frequent value, which is 4, repeated 4 times.* Therefore the mean, mode will be 5 and 4 respectively.
2
4 and 5
5 and 4
5 and 9\
9 and 5
Social & Preventive Medicine
Measures of Central Tendency and Distribution
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A child with large perimembranous VSD has congestive hea failure. What may be the cause of improvement of failure in this patient
Patients born With uncomplicated VSD may develop pulmonary stenosis due to hyperophy of right ventricular infundibulum ,develop pulmonary aerial hypeension or rarely develop aoic regurgitation. Development of pulmonary aerial hypeension is dreaded complication since if it is of obstructive type the patient becomes inoperable. Ref Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 417
2
Aoic regurgitation
Vascular changes in pulmonary circulation
Infective endocarditis
Closure of VSD spontaneously
Pediatrics
C.V.S
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Triiodothyronine (T3) as compared to T4 :
T3 is the main active thyroid hormone. It is more potent (less plasma protein bound) and faster acting than T4. How­ever, short duration of action limits its use for the treatment of hypothyroidism (requires lifelong treatment). T3 is indicated for the treatment of myxedema coma.
2
Is more plasma protein bound
Is shorter acting
Is less potent
Has delayed action
Pharmacology
null
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single
In an average young adult male, water constitutes about ______ % of the body weight.
Body is composed of about 60-70% water. Osmolality of the intra and extracellular fluid is the same, but there is a marked difference in the solute content.
3
40
50
60
70
Biochemistry
null
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single
Which by product of vecuronium is associated with peripheral neuropathy on prolonged infusion-
The most potent byproduct of vecuronium is 3-hydroxy vecuronium, with approximately 60% of the activity of vecuronium, is excreted by the kidney and may be responsible for prolonged paralysis. Vecuronium - 1. It is unstable in solution and, for this reason, is supplied as a lyophilized powder that must be dissolved in sterile water before its use. 2. Both hepatic and renal metabolism. 3. To be used cautiously in pretesting liver & renal dysfunction 4. Neonate, obstetric, geriatric and obese prolonged duration of action is observed.
1
3- hydroxy vecuronium
17-hydroxy vecuronium
3, 17 (OH2) metabolite
All
Anaesthesia
Neuromuscular Blocker
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A 10-month old male child was having vomiting upon eating fruits, but is of normal weight. He has been exclusively breast fed till now. The doctor suggests fructose intolerance. Which of the following enzyme would be deficient in this child?
Ans. a. Aldolase B
1
Aldolase B
Hexokinase
Fructokinase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Biochemistry
null
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single
Which glass ionomer cement develops early resistance to water intake on setting?
null
3
Reinforced auto care glass ionomer cement
Compomer
Resin modified glass ionomer cement
Ceramic reinforced glass ionomer cement
Dental
null
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single
The investigation of choice to detect gastrinoma le<< than 5 mm size is-
Investigations Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is the investigation of choice and should be performed promptly in any dyspeptic patient with 'alarm features' . Multiple biopsies from the edge and base of a gastric ulcer are required. Barium meal is a poor alternative, since any abnormalities must be followed by endoscopy and biopsy. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg804
1
Endoscopic ultrasound
Octreotide scan
CT scan
Poal venous sampling
Medicine
G.I.T
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Infra clavicular lesion of tuberculosis is known as ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Assman's focus Assman's focus The initial lesion in secondary tuberculosis at the apex of lung (infraclavicular) without any lymph node involvement is called Assman's focus.
1
Assman's focus
Puhl's focus
Simmon's focus
Ghon's focus
Pathology
null
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single
Regarding appendicitis in children, all are true except:
Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition. Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition & Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th Edition Explanation: localized abdominal tenderness is the single most i: hie finding in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. In Children, if the diagnosis is delayed beyond 36-48 hr, the perforation rate exceeds 65%. Perforation is most common in young children, with rates as high as 82% for children <5 yr and approaching 100% in infants. Nausea and vomiting occur in more than half the patients and usually follow the onset of abdominal pain by several hours. " (Ref: Nelson) Acute appendicitis The \IC surgical procedure performed on an emergency basis is an appendectomy. Most common in the first 2 decades Pathophysiology Appendiceal obstruction is the most common initiating event of appendicitis. Hyperplasia of the submucosal lymphoid follicles of the appendix accounts for approximately 60% of obstructions (most common in teens), In older adults and children the fecalith is the most common etiology (35% ). Obstruction of the appendiceal lumen is followed by increased intraluminal pressure secondary to continued mucosal secretion and bacterial overgrowth. The appendiceal wall becomes thinned and lymphatic and venous obstruction occurs. Necrosis and perforation develop when the arterial flow is compromised. Diagnosis. The diagnosis of acute appendicitis is made by clinical evaluation. Although laboratory tests and imaging procedures can be helpful, they are of secondary importance. Clinical