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The risk of neonatal chicken pox is the maximum, if maternal infection occurs -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Within 5 days of delivery o Risk of neonatal chicken pox is maximum if maternal infection occurs near delivery ( 5 days before delivery or 48 hours after).
3
During the first trimester
During the second trimester
Within five days of delivery
Within six weeks of delivery
Pediatrics
null
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Hypersensitivity angiitis is seen in -
HSP is not hypersensitivity angiitis. But the best answer amongst the given options is HSP because it is the most important differential of hypersensitivity angiitis. Hypersensitivity angiitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis or hypersensitivity angiitis or leukocytoclastic angiitis is a small vessel vasculitis due to hypersensitivity reaction. It is usually to a known drug, e.g. cefoperazone, autoantigens or infectious agents. Immune complexes lodge in the vessel wall, attracting polymorphonuclear leukocytes who in turn release tissue-degrading substances leading to an inflammatory process. Hypersensitivity angiitis usually presents with skin manifestation, e.g. palpable purpura, but sometimes nerves, kidneys, joints and heart may also be involved. Diagnostic criteria At least 3 out of the 5 criteria are required Age > 16 Use of possible triggering drug in relation to symptoms. Palpable purpura Maculopapular rash Skin biopsy showing neutrophil infiltrate around the vessel. Henoch-schonlein purpura is the most important differential.
3
SLE
Polyarteritis nodosa
Henoch schonlein purpura
Buerger's disease
Pathology
null
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Cocaine withdrawal causes all except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Creeping bugs Patients withdrawing from cocaine typically experience fatigue, dysphoria, diurbed sleep, and some craving; some may experience depression".___________ Kaplan & Saddock. o Creeping bugs are seen in chronic cocaine abuse (not due to withdrawal). Cocaine Cocaine is an alkaloid derived from the Coca bush, Erythrexylum CoCa. It was the first local anaesthetic which was used clinically. Toxicity of cocaine may be : ? A. Acute toxicity : - Acute cocaine intoxication is characterized by : ? Sympathetic hyperactivity : - Tachycardia, hypeension, mydriasis, sweating, nausea & vomiting. Hypoinanic state : - Increased psychomotor activity, grandiosity, elation, hypervigilance, Increased speech output. B. Chronic overuse : - Chronic overuse can cause : ? Psychotic episodes (Cocaine psychosis) : Persecutory delusions with tactile hallucinations (formination). Tactile hallucinations are manifested as bugs crawling under the skin --) Cocaine bugs or magnan's symptoms. Other : - Anxiety reaction, compulsive behavior, delirium and delusional disorders. Black pigmentation of tongue and teeth.
4
Dysphoria
Fatigue
Disturbed sleep
Creeping bugs
Forensic Medicine
null
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About 90 days post-bone marrow transplant, a 55-year-old white woman began to complain of dry cough, shortness of breath, and chest pain. She was started on antibiotics and blood culture obtained at the time was negative and there was not improvement. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the lungs showed a halo of low attenuation around a nodular lesion. Analysis of lung biopsy was similar to methenamine silver-stained section below. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is
Aspergillus is widespread in nature and produces small conidia that are easily aerosolized. Atopic individuals often develop severe allergic reactions to the conidial antigens. In immunocompromised patients, the conidia may germinate to produce hyphae that invade the lungs and other tissues. Progress of disease can be rapid. A diagnosis of aspergillosis is supported by a tissue biopsy showing invasion by the organism and a positive culture from a normally sterile site. Aspergilli may be airborne in the environment and be laboratory culture contaminants or present in orally obtained samples from patients without apparent clinical illness and at low risk for invasive aspergillosis and such finding should be interpreted with caution. In tissue Aspergillus spp. (most commonly A. fumigatus) have septate hyphae 3 to 6 mm in width that are described as having acute angle branching. In bone marrow transplant patient's infection may occur early after transplant or after several months as in this case. The other infections can occur in a compromised host but would differ from what is shown. Particularly, the septate hyphae and acute angle branching are not consistent with agents of mucormycosis that have wide non-septate hyphae. Histoplasma capsulatum, which causes histoplasmosis in humans, grows in yeast form in the infected person. Normal healthy individuals may be infected; however, in the immunocompromised host the infection can be more severe.
1
Aspergillosis
Candidiasis
Histoplasmosis
Mucormycosis
Microbiology
Mycology
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single
True about vagina development is all except
Mullerian duct forms upper 2/3rd of vagina.
3
Mucous membrane of vagina is derived from endoderm of urogenital sinus.
Hymen is remnant of sinovaginal bulb.
Upper 1/3 rd of vagina is derived from mullerian ducts.
Lower 1/3rd of vagina is derived from urogenital sinus.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Minimum hCG level that a urine pregnancy test can detect is?
5 m IU/ ml REF: Danfoh's Obstetrics and Gynecology, 10th Edition page 4, Current OB/GYN > Chapter 9. Normal Pregnancy & Prenatal Care > Normal Pregnancy > URINE PREGNANCY TEST: Sensitive, early pregnancy test measure changes in levels of hCG. There is less cross-reaction with luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyrotropin, which all share common a subunit with hCG, when the /3 subunit of hCG is measured. hCG is produced by the syncytiotrophoblast 8 days after feilization and may be detected in the maternal serum after implantation occurs, 8-11 days after conception. hCG levels peak at approximately 10-12 weeks of gestation. Levels gradually decrease in the second and third trimesters and increase slightly after 34 weeks. The half-life of hCG is 1.5 days. After termination of pregnancy levels drop exponentially. Normally, serum and urine hCG levels return to nonpregnant values (< 5 m U/mL) 21-24 days after delivery. hCG is measured in milli-international units per milliliter (m IU/ml) The detection of greater than 35 m IU of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the first morning void has a very high specificity for pregnancy /3 Hcg in m IU/m1 Result Under 5 m IU/ml Negative- Not pregnant Between 5-25 m IU/ml: "Equivocal"- Maybe pregnant may not be- Repeat test Over 25 m IU/ml Positive- Pregnant
1
5 m IU/ ml
10-20 m IU/ ml
20-30 rn IU/ ml
35 m IU/ ml
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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In competitive inhibition the relation Km and Vmax is one of the following -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Km increase and Vmax is the same Competitive inhibition-Km is high Vmax is sameNon Competitive inhibition-Vmax lowered Km unaltered Type of inhibitorKmVmaxReversible inhibbitor o CompetitiveIncreasedNo effecto Non-competitiveNo effectDecreasedo UncompititiveDecreasedDecreasedIrrversible inhibitor (same as reversible competitive)No effectDecreased
2
Km and Vmax are the same
Km increases and Vmax is the same
Km decreases and Vmax increases
Km and Vmax decreases
Biochemistry
Enzyme Kinetics
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Organ of rosenmullar is remnant of
The epoophoron or epoophoron (also called organ of Rosenmuller or the parovarium) is a remnant of the mesonephric tubules that can be found next to the ovary and fallopian tube
3
Endodermal sinus
Mulleria duct
Mesonerphric tuble
Paramesonephric duct
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Which of the following organism can penetrate the normal cornea –a) Gonococcusb) Pseudomonasc) Diphtheriad) Streptococcuse) Staphylococcus epidermidis
The organisms which can penetrate intact corneal epithelium are Neisseria gonorrhoea, Haemophilus Aegyptus, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Listeria species and Neisseria meningitides.
