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Which of the following statements about Pancreatic Carcinoma is not true :
Answer is C (Median Survival in locally advanced (stage III) disease is 3- 6 months) Median survival of locally advanced (Stage III) disease is 6-10 months and not 3-6 months. Median survival of 3-6 months is a feature of Metastatic Stage IV disease. Median survival in locally advanced disease (stage III) is 6 - 10 months Metastatic disease (stage IV) is associated with a median survival of 3 - 6 months. Stage III locally advanced disease is associated with a median survival of 6 - 10 months Clinical / Radiological Criteria Median Survival Resectable Disease (Stage I and Stage II) 15 - 20 months Locally Advanced Disease (Stage III) 6 - 10 months Metastatic Disease (Stage IV) 3 - 6 months p53 mutation is seen in 75% of cases of Pancreatic cancer Gene Pancreatic Cancer% Colorectal Cancer (%) * P16 95 0 * K - ras 90 50 * P53 75 60 * DPC4 55 15 * BRCA 2 7 ? Taken from Gastrointestinal and Liver disease' by Feldman 81 /1312 Hereditary Pancreatitis significantly increases the risk of Pancreatic Cancer 'One of the most impoant genetic factors in pancreatic carcinoma is hereditary pancreatitis. Affected patients have an abnormal trypsin gene that is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. Their risk of development of pancreatic cancer by age 70 years is estimated at 40%' - 'Gastrointestinal and Liver Diseases' by Feldman 8th / 1309 Five Year Survival after curative Pancreaticoduodenectomy approaches 15 -20%. Overall 5-year survival rate with pancreatic cancer is 5% 5 - year survival rate for patients undergoing curative tumor resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is 15% - 20% Note Only 10% of pancreatic cancers are diagnosed at on early stage when radical resection with curative intent can be performed. - 'Pathophysiology of Disease (Lange) 5th /454'
3
Mutation in P53 gene is associated in 75% of cases
Hereditary Pancreatitis significantly increases the risk
Median survival in locally advanced (stage III) disease is 3- 6 months
Five year survival after curative pancreaticoduodenectomy is 15 - 20%
Medicine
null
2b12b6ca-98ff-42a1-b87b-9858a7a1a034
multi
Rhabdomyosarcoma histologic variant with ourable prognosis is:
The prognosis for rhabdomyosarcoma is related to the site of origin, resectability, presence of metastases, number of metastatic sites, and histopathologic features. Primary sites associated with more orable prognoses include the orbit and nonparameningeal head and neck, paratestis and vagina (nonbladder, nonprostate genitourinary), and the biliary tract. Patients with tumors Tumor histologic type influences prognosis; the embryonal variant is a orable type, whereas the alveolar type has an unorable prognosis. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39.
1
Embryonal
Alveolar
Mixed
Prognosis is equally bad in all
Surgery
null
fe89aa29-6bc3-49d8-86d1-db46064275fe
multi
The willful failure of parent or guardian to seek and follow-through with treatment necessary to ensure a level of oral health essential for adequate function and freedom from pain and infection is a definition of:
Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a condition in which a person, usually a parent, presents factitious  symptoms and illnesses in a child, which may result in extensive testing and/or hospitalizations. Examples of emotional abuse include denial of affection, isolation, extreme threats, and corruption. A  parent who knowingly and willingly does not seek care for a child who has pain, infection or  inadequate function is guilty of neglect.
4
Munchausen syndrome by proxy
Emotional abuse
Parental corruption
Neglect
Dental
null
ae94c6db-a7b3-4f01-bd5e-08e5bc0cfdbb
single
A 19-year-old man has early fatigue and muscle cramps while playing sports. He is fine when walking or doing light levels of work. On examination, he appears well and the muscle strength in the proximal muscles is normal. There is no muscle fatigue with repetitive arm grip exercises. After an exercise stress test, his serum creatine kinase (CK) is elevated and lactate level is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
There are many types of glycogen storage diseases, each caused by a different enzymatic abnormality. The best-known types of glycogen storage disease are those that have hepatic-hypoglycemic pathophysiology (e.g., von Gierke's disease) or those that have muscle energy pathophysiology (McArdle's disease). In McArdle's symptoms usually develop in adulthood, and it is marked by cramps and muscle injury with strenuous exercise, but not with usual activities. Gaucher's and Tay-Sachs disease are lysosomal storage diseases.
3
Gaucher's disease
Tay-Sachs disease
McArdle's disease (glycogen storage disease)
hemochromatosis
Medicine
Endocrinology
54da3c6d-a661-484d-9279-022019438fdd
single
Anterior ethmoidal nerve suplies all except:
Maxillary sinus Maxillary sinus is not supplied by ant. ethmoidal nerve.Anterior ethmoidal nerve is the branch of the nasociliary nerve; a branch of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve.Ant. ethmoidal nerve supplies- Dura mater of ant. cranial fossa- Ethmoidal sinuses- Roof of the nasal cavity- Anterior pa of the lateral wall of nasal cavity- Anterior and upper pas of the nasal septum- Skin of the external nose to the nasal tip.
1
Maxillary sinus
Interior of nasal cavity
Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
Ethmoidal air cells
Anatomy
null
e8af01ad-e3e3-4544-a313-f88928f08c6d
multi
The following is a feature of Korsakoff's psychosis:
Ans. a. ConfabulationRef: Kaplan Step 2 CK Lecture Notes 2018 of Psychiatry;WERNICKE VERSUS KORSAKOFF SYNDROMES Wernicke syndromesKorsakoff syndromesCourseAcuteChronicReversibilityYesNoPresentationAtaxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegiaConfusion, psychosis, anterograde and retrograde amnesiaTreatmentThiamineThiamine
1
Confabulation
Encephalopathy
Ophthalmoplegia
Hallucination
Psychiatry
Substance Abuse
423e6a9e-f87c-4e18-aeea-495921755f0a
multi
Parklands formula used for Burn's resuscitation is:
a. 4mL/kg/%TBSA(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 572, Ghai 8/e p 294-295)For most children with burns, the Parkland formula is an appropriate starting guideline for fluid resuscitation.According to it, 4mL lactated Ringer solution/kg/% BSA burned is usedHalf of the fluid is given over 1st 8 hr, calculated from the time of onset of injury; remaining over next 16 hours.
1
4 mL/kg/% TBSA
5 mL/kg/% TBSA
6 mL/kg/% TBSA
8 mL/kg/% TBSA
Pediatrics
Fluid and Electrolyte Treatment of Specific Disorders
fbdfe4a7-e0a4-4921-8839-4f32762a2187
single
Maximum reabsorption of water occurs in which part ofkidney-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Proximal convoluted tubule o Most of the solutes and water are maximally absorbed in proximal tubule :-i) 60-70% of Na+ is reabsorbed along with 60-70% of Cl-ii) 60-70% of K+ is reabsorbediii) 60-70% of water is reabsorbediv) All the (100%) glucose and amino-acids are absorbedv) About 80-90% of bicarbonate is reabsorbedvi) 40-50% of urea is reabsorbed
1
Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Cortical collecting duct
Medullary collecting duct
Physiology
Renal Tubular Reabsorption and Secretion
3cb4fd57-44c2-40be-b099-40f87ad9cecb
single
A woman is said to be have Menorrhagia in case the menstrual blood loss is MORE than what quantity?
Ans. D. 80mlMenorrhagia is a term widely used for the loss of more than 80ml of blood per cycle and frequently producing anemia. Predictors of menorrhagia includes bleeding that leads to anemia with deficiency of iron or a need of transfusion, passage of clots more than 1-inch diameter and changing pad or tampon more than hourly.Normal menstrual bleeding last for an average of 5 days' span with a mean blood loss of about 40ml.Menorrhagia: Bleeding between periods.Polymenorrhea: Bleeding occurs more often than every 21 days.Oligomenorrhea: Bleeding occurs less frequently than every 35 days.