presentation Symptoms Progressive, persistent midabdominal discomfort caused by obstruction and distention of the appendix, which stimulates the visceral afferent autonomic nerves (T8-10 distribution). Anorexia (90%) and a low-grade fever (<38.5degC). Nausea and vomiting (70%) and 10% have diarrhea. Once the inflammation extends transmurally to the parietal peritoneum, the somatic pain fibers are stimulated, and the pain localizes to the RLQ. Peritoneal irritation is associated with pain on movement, mild fever, and tachycardia. One-fourth of patients present initially with localized pain and no prior visceral symptoms. The onset of symptoms to the time of presentation is usually less than 24 hours for acute appendicitis and averages several hours. In Children, if the diagnosis is delayed beyond 36-48 hr. the perforation rate exceeds 65%. Perforation is most common in young children, with rates as high as 82% for children <5 vr and approaching 100% in infants. Nausea and vomiting occur in more than half the patients and usually follow the onset of abdominal pain by several hours. Physical examination McBurney's point tenderness two-thirds of the distance from the umbilicus to the anterosuperior iliac spine). Localized abdominal tenderness is the single most reliable finding in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. The presence of pain in the RLQ during gentle finger percussion in the LL.Q (Rovsing's sign) indicates peritoneal irritation. The degree of direct tenderness is appreciated. The degree of muscular resistance to palpation parallels the severity of the inflammatory process. Cutaneous hyperesthesia is often present overlying the region of maximal tenderness. Exacerbation of pain with passive stretching of the iliopsoas muscle (positive psoas sign) implies the presence of local inflammation in the area of the muscle (e.g.. retrocecal appendicitis). A pelvic appendix may produce hypogastric pain with passive internal rotation, a positive Obturator sign. A palpable mass in the RLQ suggests a peri-appendiceal abscess or phlegmon. Laboratory evaluation. Complete blood cell count, serum electrolytes, and urinalysis should be obtained preoperatively for patients with suspected appendicitis. A serum pregnancy test also must be performed for all ovulating women. Complete blood cell count A leukocyte count of greater than 10,000 cells/ mL with polymorphonuclear cell predominance (>75%) is common in the child and young adult with appendicitis. The total number of WBCs and the proportion of immature forms increase if there is an appendiceal perforation. Urinalysis It is abnormal in 25-40% of patients with appendicitis. Pyuria, albuminuria, and hematuria are common. Radiologic evaluation USG is most useful Findings associated with acute appendicitis include The appendiceal diameter of greater than 6 mm. Lack of luminal compressibility Presence of an appendicolith. Abdominal CT scan is generally performed only in complex cases or in patients with atypical presentations. Barium enema (BE* Diagnostic laparoscopy Differential diagnosis Gastrointestinal diseases Gastroenteritis Mesenteric lymphadenitis Meckel's diverticulitis Perforated peptic ulcer disease Diverticulitis Cholecystitis Typhlitis Urologic diseases Pyelonephritis Ureteral colic Gynecologic diseases PID Ectopic pregnancy Ovarian cysts Ovarian torsion. Treatment Preoperative preparation Intravenous isotonic fluid replacement Nasogastric suction in patients with peritonitis. Preoperative antibiotic coverage Antibiotic therapy Broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage is initiated preoperatively Appendectomy The treatment of appendicitis is an appendectomy. Drainage of appendiceal abscess Management remains controversial. Systemic antibiotics and considered for Percutaneous US- or CT-guided catheter drainage Elective appendectomy 6-12 weeks later The appendix must be removed because the patient has a 60% risk of developing appendicitis again within 2 years. Complications Perforation It is accompanied by severe pain and fever. It is unusual within the first 12 hours of appendicitis but It is present in 50% cases < 10 years and > 50 years. Fever, tachycardia, generalized peritonitis, and abscess formation. Treatment is an appendectomy, peritoneal irrigation, and broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics for several days. Postoperative wound infection The risk is decreased by IV antibiotics administered before skin incision. The incidence increases from nonperforated appendicitis (3%) to a perforated or gangrenous appendix (4.7%). Wound infections are managed by opening, draining, and packing the wound to allow healing by secondary intention. Intravenous antibiotics are indicated for associated cellulitis or systemic sepsis. Intraabdominal and pelvic abscesses Occur most frequently with perforation of the appendix. Best treated hv percutaneous CT- or US-guided aspiration. If the abscess is inaccessible or resistant to percutaneous drainage, operative drainage is indicated. .Antibiotic therapy can mask but does not treat # >i prevent a significant abscess. Pylephlebitis It is septic portal vein thrombosis, usually is caused by Escherichia cob Presents with high fevers, jaundice, and eventually hepatic abscesses. CT scan demonstrates thrombus and gas in the portal vein. Prompt treatment (operative or percutaneous) of the primary infection followed by IV antibiotics. Enterocutaneous fistulas from a: Leak at the appendiceal stump closure May require surgical closure but most close spontaneously.
2
Localised pain is the single most important reliable sign
Vomiting precedes abdominal pain
60 % cases perforation occurs in children less than 5 yrs
60% perforation in 48 hrs
Unknown
null
313d9394-4a34-4f9c-93a2-7f1150327413
multi
Melanosis coli is caused by
Senna and cascara are anthraquinone derivatives, which are used as stimulant purgatives. On chronic use they can lead to melanosis coli.
