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Which test is shown below?
|
Galeazzi's test: Performed between 3-8 month aged children in unilateral cases of developmental dysplasia of hip(DDH). Child is in supine position with the hip and knee in flexion Positive Galeazzi test- Limb-length discrepancy and reduced abduction in flexion of the left hip. Clinical Diagnosis - DDH : 1. Abduction is limited (especially in flexion) 2. Asymmetric thigh folds Oolani's Test--First two alphabets O and R (Oolani for Reduction) and for reduction we do abduction of hip. It is similar to 2nd pa of Barlow's test McMurray circumduction test is used to evaluate individuals for tears in the meniscus of the knee
| 2 |
Oolani's test
|
Galeazzi's test
|
Skin-fold test
|
Barlow's test
|
Orthopaedics
|
Pediatric Ohopedics
|
6449236e-7e49-452c-8e0a-bdddc6a85abd
|
single
|
Principle of Bone dilatation under the principles of exodontia is primarily utilized by:
|
Dilatation of Alveolus| Bony Socket
Expansion of Bony Socket
Principle of bone dilatation.
1º utilized By : Forceps
Less by elevators
| 1 |
Forceps
|
Elevator
|
Any of the above
|
None
|
Surgery
| null |
1de66a82-1c3e-402b-b912-b3bbf340d24a
|
multi
|
Baby '0* positive, blood group, mother Rh negative, cord bilirubin 7 mg%, conjugated I now treatment is?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stop breast tad and prepare for exchange blood transfusion
| 4 |
Nothing
|
Stop breast feeding for 48 hours
|
Continue breast feeding and phototherapy
|
Stop breast feed and prepare for exchange blood transfusion
|
Pediatrics
| null |
f9fb98ba-00c2-44d8-a513-c84196a6727b
|
single
|
During Intervertebral disc prolapse, which part of the disc prolapses in spinal canal?
|
Ans. D. Nucleus Pulposusa. Intervertebral disc is made up of two partsb. Outer-Annulus fibrosusc. Inner- Nucleus pulposusd. It is the central part of the disc i.e. nucleus pulposus, which prolapses into the spinal canal.
| 4 |
Annulus Fibrosis
|
Nucleus fibrosis
|
Annular Pulposus
|
Nucleus Pulposus
|
Orthopaedics
|
Spinal Injuries
|
1024dedf-9532-47d6-b7e3-83074dbbf379
|
single
|
Edema in nephrotic syndrome is due to aEUR'
|
Hypoalbuminemia Edema is one of the major clinical manifestations of nephritic syndrome. Two major factors have been thought to be responsible for this problem and it is likely that both contribute to a variable decree in individual patients. i) Low colloid oncotic pressure :? - In nephrotic syndrome the initial event is a derangement in the capillary walls of glomeruli resulting in increased permeability to plasma proteins. - The increased permeability allows protein to escape from plasma to glomerular filtrate. Long standing loss of protein leads to hypoalbuntinemia. - The loss of protein (albumin) leads to reduced colloid oncotic pressure. Fluids are held in the intravascular compament because of the colloid oncotic pressure. When the colloid oncotic pressure is reduced the fluid cannot be retained in the intravascular compament and moves out in the interstitial fluid producing edema. ii)Sodium retention directly induced by renal disease.
| 3 |
Na and water restriction
|
Increased venous pressure
|
Hypoalbuminemia
|
Hyperlipidemia
|
Pathology
| null |
2a1d062b-b9a9-40de-a7bb-82638bd2d885
|
single
|
Example of an immune complex hypersensitivity reaction is:
| null | 2 |
Atopic allergy
|
Serum sickness
|
Transfusion reaction
|
Contact dermatitis
|
Microbiology
| null |
976edf0b-e886-43a7-8e80-d95b4918a4d8
|
multi
|
Which of he following devices doesn’t use the principle of fluorescence in diagnosis of caries
|
DIAGNOdent is an instrument designed to facilitate the detection and quantification of dental caries on occlusal and smooth surfaces (Kaltenbach & Voigt GmbH & Co., Biberach/Riss, Germany). It uses a diode laser light source and a fibreoptic cable that transmits the light to a handheld probe with a fibreoptic eye in the tip. The light is absorbed and induces infrared fluorescence by organic and inorganic material. The emitted fluorescence is collected at the probe tip, transmitted through ascending fibres, and processed and presented on a display window as an integer between 0 and 99. Increased fluorescence reflects potential caries-affected tooth substance. The identity of the material responsible that DIAGNOdent is capable of detecting relatively advanced caries lesions, and DIAGNOdent readings show a very good correlation with histologic evidence of caries, but not with the depths of the lesions in dentin.
Conventional clinical caries examinations routinely use transillumination to identify lesions located on the interproximal surfaces of the anterior teeth. For at least 30 years a fibreoptic transillumination (FOTI) instrument has been available for clinical use. It provides an intense light beam that is transmitted through a fibreoptic cable to a specially designed probe to permit the use of transillumination on the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, Repeated improvements have been made in the instrument so that it may be used on occlusal and proximal tooth surfaces and the instrument is commonly used, often in place of radiographs, in private practices in Europe.
| 3 |
Diagnodent
|
QLF
|
FOTI
|
Soprolife
|
Dental
| null |
9b6e318d-8736-423d-9c4c-c622cffc1d86
|
single
|
Which of the following is false about vaginal hydrocele
|
Not all hydrocele are transillumination positive.
Secondary hydrocoele have turbid fluid collection.
| 2 |
Transillumination is always positive
|
It can occur secondary to epididymo-orchitis
|
Patent processus vaginalis is a risk factor
|
Most common cause is idiopathic
|
Surgery
| null |
e597acc9-c32d-4c94-8892-16210fa81191
|
multi
|
A 42-year-old man is being followed up for worsening involuntary jerky movements. During the course of his disease, he develops depression and progressive dementia. Within several years he dies, and during an autopsy, bilateral atrophy of the caudate nuclei is found. What is the basic abnormality involved in this individual's disease process
|
Bilateral atrophy of the caudate nuclei is characteristic of Huntington disease, an inherited autosomal dominant disease that is characterized by the combination of choreiform movements, depression, and progressive dementia. This disorder results from increased numbers of trinucleotide repeats within the HD gene. Thus, this disorder is an example of a triple repeat mutation disorder, other examples of which include fragile X syndrome and myotonic dystrophy. Ref:- Harsha Mohan textbook of Pathology
| 3 |
Acquired enzyme deficiency
|
Slow virus infection
|
Triple repeat mutation
|
DNA repair defect
|
Pathology
|
Nervous system
|
7f33cc14-50f9-49c1-89f6-a0abaab30b13
|
single
|
Abbreviated laparotomy done for:a) Coagulopathyb) Hypotensionc) Early wound healingd) Early ambulatione) Hemostasis
| null | 2 |
a
|
ae
|
ab
|
ad
|
Surgery
| null |
b00a2824-d560-418c-9992-1e7b966d7660
|
single
|
Which of the following viruses does not produce viral esophagitis ?
|
The primary infectious causes of esophagitis are fungal and viral. The most common fungal infection causing esophagitis, and the most common form of infectious esophagitis overall, is Candida esophagitis. Viral esophagitis is generally caused by one of two viruses: herpes simplex virus or cytomegalovirus Ref Davidson edition23rd pg777
| 2 |
Herpes simplex
|
Adenovirus
|
Varicella
|
Cytomegalovirus
|
Medicine
|
G.I.T
|
a09c0429-6640-447f-9362-95e7aa12ab32
|
single
|
A 74-year-old man with a previous episode of gout is given allopurinol. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action for this medication?
|
Allopurinol effectively blocks uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol is indicated in patients with a history of uric acid calculi of the urinary tract. In addition, it is often used in patients with malignancy (e.g., leukemia, lymphoma), particularly when chemotherapy or radiation therapy is being used.
| 3 |
increasing uric acid production
|
blocking excretion of uric acid by renal tubular mechanism
|
inhibiting xanthine oxidase
|
diminishing inflammation of acute gouty arthritis
|
Medicine
|
Immunology and Rheumatology
|
5e665f33-fad3-478e-8ab4-1ff5ac30c3d3
|
multi
|
All of following are false about bleaching powder except-
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Unstable compound on storage Bleaching powder o Bleaching powder or chlorinated lime is white amorphous powder with pungent smell of chlorine. o It contains about 33% of available chlorine. o Used for disinfection of water, feces, & urine, and as a deodorant. o 5% solution is suitable for disinfection of faeces and urine allowing a period of one hour for disinfection. o Action is rapid but brief. o The chief drawback is that it is an unstable compound and loses its chlorine content on storage.