4
20 ml
40 ml
60 ml
80 ml
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Obs)
27c2f88e-3f2a-4d64-b5b3-430f34a8d72f
single
An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is:
Answer is C (Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance) 'Patients with monoclonal gammopathy of unceain significance have < 10% bone marrow plasma cells, and < 3g / dl of M component', Presence of 8% bone marrow plasma cells and 1.5 gm/dl of M component in the form of IgG in this patient thus lead us to the above diagnosis. Plasma cell dyscrasia : Monoclonal gammopathies : Paraproteinemias : dysproteinemias These are monoclonal neoplasms characterized by expansion of a single clone of immunoglobulin secreting cells (plasma cells) and result in increase in serum levels of a single homogenous 'immunoglobulin' or - its fragments (light chains or heavy chains). The most impoant differential diagnosis in patients with multiple myeloma involves their distinction from individuals with MGUS or Benign monoclonal gammopathy: Parameters Multiple myeloma Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance I. Age Q > 50 years > 50 years 2. Incidence Q Less common More common 3. Plasma cells Q (%age) > 10% < 10% 4. M component Q (concentration : g/dl) > 3g/dl < 3g/di 5. Benze Jones Q proteins Present No urinary Bence Jones proteins 6. Clinical features Q Lytic bones lesions Hypercalcemia Renal failure Anemia No Lytic bony lesionsQ No hypercalcemiaQ No renal failuree No anemiae 7. Labelling index Q (Thymidine) > 1% < 1% 8. Plasma cell - acid phosphatase - glucoronidase High High Low Low 9. Treatment Required No therapy required Woldenstorm's macroglobulinemia: is also a monoclonal gammopathy and is characterized by neoplasm of lymphoplasma cytoid cells that secrete IgM M component is only IgM and not IgG.
3
Multiple myeloma
Indolent myeloma
Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
Waldenstorm's macroglobulinemia
Medicine
null
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single
Thymoma with hypogammaglobulinemia is also known as:
Thymoma with hypogammaglobulinemia : Good's syndrome. The Capgras syndrome is a disorder in which a person thinks that a friend, spouse, parent, or other close family member has been replaced by an identical impostor. Fregoli syndrome is the delusional belief that one or more familiar persons, usually persecutors following the patient, repeatedly change their appearance. Alice-in-Wonderland syndrome also known as Todd's syndrome or lilliputian hallucinations, is a disorienting neurological condition that affects human perception. Sufferers may experience micropsia, macropsia, or size distoion of other sensory modalities. Ref: Harrison, E-18, Chapter e-20.
1
Goods syndrome
Capgras syndrome
Fregoli syndrome
Todd syndrome
Medicine
null
c63c1764-d2d5-42d6-a23c-c730d0a1a53a
single
Mee's line on nail is diagnostic of ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Arsenic poisoning Chronic arsenic poisoning First stage of gastrointestinal & nutritional disturbance: Gradual emaciation is earliest sign Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea & abdominal cramps Second catarrhal stage Features of common cold, bronchial catarrhal, coughing & hoarseness Third stage of skin rash Skin irritation, vesicular eruption resembling nettle rash Patchy brown raindrop type pigmentation Hyperkeratosis of palms & soles Falling of hair & brittleness of nail White transverse band or Mee's line on nail Fouh stage of nervous disturbance Sensory motor neuropathy causing tingling, numbness & paresis Encephalopathy Bone marrow suppression, anemia, weight loss, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, nephritis, thrombocytopenia, leukemia, skin, lung, liver, bladder & kidney cancer and exfoliative dermatitis & diabetes.
2
Lead poisoning
Arsenic poisoning
White phosphorus poisoning
Mercury poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Most common organism causing meningitis in a 1 year old child is:
The common organisms causing acute bacterial meningitis in the neonatal period are E.coli, Streptococcus pneumonia, Salmonella species, Pseudomonas aeruoginosa, Streptococcus fecalis and Staphylococcus aureus. Ref: Ghai Essential Pediatris - 6th Edition, Page 517; Nelson 17th Edition, Page 2308.
1
Streptococcus pneumoniae
H. influenza
Listeria
Neisseria meningitidis
Pediatrics
null
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All are TRUE about alpo syndrome, EXCEPT:
Alpo syndrome in its classic form is a hereditary nephropathy associated with 1. Sensorineural hearing loss and 2. Ocular manifestations. The characteristic renal features is persistent microscopic hematuria appearing in early childhood. Proteinuria is often absent in the early stages of the disease, but increases progressively with age and a nephrotic syndrome may develop. Renal failure occurs in all affected males, and in most cases during the third or fouh decade. Juvenile AS is defined as mean age at onset of ESRD <=30 years, and adult AS as mean age at onset of ESRD >30 years. Ref: Dan Med Bull 2009; 56:105-52.
4
Hereditary nephropathy
Sensorineural hearing loss
Microscopic hematuria during early childhood
Renal failure occurs in 50% of affected males
Medicine
null
dedf5d3f-537b-4ee0-8588-98e17aed9a64
multi
Tuberculin positive means?
A positive reaction to tuberculin test is generally accepted as evidence of past or present infection by M.tuberculosis. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 195
3
Immunodeficient patient
Resistance to tuberculin protein
Patient is infected with mycobacterium
Patient is suffering from disease
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
5001b8c0-07ab-4be3-8d23-4ab264bd013d
single
Splenectomy is contraindicated in which of the following haemolytic anemia:
Stomatocytosis: This rare condition with autosomal dominant inheritance draws its name (mouth-like cells) from the fact that the normally round-shaped central pallor of red cells is replaced by a linear-shaped central pallor. Hemolysis is usually relatively mild. Splenectomy is contraindicated as it has been followed in a majority of cases by severe thromboembolic complications. Ref: Harrison's principle of internal medicine 17th Edition, Chapter 101.
1
Stomatocytosis
Elliptocytosis
Sickle cell disease
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
A 13-year-old boy present with acute onset right scrotal pain. The pain is not relieved on the elevation of the scrotum and he has no fever or dysuria. The testis is enlarged and tender. His routine urinary examination is normal. There is no history of trauma. Which of the following is the most appropriate management -
This is a case of torsion of the testis. Torsion of the testis is a surgical emergency and needs immediate exploration if it cannot be relieved by manipulation.
1
Immediate exploration
Antibiotics
Psychiatric evaluation
Antibiotics and scrotal elevation
Surgery
null
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single
Brodmann Area no. constitutes Wernicke’s area of speech
Wernicke’s area is sensory speech centre of brain. It is constituted by area no 22-auditory association area. Area no 39-angular gyrus and Area no 40-supramarginal gyrus.
4
41, 42, 22
22, 42, 39
42, 41, 44
22, 39, 40
Anatomy
null
8ed8ad41-652c-4688-99cb-534741d18a0a
single
IVC pierces the diaphgram at what vertebral level -
Venacaval opening -        Level- T8 -        At the central tendon of diaphragm -        Structures transmitted- o   Inferior vena cava o   Right phrenic nerve
2
T6
T8
T10
T12
Anatomy
null
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single
Intravenous furosemide is used for rapid control of symptoms in acute left ventricular failure. It provides quick relief of dyspnoea by:
Furosemide is a high ceiling diuretic. Its major mode of benefit in acute pulmonary edema is vasodilation. Due to its vasodilatory action, it shifts the fluid from pulmonary to systemic circulation. This results in the rapid relief of symptoms Diuretic action develops later.
3
Producing bronchodilation
Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume
Causing vasodilation
Stimulating left ventricular contractility
Pharmacology
Kidney
400e3f59-bb9b-4b87-ae1f-9b63d7690b13
single
All are true lepromatous leprosy except –
Granuloma is seen in tuberculoid leprosy. Skin and nerve biopsies in leprosy show i) Tuberculoid granuloma → In tuberculoid leprosy. ii) Diffuse macrophage infiltration loaded with bacilli in the faun of cigar bundles called globi → In lepronzatous leprosy. Subepidermal zone of grenz is free of infiltrate (free subepidermal grenz zone) in Lepromatous leprosy. In tuberculoid leprosy subepidermal grenz zone is infiltrated No free subepidermal grenz zone. Lepromatous leprosy has maximally depressed cell mediated immunity.