2
Bisacodyl
Senna
Magnesium sulphate
Lactulose
Pharmacology
null
9e95a8ef-f8ef-4c2c-a3f8-daee233271ec
single
Lateral rectus palsy is characterized by -
First see the difference between phoria and tropia. Suffix phoria is used in latent squint, e.g. esophoria and exophoria. Suffix tropia is used in manifest squints (concomitant and paralytic) e.g. esotropia or exotropia. Diplopia is a feature of paralytic esotropia or exotropia but not concomitant esotropia / exotropia or esophoria / exophoria (latent squint). Uncrossed diplopia: - convergent squint (Esotropia) as in lateral rectus palsy. Crossed diplopia: - Divergent squint (exotropia) as in medial rectus palsy.
2
Crossed diplopia
Uncrossed diplopia
Suppression of eye ball
Upward rotated eye ball
Ophthalmology
null
be87ea8e-a9d5-4bb5-8c0a-f4edea1ed26e
multi
Cystic fibrosis is inherited as?
Ans. is 'a' i.e. AR * Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of ion transport in epithelial cells that affect fluid secretion in exocrine glands and the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive tracts.* Cystic fibrosis occurs due to mutation in the CFTR (Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator) gene on long arm of chromosome-7.
1
AR
AD
XR
XD
Pathology
Genetics
687fdbb1-a4b5-4775-b0cc-58cdecad3609
single
Bronchopulmonary segments in right and left lungs respectively ?
Each lung has 10 bronchopulmonary segments.
3
9, 11
11,9
10,10
8, 10
Anatomy
null
f28b5ab1-e22b-40e2-80fb-5584c5ee2c57
single
Wide open anterior fontanelle is found in following diseases except:
d. Craniosynostosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2817-2819, Ghai 8/e p 41)In Craniosynostosis there is premature fusion of cranial sutures and so fontanelles close early and are small;While, Rickets, Cretinism (Hypothyroidism), Ostoeogenesis imperfecta & Achondroplasia are important causes of large anterior fontanelle.
4
Rickets
Cretinism
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Craniosynostosis
Pediatrics
Central Nervous System
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multi
The angle of convexity is:
null
3
SNA
ANB
NA- Pog
SNB
Dental
null
d12a735c-c782-441c-b800-14d77da852ad
single
Mallampatti's classification is for?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Inspection of oral cavity before intubation Mallampati score (Mallampati oropharyngeal scale)* Mallampati grading is used to evaluate the visibility of tonsil and tonsillar fossa which in turn assess the adequate mouth opening depending upon the grade.* Indications of Mallampati score are Oral cavity assessment to rule out difficult intubation (Inspection of oral cavity before intubation) & Sleep apnea evaluation.* Mallampati score is divided into four gradesClass 1Class 2Class 3Class 4* Soft palate, uvula, faucial pillars & posterior pharyngeal wall are visible* Lower part of faucial pillar & uvula are masked by the abse of tongue.* Upper part of faucial pillars & soft palate are visible.* Only soft palate is visible* None of the structure is visible.* Only hard palate is visible.
4
Mobility of cervical spine
Mobility of atlanto axial joint
Assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
Anaesthesia
Preoperative Assessment & Monitoring
c3262f0a-d849-43b2-9c13-43a00c64eac4
multi
Triphasic waveforms in hepatic encephalopathy occurs in stage of -
Hepatic encephalopathy Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome caused by liver disease. As it progresses, delirium is followed by coma. Simple delirium needs to be differentiated from delirium tremens and Wernicke's encephalopathy, and coma from subdural haematoma, which can occur in alcoholics after a fall . Features include changes of intellect, personality, emotions and consciousness, with or without neurological signs. The degree of encephalopathy can be graded from 1 to 4, depending on thesep features, and this is useful in assessing response to therapy . When an episode develops acutely, a precipitating factor may be found . The earliest features are very mild and easily overlooked, but as the condition becomes more severe, apathy, inability to concentrate, delirium, disorientation, drowsiness, slurring of speech and eventually coma develop. Convulsions sometimes occur. Examination usually shows a flapping tremor (asterixis), inability to perform simple mental arithmetic tasks or to draw objects such as a star (constructional apraxia; ), and, as the condition progresses, hyper-reflexia and bilateral extensor plantar responses. Hepatic encephalopathy rarely causes focal neurological signs; if these are present, other causes must be sought. Fetor hepaticus, a sweet musty odour to the breath, is usually present but is more a sign of liver failure and poosystemic shunting than of hepatic encephalopathy. Rarely, chronic hepatic encephalopathy (hepatocerebral degeneration) gives rise to variable combinations of cerebellar dysfunction, Parkinsonian syndromes, spastic paraplegia and dementia. Pathophysiology Hepatic encephalopathy is thought to be due to a disturbance of brain function provoked by circulating neurotoxins that are normally metabolised by the liver. Accordingly, most affected patients have evidence of liver failure and poosystemic shunting of blood, but the balance between these varies from individual to individual. Management The principles are to treat or remove precipitating causes and to suppress the production of neurotoxins by bacteria in the bowel. Dietary protein restriction is rarely needed and is no longer recommended as first-line treatment because it is unpalatable and can lead to a worsening nutritional state in already malnourished patients. Lactulose (15-30 mL 3 times daily) is increased gradually until the bowels are moving twice daily. It produces an osmotic laxative effect, reduces the pH of the colonic content, thereby limiting colonic ammonia absorption, and promotes the incorporation of nitrogen into bacteria. Rifaximin (400 mg 3 times daily) is a well-tolerated, non-absorbed antibiotic that acts by reducing the bacterial content of the bowel and has been shown to be effective. It can be used in addition, or as an alternative, to lactulose if diarrhoea becomes troublesome. Chronic or refractory encephalopathy is one of the main indications for liver transplantation. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg865
1
Coma stage-IV
Confusion stage-I
Deep coma stage-V
Drowsiness stage-II
Medicine
G.I.T
979dde94-0c34-42e4-b469-659feb7de2fe
single
Energy selection in CPR according to AHA 2010 guideline is/are:
Answer- (D) Monophasic 360 J, Biphasic 120-200 J2010 AIIA guideline for CPR Contrary to previous recommendation of 3 succesive shocks (200, 300, 360J) nowadays lst & all subsequent shocks are of 360 Joules with monophasic & 120-200 loules with biphasic.