| 4 |
Contains 20 % available chlorine
|
20 % solution used for disinfection of faeces
|
Unstable compound on storage
|
Not used for disinfection of feces & urine
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
5b25365e-2750-4bdb-bfcc-19093a874893
|
multi
|
The karyotype of a patient with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is –
|
An individual with 'androgen insensitivity syndrome' are XY individuals (male karyotype) with a female phenotype. Mutation in the androgen receptor causes resistance to androgen action and the androgen insensitivity syndrome results.
| 2 |
46 XX
|
46 XY
|
47 XXY
|
45 XO
|
Pediatrics
| null |
f9a1a905-b97c-487d-88b0-256b4eccebe2
|
single
|
Major portion of auricle is supplied by:
|
Ans. (a) Greater auricular nerveRef: Dhingra's ENT 6th ed/4* Greater auricular nerve has major contribution of auricle. It supplies major portion on lateral aspect as well as on the medial aspect.
| 1 |
Greater auricular nerve
|
Lesser occipital nerve
|
Facial nerve
|
Auriculotemporal nerve
|
ENT
|
Anatomy of External Ear & Pinna
|
4ac2005d-f7af-4f78-8a39-ce1f9fe72de4
|
single
|
Differential growth means:
| null | 4 |
Difference between growth and development
|
Difference between individual growth
|
Acceleration in growth
|
Different tissues grow at different times rate and amount
|
Dental
| null |
f410de79-7605-46f9-b8d0-464510907e7b
|
single
|
Crude bih rate is a simplest measure of feility because it includes
|
Crude bih rate : Number of live bihs in a year per 1000 mid-year population CBR is simplest indicator of feility : Total mid-year population is not exposed to Child bearing thus it doesnot give true idea of feility Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 539
| 2 |
Total population
|
Mid year population
|
Live bihs only
|
Pre term bihs
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Non communicable diseases
|
76ed2fe9-f206-4708-8b46-c11fa1de839a
|
single
|
Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near
|
SD sequence is located-6 to -10 bp from initiating AUG codon on m-RNA molecule near its 5' end. It is seen in prokaryotes only.
Kozak consenses sequence is present in eukaryotes. This sequence surrounds AUG & determines the initiating codon of m-RNA.
| 1 |
AUG codon
|
UAA codon
|
UAG codon
|
UGA codon
|
Biochemistry
| null |
a978df17-b883-41a7-8aaf-792de6cb2845
|
single
|
The following anaesthetic induction agent should be avoided in a 4-year old boy with temporal lobe seizure
|
(C) Ketamine # Ketamine is contraindicated in: If Blood pressure is significantly elevated; Hypersensitivity to drug;> Anticipated airway obstruction;> Raised intracranial pressure.> Open eye injury, intrathecal (should be preservative active free)
| 3 |
Thiopental
|
Halothane
|
Ketamine
|
All of the above
|
Anaesthesia
|
Miscellaneous
|
cf0f080d-844e-447a-8116-76577bd00ea6
|
multi
|
Which drug can be given subdermally -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Progesterone [ style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">o Progesterone can be given in the form of subdermal implant.o Subdermal contraceptive implants involve the delivery of a steroid progestin from polymer capsules or rods placed under the skin.o The hormone diffuses out slowly at a stable rate, providing contraceptive effectiveness for 1-5 years,o The period of protection depends upon the specific progestin and the type of polymer.o Advantages of progestin implants include long term contraceptive action without requiring the user's or provider's attention, low dose of highly effective contraception without the use of estrogen, and fertility is readily reversible after the removal of implants.o The levonorgestrel implant Norplant R system is the only one that has been approved for distribution,o The contraceptive efficacy of Norplant is the highest observed amongst the most effective methods with an annual pregnancy rate of 0[?]2 during the first and second year and 1[?]1 on the fifth year. Menstrual problems are the mainreason for the discontinuation of Norplant and 9% of women stopped using it during the first year of treatment.
| 4 |
Nicotine
|
Fentanyl
|
GTN
|
Progesterone
|
Pharmacology
|
Pharmacokinetics
|
eef7ed03-4ca5-4be1-a351-6783e4689201
|
multi
|
Orbital cellulitis most commonly occurs after infection of which of the following sinuses?
|
Bacterial orbital cellulitis is most commonly caused by the spread of infection in the ethmoid sinus into the orbit directly through the lamina papyracea or by travelling through the anterior and posterior ethmoid vessels.
| 3 |
Maxillary sinus
|
Frontal sinus
|
Ethmoidal sinus
|
Sphenoidal sinus
|
ENT
| null |
19355c39-c2ef-46ad-8896-20039d73313f
|
single
|
Which of the following is used in recombinant DNA technology?
| null | 1 |
Restriction endonucleases
|
PCR
|
Reverse transcriptase
|
FISH
|
Biochemistry
| null |
24646d43-0aa2-4447-8533-8bde9a04fd17
|
single
|
Which of the following factors acts as vesicle targeting:
|
Genes RAS - RAS gene they make RAS protein. they are GTP binding protein They regulate the cell cycle by RAS P 21 gene The mutation of RAS protooncogene is the single-most dominant cause of many human tumors. RAB - RAB is protein of RAS super family. they play role in membrane trafficking, vesicle transpo, vesicle fusion and formation SNARE -SNAP receptor,Key molecule in the fusion of vesicle with acceptor membrane t- SNARE: Target SNARE. v-SNARE: Vesicle SNARE. Sec -12 - sec 12 gene make glycoprotein sec 12 this require in transpo from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus Rab proteins: A family of Ras- related proteins (monomeric GTPases) first observed in rat brain. They are active when GTP is bound. Different Rab molecules dock different vesicles to acceptor membranes.
| 3 |
Ras
|
Sec 12
|
Rab
|
SNARE
|
Biochemistry
|
DNB 2018
|
17e77ca6-e839-4274-be54-478e4c74c8e9
|
single
|
Which of the following score evaluates chances of amputation in a traumatized limb:
|
D i.e. MES score. Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) used to predict necessity of amputation after lower extremity trauma Variables skeletal and soft tissue injury (graded 1-4) limb ischemia (graded 1-3) shock (graded 0-2) age (graded 0-2) Calculation score determined by adding scores of components in four categories Interpretation score of 7 or more is highly predictive of amputation
| 4 |
Revised trauma score
|
Injury severity score
|
Abbreted injury score
|
MES score
|
Surgery
| null |
63e9ce67-7c23-4929-82c3-756e11c5dc76
|
single
|
Urine formation in intra uterine life stas at
|
3 months
| 1 |
3 months
|
4 months
|
5 months
|
6 months
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
b63f4f27-9c54-49ed-91bb-cb9fad3c995f
|
single
|
Formication and delusion of persecution occurs together in intoxication with which of the following?
|
Formication is a type of tactile hallucination, in which patient feels that insects or bugs are crawling under his skin. Such type of hallucination is seen in case of cocaine intoxication (cocaine bugs). Delusions of persecution can be seen in cannabis, amphetamine as well as cocaine intoxication or psychosis induced by these substances. A combination of formication and delusion of persecution is seen in cocaine abuse.
| 1 |
Cocaine
|
Amphetamine
|
Cannabis
|
LSD
|
Psychiatry
| null |
045f67d9-ed30-420f-9d20-ece5921fafef
|
single
|
The most dangerous type of spread of infection from apical abscess is, to:
| null | 3 |
Infratemporal fossa
|
Pterygoid
|
Parapharyngeal space
|
Submandibular space
|
Surgery
| null |
e0213930-3f53-46f2-8ad1-d187c26856a0
|
single
|
"Problem village" include all EXCEPT:
|
- A "problem village" has been defined as one where No source of safe water is available within a distance of 1.6 km, or where water is available at a depth of more than 15 metres, or where water source has excess salinity, iron, fluorides and other toxic elements, or where water is exposed to the risk of cholera.
| 4 |
Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community
|
Water is available at a depth of more than 15 metres
|
There is excess of Na+, iron & fluoride salt
|
Risk of Guinea worm infection
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Water
|
b3b14ace-1c71-480f-8798-ed5237f37c81
|
multi
|
Strabismic amblyopia is more common in patients with
|
Strabismic amblyopia: It results from prolonged uniocular suppression in children with unilateral constant squint who fixate with normal eye. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-319
| 4 |
Latent squint
|
Intermittent squint
|
Alternate squint
|
Constant squint
|
Ophthalmology
|
Ocular motility and squint
|
773303e4-827e-4550-8e53-76b323c8c5e5
|
single
|
The blood supply of the pulp is
|
Pulp is supplied by the various branches of maxillary artery.
| 1 |
Branches of maxillary artery
|
branches of internal carotid artery
|
Both
|
none
|
Dental
| null |
758609b9-75b7-4049-9358-6a9b833147ae
|
multi
|
True about mesenteric cysts is -
|
Mesenteric cysts are of following types:
Chylolymphatic (most common)
simple (mesothelial)
Enterogenous
Urogenital remnan
Dermoid (teratomatous cyst)
Chylolymphatic cyst
Usually are congenital, resulting from developmental sequestration of lymphatics.
