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Kala-azar is found in all endemic areas, except:
Ans. d. AssamRef: Parks Text book of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th Ed; Page No-322Kala-azar caused by Leishmania donovani; transmitted by female phlebotomine sandfly.It is endemic in 54 districts of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh.Incubation period 1-4 months3 types of leishmaniasisVisceral leishmaniasisCutaneous leishmaniasisMucocutaneous leishmaniasis
4
West Bengal
UP
Bihar
Assam
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
f79c5724-2f2e-44b3-904c-b68024458114
multi
Which of the following is not the Boundary of triangle of safety
null
4
Anterior axial fold
Posterior axial fold
5th intercoastal space
None of the above
Surgery
null
d66155c9-3d61-4ce4-8b7d-9b8f83abf2ac
multi
AGN is diagn osed by -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., RBC cast R.B.C. Castso In a normal healthy person, no casts are seen in low power fields Q.o An urinary sediment is microscopically examined under both the low power field and high power field.o Low power field is used to detect castsr while high power field is used to detect RBC's, WBC's and bacterias.Reference valueRBCsQ-0-3/(high power field)RBC castQ-0/ LPF (Low power field)o RBC casts indicate acute inflammatory or vascular disorder in the glomerulus and are found in:Glomerulonephritis QRenal infarction QLupus nephritis QGoodpasteur s syndromeQSevere pyelonephritis QCongestive heart failureRenal vein thrombosisAcute bacterial endocarditisMalignant hypertensionPeriarteritis nodosa
3
Hyaline cast
WBC cast
RBC cast
Granular cast
Medicine
Glomerular Diseases
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single
Diene’s method is used for :
• Colonies of mycoplasma are typically biphasic, with a fried egg appearance.  • Colonies are best studied after staining by Dienes method .
1
Mycoplasma
Chlamydiae
Plague
Diptheria
Microbiology
null
308d7edf-e98f-4b69-9f71-ac977c893aef
single
All of the following psychotherapy are used to treat anxiety disorder except
Sensate focus therapy is used to treat premature ejaculation.
4
Systemic desensitization
Relaxation techniques
Flooding
Sensate focus therapy
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Punishment for criminal aboion for the women who gives consent and the performer are covered under IPC section ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 312 Punishment for performing criminal aboion with the consent of women; both for the women and performer is included in IPC Section 312.
1
312
313
314
315
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
In a case of endometrial cancer, if metastasis is seen in the vagina, what FIGO stage it would be :
Stage IV a
4
Stage III a
Stage III b
Stage III c
Stage IV a
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Breast CA with best prognosis
Ans. (a) Mucinous(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 1064-65)*Histological type: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type; NST) carries poor prognosis.*Tubular, mucinous, lobular, papillary, adenoid cystic has better prognosis#Metaplastic carcinoma or micro-papillary carcinoma have a poorer prognosis QRemember mucinous > lobular
1
Mucinous
Medullary
Invasive ductal
Lobular Ca
Pathology
Breast
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single
In a case of Plasmodium falciparum malaria, the peripheral blood smear does not demonstrate trophozoites and schizonts. The reason for this is:
-Plasmodium falciparum is associated with infected red cells expressing PfEMP (Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein) leading to their attachment to the endothelial cells. -This leads to sequestration of infected red cells in the capillaries. -That's the reason for the non-appearance of trophozoites and schizonts in the peripheral blood smear.
4
Apoptosis of red cells because of hemozoin pigments
Lysis of red cells with malarial parasite
Infested cells are trapped in the spleen
Infested red blood cells stick to the capillaries
Pathology
Hematopoeisis: Basic concepts
ba0b8499-1109-47ad-bb83-87ae48cb29fb
single
Intelligence quotient is calculated as:
Ans. A. Mental age/ Chronological age x100An intelligence quotient (IQ) is a total score derived from several standardized tests designed to assess human intelligence. The intelligence quotientIntelligence quotient (IQ) refers to mental age (MA) expressed as a ratio of chronological age (CA) multiplied by 100. Intellect comprises perception, memory, recognition, conceptualization, convergent and divergent reasoning, verbal ability and motor competence. . There are various intelligence tests that have been devised. Few of them are Phataak adaptation of Bayley scale, Kulshrestha adaptation of Standford Binet test.
1
Mental age/Chronological age x100
Chronological age/Mental Age x100
Mental age x Chronological age
Mental age + chronological age/2
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
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single
Drumstick appearence is seen in -
null
1
Cl. tetani
Cl. Tetanomorphum
Cl. Sphenoids
All
Microbiology
null
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multi
Killer cells & helper cells are pa of -
The category of effector T cell is a broad one that includes various T cell types that actively respond to a stimulus, such as co-stimulation. This includes helper, killer, regulatory, and potentially other T cell types. Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 135
2
B cells
T cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
Microbiology
Immunology
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single
D-dimer is the sensitive diagnostic test for
The sensitivity of the d-dimer is >80% for DVT (including isolated calf DVT) and >95% for PE. The d-dimer is less sensitive for DVT than for PE because the DVT thrombus size is smaller.A normal d-dimer is a useful "rule out" test. However, the d-dimer assay is not specific. Levels increase in patients with myocardial infarction, pneumonia, sepsis, cancer, and the postoperative state and those in the second or third trimester of pregnancy.Ref: Harrison's 19e pg: 1632
1
Pulmonary embolism
Acute pulmonary oedema
Cardiac tamponade
Acute myocardial infarction
Medicine
All India exam
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single
TRUE regarding carcinoid of appendix is
Carcinoid tumours arise in argentaffin tissue (Kulchitsky cells of the crypts of Lieberkuhn) and are most common in the vermiform appendix.The tumour can occur in any pa of the appendix, but it is frequently found in the distal third.Unlike carcinoid tumours arising in other pas of the intestinal tract, carcinoid tumour of the appendix rarely gives rise to metastases. Appendicectomy has been shown to be sufficient treatment. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1217
2
Most commonly occurs at the base of the appendix
Most common neoplasm of the appendix
Most cases require right hemicleoctomy
Metastases are quite common
Surgery
G.I.T
de4bc473-02e5-4db1-b71d-141bd0bad768
multi
Which one of the following is the most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (MG) History:--diplopia, ptosis, weakness, fluctuation, and fatigue, worse with activity, improved by rest Physical examination:--ptosis, diplopia, motor power survey--quantitative testing of muscle strength, forward arm abduction time (5 min), vital capacity, the absence of other neurologic signs. Laboratory testing:--anti-AChR radioimmunoassay--85% positive in generalized MG, 50% in ocular MG, the definite diagnosis of positive; negative results do not exclude MG, 40% of AChR antibody-negative patients with generalized MG have anti-muscle antibodies. Repetitive nerve stimulation, the decrement of>15% at 3Hz: highly probable. Single fiber electromyography: blocking and fitter, with normal fiber density; confirmatory, but not specific. Endorphin chloride--(Tensile) 2 mg + 8 mg IV: highly probable diagnosis if unequivocal positive. For ocular or cranial MG, exclude intracranial lesions by CT or MRI. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 3233-3235, 3234t, 3237t
3
Elevated serum ACh-receptor binding antibodies
Repetitive nerve stimulation test
Positive edrophonium test
Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography
Medicine
Genetics
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single
The following statements are true regarding neutrophil extracellular trap
Ans. (d) All the above(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 81)Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) are extracellular fibrillar networks that provide a high concentration of antimicrobial substances at sites of infection and prevent the spread of the microbes by trapping them in the fibrils. They consist of a viscous meshwork of nuclear chromatin that binds and concentrates granule proteins such as antimicrobial peptides and enzymes
4
Produced by neutrophils in response to infectious pathogens and inflammatory mediators
Provide a high concentration of antimicrobial substances at sites of infection
Prevent the spread of the microbes by trapping them in the fibrils
All the above
Pathology
Inflammation & Repair
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multi
Tone of the anal sphincter in maintained by
The anal sphincters and puborectalis are the primary muscles responsible for continence. There are two sphincters: the internal anal sphincter, and the external anal sphincter. The internal sphincter is responsible for 85% of the resting muscle tone and is involuntary. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg413-416
3
Nervi erigentes
Inferior hypogastric plexus
Inferior rectal nerve
Pelvic splanchnic nerves
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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Elderly man with long-standing mole over the face which is increasing in size and showing irregular border. Diagnosis:
Lentigo maligna- occur on face sun exposed areas of older individuals,long standing cases,manifests as a flat,dark,variably pigmented lesion,with irregular borders and a history of slow development,best prognosis Superficial spreading melanoma- m/c type , m/c site torso/trunk Nodular- most malignant,veical growth phase + Acral melanoma-least common ,m/c site great toe nail
2
Superficial spreading melanoma
Lentigo maligna
Acral melanoma
Nodular melanoma
Surgery
NEET Jan 2020
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single
Histological changes in lens induced uveitis include:
Ans. Giant cell reaction
2
Ghost cells
Giant cell reaction
Amyloid in the Cornea
Vasculitis
Ophthalmology
null
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single
In a patient with head injury black eye associated with subconjunctival haemorrhage occurs when there is -
This is k/a racoon sign.