4
Monophasic 120-200J, Biphasic 360 J
Monophasic 200 J, Biphasic 360J
Monophasic 120 J, Biphasic 200J
Monophasic 360 J, Biphasic 120-200 J
Medicine
null
77e3c57f-0cdb-4b94-8b00-15e35262d781
single
Maximum liver toxicity is seen with which anti - TB drug?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrazinamide o Three first line antitubercular drugs are associated with hepatotoxicityRifampicinFNHPyrazinamideo Of the three, rifampicin is least likely to cause hepatocellular damage, although it is associated with cholestatic jaundice.o Pyrazinamide is the most hepatotoxic of the first line drugs.o Among the second-line drugs, ethionamide, PAS and protionamide can also be hepatotoxic, although less so than any of the first line drugs.
3
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Streptomycin
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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single
Sacrococcgeal teratoma arises from ?
The cause of sacrococcygeal teratomas is unknown. Sacrococcygeal teratomas are germ cell tumors. Germ cells are the cells that develop into the embryo and later on become the cells that make up the reproductive system of men and women. Most germ cell tumors occur in the testes or ovaries (gonads) or the lower back. When these tumors occur outside of the gonads, they are known as extragonadal tumors. Researchers do not know how extragonadal germ cell tumors form. One theory suggests that germ cells accidentally migrate during to unusual locations early during the development of the embryo (embryogenesis). Normally, such misplaced germ cells degenerate and die, but in cases of extragonadal teratomas researchers speculate that these cells continue to undergo mitosis, the process where cells divide and multiply, eventually forming a teratoma. Sacrococcygeal teratomas are thought to arise from an area under the coccyx called "Henson's Node". This is an area where primitive cells persist (germ cells) that can give rise to cells of the three major tissue layers of an embryo: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. These embryonic layers eventually give rise to the various cells and structures of the body. Sacrococcygeal teratomas can contain mature tissue that looks like any tissue in the body, or immature tissue resembling embryonic tissues. Ref- <a href="
1
Primitive streak
Neural plate
Cloacal membrane
Posterior neuropore
Anatomy
General anatomy
f7914285-1eb4-43f4-96f9-2e18a77a374f
single
Leprosy commonly affects all organs except:
Ovary
1
Ovary
Skin
Nerves
Eye
Skin
null
2616c64e-54ae-4af7-a2da-2a272d9d206f
multi
The substance used of OCG is:
Ans. lapanoic acid
1
lapanoic acid
Sodium diatrozite
Melglumine iodothalamate
Biligraffin
Radiology
null
f2ed4b70-f29d-44c6-86b1-85e75c6a34f0
single
Kirkland knife is used for:
null
1
External bevel incision
Internal bevel incision
Horizontal incision
All of the above
Dental
null
4594abd8-c649-4113-ae3f-5fbf3078bb48
multi
Commonest carcinoma in elderly male is -
null
4
Stomach
Lung
Esophagus
Prostate
Pathology
null
64859eb6-8518-45c8-8439-79011b78417b
single
The most serious complication of a pelvic fracture is:
null
3
Rupture urinary bladder
Neurogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Malunion
Surgery
null
ebfabede-cfc8-49ac-bf8e-f8d999b6be08
single
Most common gene associated with renal cell carcinoma
Both sporadic and familial RCC is associated with: Loss of sequence on chromosome 3 either by translocation (3:6, 3:8, 3:11) or deletion. This region harbours the VHL gene. Familial RCC is associated with:- Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome Ref: RAM DAS NAYAK EXAM PREPARATORY MANUAL FOR UNDERGRADUATES 2nd ed. pg no: 633
3
WT1
BRCA 1
VHL
PATCH
Pathology
Urinary tract
909c8fb1-0708-4a7a-bfc1-8101bbe38217
single
Myasthenia gravis may be associated with:
Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 2521, Table 366.3
4
Drug intake
Viral infection
B lymphocyte dysfunction
Thymoma
Medicine
C.N.S.