4
a
bc
ad
ac
Ophthalmology
null
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A major source of Von Willebrand factor (vWF) –
Circulating factor VIII has two components. a)   Factor VIIIc (Procoagulant protein) This is the smaller component It is synthesized in the liver (main source) and kidney. It is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. b)   Von Willebrand factor (vWF) This is the larger component. It is produced by endothelial cells (main source) and megakaryocytes. It has two major functions - Helps in platelets adhesion by interacting platelet membrane glycoprotein Ib-IX. Stabilizes factor VIIIc.
3
Erythrocytes
Neutrophils
Endothelial cells
Monocytes
Pediatrics
null
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Aniseikonia refers to
ANISEIKONIA Aniseikonia is defined as a condition wherein the images projected to the visual coex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size and/or shape. Etiological types: 1. Optical aniseikonia: may occur due to either inherent or acquired anisometropia of high degree. 2. Retinal aniseikonia: may develop due to displacement of retinal elements towards the nodal point in one eye due to stretching or oedema of the retina. 3. Coical aniseikonia: implies asymmetrical simultaneous perception inspite of equal size of images formed on the two retinae. Symptoms : 1. Asthenopia, i.e., eyeache, browache and tiredness of eyes. 2. Diplopia due to difficult binocular vision when the difference in images of two eyes is more than 5 percent. 3. Difficulty in depth perception. Figure : Schematic presentation of the ocular sources determining aniseikonia and the visualization of a visual field angle a (for simplicity the optical and visual axis are assumed equal here). Reference :- A K KHURANA; pg num:-39
4
Difference in the refractive power
Difference in the corneal diameter
Difference in image colour
Difference in the retinal image size
Ophthalmology
Optics and refraction
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Hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the interphalangeal joints is caused by injury in the
i.e. (Ulnar nerve): (59, 134-BDC-l 5th)An ulnar nerve lesion at the writ produces ulnar claw hand'CLAW HAND - due to the un opposed action of the long flexors and extension of the fingers, there is hyperextension at the metacarpo phalangeal joint and flexion at the interphalangeal joints involving the ring and little fingers - more than the index and middle fingers* If both median and ulnar nerves are paralysed the result is complete claw hand* Ulnar injury at the wrist can be tested by froment's sign
1
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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Which of the following grows in cell culture media
Chlamydia - cell lines that have been irradiated with a metabolic inhibitor are used for isolation of chlamydia. McCoy cell treated with cycloheximide are the most commonly used cell lines. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition
1
Chlamydia
Ureoplasma urealyticum
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Trophyrema whippeli
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of the following except: September 2005
Ans. C: Fever >42 degree celsiusAppendicitis is more common in men The risk of perforation is:Less than 10 years old = 50%10-50 years old = 10%Over 50 years old = 30%Clinical features of appendicitis:Central abdominal pain moving to right iliac fossaNausea, vomiting, anorexiaLow-grade pyrexia (37.2-37.7 degree celsius)Localised tenderness in right iliac fossaRight iliac fossa peritonismPercussion tenderness is a kinder sign of peritonism than reboundRovsing's sign = pain in right iliac fossa on palpation of the left iliac fossa
3
Anorexia
Rovsing's sign
Fever >42 degree celsius
Peri-umbilical colic
Surgery
null
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Which intrinsic muscle is not supplied by median nerve -
null
4
Abductor potlicis brevis
Opponens pollicis
First lumbrical
Adductor poll ids brevis
Anatomy
null
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Glucagon is secreted by
Glucagon, a peptide hormone secreted by the pancreas, raises blood glucose levels. Its effect is opposite that of insulin, which lowers blood glucose levels. The pancreas releases glucagon when blood sugar (glucose) levels fall too low. Glucagon causes the liver to conve stored glycogen into glucose, which is released into the bloodstream. High blood glucose levels stimulate the release of insulin. Insulin allows glucose to be taken up and used by insulin-dependent tissues. Thus, glucagon and insulin are pa of a feedback system that keeps blood glucose levels at a stable level.The hormone is synthesized and secreted from alpha cells (a-cells) of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine poions of the pancreas.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-443
1
a cell
ss cell
d cell
G cell
Physiology
Endocrinology
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All of the following take part in the pathogenesis of macularedema in diabetic retinopathy except
Ans. (a) Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunctionRef: Harrision 17/e, p. 2286-2287; Yanoff and Duker 2/e, p. 877- 880; Parson's 20/e, p. 294 - 298Pathogenesis of macular edema is due to the same changes as overall for DR.
1
Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunction
Oxidative stress
VEGF
Increased protein kinase - C
Ophthalmology
Retina
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The following structure represents all the 3 components of the embryonic disc
The outer epithelial layer formed by the ectoderm, inner mucosal layer by the endoderm and middle fibrous layer by the mesoderm. Ref: Dhingra 6th edition page no.12
1
Tympanic membrane
Retina
Meninges
None of the above
ENT
Ear
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If two buds of pancreas do not fuse, the anomaly is-
null
2
Ectopic pancreas
Pancreatic divisum
Annular pancreas
Accessory pancreas
Anatomy
null
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The cardiac jelly formed around the hea tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
Prior to looping, the acellular space between the myocardium and endocardium in the hea is filled with a deformable extracellular matrix, the cardiac jelly, secreted by the myocardium. Radioactive labeling demonstrates that proteins produced in the myocardium flow toward the endocardium and are incorporated into the basal lamina. The cardiac jelly has a variety of functions related to hemodynamic performance, cardiac looping, and cell migration in cardiac septation and formation of the endocardial cushion valves at the atrioventricular (AV) junction and outflow tract of the hea. Ref: Keller B.B., Markwald R.R., Hoying J.B. (2011). Chapter 9. Molecular Development of the Hea. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e.
4
Pericardium
Mesocardium
Myocardium
Endocardial cushion valves
Anatomy
null
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Most common presentation of organ damage in Diabetes mellitus is
(A) Retinal changes # CHRONIC SYMPTOMS OF DIABETES are due to vascular damage from persistent hyperglycemia.> Vascular damage leads to end-organ damage.> Other conditions associated with diabetes, such as hypertension, dyslipidemia (as well as smoking) accelerate the development of vascular damage and the chronic complications of diabetes, which are the following:# Microvascular complications are a significant cause of morbidity. Persistent hyperglycemia is the major cause for the microvascular complications which are highly specific for diabetes. Retinopathy with potential loss of vision Nephropathy leading to kidney failure Peripheral neuropathy leading to pain, foot ulcers, and limb amputation Autonomic neuropathy causing gastrointestinal, genitourinary, cardiovascular symptoms and sexual dysfunction# Macrovascular complications are the main cause of mortality.> Although persistent hyperglycemia may contribute to macrovascular complications, it is the associated conditions (hypertension, dyslipidemia, smoking) that account for most of the burden of the macrovascular complications. Coronary heart disease which is the major cause of death for patients with diabetes Peripheral vascular disease Cerebrovascular disease> Diabetic retinopathy may be the most common microvascular complication of diabetes. The risk of developing diabetic retinopathy or other microvascular complications of diabetes depends on both the duration and the severity of hyperglycemia. Development of diabetic retinopathy in patients with type 2 diabetes was found to be related to both severity of hyperglycemia and presence of hypertension.> Diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of renal failure. It is defined by proteinuria > 500 mg in 24 hours in the setting of diabetes, but this is preceded by lower degrees of proteinuria, or "microalbuminuria." Microalbuminuria is albumin excretion of 30-299 mg/24 hours. Without intervention, diabetic patients with microalbuminuria typically progress to proteinuria and overt diabetic nephropathy. This progression occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
1
Retinal changes
Microalbuminuria
Autonomic neuropathy
Coronary artery disease
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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A 52-year-old woman loses her right kidney following an automobile accident. A CT scan of the abdomen 2 years later shows marked enlargement of the left kidney. The renal enlargement is an example of which of the following adaptations?