4
Presence of globi
Subepidermal free zone
Decreased cell mediated immunity
Presence of granulomas subdermally
Dental
null
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multi
Chassar Moir technique is used in:
Techniques for repairing VVF: Layer Technique Latzko procedure (for fistulas following hysterectomy) Chassar moir technique
1
VVF
Stress incontinence
Urethrocoele
Enterocoele
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Which of the following fibroids are not suitable for uterine artery embolization
Pedunculated submucosal fibroids are not suitable for UAE because they can infarct and slough.
4
Intramural fibroid
Subserosal fibroid
Cervical fibroid
pedunculated submucous fibroid
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
1520894b-84fa-47a3-9de3-af8b495127ca
single
Man had uncooked meat at dinner 3 days back, Now presenting with diarrhea. Stool examination shows coma shaped organism with RBC and WBC. Causative organism is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Campylobacter jejuni This is a case of dysentery (RBC in stools along with WBC). Among the given options, 'b', 'c' and 'd' can cause dysentery. But, coma shaped organism is campylobactor jejuni. Based on the depth of intestinal invasion, there are different clinical manifestations of infection with organisms causing diarrhea:- No cell invesion (noninflammatory) The bacteria bind to intestinal epithelial cells but do not enter the cell. Diarrhea is caused by the release of enterotoxins. Watery diarrhea with no fecal leukocytes and no systemic symptoms (e.g. fever) occurs. Organisms are : V cholerae Clostridium perfringens Cryptosporidia Adenovirus ETEC B. cereus Microsporidia Staph. aureus Giardia Rotavirus Invasion of the intestinal epithelial cells (Inflammatory) The organisms have virulence factors that allow binding and invasion into cells. Toxins may be then released that destroy the cell. The cell penetration results in a systemic immune response with fecal leukocytes as well as fever. The cell death results in RBC leakage into the stool (dysentery).
3
Vibrio cholerae
Shigella
Campylobacter jejuni
Yersinia enterocolitia
Microbiology
null
c16d2152-a98b-43e7-82c5-7fd5311416dc
single
A 4-year-old girl sustained an isolated, closed, diaphyseal fracture of her left femur in a motor vehicle accident. The fracture was transverse with approximately 1.5 cm of shoening. The most appropriate definitive management of this fracture is NOT RELATED-OHO
Isolated, closed femoral shaft fractures in children under 10 years of age are best managed by immediate closed reduction and application of a spica cast.
2
Skeletal traction
Immediate application of a hip spica cast
Skeletal traction for 2 weeks followed by application of a hip spica cast
External skeletal fixation
Pharmacology
All India exam
956b64e3-7088-4a77-a3ee-30e825141571
single
Dentin bonding agents usually contain
null
3
Only hydrophobic component
Only hydrophilic component
Hydrophobic and hydrophilic component
lyophilic and lyophobic component
Dental
null
c694592f-ece8-47e0-8a36-7417fa67035c
multi
False about Brucellosis
Antibiotic of choice: Tetracycline 500mg QID x 3 weeks.
4
Also known as undulant fever
B. melitensis is most virulent
Incubation period is 1-3 weeks
Antibiotic of choice is Ampicillin
Medicine
null
07b4e829-fd83-4559-87ff-9e27d0c52dff
multi
Which of the following is not a recognized treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome?
Ans. A. Nerve stimulation therapyIf symptoms are not severe and there is not significant and progressive neuropathy, then non-operative management must be considered. This includes splint age, hand therapy, steroid injection and even yoga has been proven to be beneficial. Alternatively, a patient could be referred for either open or endoscopic release
1
Nerve stimulation therapy.
Steroid injection.
One-portal endoscopic surgical release.
Two-portal endoscopic surgical release.
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
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single
A 71-year-old man is seen with low-grade fever, generalized malaise, and a run-down feeling. He has lost weight and shows stigmata of chronic illness. There is no history of occupational exposure. On physical examination, vital signs are as follows: pulse 110 bpm; temperature 99degF; respirations 19/min; blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. On exam, the man is frail and appears cachectic with temporal wasting. Other aspects of his physical exam are unremarkable. Laboratory data: Hb 10 g/dL; Hct 30%; MCV 90; WBCs 3000/uL; differential normal; BUN 19 mg/dL; creatinine 1.0 mg/dL; sodium 129 mEq/L; potassium 5.0 mEq/L; ABGs (RA): pH 7.42, PCO2 35 mm Hg, PO2 58 mm Hg. Spirometry: FVC 60% of predicted; FEV1 60% of predicted. PPD skin test is negative (0 mm); induced sputum for AFB smear is negative. Chest radiograph is shown below.What is the most likely diagnosis?
This x-ray shows a bilateral diffuse miliary nodular pattern involving both lung fields with no loss of volume. Characteristically, miliary nodules are less than 4 mm in size. They are generally noncalcified and diffuse and are seen in many conditions, such as TB/fungal infections/pneumoconiosis and ceain malignancies such as melanomas/thyroid cancer. Larger, more confluent lesions can be seen in alveolar sarcoid, Wegener's granulomatosis, and metastatic disease. The clinical hints that aid diagnosis include: An occupational history without constitutional symptoms. X-ray that looks worse than the patient's complaints, as in sarcoidosis. History of thromboembolic disease or sepsis, as in septic emboli or pulmonary infarcts. These are generally seen in the lower lung zones. * History of ahritis; may suggest rheumatoid nodules. Presence of eosinophilia in the peripheral smear with fleeting infiltrates; provides clue for pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia (PIE) syndrome, in which case history of travel or use of medications/drugs may be helpful and a stool exam may aid in the diagnosis. Immune-compromised patients may have oppounistic infections such as herpes or CMV This elderly patient has all the stigmata of chronic illness. Although the PPD skin test and sputum studies are negative (seen in about 30% of cases), the history and CXR are consistent with miliary TB. Hyponatremia and hypercalcemia are common findings in TB. In this age group sarcoidosis is unlikely. In the absence of occupational exposure, silicosis is also unlikely. Bone marrow aspirate may be positive for TB culture in 60% of patients with miliary TB, and aspiration is a logical step in the diagnostic evaluation. CT scan will not aid fuher in the diagnosis, and thyroid function tests will be normal unless there is clinical evidence of hypo- or hypehyroidism. Open lung or thoracoscopic biopsy is always diagnostic.
2
Silicosis
Miliary TB
Metastatic thyroid carcinoma
Sarcoidosis
Radiology
Respiratory system
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single
Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is -
Incubation period For falciparum malaria : 9-14 days Vivax malaria : 8-17 days Quaan malaria : 18-40 days Ovalr malaria : 16-18 days Ref: PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , page 260
3
5-7 days
7-10 days
8-17 days
15-30 dasy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
9d972f2c-dc08-4894-920b-bbd4ac89701c
single
Wermer syndrome is
Wermer syndrome is otherwise known as Multiple Endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1). It is characterised by primary hyperparathyroidism,endocrine tumours of pancreas, and abnormalities of pituitary (primarily prolactinoma). It is due to germline mutation of MEN1 tumour suppressor gene,which encodes a protein called menin. (Ref :ROBBINS text book of pathology)
1
MEN1
MEN IIA
MEN IIB
AIP
Pathology
Endocrinology
b6471a2e-37d5-48c8-b393-462b3cb96e48
single
HDL is called good cholesterol because -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissueso The HDL particles are referred to as scavengers because their primary role is to remove free (unesterified) cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues, which is then excreted through bile. This is crucial mechanism that prevents the inappropriate accumulation of cholesterol in peripheral tissues. Because accumulation of cholesterol in tissues is strongly associated with the development of atherosclerosis, the level of HDL in serum is inversely related to the incidence of MI (myocardialinfarction). Thus, HDL is cardioprotective and anti-atherogenic in nature, and is referred to as "good cholesterol".o Therefore, HDL-Cholesterol appears to be the best independent predictor of coronary artery disease (inverse relationship) than any other known risk factor. That means low HDL is a much stronger predictor of coronary artery disease than increased LDL cholesterol or increased total cholesterol.
