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About diagnosing air embolism with transesophageal echocardiography, which of the following is false –
|
Transesophageal echocardiography does not interfere with doppler when used together. Infact, Doppler modalities are generally available on modern transesophageal echocardiography system to increase its effectiveness.
TEE is the most sensitive investigation for air embolism.
| 4 |
It can quantify the volume of air embolised
|
It is a very sensitive investigation
|
Continuous monitoring is needed to detect venous embolism
|
Interferes with doppler when used together
|
Radiology
| null |
730af1cb-d413-45a0-965f-0af830653224
|
multi
|
Which of the following is the commonest cause of lower GI bleed:
|
Answer is D (Hemorrhoids) 'Hemorrhoids are probably the most common cause of Lower GIBleed (LGIB)'
| 4 |
Angiodysplasia
|
Enteric fever
|
Diveiculosis
|
Hemorrhoids
|
Medicine
| null |
7e2b6e85-8aac-4b11-98e0-eba6d1ddade3
|
single
|
Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia:
|
Ans. Ground glass appearance
| 3 |
Thickened bone matrix
|
Coical erosion
|
Ground glass appearance
|
Bone enlargement
|
Radiology
| null |
a37e61fa-c3e1-4ec3-8137-c747966bb59d
|
single
|
In blast injury, what is the organ to be damaged first-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Tympanic membraneBlast or shock waveo When an explosion occurs, the explosive material produces a large volume of gas and releases a large amount of energy. It produces a 'shock wave' which spread concentrically from the site of explosion. The injuries depend on the environment in which blast occurs :-Air blast (most common) : Explosion occurs in air. There is barotrauma to air filled hollow organs. Tympanic membrane (ear drum) is most sensitive and most commonly injured. Lung is the second organ to be injured and is the most commonly injured hollow organ and most common cause of life threatening injury. Other parts injured are middle ear, cochlea, eyes, bowels, mesentery, omentum and brain. Homogenous solid organs like liver and muscles are usually not affected.Under water blast (explosion under water) : Gastrointestinal tract is injured most commonly. Lungs are also injured.Solid blast: Explosive is detonated near a rigid/solid structure and wave of energy spreads through it. If people are in contact with that rigid structure, injuries take place. The injuries are mostly skeletal; fracture of legs and vertebral column are more common. GIT damage is more common than lung.
| 1 |
Tympanic membrane
|
Git
|
Liver
|
Lung
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Misc.
|
65253d18-8a32-4b29-a04b-6aaf8ad9cc63
|
single
|
Which is a live vaccine:
|
BCG
| 1 |
BCG
|
Salk
|
DPT
|
Tetanus toxoid
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
96a79b85-feb5-4d6f-8719-af673adcce58
|
single
|
Fluid levels are not visible in
|
In meconium ileus meconium is so thick that it is unable to form air-fluid level despite complete small intestinal obstruction (Note the multiple air-fluid level is a feature of mechanical small bowel obstruction & paralytic ileus).
| 1 |
Meconeum ileus
|
Intussusception
|
Colon pouch
|
Duodenal obstruction
|
Surgery
| null |
9a87a276-c322-4400-9265-404b53c5a8d0
|
single
|
Which of the following are the adverse effects of pioglitazone?
|
Glitazones - They act by stimulating PPAR- g receptor - Reverse insulin resistance - e.g. Pioglitazone Pioglitazone: -Adverse effects: Hepatotoxic Sodium and water retention weight gain Increases risk of urinary bladder carcinoma Avoid in liver disease or hea failure -Rosiglitazone increases the risk of myocardial infarction -Troglitazone banned because it cause liver damage
| 4 |
Weight gain
|
Hepatotoxicity
|
Increased risk of urinary bladder cancer
|
All of the above
|
Pharmacology
|
Pancreas
|
05759983-b6d9-4716-bdfe-046ac69a704c
|
multi
|
Modified shock index formula is:
|
Shock Index(SI) Modified Shock Index (MSI) SI is defined as hea rate divided by systolic BP Better marker for assessing severity of shock than hea rate & BP alone. Utility in trauma patients , sepsis, obstetrics, myocardial infarction, stroke & other acute critical illnesses. Correlated with need for interventions such as blood transfusion & invasive procedures including operations SI is known as a hemodynamic stability indicator Si does not take into account the diastolic BP MSI is defined as hea rate divided by mean aerial pressure High MSI indicates a value of stroke volume & low systemic vascular resistance, a sign of hypodynamic circulation Low MSI indicates a hyperdynamic state. MSI has been considered a better marker than SI for moality rate prediction. Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 52
| 3 |
Hea rate/Systolic BP
|
Hea rate/Diastolic BP
|
Hea rate/Mean aerial pressure
|
Pulse rate/Systolic BP
|
Surgery
|
General surgery
|
5ab7ba71-f4a8-4f49-b494-4078272e6b6c
|
single
|
114.The following Peripheral Smear shows presence of?
|
Ans. (a) Gametocyte.The arrow points to a "banana-shaped" gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">
| 1 |
Gametocyte
|
Sporozoite
|
Merozoite
|
Schistocyte
|
Microbiology
|
Parasitology
|
79a6aa25-46ee-4b6f-89d5-e06c5935a367
|
single
|
Chronic gastritis is caused by all except
|
Overuse of salicylates (NSAIDs) cause acute gastritis
Gastritis
Gastritis is the inflammation of Gastric mucosa.
It is a histological diagnosis and can be divided into -
A. Acute gastritis
It is acute mucosal injury, usually transient in injury and is associated with neutrophilic infiltration.
Important causes are
Heavy use of NSAIDs (aspirin)
Alcohol and smoking
Uremia
Ischemia and shock
Severe stress (Trauma, burn, surgery)
Nasogastric intubation
B. Chronic gastritis
It is characterized by the presence of chronic mucosal inflammatory changes leading eventually to mucosal atrophy and intestinal metaplasia, usually in the absence of erosions.
Important causes are
H.pylori infection
Alcohol and smoking
Radiation
Autoimmune, in association with pernicious anemia
Granulomatous conditions → Crohn disease
Miscellaneous - Amyloidosis, graft - versus - host disease, uremia.
| 4 |
H. Pylori
|
Pernicious anemia
|
Alcohol
|
Overuse of salicylates
|
Pathology
| null |
ceb5c8b4-527c-4110-8957-b2006a22f791
|
multi
|
What is the dose of Adrenaline given intravenously in cardiac arrest victim-
|
Adrenaline given IV is given in 1 in 10,000 concentration. 10 ml 1 in 10000 is given . REMEMBER : 1mg in 10ml
| 1 |
10 ml 1 in 10,000
|
1 ml 1 in 10,000
|
2 ml 1 in 1000
|
10 ml 1 in 1000
|
Anaesthesia
|
Cardiopulmonary Cerebral Resuscitation
|
a0c0eb63-aa2c-468c-9ccd-a221f0bf6709
|
single
|
A 50 year old male presents with malignant hypeension. the drug of choices
|
It is a first choice drug for malignant hypeension Refer kDT 11e p185
| 1 |
Sodium nitroprusside
|
Sublingual nifedipine
|
Furosemide
|
Enalapril
|
Pharmacology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
b2777bc5-a5ef-45ba-951f-41fb8d973a1f
|
single
|
In wiskott - Aldrich syndrome true is
| null | 1 |
Raised IgE
|
Raised IgM
|
Reduced IgA
|
CD4 and CD8 defect
|
Pathology
| null |
a50a9d42-04b0-4c5c-9048-ec83e61e130e
|
multi
|
Which of the following type of facebow is most commonly used for complete denture fabrication:
|
Arbitrary face bows are used to record terminal hinge axis arbitrarily. It is most commonly used in complete denture prosthodontics. It may be of facia type or earpiece type.
Kinematic face bow is used to determine and locate the exact hinge axis point. It is attached to lower jaw. It is not used for complete denture fabrication. It is generally used for the fabrication of FPD and full mouth rehabilitation.
| 2 |
Kinematic face bow.
|
Arbitrary face bow.
|
Any of the above.
|
None.
|
Dental
| null |
60c5c6b6-f481-48cc-9bc2-5ca6fea64583
|
multi
|
If circumflex artery gives the posterior interventricular branch, this circulation is described
|
In about 10% of hearts, the right coronary is rather small and is not able to give the posterior interventricular branch.