Hyperophy Response to trophic signals or increased functional demand and is commonly a normal process. The molecular basis of hyperophy reflects the increased expression of growth-promoting genes (proto-oncogenes) such as myc and ras. -Hyperplasia (choice C) of renal tubular cells may occur, but an enlargement of the kidney in this patient is best referred to as hyperophy (i.e., increased organ size and function). Diagnosis: Hyperophy
4
Atrophy
Dysplasia
Hyperplasia
Hyperophy
Pathology
Basic Concepts
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"adder head" appearance on excretory urography is seen in
(Ureterocele) (1310-LB) (1290-B & L 25th)Ureterocele is a cystic enlargement of the intramural portion of the ureter thought to result from congenital atresia of the ureteric orifice.* The "adder-head' on excretory urography is typical* Usually the cyst wall is composed of urothelium only and the diagnosis is confirmed by the cystoscopic appearance of a translucent cyst enlarging and collapsing as urine flows in from the upper ureter.
3
Hydronephrosis
Infantile polycystic kidney
Ureterocele
Horseshoe kidney
Surgery
Kidney & Ureturs
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Cardiac hyperaemia/vasodilation is due to which mediator?
Histamine and adenosine are vasodilators seen in cardiac muscles.Parasympathetic stimulation releases Ach at their endings which causes vasodilation. The effect is more in glands and GIT.Adrenaline acts alpha and beta receptors. It causes vasoconstriction alpha receptors in the blood vessels of the skin and mucous membrane whereas on skeletal blood vessels beta receptor stimulation causes vasodilation. cardiac acceleration by adrenaline is beta-receptor stimulation.Except in kidney dopamine produces vasoconstriction. Ref: Textbook of medical physiology by N Geetha, 2nd edition, page no. 181,182,351
4
Ach
Adrenaline
Dopamine
Adenosine
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
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Colombo plan is a plan of:
null
3
UNO
World Bank
Common Wealth countries
Government of Ceylon
Dental
null
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Folic acid supplementation is necessory for -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pregnant females Body stores of folate are not large, about 5-10 mg, and therefore, folate deficiency can develop quickly.Folic acid requirements are greatest in conditions where there is rapid cell multiplication, such as during growth in young children and during pregnancy.Folic acid supplementation during pregnancy has been found to increase the bih weight of infants and decrease the incidence of low bih babies.Intake values recommended by ICMR (2010) are given below Per dayHealthy adults 200 mcgPregnancy 500 mcgLactation 300 mcgChildren 80-120 mcg
3
Mensturating females
Elderly females
Pregnant females
All
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Lower border of pharynx is the level of:
Pharynx, the upper portion of gut tube, is funnel-shaped fibromuscular tube that extends from the base of the skull to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage at the level of C6 vertebra.  It continues inferiorly as the esophagus.
4
C2
C3
C4
C6
Anatomy
null
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Which of the following is not a chronic myelopro liferative disorder
Example of mycloproliferative disorders Polycythemia vera 1o myelofibrosis Essential thrompocythemia CML
2
Polycythemia vera
Acute myeloid leukemia
CML
Essential thrombocytopenia
Pathology
null
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Best investigation for Zenker's diverticulum is:
Ans. (a) Barium swallowRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Page 1020-1022* IOC for Zenker's - Barium swallow* IOC for Achalasia - Manometry* IOC for Barret's - Endoscopic biopsy
1
Barium swallow
Endoscopy
CECT
EUS
Surgery
Oesophagus
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Which of the following treatment for menorrhagia is not suppoed by evidence?
Ethamsylate is known to reduce capillary fragility. Hence it is not effective for uterine bleeding which is more due to the vasodilator prostaglandins. Antiprostaglandins are used since NSAIDs reduce prostaglandin levels by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and decreasing the ratio of prostacyclin to thromboxane. Prostaglandin E2 synthesis Prostaglandin E binding sites are reduced as well.
1
Ethamsylate
Tranexamic acid
OCP
Progesterone therapy on days 5 -25
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
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All of the following are predominant motor neuropathy except
Motor predominant neuropathies are immune neuropathies: acute GBS,a cute intermittent porphyria,laed neuropathy,diphtheric neuropathy,brachial neuritis-,diabetic lumbosacral plexus neuropathy,hereditarymotor-sensory neuropathy. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567
4
Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculo neuropathy
Porphyric neuropathy
Lead intoxication
Arsenic intoxication
Medicine
C.N.S
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Which of the following should be avoided initially in hemorrhagic shock: March 2011
Ans. B: Dextrose 5% Hypotonic solutions (e.g. dextrose) are poor volume expanders and should not be used in the treatment of shock unless the deficit is free water loss (e.g. diabetes insipidus) or patients are sodium overloaded (e.g. cirrhosis) Glucose containing solutions should not be used in shock (they exacerbate ischaemic brain damage)
2
Ringer lactate
Dextrose 5%
Normal saline
None of the above
Surgery
null
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Talkativeness and flight of ideas are suggestive of -
null
3
Schizophrenia
Hysteria
Mania
Tricyclic antidepressants
Psychiatry
null
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single
Auto-splenectomy is associated with -
Answer- A. Systemic lupus erythematosusSLE patients with thrombocytosis anil antiphospholipid sytdrome are at risk of developing autosplenectomy.
1
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Trauma
Sarcoidosis
ITP
Medicine
null
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% of children with simple febrile seizures developing epilepsy is –
Children with febrile seizures have an increased risk of developing epilepsy. Between 2% to 7% of all children with febrile seizures develop epilepsy if followed up to the age of 25 years. Risk depends on type of febrile seizure : i) Simple febrile seizures →2% of all children with simple febrile seizures. ii) Complex febrile seizures → 6-8% of all children with complex febrile seizures. Three major risk factors increase the risk of epilepsy :- Complex febrile seizures. Pre-existing neurodevelopment abnormality. Epilepsy in first degree relatives.
1
1–2%
2–5%
5–10%
10–20%
Pediatrics
null
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single
The primary auditory cortex lies primarily in which lobe of the cerebral cortex?
Most of the primary auditory cortex is in the temporal lobe, but the association auditory cortices  extend  over  much  of  the  insular lobe and even onto the lateral portion of the parietal lobe.