1
Fracture of floor and anterior cranial fossa
Bleeding between the skin and galea aponeurotica
Haemorrhage between galea aponeurotica and pericranium
Fracture of greater wing of sphenoid bone
Surgery
null
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single
A drug X is useful in the treatment of rheumatoid ahritis. It is available only in parenteral formulation and its mechanism of action is antagonism of tumor necrosis factor. Which of the following can be X?
Infliximab and Etanercept are TNF-aantagonists useful for the treatment of rheumatoid ahritis. These are administered by parenteral route. TNF-a antagonists can cause reactivation of latent tuberculosis. Phenylbutazone -can precipitate the acute attack of asthma
4
Cyclosporine
Penicillamine
Phenylbutazone
Etanercept
Pharmacology
NSAIDs, Gout and Rheumatoid Ahritis
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Which of the following is a lyase
All of the above i.e. Fumarase, Aldolase, Decarboxylase are Lyases. Lyases are enzymes which can either break a bond or make a bond but they do not require water or ATP. The EC No. is 4. Fumarase is a Lyase (also known as Hydratase enzyme which can add or remove water but bond is not broken). Aldolase A & B both are Lyases. Simple Decarboxylases are Lyases. EXTRA EDGE: The other examples of Lyases are: Synthase - Link two molecules without involvement of ATP. Desulfhydrase - Remove H2S from substrate. Enzyme of Oxidative decarboxylation is a Dehydrogenase, so belongs to EC No.= 1 as compared to simple decarboxylases which are Lyases.
4
Aldolase
Fumarase
Decarboxylase
All of the above
Biochemistry
Enzymology
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multi
A person has an injury in the forefinger with glass and it is suspected that he has a retained piece of glass in his finger. What is the first investigation you will do?
Ans. c. Plain radiograph 'Plain films can be clinically beneficial in locating glass foreign bodies in deep wounds with or without exploration.' Glass Foreign Body Patients with glass embedded in a wound are more likely to repo the sensation of foreign bodies. In patients with sensation of foreign body, superficial wounds that have been adequately explored do not require radiography. Plain films can be clinically beneficial in locating glass foreign bodies in deep wounds with or without explorationQ In patients without sensation, the history can guide the decision for fuher investigation. All glass is radiopaque; however, there is limited ability for radiography to detect glass fragments smaller than 2 mm. Glass is ine and can be left in place if it is difficult to locate or remove.
3
MRI
CT scan
Plain radiograph
Ultrasonography
Radiology
null
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Which of the following is not a side effect of long-term use of PPI?
Ans. a. Hypothyroidism
1
Hypothyroidism
Osteoporosis leading to hip fracture in women
Community acquired pneumonia
Clostridium difficile infection
Pharmacology
null
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single
A patient is advised to avoid strenous activity following herniorrhaphy for a period of -
Ans. is 'None'
4
One day
One week
3 weeks
None
Surgery
null
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multi
A 3-year-old child presented with progressive anaemia, jaundice & failure to thrive. 0/E: Pallor, splenomegaly are seen. Peripheral smear showed normoblasts and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is
null
1
Hereditary spherocytosis
Thalassaemia
Sickle cell anaemia
Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia
Pathology
null
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The sputum specimen of a 70 year old male was cultured on a 5% blood agar. The culture showed the presence of a-hemolytic colonies next day. The fuher processing of this organism is most likely to yield:-
Sputum sample is taken for diagnosis of URIs and LRIs. Option 1 Viridians Streptococci Gram-positive cocci in sho chains, Catalase negative and bile resistant Viridans streptococci are pa of a normal oral flora. cause of dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis. Option 2 Pneumococcus Gram-positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and bile soluble form a-hemolytic colonies (Greenish colonies) on blood agar and optochin sensitive . responsible for the majority of community-acquired pneumonia. Gram staining of sputum = S. pneumoniae (gram positive diplococci with capsule) Optochin sensitivity = Pneumococcus on Blood agar showing a- Hemolysis (Paial hemolysis) with sensitivity to optochin disk. Option 3 S. aureus Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive coagulase positive Option 4 Brucella Gram-negative coccobacilli catalase positive and oxidase positive
2
Gram-positive cocci in sho chains, catalase negative and bile resistant
Gram-positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and bile soluble
Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive and coagulase positive
Gram-negative coccobacilli, catalase positive and oxidase positive
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci)
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single
Which vitamin deficiency is seen in vegetarians especially -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vitamin B12* Dietary sources of vitamin B12 are of animal origin only and include meat, eggs, milk, diary products, fish, poultry etc. Vitamin B12 is absent in plant foods. Small amount of vitamin B12 is synthesized in the intestine by the action of intestinal flora.
1
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
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multi
Which of the following is found more in aqueous humor than in plasma:
Lactate is found more in aqueous humor than in blood. Concentration More in Aqueous Humor More in Plasma Lactate Protein Ascorbate Urea Pyruvate Glucose
3
Protein
Urea
Lactate
Glucose
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
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single
Which of this is not a sign of increased ICT? Copper beaten appearance
Ans. Ballooning of sella
3
Copper beaten appearance
Erosion of dorsum sella
Ballooning of sella
Sutural diastasis
Radiology
null
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multi
Gleasons Scoring is done for which of the following malignancy?