68e3fe2d-ebc4-4c5e-a063-43130a40a6a5
single
Which of the following act to cause local Vasodilators
(| CO2 tension) (500-1-K.S) (597-GN) (563-Ganong 23rd)Local vasodilatorsVasodilators of metabolic originVasodilators of endothelial origin* The vasodilators of metabolic origin are carbon dioxide, lactate, hydrogen ions and adenosine, Histamine* The metabolic changes that produce vasodilation include in most tissues decrease in O2 tension and pH** These changes causes relaxation of the arterioles and precapillary sphincters. Increase in CO2 tension and osmolality also dilate the vessels. The direct dilator action of CO2 is most pronounced in the skin and brain* Hyperthermia exerts direct vasodilator effect* K+ is another substance that accumulates locally has demonstrated dilator activity* Nitric oxide (NO) is an endothelium derived factor (EDRF). It is synthesized from Arginine** NO is a vasodilator, deficiency of this leads to hypertension. The other functions of this are penile erection with vasodilatation and engorgement of corpora cavernosa, activation of macrophages in brain, destruction of cancer cells and relaxation of smooth muscles of GIT.Local vasoconstrictors - The local vasoconstrictor substances are of endothelial origin are known as endothelins (ET). The production of endothelins is because of the stretching of blood vessels. The endothelins act by activating phospholipase, which in turn activates the prostacyclin and thromboxane A2. These two substances cause constriction of blood vessels and increase in blood pressure.
3
| O2 tension
| PH
| CO2 tension
| CO2 tension
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
45685e61-6193-45ab-b4ef-b6b9b3c41570
single
A 65 years old male diagnosed by biopsy as a case of lung carcinoma, with the paraneoplastic syndrome and increased PTH. Probable cause is-
null
2
Parathyroid
Parathyroid related peptide
Calcitonin
Calcitonin related peptide
Pathology
null
cdee2e00-9af0-4256-9d05-8b636a754bb6
single
Drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii is:
Answer is B (Cotrimoxazole): Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice for all firms of Pneumocystis Pneumonias. 'Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole which acts by inhibiting folic acid synthesis is considered the drug of choice for all forms of Pneumocystis Pneumonias. Therapy is continued for 14 days in Non-HIV-Infected patients and for 21 days in HIV-Infected patients' - Harrison 18th/1672
2
Doxycycline
Cotrimoxazole
Tetracycline
Dapsone
Medicine
null
709e07d0-3d4c-4ffe-a744-b0f1ea2f5797
single
Absent P waves with wide QRS complex indicates serum potassium of
Hyperkalemia Couesy of Dr. Michael McCrea a. Tall hyperacute T wave (earliest ECG finding) b. Prolonged PR interval c. Flattened or absent P wave d. Wide QRS complex that eventually blends with the T wave to assume a "sine wave" appearance e. Hea blocks f. QT interval normal or shoened Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:184,185,186
3
5.4 meq/L
6.5 meq/L
More than 8 meq/L
More than 1O meq/L
Physiology
G.I.T
70ad64f3-3f18-4b23-a4bb-6ecd86a05609
single
If mother is donating the kidney to her son, this is an example of:-
Types of grafts - Autograft: same person - Allograft/Homograft: from one person to another / same species - Isograft: Identical twine - Xenograft/Heterograft: Between different species - Ohotopic graft: Graft placed in normal anatomical site - Heterotrophic graft: Graft in site different from its anatomical location
2
Autograft
Allograft
Isograft
Xenograft
Surgery
NEET 2019
5cffb602-cc16-4b0c-8052-38c3a2d4ec19
multi
Which of following drug inhibits xanthine oxidase: September 2007
Ans. C: Allopurinol Xanthine oxidase is involved in purine metabolism. Inhibition of xanthine oxidase reduces the production of uric acid, and several medications that inhibit xanthine oxidase are indicated for treatment of hyperuricemia and related medical conditions including gout. Xanthine oxidase inhibitors are: a. Purine analogues include allopurinol, oxypurinol, and tisopurine. b. Others include febuxostat and inositols (phytic acid and myo-inositol).
3
Probenicid
Quiniarcine
Allopurinol
Sulfinpyrazone
Pharmacology
null
8134f8df-677d-4d9b-9e24-339b881a8750
multi
Which of the following is true to the immediate postoperative period in a young patient with previously normal lungs having upper abdominal surgery ?
null
1
Arterial oxygen tension will typically be reduced by an average of 10 mm Hg when breathing room air
Arterial oxygen tension will normalize after 15 minutes
Diffusion hypoxia is the major determinant of arterial hypoxaemia
The CXR will typically reveal no abnormalities
Anaesthesia
null
92e34638-0cee-4a35-9731-c5011668eeb1
multi
Features in retinal detachment all except –
Vitreous hemorrhage is not a feature of retinal detachment. However, it may be associated with retinal detachment as tear in retina may cause vitreous hemorrhage or retinal detachment. In retinal detachment, there is visual field defect which corresponds to the area of detachment. On examination, freshly - detached  retina gives grey reflex (i.e., grey fundus) instead of normal pink reflex.
3
Field defect
Retinal tears
Associated with vitreous haemorrhage
Greyish – brown fundus
Ophthalmology
null
d58b9896-8520-41d8-bcab-cac84be2674b
multi
True about silent mutation in genea) No change in mRNAb) No change in Amino acid sequence in proteinc) No expression of proteind) No change in expression of proteine) Termination of protein synthesis
In silent mutation, codon containing the changed base codes for the same amino acid (as original codon). Thus there is no change in expression of protein.