In these cases the circumflex artery, the continuation of left provides the posterior interventricular branch and called left dominant.
| 2 |
Right dominance
|
Left dominance
|
Codominance
|
Undetermined
|
Anatomy
| null |
ba0e24e6-3b49-4933-8dbe-4ea3ff29686a
|
single
|
In Lepra reaction, the drug useful is:
|
Ans. (B) Clofazimine(Ref: KDT 8th/e p833)Anti-inflammatory drugs are used in lepra reaction. Steroids, clofazimine and thalidomide can be used.
| 2 |
Pencillins
|
Clofazimine
|
Dapsone
|
Rifampicin
|
Pharmacology
|
Chemotherapy: General Principles
|
b72ab328-cc7b-4610-8adb-3628750c3853
|
single
|
Disc with three germ layers are formed at which week of gestation -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 weeks Preembryonic phase of developmento Preembryonic phase of development extends from day zero to 3 weeks (days 0-21).o This phase of development can be further subdivided into :-Fertilization and implantation (first week of development)First week of development begins immediately after fertilization, Changes during first week include -Cleavage of zygote - 0-3 days.Formation of morula, transportation to uterine cavity and conversion into blastocyst - 3-5 days.Implantation - 6-7 days.Stage of bilaminar germ disc (second week of development)The stage of bilaminar germ disc formation approximately occurs during second week of development.On 8th day after ovulation the embryoblast is converted to a bilominar disc consisting of following twolayers -Epiblast, the upper layer.Hypoblast, the lower layer.At the end of 2nd week -i) Some of cubical cells of hypoblast become columnar and form prochordal plate.Soon after the formation of prochordal plate, the primitive streak is formed by the proliferation of cells of epiblast.During this period following changes occurs :During 2nd week trophoblasts differentate into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblasts.Formation of amnion and amniotic cavityDevelopment of yolk sac and extraembiyonic mesoderm.Development of chorion.3. Stage of trilaminar germ disc (third week of dev elopment)The stage of trilaminar disc formation is marked by changes during third week of development.At the beginning of third week there occurs, the most characterstic event, the gastrulation, which establishes all three germ cells, changing embryonic disc from a bilaminar to a trilaminar structure. During this period, embryo may be referred as to gastrula.Other events during this period areFormation of primitive groove.Formation of germ cells.Formation of notochord.Spread of mesoderm and formation of buccopharynyeal and cloacal membrane.Appearance of allantois.Formation of neural tube (neurulation).Development of somites.Formation of intraembryonic colon.Formation of primordial cardiovascular system.
| 2 |
1 week
|
3 week
|
5 week
|
10 week
|
Anatomy
|
Fertilization and Development of Embryo
|
fffbc1a6-349b-410f-a8c5-b0e5cade4636
|
single
|
A child has fever with redness of cheek. The causative organism fohis condition is:
|
Ans. (B) Parvovirus B-19Exanthema infectiosum:The characteristic rash first appears as erythematous flushing on the face in a slapped cheek appearance (red cheek).The most common manifestation of parvovirus B19 is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, which is a benign, self-limited exanthematous illness of childhood.It was the 5th in a classification scheme of common childhood exanthems.The preceding 4 exanthems were measles, scarlet fever, rubella, and Filatov-Dukes disease (an atypical scarlet fever), with roseola infantum as the "sixth disease
| 2 |
Herpes virus
|
Parvovirus B-19
|
Adenovirus
|
Rubella
|
Pediatrics
| null |
03951475-92a6-47a2-870f-35b196ed4d83
|
single
|
Epidermal cyst is lined by: March 2012
|
Ans: B i.e. Stratified squamous epithelium Epidermal cysts are lined with true stratified squamous epithelium derived from the inflindibulum of the hair follicle or traumatic inclusion.
| 2 |
Transitional epithelium
|
Stratified squamous epithelium
|
Columnar epithelium
|
Cuboidal epithelium
|
Surgery
| null |
74d57467-c332-4eb3-aede-9e991d09384c
|
single
|
Content(s) of bicipital groove is/are
|
BICIPITAL GROOVE:-Veical groove between greater and lesser trochanter.Contents:-1. Long head of biceps.2. Ascending branch of anterior circumflex humeral aery.Muscles attachments:/1. Pectoralis major- outer lip2. Teres major- inner lip3. Latissimus dorsi- floor of groove. {Reference: Vishram Singh, pg no.22}
| 2 |
Synol membrane of shoulder jt
|
Ascending branch of anterior circumflex aery
|
Ascending branch of posterior circumflex aery
|
Radial aery
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb
|
0a4cd0f0-895b-409c-a2e1-b3903205bc0f
|
single
|
Diapedesis is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Immigration of the leucocytes through the vessel wall to the site of inflammationo Diapedesis is the process of transmigration of leukocytes across the endothelium. The most impoant molecule responsible for diapedesis is called PECAM-1 (Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule) or CD-31.
| 2 |
Immigration of leucocytes through the basement membrane
|
Immigration of the leucocytes through the vessel wall to the site of inflammation
|
Aggregation of platelets at the site of bleeding
|
Auto digestion of the cells.
|
Pathology
| null |
e1ed191c-187d-4532-8548-17ee8d6d241d
|
multi
|
Ectodermal dysplasia manifested as:
|
Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by congenital dysplasia of ectodermal structures, manifested as hypohidrosis (partial or complete absence of sweat glands) hypotrichosis and hypodontia or partial anodontia.
| 4 |
Hypohidrosis.
|
Hypotrichosis.
|
Hypodontia.
|
All of the above.
|
Pathology
| null |
854b52c1-ecbe-449b-ac46-af7ab10fd5b9
|
multi
|
Achondroplasia shows which of the following type of inheritance?
|
Autosomal dominant : von villebrands , adult pkd , myotonic dystrophy , tuberous sclerosis, huntingtons disease , osteosclerosis Autosomal recessive:- cystic fibrosis , congenital deafness , PKU, spinal muscular dystrophy X LINKED dominant :- Xg group , vit D resistant rickets , incontinentia pigmentia X Linked recessive red green colour blindness , fragile X syndrome , Duchenne muscular dystrophy , hemophilia Y linked :- swyer syndrome
| 1 |
Autosomal dominant
|
Autosomal recessive
|
X linked dominant
|
X linked recessive
|
Orthopaedics
|
DNB 2018
|
e30fad90-0971-4d0e-a59c-91124c73d31e
|
single
|
The following anticholinergic drug has comparitively specific action on gastric secretion & is useful in peptic ulcer -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pirenzepine USES OFANTICHOLINERGIC DRUGS 1. Eye o Homatropine, cyclopentolate and tropicamide are used as mydriatics (see above explanation) 2. Preanaesthetic medications Due to irritation, some anaesthetic agent produce reflex bronchospasm and increased secretions. o All these effects are due to muscarinic cholinergic receptors. o Animuscarinic drugs (glycopyrrolate) can be used to counteract these effects. 3. Respiratory tract In respiratory tract, bronchoconstriction and increased secretions occur due to stimulation of M3cholinergic receptors. Selective M, antagonists which act specifically on respiratory system, e.g., ipratropion and tiotropium, can be used in COPD and bronchial asthma. 4. UT o Gastric acid secretion is due to M1 receptors. Selective M, blockers (Pirenzepine, Telenzepine) can be used in peptic ulcer. o Hyoscine, Dicyclomine and other antispasmodic anticholinergic can be used in intestinal colic --) they provide relief by A, motor activity of gut. 5. Urinary system M3receptors in urinary bladder increases micturation. Selective M3 antagonists, which act especifically on urinary bladder (oxybutynine, Darifenaci, Solifenacin, Tolterodine) can be used in urinary incontinence. o Vasoselective antispasmodic oxybutynin, Tolterodine Flavoxate can be used in renal colic. 6. Miscellaenous o Botulinum toxin type A is used for strabismus, cervical dystonia, blepherospasm, and glabellar lines. o Botulinum toxin type B is used for cervical dystonia.
| 2 |
Atropine
|
Pirenzipine
|
Oxyphenonium bromide
|
Dicyclomine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
3d19f885-0f36-4004-ab1e-8c8d8c13b842
|
single
|
Which of the follow ing is cause of RBBB ?
|
Ans. is 4d' i.e.. All of the above Causes of RBBBNormal physiologicalPulmonary embolism/corpulmonalePulmonary artery hypertensionASDRheumatic heart disease
| 4 |
It can occur in a normal person
|
Pulmonary embolism
|
Corpulmonale
|
All of the above
|
Medicine
|
Arrhythmias
|
7d996f6b-5da5-48d8-bdd2-af9fa9ae1daa
|
multi
|
Kaplan Meier method is used for estimating :-
|
Kaplan Meier Survival Curve is used to estimate survival. -The area under the curve gives cumulative survival.
| 4 |
Incidence
|
Frequency
|
Prevalence
|
Survival
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Definition and Concepts, Examples from NHPs
|
fac82f4d-0cf4-4a8f-9a0b-562ea8dc101f
|
single
|
Most com mon neuropathy in DM is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e,, Distal symmetric neuropathy o Diabetic neuropathy may manifest as polyneuropathy, mononeuropathy and autonomic neuropathy. but the most common form of diabetic neuropathy is distal symmetric polyneuropathyQ.
