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Fever is due to:
Interleukin-1
1
Interleukin-1
Interleukin-2
Interleukin-3
Interleukin-4
Physiology
null
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single
Caseous necrosis is seen in?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Treponemal infection o Caseous necrosis is a feature of syphilis which is caused by tremonemal infection.Caseous necrosiso It is a variant of coagulative necrosis. It is most commonly encountered when cell death is attributable to certain organisms e.g., mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB), syphilis and fungi (Histoplasma, Coccidioidomycosis).o In contrast to coagulative necrosis where tissue architecture is maintained, in caseous necrosis, the tissue architecture is completely obliterated. So, it has been called caseous because of its cheesy white appearance of the area of necrosis.
3
CMV infection
Staphylococcal infection
Treponemal infection
HSV infection
Pathology
Histo Pathology
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Which of the following is not a component of Reynolds' Pentad in toxic cholangitis?
Reynold's pentad of acute obstructive cholangitis(suppurative cholangitis) includes - persistent right upper quadrant pain,persistent fever,persistent jaundice,shock(toxicity) and altered mental status. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:651.
4
Right upper quadrant pain
Confusion
Septic shock
Markedly elevated transaminases
Surgery
G.I.T
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A 34 year old lady, Ruchi, with a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder was admitted to the medicine casualty with claims of consumption of some form of poison following an argument with her husband. She was reluctant to disclose the nature of the consumed substance. She was initially treated with stomach wash and IV fluids. She developed jaundice followed by ascites and encephalopathy after 1 week. What is the likely poison that is responsible for acute liver failure?
Ethylene glycol intoxication causes metabolic acidosis, cardiovascular dysfunction, and finally acute kidney failure. Zinc phosphide used for rat poisoning can cause fatal acute liver necrosis. This condition is not rare in India. Carbamate poisoning is like organophosphorous poisoning.
1
Zinc phosphide
Pyrethrum
Ethylene glycol
Carbamate poisoning
Medicine
null
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The colour of bag used to dispose sharp wastes is: (2014 Feb REPEAT)
Ans: B > A (Blue white translucen > Red)Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition, pg: 739Explanation:Colour Coding for Various Categories of Biomedical Wastes and Disposal MethodsColourCodingType of containerWaste categoryDisposalMethodYellowPlastic bag* Category 1: Human anatomical waste (Human tissues, organs, body parts etc)* Category 2: Animal waste (Animal tissues, organs, body fluids etc)* Category 3: Microbiology and Biotechnology waste (waste from lab, cultures, vaccines etc)* Category 6: Solid waste contaminated with blood and body fluids (cotton, dressing material etc)* Incineration* Deep burialRedDisinfected container.'' Plastic bag* Category 3: Microbiology and Biotechnology waste (waste from lab. cultures, vaccines etc)* Category 6 and 7: Alt Solid waste (Items contaminated with blood and body fluids, Disposable item wastes)* Autoclaving* Microwaving* Chemical treatmentBlue 1 White translucentPlastic bag/Puncture proof container* Category 4: Sharp wastes (needles, syringes, scalpel, blade etc)* Category 7: Solid waste from Disposable items (tubings, catheters, IV sets etc)* Autoclaving* Microwaving* Chemical treatment* ShreddingBlackPlastic bag* Category 5: Discarded medicines and Cytotoxic drugs* Category 9: Incineration Ash (Ash from any biomedical waste)* Category 10: Chemical used in disinfectants* Disposal in secured landfillNote:Recent amendment (2011) of the biomedical management rules says Red bin for Category 4 (sharps), but this amendment is yet to be implemented.Also, one of the options, blue white translucent is not there in new amendment. So, I assume the question was based on old BMM rules. So the best option is blue with white translucent.Main Features of the New Amendment:Scope of BMW rules extended to all health facilities (occupier) irrespective of number of patients attending.New rule says compulsory authorization from prescribed authority (CPCB) to start any new health facility is required with regard to its biomedical waste disposal plans. Earlier only facility which caters to more than 1000 patients per month was required to get authorization.There are only 8 categories (old 10 categories) (liquid waste and ash is removed, chemical waste is made as 8* category)New bins are yellow, red, blue and black.There is an overlapping of category 3 and 6 which can be put either red or yellow as per existing rule, but new amendment exclusively say 3 in red and 6 in yellow. Category 7 in overlap was there earlier, nut new rule says it should go to red bin.Sharps in red bin as per new rules.Black bin-general waste.New rules applies only to biomedical waste and not for other waste like radioactive and chemical waste.Note:Liquid waste generated from laboratory, washing, cleaning, house keeping and disinfecting activities shall be treated so as to meet the discharge standards stipulated under these rules.Incineration ash (Ash from incineration of any Biomedical waste) shall be disposed through secured landfill, if toxic or hazardous constituents are present beyond the prescribed limits as given in Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules (2008).
2
Red
Blue white translucen
Yellow
Black
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
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ED50 is used for determining:
null
1
Potency
Efficacy
Safety
Toxicity
Pharmacology
null
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single
Reciprocal anchorage is offered by
null
3
Activator
Inter maxillary elastics
Maxillary expansion appliance
Catalan's appliance
Dental
null
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The marker for B lymphocyte is:
Answer is A (CD19) : CD 19 is a marker fir B lymphocytes. Primarily B cell associated antigens include CD10 and CD19 to CD23 i.e. CD10, CD19, CD20, CD21, CD22, CD23 Primarily T cell associated antigens include CD1 to CD8 with the exception of CD6 i.e. C'D1, CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD6, CD7, CD8. Primarily monocyte macrophage associated antigens CD13 to CD15 and CD33 i.e. CD13, CD14, CD15, CD33. Primarily NK cell associated antigens includeQ CD16 and CD56. (Do remember the antigens associated with NK cells. CD] 6 and CD56 being the primary ones, and also CD2 which is found expressed in a subset.Q)
1
CD19
CD68
CD34
CD4
Medicine
null
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Cervical lymph node involvement in papillary ca thyroid, best treatment is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Radical neck dissection "Lymph node metastasis in the lateral neck in patients with papillary carcinma usually should be managed with modified radical or functional neck dissection." - Schwaz Though the option mentions 'Radical neck dissection', not 'modified radical neck dissection, it still is the best choice among given option. Also know Modified radical neck dissection is done in any type of thyroid cancer with palpable or involved cervical lymph nodes (cervical lymph nodes are frequently involved in Papillary, Medullary Huhle cell and anaplastic carcinomas) It can also be done prophylactically in medullary carcinoma when the thyroid lesion is larger than 1 cm.
3
Radioactive iodine
Chemotherapy
Radical neck dissection
Steroid
Surgery
null
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Latest drug used for treatment of MDR TB patients is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bedaquiline Bedaquiline* It is a diaryl quinolone.* It acts by inhibiting M. tuberculosis adenosine triphosphate synthase.* It demonstrates significant potency against M. tuberculosis infection, both drug susceptible and multidrug resistant strains as well as many other mycobacteria.* It has potential to shorten the duration of drug therapy for management M. tuberculosis infection.* It is associated with nausea, increased QT interval.* FT, has approved bedaquiline for the management of drug resistant tuberculosis with a black box warning, relating to possible cardiac toxicity and sudden death.Note:DELAMANID:* It is also a new agent derived from nitrodihydro-imidazooxazole class of compounds.* It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, and has shown potent in vitro and invivo activity against both drug susceptible and drug resistant M. tuberculosis strains.