It is found most frequently in the mesentery of the ileum.
The cyst wall is thin, made up of connective tissue; lacks the muscular wall of enteric duplication cyst.
The cyst is not lined by mucosa.
It is filled with clear lymph or chyle.
A chylolymphatic cyst is almost invariably solitary, although in extremely rare cases, multiple cysts may be seen.
The cyst is more often unilocular than multilocular.
A chylolymphatic cyst has a blood supply independent of that of the adjacent intestine, and thus enucleation (resection) is possible without the need for resection of the gut.
Enterogenous cyst
Believed to be derived either from a diverticulum of the mesenteric border of the intestine which has become sequestered from the intestinal canal during embryonic life or from a duplication of the intestine.
An enterogenous cyst has a thicker wall than a chylolymphatic cyst, and it is lined by mucous membrane, sometimes ciliated.
The content is mucinous
The enterogenosu cyst and the adjacent bowel wall has a common blood supply, therefore, enucleation of the cyst is always done along with resection of the related portion of intestine followed by anastomosis.
Clinical features
painless abdominal swelling
the swelling moves freely in a plane at right angles to the attachment of the mesentery.
recurrent attacks of abdominal pain with or without vomiting due to obstructive symptoms.
acute abdominal pain due to
torsion of the mesentery containing cyst
rupture of cyst
hemorrhage into the cyst
infection of the cyst
Enucleation is the t/t of choice. An associated segment of bowel is removed along with enterogenous cyst. Other t/t modalities i.e. marsupialization, internal drainage, or aspiration are suboptimal and are almost always followed by recurrence.
| 4 |
Enterogenous cyst is commonest type
|
Recurrence is common after enucleation
|
Mensentric cyst are usually multiple
|
Enucleation is the treatment of choice of chylolymphatic cyst
|
Surgery
| null |
0966fee6-ff37-44e7-b747-096873d63743
|
multi
|
Cause of False positive D-xylose test include all of the following, Except
|
Answer is D (Celiac sprue) Celiac sprue is associated with a positive D- xylose and not a False positive Dxylose test. D-xylose Test Positive test ecreased (4) D- Xylose excretion in urine due to malabsorption from gastrointestinal mucosal disease Causes Include Celiac disease Tropical sprue Whipple's disease Other mucosal diseases
| 4 |
Bacterial overgrowth
|
Renal failure
|
Ascitis
|
Celiac sprue
|
Medicine
| null |
13018b91-4cc6-44ea-bac0-3e317fdf32d7
|
multi
|
Which treatment plan would lead to rigid fixation of the fracture site?
| null | 3 |
Direct interdental wiring
|
Miniplates osteosynthesis
|
Eccentric compression plate osteosynthesis
|
IMF
|
Surgery
| null |
17737a2d-b520-43f9-87bc-89c1ea7b32f3
|
single
|
True about intracellular receptors:
|
A i.e. Mainly on nuclear surface
| 1 |
Mainly on nuclear surface
|
GH act on it
|
Estrogen does not act on it
|
All
|
Physiology
| null |
31a8791f-d366-4798-9177-7ec27538d2d8
|
multi
|
One day after a casual sexual encounter with a bisexual man recently diagnosed as antibody-positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a patient is concerned about whether she may have become infected. A negative antibody titer is obtained. To test for seroconversion, when is the earliest you should reschedule repeat antibody testing after the sexual encounter?
|
Persons at high risk for infection by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) include homosexuals, bisexual males, women having sex with a bisexual or homosexual partner, intravenous drug users, and hemophiliacs. The virus can be transmitted through sexual contact, use of contaminated needles or blood products, and perinatal transmission from mother to child. The antibody titer usually becomes positive 6 to 12 weeks after exposure, and the presence of the antibody provides no protection against acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Because of occasional delayed appearance of the antibody after initial exposure, it is important to follow up patients for 1 year after exposure.
| 3 |
1 to 2 weeks
|
3 to 4 weeks
|
6 to 12 weeks
|
12 to 15 weeks
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
|
191e52d0-4bdd-4c29-aee7-e9c5c4728e50
|
single
|
In a 10 year old female patient of Asian ethnicity, which of the following methods would be the best approach to estimate the size of unerupted permanent teeth?
|
The Moyers, Tanaka-Johnston and Staley-Kerber predictions are all based on data from white school children of northern European descent. If the patient fits this population group, the Staley-Kerber method will give the best prediction, followed by the Tanaka-Johnston and Moyers.
On the other hand, if the patient does not fit the population group, as an African or Asian child would not, direct measurement from the radiographs is the best approach.
Huckaba analysis:
The formula recommended by Huckaba was used in all radiographic measurements:
X = (y) (x1)/(y1)
where X is the estimated size of the permanent tooth, x1 is the radiographic size of the permanent teeth, y is the size of the primary mandibular second molar on the cast and y1 is the radiographic size of the primary molar.
Contemporary orthodontics, William Proffit, 4th edition page 198
| 1 |
Huckaba’s analysis
|
Tanaka-Johnston analysis
|
Tanaka-Johnston analysis
|
Staley-Kerber method
|
Dental
| null |
9b4544a1-b88c-4367-a525-30937ff1a2d7
|
single
|
Pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism include all of the following except -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Piecemeal necrosis
| 1 |
Piecemeal necrosis
|
Balloning degeneration
|
Microvesicular fatty changes
|
Central hyaline sclerosis
|
Pathology
| null |
65526b58-7c00-4e03-9431-9f8460d6cb35
|
multi
|
Pasteurization is ____________ disinfection
|
Disinfection of milk by pasteurization, water by chlorine and handwashing may be cited as examples of precurrent infection. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 140
| 1 |
Precurrent
|
Concurrent
|
Preconcurrent
|
Terminal
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Epidemiology
|
d7428e9f-a657-4ed5-9169-036dad459fef
|
single
|
Crystalline lens of the eye develops from
|
Answer: c) Surface ectoderm (PARSON 22nd ED, P-5)NEURAL ECTODERMSURFACE ECTODERMMESODERM# Epithelium of iris# Epithelium of ciliary body# Constrictor and dilator pupillae# Retinal pigment epithelium and its 9 sensory layers# Optic vesicle and cup# Optic nerve fibres# Melanocytes# Secondary vitreous# Epithelium of Conjunctiva# Epithelium of cornea# Lacrimal glands# Tarsal glands# Conjunctival glands# Crystalline Lens# Sclera# Corneal stroma# Descemet's membrane# Corneal endothelium# Iris# Choroid# Ciliary muscle# Sheaths of optic nerve# Blood vessels of the eye# Extraocular muscles# Trabecular meshwork# Primary vitreous
| 3 |
Mesoderm
|
Neural ectoderm
|
Surface ectoderm
|
Endoderm
|
Ophthalmology
|
Lens
|
fc7caec4-0208-4d96-8fd4-4f3a9037209b
|
multi
|
37 weeks primi with uterine contraction for 10 hours, cervix is 1 cms dilated and poorly effaced. Management is
|
The patient is presenting at 37 weeks with mild labor pains for 10 hours. Cervix is 1 cms dilated and is not effaced. Now this can either be a case of false labor pains or it can be prolonged latent phase of labor.
Lack of progress during the latent phase is defined as lack of change or minimal change in cervical effacement and dilatation during a 2 hour period in a woman having regular uterine contractions.
The patient in the question has been having mild labor pains for 10 hours with no change in cervical dilatation and effacement. But again the question does not specify whether she is having regular uterine contractions or not.