| 1 |
Distal symmetric neuropathy
|
Autonomic neuripathy
|
Mononeuropathy
|
Amyotrophy
|
Medicine
|
Diabites & Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
|
96881aee-6525-42e0-b33c-40c8f5c07d4c
|
multi
|
Drug of choice for CML:
|
Ans. A. ImatinibImatinib is drug of choice of chronic myeloid leukemia. Cisplatin is given for ovarian cancer. Methotrexate is given for testicular cancer or carcinoma cervix. Tamoxifen is given for breast cancer.
| 1 |
Imatinib
|
Cisplatin
|
Methotrexate
|
Tamoxifen
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti-Cancer
|
81659bf2-6718-420a-8442-1986d56e5ac3
|
single
|
All the statements are true about exotosis, EXCEPT:
|
Exotosis or osteochondroma is the commonest benign "tumour" of the bone. It is not a true neoplasm since its growth stops with cessation of growth at the epiphyseal plate. It is a result of an aberration at the growth plate, where a few cells from the plate grow centrifugally as a separate lump of bone. Ref: Apley's System of Ohopedics and Fractures, 8th Edition, Page 178; Essential Ohopaedics By J. Maheshwari, 2012, Page 240 and 3rd Edition, Page 225.
| 1 |
Growth continues after skeletal maturity
|
It is covered by cailaginous cap
|
Malignant transformation may occur
|
A veically transmitted disorder
|
Surgery
| null |
82ce7ee7-88d8-472f-ba1c-b810635abc74
|
multi
|
Gene cassette is:
|
Element Characteristic Role in spread of resistance genes Self transmissible plasmid Circular, autonomously replicating element; carries genes needed for conjugal DNA transfer Transfer of resistance genes; mobilization of other elements that carry resistance genes Conjugative transposon Integrated elements that can excise to form a non-replicating circular transfer intermediate; carries genes needed for conjugal DNA transfer Same as self-transmissible plasmid Mobilizable plasmid Circular, autonomously replicating element; carries gene that allows it to use conjugal apparatus provided by a self-transmissible plasmid Transfer of resistance genes Transposon Can move from one DNA segment to another within the same cell Can carry resistance genes from chromosome to plasmid or vice versa Gene cassette Circular, nonreplicating DNA segments containing only open reading frames; integrates into integrons Carry resistance genes Integron Integrated DNA segment that contains an integrase, a promoter, and an integration site for gene cassettes Forms clusters of resistance genes, all under the control of the integron promoter Ref: ANTIMICROBIAL AGENTS AND CHEMOTHERAPY. 1997; 41:2321-25
| 3 |
Circular, autonomously replicating element
|
Integrated elements that can excise to form a non-replicating circular transfer intermediate
|
Circular, non-replicating DNA segments containing only open reading frames
|
Integrated DNA segment that contains an integrase, a promoter, and an integration site
|
Microbiology
| null |
d216bd01-27e4-47e4-a710-2d52ebb52328
|
single
|
Ninhydrin test is used for -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amino acids Important chemicai reactions of amino acidso Fol(owing are some important chemical reactions.Reaction used to determine amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain : -Generally, amino terminal (N-tenninal) of amino acid is tagged with some reagent. It is split offby hydrolysis and tagged amino acid is identified. The reaction is, then, repeated with new N-terminal of subsequent amino acid and so on. The two reactions are used for identification of amino acid sequence : -Sanger's reaction : - Uses Sanger's reagent (1 -fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene) to tag amino terminal.Edman's reaction : - Uses Edman's reagent (phenylisothiocyanate) to tag amino terminal.Reaction used to identification of individual or group of amino acids : - These reactions are frequently used for qualitative detection and quantitative measurement of various amino acids.Xin hydrin test0 : - All a-amino acids.Xanthophoretic reaction : - Aromatic amino acids Q (Tyrosine, try ptophan, phenylalanine).Millan's test Q (Miilon-Nasse reaction): - Tyrosine Q (phenol group of tyrosine). Therefore millon's test is positive in tyrosinosis Q.Aldehyde test: - Tryptophan (indole ring)Hopkins-cole reaction : - Tryptophan (indole ring)Sakaguch's reaction : - Arginine (guanidinium group of arginine).Sulphur test: - Cysteine (sulphydryl group)Nitroprusside test: - Cysteine (sulphydryl group)Pauly's test: - Histidine (imidazole group)Biuret reaction : - Peptide bondDiazo reaction Q (Pauli's) : - Histidine or tyrosine.
| 2 |
Bile salts
|
Amino acids
|
Nucleic acid
|
Lipids
|
Biochemistry
|
Amino Acids Basics
|
2b08ef6f-6bda-495c-ba5a-1b879c12dc3a
|
single
|
How many weeks after delivery blood volume returns to pre-pregnant levels :
|
Blood volume reaches prepregnant value by 1 week postpaum after delivery Cardiac Output reaches prepregnant value by 10days postpaum after delivery Reference: William's Textbook of Obstetrics 24th edition page no 690
| 2 |
1 week
|
2 weeks
|
4 weeks
|
6 weeks
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
General obstetrics
|
e4ab8993-f5ec-4b2b-a898-60ca9293dd24
|
single
|
Apexification is the treatment of choice for a permanent tooth with wide open apex when:
|
Apexification is the process of inducing the development of the root and the apical closure in an immature pulpless tooth with an open apex.
The main aim of apexification is to preserve the Hertwig’s root sheath and apical pulp tissue.
Ref :Textbook of endodontics, Nisha Garg and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, pg no:548
| 1 |
The pulp is necrotic
|
The pulp is vital
|
The pulp and root canals are calcified
|
There is traumatic pulp exposure during cavity preparation
|
Dental
| null |
a1624d38-9b55-4d7b-bf90-f757c26fc061
|
single
|
Following surgical opening of the adductor canal, a patient experienced a loss of cutaneous sensation of the medial side of the leg. Which nerve was cut in the procedure?
|
The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve. This nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis, are the only nerves found in the adductor canal. So, it makes sense that one of these structures was injured. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve only; it supplies the skin on the medial side of the leg. The patient's symptoms, as well as the type of procedure done, both point toward an injury to the saphenous nerve. The femoral nerve does not travel in the adductor canal -- it ends by branching superior to the adductor canal, in the femoral triangle. If this nerve was injured, the quadriceps would be impaired, and the patient would have difficulty extending at the knee. The ilioinguinal nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus which innervates muscles of the lower abdominal wall. The obturator nerve innervates the medial, adductor compament of the thigh. Neither the symptoms nor the location of injury suggest that any of these other nerves were damaged.
| 4 |
Ilioinguinal
|
Femoral
|
Obturator
|
Saphenous
|
Anatomy
| null |
f893d36d-3e05-435f-9266-1dd3ab1f6ac9
|
single
|
As compared to iron deficiency anemia, which of the following is decreased in anemia of chronic disease?
|
Answer- D. TIBCMCV/MCH- Decreased or normalSerum iron- DecreasedTIBC- Decreased, normalTransferrin saturation- DecreasedSerum ferritin- Normal or increased
| 4 |
Endogenous bone marrow iron stores
|
Serum ferritin
|
Transferrin saturation
|
TIBC
|
Pathology
| null |
1ab3a016-1917-4198-b377-a2da2570beef
|
single
|
All are true about achalasia except (not related -pathology)
|
Destruction of the nerves to LES is primary pathology and degeneration of neuromuscular function of the body of esophagus is secondary. Absence of body peristalsis and poor LES relaxation is mandatory for diagnosis.
| 3 |
Dilatation of proximal segment
|
It predisposes to malignancy
|
Body peristalsis is normal
|
LES pressure is increased
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
ae202349-3f65-4b5b-a962-cff173105746
|
multi
|
All of the following are indicators of ovulation except: March 2008
|
Ans. D: Fall in body temperature Frequent physical signs indicating ovulation are: Increased body temperature LH surge Increased cervical mucus -cervical mucus is most abundant and becomes clear and slippery and stretches like egg white Change of position and firmness of cervix Abdominal cramps (Mittelschmerz) Increased libido Tender breasts
| 4 |
Increase in cervical mucus
|
Abdominal cramps
|
LH surge
|
Fall in body temperature
|
Physiology
| null |
28409d7f-9e06-44fd-917e-faf04af8e7db
|
multi
|
True statement about female genital tuberculosis:
|
Genital tuberculosis is usually secondary to primary infection (lungs, bones, lymph nodes).
It spreads by haematogenous route (not lymphatic route) leading to endosalpingitis.
Caseous granulomatous lesions with giant cells on pathological examination are suggestive of TB but is not diagnositic as it can be seen in fungal infection and sarcoidosis.
PCR is more sensitive (85–95%) than microscopy and bacteriological culture. This method can detect fewer than 10 organisms in clinical specimens compared to 10,000 necessary for smear positivity.
