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Which of the following is FALSE regarding Neurofibromatosis inheritance:
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS (NF) NF - 1/Von Recklinghausen's Disease NF-2/Bilateral acoustic neurofibromatosis Most common single gene disorder affecting human nervous system. Peripheral neurofibromatosis, is due to defect in chromosome 17. AD inheritance 100% penetrance Due to defect in long arm of chromosome 22. AD inheritance Musculoskeletal deformities absent 8th nerve vestibular schwannomas Meningioma occur in 50% cases. Note: Usually Skeletal disorders are Autosomal Dominant and Inborn errors of metabolism are autosomal recessive
3
Von Recklinghausen's Disease is due to defect in chromosome 17
Autosomal dominant type of inheritance
NF-2 - Musculoskeletal deformities is characterstic
NF-1 - Most common single gene disorder affecting human nervous system.
Medicine
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis and other motor neuron diseases
6f3b56c0-e86b-4fd7-8719-723cdcb246be
multi
IPC section for punishment for purjury is
Punishment for perjury is dealt under IPC 193 IPC 191-deals with perjury IPC 192-fabricating false evidence IPC 197-issuing or signaling false evidence Refer :textbook of Forensic Medicine and toxicology PG no 15,2nd edition
3
191
192
193
197
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
ce39025b-114b-40b0-bb2e-743810fb1d7a
single
Crown completion of Mandibular 2nd molar occur
null
4
At birth
1 ½ year
12 year
7-8 year
Dental
null
a73fe633-208d-4729-9938-d54c557621d6
single
Total lung capacity depends on
The extent to which the lungs will expand for each unit increase in transpulmonary pressure (if enough time is allowed to reach equilibrium) is called the lung compliance.The total compliance of both lungs together in the normal adult human averages about 200 milliliters of air per centimeter of water transpulmonary pressure. That is, every time the transpulmonary pressure increases 1 centimeter of water, the lung volume, after 10 to 20 seconds, will expand 200 milliliters.The total lung capacity is the maximum volume to which the lungs can be expanded with the greatest possible effo (about 5800 milliliters); It is equal tothe vital capacity plus the residual volume.Ref: Guyton; 13th edition; Chapter 38 Pulmonary Ventilation
3
Size of airway
Closing tidal volume
Lung compliance
Residual volume
Physiology
General physiology
4fe01b45-eb63-4a2d-b646-16bd09eff838
single
Organophosphates bind to
(Ref: KDT 6/e p99-100) The active region of Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) has two sites i.e. an anionic site and an esteratic site. Anticholinesterase poisoning like Organophosphate compounds binds to esteratic site of AChE.
2
Anionic site of AChEs
Esteratic site of AChEs
Ach
None
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
7f3f4e5d-162a-4c26-b314-f6944ed0f717
multi
Necrotizing fascitis is caused by -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta hemolytic streptococci The spectrum of infections of the deep soft tissues ranges from localized bacterial, viral and parasitic lesions to rapidly spreading, tissue destructive infections such as necrotizing fascitis and myonecrosis. A) Pyomyositis :- It is common in tropics, therefore also called tropical pyomyositis. It is a localized infection of skeletal muscles. It is caused most commonly by staphylococcus aureus. B) Necrotizing fascitis Necrotizing fascitis is an infection of the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, easily spreading across the fascial plane within the subcutaneous tissues. There are two types of necrotizing fascitis :? i) Type 1:- It is a polymicrobial infection, i.e. mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection. It occurs most commonly after surgical procedures in diabetic patients or in those who have peripheral vascular disease. ii) Type 2 :- It is caused most commonly by streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta hemolytic streptococci). C) Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas gangrene) :- It is characterized by rapid and extensive necrosis of muscle accompanied by gas formation and systemic toxicity. It is caused by C. perfringens (most common), C. novyi, C. septicum and C. histolyticum. It is also called type III necrotizing fascitis.
2
Staphylococcus aureus
Beta hemolytic streptococci
Clostridium perfringens
Pneumococcus
Microbiology
null
ae42f671-960a-431d-8374-57f92c0b4d0f
single
Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in distinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a fetus?
In patients with elevated amniotic fluid AFP to differentiate between NTD and abdominal wall defect, acetylcholinesterase and pseudocholinesterase are measured:
4
Carcinoembryogenic antigen
Sphingomyelin
Alpha-feto protein
Pseudocholinesterase
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
ac0ccd42-f9ef-44ca-9357-888c34f6fdcf
multi
Intestine get strengulated most commonly in which space
When strangulation occurs, the bility of the bowel is threatened secondary to a compromised blood supply. Causes of strangulation: External # Hernial orifices # Adhesions/bands Interrupted blood flow # Volvulus # Intussusception Increased intraluminal pressure # Closed-loop obstruction Primary # Mesenteric infarction Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1189
1
Omental bursa
Paraduodenal space
Rectouterine space
Subphrenic
Surgery
G.I.T
31674e3f-cba1-4420-9dcb-ffb0303c6c60
single
Internal resorption may follow all except
null
3
trauma
root fracture
successful root canal filling
Enamel fracture
Dental
null
bc3d745e-2e83-40b1-8136-4fdca2f5f6d8
multi
Which one of the following drug is a Corticosteroid Synthesis Inhibitor?