False labor can be differentiated from latent phase of labor by therapetuic rest i.e., patient is sedated with morphine.
| 4 |
Cesarean section
|
Amniotomy
|
Oxytocin drip
|
Sedation and wait
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
55a2945d-6799-48a4-ab14-4359f355b467
|
single
|
All of the following hereditary conditions prediscope to CNS tumors, except
|
Heriditary syndromes associated with Brain tumors Syndrome Gene(locus) CNS neoplasm Von Hippel-Lindau VHL (3p) Hemangioblastoma of retina, cerebellum and spinal cord Li-Fraumeni p53 (17p) Malignant glioma Retinoblastoma Rb (13q) Retinoblastoma, pineoblastoma, malignant glioma Neurofibtomatosis type 1(Von Recklinghausen's disease) NF1 (17q) Neuroma, Schwannoma, meningioma, optic glioma MEN1 (wermer syndrome) MEN1 (11q) Pituitary adenoma, malignant schwannoma Turcot's syndrome APC (5q) Medulloblastoma, malignant glioma Gorlin (basal cell nevus) PTCH(9q) Medulloblastoma Tuberous sclerosis TSC1 (9q) TSC2 (16p) Astrocytoma Neurofibtomatosis 2 NF2 (22q) Schwannoma, glioma, ependymoma Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno : 599
| 4 |
Neurofibromatosis 1 and 2
|
Tuberous sclerosis
|
Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome
|
Xeroderma pigmentosum
|
Surgery
|
Urology
|
070bc5da-abbb-4133-8b21-178896f02d56
|
multi
|
Ipratropium bromide used in bronchial asthma, is :
| null | 3 |
β-Sympothomimetics
|
Methylxanthines
|
Anticholinergics
|
Mast cell stabilizers
|
Pharmacology
| null |
8100d9a3-a76d-41f3-98ee-865438686e32
|
single
|
NOT a cause of granular contracted kidney -
| null | 1 |
Diabetes mellitus
|
Chronic pyelonephritis
|
Benign nephrosclerosis
|
Chronic glomerulonephritis
|
Pathology
| null |
e7474071-f303-477e-8530-3275f95f50cb
|
single
|
Epidemiological triad includes all except
|
The Epidemiologic Triad consists of an external agent, a host and an environment in which host and agent are brought together, causing the disease to occur in the host. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 39
| 4 |
Host
|
Environment
|
Agent
|
Investigator
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Concept of health and disease
|
988b077b-2738-4266-b5b4-611c02899d3d
|
multi
|
In spinal anesthesia which fibers are affected earliest?
|
Sympathetic preganglionic REF: Morgan 3rd e p-260 Order of blockade in spinal anesthesia: Autonomic preganglionic > Temperature > Prick > Pain > Touch > Pressure > Motor > Vibration
| 3 |
Sensory
|
Motor
|
Sympathetic preganglionic
|
Vibration
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
81ec8546-528e-4558-b36e-5309757daa8a
|
single
|
In brow presentation, presenting diameter is/are :
|
Ans. is c i.e. Mentoveical Brow Presentation : Causes of brow presentation are same as for face presentation. Most common cause -- Flat pelvis. Engaging diameter -- Mentoveical (14cm). There is no mechanism of labour. Diagnosed on P/V by palpating supra orbital ridges and anterior fontanelle. Delivery is by cesarean section.
| 3 |
Submentoveical
|
Occipitofrontal
|
Mentoveical
|
Suboccipitobregmatic
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
54cd908e-4dcd-4824-b364-239e10a87d52
|
single
|
A 35 year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is:
|
Single fibre electrophysiology is the most sensitive test for Myasthenia Gravis. The symptoms given in question stem are suggestive of Myasthenia Gravis which is an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder presenting with easy fatigability. Ref: Clinical adult neurology By Jody Corey-Bloomn, Page 332
| 4 |
Muscle Biopsy
|
CPK levels
|
Edrophonium test
|
Single fiber EMG
|
Medicine
| null |
097f2ac4-009f-4ee5-9add-2f6aa21f8ea9
|
single
|
Barret's esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
|
Answer is A (Adenocarcinoma) Barret's esophagus is a premalignant lesion and predisposes to adenocarcinoma of the lower (distal) esophagus.
| 1 |
Adenocarcinoma
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
Sarcoma
|
Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
|
Medicine
| null |
894d49a9-6543-4299-92cc-ad701f641b29
|
single
|
High glycogen content is seen in
|
Glycogen content is high in white fibres.(REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 44)
| 3 |
Red fibers
|
Type 1 fibers
|
White fibers
|
Tonic fibers
|
Physiology
|
General physiology
|
38b43d82-59e4-4a73-9248-fe0f7d6f8c50
|
single
|
Le-Foe fracture is for:-
|
Le-Foe fracture is for facial skeleton. MIDFACE FRACTURE Midface fractures involving the maxilla can be classified by fracture patterns known as Le Fo I, II, and III. Le Fo I Fracture line runs above and parallel to palateQ Effectively separates alveolus and palate from the facial skeleton aboveQ Le Fo II Pyramidal in shapeQ Passes through the root of nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper pa of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plateQ Orbital floor is always involvedQ Le Fo III Complete disjunction of the facial skeleton from the skull baseQ Fracture line runs high through the nasal bridge, septum and ethmoids, and through the bones of orbit to the frontozygomatic sutureQ. MANAGEMENT Interdental or intermaxillary fixation is necessary to reestablish the proper dentoskeletal relationships, immobilize the fractured bones, and ensure normal postoperative occlusionQ.
| 1 |
Facial skeleton
|
Lower limb box
|
Spinal injury
|
Pelvis fracture
|
Surgery
|
Facial Injuries and Abnormalities
|
ffd74f6b-1520-43b8-86de-30af49c1e3dd
|
single
|
Glomeruli are present in
|
Glomeruli are present in cerebellum also. The glomerulus (plural glomeruli) is a spherical structure located in the olfactory bulb of the brain where synapses form between the terminals of the olfactory nerve and the dendrites of mitral, periglomerular and tufted cells Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e 767
| 2 |
Brain
|
Spleen
|
Adrenal coex
|
None of the above
|
Physiology
|
All India exam
|
015344ee-46f4-47d9-8869-85c4464583a3
|
multi
|
Finding acid-fast bacilli within peripheral nerves is most suggestive of:
|
Lepromatous and tuberculoid leprosy, the major forms of leprosy, are caused by infection with Mycobacterium leprae. Nerve involvement is most typical of the lepromatous form. Histologic sections reveal acid-fast bacilli within peripheral nerves.
| 3 |
Relapsing fever
|
Syphilis
|
Leprosy
|
Tuberculosis
|
Pathology
| null |
2c2ef686-9eb1-49b3-99c5-de1462404904
|
single
|
The drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory infection -
|
*cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice of treatment of pneumonia *efficacy of cotrimoxazole is to be similiar to ampicillin and procaine penicillin &cure rates are up to 95% *less expensive with little side effects *children with severe pneumonia should be treated with IM benzyl penicillin,ampicillin or chloremphenicol *in very severe pneumonia,chloremphenicol IM is the drug of choice if condition worsens,IM cloxacillin & gentamycin is given
| 1 |
Cotrimoxazole
|
Chloramphenicol
|
Benzyl penicillin
|
Gentamycin
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
2391f54c-6604-49b1-87f1-7747d5f118eb
|
single
|
All the following are true regarding Dracunculiasis, EXCEPT:
|
Dracunculiasis has no diagnostic test for preclinical detection, no vaccine to immune at risk community and no drug to kill any stage of the parasite. The parasites reach adulthood by about 9 - 12 months. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page - 223
| 3 |
The parasites reach adulthood by 6 months
|
Control of cyclops help in the spread of the disease
|
Mebendazole and niridazole are effective in preventing the transmission of the disease
|
No effective vaccines are available to prevent the disease
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
6bd26624-793e-4ec0-94f6-a7dca3d54278
|
multi
|
The commonest benign intramural tumor of the esophagus is -
|
Leiomyoma is the most common benign neoplasma of esophagus and accounts for two-third of all the benign neoplasms.
They usually arise as intramural growth, most commonly along the distal two-third of the esophagus.
| 2 |
Fibroma
|
Leiomyoma
|
Angioma
|
Lipoma
|
ENT
| null |
27f592db-feac-445a-af5e-f456087766c5
|
single
|
Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury-
|
Common peroneal nerve injury may result in
- Foot drop
- Weakness of dorsiflexion
- Inability to extend the toes.