Reproductive outcome even after treatment is poor. Pregnancy rate is about 20%, live birth rate is only 7%. risk of miscarriae and ectopic pregnancy are high.
| 3 |
Genital tract involvement results from lymphatic spread
|
Premenstrual histopathological examination is diagnostic
|
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techniques have got higher sensitivity in detection
|
Reproductive outcome following antituberculous chemotherapy is satisfactory
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
8d1b1447-b569-4f58-9b23-e05d07f20e10
|
multi
|
The commonest cause of Renal papillary necrosis -
|
Ans- C Most common cause is DM. Renal papillary necrosis is almost always a/w with pyelonephritis(Pyelonephritis is caused by DM, Analgesic, SCA) So MCC is DM&MC association is Analgesic Nephropathy.
| 3 |
Analgesic nephropathy
|
Pyelonephritis
|
Diabetes
|
Sick cell anemia
|
Medicine
|
Chronic Kidney Disease and Uremia
|
4eb60b62-4c0e-40bd-9211-a876fe45ee2a
|
single
|
A 70-year-old nursing home patient refused the influenza vaccine and subsequently developed influenza. She died of acute pneumonia 1 week after contracting the "flu." The most common cause of acute post-influenzal pneumonia is
|
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of post-influenzal secondary bacterial pneumonia. It most often affects the elderly, although patients of any age may be afflicted. The pneumococcus as well as group A streptococci and Haemophilus influenzae may also cause pneumonia.
| 3 |
Legionella
|
Listeria
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
Klebsiella
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
fb3b8773-1504-4e61-9044-d67983ba0778
|
single
|
A patient has a surgical cause of obstructive jaundice. He is advised USG. All of the following can be detected on USG, except:
|
Ultrasound is the first radiological investigation done to evaluate obstructive or any jaundice. It is both sensitive and specific for diagnosing gallbladder stones and biliary tract dilatation.
It is able to detect the level of biliary obstruction and most of other causative pathologies. It is also very sensitive for ascites and even minimal fluid can be detected.
Peritoneal deposits could also be detected on USG, but with difficulty. CECT and MR are the preferred investigation for peritoneal deposits in that order.
| 2 |
Biliary tree obstruction
|
Peritoneal deposits
|
Gall bladder stones
|
Ascites
|
Surgery
| null |
b0e0af74-b390-4fed-9588-a9d879f63640
|
multi
|
Eruption of Deciduous Maxillary 1st molar occur at
| null | 4 |
8-9 months
|
10-11 months
|
19-20 months
|
15-16 months
|
Dental
| null |
efc7a196-d57c-40b2-b7d3-9769b6e91abf
|
single
|
Which of the following has the worst prognosis -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Infantile spasm Prognosis for normal mental development is poor.
| 4 |
Rolandic epilepsy
|
Versive epilepsy
|
Absence epilepsy
|
Infantile spasm
|
Pediatrics
| null |
5230c4c2-999a-4c5e-8aa8-e2a51d22ab50
|
single
|
Finkelstein's test is done for diagnosis of:
|
Ans: A (De quervain's tenosynovitis) Ref: Apley's System of Orthopaedics and Fractures. 9th EditionExplanation:DE QUERVAIN'S DISEASEThis condition, first described in 1895. is caused by reactive thickening of the sheath around the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons within the first extensor compartment.It may be initiatedby overuse but it also occurs spontaneously, particularly in middle-aged women, and sometimes during pregnancy.The pathognomonic sign is elicited by Finkelstein's test.The examiner places the patient's thumb across the palm in full flexion and then, holding the patienf s hand firmly, turns the wrist sharply into adduction.In a positive test this is acutely painful; repeating the movement with the thumb left free is relatively painless.Resisted thumb extension (hitch-hiker's sign) is also painful.
| 1 |
De quervain's tenosynovitis
|
Trigger finger
|
Carpel tunnel syndrome
|
Compartment syndrome
|
Orthopaedics
|
Disorders of the Hand
|
113c3118-ebd8-4525-9265-4dfb45c56e02
|
single
|
Which of the following route of infection is most responsible for lung abscess?
|
Aspiration of organisms present in oropharynx is the most common route of infection, which classically leads to anerobic lung abscess.
| 4 |
Direct inoculation
|
Inhalation of infection
|
Spread from adjacent side of infection
|
Aspiration of organisms from Oropharynx
|
Surgery
| null |
40d69fe9-44db-4b15-9e66-7bdb7b86aae1
|
single
|
Ethmoid bone forms A/E:
|
Ans. C Inferior turbinate "The inferior turbinate is a separate bone, while rest of the turbinates are a pa of ethmoidal labyrinth."
| 3 |
Superior turbinate
|
Middle turbinate
|
Interior turbinate
|
Uncinate process
|
ENT
| null |
097318ae-ed9e-4552-a3df-cf7563301b6f
|
single
|
Delirium is a disorder of: UP 08
|
Ans. Cognition
| 4 |
Thought
|
Perception
|
Insight
|
Cognition
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
8e2dc536-b946-4050-8892-2fff0f15f721
|
single
|
Local anesthetic that can cause Methemoglobinemia
|
Ans. b (Prilocaine) (Ref. KDT 5th ed., 325; Anaesthsia by Ajay Yadav 3rd ed., 218-appendix; 114)Local anesthetic is associated with the risk of Methemoglobinemia- Prilocaine.PRILOCAINE# Prilocaine is an amide type local anesthetic agent.# Safest Local Anesthetic# Metabolized in liver, kidney and lung# Maximum safest dose is 5 mg/kg with adrenaline 8 mg/kg# Most suitable for Bier's block (0.5%)# Methemoglobinemia occurs at higher dose (prilocaine is unique amongst the local anesthetic agents for its ability to reduce the blood's oxygen carrying capacity to cause clinically detectable cyanosis.)# Stored in cool place# Metabolized by pseudocholine esterase# Agent of choice in patients with history of malignant hyperthermia.# It is the first synthetic local anesthetic introduced in 1905.# Practically, it is not used today.# Prilocaine can however be used for Bier's block (or intravenous regional anaesthesia--IVRA). No serious complications have been documented.# Equipotent with lignocaine, but its duration of action is longer and it is less toxic.# It is not a surface anesthetic.Chart 1: Drug capable of inducing methemoglobinemia AcetaminophenAnti malaria drugsNitratesNitric oxidep-Aminislicylic acidChloroquineAmmonum nitrateNitrous oxideLocal anestheticsPrimaquineSilver nitratePiperazineBenzocaineQuinacrineSodium nitrateRifampinBupivacaineMethylene blueNitroglycerineRiluzoleLidocaineDapsoneNitroprussideSulfonamidesPolocainePhenacetinsBismuth subnitrateSulfasalazineEMLA*PhenazopyndineNitntesSulfamethoxazoleAnticonvusantsFlutamideAmyl nitrateSulfadiazineVaiproic acidHydroxylamineIsobutyl nitrateSulfapyridinePhenytoinOral hypoglycemicMetochlopramideNitrofurantoinSulfonesSulfanilamide
| 2 |
Ropivacaine
|
Prilocaine
|
Amethocaine
|
Bupivacaine
|
Anaesthesia
|
Local and Regional Anesthesia
|
736c4393-2b23-4527-ba3f-3194526cefac
|
single
|
Space lattice refers to:
| null | 3 |
Inter atomic movement
|
Inter atomic imbalance
|
Arrangement of atoms
|
Arrangement of molecules
|
Dental
| null |
9f1bf8c4-b5e1-474f-b17c-ee7e5467d3f9
|
single
|
Drug having proven efficacy in bipolar depression is:
|
This newer anticonvulsant is now an approved drug for bipolar disorder, but is not recommended for acute mania. It is especially useful in rapidly cycling bipolar depression. Randomized trials have demonstrated its efficacy, both as monotherapy as well as adjuvant to lithium. It carrys minimal risk of inducing mania. The tolerability profile of lamotrigine is ourable. Ref: KD Tripati 8th ed.
| 4 |
Carbamazepine
|
Valproate
|
Tiagabine
|
Lamotrigine
|
Pharmacology
|
Central Nervous system
|
f78846f9-0a46-425f-ac7d-f780b70693a8
|
single
|
Curve of Monson is
| null | 2 |
An anteroposterior curve
|
Is a lateral molar curve with convexity facing downwards
|
Is a lateral premolar curve with convexity facing upwards
|
A reverse curve
|
Dental
| null |
371782cc-f73b-42e6-b0a3-20dc9493b7d8
|
single
|
True statement about cyclooxygenase-2 is
|
Ref-KDT 6/e p185 COX-1 is a house-keeping enzvme that is responsible for the generation of gastroprotective PGs. COX-2 is an inducible enzyme whose production is markedly increased at inflammatory sites. Indomethacin is a non-selective inhibitor of both isoforms of COX.