1
Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues
Causes transport of cholesterol to extrahepatic tissues
Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis
Activates lipoprotein lipase
Biochemistry
Cholesterol and Lipoproteins
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multi
Glass ionomer cements are composed of
Glass-ionomer cement is often known as a biomimetic material, because of its similar mechanical properties to dentine. Synonyms Poly (alkenoate) cement GIC (glass ionomer cement) ASPA (alumino silicate polyacrylic acid) Ref: Mannapalli ed 3 pg 67
2
Aluminosilicate powder and phosphoric acid
Aluminosilicate powder and polyacrylate
Zinc oxide powder and phosphoric acid
Zinc oxide powder and polyacrylate liquid
Dental
null
e38e63c0-c512-4ac9-bbcc-82655d38957d
single
Voluntary retrusion of mandible in closed mouth is done by which muscles?
null
2
Anterior belly of digastric
Posterior fibers of temporalis
Posterior belly of digastric
Deep fibers of masseter
Anatomy
null
7a13691d-a36b-472f-a046-725e0c020208
single
The boundaries of the interconnection between greater sac and lesser sac of peritoneum known as 'Foramen of Winslow' are all, EXCEPT:
Interconnection between greater sac and lesser sac of peritoneum is known as Foramen of Winslow. It has the following boundaries: Superior boundary: Caudate lobe of liver Anterior boundary: Free edge of lesser omentum containing common bile duct, hepatic aery andpoal vein. Inferior boundary: First pa of duodenum Posterior boundary: Inferior vena cava and abdominal aoa
4
Caudate lobe of liver
Inferior vena cava
Free border of lesser omentum
4th pa of Duodenum
Anatomy
null
85299746-699b-4081-a8e4-8d1729c6653b
multi
Mondors disease involves which of the following
Mondor's disease Thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the anterior chest wall and breast although it has also been seen in the arm. Frequently involved veins are a lateral thoracic vein, thoracoepigastric vein and superficial epigastric veins, Aeology is unknown o Also known as 'string phlebis\ it presents as a tender cord-like structure. The women may present with acute pain in the lateral aspect of breast or the anterior chest wall. A tender cordlike superficial thrombosed vein is formed and when the skin over the breast is stretched by raising the arm, a narrow r shallow subcutaneous groove alongside the cord becomes apparent, Rarely it may be bilateral. Management It's a benign self-limited disorder. The differential diagnosis is lymphatic permeation from an occult carcinoma of the breast. When the diagnosis is unceain or a mass is present near the cord, a biopsy may be done. Treatment An inflammatory drugs and warm compresses Restricted arm movements as well as brassiere suppo of breast o It usually resolves within 4 to 6 weeks. When symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, the involved vein the segment may be excised ref - srb's manual of surgery 5e p525
4
Axilla
Neck
Thymus
Breast
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Placenta has :
2 aeries + 1 vein
2
1 aery + 2 veins
2 aeries + 1 vein
2 aeries + 2 veins
3 aeries + 3 veins
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
94789f5f-9484-4c74-837e-f24464876d18
single
Diameter of the optic disc is:
Ans. 1.5 mm
1
1.5 mm
2.5 mm
3.5 mm
5 mm
Ophthalmology
null
7ec8d240-1534-4ae0-9c0e-2808f81f41b2
single
The antiulcer agent detaches and kills H. Pylori organism and prevent relapses is
null
1
Colloidal Bismuth
Pirenzipine
Misoprostol
Sucralfate
Pharmacology
null
b004ef65-f7ff-4578-bd30-127ad66680c3
single
What of the following is essential for tumour metastasis?
. Angiogenesis
1
Angiogenesis
Tumorogenesis
Apoptosis
Inhibition of tyrosine kinase activity
Pathology
null
f71f1cd0-085b-4f39-925c-50921dce982c
single
In which of the following patients would Enalapril be the best 1st line drug for high blood pressure control?
ACE inhibitors have been shown to reduce moality in chronic hea failure, hypeension, and diabetic renal disease * ACE inhibitors and ARBs increase the risk of hyperkalemia in CKD and with supplemental K+ or K+-sparing drugs. ACE inhibitors and ARBs should be discontinued during pregnancy as they cause fetal kidney damage.ACE inhibitors may cause acute renal failure paicularly in patients with bilateral renal aery stenosis or stenosis of the renal aery of a solitary kidneyKatzung Pharmacology 12th edition Pg: 185
4
A 62 year old man with renal aery stenosis
A 30 year old pregnant female
A 40 year old woman with hyperkalaemia
A 60 year old diabetic woman
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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single
A 35-year-old man undergoes gastrectomy for gastric carcinoma. Gross examination of the resected stomach reveals diffuse thickening without a discrete mass lesion. Microscopic exam shows an infiltration of signet-ring cells dispersed singly. Family history reveals that his father had a similar cancer at a young age. What gene is most likely to be mutated in this patient and his father?
- Mutation in CDH1, the gene encoding the cellular adhesion protein E-cadherin. - E-cadherin mutations account for a significant propoion of familial gastric cancers and Lobular carcinoma of the breast. OTHER OPTIONS: - APC is mutated in the majority of colorectal adenocarcinomas & intestinal type of gastric cancer. - MSH2 and PMS2 are both mismatch repair genes are mutated in Lynch syndrome - p53 is mutated in Li Fraumeni syndrome.
2
APC
CDH1
PMS2
p53
Pathology
Stomach
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single
Constant PR inverval is seen in-
constant PR interval is a feature of first degree hea block second and third degree hea block doesnt have constant intervals Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1534
1
First degree block
Second degree - Mobiz type I block
Second degree - Mobiz type II block
Third degree block
Medicine
C.V.S
1fbfcc88-c9fc-4551-9480-11774546e6b0
single
Anuria is defined as urine output less than
Anuria is nonpassage of urine, in practice is defined as passage of less than 100milliliters of urine in a day. Anuria is often caused by failure in the function of kidneys. It may also occur because of some severe obstruction like kidney stones or tumours. It may occur with end stage renal disease. It is a more extreme reduction than oliguria (hypouresis), with 100 mL/day being the conventional (albeit slightly arbitrary) cutoff point between the two Ref Harrison20th edition pg 277
1
4ml/hr
8ml/hr
12ml/hr
16ml/hr
Medicine
Kidney
e90c4404-19c0-4836-8d4c-7e5e9bdb3093
single
After suxamethonium 50 mg, apnea persists for one hour –
Sch can cause prolonged apnea in patients with low plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase) or atypical (non­functional) pseudocholinesterase. The best management is to provide mechanical ventilation, maintain anaesthesia, continue monitoring and wait for spontaneous recovery. If spontaneous recovery does not occur fresh frozen plasma or blood can be given which provide pseudocholinesterase. Purified preparation of pseudocholinesterase is also available. However because of the risk of associated with there infusion, blood, FFP or purified pseudocholinesterase is not recommended by some authorities.
2
Treatment with cholnesterase is indicated
Probably an atypical cholinesterase is present
Treatment with stored blood is indicated
Apnea may be due to low serum potassium concentration
Anaesthesia
null
aecab212-bbec-4898-8437-23e9bde6e87e
single
School of fish appearance is characteristic of:
Ans. is. 'c' i. e., Haemophillus ducreyi
3
Bordetella peussis
Yersinia enterocolitica
Haemophillus ducreyi
Legionella
Microbiology
null
e147e2ac-09a8-48da-9d81-b433656a39b1
single
A middle age male patient met with a road traffic accident & is brought to emergency in an unconscious state. CT abdomen reveals a splenic laceration, emergency splenectomy is done & patient is shifted to ICU. His BP remains low in post op period even after a bolus of normal saline. O/E- he is afebrile, has moon like face with central obesity & presence of violet striae over abdomen. Repeat CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows no hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management of this patient?