- Loss of eversion
- Sensory loss
o Anterior side of leg
o Lateral side of leg
o Dorsum of foot and toes (including medial side of big toe)
Common peroneal nerve injury does not affect
- Sensation on lateral border of foot (Supplied by Sural nerve)
- Sensation on medial border of foot (Supplied by saphenous nerve)
- Ankle reflex
| 3 |
Inversion inability
|
Loss of sensation of sole
|
Foot drop
|
Loss of flexion of great toe
|
Anatomy
| null |
e4d2216f-3d92-4a08-a263-72ee8cc040e6
|
single
|
Best management of carcinoid tumor of appendix which is less than 2 cms in size, no involvement of the caecal wall or regional lymphatic spread
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Appendicectomy * Preferred treatment for the carcinoid tumor of appendix which is less than 2 cms in size, no involvement of the caecal wall or regional lymphatic spread is appendicectomy.Carcinoid tumour Of Appendix (synonym: argentaffinoma)* Carcinoid tumours arise in argentaffin tissue (Kulchitsky cells of the crypts of Lieberkiihn) and are most common in the vermiform appendix.* In many instances, the appendix had been removed because of symptoms of subacute or recurrent appendicitis.* The tumour can occur in any part of the appendix, but it is frequently found in the distal third.* The neoplasm feels moderately hard and, on sectioning the appendix, it can be seen as a yellow tumour between the intact mucosa and the peritoneum.* Microscopically, the tumour cells are small, arranged in small nests within the muscle and have a characteristic pattern using immunohistochemical stain for chromogranin B.* Unlike carcinoid tumours arising in other parts of the intestinal tract, carcinoid tumour of the appendix rarely gives rise to metastases.* Appendicectomy has been shown to be sufficient treatment, unless the caecal wall is involved, the tumour is 2 cm or more in size or involved lymph nodes are found, when right hemicolectomy is indicated.
| 1 |
Appendicectomy
|
Right hemicolectomy
|
Colostomy
|
Chemoradiation
|
Surgery
|
Vermiform Appendix
|
efd82d57-8a3e-4e00-8913-61812afe7e0c
|
multi
|
A 40 year old patient, a known case of cirrhosis develops acute episode of GI bleed .Initial therapy given for 6 hours. Which of the following procedure is useful:
|
Ans. is 'b' Urgent Endoscopy algorithm for managing acute upper g.i. bleeding :Acute upper G.I bleeding Resuscitative measures
| 2 |
Nasogastric aspiration
|
Urgent endoscopy
|
Sedation
|
Ultrasound
|
Medicine
|
G.I.T.
|
c8bde445-420c-4cce-9750-6ab3ed4866a9
|
single
|
The current neonatal mortality is -
|
LATEST FIGURES (2017) 1-IMR-37/1000 live births 2-NnMR-25/1000 live births 3-Still BR- 22/1000 TOTAL BIRTHS 4-U5MR-43/1000 live births 5-MMR-167/100000 pregnant females 6-CBR-21 7-CDR-7.2 8-AV. BIRTH WEIGHT-2.8 KG 9-ELIGIBLE COUPLES-15-18% 10-COUPLE PROTECTION RATE-55%
| 1 |
25/1000 live birth
|
34/1000 live birth
|
33/1000 live birth
|
None
|
Unknown
| null |
45cf75f5-063f-45da-b713-d008662b5fb0
|
multi
|
A child is having nocturnal asthmatic attack 2 times in a week, day time attack is 3 times or more, can be categorized as?
|
Moderate persistent asthma REF: Nelson's pediatrics 17th ed page 767 CLASSIFICATION OF CHILDHOOD ASTHMA: Asthma Days with Nights Lung Long-Term-Control Medication Quick? Severity Symptoms with Function Relief Medication Symptoms Step 1: Mild <3 per week <3 per FEV1 or PEF No daily medication Sho-acting g-agonist Intermittent month =80% of predicted; PEF variability <20% needed as needed and before exercise; Use =3 times per wk may indicate need to initiate long? term-control therapy Step 2: Mild =3 per week 3-4 per FEV1 or PEF Anti-inflammatory: Sho-acting g-agonist Persistent month =80% of predicted; PEF variability 20-30% either low-dose inhaled glucocoicoid, cromolyn, nedocromil, or leukotriene modifier. as needed and before exercise; daily use or increasing use may indicate need for additional long-term? control therapy Sustained-release theophylline is an alternative Step 3: Moderate Persistent Daily symptoms daily use of sho-acting A-agonists >1 time per week FEV1 or PEF >60 and =80% of predicted; PEF variability >30% Anti-inflammatory: inhaled lucocoicoids (medium-dose) or inhaled glucocoicoids (low-dose) and either long-acting S-agonist Sho-acting S-agonist as needed and before exercise; daily use or increasing use may indicate need for additional long-term? control therapy (LABA), leukotriene modifier, sustained? release theophylline, or LABA tablets. Step 4: Continual Frequent FEV1 or Anti-inflammatory: Oral glucocoicoid if Severe Persistent symptoms, limited PEF =60% of inhaled glucocoicoids (high- needed. Sho-acting 8-agonist physical predicted; dose) and long-acting as needed and before activity, frequent PEF variability bronchodilator: either LABA, leukotriene exercise; daily use or increasing use may exacerbations >30% modifier, sustained- release theophylline, and/or LABA tablets. indicate need for additional long-term? control therapy
| 2 |
Severe persistent asthma
|
Moderate persistent asthma
|
Mild intermittent
|
Mild persistent
|
Pediatrics
| null |
ab5954ba-446f-4c49-8757-f85d7708253f
|
single
|
The subarachnoid space ends at
|
Arachnoid & dural sheath end at the lower end of the S-2 veebra. Subarachnoid space terminates at the caudal (lower border) S-2 veebra. This is also the ending of the sub-dural space. Ref - BDC 6thedition vol 2
| 4 |
L1
|
L2
|
L5
|
S2
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
59721c66-7d12-4dd2-83be-a8fe4138693b
|
single
|
What is meant by Ca colon stage III c -
| null | 2 |
Hepatic metastasis.
|
Extension upto serosa & lymph node
|
Extension upto serosa
|
Extension upto mucosa
|
Pathology
| null |
a0ca9d74-807e-4ff7-9ac7-d861e4eac4d6
|
single
|
What is true about Histoplasmosis ?
|
In early stages it is indistinguishable from T.B. Histoplasmosis Histoplasmosis is a dimorphic fungi i.e. it grows in two forms myeclia and yeast. It grows as mycelia forms, producing spores at 25degC on sabroud's agar and at 37degC it grows as a yeast form. This dimorphism plays a pa in human infection i.e. in their natural habitat (the soil) they grow us mycelia and release spores into the air. These spores are inhaled by humans and at the human temperature of 37degC they grow as yeast cells (Hyphae). Histoplasmosis resembles tuberculosis in ceain ways Like T.B. histoplasma infection is acquired by inhalation. Histoplasmosis is acquired by inhalation of dust paicles contaminated with bird or bat dropings that contain small spores (microconidia), the infectious form of the fungus. The clinical presentation and morphological lesions of histoplasmosis also strikingly resemble those of tuberculosis I. A self limited and often latent primary pulnionan' involvement which may result in coin lesions on chest radiography. 2. Chronic, progressive secondary lung disease which is localized to the lung apices and cause cough, fever and night sweats. 3. Localized lesions in extrapulmonary sites including mediastinum, adrenals, liver or meninges. 4. Widely disseminated involvement paicularly in immunosuppressed individual. An impoant distinguishing point in histoplasma infection is that it is never transmitted from 'non to ratan. Diagnosis of Histoplasma infection Fungal culture remains the gold standard diagnostic test for histoplasmosis. However, culture results may not be known for upto I months. Staining of the biopsy material also yields diagnostic results. Serological diagnosis is useful in self limited pulmonary infection, however at least 1 month is required for the production of antibodies.
| 1 |
In early stages it is indistinguishable from T.B.
|
Culture is not diagnostic
|
Hyphal forms are infectious form
|
Person to person spread occurs by droplet infection
|
Microbiology
| null |
3aa52452-6932-439e-8982-ea0594d570f7
|
multi
|
Not used in Health planning ?
|
The planning cycle involves ; - analysis of the health situation - establishment of objective and goals - assessment of resources - fixing priorities - write up of formulated plan - programming and implementation - monitoring - evaluation Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:870 <\p>
| 1 |
Increasing demands for resources
|
Analysis of health situation
|
Assessment of Resources
|
Fixing priorities
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Health education & planning
|
eb30cec7-e9f5-4b69-80d6-de7b3c2d6762
|
single
|
Which is an example of small vessel vasculitis?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Churg strauss syndrome a) Large vessel vasculitis: Giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis), Takayasu arteritis, Cogan syndrome.b) Medium vessel vasculitis: PAN (classical PAN), kawasaki disease, Buerger's disease.c) Small vessel vasculitis ; HSP, Wegner's granulomatosis, microscopic polyangitis, churg strauss syndrome, Cryoglobulinemia, SLE, idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis, Bechet's syndrome, renal limited vasculitis
| 4 |
Takayasu arteritis
|
Kawasaki disease
|
PAN
|
Churg strauss syndrome
|
Pathology
|
Miscellaneous (Blood Vessels)
|
2f896937-765c-43d7-9057-53a2e859b8e2
|
multi
|
Pitting of direct filling gold restoration usually
results from:
|
The gold is first pressed into place by hand, then a condenser of suitable size is used to begin malleting in the center of the mass (often this is done while this first increment is held in position with a holding instrument). Each succeeding step of the condenser overlaps (by half) the previous one as the condenser is moved toward the periphery. The gold moves under the nib face of the condenser, effecting compaction as malleting proceeds.