| 2 |
It Is not inhibited by indomethacin
|
It I'd inducible
|
It generate cytoprotective prostaglandins in gastric mucosa
|
It is found only in fatal tissues
|
Anatomy
|
Other topics and Adverse effects
|
14e27b7a-6ef5-46b3-9e4a-1a61a7173f42
|
multi
|
Losartan is similar to enalapril in all of the following features except:
| null | 4 |
Anti–hypertensive efficacy
|
Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy
|
Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance
|
Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals
|
Pharmacology
| null |
e20e8239-31db-4f5b-8655-d49b1e83976f
|
multi
|
Second most common neoplasm seen in children is
|
Also called low-grade gliomas, these are the most common brain tumors in children. Medulloblastomas are the most common type of childhood brain cancer. Most medulloblastomas occur before age 10. Ependymomas are a type of childhood brain tumor that can be benign (noncancerous) or malignant (cancerous). The most common cancers of children are: Leukemia. Brain and spinal cord tumors. Neuroblastoma. Wilms tumor. Lymphoma (including both Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin) Rhabdomyosarcoma. Retinoblastoma. Bone cancer (including osteosarcoma and Ewing sarcoma) Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
| 2 |
Lyphoma
|
Brain tumor
|
Wilm's tumor
|
Neuroblastoma
|
Pediatrics
|
Central Nervous system
|
f670b943-4493-4004-88d5-52a74e841c2c
|
single
|
A patient with mitral stenosis on pre-op evaluation is detected to have elevated liver enzymes. Which inhalational anaesthetic agent will be preferred in her?
|
Xenon exhibits minimal cardiovascular and hemodynamic side effects and is not known to be metabolized in the liver or kidney. Hence Xenon will be ideal inhalational anaesthetic agent in this patient. Advantages of Xenon: It is not toxic It does not trigger malignant hypehermia It has very low blood gas solubility coefficient Very rapid induction and recovery Non explosive Environment friendly Disadvantages of Xenon: Very high cost Low potency Ref: Textbook of Anesthesia for Postgraduates By T. K. Agasti, 2011, Page 424; Miller's Anesthesia: ... edited by Ronald D. Miller, 2009, Page 640.
| 3 |
Halothane
|
Enflurane
|
Xenon
|
Sevoflurane
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
132a44e7-2905-4dbc-9dd3-8f36bd17e29a
|
single
|
A middle aged man presents to your clinic complaining of restlessness. During his time in the waiting room of your clinic you notice him to be pacing here and there through the CCTV, On visual examination he also has a noticeable hand tremor. he says that he had been taking haloperidol for his Mania, for the past two months. Which of the following condition is the patient suffering from?
|
In the above mentioned clinical scenario the patient is complaining of restlessness, tremors which are characteristic features of haloperidol induced Akathisia (HALOPERIDOL: has highest risk for causing EPS) AKATHISIA: M/C EPS DOC FOR TREATMENT: PROPRANOLOL EPS: DYSTONIA: DOC- BENZHEXOL AKATHESIA PARKINSONISM: DOC - BENZHEXOL TARDIVE DYSKINESIA: T/T VALBENAZINE MALIGNANT NEUROLEPTIC SYNDROME: DOC - DANTROLENE
| 3 |
Dystonia
|
Restless leg syndrome
|
Akathisia
|
Anhedonia
|
Pharmacology
|
CNS
|
aea427a7-f5a9-4025-b33b-6c00f105b448
|
single
|
Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness in children between 6 months to 6 years is more than ?
|
Ans. is `c' i.e., 1.0%
| 3 |
0.01%
|
0.05%
|
0.10%
|
1.00%
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
6a1fe645-5b0d-452f-ae49-5b6c753811f9
|
single
|
Mechanism of action of allopurinol: September 2005
|
Ans. A: Inhibits the synthesis of uric acid Allopurinol is a structural isomer of hypoxanthine (a naturally occurring purine in the body) and is an enzyme inhibitor, inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Xanthine oxidase is responsible for the successive oxidation of hypoxanthine and xanthine resulting in the production of uric acid, the product of human purine metabolism. In addition to blocking uric acid production, inhibition of xanthine oxidase causes an increase in hypoxanthine and xanthine, which are conveed to closely related purine ribotides adenosine and guanosine monophosphates. Increased levels of these ribotides cause feedback inhibition of amidophosphoribosyl transferase, the first and rate-limiting enzyme of purine biosynthesis. Allopurinol therefore decreases both uric acid formation and purine synthesis.
| 1 |
Inhibits the synthesis of uric acid
|
Inhibits tubular resorption of uric acid
|
Antinflammatory action
|
Increases phagocytosis of urate crystals
|
Pharmacology
| null |
dbae3155-4904-4090-a917-68d4e8ad6874
|
multi
|
What can be given to 62 years old hypertensive patient with high lipids and atherosclerosis?
| null | 2 |
Low dose aspirin
|
Amlodipin
|
Heparain
|
Digoxin
|
Pharmacology
| null |
c81ef1e8-5145-43a9-8420-d920dd845366
|
single
|
Which of the following is not true about the autistic specific disorder -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vision problems o Autism is characterized by Impaired social interaction, impaired communication, and restricted repetitive & stereotyped pattern of behavior. o Restricted repetitive stereotypes pattern of behavior is due to impaired imagination. o So, Diagnostic triad of features is : ? i) Impaired social interaction ii) Impaired communication iii) Impaired imagination o Language development is often quite delayed.
| 4 |
Impaired communication
|
Impaired imagination
|
Language developmental delay
|
Vision problems
|
Pediatrics
| null |
0574aed0-ad7f-4e5b-ad58-578814f0387d
|
multi
|
Incidence of TB in a community measured by
| null | 4 |
Mantoux test +
|
Tuberculin test +
|
Sputum culture
|
Sputum smear +
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
80b23c6f-ae4c-46b2-96d7-4dfaefd5bc1d
|
single
|
Mass prophylaxis not done in
| null | 1 |
Scabies
|
Lymphatic filariasis
|
Vitamin A deficiency
|
Worm infestation
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
73dff89e-30aa-4277-8817-2a6c47e37e1c
|
single
|
Repetitive hand washing is a symptom of
|
Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by recurrent, irresistible, intrusive, irrelevant and EGO DYSTONIC thoughts. They present with CONTAMINATION OBSESSIONS- WASHING COMPULSIONS PATHOLOGICAL DOUBT OBSESSIONS- CHECKING COMPULSIONS Patients may present with repeated doubts of wheather they have locked the door or vehicles and to counter those obsessions they do repeated checking compulsions Sometimes they may present with obsessions of contamination and fear of di and to counter those obsessions they may present with washing compulsions. Ref- Table 10.1-4, Synopsis of psychiatry, 11e, pg 423.
| 4 |
Post traumatic stress disorder
|
Depression
|
Anorexia nervosa
|
Obsessive compulsive disorder
|
Psychiatry
|
Personality disorders
|
a231329b-2741-4487-bd27-9fa5f99bdbf9
|
single
|
Krait is
|
Cobra,Krait - Neurotoxic
Viper - Hemotoxic / Vasculotoxic
Sea snake - Myotoxic
| 2 |
Myotoxic
|
Neurotoxic
|
Vasculotoxic
|
Cardiotoxic
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
cc194b9e-4540-4e44-9a2b-68d10705235a
|
single
|
Thyrotoxicosis is most commonly associated with
|
(A) Anxiety # ACUTE ANXIETY:# Physical Symptoms:> Motoric Symptoms: Tremors, Restlessness, Muscle twitches, Fearful facial expression> Autonomic & Visceral Symptoms: Palpitation, Tachycardia, Sweating, Flushes, Dyspnea, Hyperventilation, Dry mouth, Frequency and hesitancy of micturition.; Dizziness, Diarrhea, Mydriasis.> Psychic Symptoms: Cognitive Symptoms: Poor concentration, distractibility, Hyperarousal, Vigilance or scanning; Perceptual Symptoms: Derealization, Depersonalization; Affective Symptoms: Diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension, Fearfulness, Inability to relax, irritability, Feeling of impending doom (When severe);> Other Symptoms: Insomnia (initial), Exaggerated striate response.
| 1 |
Anxiety
|
Paranoid states
|
Mania
|
Delirium
|
Psychiatry
|
Miscellaneous
|
6be41dcc-54c0-419f-8a57-1f28778b5e00
|
single
|
Management of typical febrile seizure include all except:
|
Ans. D. Prophylactic PhenobarbitonePediatric febrile seizures, which represent the most common childhood seizure disorder, exist only in association with an elevated temperature. Evidence suggests, however, that they have little connection with cognitive function, so the prognosis for normal neurologic function is excellent in children with febrile seizures. Most common in children 6 months - 5 years. No specific laboratory studies are indicated for a simple febrile seizure. Physicians should instead focus on diagnosing the cause of fever. Strongly consider lumbar puncture in children younger than 12 months, because the signs and symptoms of bacterial meningitis may be minimal or absent in this age group. Neither long-term nor intermittent anticonvulsant therapy is indicated for children who have experienced 1 or more simple febrile seizures. Antipyretics have typically been suggested with a primary goal of comfort in mind
| 4 |
Tepid sponging
|
Paracetamol
|
Intermittent Clobazam prophylaxis
|
Prophylactic phenobarbitone
|
Pediatrics
|
Central Nervous System
|
62b27000-ca15-4ec9-8f22-17cd921d09bf
|
multi
|
Which of the following is associated with vasculitis of medium size vessels?