Moon like facies, central obesity & abdominal striae are signs of glucocoicoid excess - endogenous (Cushing syndrome)/ exogenous. A physiologic stressor (trauma) may trigger adrenal crisis. Acute adrenal insufficiency requires immediate initiation of rehydration (saline infusion at initial rates of 1 L/hr) with continuous cardiac monitoring. Glucocoicoid replacement- initiated by bolus injection of 100 mg of hydrocoisone, followed by the administration of 100-200 mg of hydrocoisone over 24 hours. Mineralocoicoid replacement can be initiated once the daily hydrocoisone dose is <50 mg as at higher doses, hydrocoisone provides sufficient stimulation of mineralocoicoid receptors.
2
Return to the operating room for exploratory laparotomy
Administer hydrocoisone 100 mg IV
Administer vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam
Perform MRI of the spine.
Medicine
Cushing Syndrome
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multi
All of the following causes hyperglycemia, EXCEPT
Ans. is 'c' Theophylline Theophylline causes hypoglycemia List of drugs causing hyperglycemia. Diazoxide* Ethacrynic acid* Furosemide* Glucocorticoids* Pentamidine* Thiazides* Oral contraceptives* Niacin Growth hormone Asparaginase Note : Pentamidine causes both hypo and hyperglycemia (Mechanism: Pentamidine causes lysis of pancreatic beta cells: Insulin is released initially causing hypoglycemia. Later on permanent IDDM can result)
3
Thiazide
Diazoxide
Theophylline
Pentamidine
Unknown
null
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multi
Dentigerous cyst arises from-
null
1
An unerupted tooth
Apex of an infected tooth
Nasopalatine cysts
Solitary bone cyst
Surgery
null
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single
Drug of choice for hypertension with osteoporosis:
Thiazide diuretics open K+ channels and lead to direct vasodilation along with diuretic action. It also increases calcium absorption and hence used in hypertension with osteoporosis.
3
ACE inhibitors
Beta-blockers
Thiazide diuretics
Loop diuretics
Pharmacology
null
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single
Which is not done in septoplasty:
Management of Deted Septum Minor degrees of septal detion not causing any symptoms do not require any treatment. If the patient is more than 17 years of age then the patient is taken up for septal surgery. Any surgery on the septum or on the anterior 1/3rd of nose and adjacent area (e.g. septoplasty, rhinoplasty and Cald Well Luc) is not done before 17 years of age as it interferes with growth of nasal skeleton. The two types of surgery on septum are: Sub-mucous resection of septum (SMR): It is done under local anaesthesia with 2% xylocaine and adrenaline. The incision is given 5 mm above the caudal border of the septal cailage (Killian's incision). Mucoperichondrial and mucoperiosteal flaps are raised on both sides of the septum, so that the septum is now free on both sides. Leaving a thin (1 cm) dorsal and a caudal strip, the rest of the septum is removed. Complication: This can lead to loss of suppo of dorsum and saddling of nose, perforation of the septum.
4
Elective hypotension
Throat pack
Nasal preparation with 10% cocaine
None
ENT
null
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multi
Initial investigation of choice for biliary obstruction
Ultrasonography Initial imaging modality of choice in obstructive jaundice It is operator dependent and may be suboptimal due to excessive body fat and intraluminal bowel gas USG can demonstrate Biliary calculi Size of GB and CBD Thickness of GB wall Presence of inflammation around GB Occasionally, presence of stones within the biliary tree Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1487
4
CT abdomen
ERCP
MRCP
USG
Anatomy
G.I.T
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single
Hemodialysis related complications are all of the following except: September 2008
Ans. C: Hypeension Complication of hemodialysis: Fever- Bacteremia, water-borne pyrogens, overheated dialysate Hypotension - Excessive ultrafiltration, cardiac arrhythmia, air embolus, pericardial tamponade; hemorrhage (gastrointestinal, intracranial, retroperitoneal); anaphylactoid reaction Hemolysis- Inadequate removal of chloramine from dialysate, failure of dialysis concentrate delivery system Dementia- Incomplete removal of aluminum from dialysate water, prescription of aluminum antacids Seizure- Excessive urea clearance (first treatment), failure of dialysis concentrate delivery system Bleeding- Excessive heparin or other anticoagulant Muscle cramps- Excessive ultrafiltration
3
Altered cardiovascular dynamics
Anaphylactoid reaction
Hypeension
Muscle cramps
Medicine
null
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multi
Disease not covered under Integrated disease surveillance project (IDSP) is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Herpes zoster Integrated disease surveillance project (IDSP) IDSP is a decentralized state based surveillance system intended to detect early warning signals of impending outbreaks and helps initiate an effective response in a timely manner in urban and rural areas. It will also provide essential data to monitor progress of on-going disease control programme and help allocate health resources more efficiently. It is a 5 years project and was launched in November 2004. The core conditions under surveillance in IDSP are: A. Regular Surveillance Vector borne disease -p Malaria Water borne disease -3 Acute diarrheal disease (cholera), Typhoid Respiratory disease- TB Vaccine preventable disease Measles Disease under eradication- Polio Other conditions - Road traffic accidents Other inernational commitments Plague Unusual clinical syndromes Men ingoencephalitis, Respiratory distress, hemorrhagic fever B. Sentinel surveillance STD/blood borne disease -p HIV/HBV, HCV, water quality monitoring Other conditions- Outdoor air quality C. Regular periodic surveys NCD risk factors - Anthropometry, Physical activity, BP, tobacco, nutrition D. Additional state priorities Each state may identify up to five additional conditions for surveillance. These are (above described) are the conditions (diseases) which are under surveillance in IDSP. There are some clinical syndrome under surveillance in IDSP to pick up all priority diseases listed in regular surveillance (above) Fever with or without localizing signs: Malaria, Typhoid, JE, Dengue, Measles Cough more than 3 weeks: TB Acute fluccid paralysis: Polio Diarrhea: Cholera Jaundice: Hepatitis, leptospirosis, Dengue, Malaria, Yellow fever Unusual syndromes: Antrax, plague, emerging epidemics.
3
Meningococcal disease
Tuberculosis
Herpes zoster
Cholera
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
99e13bd6-eee3-4701-8890-f55b39f1e148
single
All are features of Ureaplasma urealyticum except -
null
2
Non gonococcal urethritis
Salphingitis
Epididymitis
Bacterial vaginosis
Microbiology
null
c3a0e7f0-af17-4eec-84bb-142aefa8568f
multi
Which is the best temperature for putrefaction?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 30 degrees C * Putrefaction is the last stage in resolution of body from the inorganic to organic state and is a certain sign of death.* The putrefaction is due to:i) Autolysis:# The enzymes of the body, break down the dead body causing proteolysis, lipolysis and glycolysis.ii) Bacterial enzymes:# Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria present in small intestine (e.g. C. welchii, staphylococcus, E.coli etc.) release enzymes (especilly lipase and lecithinase), which act on body to cause breakdown.* Three conditions are necessory for putrefaction : (i) warmth (10-45deg), (ii) moisture (humidity) and (iii) air. If air is absent, adipocere formation (saponification) occurs, and in the absence of moisture, mummification occurs.
3
- 10 degrees C
0 degrees C
30 degrees C
50 degrees C
Forensic Medicine
Death and Investigations
6b6abb7b-09b8-4ac1-a2b6-e6dba3625b7b
single
Tracheal bifurcation on X-ray corresponds to
A i.e. T5T6; B i.e. T4 T5; C i.e. Sternal angle
4
T5T6
T4T5
Sternal angle
All
Radiology
null
0f371851-da41-464a-9227-246ca85e0cd6
multi
Which of the following drugs is not used for H. pylon treatment?
H. pylori is a gram negative bacillus uniquely adapted to survival in the hostile environment of stomach. Antimicrobials that have been found clinically effective against H. pylori are: amoxicillin, clarithromycin, tetracycline and metronidazole/ tinidazole. (Essentials of pharmavology KD Tripathy,6th edition,pg no.637)
1
Oxytetracycline
Bismuth compounds
clarithromycin
Omeprazole
Pharmacology
Gastrointestinal tract
91968cda-f407-4d81-aa56-a0cb2bfba390
single
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about meralgia paresthetica?