The most efficient compaction occurs directly under the nib face. Some compaction also occurs by lateral movement of the gold against surrounding preparation walls. The result of compaction is to remove most of the void space from within each increment of gold, to compact the gold into line and point angles and against walls, and to attach it to any previously placed gold via the process of cohesion. The line of force is important when any gold is compacted. The line of force is the direction through which the force is delivered (i.e., the direction in which the condenser is aimed).
Thus improper stepping of the condenser point leads to voids (pitting) of direct gold restorations.
Ref: Sturdevant operative dentistry 7 ed page no e72
| 3 |
Using contaminated gold foil
|
Poor finished preparation
|
Improper stepping of condenser point
|
Using small condenser point
|
Dental
| null |
f26c5178-faa4-400c-97d1-e9a1b509c923
|
multi
|
First Sign of pubertal development in boy is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Enlargement of testis o In male - Sequence of change1. Growth of testes (> 3 ml in volume or & thinning of scrotum 2 5 cm in longest diameter)2 Pigmentation of scrotum & growth of penisPubic hairAxillary hairo In female -1. Breast bud - First sign2 Pubic hair3. Menarche
| 2 |
Enlargement of penis
|
Enlargement of testes
|
Appearance of pubic hair
|
Appearance of axillary' hair
|
Pediatrics
|
Assessment of Growth
|
78f17605-b3f8-4e30-bac2-8bb48cec6854
|
single
|
True about primary angle closure glaucoma:
|
Ans. All
| 4 |
More common in females
|
Shallow anterior chamber in a tank
|
Shoer diameter of cornea is a predisposing factor
|
All
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
f8159e54-b724-4e2a-ba2c-7c297665d0e0
|
multi
|
Retroperitoneal fibrosis most commonly presents with
|
The most impoant clinical aspect of retroperitoneal fibrosis is that the fibrotic process frequently entraps and constricts the ureters thereby causing obstructive uropathy. Retroperitoneal fibrosis - It is a nonspecific, nonsuppurative inflammation of fibro-adipose tissue of unknown cause that produces symptoms by the gradual compression of tubular structures in retroperitoneal space. Aetiology of retroperitoneal fibrosis - About 2/3rd cases are primary idiopathic, are also known as Ormond's disease Secondary Retroperitoneal fibrosis a variety of inflammatory conditions - chronic pancreatitis, histoplasmosis, tuberculosis, or actinomycosis. drugs methysergide (most imp.) b blockers hydralazine a methyldopa Etacapone (used in the t/t of Parkinson's ds.) - malignancies (prostate, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, sarcoma, characinoid & gastric cancer). antoimmune disorders (ankylosing spondylitis, SLE PAN etc.) Symptoms of retroperitoneal fibrosis - It is more common in men between 40-60 yrs of age Early symptoms are nonspecific and vague. These are Pain - Dull noncolicky and insidious in onset. Anorexia, nausea General malaise, diarrhea Later on, symptoms result from compression of tubular retroperitoneal structures. The major structure involved are- Ureter - Most commonly involved Aoa Inferior venacava Symptoms due to the involvement of ureter (usually b/1 involvement) Dysuria Frequency of urination Chills and fever occur with secondary infection of a hydronephrotic kidney. Hematuria can occur. Diagnosis The diagnosis of retroperitoneal fibrosis usually can be made accurately by intravenous pyelography if uremia is not present. The characteristic finding on pyelogram are Hydronephrosis with a dilated touous upper ureter. Medial detion of the ureter Extrinsic ureteral compression Note: In a retroperitoneal tumor, ureter is laterally deted while in retroperitoneal fibrosis ureter medially detes. Currently, the imaging procedure of choice is the CT scan. But if renal function is compromised contrast agents are not given and then MRI is the procedure of choice. T/T of Retroperitoneal fibrosis Coicosteroids, with or without surgery, are the mainstay of medical therapy. Surgical treatment is required in patients who present with moderate or massive hydronephrosis. It consists primarily of ureterolysis (freeing the ureter from adhesions and surrounding tissue) or ureteral stenting.. Also, know Paial or complete ureteral obstruction occurs in 75 to 85% of patients. Most common site of urethral obstruction is lower third of the ureter. Ref : Love & Bailey 25/e p1007
| 4 |
Pedal edema
|
Ascites
|
Ureteric obstruction
|
Back pain
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
184183a4-3a09-424e-b1f0-98bf80b935b6
|
single
|
Athletic sustained an injury around the knee joint suspecting cailage damage, which of the following is an investigation of choice?
|
C i.e. Ahroscopy Ahroscopy followed by MRI is investigation of choice for ligamentous injury of kneeQ.
| 3 |
Pain X ray
|
Clinical examination
|
Ahroscopy
|
Ahrotomy
|
Surgery
| null |
e03e1cd9-28d1-4a9e-b8fc-e52daf0112fb
|
single
|
Gestational diabetes is diagnosed by :
|
Glucose tolerance test
| 1 |
Glucose tolerance test
|
Random blood sugar
|
Fasting and postprandial blood sugar
|
24 hours blood glucose profile
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
235c118b-2080-4c64-9df1-d97187f4ed2b
|
single
|
The health status of children between 0 and 4 years in a community will be adversely affected by all except-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Maternal hemoglobin 12gm/dL o Maternal health is a major determinant of nutritional status of children. Child's status is adversely affected if : Mother is malnourished (Anemic) Mother is - too young (under 18 years) Mother is - too old (over 35 years) Last child was born too close (Last child born less than 2 years ago) She already has too many children (more than Para 4) o A hemoglobin of 12 gm/dL in the Indian set up would not be classified as anemia, and indicates an adequate nutritional status. It thus, would not adversely affect the status of a child.
| 3 |
Malnutrition
|
Bih weight of less than 2.5 Kg
|
Maternal hemoglobin 12 gm/dL
|
Infections
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
2f6c9f94-2f05-4780-9803-ce73e093e667
|
multi
|
Low serum haptoglobin in hemolysis is masked by
|
Bile duct obstruction llapatoglobin is a transpo glycoprotein synthesized by the liver. - It is a carrier, for.free Hb in plasma. - Its primary physiological. function is the preservation of iron. - Haptoglobin binds hemoglobin and carries it to the reticuloendothelial system. A decrease in haptoglobin (with normal liver function) is most likely to occur with increased consumption of haptoglobin due to increased intravascular activity. The concentration of haptoglobin is inversely related to the degree of hemolysis and to the duration of hemolytic episode. aiims pginee answers & explanations - Nov 2009 - Normal blood has sufficient haptoglobin to bind to about 100-200 mg of hemoglobin. As a result the hemoglobin released due to intravascular hemolysis binds to haptoglobin. The resulting hemoglobin complex is removed by hepatocytes. "This result in decreased serum haptoglobin in individuals with hemolytic disease". "In biliary obstruction the serum haptoglobin level is increased this may mask the decrease in serum haptoglobin due to hemolysis".
| 3 |
Pregnancy
|
Liver disease
|
Bile duct obstruction
|
Malnutrition
|
Pathology
| null |
a5384e5e-3917-46a7-9fe9-aa9ab02e6ce1
|
single
|
Which one of the folllowing organisms is not associated with synergistic gangrene
|
Necrotising fasciitis is a dangerous and rapidly spreading infection of the fascial planes leading to necrosis of the subcutaneous tissues and overlying skin. It is caused by b-haemolytic streptococci and, occasionally, Staphylococcus aureus, but may take the form of a polymicrobial infection associated with other aerobic and anaerobic pathogens, including Bacteroides, Clostridium, Proteus, Pseudomonas and Klebsiella. It is termed Fournier's gangrene when it affects the perineal area, and Meleney's synergistic gangrene when it involves the abdominal wall
| 1 |
Escherichia
|
Staphylococcus
|
Clostridium
|
Streptococcus
|
Surgery
|
General surgery
|
d0722025-51c9-4ae5-9091-4de3096ccd7e
|
single
|
Tympanic plexus is formed by-
|
A i.e. Tympanic
| 1 |
Tympanic branch of glosopharyngeal nerve
|
Vagus nerve
|
Gacial nerve
|
Mandibular nerve
|
Anatomy
| null |
06b6cca3-e3d2-4f4c-aa7b-5bc98f6bff5a
|
single
|
Nabothian follicles occur in:
|
Cervical erosion: Condition where squamous epithelium of ectocervix is replaced by columnar epithelium which is continuous with endocervix.