Gleason scoring system is used in prostate cancer to measure the extent of histological aggressiveness. This system relies upon the low-power appearance of the glandular architecture under the microscope. While assigning a grade to a given tumor, pathologists assign a primary grade to the pattern of cancer that is most commonly observed and a secondary grade to the second most commonly observed pattern in the specimen. Grades range usually from 1 to 5. If the entire specimen has only one pattern present, then both the primary and secondary grade are repoed as same grade. The Gleason score or Gleason sum is obtained by adding the primary and secondary grades together. Gleason grades range from 1 to 5, and Gleason scores or sums range from 2 to 10. Ref: Smith's General Urology, 17e, chapter 22
1
Prostate cancer
Lung cancer
Bladder cancer
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Surgery
null
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single
Cheiloscopy is the study of prints of?
LIPPRINTS: (CheiloscopyQ): Lip prints are divided into different patterns which are specific to the individual. Lip print Patterns: Veical, branched, intersected, reticular patterns & unidentified patterns. Palatoscopy - Study of rugae in hard palate Podogram - Study of footprints
4
Foot
Fingers
Palate
Lips
Forensic Medicine
Human identification
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single
'SEPS' is a surgical procedure used in the treatment of which of the following condition:
Subfascial endoscopic perforator vein surgery (SEPS) is done in patients with documented perforator incompetence. It is a minimally invasive technique performed in patients with advanced chronic venous insufficiency. The objective of this operation is to interrupt incompetent medial calf perforating veins to decrease venous reflux, and to reduce ambulatory venous hypeension in critical areas above the ankle where venous ulcers most frequently develop. Patients with stasis skin changes and healed or active ulcerations are candidates of operations. Ref: Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation: Principles and Practice By Joel A. DeLisa, Nicholas E. Walsh, Volume 1, Page 801
1
Venous incompetence
Aerial obstruction
Lymphatic obstruction
AV fistula
Surgery
null
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single
Complications arising out of A - V fistula done for renal failure include the following EXCEPT ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Necrosis of the distal pa
4
Infection
Thrombosis
High output cardiac failure
Necrosis of the distal pa
Surgery
null
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multi
Muscle attached to lateral surface of greater trochanter
GREATER TROCHANTER:- Quadrangular prominence located on upper pa of the junction of neck with the shaft.Attachments:-1. Apex-pyriformis 2. Anterior surface-gluteus minimus3. Medial surface- obturator internus and two gamelli.4. Trochanteric fossa- obturator externus.5. Lateral surface-gluteus medius. <img src=" /> {Reference: BDC 6E pg no. 16}
2
Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Piriformis
Anatomy
Lower limb
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Granulomatous uveitis is seen in all of the following except:
Ans. Uveitis with ankylosing spondylitis
1
Uveitis with ankylosing spondylitis
Sympathetic ophthalmitis
Tubercular uveitis
Uveitis in sarcoidosis
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Which of the following drug has the least Marrow suppression
Mitotic Spindle Inhibitors:Vincristine binds to the tubulin dimer with the result that microtubules are disaggregated. This results in the block of growing cells in M-phaseVincristine is metabolized by the liver, and dose adjustment in the presence of hepatic dysfunction is required. It is a powerful vesicant, and infiltration can be treated by local heat and infiltration of hyaluronidase. At clinically used intravenous doses, neurotoxicity in the form of glove-and-stocking neuropathy is frequent. Acute neuropathic effects include jaw pain, paralytic ileus, urinary retention, and the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Myelosuppression is not seen.Reference: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 103e; Principles of Cancer treatment
2
Cisplatin
Vincristine
Cyclophosphamide
Methotrexate
Medicine
Haematology
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single
Structures passing through the inguinal canal are all EXCEPT:
Inferior epigastric aery is a branch given by external iliac aery, which ascends supero-medially, becomes medial relation of deep inguinal ring, and subsequently enters rectus sheath. It is not a content of inguinal canal. Lymphatics from uterus follow the round ligament of uterus through the inguinal canal
3
Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
Ilio-inguinal nerve
Inferior epigastric aery
Lymphatics from uterus
Anatomy
Abdominal wall ,Inguinal and Femoral region
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Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochrornocytoma may be associated with:
Clinical presentation Type 1 MEN * Hyperparathyroidism is most common initial clinical manifestation of type s multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN). * Some patients may manifest findings of ZES before they have hyperparathyroidism. * Symptoms of gastrinoma may become clinically apparent either with abdominal pain and diarrhea or with complications such as ulcer perforation or bleeding. Type 2A MEN * All patients develop MTC on the basis of C-cell hyperplasia. * About 5o% of patients with MTC manifest pheochromocytomas (usually late in life), and 2o% of patients have hyperparathyroidism. Type 2B MEN * Pheochromocytomas occur earlier than in patients with type 2A MEN. Ref : Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 21st ed
1
Medullary carinoma of thyroid
Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
Medicine
All India exam
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single
In a population of 1000, there are 200 eligible couples. 30 out of them use condom, 20 use IUCD, 20 use OC pills while 70 have undergone female sterilization. The rest do not use any method. Calculate Couple protection rate.
- Given, total eligible couples = 200 ; eligible couples protected by any of approved methods = 30+20+20+70 =140 - CPR = Total no. of eligible couples protected by any of approved methods/Total no. of eligible couples in the communityx100 =140/200 = 70% Approved methods of Family planning Sterlization IUD Condom Oral pills
4
35%
55%
62%
70%
Social & Preventive Medicine
Definitions & Concepts
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single
Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except –
null
2
Refsum's disease
Hallervorden–Spatz disease
NARP
Abetalipoproteinemia
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
All of the following are components of developer except:
null
4
Developing agent
Activator
Restrainer
Hardener
Radiology
null
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multi
POSTERIOR COMMUNICATING aery is a branch of
Posterior communicating aery is a branch of cerebral pa of internal carotid aery. It arises close to its termination. It runs backwards and anastomoses with proximal pa of posterior cerebral aery.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck, and brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.406
2
Veebral aery
Internal carotid aery
External carotid aery
Basillary aery
Anatomy
Brain
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single
Following is true about Focal nodular hyperplasia Except
It&;s a benign condition of unknown aetiology, seen in females showing focal overgrowth of functioning liver tissues with fibrous stromal suppo and also it presents as a solitary nodule. Reference : SRB edition :5 page no: 607& 608
2
Unusual benign tumor of liver
Commonly symptomatic and occurs as multiple liver nodules
More common in females than in males
Contain hepatocytes and Kupffer cells
Surgery
G.I.T
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Behcet's disease is characterised by all of the following except:
Ans. Unilateral granulomatous uveitis
1
Unilateral granulomatous uveitis
Recurrent hypopyon
Aphthous ulceration
Genital ulcerations
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Following are criminal responsibility of insaneexcept-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rule of nine Criminal responsibility of insane is judged by following rules : 1. Mc Naughten rule (legal test or right or wrong test) : It states that an accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved that at the time of commiting the crime, person was suffering from such a defect of reason from abnormality of mind that he didn't know the nature and quality of act he was doing or that what he was doing was wrong i.e. a person is not responsible if he is not of sound mind. It is accepted in india as law of criminal responsibility and is embodied in section 84 1PC as - "nothing is an offence which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the nature of act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law". 2. Doctrine of paial responsibility - If a person is suffering from some weakness or aberration of mind (though not completely insane), he is only paially responsible for his actions, e.g. obsession states or depressions. 3. Durhan rule- Accused is not responsible for the act, if his act resulted from mental disease or defect. 4. Currens rule- A person is not responsible if at the time of committing the crime, he did not have the capacity to regulate his conduct according to the requirements of law, as a result of his mental disease or defect. 5. American law institute test-Insane lacks the capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to confirm to the requirements of law, therefore he is not responsible for crimes committed. 6. Norwegion system-No defendant considered insane or unconscious at the time of offence, may be punished
4
Mc naughten rule
Currens rule
Durham rule
Rule of nine
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following statements about Premature ventricular beats is false -
null
3
Sequential depolarization of ventricles
Wide, Bizzare, Notched QRS complexes
Prevalence decreases with age
Palpitations is a common presenting feature
Medicine
null
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multi
Porencephaly seen in –
Porencephaly is the presence of cyst and cavities in the brain. It is due to infarction. In Dandy - walker syndrome also cyst occurs in brain due to expansion of 4th ventricle.