1
Bedaquiline
Amithiozone
Capreomycin
Linezolid
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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A drug 'X' is more selective for the col subtype of BZD receptors. It has hypnotic action but absent or little antianxiety, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant actions. Which of the following can be 'X':
null
2
Zopiclone
Zolpidem
Flumazenil
Melatonin
Pharmacology
null
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This ECG is of a 23 year old medical student who complained of an irregular heabeat. Other than an irregular pulse, his hea was clinically normal. What does the ECG show?
The ECG shows a hea rate of 100/min with normal axis. P wave and PR interval are in normal limits. Wide complex qRS is noted in lead II, III indicating Ventricular extra-systoles or premature ventricular contractions. ST segment and QT interval are within normal limits. In young and asymptomatic individuals extra-systoles do not indicate any significant hea disease.
1
Venticular Extra-systole
Complete hea block
Sinus Tachycardia
PSVT
Medicine
ECG and Arrhythmias 1
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Patient suffering from lesions over axilla, groin and trunk. Lesions show central clearing with surrounding papulovesicular margin progressively increasing at borders. Which will be the preferred investigation among the following?
Ans. b. 10% KOH mountExplanation: Central clearing is associated with tinea corporis (dermatophytic fungal infection). So, answer will be KOH mount.
2
Wood's lamp examination
10% KOH mount
Skin biopsy
Patch testing
Skin
Fungal Infection
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Biondi Ring Tangles (BRTs) are found in -
BRT are intracellular inclusion bodies found in choroidal epithelial cells of choroid plexus. It consists of a lipid droplet surrounded by a ring shaped bundle of filaments.
1
Choroidal plexus cells
Golgi type II cells
Basket cells
Pia mater
Anatomy
null
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Mass movements are often stimulated after a meal by distention of the stomach (gastrocolic reflex) and distention of the duodenum (duodenocolic reflex). Mass movements often lead to which of the following?
Mass movement is a modified type of peristalsis in the colon,propelling the fecal material in this segment en masse fuher down the colon and force feces into the rectum. When the walls of the rectum are stretched by the feces, the defecation reflex is initiated and a bowel movement follows when this is convenient.
1
Bowel movements
Gastric movements
Haustrations
Esophageal contractions
Physiology
Gastrointestinal System
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Hand-Foot-Mouth disease (HFMD) is caused by
Ans. d (Enterovirus-71) (Ref. Ananthanarayan, Microbiology, 8th/p. 491).Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD), is a contagious enteroviral infection occurring primarily in children and characterized by a vesicular palmoplantar eruption and erosive stomatitis. It is caused by enterovirus-71 & coxsackie A5, 7, 9, 10, 16, Bl, 2, 5, with coxsackie A16 being the most common cause. Coxsackie viruses are typical enteroviruses. Enteroviruses are believed to spread via fecal-oral and perhaps respiratory routes.Coxsackie viruses also cause:# Herpangina# Aseptic meningitis# Bornholm disease (epidemic pleurodynia)# Myocarditis/ Pericarditis# Juvenile diabetes# Orchitis# Post viral fatigue synd. Educational PointsThe 72 Enteroviruses include:1 to 3 - 3 - Polio4 to 27 - 24 - Coxsackie A (Coxsackie A 23 is same as ECHO 9)28 to 33 - 6 - Coxsackie B34 to 67 - 34 - ECHO (ECHO 10 is Reo, ECHO 28 Rhino 1 A, ECHO 34 is Coxsackie A24)68 to 72 - 5 - Enterovirus 68 to 72 (Entero Virus 72 is Hepatitis A Virus)
4
CMV
EBV
HHV-7
Enterovirus-71
Microbiology
Virology
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ORS new osmolarity is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 245 o Because of the improved effectiveness of reduced osmolarity ORS solution, WHO and UNICEF are recommending that countries manufacture and use the following formulation in place of the previously recommended ORS solution.Composition of reduced osmolarity ORSReduced osmolarity ORSgrams/litreSodium chlorideGlucose, anhydrousPotassium chlorideTrisodium citrate, dihydrateTotal weight2.613.51.52.920.5Reduced osmolarity ORSmmol/litreSodiumChlorideGlucose, anhydrousPotassiumCitrateTotal osmolarity7565752010245
2
270
245
290
310
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
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Which of the following pigments are involved in free radical injury -
Ans. is 'a' i.e. LipofuscinPigments are colored substances. Which may be : ?Endogenous pigmets --> Synthesized in the body itself.Exogenous pigments --> Coming from out side the body.Endogenous pigments LipofuscinIt is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment.o Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.o Its impoance lies in being the tell-tale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.o It is seen in cells undergoing slow, regressive changes and is paicularly prominent in the liver and hea of aging patients or patients with severe malnutrition and cancer cachexia.o Lipofuscin is composed of polymers of lipids and phospholipids complexed with proteins, suggesting that it is derived through lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes.o On electron microscopy, the granules are highly electron dense, often have membranous structure in their midst and are usually in perinuclear location.o In tissue section it appears as yellow brown pigment.o Deposition of lipofuscin in the hea is referred as brown atrophy.Melanino It is an endogenous, non hemoglobin derived brown-black pigment.o Melanin is the only endogenous brown black pigment.HemosiderinIt is hemoglobin derived, golden yellow to brown, granular or crystalline pigment in which form iron is stored in cells.o When there is local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms hemosiderin granules.o Thus hemosiderin pigment represents aggregrates of ferritin micelles.o Under normal conditions small amounts of hemosiderin can be seen in the mononuclear phagocytes of the bone marrow, spleen and liver, all actively engaged in red cell breakdown.BilirubinIt is the normal major pigment found in bile.o It is derived from hemoglobin but contains no iron.o Its normal formation and excretion are vital to health and jaundice is a common clinical disorder caused by excesses of this pigment within cells and tissues.Exogenous Pigments Carbon or Coal dusto It is the most common exogenous pigment.o Accumulation of this pigment blacken the tissue of lung (anthrocosis) and lymph nodes.Tattoingo It is a form of localized pigmentation of the skin.o The pigments inoculated are phagocytosed by dermal macrophages, in which they resides for the remainder of the life.