It occurs when estrogen levels are high as in pregnancy and use of oral contraceptives (OCP’s).
As a result of healing of an erosion, the mouth of the cervical gland is blocked.
The blocked gland becomes distended with secretion and forms small cysts which can be seen with naked eye and so-called Nabothian cyst.
| 1 |
Erosion of cervix
|
Ca endometrium
|
Ca cervix
|
Ca vagina
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
bb083080-a328-4463-abfe-bf29d352058f
|
multi
|
Which of the following is a contraindication for medical management of Gall stones -
|
<p >Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *radio opaque gallstones -symptomatic gall stones are best treated surgically by laprolaparoscopic cholecysectomy.</p>
| 1 |
Radioopaque stones
|
Radioluscent stones
|
Normal functioning gall bladder
|
Small stones
|
Medicine
|
G.I.T
|
dc3a1e1a-79ec-4a54-9b6f-9585dbe38d54
|
multi
|
Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of Succinate Dehydrogenase enzyme?
|
Most frequently, in competitive inhibition, the inhibitor (I) binds to the substrate-binding poion of the active site thereby blocking access by the substrate. The structures of most classic competitive inhibitors, therefore, tend to resemble the structures of a substrate and thus are termed substrate analogues. Inhibition of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase by malonate illustrates competitive inhibition by a substrate analog. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the removal of one hydrogen atom from each of the two-methylene carbons of succinate both succinate and its structural analog malonate (-OOC--CH2-- COO-) can bind to the active site of succinate dehydrogenase, forming an ES or an EI complex, respectively. However, since malonate contains only one methylene carbon, it cannot undergo dehydrogenation. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
| 3 |
Succinic acid
|
Fumaric acid
|
Malonic acid
|
Oxalic acid
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
9f113ee7-9eb6-4436-94da-9b9932fc877f
|
single
|
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present in a patient with SLE?
|
Ans. A. Anti-ds DNAAnti-ds DNA is present in 65% cases of SLE and is a marker of development of lupus nephritis.Anti Ro is present in 30% cases and is a marker of cutaneous lupus and development of congenital CHB in the baby of mother with SLE. Anti-phospholipid are present in 40% cases and are a marker of recurrent fetal loss and thrombosis.Anti-ribosomal P antibody is present in 20% cases only and is a marker of psychosis
| 1 |
Anti-ds DNA
|
Anti Ro
|
Anti-Phospholipid
|
Anti-Ribosomal P
|
Medicine
|
Immunology and Rheumatology
|
823a7213-ece2-4c05-87b8-9642e6941c39
|
single
|
A patient underwent adrenalectomy in views of B/L pheochromocytoma , 1 day later developed lethargy ,fatigue, low BP and pulse normal No signs of volume deficit , likely course is
|
ADDISONIAN CRISIS PRESENTATION Sudden penetrating pain in the legs, lower back or abdomen Severe vomiting and diarrhea, resulting in dehydration Low blood pressure, Unexplained shock, usually refractory to fluid and pressor resuscitation Syncope (loss of consciousness) Hypoglycemia Confusion, psychosis, slurred speech Severe lethargy Hypercalcemia Convulsions Fever Rapid withdrawal of long-term steroid therapy " Hypehermia or hypothermia ref : harrisons 21st ed
| 1 |
Addisonian Crisis
|
SIADH
|
DI
|
Cerebral salt wasting disease
|
Medicine
|
All India exam
|
912a4aa2-6ca9-4750-a3d9-34f09a0a0c5a
|
single
|
Recurrent or residual cancer of nasopharynx after super voltage radiotherapy is treated by:
|
If nasopharyngeal carcinoma recurs or is not completely regressed after 6500-7000 cGy radiotherapy, it can be treated by any of the above modes. Surgery involves skull-base and is done in only selected cases.
| 4 |
Intracavitary radioactive implants
|
Cryotherapy
|
Surgery
|
All of the above
|
ENT
|
Nose and PNS
|
d5ca3297-094e-4318-9dbe-1dbfafecb548
|
multi
|
Which of the following cailage has signet ring shape
|
Cricoid has a signet ring shape and is the only cailage forming a complete ring. Its posterior pa is expanded to form a Lamina while anteriorly it is narrow forming an Arch. Whereas in thyroid-the two alae meet anteriorly forming an angle 90 degrees in males & 120 degrees in females. Cuneiform is rod-shaped and Arytenoid is pyramidal in shape. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 319
| 2 |
Thyroid
|
Cricoid
|
Cuneiform
|
Arytenoid
|
ENT
|
Larynx
|
861eb40d-3a6d-429d-87cc-c08ff4b2c93c
|
single
|
In Kidney which of the following is true?
|
Ans. is'd'i.e., Osmolarity of medullary interstitium is more than plasma(Ref: Guyton 12/e p. 334)The renal medulla shows an increasing osmotic pressure with increasing depth.Staing, with an osmolarity of 300 mOsm/L in the coex, the osmolarity reaches a level of 1200-1400 mosm/L at the pelvic tip of the medulla, i.e., The inner pa of medulla has highest osmotic gradient.That means that the renal medullary interstitium has accumulated solute in greater excess of water.
| 4 |
Osmolarity of tubular fluid in PCT gradually increases
|
Osmolarity of fluid in DCT is more than in Bowmann's capsule
|
Fluid coming out of descending limb of loop of Henle is hypotonic
|
Osmolarity of medullary interstitium is more than plasma
|
Physiology
| null |
92046d0f-e0df-414f-a00b-193b83882018
|
multi
|
Ovarian tumour which is bilateral
|
Dysgerminoma 10-15% of dysgerninomas are bilateral Dysgerminoma is the only germ cell malignancy that has this significant rate of bilaterily, other germ tumors are rarely being bilateral. Fewer than 5% of all ovarian tumours are germ cell in origin. They include : - Teratonia - Dysgerminoma - Endodermal sinus tumour (yolk sac tumour) - Embryonal carcinoma The unique characteristics of germ cell tumours are : - They generally occur in younger women - They display an unusual aggressive natural history and are commonly cured with less extensive nonsterlizing surgery and chemotherapy. The germ cell neoplasmas can be divided into three groups. (i) Benign tumour (usually dermoid cyst) (ii) Malignant tumours that arise from dermoid cyst (iii) Primitive malignant germ cell tumours including dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumours, immature teratomas embryonal carcinoma choriocarcinoma. Clinical features of malignant germ cell tumours - Malignant germ cell tumours are usually large - Bilateral disease is rare, except in dysgerminoma (10-15% are bilateral) - Abdominal or pelvic pain in young women is the usual presenting symptom. - Serum human chorionic gonadotropicin ((3-hCG) and a fetoprotein levels are useful in diagnosis and management. - Most of the malignant germ cell tumours are managed with chemotherapy after surgery. - Dysgerminoma is the ovarian counterpa of testicular carcinoma. The tumour is very sensitive to radiation therapy.
| 1 |
>Dysgerminoma
|
>Endodermal sinus tumour.
|
>Immature teratoma
|
>Embryonal cell carcinoma
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
0d395f98-5801-4fda-b5a9-2963cf583adc
|
single
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae, true is:
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vaccine is made from capsular polysaccharide (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 223, 9th/e, p. 221)* There are currently two types of pneumococcal vaccines: pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) and pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23).* There are more than 90 types of pneumococcal bacteria.* PCV13 protects against 13 types which is better than previous 7 types.* PPSV23 protects against 23 types.* Both vaccines provide protection against illnesses like meningitis (infection of the covering of the brain and spinal cord) and bacteremia (blood infection). PCV13 also provides protection against pneumonia (lung infection).* PCV13: Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine for all infants and children, and adults 19 years and older at high risk for disease.* PPSV23: Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine for all adults 65 years and older and those 2 years of age and older at high risk for disease.
| 1 |
Vaccine is made from capsular polysaccharide
|
Vaccine is routinely given to Indian children
|
Catalase and oxidase positive
|
Bile insoluble and optochin sensitive
|
Microbiology
|
Bacteria
|
97b97f2c-1cb6-4ebf-8183-30d0623a5238
|
multi
|
Which among the following is the most common cause of early-onset sepsis in neonates?