4
Trisomy 13
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Down syndrome
Dandy Walker syndrome
Pediatrics
null
1f566b9a-eae6-4d1c-a62f-7fcd6b5f80f8
single
Patient of exudative retinopathy of coats presents with leukocoria, needs to be differentiated from ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retinoblastoma EXUDATIVE RETINOPATHY OF COATS Coats' disease is a severe form of retinal telengiectasia (idiopathic congenital vascular malformation), which typically affects one eye of boys in their first decade of life. In early stages it is characterised by large areas of intra and subretinal yellowish exudates and haemorrhages associated with overlying dilated and touous retinal blood vessels and a number of small aneurysms near the posterior pole and around the disc. It may present with visual loss, strabismus or leukocoria (whitish pupillary reflex) and thus needs to be differentiated from retinoblastoma. The condition usually progresses to produce exudative retinal detachment and a retrolental mass. In late stages complicated cataract, uveitis and secondary glaucoma occur, which eventually end in phthisis bulbi. Treatment Photocoagulation or cryotherapy may check progression of the disease if applied in the early stage. However, once the retina is detached the treatment becomes increasingly difficult and success rate declines to 33 percent.
1
Retinoblstoma
Retinitis pigmentosa
Retinal detachment
Congenital cataract
Ophthalmology
null
e522461a-a65c-49be-9d89-dbf0a9bd6ab3
single
What is the clearance of a substance, if its concentration in plasma in 10 mg% concentration in urine is 100mg% and urine flow is 2 ml/min?
The amount of such a substance in the urine per unit of time must have been provided by filtering exactly the number of milliliters of plasma that contained this amount. Therefore, if the substance is designated by the letter X, the GFR is equal to the concentration of X in urine (UX) times the urine flow per unit of time (V*) divided by the aerial plasma level of X (PX), or UXV*/PX. This value is called the clearance of X (CX). PX is, of course, the same in all pas of the aerial circulation, and if X is not metabolized to any extent in the tissues, the level of X in peripheral venous plasma can be substituted for the aerial plasma level. C= 2*100/10 = 20ml/min Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 645
4
0.2 ml/min
0.2 ml/min
2 ml/min
20 ml/min
Physiology
Renal physiology
8804dcba-01e5-4d79-91f8-3e17031b48a5
single
A 45-year-old female with a long history of progressive myopia develops sudden patchy loss of vision in her right eye. She is very alarmed and rushes to her family doctor. Funduscopic examination reveals a large retinal detachment in the right eye. The retina in the left eye is normal. When the pupillary light reflex is tested by shining a light in the right eye, the physician would likely note?
This patient is exhibiting the Marcus-Gunn phenomenon. When light strikes the retina, the pupillary light reflex is automatically triggered, leading to simultaneous constriction of both pupils. In the absence of adequate light entering the eye, for example following retinal detachment or optic neuritis, paradoxical dilatation of the pupils occurs. The retina receives far less light than it normally would, and the pupils dilate in order to absorb as much light as possible.
4
Constriction of the right pupil and constriction of the left
Constriction of the right pupil and dilatation of the left
Dilatation of the right pupil and constriction of the left
Dilatation of the right pupil and dilatation of the left
Physiology
null
16669915-5d59-4472-acd9-f3e7a31b107e
single
A hypeensive individual had a sudden headache and became unconscious within a few minutes. On regaining consciousness, there was complete flaccid hemiplegia with no involvement of upper face, absence of tendon reflexes and a positive Babinski sign. Which one of the following aeries could have ruptured :
Answer is A (Lateral striate branch of middle cerebral): This is a case of hypeensive intracerebral haemorrhage affecting the basal ganglia. Basal ganglia is supplied through medial and lateral striate branches of middle cerebral aery. Lateral striate branch of middle cerebral aery is thus the site of rupture Hypeensive hemorrhage almost always occurs while the patient is awake and sometimes when stressed. It generally presents as severe headache along with abrupt onset of focal neurological deficit. The focal deficit typically worsens steadily and is associated with a diminishing level of consciousness and signs of increased ICP, such as headache & vomiting. The focal neurological signs vary according to the site of the hemorrhage Basal ganglia Thalamus Pons Cerebellum Aeries involved Aeries involved Aeries involved Aeries involved Medial & lateral striate branches of Middle cerebral aery. Perforating branches of posterior cerebral aery Basilar aery Cerebellar aeries - Superior cerebellar - Ant. inferior - Post. Inferior Manifestations Manifestations Manifestations Manifestations * Contralateral hemiparesis * Hemisensory loss involving all modalities * Quadriplegia * Occipital headache is the sentinel sign * Contralateral hemiparesis * Deep coma * Vomiting * Paralysis may worsen sensory loss > motor loss * Decerebrate * Gain ataxia until the affected limbs * Several typical ocular disturbances: rigidity Q * Dizziness or veigo become flaccid or extend - down & inward detion of eyes ** Pinpoint pupil * Ocular changes rigidly - unequal pupils with loss of light reflex that react to light - paresis of conjugate gaze * When haemorrhage is - skew detion with eye opp. * Impairment of - forced detion of eyes large signs of brainstem haemorrhage deted down and reflex eye to opposite side compression may appear - Coma medially - I/L homers syndrome movement on head turning - I/L 6th nerve palsy * Dysahria - Cheyne Stokes respiration - Dilated & fixed ipsilateral pupil - Absence of convergence - Paralysis of veical gaze - Retraction nystagmus * Contralateral pain syndrome (Deferne- (doll's head or occulocephalic maneuver) * Hyperapnea * Dysphagia * Stupor & coma if brainstem compression occurs - Decerebrate rigidity Roussy syndrome) * Hypeension * Aphasics * Hyperhydrosis
1
Lateral striate branch of middle cerebral
Medial striate branch of anterior cerebral
Posterolateral branch from posterior cerebral
Posterior choroidal branch of posterior cerebral
Medicine
null
4cfdbce8-4fd5-4382-963d-1b3d53dbbe5f
single
All are true about culture media except