(A) Metyrapone [?]METYRAPONE is an inhibitor of endogenous adrenal corticosteroid synthesis used in the treatment of hypercortocolism.oMechanism of action: Selectively inhibits11-b-hydroxylase, which converts 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol in the terminal reaction of the glucocorticoid biosynthetic pathway.oBecause of this inhibition, the biosynthesis of cortisol is markedly Impaired, and the levels of steroid precursors (e.g., 11- deoxycortisol) are markedly increased which can be used as a diagnostic test to assess hypothalamic-pituitary ACTH function.oMetyrapone is used: To treat the hypercorticism resulting from either adrenal neoplasms or tumors producing ACTH ectopically. As adjunctive therapy in patients who have received pituitary irradiation or in combination with other agents that inhibit steroidogenesis.oChronic administration of metyrapone can cause hirsutism (due to increased synthesis of adrenal androgens upstream from the enzymatic block) and hypertension, which results from elevated levels of 11-deoxycortisol.oOther side effects include nausea, headache, sedation, and rash.[?]Glucocorticoids antagonistsoMitotane: Structure similar to DDT, used in inoperable adrenal cancer.oMetyrapone: Inhibit 11 b-hydroxylaseoAminoglutethamide: Inhibit conversion of cholesterol to pregnolone, medical adrenelectomyoTrilostane: Inhibit conversion, of pregnolone to progesterone; used in Cushing's syndromeoKetoconazole: Anti-fungal, inhibit CYP450 enzymes, inhibit steroid synthesis in adrenal cortex and testis; used in Cushing's syndrome and carcinoma prostate.oMifepristone: Glucocorticoid receptor antagonists; anti-progesterone, used in Cushing's syndrome
1
Metyrapone
Finasteride
Flutamide
Mifepristone
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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single
The purpose of periodontal dressing is
null
4
Prevent overgrowth of granulation tissue
Protect the wound from local environmental changes
Make the patient comfortable after periodontal surgery
All of the above
Dental
null
5dd48dff-5f18-42c4-89d1-32b186ee0a5c
multi
Which of the proteins connect Z lines to M lines?
It is the largest protein. It binds Z lines to M lines It prevents overstretching of sarcomere
4
Nebulin
Actin
Myosin
Titin
Physiology
null
42dc22a0-7945-4d2d-8bb9-a6d4694ad068
single
Which of the following is not transmitted from father to male child: March 2011
Ans. B: X-linked recessiveAn male affected with X-linked recessive disorder does not transmit the disorder to his son, hut all daughters are carriersX-linked recessive inheritanceIt is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be expressed- In males (who are necessarily hemizygous for the gene mutation because they have only one X chromosome) and- In females who are homozygous for the gene mutation (i.e., they have a copy of the gene mutation on each of thee' two X chromosomes).X-linkec inheritance means that the gene causing the trait or the disorder is located on the X chromosome.Females have two X chromosomes, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.Carrier females who have only one copy of the mutation do not usually express the phenotypeGenerally "men are affected and women are carriers" for two reasons.The first is the simple statistical fact that if the X-chromosomes is a population that carry a paicular X-linked mutation at a frequency of 'f' (for example, 1%) then that will be the frequency that men are likely to express the mutation (since they have only one X), while women will express it at a frequency of f2 (for example 1% *1% = 0.01%) since they have two X's and hence two chances to get the normal allele.Thus, X-linked mutations tend to be rare in women.Father can pass only Y-chromosome to his son, which is never involved in X-linked recessive conditions, as the gene, is located on the X-chromosome. Hence disease will not pass from father to son.Most common X-linked recessive disordersColor blindness; a classic example of an X-linked trait because it is relatively common.- 7% to 10% of men are red-green colorblindIts commonness may be attributable to its not being a serious disability in most cases and an actual advantage in some situations (for example, not being distracted by some of the color in color based camouflage).It is also known as daltonism.Hemophilia ADuchenne muscular dystrophy; muscular dystrophy associated with mutations in the dystrophin gene, characterized by rapid progression of muscle degeneration, eventually leading to loss in ambulation, respiratory failure and death.Becker's muscular dystrophy; milder form of Duchenne, causes slowly progressive muscle weakness of the legs and pelvis.Hemophilia B; disorder caused by a mutation of the Factor IX gene, leading to a deficiency of Factor IX. It is rarer than haemophilia A. It's also called Christmas diseaseX-linked ichthyosis; ichthyosis caused by the hereditary deficiency of the steroid sulfatase (STS) enzyme that affects 1 in 2000 to 1 in 6000 males.X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA); XLA patients do not generate mature B cells. B cells are pa of the immune system and normally manufacture antibodies (Immunoglobulins) which defends the body from infections (the humoral response).Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency; may exhibit nonimmune hemolytic anemia in response to a number of causes, most commonly infection or exposure to ceain medications or chemicals.