4
Limbic lobe
Occipital lobe
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
Physiology
null
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single
Superior mesenteric aery supplies:
Colon
1
Colon
Anus
Rectum
Descending colon
Anatomy
null
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Most impoant investigation for pericardial effusion -
2D Echocardiography is the investigation of choice for Pericardial Effusion ,Cardiac Tamponade ,Valvular Hea ds , Cardiomyopathy
3
Cardiac catheterization
USG
Echocardiography
X-ray chest
Radiology
Cardiovascular system
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Which of the following tests is not used in the diagnosis of insulinoma
Answer is B (Xylose test) : Xylose test is used in the diagnosis of malabsorption due to intestinal mucosal disease. This test is not used for the diagnosis of Insulinomas Fasting blood glucose, C- peptide levels and Insulin Glucose Ratio are all used in the diagnosis of Insulinomas. Diagnosis of Insulinomas 6,uU/m1 when blood glucose in < 40 mg/dl " align="left" height="40" width="237">Serum insulin levels (fasting) Serum glucose levels (fasting) Serum C- peptide levels (Elevated) Serum proinsulin levels (Elevated) Insulin / Glucose Ratio (> 0.3) Plasma fl-Hydroxybulyrate (Decreased) The most reliable test is a fast upto 72 hours with serum glucose, C-peptide and insulin levels measurements every 4-8 hours
2
Fasting blood glucose
Xylose test
C- peptide levels
Insulin /Glucose Ratio
Medicine
null
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single
Chances of veical transmission of Hepatitis B may be high as
Answer is D (90%) The rate of perinatal transmission of hepatitis B (HBV) essentially depends on the presence or absence of HBe Ag and viral replication. The rate of perinatal transmission of HBV may be as high as 90% in neonates born to mothers who are positive for HBe AG. 'The likelihood of perinatal transmission of HBV correlates with the presence of HBe Ag and high level viral replication. 90% of HBe Ag positive mothers but only 10-15% of Anti-HBe Ag negative mothers transmit HBV to their offspring' - Harrison 18th/2547 `Transmission of infection from an HBV carrier mother to her neonate accounts for the majority of new infections in the world today. Sixty to 90% of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs Ag) positive mothers who are Hepatitis B 'e' antigen (HBe Ag) positive transmit the disease to their offspring, whereas mothers who are positive for antibody to HBe Ag (Anti - HBe) do so less frequently (15-20%). -
4
25%
40%
60%
90%
Medicine
null
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single
pO2 pressure at sea level:
Ans. (c) 160* At sea level the atmosphere exerts a total pressure of 760mmHg. Since the atmosphere is 21% 02 (by volume), the partial pressure of oxygen (pO,)= 0.21 x 760 = 160 mmHg.* The partial pressure of C02 (pC02) at sea level is 0.23 mmHg.
3
140
150
160
180
Physiology
Principles of Gas Exchange - Respiratory Membrane
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single
A one and a half year old child holding her father's hand slipped and fell but did not let go of her father's hand. After that she continued to cry and hold the forearm in pronated position and refused to move the affected exremity. Which of the following management of this stage is most appropriate -
This is a case of pulled elbow. Treatment is simple. The child's attention is diverted, the elbow is quickly supinated and then slightly flexed.
1
Supinate the forearm
Examine the child under GA
Elevate the limb and observe
Investigate for osteomyelitis
Orthopaedics
null
9995aac2-a7a4-45a2-b3af-5470f4bb880a
single
A 22 year football player came to the hospital with pain and swelling at the lateral aspect of ankle. The emergency depament diagnosed as inversion sprain. Which of the following ligament is affected ?
A forced inversion of foot results in tear of calcaneofibular ligament, sometimes anterior talofibular ligament. They prevent inversion of foot Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 1431
2
Calcaneonavicular
Calcaneofibular
Long plantar
Sho plantar
Anatomy
Lower limb
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multi
Most common nerve involvement in fracture surgical neck humerus:
A i.e. Axillary nerve Injury Common Nerve Involvement Anterior shoulder dislocation Fracture surgical neck humerus Axillary (circumflex humeral) nerveQ Axillary nerveQ Fracture shaft humerus Fracture supracondylar humerus Medial condyle humerus Radial nerveQ Radial or median nerve Ulnar nerve Monteggia fracture dislocation Posterior interosseous nerve Vockman's ischemic contracture Lunate dislocation Median nerve Median nerveQ Hip dislocation Sciatic nerve Knee dislocation Peroneal nerve
1
Axillary nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
Surgery
null
80194c0f-6655-49ed-83ae-7b5348d85a76
single
Surgical removal of torus is indicated when
In addition to above indications, torus should also be removed when it interferes with development of adequately extended denture or when patient is too much concerned about it.
4
Torus impinges on soft palate
It interferes with development of proper PPS
Torus is an undercut that traps debris and food
All of the above
Dental
null
f1eb0fb1-1b4a-41a6-b654-02f485fa7388
multi
All the following are used for the detoxification of opioids except
Pethidine isn't used and methadone is most commonly used as it has v v less addiction liability and it acts slow and in uniform manner opiod withdrawl and opiod detoxification has to be read in detail opiod detoxification can be done by 3 main steps namely SYMPTOMATIC DETOXIFICATION=== using clonidine, benzodiazepam, dicyclomine, loperamide AGONIST ASSOSIATED DETOXIFICATION==using methadone and buprenorphoine ANTAGONIST ASSOSIATED DETOXIFICATION===using Naltrexone Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 339
4
Methadone
Clonidine
Buprenorphine
Pethidine
Psychiatry
Substance abuse
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multi
Which bacteria show Rotatory motility
Balantidium coli is ciliate which shows rotatory motility.
3
Trichomonas
Mycoplasma
Balantidium
Borrelia
Microbiology
null
7a5c2f70-d9a9-4c6e-85a6-e2d21795de88
single
Which among the following drains into IVC
Ans) a (Renal) Ref BD Chaurasia AbdomenSMV joins with splenic veins to form portal veins behind neck of pancreas.IMV drains into splenic vein.Splenic vein forms portal vein with SMV.
1
Renal
SMV
IMV
Splenic vein
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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single
GH level increases during
(B) Hypoglycaemia # Stimulators of Growth Hormone (GH) secretion include:> Peptide hormones: GHRH (somatocrinin) through binding to the growth hormone-releasing hormone receptor (GHRHR) Ghrelin through binding to growth hormone secretagogue receptors (GHSR)> Sex hormones: Increased androgen secretion during puberty (in males from testis and in females from adrenal cortex)> Estrogen: Clonidine and L-DOPA by stimulating GHRH release a4b2 nicotinic agonists, including nicotine, which also act synergistically with clonidine. Hypoglycemia, arginine and propranolol by inhibiting somatostatin release Deep sleep Niacin as nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3) Fasting Vigorous exercise> Inhibitors of GH secretion include: GHIH (somatostatin) from the periventricular nucleus Circulating concentrations of GH and IGF-1 (negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus) Hyperglycemia Glucocorticoids Dihydrotestosterone> In addition to control by endogenous and stimulus processes, a number of foreign compounds (xenobiotics such as drugs and endocrine disruptors) are known to influence GH secretion and function.
2
REM sleep
Hypoglycaemia
Increased cortisol
Hyperglycemia
Medicine
Miscellaneous
17912ab1-f97f-48cc-a4e4-809706180afe
single
A 50 year old female patient complains of difficulty in swallowing. Patient gives h/o multiple diagnostic CT-scans of the head and neck region. The incidence of which of the following salivary gland tumor will be more likely in this patient?