(A) (Mac- Conkey agar prevent growth of G-ve bacteria) (45, 46- Bevja 4th; 42-43- Ananthanarayan 9th)Mac-Conkev agar* Mainly used to differentiate between varius Gram negative rod shaped organisms* It is also used to inhibit growth of gram positive organism thus it is both differential and selective media.Mac-conkey medium which consists of peptone, lactose agar, neutral red and taurocholate shows up lactose fermenters as pink colonies while non-lactose fermenters are coloumess or pale. This may also be termed indicator medium.Composition and uses of Liquid MediaMediumCompositionUses1. Peptone waterPeptone - 1% Na Ci- 0.5%water- 100 ml (PH 7.4)Routine culture, sugar fermentation tests2. Nutrient brothPeptone water + Meat extract- 1 % 3. Glucose brothNutrient broth + Glucose- 0.5%Blood culture, culture of certain organisms e,g, Streptococci4. Enrichment media i) Alkaline peptone waterPeptone water (p H 9.0)Culture of vibrioii) Selenite F brothPeptone water, sodium seleniteCulture of faeces for salmonellae and shigellaeiii) Tetrathionate brothNutrient broth, sodium thiosulphate, calcium carbonate, iodine solutionCulture of faeces especially for salmonellaeiv) Cooked meat broth (CMB) Rebertson's cooked meat broth (RCM)Nutrient broth, predigested cooked meat of ox heartCulture of anaerobic bacteriaComposition and uses of Solid MediaMediumCompositionUses1. Simple medium i) Nutrient agarNutrient broth Agar (2-3%)Routine culture2. Enriched media i) Blood agarii) Chocolate agariii) Loeffler's serum slope (LSS)Nutrient agar, Sheep blood (5-10%)Heated blood agar (55degC X2 hr)Nutrient broth Glucose, Horse serumRoutine cultureCulture of Neisseria H, influenzaCulture of C diphtheria3. Indicator medium i) MacConkey's mediumPeptoneLactoseSodium taurocholateAgarNeutral redCulture of Gram negative bacilli4. Selective media i) Deoxycholate citrate agar (DCA)ii) Bile salt agar (BSA)Nutrient agar, Sodium deoxycholate, sodium citrate, Lactose, Neutral redNutrient agar, Sodium taurocholate (0.5%) pH 8.2Culture of salmonellae and ShigellaeCulture of vibrio choleraKEY POINTS1. Culture media are required to grow the organisms from infected material to identify the causative agent2. The basic constituents of culture media are water, electrolyte, peptone, meat extract, blood or serum and agar.3. When basal medium is added with some nutrients such as blood, serum of egg, it is called enriched medium.4. Some substances are incorporated in the liquid medium which have a stimulating effect on the bacteria and be growth or inhibits the competitors. Such media are called enrichment media, e,g, selenite broth.5. Selective media contain substances that inhibit all but a few types of bacteria and facilitate the isolation of a particular species. Example is bite salt agar (BSA).6. Differential medium contains substances which help to distinguish differing characteristics of bacteria. Example is MacConkey's medium7. Indicator media contain an indicator which changes colour when bacterium grows in them. macConkey's medium is differential as well as an indicator medium8. Anaerobic media are used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria, e,g, cooked meat broth (CMB
1
Mac-Conkey agar prevents growth of g- "ve"bacteria
Thayer- martin - gonococcus
LJ media - mycobacteria
Selenite F broth - salmonella
Microbiology
General
08e35cf9-39d3-4a6b-af58-bb58f9e8c9f8
multi
In primary health care, ABC and VED are related to
Of all the inventory control systems ABC and VED matrix is most suitable for medical stores. Hence the coupling of ABC and VED matrix for drug inventory in a hospital.ABC analysis is popularly known as "Always Better Control" is a very useful approach to material management based on Pareto&;s principle of "Vital few and tril many" based on the capital investment of the item. According to Pareto&;s theory O10% items consume about 70 % of the budget (Group A). OThe next 20% consume 20 % of financial resources (Group B) andOremaining 70 % items account for just 10% of the budget (Group C). VED analysis is based on the criticality of an item. O"V" is for vital items without which a hospital cannot function, O"E" for essential items without which an institution can function but may affect the quality of the services andO"D" stands for desirable items, unavailability of which will not interfere with functioning.(Refer: style="font-family:Cambria;font-size:13px;"> and Immunization Handbook for medical officers)
2
National program evaluation at PHC level
Drug inventory management at PHC
Staff management at PHC
Vaccination coverage assessment in PHC area
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health education & planning
58025dc6-973b-4414-b61b-32d463af5f50
single
Organ of corti is situated in
Basilar membrane which support the organ of corti.
1
Basilar membrane
Utricle
Saccule
None of the above
ENT
null
74d26621-fa3c-4f06-b65c-da89e22437fa
multi
Villous atrophy is seen in -
null
4
Celiac disease
Giardiasis
Tropical sprue
All of above
Pathology
null
a6c3af29-24dc-45fc-ac98-cdffcfb6e9ef
multi
Femoral hernia is characteristically ... the pubic tubercle -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral and below
1
Lateral and below
Medial and above
Lateral and above
Medial and below
Surgery
null
5550f964-569b-4b8a-a1a7-75892cec50cf
multi
All are seen in primary extraglandular Sjogren's syndrome except -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rheumatoid arthritis o Primary Sjogren syndrome is not associated with other autoimmune disorders, e.g. Rheumatoid arthritis,o Sjogren syndrome occurs in elderly (50-60 yrs) female.o Primary' Sjogren syndrome (Sicca syndrome) has two types of clinical manifestationsSjogren SyndromeInvolvement of exocrine glandExtraglandularo Exocrine glands are the primary targeto Most common glands involved are -1. Lacrimal glands - dry eyes (Keratoconjunctivitis sicca)2. Salivary glands - dry mouth (Xerostomia)o Occurs in 1/3 rd patientso Raynaud's phenomenono Vasculitiso Arthralgia/Arthritiso Lymphadenopathyo Lymphomao Splenomegalyo Lung involvemento Kidney involvemento Peripheral neuropathyo Myositiso Liver involvemento In Sjogren syndrome, there is increased risk of development of marginal B-cell lymphoma.o Amongst the extraglandular manifestations, Arthralgia/Arthritis is most common.Remembero The biopsy of the lip to examine minor salivary glands is essential for the diagnosis of Sjogren syndrome.o The characteristic decrease in tears and saliva is the result of lymphocytic infiltration and fibrosis of lacrimal and salivary gland.o Anti SS-A (Ro) and anti SS-B (La) antibodies are the serological markers of Sjogren syndrome.
1
Rheumatoid arthritis
Raynaud's disease
Lymphoma
Splenomegaly
Unknown
null
c5c60a1f-33f5-4f2f-a017-a87c9db9088b
multi
Both hard and soft exudates are seen in
Ref AK khurana 6/e p 275
4
Hypeension
Diabetes
Eale's disease
All the above
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
9756a621-ea81-4030-877c-b5e95b5bf2ef
multi
Structure over bicipital aponeurosis in cubital fossa-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Veins
4
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Brachial artery
Veins
Anatomy
Arm and Cubital Fossa
ace159cf-92fd-4f4c-971a-8f1310d60799
single
A 29-year-old male is suspected of having viral encephalitis. Which of the following is the most likely result from CSF analysis?