2
Autosomal recessive
X-linked recessive
Autosomal dominant
All of the above
Pathology
null
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multi
Percentage of glutaraldehyde used -
2% glutaraldehyde is standard use in sterilization method Table 3.2 commonly used concentaion of disinfectant REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no:37
2
1%
2%
3%
4%
Microbiology
general microbiology
41389150-f5e1-4bd0-b12d-991063cd7ddb
single
Which of the following lesion shows characteristic anagen, catagen and telogen phases?
Kerato acanthoma is a self healing carcinoma. It shows growth phase, stationary phase, regression phase.
3
Verucca vulgaris
Squamous papilloma
Keratoacanthoma
All of the above
Pathology
null
bfea7128-3f62-44b3-a3ca-c60eab1ab298
multi
The first change in precancerous lesion on colposcopy is
The first change in precancerous lesion is punctuation
2
Mosaics
Puntation
Acetowhite lesions
Cork-screw vessels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
092dc8d0-e4b5-4237-9afc-09c540fc1f10
single
All are true predisposing factors for gallstone formation, except:
All others are true. Estrogens stimulate hepatic lipoprotein receptors, increase uptake of dietary cholesterol, and increase biliary cholesterol secretion, and leads to gallstone formation. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2618, Table 311-1
2
Weight loss leads to mobilization of tissue cholesterol leads to increased biliary cholesterol secretion while enterohepatic circulation of bile acids is decreased
Estrogens inhibits hepatic lipoprotein receptors, decrease uptake of dietary cholesterol, and increase biliary cholesterol absorption
Gallbladder hypomotility leading to stasis and formation of sludge
Clofibrate therapy: Increased biliary secretion of cholesterol
Medicine
null
efc6b98d-6dce-434b-9db1-70b1382a3897
multi
Which of the following is a cause of acute laryngotracheal bronchitis?
ANSWER: (B) Parainfluenza virusREF: Anantnarayan 8th ed p. 515* M ost s erious dis ease caused by parammyxovirus is: croup or laryngotracheobronchitis* Most common: parainfluenza type 1* Most common symptom: common cold* Most common symptom: common coldA specific diagnosis is established by detection of virus in respiratory tract secretions, throat swabs, or nasopharyngeal washings. Viral growth in tissue culture is detected either by hemagglutination or by a cytopathic effect. Rapid viral diagnosis may be made by identification of parainfluenza antigens in exfoliated cells from the respiratory tract with immunofluorescence or ELISAMild cases of croup should be treated with bed rest and moist air generated by vaporizers. More severe cases require hospitalization and close observation for the development of respiratory distress. If acute respiratory distress develops, humidified oxygen and intermittent racemic epinephrine are usually administered. Aerosolized or systemically administered glucocorticoids are beneficial; the latter have a more profound effect. No specific antiviral therapy is available
2
H influenzae
Parainfluenza virus
Influenza virus
Coxsakie virus
Microbiology
Myxo Viruses
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single
Which medication cannot be given in diarrhea in pregnancy -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stimulant purgatives Stimulant purgatives* They are powerful purgatives: often produce griping. They irritate intestinal mucosa and thus were thought to primarily stimulate motor activity.* Though some of them do directly increase motility by acting on myenteric plexuses, the more important mechanism of action is accumulation of water and electrolytes in the lumen by altering absorptive and secretory activity of the mucosal cell.* They inhibit Na+ K+ ATPase at the basolateral membrane of villous cells--transport of Na+ and accompanying water into the interstitium is reduced.* Secretion is enhanced by activation of cAMP in crypt cells as well as by increased PG synthesis.* The laxative action of bisacodyl and cascara is shown to be partly dependent upon increased NO synthesis/action in the colon.* Larger doses of stimulant purgatives can cause excess purgation resulting in fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Hypokalaemia can occur on regular intake.* Routine and long-term use must be discouraged, because it can produce colonic atony.* They can reflexly stimulate gravid uterus, therefore are contraindicated during pregnancy.