1
Lipofuscin
Melanin
B 1 irubin
Hematin
Pathology
null
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Millet seed like pattern is seen in
- Miliary Tuberculosis- Due to Hematogenous spread of infection - At first, the chest radiograph may be normal, but then small, discrete nodules, 1-2 mm in diameter, become apparent, evenly distributed throughout both lungs. - other causes of Miliary shadows seen on Chest X-ray: Tuberculosis Histoplasmosis Sarcoidosis Healed varicella
4
Milliary TB
Pulmonary hemosiderosis
Healed varicella pneumonia
All of the above
Radiology
Respiratory Radiology
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Stool osmotic gap is calculated by using the formula:
Stool osmotic gap is calculated by using the formula : 2 x (stool + stool ) stool osmolality When it is >50, an osmotic gap is present, suggests diarrhea is due to a non absorbed dietary nutrient, e.g., a fatty acid and/or carbohydrate. When this difference is <25, a dietary nutrient is not responsible for the diarrhea. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2460.
1
2 x (stool + stool )
2 x (stool + stool )
2 x (stool + stool )
2 x (stool + stool )
Physiology
null
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Sallick's manouvere is used for –
Sellick's manoeuvre is the application of back-ward pressure on cricoid cartilage to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and its leaking into respiratory tract.
1
To prevent gastric aspiration
To facilitate Respiration
To reduce dead space
To prevent alveolar collapse
Anaesthesia
null
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Bacitracin sensitivity is used to differentiate -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Group A streptococcus from other Beta hymolytic streptococci o Lets discuss each option one by oneStaphylococci and streptococci are differentiated by catalase test.Bacitracin sensitivity is used to differentiate streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) from other beta hemolytic streptococci.Alpha hemolytic and Gamma hemolytic streptococci are differentiated from Beta hemolytic streptocci, on the basis ofhemolysis.Following flow chart will help in the diagnosis of gram (+)ve cocci.
2
Group A streptococcus from staphylococcus
Group A streptococcus from other Beta hymolytic streptococci
Group A streptococcus from Gamma hemolytic streptococci.
Group A streptococcus from Alpha hemolytic streptocci
Microbiology
Bacteria
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Candle wax dripping sign is seen in
Answer- A. SarcoidosisCondle wax chipping sign is a feature of occular Sarcoidosis.
1
Sarcoidosis
SLE
HIV
Rheumatoid ahritis
Medicine
null
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Drug of choice for essential tremors
Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no:189 Nonselective beta blockers are used for essential tremors they occur due to contraction of skeletal muscles (beta 2 receptors) cardioselective beta blockers are not useful
2
Sotalol
Propranolol
Methylphenidate
prazosin
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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single
Commonest site of herpes Gestationis is?
A. i.e. Periumblical region Spontaneous remissions & recurrences are very common in herpes gestationis which typically presents with abrupt onset, intensily pruritic uicarial lesions mostly on abdomen, often periumblical during late pregnancyQ.
1
Periumbilical region
Flanks of abdomen
Vulva
Infraorbital
Skin
null
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Galantamine is used in?
Ans. (a) Alzheimer's diseaseRef: Goodman & Gillman llthed /. 132
1
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinsons disease
Emesis
Chorea
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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Delusional belief that one is dead called
Cotard delusion delusion that he is dead. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 359
2
Erotomania
Cotard delusion
Delusion of self reproach
Delusion of persecution
Anatomy
Special topics
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multi
Regarding Ganser's syndrome true is -
null
2
Repeated lying
Approximate answers
Unconscious episodes
Malingering
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Earliest symptom of Wilm's tumour
null
3
Hematuria
Pyrexia
Abdominal mass
Metastases
Surgery
null
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An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autosomal dominant disorder In Autosomal dominant disorders individuals are affected in successive generations. The disease does not occur in the offspring of unaffected individuals' ? Autosomal dominant o If both parents are normal, the disease cannot be autosomal dominant because it is manifested in Heterozygous state, So, even a single gene affection amongst the allel will cause the disease to be manifested. To be normal, a person should have normal copy of both allel. If both parents are normal, that means there is no abnormal gene. Autosomal recessive o In autosomal recessive disorder, if both parents are carrier (phenotypically normal) 25% of child will develop disease. Polygenic disorder o A trait is called `polygenic' if multiple genes on thought to contribute to the phenotype. o Polygenic disorders include Hypeension Diabetes, Asthma o A male infant with asthma or diabetes may will be born to normal parents Veically transmitted disorder o Passage of disease causing agent (pathogen) `veically' from mother to baby during the perinatal period is called 'veical transmission'. o A veically transmitted agent might lie dormant in the mother and not manifest in her clinically (normal mother) but may manifest in the child.
1
An Autosomal dominant disorder
An Autosomal recessive disorder
A polygenic disorder
A veically transmitted disorder
Pediatrics
null
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Opening of the nasolacrimal duct is in
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Inferior meatus Openings in the lateral wall of nasal cavity *Inferior meatus : Nasolacrimal duct*Middle meatus : Anterior ethmoidal sinus*Frontal sinus*Maxillary sinus*Superior meatus : Posterior ethmoidal sinuses*Sphenoethmoidal recess : Sphenoid sinus*Note: that the nasolacrimal duct opens into the inferior meatus but if its blocked and a DCR (Dacryocystorhinostomy) operation is performed the new opening is in the middle meatus*
1
Inferior meatus
Superior meatus
Middle meatus
Sphenoethmoidal recess
Anatomy
Nose
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Management for CSF rhinorhoea is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Antibiotics and observation "Early cases of post-traumatic CSF rhinorrhoea are managed conservatively by placing the pt. in the semisitting position, avoiding blowing of nose, sneezing and straining. Prophylactic antibiotics are also administered to prevent meningitis." - Dhingrao Traumatic rhinorrhea often stops spontaneously. Conservative treatment consists of 1-2 weeks trial of-i) Subarachnoid drainage through a lumbar catheter, ii) Strict bed rest, iii) Head elevation, iv) Stool softeners, v) Advising patient to avoid coughing, sneezing, nose blowing, and straining, vi) Prophylactic antibiotics, o Surgical repair is generally advocated in patients with large fistulae especially in the presence of pneumocephalus.
3
Plain x-ray and packing of nose
Nasal packing only
Antibiotics and observation
Immediate surgery
Surgery
E.N.T.
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Seen in trachoma
In trachoma there is both follicular and papillary reaction papillary hyperophy follicles pannus formation Herbe pits ropy discharge all are seen in trachoma Khurana 6th edition page number 65
4
Papillary hyperophy
Pannus formation
Ropy discharge
All of the above
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Which of the following is more prone to produce mesothelioma?