The incidence of salivary gland tumors, both benign and malignant, is increased in patients treated with irradiation for diseases of the head and neck and in Japanese atomic bomb survivors. Most of the tumors were benign, with Warthin tumor being the most frequent. Among the malignant tumors, the frequency of mucoepidermoid tumor was highest. An association between tumors of the salivary glands and dental radiography has been shown, although this association is likely a consequence of more dental radiographs made to investigate the symptoms of an existing tumor, rather than the dental radiation doses inducing tumors.   Reference: White and Pharoah, Oral radiology, Ed 8th, pg-91, 92
2
Pleomorphic adenocarcinoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Acinic cell carcinoma
Radiology
null
73ec54d8-9f2f-421d-a8c1-14585e6b5351
multi
Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cord blood Neonatal thyroid screening : Guidelines by Indian Academy of Paediatrics 1.Screening should idealy be done for all newborns : because there are generally not signs or symptoms of hypothyroidism at bih. 2. Use cord blood, or wait for 5-7 days for sampling : results are difficult to interpret in between. 3.Test for T4 and TSH : insist on an early repo (within 2-3 days). level of TSH upto 10 piu/ml is considered nonnal upto 8-10 weeks of age. 4.If abnormal, repeat to confirm diagnosis. 5.If conveniently possible WITHOUT DELAY, do thyroid scan before staing treatment. 6.Explain problem, and consequences of not treating, in detail to parents to ensure compliance. 7.Begin treatment with thyroxine (not thyroid extract) as early as possible : dose 10-12 mg/kg/day as single daily dose. 8. Monitor with TSH levels : at age of 2 weeks, then every 2 months for the first year of life, and then every 3-6 months till pubey is completed. 9. Soon after beginning therapy, monitor T4 also for rapid assessment of adequacy of dose. After the first year, in a good laboratory, T4 assessment, alone should be adequate for monitoring. 10.Review at age of 2-3 years to reconfirm diagnosis. Thyroxine should be stopped for 6-8 weeks and T4, TSH repeated. Thyroid scan should be done at this time if not done before staing treatment.
1
Cord blood
24 hours after bih
48 hours after bih
72 hours after bih
Pediatrics
null
561b7a24-2f1a-43f2-a7f3-ca3e49259246
single
Which is the drug of choice for malaria in a 26-year-old pregnant lady, in the first trimester?
Chloroquine is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of malaria during all phases of pregnancy. Chloroquine is a rapidly acting blood schizonticide which destroys asexual blood forms of all plasmodium species. For woman with chloroquine-resistant infection, mefloquine is given orally.
2
Proguanil
Chloroquine
Aemesin
Halofantarine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Ideal hearing aid for patient with anotia is
Anotia ("no ear") describes a rare, congenital deformity, that involves the complete absence of the pinna, the outer projected poion of the ear, and narrowing or absence of the ear canal. A bone-anchored hearing aid is an implantable device that allows the listener to hear by bone conduction without the inconvenience of a traditional bone conduction hearing aid. It's more comfoable, and the sound quality is better, paly because the device stays in place. Unlike a middle ear implant, which requires a normally functioning middle ear, this type of hearing aid is typically used by listeners who have conductive or mixed hearing loss. Bone conduction hearing aids have traditionally been used by people born without ear canals or with small, misshapen ears that can't suppo conventional hearing aids, or by people who have chronic middle ear disease that's aggravated by wearing a hearing aid or earmold in the ear canal (for example, people with draining ears).
2
Incanal
Bone anchored hearing aid
Vestibular
Transcutaneous
ENT
null
787a3117-4dee-46a2-9fb7-1ff555551f34
single
Newborn loses how much weight in first week ?
O.P.Ghai 9th edition - page 13
1
5-10%
1-2%
10-20%
None
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
Metabolism of chloramphenicol is by-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glucuronide conjugation o Chloramphenicol undergoes enterohepatic circulation and is primarily conjugated with glucuronic acid in the liver.
1
Glucuronide conjugation
Oxidation
Acetyl ation
Sulfation
Pharmacology
null
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single
Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystitis is commonly associated with CyclophosphamideCyclophocphamide is the most common cause of hemorrhagic cystitis.The drug Cyclophosphamide itself is not toxic,The drug toxicity is due to its hepatic conversion to the metabolite "acrolein" which is excreted in the urine and causes damage to the bladder mucosaIt is believed that urothelial damage occurs due to direct contact of the bladder wall with acrolein which causes edema, ulceration, neovascularization, hemorrhage and necrosisThus patients receiving cyclophosphamide should always receive good hydration and a foley's catheter is often placed to ensure immediate drainage of the bladder.The hemorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide can be reduced in intensity or prevented by intravenous administration of"MESNA" MESNA is a thiol compound. The free (Thiol) groups of MESNA combine directly with double bond of acrolein ot form a stable nontoxic compound. MESNA is given orallyQ.Cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis appear to be dose related and is most prevalent in patients who are dehydrated and those receiving intravenous cyclophosphamide.
3
Busulphan
Cisplatin
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
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single
Regarding Chlamydia infection of the eyes, true statement include the following except:
Ans (d) Penicillin is the treatment Penicillin is not effective against Chlamydia Drugs effective against Chlamydia include - Tetracycline - Erythromycin - Azithromycin - Sulfonamides - Rifampicin Chlamydia can be cultured, but not in cell free media. In most cases trachoma inflammation undergoes spontaneous resolution and only few cases progress to conjunctival scarring.
4
Mostly asymptomatic
Can be cultured
Inclusion conjunctivitis is an acute ocular infection caused by sexually transmitted C. trachomatis strains (usually serovars D through K)
Penicillin is the treatment
Microbiology
null
4368e6af-3f8f-462a-85cc-7757329e631f
multi
Which of following is not a schneider's first rank symptom-
null
3
Passivity phenominon
Auditory hallucinations
Delusions of self reference
Delusional perception
Psychiatry
null
7827ad54-a6a0-43b4-a1cc-b46bedea46f5
multi
Tic douloureux is facial pain traveling through which of the following nerves -
Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Trigeminal o Tic Douloureux refers to the association of Hemifacial spasm with Trieeminal Neuralgia (Trieeminal nerve)o The pain of trigeminal neuralgia tends to occur in paroxysms and is maximal at or near onset.o Facial spasma can be seen with severe pain.# This finding gave rise to the older term for this disorder (Tic douloureux).# The clinical association of hemificial spasm with severe pain is called Tic douloureux.o Trigeminal neuralgia was also known as Suicide disease.# It is considered by many among the most painful conditions of the mankind and was once labelled the suicide disease because of the significant number of people taking their own lives before effective treatments were discovered.
3
Facial
Hypoglossal
Trigeminal
Vestibulocochlear
Medicine
Cranial Nerve Disorders
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single
Incomplete casting can be due to:
Reasons for incomplete castings: Insufficient venting Inadequate sprue (too small sprue) Insufficient alloy used Alloy not sufficiently molten or fluid Mold is not heated to casting temperature Premature solidification of alloy Low casting pressure
4
Insufficient venting.
Inadequate or too small spreu.
Low casting pressure.
All of the above.
Dental
null
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multi
A 75 yr. old female patient presented with microscopic haematuria with RBC casts seen in the urine. Her serum creatinine was 3.9 mg/dl. Light microscopy and Silver staining of the Kidney specimen revealed the following: Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnosis and the site of Ig deposits?
The light microscopy reveals uniform thickening of basement membrane which when stained with Silver stain reveals the SPIKE and DOME pattern of staining seen in membranous GN. MPGN would reveal Tram track or splitting of GBM on electron and Silver stain. PSGN would reveal large hypercellular glomerulus with subepithelial deposits on electron microscopy.
3
PSGN, subepithelial deposits
Type 1 MPGN, subendothelial deposits.
Membranous GN, subepithelial deposits
IgA nephropathy, mesangial deposits
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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single
Leukocyte alkaline phosphate is increased in all,except-
null
2
Polycythyemia vera
CML
Myelofibrosis
Myeloid metaplasia
Medicine
null
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multi
A 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department complaining of pain in the umbilical region that moves to the right iliac fossa. Which is a corroborative sign of acute appendicitis?