VIRAL encephalitis N Glucose n or slightly | Protein || Lymphocytes Spinal Fluid Analysis for Meningitis Etiology Opening Pressure WBC Count Protein Glucose CSF/Serum Glucose Ratio Normal <180 mm H2O <=5 cells/mm3 15-45 mg/dL 45-80 mg/dL 0.6-0.7 Bacterial >180 mm H2O >100 cells/mm3 PMNs predominant >45 mg/dL <40 mg/dL <0.4 Viral,Borrelia burgdorferi,Treponema pallidum,Baonella henselae <180 mm H2O 25-500 cells/mm3 Lymphocyte predominant 15-45 mg/dLor slightly raised 45-80 mg/dL 0.6-0.7 Fungi,Mycobacterium tuberculosis, sarcoid, lymphoma, leptomeningeal metastases, paially treated bacterial meningitis Normal or increased 25-500 cells/mm3 Lymphocyte predominant >45 mg/dL <40 mg/dL <0.6
1
Raised protein + raised lymphocytes + normal glucose
Raised protein + normal lymphocytes + normal glucose
Raised protein + raised lymphocytes + raised glucose
Normal protein + raised lymphocytes + raised glucose
Medicine
Raised ICP and Brain death
58ed018c-d301-48b4-ba5b-ffde7ef9aa11
single
A 40 year old male smoker was diagnosed to have carcinoma of the right lung. Bronchogram showed the presence of a tumor, causing paial occlusion of the epaerial bronchus. Which of the following bronchopulmonary segments receive decreased airflow?
The epaerial bronchus supplies the right upper lobe, which includes the segments : apical, posterior and anterior. Bronchopulmonary segments Lobe Right lung Left lung Superior lobe I. Apical II. Posterior III. Anterior I. Apical II. Posterior III. Anterior IV. Superior lingual V. Inferior lingual Middle lobe IV. Lateral V. Medial Inferior lobe VI. Superior (apical) VII. Medial basal VIII. Anterior basal IX. Lateral basal X. Posterior basal VI. Superior (apical) VII. Medial basal VIII. Anterior basal IX. Lateral basal X. Posterior basal Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 958
2
Anterior, posterior, medial
Apical, anterior, posterior
Lateral, medial, superior
Basal , lateral, medial
Anatomy
Thorax
d619e84b-ab31-4dca-807b-4ab8588bc61f
single
All of the following are contra-indications for trial labour except:
Primi gravida
3
Breech presentation
Outlet contraction
Primi gravida
Post cesarean pregnancy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
4c9f6748-75b5-4827-9815-a15b72f0808d
multi
The retromolar pad as a landmark is
null
2
Relatively unstable
Relatively stable
Variable
None of the above
Dental
null
4f62e048-030f-456a-836a-f53e839aa097
multi
Non-sterile vegetations are seen in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Infective endocarditis o As the name suggests, non-sterile means presense of organism in the vegetation that is the characteristic feature of infective endocarditis. o Vegetation of infective endocarditis has following characteristics Large, bulky, friable and irregular Multiple Present on upper surface of the cusps. o Vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms (non-sterile) and scant inflammatory cells. o Aoic and mitral valves are the most common sites of infection. o In intravenous drug users, valves of right side are involved. o Vegetations sometimes erode into the underlying myocardium to produce an abscess cavity --> Ring abscess. Why hea valve is the most common site of infective endocarditis ? Lets see o As the valves of hea do not actually receive any supply of their own, defensive immune mechanism (such as WBCs) cannot approach the valves. o So, if an organisms (such as bacteria) establishes a hold on the valve forming a vegetation, the body cannot get rid of them.
2
Rheumatic fever
Infective endocarditis
Non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
Libman sack's endocarditis
Pathology
null
41668a50-8275-41ea-b001-249f5470bd82
single
A person knows the truth & willfully concealed the truth & gives false evidence in the cou of law. He will be punished under which IPC -
Perjury is dealt with in 193 IPC. Wilful giving of false evidence by a witness while under oath. He can be imprisoned for 7 years. Perjury can be asked leading questions by same side lawyer. HOSTILE WITNESS: Is a person who is supposed to have some interest or motive for concealing pa of the truth, or for giving completely false evidence. REF: Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 7.
3
190
192
193
194
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
d3abe192-87f2-49f7-b155-2d624663b5bf
multi
All of the following are true regarding LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin) except
Ans. (b) It acts by inhibiting both factor IIa and factor XaRef: KDT 6th ed./ 1599-600* Low molecular weight heparin inhibits only factor Xa whereas unfractionated heparin inhibits both factor Ila and factor Xa.
2
It has higher and predictable bioavailability
It act by inhibiting both factor Ila and factor Xa
Monitoring is not required
It has more favorable pharmacokinetics
Pharmacology
Anticoagulants and Coagulants
99de70f2-7b4c-45d1-8adb-c9a9d4d25f3a
multi
Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in human is most commonly because of -
Tuberculosis is transmitted mainly by droplet infection and droplet nuclei generated by sputum positive patients with pulmonary tuberculosis . Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page :181
2
Contact
Inhalation
Infiltration
Inoculation
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
31c0f41c-7177-4bae-b49f-c72a0d7a3905
single
Which of the following is the BEST to assess the state of protein nutrition?
Serum albumin is the best test of measure of body protein status. Other tests include total body nitrogen, mid arm circumference, serum transferrin, creatinine and height index. A serum albumin value of more than 3.5 g/dl indicates normal nutrition. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 563
2
Mid Arm Circumference
Serum Albumin
Serum Transferrin
Total Body Nitrogen
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
99118ea1-0224-4f06-a83a-b53308adf3aa
single
ELISA for virulence marker antigen (VMA) is done to detect virulence in -
EIEC :clinically EIEC resembles shigellosis ranging from mild diarrhoea to frank dysentry and occur in childrenas well as in adults. For lab diagnosis of EIEC ,the Sereny test used to be employed. Mice may be used instead of guinea pig. Cell penetration of HeLa or HEP-2 cells in culture is a more human diagnostic test. This ability to penetrate cells is determined by large plasmid, detection of which can also be a diagnostic test. The plasmid code for outer membrane antigens called the virulence marker antigen (VMA) which can be detected by ELISA (VMA ELISA) test REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th Edition pg no : 277
4
A typical mycobacteria
Hemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
Microbiology
general microbiology
915a088b-6c99-4fec-b58e-ead7a222451b
single
Which of the following represents the clinical presentation of a patient with critical lower limb ischemia?
Patient with critical limb ischemia has insufficient perfusion to sustain limb at rest, if left untreated such patients require amputation in 6 months. They experience pain at rest, ulcers and ischemic gangrene. Rest pain is exacerbated when lying supine and is improved by dangling the feet. Narcotics can also relieve the pain. Ref: Noninvasive Cardiovascular Imaging: A Multimodality Approach By Mario J. Garcia, Page 123; Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 23
3
Intermittent Claudication
Intermittent Claudication and gangrene
Rest pain and ischemic ulcers
Intermittent claudication and ischemic ulcers
Surgery
null
2d38740c-36f5-4640-a22f-d1ea20a85631
single
Benign hyperplasia (excessive growth of cells) of which pa of the male reproductive system would be most likely to interfere with the passage of urine?
Remember that the prostatic urethra travels through the prostate gland. So, if the periurethral zone of the prostate hyperophied, the nearby prostatic urethra would be occluded. The central and peripheral zones of the prostate are not as close to the urethra. If they enlarged, they would not restrict the flow of urine quite as much. The ejaculatory duct is the duct formed once the ductus deferens joins with the duct of the seminal vesicle. It passes through the prostate gland, but its enlargement would have no effect on the prostate or the urethra. Ref: La Rochelle J., Shuch B., Belldegrun A. (2010). Chapter 40. Urology. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e.