|
Early-onset infection (< 3 days) is most often caused by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci (GBS) and gram-negative enteric pathogens (most commonly E coli). Other organisms to consider are non-typeable Haemophilus influenzae, Enterococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, other streptococci and Listeria monocytogenes. Late-onset sepsis (> 3 days of age) is caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci (most common in infants with indwelling central venous lines), S aureus, GBS, Enterococcus, and gram-negative organisms, in addition to Candida species. Ref: Thilo E.H., Rosenberg A.A. (2012). Chapter 2. The Newborn Infant. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.
| 4 |
H influenzae
|
Listeria
|
Coagulase positive staph aureus
|
Group B streptococcus
|
Pediatrics
| null |
da4a0d37-667e-488d-9d81-96ac187f9041
|
single
|
Mode of transmission of Brucella is ?
| null | 3 |
Air
|
Water
|
Milk
|
Aerosol
|
Microbiology
| null |
d020e9b4-0af8-48bd-8e1e-02b3cabf8333
|
single
|
Which of these is false about celiac trunk?
|
The coeliac trunk is the second branch of the abdominal aoa (the first branches are the paired inferior phrenic aeries). It arises from the anterior aspect of the aoa, at the aoic hiatus of the diaphragm (T12 level). After emerging from the aoa, the coeliac trunk extends approximately 1cm before dividing into three major branches - left gastric, splenic and common hepatic aeries. <img src=" /> Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg276
| 4 |
It is the veical branch of aoa
|
it has plexus around it
|
It has three terminal branches
|
It lies to the right of the caudate process
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
e8eddb6b-21fc-460f-98df-182fd55e954f
|
multi
|
Investment material used for cobalt-chromium alloys is:
| null | 2 |
Gypsum bonded
|
Phosphate bonded
|
Silica bonded
|
None of the above
|
Dental
| null |
db9c877c-a39c-431e-976b-7fa8fa26309c
|
multi
|
Not a pa of Retrobulbar space
|
Equatorial veins are not a pa of retrobulbar space of the orbit Retrobulbar Space/ Central Space / muscular cone Contents: Extra ocular muscles with intermuscular septa Includes Optic nerve Boundaries : > anteriorly - by Posterior pa of tenon's capsule enclosing the globe > peripherally - by four recti muscles and their intermuscular septa > posteriorly - continous with the peripheral space Site of putting retrobulbar injection Tumors lying here produce axial proptosis
| 4 |
Extra ocular muscles with intermuscular septa
|
Optic nerve
|
Posterior pa of tenon's capsule enclosing the globe
|
Equatorial veins
|
Ophthalmology
|
Ophthalmology Q Bank
|
94bae4cb-2780-4956-89fb-788b705af90f
|
single
|
Most common side effect of phenytoin is:
|
Side Effect Of Phenytoin
Headache
Nausea
Vomiting
Constipation
Dizziness
Feeling of spinning
Drowsiness
Swelling and bleeding of the gums
Trouble in sleeping or nervousness may occur
| 1 |
Gingival hyperplasia
|
Dental stains
|
Hypertension
|
Gingival necrosis
|
Dental
| null |
937a57e5-c44a-4836-9bc1-68154f1621d8
|
single
|
Cryoprecipitate is useful in?-
|
AFIBROGENEMIA It is an inherited blood disorder in which the blood does not clot normally. It occurs when there is a lack (deficiency) of a protein called fibrinogen (or coagulation factor I), which is needed for the blood to clot. Affected individuals may be susceptible to severe bleeding (hemorrhaging) episodes, paicularly during infancy and childhood. Afibrinogenemia is thought to be transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait. Treatment may include cryoprecipitate (a blood product containing concentrated fibrinogen and other clotting factors), fibrinogen (RiaSTAP) or plasma (the liquid poion of the blood which contains clotting factors). <a href="
| 3 |
Hemophilia A
|
Thrombasthenia
|
Afibrinogenemia
|
Warfarin reversal
|
Pathology
|
miscellaneous
|
e1cd03cf-01d7-4a6f-9fdc-f9ed9bcb67b2
|
single
|
Which one of the following not is true regarding choriocarcinoma?
|
hCG is synthesised by placental syncytiotrophoblast such as in various non-seminomatous germ cell tumours of the testis (e.g. in choriocarcinoma, yolk sac tumour and embryonal carcinoma). However, ectopic hCG production may occur in a variety of non-testicular non-germ cell tumours as well. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:709 Choriocarcinoma in females is of 2 types--gestational and nongestational. The marker for both types of choriocarcinoma is hCG. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION - HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:748
| 2 |
Aggressive malignancy
|
Raised HCG levels
|
Common below 20 years of age
|
Gonadal type is chemosensitive
|
Pathology
|
miscellaneous
|
0f06246e-5dea-4e4a-b3cc-b79dc71862ea
|
multi
|
True about sand flea -
|
Sand fleas occur in the tropical regions of Africa and America. They are also known as Jigger or Chigoe fleas (Tunga penetrans) The feilized female burrows into the skin of the feet, often beneath the nail and cause ulcers. Tetanus and gas gangrene occur as a secondary infection REFERENCE: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 839
| 1 |
Not found in India
|
Cuases ulcer in foot
|
Caused bubo
|
Causes plague
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Environment and health
|
d380ab6e-5e1c-4b2e-a382-fbc319d2a662
|
multi
|
Falanga is:
|
Beating on soles with blunt object
| 1 |
Beating on soles with blunt object
|
Beating on ear with both palms
|
Beating on the abdomen
|
Suspension by wrists
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
37fd6fe9-5479-498d-b0fc-f073150c3384
|
multi
|
"Anhedonia" seen in schizophrenia is linked to which of the following neurotransmitter abnormality?
|
Anhedonia refers to the reduced ability to experience pleasure.In animal models severe stress causes nucleus accumbens dopamine neurons to become insensitive to CRF (Coicotropin-Releasing Factor), resulting in reduced dopamine release and increased anhedonia.(Ref: Kaplan and Sadock&;s synopsis of psychiatry Pg 290)
| 2 |
Serotonin
|
Dopamine
|
Glutamate
|
GABA
|
Microbiology
|
All India exam
|
f3d843c2-d3a4-47fb-b074-681e4331fa79
|
single
|
Virchow method of organ removal is ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Organs removed one by one Methods of removal of organs Virchow's technique - organs are removed one by one. Cranial cavity is exposed first, followed by thoracic, cervical & abdominal organs. Rokitansky's technique - It involves in situ dissection in pa, combined with en block removal. Lettulle's technique - Cervical, thoracic, abdominal & pelvic organs are removed en masse & dissected as organ block.
| 2 |
Organs removed en masse
|
Organs removed one by one
|
In situ dissection
|
None
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
cd35f00c-d7ea-49f8-835e-dd01838e0d75
|
multi
|
False regarding Peutz Jeghers syndrome
|
It is a autosomal dominant condition.
Other options are right.
| 1 |
Autosomal recessive
|
Presence of hamartomatous polyps
|
Presence of cutaneous pigmentation
|
Risk of developing breast, lung , ovarian cancer
|
Unknown
| null |
fd478a21-9929-40fb-88c3-97da2366de5b
|
multi
|
A 55-year-old woman has been hospitalized because of recurrent pancreatitis, ARDS, prolonged ileus, and need for parenteral nutrition. She demonstrates weakness, lassitude, ohostatic hypotension, nausea, and fever. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to explain these symptoms?
|
Clinical manifestations of adrenocoical insufficiency include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, fever, weight loss, and dehydration. There is excessive sodium loss in the urine, contraction of the plasma volume, and perhaps hypotension or shock. Classic hyperpigmentation is present in chronic Addison disease only. Addison disease may present in newborns as a congenital atrophy, as an insidious chronic state often caused by tuberculosis, as an acute dysfunction secondary to trauma or adrenal hemorrhage, or as a semiacute adrenal insufficiency seen during stress or surgery. In this last instance, signs and symptoms include nausea, lassitude, vomiting, fever, progressive salt wasting, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. It may be confirmed by measurements of urinary Na + loss and absence of response to adrenocoicotropic hormone (ACTH).
| 4 |
Hypothermia
|
Hypokalemia
|
Hyperglycemia
|
Hyponatremia
|
Anaesthesia
|
Miscellaneous
|
5b36f155-6609-4f79-894a-842e49934cd1
|
single
|
No. Of Sustainable development goals
|
On 25 September 2015, UN General Assembly adopted the 2030 Development Agenda titled "Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development".This has 17 Sustainable Development Goals and the associated 169 targets.
| 3 |
19
|
20
|
17
|
13
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Concept of health and disease
|
bbd12069-16bb-4166-904f-8fda61b74a0d
|
single
|
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