Ans: b (Crocidolite) Ref: Davidson, 20th ed, p. 72; 19th ed, p. 573Crocidolite is the most potent cause of mesotheliomaTypes of Asbestos:Serpentine (curly and flexible fibres) e.g., chrysoliteAmphibole (straight stiff and brittle) e.g., crocidolite.Amphiboles are more pathogenic than chrysoliteThe greater pathogenicity of amphibole is apparently related to their aerodymanic properties and solubility. The straight stiff amphiboles may align themselves in the airstream and are delivered to the deeper long tissues, where they can penetrate epithelial cells and reach interstitium.AsbestosisCaused by chrysolite, amosite, anthophyllite and crocidolite. Crocidolite or blue asbestos exposure is the most dangerous. Length of amphibole also plays a role in pathogenicity, those longer than 8 micrometer and thinner than 0.5 micrometer being more injurious than shorter thicker ones.Occupational exposure in - mining, milling, pipe fitters and boiler makersPathologyDiffuse interstitial fibrosis is mainly seen in the lower lobe.Asbestos bodies - Golden brown, fusiform or beaded rods (ferruginous) with translucent centre with asbestos fibres coated with an iron containing proteinacious material.Asbestos exposure causes pulmonary fibrosis (asbestosis) and carcinoma of lung, pleura (mesothelioma) and peritoneum.Atleast 10 years of exposure is needed for Asbestosis to manifest.But the disease may manifest many years after leaving the exposure site (similar to silica and coal)Lung cancer in asbestos exposure is associated with a minimum lapse of 15-19 years between first exposure and development of the disease.Mesothelioma is not associated with smoking (i.e., smoking does not increase the risk of mesothelioma in asbestos exposure)Radiological featuresCalcification of parietal pleura along the lower lung field, the diaphragm and the cardiac border.Ground glass appearance of the lung fields may be seen.
2
Chrysolite
Crocidolite
Amosite
Anthophyllite
Medicine
Respiratory
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All show iceberg phenomenon except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chicken pox In some disease, a great deal of subclinical infection occurs ? i) Rubella iii) Polio v) Japanese encephalitis vii) Influenza ii) Mumps iv) Hepatitis A and B vi) Diphtheria In chickenpox -Inapparent infection is estimated to occur in no more than 5% of susceptible children".
4
Influenza
Polio
Hepatitis
Chicken pox
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
External cephalic version is contraindicated in all except:
Breech
1
Breech
Twins
Placenta pre
Previous
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Short acting anti-histamine is:
Ans: B (Promethazine) Ref: Goodman & Gilman s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12th ed, 2011, Pg 921-922.Explanation:Hydroxyzine, is a long acting first generation antihistamine used in the treatment of skin allergies. It acts for a duration of 6-24 hrs.Cetirizine a second generation antihistamine acts for 12-24 hrs.Acrivastine belongs to second generation antihistamine and acts for a duration of 6-8 hrs.Promethazine, a first generation antihistamine acts for a duration of 4-6 hrs.Among the first generation antihistamines longer acting drugs include doxepin (6-24 hrs), chlorpheniramine (24 hrs) and meclizine (12-24 hrs ). Of the 2nd generation antihistamines longer acting drugs are cetirizine (12-24 hrs). levocetirizine (12-24 hrs), azelastine (12-24 hrs). loratadine (24 hrs). desloratadine (24 hrs). ebastine (24 hrs), mizolastine (24 hrs), and fexofenadine (12-24 hrs).
2
Cetirizine
Promethazine
Hydroxyzine
Acrivastine
Pharmacology
Anti Histaminics
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Sensory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through
The trigeminal nerve through its three branches is the chief sensory nerve of the face. The skin over the angle of the jaw and over the parotid gland is supplied by the great auricular nerve (C2,C3)
1
Great auricular nerve
Buccal branches of facial nerve
Lesser petrosal nerve
Auriculotemporal nerve
Anatomy
null
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Treatment of rolandic epilepsy is:
Paial idiopathic epilepsy with rolandic spikes Also called benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes They are seizures while falling asleep or on awakening Focal sharp waves in centrotemporal location are seen on EEG. Carbamazepine is the most frequently used 1st line drug, but valproate, phenytoin, gabapentin and levetiracetam have been found effective as well.
3
Phenytoin
Lamotrigine
Carbamazepine
ACTH
Pediatrics
Epilepsy
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single
Investigations in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis
The diagnostic procedures in a clinically suspected case of TB include AFB microscopy of sputum using Ziehl-Neelsen basic fuschsin stain;Mycobacterium culture using Lowenstein-Jensen or Middlebrook medium;nucleic acid amplifications using PCR,BACTEC;radiographic procedures like chest X ray with classic picture of upper-lobe disease with infiltrates & cavities,CT;Tuberculin skin testing with purified protein derivative which is a screening for latent M.tuberculosis infection Reference:Harrison's Medicine-18th edition,page no:1350,1351.
4
Mantoux (in children)
Sputum AFB
PCR
All
Medicine
Respiratory system
b88b1f0f-630b-4b52-bdae-5fd5445eecd5
multi
Urea,Creatine and Nitric oxide are synthesized from?
AMINO ACID DERIVED PRODUCTS Phenyl alanine Tyrosine->Melanin,Dopa,Dopamine,Norepinephrine,Epinephrine Tryptophan Niacin,Seratonin->Melatonin Histidine Carnosine,Histamine,Anserine Glycine Heme Glutamate GABA,Glutathione Arginine Urea,creatine,Nitric oxide Serine Ethanolamine,choline Lysine cadaverine Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition
2
Alanine
Arginine
Aspaate
Glycine
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
65fca6ad-5bd4-4df4-96e9-c372093cb35a
single
For PPS scoring on cast best instrument is?
null
3
Wax spatula
BP Blade no.22
Kingsley scraper
Hollenbeck carver
Dental
null
cfb03798-a275-4cf3-8746-d7ec10a4a60d
single
Drug of choice in Laryngeal stenosis is -
null
4
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Adriamycin
Mitomycin C
ENT
null
9bb90663-2c01-48ac-929f-23f0382cbf40
single
In well fed state gluconeogenesis in liver is inhibited by
C i.e. ADP level
3
Protein breakdown in muscle
Alanine content in liver
ADP level
cGMP
Biochemistry
null
dcc99eb8-717b-46b9-bd38-5642ecb68863
single
Deficit in weight for height in a 3 years old child indicates –
null
1
Acute malnutrition
Chronic malnutrition
Concomittant acute and chronic
Under weight
Pediatrics
null
b35fcef8-1d24-417f-af98-50a8742fb700
single
F factor integrates with bacterial chromosome to form -
Factor: The F factor is the transfer factor that contains the genetic information necessary for the synthesis of sex pilus and for self-transfer but is devoid of other identifiable genetic markers such as drug resistance. Cells carrying the F factor have no distinguishing feature other than their ability to mate with F - cells and render them F+. he F factor is actually an episode and has the ability to exist in some cells in the integrated data or inseed into the host chromosome. Such cells are able to transfer the chromosomal gene to recipient cells with high frequency and are known as Hfr cells. following conjugation with an Hfr cell an F- only rarely becomes F+ though it receives chromosomal genes from the donors. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:65
1
HFr
F+r
F-
F
Microbiology
general microbiology
90826940-94bc-4231-a047-a8116f461c83
single
The most specific antibody for Rheumatoid ahritis is?
Anti-CCP is the most specific antibody for rheumatoid ahritis with specificity of 95%. 20% patients have elevated ANA and ESR. CRP levels are elevated propoional to disease activity.
3
Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody
Anti-double stranded DNA antibody
Medicine
Rheumatoid Ahritis
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single
Hand and foot syndrome is seen with:
Ans. A. 5- fluorouracilHand and land foot syndrome is peculiar feature of 5- fluorouracil. Bleomycin is known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, Etoposide cause alopecia and GIT disturbances. Doxorubicin is highly cardiotoxic drug.