Meralgia paresthetica consists of pain, tingling & numbness without weakness in the lateral aspect of thigh that is supplied by lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh Meralgia paresthetica consists of pain, tingling & numbness without weakness in the lateral aspect of thigh that is supplied by lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh It occur as a result of entrapment of the nerve in the fascia just medial to ASIS It can also occur during Pregnancy when it remits spontaneously after pregnancy is completed Treatment : Nonspecific, analgesic, local hydrocoisone etc. sometimes surgical decompression. Ref: Maheshwari's Ohopedics 3/e, P 259; Harrison 17/e, P 47( 16/e p 36)
1
Meralgia paresthetica consists of pain, tingling & numbness with weakness in the lateral aspect of thigh
It occur as a result of entrapment of the nerve in the fascia just medial to ASIS
It can also occur during Pregnancy when it remits spontaneously after pregnancy is completed
Treatment include nonspecific, analgesic, local hydrocoisone etc. sometimes surgical decompression
Surgery
null
05e6c69f-4126-48cd-b556-4a588b540b0e
multi
Diopteric power of eye -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., + 60D o In schematic model, the optical system of eye behaves like a combination of lenses.o The reduced schematic eye treats the eye as if it were a single refracting element consisting of an ideal spherical surface separating tw o media of refractive indices of 1.00 (air in external environment) and 1.33 (eye as a whole),o So, in reduced eye, the entire system (of eye) can be regarded as one lens writh one optical centre which lies in the posterior part of crystalline lens.o The diopteric power of reduced eye is + 60D, of which + 44D is contributed by cornea and + 16D by the crystalline lens.
3
+20D
-20D
+60D
-60D
Ophthalmology
Techniques of Ocular Examination and Diagnostic Tests
59ca9e28-b018-4546-9776-27189d4fe471
single
Wood's lamp light is used in the diagnosis of –
null
1
Tinea capitis
Candida albicans
Histoplasma
Cryptococcus
Dental
null
e1be7c73-27ab-4c40-a657-3077fe5af36c
single
Potassium sparing diuretics -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Aldosterone antagonists Renal epithelial Ma+ channel inhibitors o Spironolactone o Eplerenone o Canrenone o Potassium canrenone o Pordenone o Mexrenone o Amiloride o Triamterene Classification: High efficacy diuretics (LOOP DIURETICS) (lnhibitors of Na+-K+-2Cl- - cotransport) Medium efficacy diuretics (lnhibitors of Na+-Cl-- symport) Weak or adjunctive diuretics Furosemide, Bumetanide, Torasemide Axosemide (Ethracynic acid and Organomercurials are only historical) a) Thiazides Hydrochlorothiazide, Benzthiazide, Hydroflumethiazide, Clopamide b) Thiazide like Chiorthalidone, Metolazone, Xipamide, Indapamide (a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Acetazolamide, Methazolamide , Dichlorphenamide b) Potassium sparing diuretics (i) Aldosterone antagonists: Spironolactone, Eplerenone, Canrenone (ii) Inhibitors of renal epithelial Na* channel Triamterene, Amiloride. (c) Osmotic diuretics (Aqurectics) Mannitol, Isosorbide, Glycerol Urea (d) Adenosine A1 antagonist Caffeine (e) ADH antagonist Conivaptan Tolvaptan
4
Spironolactone
Triamterene
Amiloride
All of the above
Unknown
null
ed269719-33c5-457c-b4ba-b1be3b4daf08
multi
Which of the following statement is/are not true about Dibucaine:
Ans: A (Shorter,,.) DIBUCAINE"Dibucaine: Longest: acting local anesthetic, most potent & most toxic"- Ajay Yadov 2nd/110"DibucainefCin chocaine}:!t is the most potent, most toxic & longest acting LA It is used as a surface anaesthetic on less delicate mucous membrane (anal canal). Use for spinal anaesthesia of long durartion has declined after the availability ofbupivacaine"- KDT 6th/358"The dibucaine number is a measure of the qualitative activity of pseudocholinesterase and is the percentage of inhibition of the enzyme by the local anesthetic dibucaine. Normal individuals are homozygous for the wild type, and their dibucaine number is 80 because their plasma cholinesterase is 80% inhibited by dibucaine. Those who are homozygous for the atypical genes have a dibucaine number of 20 because of 20% inhibition Heterozygous individuals have a dibucaine number of 60 because of approximately 60% inhibition. The plasma cholinesterase level is a quantitative measure of this enzyme. Plasma cholinesterase should not be confused with cholinesterase activity, which is an assessment of erythrocyte or red blood cell cholinesterase. The combination of dibucaine number and plasma cholinesterase can differentiate genetic from nongenetic causes of prolonged apnea after the administration of succinylcholine"-Millter 7th/1095Atypical Pseudocholinesterase Ajay Yadav 2nd/88# Incidence :1 in 3000.This can be diagnosed by Dibucaine numberDibucaine is a local anaesthetic which can inhibit 80% of normal enzyme & 20% of abnormal enzyme. So normal dibucaine number in homozygous typical (normal person) is 70-80%Sodium floride can be used in place of dibucaine(Floride number)Usually apnoea is for 1 to 2 hrTable (Ajay Yadav):Summary of properties of local AnestheticsDrugPotencyT1/2Duration of actionWithout adrenalineDuration of action With adrenalineMaximum safe dose (mg/ kg)CommentsEsters Procaine+ 15-30 minute30-90 minutes12 mg/kg Chloroprocaine+ 15-25 minute30-90 minutes12 mg/kgShortest actingCocaine+ + 3 mg/kgUsed for topicalAnesthesiaPotentvasoconstrictorTetracaine+ + + + 2-3 hours3-5 hours3 mg/kg AmidesLignocaine(Xyocaine)+ +1.6 hrs45-60 minutes'12-3 hours3 mg/kg (without adrenaline); 7 mg/kg without adrenaline)Most commonly used local anaestheticPrilocaine+ + 45-60 minutes2-3 hours8 mg/kgCan cause methaemoglobinemiaMepivacaine+ + 45-60 minutes2-3 hours4.5 mg/kg Etidocaine+ + + + 2-3 hours3-5 hours4 mg/kg Bupiva caine (Sensoricaine, Mancaine)+ + + +3.5 hrs2-3 hours3-5 hours2 mg/kgVery commonly used local anaestheticRopivacaine+ + + 2-3 hours3-5 hours3 mg/kgLess cardiotoxic than bupivacaineDibucaine+ + +4 hrs2.5-3.5 hours3.5-5.5 hours1 mg/kgLongest acting, most potent, most toxicProperty of local anaesthesia (KDT 6th/356)DrugMax. safe dose (mg)Duration of nerve block (min)Lidocaine30060-120Bupivacaine100180-360Tetracaine80180-480Dibucaine50180-600Drug used for spinor/ anaesthesia (KDT 6th/360)DrugTotal dose(mg)Duration of action (min)Lidocaine25-10060-90Bupivacaine10-2590-150Tetracaine5-1590-150Dibucaine2.5-10120-180 Type of Butyryl- cholinesteraseIncidenceDibucaine NumberResponse to SuccinylcholineHomozygous TypicalNormal70-80NormalHeterozygous Atypical1/48050-60Lengthened 50- 100%Homozygous Atypical1/320020-30Prolonged to 4-8 hrsButyrylchofinesterase (Pseudocholinesterase) Deficiency:# Levels can be affected by liver disease, advanced age, malnutrition, pregnancy, bums, OCP, etc.Large decreases in butyrylcholinesterase causes only- moderate increase in duration of action of succinylcholineDibucaine NumberDibucaine inhibits normal enzyme to far greater extent that variant. Thus, if the dibucaine number is low (i.e. the native enzyme is not inhibited by dibucaine), one should suspect or? abnormal variant of butyrylcholinesterase.
1
Shorter acting than tetracaine
Longer acting than tetracaine
More potent than tetracaine
More potent than bupivacaine
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia)
defc7bb3-66f7-48cc-9efb-efd8f4fcdfe2
multi
All the following are true about pseudomembranous colitis except.