|
<img alt="" src=" />Wegener granulomatosis is a necrotising vasculitis characterised by specific triad of findings: Granulomas, Vasculitis of small to medium sized vessels, and Glomerulonephritis.
| 2 |
Temporal areritis
|
Wegners granulomatosis
|
Classic PAN
|
Tuberous sclerosis
|
Pathology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
6c18ffa1-2036-4d86-8b39-9a285cb01ef5
|
single
|
FALSE statement regarding Hirschprung disease is
|
Ans. (d) No passage of stools after per rectal examination style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: )Most cases of Hirschsprung disease are diagnosed in the newborn period. Hirschsprung disease should be considered in any newborn that fails to pass meconium within 24-48 hours of birth-option b trueDistal intestinal segment that lacks both the Meissner submucosal and the Auerbach myenteric plexus. - option a is trueProximal to aganglionic segment, colon undergoes progressive dilationRectal examination may demonstrate a tight anal sphincter and explosive discharge of stool and gas - option d is falseA rectal suction biopsy can detect hypertrophic nerve trunks and the absence of ganglion cells in the colonic submucosa, confirming the diagnosis.- option c is trueDown syndrome (trisomy 21) is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with the disease, accounting for approximately 10 percent of patients
| 4 |
Aganglionosis always involves distal rectum
|
Non passage of meconium in first 24 hours is a cardinal feature
|
Diagnosis is established by Suction rectal biopsy
|
No passage of stools after per rectal examination
|
Pathology
|
G.I.T.
|
08e6ede5-c5ee-49e0-95a6-69b2868e5d62
|
multi
|
Pregnancy is contraindicated in which of the following cardiovascular condition?
|
World Health Organization (WHO) Risk Classification of Cardiovascular Disease and Pregnancy with Management RecommendationsWHO 1--Risk no higher than general population Uncomplicated, small, or mild: Pulmonary stenosis Ventricular septal defect Patent ductus aeriosus Mitral valve prolapse with no more than tril mitral regurgitation Successfully repaired simple lesions: Ostium Secundum atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Patent ductus aeriosus Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage Isolated ventricular extrasystoles and atrial ectopic beatsWHO 2--Small increase in risk of maternal moality and morbidity If otherwise uncomplicated:Unoperated atrial septal defectRepaired Fallot tetralogyMost arrhythmiasWHO 2 or 3--Depends on individual case Mild left ventricular impairment Hyperophic cardiomyopathy Native or tissue valvular hea disease not considered WHO 4 Marfan syndrome without aoic dilation Hea transplantationWHO 3--Significantly increased risk of maternal moality or expe cardiac and obstetrical care requiredMechanical valveSystemic right ventricle--congenitally corrected transposition, simple transposition post Mustard or Senning repairPost-Fontan operationCyanotic hea diseaseOther complex congenital hea diseasesWHO 4--Very high risk of maternal moality or severe morbidity; pregnancy contraindicated and termination discussedPulmonary aerial hypeensionSevere systemic ventricular dysfunction (NYHA III-IV or LVEF <30%)Previous peripaum cardiomyopathy with any residual impairment of left ventricular functionSevere left hea obstructionMarfan syndrome with aoa dilated >40 mmReference: William's obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 49; Cardiovascular Disorders
| 1 |
Pulmonary aerial hypeension
|
Prosthetic valve
|
Mitral stenosis
|
Marfan's syndrome with aoic dilatation < 4cm
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
General obstetrics
|
ae4619e4-548d-4872-bf57-b2fabe15d3ef
|
single
|
Sero conversion in HIV In fection takes place in -
|
sero conversion is seen in acute HIV infection(within 3-6 weeks) REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.575
| 2 |
2 weeks
|
4 weeks
|
9 weeks
|
12 weeks
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
566b2296-5985-45f8-9bdd-99ff7fa0abea
|
single
|
Most common malignant tumour of minor salivary glands
| null | 2 |
Pleomorphic odenoma
|
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
|
ENT
| null |
93196ec3-ba54-4681-9e21-a2a3c59129f9
|
single
|
Daily additional requirement of protein in lactation is-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e. 25 gm The additional requirement of protein is : pregnancy -15 gm Lactation - 25 gm
| 1 |
25 gm
|
15 gm
|
35 gm
|
50 gm
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Nutrition and Health
|
9f3bace0-eb8a-4dae-b551-47ee5a302429
|
single
|
Following is true about behcet's disease except ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., It has good visual prognosis BEHCET'S DISEASE It is an idiopathic multisystem disease characterised by recurrent, non-granulomatous uveitis, aphthous ulceration, genital ulcerations and erythema multiforme. Etiology It is still unknown; the basic lesion is an obliterative vasculitis probably caused by circulating immune complexes. The disease typically affects the young men who are positive for HLA-B5 1. Clinical features Uveitis seen in Behcet's disease is typically bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis associated with hypopyon. It may also be associated with posterior uveitis, vitritis, periphlebitis retinae and retinitis in the form of white necrotic infiltrates. Treatment No satisfactory treatment is available, and thus the disease has got comparatively poor visual prognosis. Coicosteroids may by helpful initially but ultimate response is poor. In some cases the disease may be controlled by chlorambucil.
| 3 |
It shows presence of aphthous ulceration, genital ulceration and uveitis
|
Uveitis is bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis with hypopyon
|
It has good visual prognosis
|
Chlorambucil can be used to control the disease
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
52d1b719-5edc-4f95-b634-32934915851a
|
multi
|
Risser Localiser cast is used in the management of -
|
Reisser localiser cast is used in scoliosis. Other methods used are, Milwaukee brace and Boston brace. REF:Essential ohopaedics- Maheshwari - 5th edn -pg no282.
| 3 |
Kyphosis
|
Spondylolysthesis
|
Idiopathic scoliosis
|
Lordosis
|
Orthopaedics
|
Management in Orthopedics
|
9431971e-6d2d-46eb-ab10-a60682af0ef5
|
single
|
In which cause of jaundice there is no bilirubin excretion in urine-
|
Ans is 'd' i.e. Hemolytic jaundice o Hemolysis results in unconjugated haperbillirubinemia. Unconjugated bilirubin is highly lipid soluble (lipophilic). It is insoluble in water and tightly bound to albumin - cannot be excreted in urine.o All other options lead to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated bilirubin is water soluble and only loosely bound to albumin and thus is easily filtered by glomeruli and excreted in urine.
| 4 |
Obstructive jaundice
|
Primary billiary cirrhosis
|
Extrahepatic billiary atresia
|
Hemolytic jaundice
|
Pathology
|
Liver
|
8ab06e64-3782-433e-885b-fb34488833fb
|
single
|
Normal cardiac index in an adult is:-
|
Cardiac index: - Experiments have shown that the cardiac output increase approximately in propoion to the surface area of the body. Therefore - cardiac output is frequently stated in terms of the cardiac index, which is cardiac output per square meter of body surface area. - The avg. Human being who weight 70 kg has a BSA of about 1.7 sq. meter. Which means that the normal average cardiac index for adults is about 3 L / min / M2 of BSA.
| 3 |
5.9 L/min/M2
|
2.3 L/min/M2
|
3.2 L/min/M2
|
4.6 L/min/M2
|
Physiology
|
JIPMER 2018
|
053b8b22-f35d-4129-aa79-ba03051ebc6f
|
single
|
Most important indicator of air pollution is:
|
Ans. a.SO2 Chemical indicator of air pollution:Sulfur Dioxide: Best indicator of Air Pollution.Smoke or soiling index: Air strain in a filter paper measured through photoelectric meter.Grit and dust measurementAir pollution indexSoiling indexCoefficient of hazeBiological indicator of air pollution: Lichens
| 1 |
SO2
|
CO2
|
CO2
|
N2O
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Epidemiology
|
b19ae3d3-5d4a-4dfd-b4fa-0891222c16ba
|
single
|
Destruction of zona glomerulosa will deplete
|
The zona glomerulosa makes up 15% of the mass of the adrenal gland; the zona fasciculata, 50%; .and the zona reticularis, 7%. All three coical zones secrete coicosterone, but the active enzymatic mechanism for aldosterone biosynthesis is limited to the zona glomerulosa, whereas the enzymatic mechanisms for forming coisol and sex hormones are found in the two inner zones. Fuhermore, subspecialization occurs within the inner two zones, the zona fasciculata, secreting mostly glucocoicoids and the zona reticularis, secreting mainly sex hormones. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 338
| 1 |
Aldosterone
|
Coisol
|
Testosterone
|
Catecholamines
|
Physiology
|
Renal physiology
|
bace6563-9852-45e3-bf59-e335080d3ca5
|
single
|
A 37-yr-old man in DKA has yellowish papules scattered over his trunk and extremities. A tube of plasma that is collected from the patient develops a turbid supernate. This is consistent with which type of hyperlipoproteinemia?