2
c
bd
ab
ac
Biochemistry
null
5e51cad6-8b23-468a-ae30-82b399ef1064
multi
Advantages of amoxicillin over ampicillin are all except?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella
2
Better bioavailability & faster action
Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella
Incidence of diarrhea is lower
Food does not interfere with its absorption
Pharmacology
null
2f277330-5efe-4539-80d9-efd602ebf21b
multi
Which of the rotator muscle was not given its due impoance and was called Forgotten muscle of rotator cuff ?
Subscapularis-:"forgotten muscle'' of rotator cuff- Internal rotator of the shoulder Difficult to pick up in MRI Diagnostic test done-lift off, belly press, Gerber test Nerve supply: Upper and lower subscapular nerves from posterior chord of brachial plexus
1
Subscapularis
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Orthopaedics
Ohopaedics Q Bank
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multi
True about TB Knee
null
1
Synovial fluid shows reduced mucin
Internal rotation of Tibia
Synovial fluid shows reduced leucocyte count
Leads to Bony ankylosis
Orthopaedics
null
e0e4afea-d3d2-4187-897b-dffdc70a7f2d
multi
Which of the following disorders is most closely associated with thyroid disease?
Ans. C. DepressionDepressive symptoms have been known to be one of the most prominent features of clinical thyroid disease, particularly hypothyroidism. Beginning in the late part of the 19th century, depression was seen as prominent component of clinical hypothyroidism, although other psychiatric symptoms were often present. As a result of the inverse relationship between thyroid function and depression observed in endocrine patients, it was hoped that thyroid hormones-particularly thyroid hormone deficiency-might be a biological factor in the etiology of unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Thyroid hormones are used in psychiatry, either alone or as augmentation, to treat persons with depression or rapid-cycling bipolar I disorder. They can convert an antidepressant-nonresponsive person into an antidepressant-responsive person.
3
Schizophrenia
Alcohol use disorder
Depression
Phobia
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
ea828d51-0e60-432d-afe0-a08744cb7d55
single
Mallory hyaline bodies are present in all of the following, except
In histopathology, a Mallory body,Mallory-Denk body, and Mallory's hyaline, is an inclusion found in the cytoplasm of liver cells. Mallory bodies are damaged intermediate filaments within the hepatocytes
2
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Secondary biliary cirrhosis
Indian childhood cirrhosis
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Pathology
G.I.T
ec4b5e48-ad71-41f5-8949-ae262ae97824
multi
Definitive managenment in primary angle closure glaucoma: March 2005
Ans. C: Laser iridotomy Although intraocular pressure is only one of the major risk factors for glaucoma, lowering it various pharmaceuticals and/or surgical techniques is currently the mainstay of glaucoma treatment. A. Medications used for lowering intraocular tension: Prostaglandin analogs like latanoprost, bimatoprost and travoprost increase uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor. Bimatoprost also increases trabecular outflow Topical beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists such as timolol, levobunolol, and betaxolol decrease aqueous humor production by the ciliary body. Alpha2-adrenergic agonists such as brimonidine work by a dual mechanism, decreasing aqueous production and increasing uveo-scleral outflow. Less-selective sympathomimetics like epinephrine and dipivefrin increase outflow of aqueous humor through trabecular meshwork and possibly through uveoscleral outflow pathway, probably by a beta2-agonist action. Miotic agents parasympathomimetics like pilocarpine work by contraction of the ciliary muscle, tightening the trabecular meshwork and allowing increased outflow of the aqueous humour. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like dorzolamide, brinzolamide, acetazolamide lower secretion of aqueous humor by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase in the ciliary body. B. Conventional surgery to treat glaucoma makes a new opening in the meshwork. This new opening helps fluid to leave the eye and lowers intraocular pressure. Canaloplasty is a nonpenetrating procedure utilizing microcatheter technology. By opening the canal, the pressure inside the eye may be relieved. Laser trabeculoplasty may be used to treat open angle glaucoma. It is a temporary solution, not a cure. Nd: YAG Laser peripheral iridotomy reduces the risk of developing an attack of acute angle closure. In most cases it also reduces the risk of developing chronic angle closure or of adhesions of the iris to the trabecular meshwork. It is mandatory after reducing the intraocular pressure in all eyes with any form of primary angle-closure glaucoma and also prophylactically in the unaffected eye. Diode laser cycloablation lowers IOP by reducing aqueous secretion by destroying secretory ciliary epithelium. Trabeculectomv allows fluid to flow out of the eye through this opening, resulting in lowered intraocular pressure.
3
Trabeculectomy
Surgical iridectomy
Laser iridotomy
Pilocarpine
Ophthalmology
null
29ce9cfd-d86a-4efc-93e5-27ccf32beed4
single
A 64-year-old man undergoes CEA surveillance for cancer, because his brother and father both had colon cancer. What information should he be provided?