1
5- fluorouracil
Bleomycin
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Pharmacology
Anti-Cancer
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single
During rape on a virgin, rupture of hymen occurs at the following degree:
Tearing of hymen in a virgin during rape usually occurs posteriorly at the sides, in the 4 or 8 O'clock position, or in the middle line of the hymen. More than two tears are unusual. Tears usually occur in the posterior midline of the hymen because the hymen lies suspended across a potential space, whereas anteriorly the periurethral tissues buttress the hymen. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 356.
1
4
6
11
12
Forensic Medicine
null
b21ff787-700a-45d8-844c-706cec292e09
single
Which of the following statements about hematochromatosis is not true
Ans. is'd' i.e., Desferrioxamine is treatment of choice
4
Hypogonadism may be seen
Ahropathy may occur
Diabetes mellitus may develop
Desferrioxamine is treatment of choice
Medicine
null
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multi
Lifespan of fetal RBC is-
Ans. (d) 2/3 of adult RBCRef: Ganong, 25th ed/p.555Life span of fetal RBCs is 60 to 90 days. It is about 2/3rd of adult RBCs life span
4
Same as adult RBC
1/4 of adult RBC
1/2 of adult RBC
2/3 of adult RBC
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
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single
Reed Sternberg cells are:
Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are the malignant cells in Hodgkin Lymphoma which is a malignancy of germinal center mature B lymphocytes. These are large cells with abundant cytoplasm with bilobed and/or multiple nuclei These comprise less than 1% of the cellular infiltrate in the lymphoma tissue.
1
B cells
T cells
Natural killer cells
All of above
Medicine
Lymphoma and Plasma cell disorder
fa78bcc1-e503-467b-b0bc-8a045552918b
multi
A painless, fluid filled retention cyst appearing in the area of recent dental treatment may be the result of
null
4
Failure of absorption of the anaesthetic
Allergic reaction of agents employed
Infection occurred during treatment.
Injury to salivary gland.
Surgery
null
41105da5-08e9-42eb-a0e2-5eb5403af100
multi
Danger space of pharynx is bounded by
Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-268
3
Buccopharyngeal fascia anteriorly and alar fascia posteriorly
Preveebral fascia anteriorly and veebral body posteriorly
Alar fascia anteriorly and preveebral fascia posteriorly
Tonsils anteriorly and superior constrictor muscle posteriorly
ENT
Pharynx
6f70dccb-915e-477f-a6b1-9b8d167f9299
single
What is the name of the procedure shown here, used to resolve head entrapment?
Ans. C. Duhrssen's incisionsIncising the cervix - Duhrssen's incisionsa. If the head fails to deliver despite additional manoeuvres, then consideration should be made for performing cervical incisions. These are known as Duhrssen's incisions.b. Cervical incisions should be made a 2 'o clock and 10 'o clock to avoid lateral extension of the incision involving the descending cervical vessels. An additional incision at 6 'o clock position is rarely needed.c. The main difficulties when performing cervical incisions for head entrapment at breech delivery are achieving adequate analgesia and exposure. There is a significant risk of haemorrhage, the cervical incision may extend upwards within the broad ligament causing broad ligament haematoma.
3
Symphysiotomy
Pinard maneuver
Duhrssen's incisions
Zavanelli maneuver
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Operative Obs
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single
Corneal transparency is maintained by:
The primary mechanism controlling stromal hydration is a function of the corneal endothelium which actively pumps out theelectrolytes and water flows out passively. Endothelium consists of a single layer of flat polygonal (mainly hexagonal) epithelial cells (misnamed as endothelium) which on slit-lamp biomicroscopy appear as a mosaic.
2
Bowman's membrane
Endothelium
Keratocytes
Descemet's membrane
Ophthalmology
Cornea
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single
A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of -
Chronic myelogenous (or myeloid or myelocytic) leukemia (CML), also known as chronic granulocytic leukemia (CGL), is a cancer of the white blood cells. It is a form of leukemia characterized by the increased and unregulated growth of predominantly myeloid cells in the bone marrow and the accumulation of these cells in the blood. CML is a clonal bone marrow stem cell disorder in which a proliferation of mature granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils) and their precursors is found. It is a type of myeloproliferative disease associated with a characteristic chromosomal translocation called the Philadelphia chromosome. CML is now largely treated with targeted drugs called tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) which have led to dramatically improved long-term survival rates since the introduction of the first such agent in 2001. These drugs have revolutionized treatment of this disease and allow most patients to have a good quality of life when compared to the former chemotherapy drugs. In Western countries, CML accounts for 15-25% of all adult leukemias and 14% of leukemias overall (including the pediatric population, where CML is less common
3
Actute myeloid leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Pathology
General pathology
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single
"White centered retinal haemmorrhage" is seen in
(D) All of the above # White centered superficial retinal hemorrhages (Roth's Spots) or Haemorrhagic cotton-wool spot:> First described by Roth's in 1872, thought to be pathognomonic for subacute bacterial endocarditis.> Etiology as per Roth Suggestion: Focal abscess from bacterial emboli lead to erosion of the capillary endothelium and resultant retinal haemorrhage which is then filled with RBC and WBC.> Other possibilities are: ; Coagulated albuminous material; Necrotic nerve structures. ; Cytoid bodies ; Focal nerve fibre layer infarcts ; Antigen-antibody complexes ; Fibrin and platelet deposits, Central clearing of previous hemorrhageROTH'S SPOTS DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSISInfectionsNon-Infections* Bacterial endocarditisLeukemias* Septicemia (bacterial or fungalAnemias* HIV retinitisMultiple myelomas* CMV retinitisDiabetic retinopathy* ToxoplasmosisHypertensive retinopathy* RetinochoroditisCRVO/BRVO* TB retinal vasculitisSarcoidosis Vasculitis* Sypilitic retinitisRadiation retinopathy Shakon Bay syndrome* Viral pneumoniaPurtscher's retinopathy* Candida albicansLupus retinopathy; Retinal phlebitis
4
SABE
Leukaemia
Diabetes mellitus
All of the above
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
42f22d4e-b49e-4e3f-9163-e77c27dc2437
multi
Sodium 2-mercapto ethane sulfonate (mesna) is used as a protective agent in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cancer chemotherapy o Mesna is used to block the cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide and Ifophosphamide. o Note -- Acetylcysteine can also be used for this purpose. Folinic acid AllopurinolLithium carbonate Ondensetron Other drugs used for toxicity amelioration in cancer therapy For preventing methotrexate toxicity To prevent hyperuricemia caused by rapid destruction of cells during cancer chemotherapy It has stimulant effect on bone marrow, so used during myelosuppresive drug therapy. For controlling cytotoxic drug induced vomiting.
2
Radiotherapy
Cancer chemotherapy
Lithotripsy
Hepatic encephalopathy
Pharmacology
null
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single
Tinel's sign is:
Procedure Patient is seated, elbow in flexion. Evaluator grasps wrist and taps the ulnar notch with reflex hammer. Positive Test Athlete complains of tingling sensation along forearm hand and fingers. Indicates ulnar nerve compromise.