|
The patient most likely has a type V hyperlipoproteinemia, which is associated with eruptive xanthomas secondary to increased triacylglycerol. Type V hyperlipoproteinemia is a combination of type I, characterized by elevated chylomicrons, and type IV, characterized by increased very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL). Diabetic ketoacidosis and alcoholism are two of the most common factors that promote type V hyperlipoproteinemia. The absence of insulin characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis decreases capillary lipoprotein lipase activity, so neither chylomicrons nor VLDL are properly metabolized in the liver. The increased triacylglycerol concentration that results from the accumulation of chylomicrons and VLDL in the blood produces a turbid specimen. Because chylomicrons have the lowest density, they form a turbid supranate in plasma left at 4degC overnight. The density of VLDL is slightly higher than that of chylomicrons, so it forms a turbid infranate. Presence of a supranate and infranate, as in this case, indicates type V hyperlipoproteinemia. A supranate without an infranate occurs in type I hyperlipoproteinemia, and an infranate without a supranate occurs in type IV hyperlipoproteinemia. Another feature of type V disease is hyperchylomicronemia. Clinical features include eruptive xanthomas caused by the deposition of triacylglycerol in the subcutaneous tissue. Once the triacylglycerol concentration is reduced, the xanthomas disappear. Ref : 320
| 4 |
Type I
|
Type IIa
|
Type III
|
Type V
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of lipid
|
01fef53c-7391-48f0-bb6c-1e8f60a66eb9
|
single
|
Inclusion body in neuron is seen in
| null | 4 |
Diphtheria
|
Yellow fever
|
Japanese encephalitis
|
Rabies
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
dd991ada-46b8-4a13-9869-ae4035e77103
|
single
|
The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is
|
GLUCOSE-ALANINE CYCLE 1. Skeletal muscle transpos NH3 to the Liver in the form of the amino acid 'alanine'. The alanine is formed in the muscle tissue by a transamination reaction between pyruvate (PA) and glutamate. 2. The alanine is transpoed through the bloodstream to the liver, where it reacts with a-ketoglutarate to reform Pyruvate and glutamate. This reaction is catalysed by alanine transaminase. 3. The nitrogen originating from the glutamate is processed by the urea cycle. 4. When the blood glucose is low, the Pyruvate resulting from alanine transamination is used to make glucose the gluconeogenesis pathway. 5. The glucose can be returned to the skeletal muscle to supply quick energy. Thus, the transpo of alanine from muscle to Liver results in a reciprocal transfer of glucose to muscle. The entire cyclical process is referred to as the "glucose-alanine cycle" (Fig. 27.5). Its impoance is propoional to the muscular activity of the organism. It is to be noted that active muscle tissue operates anaerobically, producing large quantities of Pyruvate (PA) and consuming large quantities of glucoseRef: M.N. Chatterjea - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 483
| 1 |
Alanine
|
Methionine
|
Arginine
|
Glutamine
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
|
4cdd1cf5-9e7d-4ec0-b6ab-d5a7bd1728cc
|
single
|
Asymptomatic carriage of gonococcal infection in female is commonly seen in :
|
Endocervix
| 1 |
Endocervix
|
Vagina
|
Urethra
|
Fornix
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
537d7669-13fa-4a62-87d0-9a9aec670014
|
single
|
Which of the following is the earliest warning sign of Magnesium Sulphate toxicity?
|
Ans. B. Loss of DTRs. (Ref Textbook of Obstetrics D.C. Dutta 6th ed, 229)SEIZURE PROPHYLAXIS IN PIH - MAGNESIUM SULFATE# Is not a hypotensive agent# Works as a centrally acting anticonvulsant# Also blocks neuromuscular conduction# Serum levels: 6-8 mg/dL# Magnesium sulfate # Monitor urine output and DTR's- Cervical dilatation of 3 to 5 cm or more, in the presence of uterine contractions, can be taken to reliably represent the threshold for active labor.# With renal dysfunction, may require a lower doseToxicity# Respiratory rate < 12 (respiratory depression develops when levels go lOmEg/L)# DTR's not detectable (earliest warning sign of toxicity =/< 10 mEq/L)# Altered sensorium# Urine output < 25-30 cc/hour# Respiratory paralysis arrest ( 3 12 mEq/L)# Antidote: 10 ml of 10% solution of calcium gluconate IV over 3 minutes- The therapeutic level of serum magnesium is 4-7 mEq/L.- The normal level of serum (blood) magnesium is 1.5 - 2.0 mEq/L (1-2 mg/dl).Hypertension in pregnancy CommentsRxGestational hypertension (pregnancy-induced hypertension)BP > 140/90 mmHg after the 20th week of gestation. No preexisting hypertension. No proteinuria or end-organ damage.Treatment: antihypertensives (a- methyldopa, labetalol, hydralazine, nifedipine), deliver at 39 weeks.Preeclampsia- Defined as hypertension (> 140/90 mmHg) and proteinuria (> 300 mg/24 hr) after 20th week of gestation to 6 weeks postpartum (< 20 weeks suggests molar pregnancy).Severe features include BP > 160/110 mmHg with or without end-organ damage, e.g., headache, scotoma, oliguria,*AST/ ALT, thrombocytopenia.- Caused by abnormal placental spiral arteries, results in maternal endothelial dysfunction, vasoconstriction, or hyperreflexia.- Incidence<<in patients with preexisting hypertension, diabetes chronic renal disease, or autoimmune disorders.- Complications: placental abruption, coagulopathy, renal failure, uteroplacental insufficiency, or eclampsia.Antihypertensives, deliver at 34 weeks (severe) or 37 weeks (mild), IV magnesium sulfate to prevent seizure.EclampsiaPreeclampsia + maternal seizures. Maternal death due to stroke*intracranial hemorrhage or ARDS.Antihypertensives, IV magnesium sulfate, immediate delivery.
| 2 |
Respiratory rate < 12
|
Loss of DTRs
|
Altered sensorium
|
Urine output < 25-30 cc/hour
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
|
b33d18fa-8ae2-4d27-be3a-dfc057db28ae
|
single
|
Sterilization & disinfection of blood spills is done by-
|
.<p>hypochlorites are the most widely used chlorine disinfectants.sodium hypochlorite is available as a liquid.aqueous solutions of this of 5.25 to 6.15 percent is called "house bleach".they have a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity.do not leave toxic residues,are unaffected by hardness of water are inexpensive and fast acting remove driede or fixed organisms and biofilms from surfaces.</p><p>ref;park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22 nd edition,pg no 120</p>
| 2 |
Fordaldehyde
|
Sodium Hypochlorite
|
Tincture iodine
|
Phenols
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Epidemiology
|
f7a51d16-7574-46a5-b45d-ce6465767ed7
|
single
|
Strasberg'e class 'B' bile injury means
|
Strasberg classification of Laparoscopic Biliary injuries Type A- Bile leaks from minor ducts still in continuity with the CBD Includes leakage from cystic duct stump and from a subvesical duct of Luschka. MC cause of biliary leaks seen after cholecystectomy. Type B- Occlusion of a pa of the biliary tree, almost always an aberrant right sectoral duct Type C- Transection without ligation of an aberrant right sectoral duct. Type D- A lateral injury to an extrahepatic duct. Type E- Includes biliary strictures, divided into E1 to E5 as classified by Bismuth Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1502
| 2 |
Bile leak from a minor duct
|
Occlusion of a branch of biliary tree
|
Injury of bile duct not in communication with CBD
|
Circumferential injury to major bile ducts
|
Anatomy
|
G.I.T
|
54c9f07f-61d3-41d5-8e40-5be92df848af
|
single
|
In a Down's syndrome patient posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is -
|
Description:Congenital hea disease affects ~40%. In paicular, defects affecting the endocardial cushion are common: * atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD): considered the commonest cardiac defect associated with Down syndrome * ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD) * ventricular septal defect (VSD)
| 2 |
CT Brain
|
Echocardiography
|
Ultrasound Abdomen
|
X-ray cervical spine
|
Radiology
|
Cardiovascular system
|
a6472218-4e6d-43a3-b1d5-15e33678b9a7
|
single
|
A patient, Rama was diagnosed to be having febrile convulsions in the paediatric emergency. Which of the following can be used for the treatment of this patient?