CEA is useful in the follow-up care of patients with colon carcinoma after resection. The levels of this antigen usually come to normal after complete resection of the tumor. A subsequent elevation may suggest a recurrence of the tumor either at the resection margin or at distant sites. The sensitivity and specificity of CEA for diagnosis of colon carcinoma is poor. It has no implications for respectability of the lesion.
3
CEA is highly sensitive for diagnosis.
If CEA is elevated preoperatively, it implies unresectable disease.
Increases in CEA after resection may indicate tumor recurrence.
CEA is highly specific for the presence of colon cancer.
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
3b549acc-9d1d-4197-b0b0-22afc4ed6563
multi
All are true about spermatocytic seminoma except:
Ans: a (3 types are there) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 1042Spermatocytic seminoma is a non seminomatous slow growing testicular tumour seen in old age. It does not have three types.Spermatocytic seminoma* Both clinically & histologically distinct from seminoma* Variant of germ cell tumour that do not arise from an intratubular germ cell neoplasia (other being teratoma in children)* Uncommon tumour 1 - 2% of all testicular germ cell neoplasms* Affected individuals over 65 yrs of age* S low growing tumour that rarely produces metastases* Excellent prognosis* Grossly spermatocytic seminoma tends to be larger than classic seminoma and presents with a pale grey soft cut surface, sometimes with mucoid cysts* Microscopy - 3 cell population all intermixedPathologic classification of common testicular tumoursGerm cell tumours (~ 95%)Nonseminomas* Spermatocytic seminoma* Embryonal carcinoma* Yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumour* Choriocarcinoma* TeratomaSeminomaOthers (5%)Sex cord / gonadal stromal tumorsTumors containing both germ cell & sexcord/ gonadal stromal elementsLymphoid & Haematopoeitic tumorsMiscellaneousLeydig cell tumorsGonadoblastomaLymphomaCarcinoidSertoli cell tumour LeukemiaAdenomaGranulosa cell tumour PlasmacytomaCarcinomaThecoma / fibroma Most of the germ cell neoplasm arise from intratubular germ cell neoplasia; exceptions are spermatocytic seminoma, dermoid cyst, epidermoid cyst, paediatric tumours like yolk sac tumour and teratoma (pgi june 2007)
1
Three types are there
Seen in 65 years of age group
Slow growing tumour
Clinically and histologically not related to seminoma
Surgery
Testis & Scrotum
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Schedule of drug to be sold only on prescription is:
Ans. A. HCAScheduleContent1ASpecimens of forms2BFees of tests/analysis3CBiological special products4DExtent and conditions of exemptions regarding import5EList of poisonous medicine under Ayurveda6FRequirement for functioning of blood bank7GDangerous to take these drugs except under medical supervision8HPrescription drugs: drugs which must be sold by retail only when prescription by RMP is produced9HIDrugs and cosmetic (4th amendment) rules 2013 by MOHFW on 30 August 2013 to regulate sale of antibiotics10MGood Manufacturing practices11NMinimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy12OProvisions applicable to disinfectant fluids13PLife period of drugs and condition of storage of drugs14QList of permitted dyes, colors, pigments15RStandard for condoms and other contraceptive devices16R1Standard for medical devices17SStandard for cosmetics18TGMP for Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani medicines19UManufacturing records20XList of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances21YRequirements and guidelines for permission to import/ manufacture new drugs or to undertake clinical trials
1
H
P
G
X
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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Internal podalic version is done in
Internal podalic version is done for only delivery of second twin (Transverse lie).
3
Complete breech delivery
Frank breech delivery
Delivery of aftercoming twin
Preterm breech delivery
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
The complete genome sequence of M. tuberculosis comprises of which of the following?
The complete genome sequence of M. tuberculosis comprises 4043 genes encoding 3993 proteins and 50 genes encoding RNAs and its high guanine-plus-cytosine content (65.6%) is indicative of an aerobic lifestyle. Reference : Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1340
1
4100 genes
3100 genes
2100 genes
1100 genes
Medicine
null
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single
Most common type of primary lymphedema is?
ANSWER: (B) Lymphedema precoxREF: Sabiston 18'h edition chapter 69, style="color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> primary_lymphedema.htm' The most common form of primary lymphedema is praecox, which accounts for about 80% of the patients. Congenital and tarda lymphedemas each account for the remaining 10%"
2
Lymphedema congenital
Lymphedema precox
Lymphedema tarda
None
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Lymphatic System)
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Which of the following is not an enzyme inhibitor
Griseofulvin and chronic alcohol intoxication are enzyme inducers.