Rousing's sign is corroborative of acute appendicitis. The other signs are corroborative of appendicitis. Hyperesthesia is a useful sign provided that it is performed objectively. The area of hyperesthesia is a triangular area (base placed upward) in the right lower abdomen.
1
Referred pain in the right side with pressure on the left (Rovsing) sign
Increase of pain with testicular elevation
Relief of pain in lower abdomen with extension of thigh
Relief of pain in lower abdomen with internal rotation of right thigh
Surgery
Small & Large Intestine
e431916e-9875-4715-a20c-6b1b7549825c
single
Severe pain in eye with loss of vision can be a manifestation of: March 2013 (h)
Ans. A i.e. Acute angle closure glaucoma
1
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Open angle glaucoma
Vitreous hemorrhage
Retinal detachment
Ophthalmology
null
b2167534-1b55-4a86-b0ea-fa255a64e738
single
The sacrotuberous ligament represents the origin of-
The superficial fibers of lower part of sacrotuberous ligament continue into the tendon of long head of biceps femoris.
3
Gluteus maximus
Semimembranosus
Long head of biceps femoris
Sacrospinous ligament
Anatomy
null
83ac5db9-1003-40b5-b259-c1f5c7809eaf
single
Maximum absorption of bicarbonate occurs at
About 67% of filtered, sodium, water, potassium, urea, 80% of filtered phosphate and bicarbonate, 100% of filtered glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in PCT Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 679
1
PCT
DCT
CT
ALH
Physiology
Renal physiology
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single
IL-2 activates Th 1 /CD 4 through
(D) All the above
4
NK cells
Th cells
T memory cells
All the above
Pathology
Misc.
78498ad9-1d64-4b64-8a36-58345c85fd0b
multi
Lower leg perforators are named after
.
1
Cockett
Boyd
Dodd
May or kuster
Anatomy
All India exam
41b278cb-be90-4a29-aae4-835ad684cf90
single
Silver tatoo is due to
null
1
deposition of Ag Amalgam in Mucosa
deposition of Ag Amalgam in Bone
deposition of Ag Amalgam in Dentin
deposition of Ag Amalgam in Enamel
Pathology
null
7718570e-c063-41f6-a680-168027891872
single
An 18 year old boy while riding a motorbike without a helmet sustained a road traffic accident. He is brought to casualty and imaging studies done. He is diagnosed with left frontal skull fracture and cortical contusion. He has had no seizures and his GCS is 10. Antiepileptic drug therapy in this patient
Prophylactic phenytoin reduces incidence of seizures after head injury, though there is no reduction in long term risk
2
Is contraindicated due to risk of rash
Indicated to reduce incidence of early onset post traumatic seizures
Is likely to cause increased cerebral edema
Indicated to reduce incidence of late onset post traumatic seizures
Medicine
null
899040c0-2426-4d12-9fad-99af7c624223
single
An elderly woman suffering from Schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect?
The history here is suggestive of tardive dyskinesia. TARDIVE DYSKINESIA It is an EPSE of the antipsychotics Occurs months to years after staing antipsychotics Signs and symptoms: Lip smacking or chewing Tongue protrusion Choreiform hand movements Pelvic thrusting Prevalance: 5% of patients per year of antipsychotic exposure Risk factors: elderly females those with affective illness i.e., Bipolar disorder > Schizophrenia those who have had acute EPS early in treatment Clozapine is least likely associated with Tardive dyskinesia booster: Tardive dyskinesia is caused by supersensitivity of dopamine receptors. It can be treated with dopamine depletors like tetrabenazine.
2
Haloperidol
Clozapine
Fluphenazine
Loxapine
Psychiatry
Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders
f541cc85-851a-4dfc-8176-434327434e0e
single
Bronchospasm is not caused by
D i.e. Halothane
4
Regurgitation
Aspiration
Intubation
Halothane
Anaesthesia
null
9ab192eb-ae4e-4eb2-9e64-362b704d2588
single
Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of medullary carcinoma of thy roid-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., RET proto oncogene o RET protooncogene is a growth factor receptor (receptor tyrosine kinase)o The RET protein is a receptor for the glial cell lined derived neurotrophic factor and structurally related proteins that promote cell survival during neural development,o RET is normally expressed in the following cells# Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid# Adrenal medulla# Parathyroid cell precursors.o Point mutation in the RET protooncogenes are associated with the following disorders.MEN type 2 A -o There is point mutation in RET extracellular domain which causes constitutive dimerization and activation leading to:-Medullary thyroid carcinomaAdrenal and parathyroid tumoursMEN type2B-o Point mutation in the RET cytoplasmic catalytic domain alter the substrate specificity of the tyrosine kinase and leads to:-Thyroid tumoursAdrenal tumorsSporadic Medullary' thvroid carcinomao Somatic rearrangement of the RET geneHirschsprung diseaseo This is caused by complete loss of RET function.
1
RET Proto Oncogene
Fap gene
Rb gene
BRCA 1 gene
Pathology
Thyroid and Parathyroid
6bef370d-6470-404a-9d49-57e289a586d5
single
Anti leprosy drug causing ichthyoses is ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Clofazamine Acquired ichthyosis (Ichthyosis acquista) Acquired ichthyosis is seen in : ? Deficiency :- Protein, Vitamin A, Kwashiorkor, Marasmus. Infection :- Leprosy, AIDS Senile ichthyosis :- Elderly Systemic diseases :- SLE, DM, hypothyroidism, Sarcoidosis, liver & kidney diseases. Malignancy, especially Hodgkin's lymphoma. Drugs :- Clofazimine, Statins, triparanol.
4
Dapsone
Clofazamine
Rifampicin
Clarithromycin
Skin
null
087606a4-a50e-45bf-90b8-d296ba71db4a
single
A 40yr old male presenting with URTI, hemoptysis and has elevated cANCA value is most likely having
Ans: b) Wegner's granulomatosis Wegner's granulomatosis is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by:i) Acute necrotizing granuloma of URT/LRTii) Necrotizing vasculitis involving small to medium vesselsiii) Renal disease - focal necrotizing crescentic glomerulitiscANCA is positive in 95% of all patients with acute generalized disease. Arise in titre suggest relapse.cANCA typically found in Wegner's granulomatosispANCAMicroscopic polyangitisChurg strauss syndromeGood pasteur's syndromeIdiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis
2
Churg strauss syndrome
Wegner's granulomatosis
Microscopic polyangitis
Good Pasteurs syndrome
Pathology
Blood Vessels
35bc9552-e542-4db5-a534-26157a22aefd
single
Deep transverse arrest is most commonly seen in:
Android pelvis
1
Android pelvis
Gynaecoid pelvis
Flat pelvis
Anthropoid pelvis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
375df9cb-8067-459b-a186-4b8af5c85e5d
single
Which of the following is a naturally occuring radioactive substance in the body in small quantities?