3
Loss of sensation
Loss of 2 point discrimination
Percussion produces tingling sensation
Not associated with carpel tunnel syndrome
Medicine
null
7c1941cd-9a3a-471c-b718-3571d119bb12
single
Most common complication of intra capsular fracture neck of female
null
2
Non - union
Malunion
Myositis ossificans
Valkmann's Ischemic contracture
Orthopaedics
null
b8878531-8828-4cb9-9402-ef37dcdc5b1f
single
All of the following statements about parvovirus B - 9 are true except:
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Crosses placenta in only < 10% of cases (Ref: Jawetz, 24th/e, p. 414, 417)* Maternal infection with B19 virus may pose a serious risk to the fetus, resulting in hydrops fetalis and fetal death due to severe anemia. Fetal loss occurs in fewer than 10% of primary maternal infections and death occurs most commonly before the 20th week of pregnancy. Although there is frequent intrauterine transmission of human parvovirus (with estimates of vertical transmission rates of 30% or higher).
2
DNA virus
Crosses placenta in only < 10% of cases
Can cause severe anemia
Can cause aplastic crisis
Microbiology
Virology
ce09bd6b-2c9d-43eb-8c84-ad398fbf7ce0
multi
Neovascular glaucoma is caused by:
Ans. D: All of the above Although NVG primarily effects the front pa of the eye (anterior chamber), its cause usually is associated with a lack of oxygen to the retina in the posterior region (vitreous chamber). The technical term for this lack of oxygen is retinal hypoxia. Conditions leading to retinal hypoxia include diabetic retinopathy and central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). These two diseases account for about two-thirds of all NVG cases. The predisposing condition for diabetic retinopathy obviously is diabetes. With respect to CRVO, predisposing conditions include elevated intraocular pressure and systemic hypeension (high blood pressure). The remaining one-third of NVG cases has less-common causes. Among these are: Central retinal aery occlusion (CRAO) Carotid aery obstructive disease Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment (a tear in the retina with fluid accumulating underneath that can fuher separate the pigment layer from other layers). Choroidal melanoma beneath a retinal detachment. Sickle-cell retinopathy Carotid-cavernous fistula A causative condition for NVG that is not associated with retinal hypoxia, is chronic anterior uveitis (irritation of the middle layer of the eye).
4
CRVO
CRAO
Diabetes mellitus
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
9967743b-ac85-4853-b779-5f387ec6f692
multi
Quarantine is required for
null
3
Yellow fever
Cholera
All
Plague
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e98dbf77-b1c9-4edd-93e1-de30621077af
multi
The repolarization phase of an action potential is due to
There is a decrease in sodium permeability (inactivation of the sodium channels) and a delayed increased in potassium permeability during the repolarization phase of the action potential. The pump plays no direct role in the action potential.
4
Increasing sodium permability and increasing potassium permeability
Increasing sodium permeability and decreasing potassium permeability
Decreasing sodium permeability and an immediate increasing potassium permeability
Decreasing sodium permeability and a delayed increase potassium permeability
Physiology
General physiology
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single
Duret hemorrhages are found in: PGI 08,10,11; Kerala 11
Ans. Brain
1
Brain
Hea
Kidney
Liver
Forensic Medicine
null
d9599b22-617c-409b-9647-a7aaaccbef4a
single
Investigstions in a clinically suspected case of
standard dose of 5 tuberculin units (TU - 0.1 ml), according to the CDC, or 2 TU of Statens Serum Institute (SSI) tuberculin 23 in 0.1 ml solution, according to the NHS, is injected intradermally (between the layers of dermis) and read 48 to 72 hours later. This intradermal injection is termed the Mantoux technique. A person who has been exposed to the bacteria is expected to mount an immune response in the skin containing the bacterial proteins. The reaction is read by measuring the diameter of induration (palpable raised, hardened area) across the forearm (perpendicular to the long axis) in millimeters. If there is no induration, the result should be recorded as "0 mm". Erythema (redness) should not be measured. A positive result indicates TB exposure. 5 mm or more is positive in An HIV-positive person Persons with recent contacts with a TB patient Persons with nodular or fibrotic changes on chest X-ray consistent with old healed TB Patients with organ transplants, and other immunosuppressed patients 10 mm or more is positive in Recent arrivals (less than five years) from high-prevalence countries Injection drug users Residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings (e.g., prisons, nursing homes, hospitals, homeless shelters, etc.) Mycobacteriology lab personnel Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk (e.g., diabetes, prolonged coicosteroid therapy, leukemia, end-stage renal disease, chronic malabsorption syndromes, low body weight, etc.) Children less than four years of age, or children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories 15 mm or more is positive in Persons with no known risk factors for TB A tuberculin test conversion is defined as an increase of 10 mm or more within a two-years period, regardless of age. Alternative criteria include increases of 6, 12, 15 or 18 mm Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1011
1
Mantoux test (in children)
Sputum AFB
QuantiFERON TB Gold
Bactec
Medicine
Infection
caee5877-d4c8-4983-b6d1-ff5e486c1da5
multi
Renal TB mode of infection
Answer- C. HematogenousGenitourinary tuberculosis is always secondary to pulmonary infection, though in many cases, the primary focus has healed or is quiescent.Infection occurs the hematogenous route
3
Direct from bowel
Ascending
Hematogenous
Lymphatic
Surgery
null
daa322e4-626e-41c5-9cd6-efded024984a
single
Gut tube develops from which germ layer?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Endoderm * The gut is endodermal in origin and is derived from yolk sac.
1
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm
Allantois
Anatomy
Embryology
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multi
Adverse effects of insulin include all of the following except:
Hypoglycemia is the most frequent and potentially the most serious relationship of insulin therapy. Some patients develop sho lived dependent edema. Lipodystrophy occur at the site of injection after a long time. weight gain can occur due to insulin not weight loss (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 262)
2
Edema
weight loss
Lipodystrophy
hypoglycemia
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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multi
A 29 year old man with ruptured appendix is sent to the emergency depament for surgery. To cut off the blood supply to the appendix (if collateral circulation is discounted), a surgeon should ligate which of the following aeries?
* Appendix is supplied by appendicular aery which is branch of ileocolic aery * Middle colic and right colic supply ascending colon and transverse colon 2/3 * Left colic supplies transverse colon 1/3 and descending colon and sigmoid colon.
3
Middle colic aery
Right colic aery
Ileocolic aery
Left colic aery
Anatomy
Stomach and aerial supply of abdomen
fbccc85b-bd2b-4677-ba8d-5166f0731df6
single
A patient presents with diplopia. O/E adduction deficit is seen in one eye and abducting saccades in the other eye. Convergence is preserved. What is the likely diagnosis?