1
Periurethral Zone of the Prostate
Central Zone of the Prostate
Peripheral Zone of the Prostate
Ejaculatory Duct
Anatomy
null
5a91c33e-3383-458a-842f-c30da0e3e4bd
single
Putrefaction is a :
D i.e. Late sign of death
4
Perimoem sign of death
Immediate sign of death
Early sign of death
Late sign of death
Forensic Medicine
null
03d8bf40-805f-4db0-b116-4e820bd6369e
single
Terlipressin is preferred over vasopressine for esophageal varices because of -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Less side effects o Terlipresin is preferred over vasopressine because: -i) Fewer adverse effectsii) Greater convenience in use
3
Faster acting
Not metabolized
Less side effects
More potent
Pharmacology
G.I.T
68f12111-cc4b-427b-a2ff-48af6aef7bc4
single
All of the following drugs are used as immunosuppressants except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cephalosporin Immunosuppressant drugs:-These are drugs which inhibit cellular / humoral or both immune response.They have their major use in organ transplantation and autoimmune disease.These drugs are:ImmunosuppresantsCalcineurin inhibitors(specific T cell inhibitors)Antiproliferative drugs(cytotoxic drugs)GlococorticoidsAntibodiesCyclosporineTacrolimusAzathioprineCyclophosphamideMethotrexateChlorambucilMycophenolateMofetilPrednisolone & othersMuromonab CD3Antithymocyte globulin(ATG)Rho (D) immunoglobulin
3
Glucocorticoids
Cyclosporin
Cephalosporin
Azathioprine
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
bb23ef16-1f53-4de5-8383-282a671f9946
multi
A person was diagnosed with Gout. You will suggest the patient to avoid which of the following food product in his diet?
Ans. D. ALLFoods rich in purine are:1. Vegetarian - spinach, peas, cauliflower, mushrooms2. Non- vegetarian- meat, liver, fish (tuna)Also alcohol & heavy exercise should be avoided in patients of gout, because they cause Lactic acidosis & Hyperuricemia.
4
Whisky & Beer
Spinach & Mushrooms
Meat & Fish
All
Biochemistry
Nutrition & Digestion
b0c4dd6c-025b-4b1a-aed2-508d6187978b
multi
Which of the following is the most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus? NOT RELATED-MEDICINE
.
3
Craniosynostosis
Intra uterine meningitis
Aqueductal stenosis
Vein of Galen malformation
Pharmacology
All India exam
5d4d3a32-9499-4682-a415-f191e6fbaf63
single
ATP is generated in ETC by
ATP SYNTHASE (COMPLEX V) It is a protein assembly in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It is sometimes referred to as the 5th Complex (Figs 19.14 and 19.15). Proton pumping ATP synthase (otherwise called F1-Fo ATPase) is a multisubunit transmembrane protein. It has two functional units, named as F1 and Fo. It looks like a lollipop since the membrane-embedded Fo component and F1 are connected by a protein stalk. Fo Unit: The "o" is pronounced as "oh"; and not as "zero". The "o" stands for oligomycin, as Fo is inhibited by oligomycin. Fo unit spans inner mitochondrial membrane. It serves as a proton channel, through which protons enter into mitochondria (Fig.19.14). Fo unit has 4 polypeptide chains and is connected to F1. Fo is water-insoluble whereas F1 is a water-soluble peripheral membrane protein. F1 Unit: It projects into the matrix. It catalyses the ATP synthesis (Fig. 19.14). F1 unit has 9 polypeptide chains, (3 alpha, 3 beta, 1 gamma, 1 sigma, 1 epsilon). The alpha chains have binding sites for ATP and ADP and beta chains have catalytic sites. ATP synthesis requires Mg++ ions. Mechanism of ATP synthesis: Translocation of protons carried out by the Fo catalyses the formation of the phospho-anhydride bond of ATP by F1. Coupling of the dissipation of proton gradient with ATP synthesis (oxidative phosphorylation) is through the interaction of F1 and Fo.Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 232
3
Na+ k+ ATPase
Na+ CI- ATPase
FOF1 ATPase
ADP Kinase
Biochemistry
Respiratory chain
757ed6b3-6c25-4ddb-b73e-dd8d906b18f1
single
Pain is less in primary dentition pulpitis as compared to permanent because:
null
3
More number of accessory canals.
Intrapulpal pressure is less.
Neural tissue is last to form and first to degenerate in primary dentition.
High pain threshold.
Dental
null
1f8f6cf0-97fb-4508-a002-934cac2612a6
single
Centre of resistance of maxilla is at
null
3
Point A
Palatal suture
Above roots of premolar
Maxillary Tuberosity
Dental
null
8fc848c4-2261-4aac-924b-e1e379532460
multi
Stage IV a with thyroid cartilage invasion in larynegeal carcinoma is treated with
null
4
Radiotherapy
Hemilaryngectomy
Total laryngectomy
Total laryngectomy with radiotherapy
ENT
null
9f1e4d5d-094f-48b3-bf5d-aa6e694f9ec1
single
Amyloid is best identified by -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Green birefringence of stained amyloid when viewed by polarizing microscope
4
Staining with methyl violet
Secondary fluorescence in UV light with riboflavin
Congo red
Green birefringence of stained amyloid when viewed by polarizing microscope
Pathology
null
aa975653-bd02-4486-9910-abb11779cbe4
single
Postoperative third-space accumulation should be managed by intravenous
Normal saline Third-space fluid accumulation should be managed by replacement with normal saline. This may produce an edematous patient, but it maximizes protection of reral function and produces more rapid recovery. Intravenous administration of non-solute containing fluids compounds the problem. Administration of potassium-containing fluids may lead to cardiac irregularity, and fluid restriction makes the renal problems worse.
4
Alburnin
Dextrose in water
Fluid restriction'
Normal saline
Surgery
null
5ec228d1-08ce-488d-91eb-011840aaf841
single
Smoking is most strongly associated with which type of lung cancer?
null
1
Small cell cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Carcinoid tumor
Pathology
null
514074b9-f11a-478a-98cb-27d8669d002b
multi
One of the following is the t/t of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis:
Ans. a. DapsoneTOC for dermatitis herpetiformis is gluten free diet DOC Dapsone
1
Dapsone
Retinoids
Mtx
Corticosteroids
Skin
Vesiculobullous (Blistering) Disorders
22152c20-5320-44aa-8dc9-a13e117ae8ee
single
Tumors most amenable (cured with) to chemotherapy a) Chorio Ca b) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma c) Hepatocellular Ca d) Thyroid Ca
null
1
ab
abc
abd
ac
Medicine
null
81e6174c-ad84-43e0-8330-30870106d211
single
Which of the following differentiates Hodgkin's lymphoma from non Hodgkins lymphoma?