|
Diazepam is the drug of choice for febrile convulsions. It is administered intravenously. If i.v. access is not possible, rectal diazepam can be used. Diazepam can be given to counter the overdose of local anesthetic drug
| 3 |
Intramuscular phenobarbitone
|
Intravenous phenytoin
|
Rectal diazepam
|
Oral sodium valproate
|
Pharmacology
|
Epilepsy
|
be1c7d7a-a00e-495d-be7b-5dab4653b2df
|
single
|
A 28-year-old woman has noticed increasing lower limb swelling and shortness of breath. She has a 2-year history of facial rash, hair loss, arthralgias, and thrombocytopenia. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse 80/min, there is a maculopapular rash on her face, JVP is 4 cm, heart sounds normal, lungs clear, and there is pedal and periorbital edema. Her creatinine is very high, a urinalysis reveals many RBCs and RBC casts. A renal biopsy is performed.For the above patient with GN, select the most likely diagnosis on renal biopsy.
|
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause a wide variety of renal disorders, and can progress to ESRF. Because of the active urine sediment this individual has a proliferative GN. It is difficult to diagnose the type of glomerular involvement in SLE without a biopsy. Based on the biopsy results lupus nephritis (LN) is divided into 6 classes (WHO classification). Class I, minimal mesangial LN; Class II, mesangial proliferative LN; Class III, focal LN; Class TV, diffuse segmental LN; Class V, membranous LN; and Class VI, advanced sclerosing LN.
| 1 |
diffuse proliferative GN
|
crescentic GN
|
focal proliferative GN
|
membranoproliferative GN
|
Medicine
|
Oncology
|
65d81b9b-ae6c-463e-bb27-79ded6e9b665
|
multi
|
Calcitonin is secreted by:
|
Calcitonin is primarily secreted by the parafollicular C cells of the Thyroid gland. It is a hormone secreted in response to elevated blood calcium. It stimulates calcium deposition in bone and calcium excretion by the kidneys, thus reducing blood calcium. Ref: Essentials of Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th, Edition, Page 301; Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition, Page 393.
| 1 |
Thyroid gland
|
Parathyroid gland
|
Adrenal glands
|
Ovaries
|
Physiology
| null |
c0f6a487-ef21-4258-84cd-34cce9eeca70
|
single
|
Spasmolytic analgesic is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dicyclomineo Antispasmodic (spasmolytic) drugs are used in various colic (pain) e.g. abdominal colic or renal colic,o Among the given options, dicyclomine is spasmolytic.Antispasmodic drugsi) Quaternary compounds - Propantheline, Oxyphenonium, Clidinium, Pipenzolate, Methylbromide, Isopropamide, Glycopyrrolate.ii) Tertiary amines - Dicyclomine, Valethamate, Pirenzepine.iii) Vasoselective antispasmodic (drugs acting on urinary bladder) - Oxybutynin, Tolterodine, flavoxate.iv) Drotaverine
| 1 |
Dicyclomine
|
Physostigmine
|
Tropicamide
|
None
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti Cholinergic
|
03cc66cb-db6a-4807-a819-dd81cfc47056
|
multi
|
Most radiosensitive organ is: March 2005
|
Ans. C: Bone Marrow Most radiosensitive organs: Bone marrow Gonads Growing cailage Prepubescent breast Organs with lowest radiosensitivity: Adrenal Vagina Uterus Pancreas
| 3 |
Liver
|
Fat
|
Bone marrow
|
Nervous tissue
|
Radiology
| null |
a5feccf0-0284-490a-aaef-c823fb9571d9
|
single
|
Which of the following is true about pasteurization
|
Pasteurization
Is a method for sterilization of milk.
It is defined as the heating of every particle of milk or milk product to a specific temperature for a specific period of time without allowing recontamination of that milk or milk product.
Two methods are commonly used.-
Holder method → 63°c for 30 minutes.
Flash method → 72°c for 15-20 seconds
"Pasteurization kills nearly 90% of the bacteria in milk including the more heat resistant tubercle bacillus and the fever organisms. But it will not kill thermoduric bacteria nor the bacterial spores." - PSM Park 19th/e
| 2 |
It kills all bacteria and spores
|
It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria
|
It kills 95% of microorganisms
|
All bacteria are destroyed
|
Microbiology
| null |
82453b04-7dd9-4355-8058-16ed3618b3c7
|
multi
|
Which is not seen in hyperventilation?
|
(D) Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia # Alkalemia associated with hypocapnia may produce neurologic symptoms, including dizziness, visual impairment, syncope, and seizure activity (secondary to cerebral vasoconstriction); paresthesia, carpopedal spasm, and tetany (secondary to decreased free serum calcium); and muscle weakness (secondary to hypophosphatemia); and may be associated with panic attacks.> Severe alkalemia can also induce cardiac arrhythmias and evidence of myocardial ischemia.> Patients with a primary respiratory alkalosis are also prone to periodic breathing and central sleep apnea.
| 4 |
Seizures
|
Alkalosis
|
Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
|
Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
|
Medicine
|
Miscellaneous
|
18ac518e-d5b9-405d-8162-614bcd9bc5f5
|
single
|
Foamy liver is found in
|
(Putrefaction) (3.25-P)PUTREFACTION - Liver becomes softened and flaby* Owing to the evolution of gases in its substances. It becomes spongy and present a honey- combed appearance (foamy or Swiss Cheese liver)* The patch of greenish discolouration appears early and gradually extends to the whole organ which ultimately becomes black.
| 2 |
Drowning
|
Putrefaction
|
Adipocere
|
Abortion
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Death and Investigations
|
ba0604a1-47d9-4acd-b884-d2a84864a0cc
|
single
|
A 25-year-old male presents with weakness, occasional vomiting hypotension, skin and mucous membrane pigmentation. The diagnosis can be best established by -
| null | 4 |
Metyrapone test
|
Basal plasma cortisol levle
|
24- hour urinary 17-Ketosteroid
|
ACTH stimulation test
|
Medicine
| null |
fb2ef70e-1351-452a-b627-7f47fbd2afd9
|
single
|
Child changes a rattle from one hand to another at the age of -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 6 months o A child can transfer objects from one hand to the other by 5-7 months.
| 2 |
3 months
|
6 months
|
9 months
|
1 year
|
Pediatrics
| null |
edcbc917-9db5-4974-ac33-40bc5b7bede1
|
single
|
Radiographically the level of normal interproximal alveolar crest corresponds to
| null | 2 |
Epithelial attachment
|
CEJ of adjacent teeth
|
DEJ
|
Gingival margin
|
Dental
| null |
2af8fa8a-33c8-4d6b-9d12-35a5139e9756
|
multi
|
Prozone phenomenon is a feature is-
| null | 4 |
Tularemia
|
Legionnaires' disease
|
Plague
|
Brucellosis
|
Microbiology
| null |
0d56e79d-6121-4109-9575-90f5fbe49084
|
single
|
Initial screening test for the auditory function in neonates
|
Ans. b. Otoacoustic Emissions The screening investigation of high-risk neonates in ICU for suspected hearing loss is otoacoustic emissions. Uses of OAE Screening test of hearing in neonatesQ Help to differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear lesionsQ Used to diagnose retrocochlear pathologies especially auditory neuropathyQ
| 2 |
Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)
|
Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)
|
Free Field Audiometry
|
Visual reinforcement audiometry
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
81382d2f-9055-4854-bb09-d421b6d6216f
|
single
|
Most common site of thyroglossal cyst is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Subhyoid Thyroglossal cyst* It is cystic swelling developed in the remnant of the thyroglossal duct or tract* Site - It may be present in any part of the thyroglossal tract (thyroglossal tract extends from foramen caecum to the isthmus of thyroid)* Common sites are:# Subhyoid (most common)# In the region of the thyroid cartilages,# Suprahyoid# In the floor of mouth# Beneath the foramen caecum* It is a midline swelling, except in the region of the thyroid cartilage, where the thyroglossal tract is pushed to one side, usually to the left.* Though its a congenital swelling most common age of presentation is between 2 to 4 yrs.* Mobility - Cyst can be moved sideways but not vertically* Peculiar characterstic which helps in distinguishing thyroglossal cyst from other neck swelling# It moves up with protrusion of tongue* as the thyroglossal tract is attached to the tongue.# It also moves with degluttionso do all thyroid swellings, subhyoid bursitis, sublingual desmoid.* Cyst is lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium and squamous epithelium with hetrotopic thyroid tissue present in 20% of cases..* Complications# Recurrent infection,# formation of thyroglossal fistula# carcinomatous change (usually Papillary carcinoma).* Treatment: Treatment involves the uSistrunk operation" which consists ofenbloc cystectomy and excision of the central hyoid bone to minimize recurrence.
| 1 |
Subhyoid
|
Suprahyoid
|
Floor of mouth
|
Beneath foramen caecum
|
Surgery
|
Thyroid Gland
|
06e38976-c73a-44d1-9022-c0d4e582304c
|
single
|
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