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO): defect of horizontal gaze, caused due to lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF). MLF connects 6th nerve nucleus to 3rd nerve nucleus of the opposite side. Thus, in INO, during lateral gaze these features are seen:* The adducting eye fails to move because 3rd nerve nucleus does not receive any input* The abducting eye moves laterally but suffers from abducting saccades* Convergence is normal as the pathway for convergence is completely different. The pathway for horizontal gaze may be summarized as: PPRF | 6th nerve nucleus of same side |MLF 3rd nerve nucleus of opposite side. Duane retraction syndrome (DRS): restrictive type of strabismus, co-contraction of medial and lateral rectus muscles due to anomalous innervation of one of extra ocular muscle antagonists during embryo-genesis
2
Paial third nerve palsy
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
Duane's retraction syndrome
Absence of medial rectus muscle
Ophthalmology
Neuro Ophthalmology
eb03093e-bb55-4a21-85d7-f209bec04ebe
single
The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
C i.e. Mammilary body
3
Frontal lobe
Corpus striatum
Mammilary Body
Cingulate gyrus
Psychiatry
null
a54269c6-2645-4ef6-8ec1-58ff30939641
single
Prehn sign is positive in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute epidydimoorchitis Prehn's sign on elevation of testis the:* pain is not relieved in torsion (test is negative)* pain relieved in epidydimoorchitis (test is positive)
1
Acute epidydimoorchitis
Chronic orchitis
Testicular torsion
None
Surgery
Testis & Scrotum
438e12b8-3475-42c0-a88e-0e8d689c298b
multi
If carbamazepine is added to valproate, which side effect of valproate can increase?
Valproate is metabolized by cytochrome P450 and produce a metabolite which is hepatotoxic Carbamazepine is enzyme inducer which cause the induction of its metabolism and produce more metabolite, thus causing hepatotoxicity
2
Thrombocytopenia
Hepatotoxicity
Hyperammonemia
Pancreatitis
Pharmacology
Epilepsy
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single
A 20 yrs aged patient, presents in coma with pin point pupils and fasciculations but no fever. Most probable diagnosis is -
null
4
Head injury
Dhatura
Pontine haemorrhage
Organophosphorous poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
f4c4d085-d8da-4306-a21d-9c2e19cab1f9
single
Among the following, which one is not a major contributor to acid rains –
null
2
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Nitric oxide
Sulphur dioxide
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e531c8c4-7c57-4926-aa0d-dc593b9fb968
single
Anaesthetic agent used in ECT is:
Methohexital is most commonly used as an anesthetic agent because of its shoer duration of action and lower association with postictal arrhythmias.
4
Ketamine
Thiopentone
Propofol
Methohexital
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
d70a2874-555d-43df-9b3c-a4a9a9fcc89d
single
Pituitary tumor most responsive to medical therapy is-
For prolactinoma dopamine agonist are the treatment of choice Ref - ( Harrison 17 pg 2204)
3
Growth hormone secreting tumor
ACTH secreting tumor
Prolactinoma
Thyrotropin secreting tumors
Medicine
Endocrinology
f617186c-3ebd-46e7-b892-51fc1f93ebd9
single
Which end product of the citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in the brain
First read the reaction by which ammonia is detoxified in the brain.
2
Oxaloacetate
α-ketoglutarate
Succinate
Citrate
Biochemistry
null
68d4bf87-68f7-4908-bb40-6944643337b3
single
All the following are true regarding Crohn's disease except?
In Crohn's disease, the inflammation can be in multiple patches or one large patch,and may involve any area through out the entire digestive tract, often affecting the last pa of the small intestine (terminal ileum).
3
Fistula formation is seen
Recurrence common after surgery
Inflammation limited to mucosa
Skip lesions
Medicine
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
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multi
Leptospirosis is transmitted by -
Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Rat Transmission of leptospireso Leptospirosis has been associated writh three lR's.1. Rats-# Rodents, especially rats, are the most important reservoir.2. Rice fields-# Farm workers represent the group at highest risk - Green wrood 1 b'Ve 356 # Certain occupational groups such as agricultural workers in rice or cane fields, miners and sewer cleaners are more often exposed to infection. - Ananthanarayan 7th/e 3923. Rain-Heavy rains are likely to have increased level of leptospiral contamination in the water, thus increase the chances of transmission as human are infected by contaminated water.o Leptospirosis is the most widespread zoonoses.o Transmission of leptospires may follow' direct contact with urine, blood or tissue from an infected animal.o When people come into contact with water which is contaminated by infected urine of animal carriers, the leptospires enter the body through abraded skin or intact mucous membranes, especially the conjuctiva and the lining of the oro and nasopharynx.o Drinking of contaminated water may introduce leptospires through the mouth, throat, or esophagus.o High risk groups are -# Farmworker# Workers in fishing industries# Veterinarians# Sewage worker# Slaughterhouse employees# Coal - miner
1
Rat
Cat
Dog
Fish
Microbiology
Spirochetes
b82dcf81-c84b-4f76-b4bb-812f130a70e5
single
True about non-competitive inhibition is
Km V max Competitive | - Non-Competitive - | UN Competitive | |
1
Km remains same, Vmax decreases
Km increases, Vmax remains same
Km decreases, Vmax increases
Km increases, Vmax increases
Pharmacology
NEET Jan 2020
65af4105-87fc-4b6d-ab3c-736f30fccca5
multi
The police brought a person from railway platform. He was talking irrelevant, had dry mouth with hot dry skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. Most probable diagnosis is: WB 07
Ans. Dhatura poisoning
2
Alcoholic intoxication
Dhatura poisoning
OPC poisoning
Aconite poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
2aa0ed8b-1c8a-47e9-b93a-3ba3c8c91f69
single
Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with -a) Subaortic stenosis b) Takayasu's arteritisc) William syndromed) Coarctation of syndromee) Rubella
null
1
ce
b
ac
ae
Medicine
null
f3d9885a-35ed-44b5-beb7-c54a1af23c02
single
The normal cellular counterpas of oncogenes are impoant for the following functions, except ?
o Normal cellular counterpa of oncogene is protooncogene.o The functions of protooncogene is to code forGrowth factorsGrowth factor receptorsProteins involved in signal transductionNeuclear regulatory proteins (transcription factors)Cyclins/CDKso All these lead to cell proliferation and progression of cell cycle.o When any of these protooncogenes becomes oncogene by mutation / overexpression, there is uncontrolled proliferation of cell and development of cancer.This proliferation is autonomous, i.e. without physiological stimulus.
3
Promotion of cell cycle progression
Inhibition of apoptosis
Promotion of DNA repair
Promotion of nuclear transcription
Biochemistry
null
5fc7cb81-8553-401b-bbf2-c57b2686c0c9
multi
An infant, seen in the Emergency room, presents with the fever and persistent cough. Physical examination and a chest X-ray suggest pneumonia. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this infection?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the most impoant cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants. The infection is localized to the respiratory tract. The virus can be detected rapidly by immunofluorescence on smears of respiratory epithelium. In older children, the infection resembles the common cold. Aerosolized ribavirin is recommended for severely ill hospitalized infants. Rotavirus causes diarrhea. Coxsackievirus causes hand, foot, and, mouth disease.