* Subacute or chronic intestinal obstruction is another contraindication.Choice of drugs for common problems during pregnancy Drug class (condition)Safety uncertain/unsafeSafer alternative1.Antiemetics (morning sickness, other types of vomiting)Domperidone (X) ondansetronPromethazine, Doxylamine Dicyciomine, Prochloperazine Meloclopramide2.Drugs for peptic ulcer and GERDCimetidine, lansoprazoleCisapride (X), mosaprideRanitidine, farmotidine omeprazoie pantoprazole3.Laxatives (constipation)Senna, bisacodyl, docusates saline purgativesDietary fibre, Ispaghula lactulose4.Laxatives (constipation)Diphenoxylate atropine lapetamideOral rehydration salts5.Analgesics (headache, bodyache, joint pain, visceral pain)Aspirin, Metamizol, NSAIDsCOX-2 inhibitors, codeine dextropropoxyphene, morphine (X) pethidine, TramadolParacetamol lbuproten (low dose)6.Cold-cough remediesCodeine, dextromethorphan bromhexine, expectorantsXylometazolineOxymetazolineBudesonide}Nasal drops7.AntiallergicsCetirizine, loratadine Fexpfenadine, astemizole (X)Chlorpheniraminepromethazine
2
Oral rehydration therapy
Stimulant purgative
Loperamide
Diphenoxylate-atropine
Pharmacology
G.I.T
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single
Which is not an 'Assisted Reproductive Technique' :-
Assisted Reproductive Technology (A) comprises of a group of procedures done for treatment of infeility that have in common the handling of male and female gametes outside the body. All these procedures involve surgical removal of eggs known as egg retrieval. Assisted Reproductive Techniques A. GIFT - Gametes Intra Fallopian Transfer. This involves egg retrieval and laparoscopic transfer of ova and sperms into each fallopian tube B. ZIFT - Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT). This involves transfer of day 1 feilised eggs (zygotes) into the fallopian tube C. IVF - In Vitro Feilisation. This involves egg retrieval, in vitro feilisation of oocyte and sperm followed by transfer of selected feilised oocytes transcervically into uterine cavity. D. ICSI --> Involves direct injection of sperm into mature egg followed by intra uterine transfer of feilised egg NOTE: Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) does not involve oocyte retrieval, only intrauterine insemination of washed semen is done and is hence not an assisted reproductive technique.
4
GIFT
ZIFT
IVF
Intra-Uterine Insemination
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Infeility (Eggs'plantation!)
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single
True about HIV epidemiology -a) Children rarely affectedb) < 10% of HIV infected person progress to AIDSc) Southern africa have 72% of total global burdend) Seminal secretion is more infectious than vaginal secretione) HIV cases can infect in the window period
null
3
bce
bde
acde
abde
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
afdb6d7f-be7c-4847-936e-e6026035ddc2
multi
A 37-year-old HIV-positive man has had a relapsing and remitting course of motor and sensory problems for the past year, including difficulty with ambulation as well as symmetric numbness and tingling in all extremities. Nerve conduction studies show findings consistent with demyelination and remyelination. He is treated with plasmapheresis. Which of the following disorders is most likely to cause this man's neurologic disease?
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) can be seen in patients with immunologic diseases. Treatment may aid recovery, but a chronic course may ensue. Bacterial infections produce signs of acute inflammation with redness and swelling and tend not to involve nerves specifically. Some paraneoplastic syndromes may occur with carcinomas, such as Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, with weakness. Carcinomas are less likely at this age and are not frequent complications of HIV infection. Hyperglycemia is characteristic of diabetes mellitus, and diabetic neuropathy is likely to be progressive and unremitting. Traumatic injury is unlikely to produce such widespread findings and unlikely to be followed by a variable course.
4
Bacterial infection
Carcinoma
Hyperglycemia
Immune dysregulation
Pathology
Peripheral Nerve & Skeletal Muscles
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multi
A young runner with history of seasonal running nose, complains of sudden onset dyspnea early morning that improved after 2-3 hours. He has history of similar episodes in the past.on examination, patient is tachypneic, diffuse polyphonic expiatory wheeze heard on auscultation of chest, His x-ray is normal. All except one is true regarding the clinical scenario.
Clinical features are suggestive of Bronchial Asthma. There is no necrosis of airway in Bronchial Asthma.
3
Diffusion Lung capacity for carbon monoxide is Normal
FEV1% is decreased
Necrosis of airways
Microvascular leakage resulting in airway edema.and plasma exudation into airway lumen
Medicine
null
3cca99ae-641e-428a-bd44-3ed7394780a9
multi
Which of the following are Nada&;s major criteria for clinical diagnosis of congenital hea disease?