3
Isoniazid
Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
Acute alcohol intoxication
Pharmacology
null
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single
PKU is a congenital amino acid metabolic disorder. In the following rare variants of PKU, dihydrobiopterin synthesis is affected. The enzyme deficient is
In Type 2 and 3 of PKU, there is deficiency of enzyme dihydrobiopterin reductase. Hence there is deficiency of dihydrobiopterin.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 236
3
Histidine decarboxylase
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Dihydropterin reductase
Tyrosine deficiency
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
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Transovarian transmission is a feature of-
The causative agent of scrub typhus: Rickettsia tsutsugamushi. It is the larva that feeds on veebrate hosts and picks up the rickettsias. The larval stage serves as both as a reservoir, through ovarian transmission and as a vector for infecting humans and rodents (refer pgno 300 park 23rd edition)
1
Scrub fever
Epidemic typhus
Endemic typhus
Trench fever
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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A female patient with signs of meningitis and CSF showing gram positive coccobacilli, which is showing characteristic tumbling motility. Diagnosis is -
null
1
Listeria
Meningococcus
H. influenzae
Pneumococcus
Microbiology
null
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single
Pierre Robbin syndrome does not include
null
3
Hearing loss
Respiratory distress
Coloboma Iris
Mandibular dysplasia
ENT
null
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single
Defect in Menke disease:
MENKE DISEASE / kinky OR STEEL HAIR SYNDROME- deficiency of copper results in defective crosslinking of collagen and elastin by the copper-dependent enzyme lysyl oxidase. Defect in dietary absorption of copper Die with in 5 years of age Kinky hair and growth retardation. menke disease is X linked disease due to mutation in ATP 7 A gene. This gene is present on Xp 12-13.
2
Lysyl hydroxylase
Lysyl oxidase
Prolyl hydroxylase
Prolyl oxidase
Biochemistry
NEET 2019
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single
A 70-year-old gentleman met with an accident, he was able to point to pain site and opens eyes when pinched, he is confused and not sure where he is now or how he met with an accident. What will be his minimum GCS
His GCS would be 11Glasgow Coma ScaleEyes open Spontaneously 4To verbal command 3To painful stimulus 2Do not open 1Verbal Normal oriented conversation 5Confused 4Inappropriate/words only 3Sounds only 2No sounds 1Intubated patient TMotor Obeys commands 6Localises to pain 5Withdrawal/flexion 4Abnormal flexion 3Extension 2No motor response 1Bailey and Love 26e pg: 312
1
11
10
9
8
Surgery
Trauma
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single
Induction agent, having anti-emetic property is:
Propotol is used as induction agent, it cause decrease in blood pressure heart rate and vascular resistance. Nausea and vomiting is very rare (1 -2%), and less than with most other used agents.
4
Thiopentone
Methohexitone
Propanidid
Propofol
Unknown
null
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single
Insulin mediated glucose transpo is seen in ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adipose tissueInsulin stimulates the uptake of glucose by myocytes (skeletal muscle, cardiac muscles), adipocytes (adipose tissue) and hepatocytes. Tissues that do not depend on insulin for glucose uptake include brain, erythrocytes (RBC), the epithelial cells of kidney & intestine, Liver, and Cornea & lens of eye.The mechanism through which insulin increases glucose uptake is different in different tissues. In the muscle and adipose tissues, insulin increase facilitated diffusion by increasing glucose transpoer (GLUT4) on the cell membrane.In the liver, insulin stimulates glucose entry into hepatocytes indirectly by induction of glucokinase so that the glucose entering the liver cells is promptly conveed to glucose - 6 - phosphate (glucose trapping). This keeps the intracellular glucose concentration low and ours entry of glucose into the liver. Thus, though the liver do not depend on insulin for glucose uptake, insulin stimulates glucose entry into hepatocytes. That means glucose entery can occur in liver without the action of insulin, but this is facilitated by insulin. On the other hand, myocytes (skeletal and cardiac muslces) and adipocytes (adipose tissue) are dependent on insulin for glucose uptake.
1
Adipose tissue
Brain
RBC
Kidney
Physiology
null
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single
What are the chances of veical transmission of Hepatitis B in women who are seropositive for both HBsAg and HBeAg ?
Ans:D.)90% Veical Transmission of Hepatitis B In patients with acute hepatitis B veical transmission occurs in up to 10% of neonates when infection occurs in the first trimester and in 80 -90% of neonates when acute infection occurs in the third trimester. In women who are seropositive for both HBsAg and HBeAg veical transmission is approximately 90%. 10-20% of women seropositive for HBsAg transmit the virus to their neonates in the absence of immunoprophylaxis. The increased risk of transmission with HBeAg positive status is due to high titres of HBV in these women.
4
25-30%
40%
60%
90%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Which disease is transmitted by all the components of blood -
The malariaparasites enter that person's bloodstream and travel to the liver. When the parasites mature, they leave the liver and infect red blood cells.
1
Malaria
Syphilis
Toxoplasma
H. pylori
Pathology
miscellaneous
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multi
Largest reserve of energy in body stored as
Fat (triglycerides) in the adipose tissues is the largest store of energy of the body.
3
Liver glycogen
Muscle glycogen
Adipose tissue
Blood glucose
Biochemistry
null
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single
The tendency of colonic carcinoma to metastasize is best assessed by
null
3
Size of tumor
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels
Depth of penetration of bowel wall
Proportion of bowel circumference involved.
Surgery
null
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multi
Disease associated with excessive maize diet -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pellagra o Excess of Leucine interferes in conversion of Tryptophan into Niacin, and aggravates the pallagrogenic action of maize.o Similar to maize, Jowar also contains excess of leucine.o Leucine interferes with conversion of tryptophan to niacin.o Pellagra has been reported in India in Telangana area of Andhra Pradesh because of Jower (Sorghum vulgare) consumption.
2
Wernicke's encephalopathy
Pellagra
Beri-Beri
Scurvy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Vitamins
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