Oral vancomycin is the DOC for pseudomembranous colitis.
4
Clostridium difficile is the agent
Diarrhoea is the most common manifestation
Pseudomembrane formation
Vancomycin is responsible
Microbiology
null
dbfc4eae-3e09-466e-be4f-06f19f02f440
multi
True about bronchial adenoma
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reccurrent haemoptysis
3
10-15% of all lung tumour
Mostly malignant
Recurrent haemoptysis
Peripherally located
Surgery
null
e4803132-7591-4065-920a-98a7fed4ed5b
multi
Swimming pool conjunctivitis is caused by -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chlamydia * Inclusion conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia trachomatis is seen sexually active people due to transmission from the genitalia to eye by autoinfection. The infection is also acquired from bathing in contaminated unchlorinated swimming pools and, hence, this disease is also known as swimming pool conjunctivitis,
3
Pseudomonas
Coxsackievirus
Chlamydia
Mycoplasma
Microbiology
Bacteria
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single
Facial skeleton develops from
The viscerocranium forms the facial skeleton and the major pa of which develops from mesenchyme derived from 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches.The lacrimal and nasal bones are derived from neural crest cells. The paraxial mesoderm undergoes segmentation to form somitomeres and somites that fuher differentiate into sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome. The intermediate mesoderm forms most of the genito-urinary system -eg; kidneys, testes, ovaries The lateral plate mesoderm forms body wall and body cavities. Reference: Textbook of clinical embryology, Vishram Singh,1st edition,page no.94,49
1
Neural crest
Paraxial mesoderm
Intermediate mesoderm
Lateral plate mesoderm
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
What is the most impoant role of bradykinin in acute inflammation-
Functions of Bradykinin: Increases vascular permeability Contraction of smooth muscles Dilation of the blood vessels Pain when injected into the skin Out of these actions of bradykinin, the increase in vessel permeability is a better answer as it is the hallmark of acute inflammation ref robbins9th ed page 52
1
Increase in vascular permeability
Vasodilatation
Mediation of pain
Bronchoconstriction
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Transvaginal USG can detect fetal cardiac activity in:
Ans. is a i.e. 6 weeks Embryonic investigations suggest that cardiac contractions begin in fetus at 36 days gestational age.deg This is evident on : Transvaginal USG At 6 weeks of gestational age corresponding to 13 - 18mm of MSD Transabdominal USG At 8 weeks of gestational age corresponding to 25 mm of MSD. Note : MSD is mean Sac diameter According to Williams Obs 23/e p 200 Using real time sunography with a vaginal transducer fetal cardiac activity '-'?0 hs seen as early as 5th menstrual week
1
6 weeks
7 weeks
8 weeks
10 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e350773e-b8a9-43b0-a57a-7d02cf4d8bd1
single
A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be-
null
4
Musculotoxic
Vasculotoxic
Cardiotoxic
Neurotoxic
Forensic Medicine
null
86b8bb47-c350-4838-8159-a12163374e6f
multi
In 2 patients with Atherosclerosis, one is diabetic and other is non-diabetic. In relation to non-diabetic, diabetic patient has 100 times increased risk of ?
null
3
MI
Stroke
Lower Limb ischemia
Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
Medicine
null
d1f73109-f50c-452c-bec0-1f460c16fe21
single
All are RNA virus except:
Ans. (c) Simian 40 SV 40 = Simian vacuolating virus 40 = Simian virus 40 It is a DNA viruses Its family is papovaviridae and genera is polyoma virus. It is oncogenic virus, causing cytopathic effects with prominent cytoplasmic vacoulation Remember: Simian virises 5, 41 are animal virus antigenically similar to paranfluenza virus type 2
3
Ebola virus
Vesicular stomatitis virus
Simian 40
Rabies
Microbiology
null
2fa64ffd-012c-406e-8947-1252d7d7b877
multi
Most common type of pelvis in women is
Caldwell (1939) repoed that the gynecoid pelvis was found in almost half of women.(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
1
Gynecoid
Anthrapoid
Android
Platypelloid
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
0ffc49d8-fdf0-4e5a-b836-14b853c091da
single
Noradrenaline is major neurotransmitter in ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Postganglionic sympathetic fibres except in sweat glandsNeurotransmitter in all preganglionic autonomic nerves (both sympathetic and parasympathetic) is acetylcholine (A CH)Neurotransmitter in all ganglia (both sympathetic and parasympathetic) is acetylcholine.Neurotransmitter in postganglionic parasympathetic fibres is acetylcholine.In posganglionic sympathetic fibres, the major neurotransmitter is noradrenaline (NA) except in renal and mesentric vasculature where it is dopamine, in sweat glands, some blood vessels where it is acetylcholine and in adrenal medulla where it is adrenaline.Most of the visceral organs are supplied by both sympathetic and parasympathetic system except;Blood vessels, spleen, sweat glands and hair follicles receive only sympathetic innervation.Ciliary muscle gastric and pancreatic glands receive only parasympathetic innervation.In general sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are antagonistic except :Refractory period of atrial fibres is decreased by both.At almost all organs except hea, cholinergic system has excitatory activity and adrenergic system has relaxing propeies Sympathetic system stimulates (Tachycardia, Positive inotropic) and parasympathetic system depresses (Bradycardia, Negative inotropic) the hea.
2
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres
Postganglionic sympathetic fibres except in sweat glands
Autonomic ganglia
Preganglionic autonomic fibres
Physiology
null
192bd05e-e5c3-4d2c-aadf-270e4e0d858a
multi
What is the reason for following set of symptoms after prostatic Sx-restlessness, vomiting and change in sensorium ?
Ans is 'a' ie. Electrolyte imbalance
1
Electrolyte imbalance
Bladder neck obstruction
Acute pyelonephritis
Ureter stenosis
Surgery
null
5f9c16e9-cb4b-4a67-b522-a7c15990067d
single
Which is a non absorbable suture ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Polypropylene
1
Polypropylene
Polyglycolic acid
Collagen
All
Surgery
null
cc0577c3-7ea0-496f-abc0-8dcaf8a0005c
multi
Acid mucin is best demonstrated by the stain -
Mucin is produced by epithelial cells of mucous membrane & mucous glands, as well as by some connective tissues Stains for mucin Mucicarmine Alcian blue. Note :- Epithelial cell mucin stains positively with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS), while connective tissue mucin does not.
1
Alcian blue
Periodic Acid Schiff (P.A.S.)
Van Gieson
Reticulin
Pathology
null
00213397-3426-4fac-8072-310539b27652
single
In contact dermatitis the diagnostic method of choice is
Patch testing is used to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. In this procedure, a battery of suspected "allergens" with control is applied to the patient's back under occlusive dressings and allowed to remain in contact with the skin for 48 hours. The dressings are then removed, and the area is examined for evidence of delayed hypersensitivity reactions such as erythema, edema, or papulovesicles.. This test is best performed by physicians with special expeise in patch testing and is often helpful in the evaluation of patients with chronic dermatitis. (Reading is read at 0, 2, 4 days)
1
Patch test
Skin biopsy
Intradermal test
Tzanck test
Dental
All India exam
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single
Which of the following is a generic term for a protein or glycoprotein released by one cell population that acts as an intercellular mediator?
Molecules that communicate among cells of the immune system are referred to as cytokine Cytokines are soluble molecules,although some also exist in membrane bound The interaction of cytokine with its receptor on a target cell can cause changes in expression of adhesion molecules and chemokine receptors on the target membrane,thus allowing it to move from location to another. Cytokines can also signal an immune cell to increase or decrease the activity of paicular enzymes or to change its transcriptional program, thereby altering and enhancing its effector functions They can instruct a cell when to survive and when to die Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
2
image_question
image_question
image_question
image_question
Microbiology
Immunology
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Example of metallo enzyme is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lysyl oxidaseLysyl oxidase is a metalloenzyme (copper containing
1
Lysyl oxidase
Lysyl hydroxylase
Prolyl hydroxylase
Glucosyl transferase
Biochemistry
null
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The bed of the stomach is not formed by-a) Left kidneyb) Left supra renal glandc) Splenic veind) Tail of pancreas
The posterior surface of stomach is related to structures forming the stomach bed, all of which are separated from stomach by the cavity of the lesser sac. These structures forming stomach bed are Diaphragm, left kidney, left suprarenal (adrenal) gland, pancreas (body), transverse colon, splenic flexure of colon and splenic artery. Sometimes spleen is also included in stomach bed, but it is separated from stomach by greater sac (not lesser sac).