Sources of radiation exposure are: Natural sources and Manmade sources. The natural sources include cosmic rays, environmental (terrestrial and atmospheric) radiation, internal radiation (Potassium - 40 & Carbon -14) Man-made Radiation: Medical and dental: X rays, radioisotopes Occupational exposure Nuclear Misc: TV, Radio-active dial watches, Luminous markers Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 803
4
Radium 226
Bismuth 60
Iodine 131
Potassium 40
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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multi
The selection of a pulp protecting agent does not depend on:
The base is selected according to: Design of the cavity Type of permanent restorative material used Proximity of the pulp to the cavity walls
4
Remaining dentin thickness
Choice of restorative material
Symptoms of the patient
Stage of tooth development
Dental
null
12370ca6-3014-4068-b837-53f6efa3d4f7
single
A 30yr old patient presented with features of acute meningoencephalitis in the casualty. His CSF on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular microorganism. The most likely organism is -
option-1-Naegleria fowleri: 1. Acute and fulminating primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is caused by Naegleria fowleri. 2. Clinical features of N. fowleri: typical feature of meningitis with rhinitis are seen .The key to diagnosis is clinical suspicion based on recent history of swimming or diving in warm waters. NAEGLERIA FOWLERI ACANTHAMOEBA BALAMUTHIA Causes PAM(primary amoebic meningoencephalitis) Infective form -amoeboid form * Resides in fresh water pond * History of swimming in fresh water pond Flagellated forms-enter nares-cribriform plate-brain-PAM * So called "brain eating amoeba" Causes encephalitis-contact lens keratitis -optic route-Granulomatous encephalitis Aerosol route- lungs- brain - granulomatous encephalitis Causes granulomatous encephalitis option-2- Acanthamoeba species have been isolated as etiologic agents in Acanthamoeba keratitis: A. castellanii, A. polyphaga,. option-3- Disease: Granulomatous amebic encephalitis and Ulcerative keratitis option-4-E. histolytica and Entamoeba coli do not cause meningoencephalitis.
1
Naegleria fowleri
Acanthamoeba castellani
E. histolytica
Ent. Coli
Microbiology
Parasitology
ae3ca698-45fa-4cc4-99d1-8ab247a04f51
single
All are true regarding tetanus except -
<p> Tetanus (especially NNT) has a marked seasonal incidense in India:>50% cases in July-September. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:310-314. <\p>
2
Transmission through contaminated wounds and injuries
More common in winters and dry weather
Reservoir in soil and intestines of human and animals
No herd immunity or life long immunity
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
ea968b2d-e830-4e97-b2a0-18cc37cedfb7
multi
Normal urea excretion rate is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 10-20 gm/day "The physiologically normal individual excrete 12-20 gm of urea nitrogen in 24 hours"* However, excretion varies according to various factors, like nutritional status, dietary intake of proteins, physical activity level etc.
2
1-2 gm per day
10-20 gm/day
20-40 gm per day
50-100 gm/day
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
bac077df-07fd-49eb-8bb6-49cdda70303d
single
Kidney plays a role in maintaining constancy of milieu interior. Milieu interior refers to:
Milieu interior refers to the extracellular environment. The main function of kidney is homeostasis, the maintenance of the constancy of the milieu interior. Ref: Fundamentals of Medical Physiology by Joel Michael, Sabyasachi Sircar, 2010, Chapter 53.
1
ECF
ICF
Plasma
Serum
Biochemistry
null
15c47421-df2d-4957-adf8-c5072b6f9db8
single
Follow ing is/ are the causes of chronic cough with noncontributory chest radiograph-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above o 90% of patients who have chronic cough and a normal or noncontributory chest radiograph belong to one of the following causes:Use of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor;Post-nasal drainage;Gastroesophageal reflux; andAsthma.
4
Asthma
Post nasal drip
GERD
All the above
ENT
Larynx
d25e88e0-4be8-4bca-9946-331aa41dfffc
multi
Decreased O2 affinity of Hb in blood with decreased pH:
Ans. C. Bohr effecta. Bohr effect:i. Definition the decrease in O2 affinity of Hb when the pH of the blood falls is called the Bohr effectii. Deoxy Hb binds H+ more actively than does oxy Hb.iii. PH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases so that when the PCO2 rises the curve shifts to the right and the P50 rises this is Bohr effect.b. Haldone effect: CO2 transport in blood:i. Definition the ability of deoxygenated - blood to carry more CO2 than oxygenated Hb.ii. Deoxygenated Hb (weak acid) binds more H+ than oxy Hb (stronger acid) does and forms carbamino compound (Hb-CO2 ).iii. Venous blood carries more CO2 than Arterial blood and CO2 uptake is facilitated in tissues and CO2 release is facilitated in the lungs.iv. Thus the Haldane effect approximately doubles the amount of CO2 released from the blood in the lungs and approximately doubles the pickup of CO2 in the tissues
3
Haldane effect
Double Haldane effect
Bohr effect
Double Bohr effect
Physiology
Principles of Gas Exchange - Respiratory Membrane
c6b031c6-ff9f-40df-a4d3-a4707091c50a
single
The largest presenting diameter in cephalic presentation is :
None of the above
4
Biparietal diameter
Suboccipito bregmatic
Occipito frontal
None of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
2b9094ce-5721-409c-9138-1cae215b7348
multi
Neuro-physiological defects present in right lobe involvement are all, except
Dyscalculia is seen in left lobe involvement, as mathematical functions are done by the left lobe.
3
Visuo-spatial defect
Anosognosia
Dyscalculia
Dysgraphia
Physiology
null
06de1df8-23f3-4ee1-a554-af823d865a37
multi
Treatment of choice for Kawasaki diseae
Kawasaki disease is a vasculitis that mostly involves the coronary vessels. It presents as an acute systemic disorder, usually affecting children under 5 years.Kawasaki's disease is an acute, febrile, multisystem disease of children. Some 80% of cases occur prior to the age of 5, with the peak incidence occurring at <=2 years. It is characterized by nonsuppurative cervical adenitis and changes in the skin and mucous membranes such as edema; congested conjunctivae; erythema of the oral cavity, lips, and palms; and desquamation of the skin of the fingeips. Although the disease is generally benign and self-limited, it is associated with coronary aery aneurysms in ~25% of cases, with an overall case fatality rate of 0.5-2.8%.Presentation is with fever, generalised rash, including palms and soles, inflamed oral mucosa and conjunctival congestion resembling a viral exanthema. The cause is unknown but it is thought to be an abnormal immune response to an infectious trigger These complications usually occur between the third and fouh weeks of illness during the convalescent stage. Vasculitis of the coronary aeries is seen in almost all the fatal cases that have been autopsied. There is typical intimal proliferation and infiltration of the vessel wall with mononuclear cells. Beadlike aneurysms and thromboses may be seenalong the aery. Other manifestations include pericarditis, myocarditis,myocardial ischemia and infarction, and cardiomegaly . It occurs mainly in Japan and other Asian countries, such as China and Korea, but other ethnic groups may also be affected. Treatment is with aspirin (5 mg/kg daily for 14 days) and IV Ig (400 mg/kg daily for 4 days) . Ref Davidsons 23e p1041 ,Harrisons 20e p2588
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IV immunoglobulin
Steroid
Azathioprin
Not recalled
Medicine
Immune system
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Pterygium all are true except
. Arise from any pa of conjunctiva Ref: AK khurana 7th ed.