Nadas&; Criteria The assessment for presence of hea disease can be done using the Nadas&; criteria. Presence of one major or two minor criteria is essential for indicating the presence of hea disease. Nadas&; criteria for clinical diagnosis of congenital hea disease Major Minor Systolic murmur grade III or more Systolic murmur grade I or II Diastolic murmur Abnormal second sound Cyanosis Abnormal electrocardiogram Congestive cardiac failure Abnormal X-ray Abnormal blood pressure Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 406
2
Systolic murmur grade I or II
Diastolic murmur
Abnormal blood pressure
Abnormal electrocardiogram
Pediatrics
C.V.S
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single
Tubular maximum for glucose is:
Glucose  is  typical  of  substances  removed from the urine by secondary active transport. It is filtered at a rate of approximately 100 mg/min (80 mg/dL of plasma × 125 mL/min). Essentially all of the glucose is reabsorbed, and no more than a few milligrams appear in the urine per 24 h. The amount reabsorbed is proportional to the amount filtered and hence to the plasma glucose level (PG) times the GFR up to the transport maximum (TmG ). When the TmG  is exceeded, the amount of glucose in the urine rises. The TmG is about 375 mg/min in men and 300 mg/min in women. Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H   E D I T I O N page no 680
3
180 mg/dl
325 mg/min
375 mg/min
375 mg/dl
Physiology
null
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single
All are non-proliferative glomerulonephritis, except:
Conditions with Proliferative Glomerulonephritis : SLE (paicularly class II) HIV Membranoproliferative/Mesangiocapillary glomerulonepritis Neoplasia (CLL and MALT lymphoma) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis Rest all options are the conditions with non proliferative glomerulonephritis.
2
Membranous glomerulonephritis
Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
Amyloidosis
Pathology
Kidney disorders
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multi
Rough surface on casting occurs due to
null
4
Investment breakdown.
Air bubbles on wax.
Weak surface of investment.
All of the above.
Dental
null
b19f9282-3825-4be0-b34a-77b9f70151df
multi
In plasma, if pH is 5 , what is the fraction of base to acid?
Ans: b (0.1)Ref: Vasudevan 4th ed/p.347According to Henderson-Hasselbach equation,pH = pKa + log (pKa= pH at which the acid is half ionised. It is a constant)The most important buffer system in plasma is bicarbonate- carbonic acid system. pKa for carbonic acid is 6.1 .pH = pKa + log rbasel5 = 6.1 + log log rbasel = -1.1 = log 10'-1 approx.
2
0.01
0.1
1
10
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
983a00a8-b72f-4178-a0b3-da99caac7e1f
single
Moclobemide is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., MAO inhibitor o Moclobemide is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A (RIMA).
3
SSRI
Antipsychotic drug
MAO inhibitors
Prevent recyclation of adrenaline
Pharmacology
null
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single
Earliest presentation of Friedrich's ataxia is -
null
1
Ataxia
Seizures
Optic atrophy
Stuttering
Medicine
null
1d9a914d-f58f-4cef-a929-440e9f5b94f7
single
Regarding cutaneous amoebiasis, which is not true?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., The infection reaches the skin through the blood streamCutaneous amoebiasis-It is usually seen over the region adjoining a visceral lesion, e.g., area of drainage of liver abscess or colostomy wound or from the rectum perianally.
4
It is a spreading necrotizing inflammation of the skin and cutaneous tissue
Rapid improvement with anti-amoebic treatment occurs
Can occur in the perianal region
The infection reaches the skin through the blood stream
Microbiology
Parasitology
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multi
Content of meningocele?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dura mater [Ref: Ghai 8th/e p. 576)Meningocele* There is protrusion of meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater) through a defect in neural arch. This contains only CSF. There may be associated genital tract abnormalities, e.g. vaginal septa and rectovaginal fistula.Myelomeningocele (meningomyelocele)* There is protrusion of meninges along with some neural elements, e.g. spinal cord or cauda equina. It is the most severe form. The commonest site of lesion is lumbosacral region.Encephalocele* There is protrusion of brain tissue (cerebral cortex, cerebellum or brainstem) through a cranial defect (cranium bifidum). Most common site is occipital region. Hydrocephalus can occur due to aqueductal stenosis, chiari malformation or Dandy-Walker syndrome.
1
Dura mater
Spinal cord
Brain mater
Cauda equina
Pediatrics
Central Nervous System
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single
Maple syrup urine disease is due accumulation of
Maple syrup urine disease is also called branched-chain ketonuria The basic defect is deficient decarboxylation of branched-chain ketoacids.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 230
3
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Branched chain amino acids
Tryptophan
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
af1d47f9-d690-4a83-accb-bd25b1e7414d
single
Which of the following acts as a neurotransmitter inhibitor:
null
2
Glutamate
GABA
Aspartic acid
Lysin
Physiology
null
0924a456-7a67-4ad4-ac78-88d16cbd592d
single
During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach:
B ie Posterior For spinal cord autopsy examination body is placed prone on table and incision is made on the back in midline extending from, occipital protuberance to the lower end of sacrum, (posterior approch)Q - Reddy Autopsy of spinal cord can be done either from posterior (most common)Q or anterior approach. High cervical spine injuries are best seen by posterior, and thoracic spine by anterior approch. - Parikh
2
Anterior
Posterior
Lateral
Antero-lateral
Forensic Medicine
null
e05c5320-27b3-48f5-bf77-fcd29a8eabdf
single
In which of the following weapons, empty caridge case is ejected after firing
C i.e. Pistol
3
Shotgun
Revolver
Pistol
Rifle
Forensic Medicine
null
d3e4be3b-2345-4c01-b8e9-a1bbec2118ba
single
Which cranial nerve is involved in Weber syndrome?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., III Focal vascular syndromes of the midbrainSyndrome nameRegionVascular supplyAnatomical structure(s)Clinical feature (s)Weber's syndromeMidbrainBranches of PCA and top of basilar arteryOculomotor nerve fasciclesIpsilateral third-nerve palsyClaude's syndromeMidbrain tegmentum nerve palsyBranches of PCA and top of basilar arteryCerebral peduncleOculomotor nerve fasciclesContralateral hemiparesisIpsilateral third-nerve palsy Red nucleus, superior cerebellar peduncle fibersContralaterla ataxiaBenedikt's syndromeMidbrain basis and tegmentumBranches of PCA and top of basilar arteryOculomotor nerve fasciclesIpsilateral third-nerve palsy Cerebral peduncleRed nucleus, substantia nigra, superior cerebellar peduncle fibersContralateral hemiparesisContralateral ataxia, tremor, and involuntary movements
2
II
III
IV
V
Medicine
C.N.S.