4
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Coxsackievirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Microbiology
Virology (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
c313913d-71e5-4886-872b-a6bdaf1c23a9
single
Obscuration of left hea border is suggestive of
Silhouette sign : Obscuration of a mediastinal border occurs by a pathology which is in close anatomical contact with it Obscuration of Rt Hea Border Rt Middle Lobe Pathology Obscuration of Left Hea Border Lingular Pathology Obscuration Of Aoic Knuckle Left Apicoposterior pathology Obscuration of Hemidiaphgrams Lower lobe pathologies
4
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Right upper lobe collapse
Lingular pathology
Radiology
Respiratory Radiology
4d7d223c-aa01-4d92-a809-081396621ac5
single
What is the most common position of appendix?
Retrocecal is the most common position of the appendix. Positions of appendix: Retrocecal: 74% Subcecal: 1.5% Pelvic: 21% ref : BD chaurasia 21st ed. Post-ileal: 0.5% Pre-ileal/retro-ileal: 1%
3
Pelvic
Paracolic
Retrocaecal
Retroperitoneal
Anatomy
All India exam
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single
Obstruction in pulmonary stenosis may occur at the following sites ___________
In PS obstruction can be supravalvular,valvular, subvalvular. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics eighth edition, p.no:433
4
Supravalvular
Valvular
Subvalvular
All of the above
Pediatrics
C.V.S
1e65ccaf-6b23-46ab-a7da-e4390bb60288
multi
True about shunt vessels:
Play a role in thermoregulation Cutaneous shunt vessels have a role in thermoregulation The cutaneous microcirculation can be divided into thermoregulatory shunt vessels and nutritive skin capillaries. These shunt vessels have impoant role in thermoregulation. Nutritive function is performed by skin capillaries and not by shunt vessels. Cutaneous shunt vessels are under the control of Autonomic nervous system Like all other vessels, cutaneous shunt vessels also receive a sympathetic innervations. Cutaneous shunt vessels are not evenly distributed throughout the skin Rich A-V anastomoses are .found in. fingers, toes, ear lobules and nose.
3
>Evenly distributed throughout the skin
>Role in nutrition
>Play a role in thermoregulation
>No autonomic nervous regulation
Physiology
null
43ec7eff-e676-4d99-a153-c7a0524aeb33
multi
Which is the earliest symptom of benign hypertrophy of prostate -
null
1
Frequency
Haematuria
Incontinence
Strangury
Surgery
null
84a46a51-a4e7-4e14-8f6d-9fc889e4963c
single
Radiation dose in mammography
Mammography Soft tissue radiographs are taken by placing the breast in direct contact with ultrasensitive film and exposing it to low-voltage, high-amperage x-rays. The dose of radiation is approximately 0.1 cGy and, therefore, mammography is a very safe investigation. The sensitivity of this investigation increases with age as the breast becomes less dense. In total, 5% of breast cancers are missed by population-based mammographic screening programmes; even in retrospect, such carcinomas are not apparent. Thus, a normal mammogram does not exclude the presence of carcinoma. Digital mammography is being introduced, which allows manipulation of the images and computer-aided diagnosis. Tomo-mammography is also being assessed as a more sensitive diagnostic modality. Ref:Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :861
3
0.1 Gray/study
0.01cGray/study
0.1 cGray/study
0.01 Gray/study
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
b846a213-1838-4447-bd37-66f1d024bee7
single
Most common cause of gas gangrene ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CI welchii Most common cause of gas gangrene is Cl perfringens (Cl welchii) causing 80% of cases of gas gangrene. Other causes are Cl septicum, Cl novyi and Cl histolyticum.
1
Cl welchii
Cl septicum
Cl novyi
Cl histolyticum
Microbiology
null
d108ed5b-e8ec-4d27-89cd-3778656b83b5
single
A case of murder with gunshot is repoed. A metal bullet is recovered from the body. Primary and Secondary markings on a metal bullet can be used for
A i.e. Identification of weapon - Primary markings (class characteristics) and secondary markings (metallic fouling, individual or accidental characteristics) on a bullet can be used for identification of weaponQ. - Bullet is picked up with handsQ. Gunshot residue on hands can be detected by Dermal nitrate testQ.
1
Identification of weapon
To know the range of firing
Severity of tissue damage
To known tome of crime
Forensic Medicine
null
15c9519c-fe4b-4c57-9175-42d92eee14a8
single
A patient with leprosy had slightly erythematous, anesthetic plaques on the trunk and upper limbs. He was treated with paucibacillary multidrug therapy (PB-MDT) for 6 months. At the end of 6 months, he had persistent erythema and induration in the plaque. The next step of action recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) in such a patient is
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Stop antileprosy treatment o WHO recommends that "In paucibacillary leprosy, the multidrug therapy is stopped after 6 months of treatment regardless of the presence of clinically active disease". o According to Indian leprologists "The t/t with both Rifampicin and dapsone must be continued till all signs of activity have been subsided". o It is believed that these patients are viually always cleared of ble bacteria in 6 months with the WHO-MDT regime. o Therefore the attainment of clinical inactivity should not be the condition guiding the continuation of multidrug therapy in paucibacillary leprosy. o The lesions may be present but they will be cleared of all the organisms. o The clinical activity dos not correlate with bacterial multiplication. o Incidence of relapse in paucibacillary patients is very low and follow up studies in paucibacillary patients demonstrates that complete clearing of lesions takes 1-2 years after t/t discontinuation.
1
Stop antileprosy treatment
Continue PB-MDT till erythema subsides
Biopsy the lesion to document acitivity
Continue dapsoen alone for another 6 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
90beac9d-85bc-41b8-9fd9-2c617b9eac31
multi
Malpighian layer is referred to
null
1
Stratum Spinosum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum corneum
Combination of all the above 3 layers
Anatomy
null
8493a148-fa84-41a8-8535-aac54e183962
multi
The most common complication of hypermature sclerotic cataract is:
A i.e. Dislocation of lens
1
Dislocation of the lens
Phakomorphic glaucoma
Uveitis
Neovascularization of retina
Ophthalmology
null
73fa70c9-952a-4586-af02-62828b09514b
single
Use of floss in healthy mouth is recommended:
null
2
Not recommended
Once daily
Each time after meals
Twice daily
Dental
null
dd2592f8-c912-4153-9b94-a7c2bb5ed739
single
Opsoclonus is associated with -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neuroblastoma o Opsolonus is seen primarily in Neuroblastoma.o Neuroblastoma is embryonal cancer of peripheral sympathetic nervous system,o Thirst most common childhood cancer (lst - leukemia, 2nd - Brain tumor),o MC diagnosed neoplasm in infancy.o Arises in abdomen either in adrenal gland or retroperitoneal sympathetic ganglion,o Superior cervical ganglion involvement produce Horner syndrome,o Can present as Paraneoplastic as ataxia or opsomvoclonus.o Optoclonus also seen sometimes in encephalitis.
1
Neuroblastoma
Nephroblastoma
Retinoblastoma
Hypernephroma
Pediatrics
Blood
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single