ANSWER: (D) Reed stern berg cellsREF: Robbing 7th ed p. 669The differentiation between Hodgkin and non Hodgkin can be reliably done by histopathological examination and Reed Sternberg cells Is very characterstic of hodgkins lymphoma.* The clinical features of both the diseases can be very similar and distinction is difficult to be made on clinical grounds alone at times. Both types of lymphoma may also be associated with general symptoms of weight loss, fevers, and night sweatsDIFFERENCES BETWEEN HODGKIN'S AND NON HODGKIN'S DISEASE:Hodgkin'sNon hodgkin s* Less common* Bimodal distribution , more common in young* More often localised to single group of axial lymph nodes ( cervical , mediastinal , para aortic )* Orderly spread by contiguity * Mesentric and waldeyer's nodes rarely involved* Extranodal involvement uncommon* Reed stern berg cell seen* More common* Occurs in elderly only* Multiple periferal nodes* Non contigous spread* Commonly Involved* Extranodal involvement common* Reed stemberg cell not seen
4
Fever, night sweat, weight loss
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Elderly
Reed stem berg cells
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Neoplasia)
e36f34a5-d437-4f37-8fcc-c19145832f26
single
A 14-year-old boy present with headache, fever, and cough for 2 days. Sputum is scant and non-purulent and gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. The treatment should be initiated with :
null
2
Cefazolin
Erythromycin
Amikacin
Trovafloxacin
Pharmacology
null
46cbc6d5-0c35-49ef-8387-b24ee0f49d48
single
A rikshaw ran over the body of an 8 year old child leaving distinct markings of the tire treads. Marking's of the rikshaw tire over the child's body are best defined as:
Impact and pressure abrasions reproduce the pattern of the object causing it and are called patterend abrasions. They are produced when the force is applied at right angle to the surface of skin. When the skin is struck with a weapon having patterned surface, ridges of object damage the epidermis, and skin may be compressed into the cavities of the pattern causing intradermal bruise, eg imprint of bicycle chain, weave of coarse fabrics. Marking's of the rikshaw tire over the child's body are best defined as patterned abrasion. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 27th Edition, Pages 156-159; Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology: Principles and Practice by Vijay, 5th Edition, Page 215
4
Contact Abrasions
Percolated Abrasions
Imprint Abrasions
Patterned Abrasions
Forensic Medicine
null
f7dd8ce1-9cfb-48c0-93cf-e1832da3e8ba
single
A 6 yr old child presenting with recurrent episodes of gross hematuria for 2 yrs, is likely to have:
Recurrent episodes of painless gross hematuria represent the classic clinical presentation of IgA nephropathy. All other conditions may cause microscopic hematuria but gross hematuria in children is charecteristic of IgA Nephropathy. Ref: O P Ghai 6th Edition, Page 446, 448, 573, 574; Harrison 17th Edition, Page 1788; Rudolph Pediatrics 21st Edition, Page 1682
3
Wilm's tumour
Henoch Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
IgA nephropathy
Neuroblastoma
Pediatrics
null
96dedb8d-b07c-42f2-b9ea-317f4dac7225
single
Extracranial complications of CSOM -a) Labyrinthitisb) Otitic hyrocephalusc) Bezold's abscessd) Facial nerve plasye) Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
null
4
abc
ad
bc
acd
ENT
null
143454f1-862f-4aab-b2cd-56af3f35086a
single
A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural-based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is NOT RELATED-RADIOLOGY
.
1
Meningioma
Glioma
Schwannoma
Pituitary adenoma
Pharmacology
All India exam
75c5f193-3ffd-4aae-ad3f-2196fcaacae0
single
The commonest extradural spinal tumour is -
• MC spinal tumor: Metastasis • MC primary spinal tumor: Nerve sheath tumor • MC intramedullary tumor: Astrocytoma • MC site of primary spinal tumor: Intradural extramedullary
4
Neurofibroma
Glioma
Meningioma
Metastasis
Surgery
null
533239e2-8a79-453c-8572-fdeabb0f3899
single
Most sensitive test for Treponoma:
Ans. (c) FTA-ABS ' Most sensitive test for syphilis: FTA-ABS Most specific test for syphilis: TPI Note Treponemal test are likely to remain reactive even after adequate treatment and cannot differentiate past from current trepon mal infection.
3
VDRL
RPR
FTA-ABS
Kahn
Microbiology
null
1c9efd9d-ca19-47e5-b243-c1d08c5a1a11
single
It is true about formalin :
B i.e. Never used as a preservative for chemical analysis
2
That it can be used as preservative in alcohol poisoning
Never used as a preservative for chemical analysis
Used as a preservative in poisoning with digitals
None of the above
Forensic Medicine
null
4e0c4071-9a1f-4887-aa3a-b8a5022e355c
multi
Ligature material in case of hanging is kept preserved as ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ligature is cut away from the knot For removal and preservation of the ligature from the dead body in case of hanging it is cut away from the knot and the cut ends are tied with string or wire.
3
Ligature knot is opened completely
Ligature is cut at the knot?
Ligature is cut away from the knot
Ligature knot is loosened
Forensic Medicine
null
9dd6af4c-fe8f-4c81-b932-309d231265e8
single
Smoking is a risk factors for all the carcinoma except
Ref Robbins 9/e p415 Genetic Factors. Distinct molecular events are involved in the pathogenesis of the four major variants of thyroid cancer. As stated, medullary carcinomas do not arise from the follicu- lar epithelium. Genetic alterations in the three follicular cell- derived malignancies are clustered along two oncogenic pathways--the mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase pathway and the phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase (PI-3K)/AKT pathway (Fig. 19-13). In normal cells, these pathways are transiently activated by binding of soluble growth factor ligands to the extracellular domain of receptor tyrosine kinases, which results in autophosphorylation of the cytoplas- mic domain of the receptor, permitting intracellular signal transduction. In thyroid carcinomas, as with many solid cancers (Chapter 5), gain-of-function mutations along components of these pathways lead to constitutive activation even in the absence of ligand, thus promoting carcinogenesis. Environmental Factors. The major risk factor predispos- ing to thyroid cancer is exposure to ionizing radiation, paicularly during the first 2 decades of life. In keeping with this finding, there was a marked increase in the incidence of papillary carcinomas among children exposed to ionizing radiation after the Chernobyl nuclear disaster in 1986. Defi- ciency of dietary iodine (and by extension, an association with goiter) is linked with a higher frequency of follicular carcinomas.
4
Oral
Bronchial
Bladder
Thyroid
Anatomy
General anatomy
472b4199-f423-4aa6-99ad-a6da5b05e128
multi
All of the following are signs of cerebellar disease EXCEPT—
null
1
Resting tremors
Past pointing
Nystagmus
Ataxic gait
Medicine
null
bb2c34f1-eab1-4820-8698-7d246ec5793e
multi
True about spleen is all except
The long axis of the spleen lies along the tenth rib. The spleen plays multiple suppoing roles in the body. It acts as a filter for blood as pa of the immune system. Old red blood cells are recycled in the spleen, and platelets and white blood cells are stored there. The spleen also helps fight ceain kinds of bacteria that cause pneumonia and meningitis Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e
1
The long axis of the spleen lies along the twelth rib
The spleen is situated in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen beneath the diaphragm
A pathologically enlarged spleen extends downward and forward, toward the umbilicus
Because of the presence of the left colic flexure and the phrenicocolic ligament, the spleen is unable to expand veically downward
Physiology
All India exam
3484a92e-7516-4406-9a82-41b4dc82f1f4
multi
In cholesterol synthesis, which is rate limiting amino acid:
A i.e. HMG COA reductase
1
HMG CoA reductase
HMG CoA synthetase
7 alpha hydroxylase
Phosphofructokinase
Biochemistry
null
6e666148-15b6-4d87-b0a1-eeedf1679ef7
single