90398790-d783-4a66-9e98-e0d9634c4484
single
Following result after chronic edema to legs EXCEPT?
Ans. (d) Varicose veinsRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 593/903* Varicose veins are a cause of chronic leg edema and not a result of chronic leg edema.* Edema is defined as a palpable swelling caused by an -increase in interstitial fluid volume. The most likely cause of leg edema in patients over age 50 is venous insufficiency. Venous insufficiency affects up to 30% of the populationywhereas heart failure affects only approximately 1%. The most likely cause of leg edema in women under age 50 is idiopathic edemay formerly known as cyclic edema. Pulmonary hypertension and early heart failure can both cause leg edema before they become clinically obvious in other ways.* Marjolin's ulcer refers to an aggressive ulcerating squamous cell carcinoma presenting in an area of previously traumatized, chronically inflamed, or scarred skin. Histologically, the tumor is a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. This carcinoma is aggressive in nature, spreads locally and is associated with a poor prognosis. Its edge is everted and not always raised.* The IOC is a wedge biopsy.
4
Marjolins ulcer
Thickening of skin
Soft tissue infections
Varicose veins
Surgery
Chronic Venous Insufficiency
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multi
Railway spine is associated with: March 2013 (d, h)
Ans. B i.e. Railway accidents Railway spine It was a nineteenth-century diagnosis for the post-traumatic symptoms of passengers involved in railroad accidents. The first full length medical study of the condition was John Eric Erichsen's classic book, On Railway and Other Injuries of the Nervous System. For this reason, railway spine is often known as "Erichsen's disease". Railway collisions were a frequent occurrence in the early 19th century. Exacerbating the problem was the fact that railway cars were flimsy, wooden structures with no protection for the occupants Soon a group of people staed coming forward who claimed that they had been injured in train crashes, but had no obvious evidence of injury. The railroads rejected these claims as fake. The nature of symptoms caused by "railway spine" was hotly debated in the late 19th century, notably at the meetings of the (Austrian) Imperial Society of Physicians in Vienna, 1886. Germany's leading neurologist, Hermann Oppenheim, claimed that all railway spine symptoms were due to physical damage to the spine or brain, whereas French and British scholars, notably Jean-Main Charcot and Herbe Page, insisted that some symptoms could be caused by hysteria (now known as conversion disorder). Erichsen observed that those most likely to be injured in a railway crash were those sitting with their backs to the acceleration. This is the same injury mechanism found in whiplash. As with automobile accidents, railway and airplane accidents are now known to cause posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and other psychosomatic symptoms in addition to physical trauma.
2
Spine injury as a result of fall from height
Railway accidents
Lathi charge over spinal column
Spine & veebrae interacted or touched each other in congenital disease
Surgery
null
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Lady with Mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation with full term gestation, obstetrician planning to conduct normal delivery, what would be analgesia of choice?
Pain relief is impoant for hea disease patients as pain can cause tachycardia, which in turn can cause cardiac failure. in hea disease patients vaginal delivery is indicated. C section done for obstetric indications only Epidural and spinal techniques are the most effective means of providing pain relief for labor. These are also known as regional techniques because pain relief is limited to a specific anatomical region. These modalities are also known as neuraxial techniques, since both the approaches involve administration of drugs that exe their effects in the axial poion of the CNS.
4
Parenteral opioids
General anesthesia
Inhalational analgesia
Neuraxial analgesia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
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Early adolescence age is
Adolescence is the stage of transition from childhood to adulthood. Early adolescence ( 10-13yrs) Mid adolescence ( 14-16yrs) Late adolescence (17-19yrs) Ref: Ghai, 9th edition, Chapter 5
2
8-11 yrs
10-13 yrs
14-15 yrs
16-19 yrs
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Specificity of a screening test measures -
Ans. is 'd' i.e. True negatives Repeat from May 06Sensitivity is the ability of test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, i.e. 'true positives'.Specificity is the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease, i.e. 'true negatives'.