3
ab
bc
cd
ac
Anatomy
null
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single
Which type of immune responses responsible for caseation necrosis in TB?-
Type 4 or delayed hypersensitivity or T cell mediated reaction is an immune response without formation of antibodies but is instead a slow and prolonged response .examples:reaction against mycobacterium infection ,virally infected cell,malignant cells and organ transplantation.Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition
1
Cell-mediated immunity
Antibody mediated reaction
Allergic reaction
Immune complexes
Pathology
General pathology
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Platelate aggregation is caused by all, except -
Ans. is 'C' i.e.. Prostacyclin (PGI,) o Factors promoting platelet aggregation : ADP, TXA2 epinephrine, serotonin, vWF, fibrinogen, collagen, immune complex, thrombin, thrombospondin. a Factors inhibiting platelet aggregation : PGI2, NO, endothelin, bradykinin.
3
Thromboxane A2
Serotonin
Prostacyclin (PGI2)
Thrombin
Physiology
Blood: Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Obesity Index defined as Height (cm) - 100
null
2
BMI
Broca's Index
Ponderal Index
Corpulence Index
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following statements about Histamine is true:
D i.e. All Histamine is formed by decarboxylation of amino acid histidineQ, and is found in mast cell, basophils, enterochromaffin like cells of gastric mucosa and brainQ. It has been related to arousal, sexual behaviourQ, regulation of secretion of some anterior pituitary hormones, blood pressure, drinking & pain threshold.
4
Is found in Mast cells
Increases gastric acid secretion
Related to arousal and blood pressure
All of the above
Pathology
null
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multi
All of the following drugs are administered orally except-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gentamicin o Aminoglycosides are not used orally.
3
Ciprofloxacin
Cotrimoxazole
Gentamicin
Amoxicillin
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Figure of 8 in chest X Ray is seen in
B i.e. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)
2
Ebstein Anomaly
Total Anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC)
Tetrology of fallot (TOF)
Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
Radiology
null
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True about neonatal sepsis
Neonatal sepsis is a type of neonatal infection and specifically refers to the presence in a newborn baby of a bacterial blood stream infection (BSI) (such as meningitis, pneumonia, pyelonephritis, or gastroenteritis) in the setting of fever. Older textbooks may refer to neonatal sepsis as "sepsis neonatorum". Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
1
Early sepsis is due to organism in maternal genital tract
Environmental factors cause late sepsis
Late sepsis is due to organism in maternal genital tract
Environmental factors cause early sepsis
Pediatrics
New born infants
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A distal extension partial denture receives its support
null
3
From terminal abutments
Equally from abutments and the residual ridges
Mostly from residual ridge
Exclusively from residual ridge
Dental
null
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multi
Neurologic examination reveals an extensor plantar reflex and hyperreflexia on the left side, a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side, ptosis and miosis on the left side. A lesion that causes this constellation of deficits would most likely be found in the:
Above symptoms point towards Brown-Sequard syndrome: hemisection of the cervical spinal cord- result in I/L Horner syndrome, I/L spastic paresis and C/L loss of pain and temperature sensation. Horner syndrome -always manifested on the ipsilateral side. Paracentral lobule control higher centres of micturation.
1
Cervical spinal cord
Crus cerebri, right side
Lumbar spinal cord.
Paracentral lobule, left side.
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy 3
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single
A vasodilator is obtained after decarboxylation of:
Histidine on decarboxylation gives histamine which is a vasodilator.
1
Histidine
Arginine
Tyrosine
Glycine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Which findings are true in central retinal aery occlusion
Central Retinal Aery Occlusion Signs Pale fundus & optic nerve head. Occasionally disc swelling Direct reflex absent, RAPD + Cherry red spot can be seen over macula Cattle trucking of veins Neovascularization (occasionally)
1
Direct pupillary reflex-, RAPD +
Direct pupillary reflex +, RAPD +
Both absent
Scalloped pupil
Ophthalmology
Retina
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multi
A mother brings her 5-month-old infant to the physician for a well-baby checkup. At this time the physician should expect to see
Sitting with support is normally seen in a 5-month­old infant. Stranger anxiety (fear of unfamiliar people) does not appear until approximately 7 months of age. A pincer grasp (using thumb and forefinger) appears at approximately 9 months of age, whereas object permanence (the ability to maintain a mental represen­tation of an object although it can no longer be seen) occurs between 12 and 18 months of age. Using mean­ingful words is not commonly present until at least 12 months of age.
4
Stranger anxiety
A pincer grasp
Object permanence
Sitting with support
Unknown
null
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single
If the objective of the investigator is to assess the incidence of tuberculosis infection in a community, the most appropriate methodology would be to -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Identify new converters to tuberculin test Incidence of infectionIt is the percentage of population under study who will be newly infected by mycobacterium tuberculosis among the non-infected of the preceding survey during the course of one year.Persons newly infected with mycobacterium T.B. can be easily detected by new convertors to tuberculin test (remember positive tuberculin test indicates that the person is infected with M. Tuberculosis)\ it does not prove that the person is suffering from disease.Therefore the incidence of infection is also called "Tuberculin conversion index".This parameter is considered one of the best indicators for evaluating the tuberculosis problem and its trend.
3
Identify all individuals with positive tuberculin test
Perform sputum examination of chest symtomatics
Identify new converters to Tuberculin test
Screen all under-five children with Tuberculin test
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
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multi
In an uncomplicated twin pregnancy normal delivery should be attempted in the following situation :
First baby - Veex and second baby transverse lie
1
First baby - Veex and second baby transverse lie
Both babies are breech presentation
First baby transverse lie and second longitudinal lie
First baby transverse lie and second frank breech
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
SS18-SSX1 gene is associated with
TumorCytogenetic AbnormalityGene fusionProposed functionSynol sarcomat(x;18)(p11;q11)SS18-SSX1SS18-SSX2SS18-SSX4Chimeric transcription factors, interrupts cell cycle controlReference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 26; Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
3
Liposarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Synol sarcoma
Ewing sarcoma
Pathology
Musculoskeletal system
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single
Difference between class II amalgam and cast restoration is
null
1
Bevels
Occlusal resistance form
Outline form
Proximal retention
Dental
null
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single
Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as
Accommodation- Slow rising subthreshold stimulus failing to produce action potential even when the normal threshold levels are reached. This occurs because of inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels. Adaptation- Persistent application of suprathreshold stimulus fails to generate repetitive firing. Refractoriness- A stimulus to the nerve does not elicit a response. Electrotonus- When a current is passed through electrodes kept on the surface of a nerve, current passes through it resulting in a change in membrane potential and development of electrotonic potential.
2
Adaptation
Accomodation
Refractoriness
Electrotonus
Physiology
null
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single
Cyst without lining is
null
4
Radicular cyst
Dentigerous cyst
Naso palatine duct cyst
Hemorrhagic / Traumatic bone cyst
Pathology
null
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single
Mesothelioma associated with which variety of asbestos ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amphibole Asbestos-Related DiseasesAsbestos is a family of proinflammatory crystalline hydrated silicates that are associated with pulmonary fibrosis, carcinoma, mesothelioma, and other cancers.There are two distinct geometric forms of asbestosi) Serpentine (chrysolite) - most of the asbestos used in industryii) Amphibole (crocidolite)Both serpentine and amphibole can cause all asbestos related diseases except for mesothelioma, which is usually associated with amphibole (crocidolite).
2
Serpentine
Amphibole
Both the above
None of the above
Pathology
null
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multi