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Arise from any pa of conjunctiva
Can cause astigmatism
Surgery is treatment of choice
UV exposure is risk factor
Ophthalmology
All India exam
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Most common subtype of Rodent ulcer is:
Rodent ulcer is also known as basal cell carcinoma of the skin, or tear cancer which is a slow-growing type of cancer. Types of Rodent ulcers: Nodular (90%) (MC) Pigmented Cystic Superficial The most common type being nodular which has characteristic pearly whitenodules in the periphery with centralumbilication and telangiectatic vessels. Risk factor includes ultraviolet radiation
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Superficial
Cystic
Nodular
Pigmented
Surgery
FMGE 2018
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Achoffs bodies in rheumatic hea disease show all of following feautures except:
Aschoff bodies consists of foci of swollen esinophilic collagen surronded by lymphocytes ocassional plasma cells and plump macrophages called anitschkow cells. These cella are also called caterpillar cells some of the larfer macrophages become multinucleated to form achoff giant cells. (ref Robbins 7th/593-594)
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Anitkshkow cells
Epitheloid cells
Giant cells
Fibrinoid necrosis
Anatomy
Cardiovascular system
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Wiskott Aldrich syndrome is associated with all of the following except :
Answer is C (Low levels of IgG) : 'Immunoglobulin defect in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome include low serum concentration of IgM. IgA & IgG are normal and IgE is frequently increased' - Harrison 'Serum IgM levels is low but IgG and IgA levels are normal or elevated' - Ananthnaravanan
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Thrombocytopenia
Recurrent infections
Low levels of IgG
Deficient cell mediated immunity
Medicine
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Heller's myotomy is done for:September 2007, 2009, 2010
Ans. C: Achalasia cardiaAchalasia is associated with loss of ganglion cells in the esophageal myenteric plexus.These impoant inhibitory neurons induce LES relaxation and coordinate proximal-to-distal peristaltic contraction of the esophagusAchalasia is an esophageal motor disorder characterized by increased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, diminished-to-absent peristalsis in the distal poion of the esophagus composed of smooth muscle, and lack of a coordinated LES relaxation in response to swallowing.Barium radiology may show 'bird's beak' appearance.Esophageal (Heller) myotomy is a surgical procedure that is performed with minimally invasive techniques. The laparoscopic approach appears to be most appropriate.
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Esophageal carcinoma
Pyloric hyperophy
Achalasia cardia
Inguinal hernia
Surgery
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Pyruvate dehydrogenase is inhibited allosterically by ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., NADH
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AMP
Pyruvate
NADH
`Insulin
Biochemistry
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Which of the following statements about Grave’s disease is false?
Ref. Sabiston Textbook of Surgery. Pg. 2819   Graves disease is an autoimmune disease caused by the presence of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin in the plasma resulting in hyperthyroidism . The female : male ratio ranges from 5:1 to 10:1. Diffuse toxic goiter is the major manifestation of Graves disease. Pathogenesis
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Results in hyperthyroidism
Autoimmune disorder
Common in Male
Referred as Toxic diffuse goiter
Unknown
null
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Menorrhagea, which IUCD should be used -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mirena
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CNG
CuT
Mirena
Multiload
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Non-Hormonal - Intrauterine Devices
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Japanese B encephalitis is transmitted by
(C) Culex TAXONOMY OF SOME IMPORTANT ARBOVIRUSESFamilyGenusImportant speciesTogaviridaeAlphavirusChikungunya, O'nyong-nyong, Mayaro, Semliki Forest Sindbis, Ross River, Eastern, Western and Venezuelan equine encephalitis virusesFlaviviridaeFlavivirusJapanese encephalitis, Murray Valley encephalitis, WestNile, llheus, St. Louis encephalitis, Yellow Fever, Dengue types 1, 2, 3,4, Russian Spring Summer encephalitis complex, Louping ill, Powassan, Kyasanur Forest Disease. Omsk hemorrhagic feverBunyaviridaeBunyavirusPhlebovirusCalifornia encephalitis, Oropouche, TurlockSandfly fever viruses, Rift valley fever virusNairovirusCrimeanHantavirusCongo hemorrhagic fever viruses, Nairobi sheep disease virus, Ganjam virusHantan, Seoul, Puumala, Prospect Hill, Sin Nombre virusesReoviridaeOrbivirusColorado tick fever, African horse sickness, virusesRhabdoviri-daeVesiculovirusVesicular stomatitis virus, Chandipura virus
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Aedes
Anopheles
Culex
All of the above
Microbiology
Misc.
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Doppler ultrasound in pregnancy detect :
Ans. is d i.e. IUGR Doppler ultrasonography is a noninvasive technique to assess blood flow. It is useful for diagnosis of IUGR. "The utility of umbilical aery Doppler velocimetry was reviewed by the American College of obstetricians and gynecologists (1999, 2000). It was concluded that no benefit has been demonstrated other than in pregnancies with suspected fetal growth restriction. No benefit has been demonstrated for velocimetry for other conditions, such as post-term pregnancy, diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Similarly, velocimetry has not proved of value as a screening test for detecting fetal compromise in the general obstetrical population".
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Cardiovascular malformation
Neural tube defect
Abdominal masses
IUGR
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of dry mouth, fatigue, fever, and yellow sclerae. Physical examination shows mild jaundice and hepatomegaly Serum total bilirubin is 3.3 mg/dL. Serologic markers for viral hepatitis are negative. The anti-mitochondrial antibody test is negative. A liver biopsy discloses parenchymal and periportal inflammatory cell infiltrates composed primarily of lymphocytes and plasma cells. The patient's signs and symptoms abate following 2 months of treatment with steroids. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Autoimmune hepatitis is a type of chronic hepatitis, which is associated with circulating autoantibodies (e.g., antinuclear antibodies) and high levels of serum immunoglobulins. The disease typically affects young women but occasionally afflicts older women and men. It is often accompanied by other autoimmune diseases (e.g., Sjogren syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus). None of the other choices respond to steroids. Primary biliary cirrhosis (choice C) features anti-mitochondrial antibodies. Primary biliary cirrhosis (choice C) and primary sclerosing cholangitis (choice D) do not manifest the described histologic findings.Diagnosis: Autoimmune hepatitis
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Autoimmune hepatitis
Extrahepatic jaundice
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Pathology
Liver & Biliary Tract
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Intrauterine death most likely results in?
Ans. A. Hypofibrinogenemia. (Ref Textbook of Obstetrics D.C. Dutta 6th Ed.344f 345)Abruption placentae is the most common cause of severe consumptive coagulopathy in obstetrics.However, Slow development of maternal hypofibrinogenemia is most important complication of IUD.Intrauterine Death (IUD)Causes of recurrent intrauterine foetal death:DM, Rh incompatibility, Syphilis, Chronic nephritis, Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, Idiopathic placental in sufficiencyClinical features:a) Absent foetal heart sound, no foetal movements, no quickening and decreased abdominal girth and uterine size.b) "Eggshell Crackling" of foetal head is pathognomonic.c) X-ray features--hyperflexion of spine and hyperextension of neck.# Crowding of ribs.# Spalding's sign: usually appear 7 days after death, also found in extra uterine pregnancy with live foetus.# Robert's sign (gas in heart and great vessels) appears as early as 12 hour of death. It is the reliable sign of IUD.Management:a) In 80% of cases spontaneous expulsion of foetus occur within two weeks of death.b) However nowadays early termination is favoured.c) Indications for LSCS in IUD are:# Major degree placenta previae.# Previous two ore more LSCS.# Transverse lie.
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Hypofibrinogenemia
Cervical tear
Sterility
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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Brodman's area number for motor area -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 4 & 6 * Somatosensory area - Brodmann's area 3, 1 and 2.* Motor areas (motor & premotor) - Brodmann's area 4 & 6
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4 & 6
1, 2, 3
5 & 7
16 & 18
Physiology
Nervous System
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