4
True positives
False positives
False negatives
True negatives
Social & Preventive Medicine
Screening for Disease
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multi
Small pox vaccine was invented by
Small pox vaccine Introduced by Edward Jenner in 1796, was the first successful vaccine to be developed Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition
2
Louis pasture
Edward Jenner
Paul Eugene
John snow
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
886042e2-7281-461b-b39f-4248f8d8ebf4
multi
A 8-year-old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. On examination, doll like face and the liver and kidneys are found to be enlarged. Blood examination reveals raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid, and triglycerides. Histopathology of the liver shows deposits of glycogen in an excess amount. What is the diagnosis?
Inheritance: Autosomal recessive Definitive diagnosis - liver biopsy Fructose and galactose restriction in the diet is advised. Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30th Edition Page no 179
3
Pompe's
McArdle's
von Gierke's
Cori's disease
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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Shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mivacurium o Suxamethonium (succinylcholine) is the shortest acting skeletal muscle relaxant,o Mivacurium is the shortest acting nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant.
1
Mivacuriiim
Doxacuronium
Pipecurium
Vecuronium
Anaesthesia
Non-depolarising Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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A 5 year old female patient complains of deformed shape of legs. Patient is a strict vegetarian. Lab investigations reveal elevated level of alkaline phosphatase. This patient may be suffering from deficiency of-
Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. The weight bearing bones are bent to form bow-legs. In rickets, the plasma level of calcitriol is decreased and alkaline phosphatase activity is elevated. Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-127
4
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Biochemistry
null
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Incidentally findings, in CT scan, a 3cm adrenal mass, which of the following is NOT- done
(Adrenalectomy) (816- B&L 24th) (812-Baily &Love 25th)* A unilateral non functioning adrenal mass greater than 4cm in diameter is an indication for adrenalectomy. The patient with a mass smaller than 4cm in diameter should undergo repeat CT/MR1 -4-6 months after the previous examinationINVESTIGATIONSFunctioning adrenal tumourA malignant adrenal mass1. 2 x 24 hour urine collection for catecholamines and metanephrines** FNAC* Primary adrenocortical carcinoma -2. Plasma urea and electrolytes, plasma aldosterone and reninIncidentalomas of 4cm or more in diameter carry an increased risk of malignancy3. Basal a-m and midnight plasma cortisol, blood glucose, DHEAS4. 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test*
1
Adrenalectomy
Dexamethasone suppression test
Measurment of catecholamines
Midnight plasma cortisol
Surgery
Parathyroid & Adrenal Glands
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multi
Which clotting factor is required for stabilization of fibrin clot?
The fibrin is initially a loose mesh of interlacing strands. It is conveed by the formation of covalent cross-linkages to a dense, tight aggregate (stabilization). This latter reaction is catalyzed by activated factor XIII ie XIIIaVIII - Antihemophilic factor (AHF), antihemophilic factor A, antihemophilic globulin (AHG)IX - Plasma thromboplastin component (PTC), Christmas factor, antihemophilic factor BV - Proaccelerin, labile factor, accelerator globulinRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:532
1
XIIIa
VIII
IX
V
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
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single
Which of the following patient characteristics is a possible reason for the use of celecoxib in the treatment of arthritis ?
null
3
History of severe rash after treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic
History of gout
History of peptic ulcer disease
History of type 2 DM
Pharmacology
null
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single
Name the operation shown here.
Ans. (a) Boari Flap operation* Boari Flap operation - For lower ureteric injuries the bladder is used to reconstruct the gap as shown here.* Ureteric injury must be repaired immediately.
1
Boari flap operation
Young operation
Pierce operation
Nesbitt operation
Surgery
Kidney & Ureturs
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single
M.C. type of cutaneous T.B. is -
Most common type of cutaneous tb is lupus vulgaris iadvl textbook of dermatology , page 245
1
lupus vulgaris
Scrofuloderma
T.B. verruca cutis
Erythema induratum
Dental
Bacterial infections
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single
True statement about Kiesselbach's Plexus
Kiesselbach's Plexus → Large capillary network in anteroinferior part of vestibule of septum. → Contains anastomoses between: Sphenopalatine artery and its branches. Superior labial branch of facial artery. Greater palatine artery. Anterior ethmoidal artery. → This is known as Little's area. → Little's area - Common site of epistaxis (bleeding from nose). → Artery of epistaxis - Sphenopalatine artery.
4
Larger capillary network in anteroinferior part of vestibule of septum.
Contains anastomoses between sphenopalatine artery branches,superior labial branch of facial artery, greater palatine artery and anterior ethmoidal artery.
Common site of epistaxis; also known as Little's area.
All of the above
Anatomy
null
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Which one of the following aeries pierces the oblique popliteal ligament of the knee joint?
OBLIQUE POPLITEAL LIGAMENT:- Expansion from the tendon of semimembranosus. Runs upwards and laterally, blends with the posterior surface of the capsule, and is attached to the intercondylar line and lateral condyle of femur. Related to politeal aery. Structures piercing the ligament:-1. Middle Genicular vessels.2. Posterior division of obturator nerve. {Reference BDC 9E }
3
Medial superior genicular aery
Lateral superior genicular aery
Middle genicular aery
Posterior tibial recurrent aery
Anatomy
Lower limb
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Hyperacute rejection occurs within:
Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 233   Hyperacute Rejection This form of rejection occurs within minutes or hours after transplantation. A hyperacutely rejecting kidney rapidly becomes cyanotic, mottled, and flaccid, and may excrete a mere few drops of bloody urine. Immunoglobulin and complement are deposited in the vessel wall, causing endothelial injury and fibrin-platelet thrombi Glomeruli undergo thrombotic occlusion of the capillaries, and fibrinoid necrosis occurs in arterial walls. The kidney cortex then under- goes outright necrosis (infarction), and such nonfunctioning kidneys have to be removed.
1
12 hours
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
Unknown
null
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single
10 years old child with 10 days continuous fever with soft, enlarged spleen, diagnosis is –
null
1
Enteric fever
Malarial
Hodgkins disease
Meningitis
Pediatrics
null
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single
A 33-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of seeing "spots" floating around in her eye. Today, she notes streaks of light in the same eye accompanied by a "shadow" in her peripheral vision that moves when looking up and down. Her medical history is significant for migraine headaches; however, she has never had such visual symptoms with her headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Retinal detachment: The history suggests retinal detachment. the vitreous detach from the retina and causes the perception of "floaters" Vitreous detaching from the retina may cause a peripheral "horseshoe" tear in susceptible areas of the retina. The tear allows fluid within the vitreous to accumulate under the retina and cause a detachment. When the retina is paially detached and the eye moves, the patient may notice a "shadow" that corresponds to the torn retina. Retinal detachment is ophthalmic emergency because the detachment can progress to the fovea and threaten central vision. Opthalmic migraine: an eye condition that causes brief attacks of blindness or visual problems like flashing lights in 1 eye. Amaurosis fugax: Condition in which a person cannot see from one or both eyes due to transient failure of blood supply to retina.
3
Ophthalmic migraine
Malingering
Retinal detachment
Amaurosis fugax
Ophthalmology
Retina
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single
All are food fortification except:(1994)
Ans: aRef: Park, 17th ed, p. 453 & 18th ed, p. 480, 481
1
Addition of color to saccharin
Addition of Vit A to food stuffs
Addition of extra nutrients to food stuffs
Iodisation of salt
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and Health
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multi
Which of the following feature is common to both cytotoxic T-cells and NK cells?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes plays a protective role against virus associated neoplasms (EBV and HPV induced tumors) and have been demonstrated in the blood and tumor infiltrates of cancer patients.NK cells have the innate ability to lyse a variety of tumor cells, virally infected cells and some normal cells without prior sensitization. It is considered to be the first line of defence against neoplasm or viral infections. Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 191 and 8th Edition, Page 318
2
Synthesis of antibody
Effective against virus infected cells
Requirement of antibodies for action
Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers
Pathology
null
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Defect seen in Vitiligo is: September 2010
Ans. B: Absent melanocytes Vitiligo is a chronic disorder that causes depigmentation of patches of skin. It occurs when melanocytes, the cells responsible for skin pigmentation, die or are unable to function. The cause of vitiligo is unknown, but research suggests that it may arise from autoimmune, genetic, oxidative stress, neural, or viral causes.
2
Absent melanosomes
Absent melanocytes
Reduction in melanin synthesis
Reduction in number of melanocytes
Skin
null
6449652f-8128-4001-b025-1855ee14399a
single
Example of cold burn is /are:
Cold burns include Freezing injuries (frostbite) Non-freezing cold injuries e.g. chilblain (localized painful erythema in the fingers, toes or ears produced by cold damp weather) Trench foot seen in soldiers Immersion foot occurring in shipwrecked persons.
4
Frostbite
Trench foot in soldiers.
Immersion foot occurring in shipwrecked persons.
All of the above.
Surgery
null
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multi
In metabolic acidosis which of the following changes are seen?
K+ secretion into the renal tubules when the H+ secretion is increased (intracellular Buffering of H+). Thus in metabolic acidosis, there is decreased K+ excretion. Factors afffecting K+ distribution between ECF and ICF concentration Shift Of K+ into the cell - Decrease in ECF K+ Shift Of K+ out of the Cell - Increase in ECF K+ Insulin Insulin deficiency(DM) Aldosterone Aldosterone deficiency (Addison&;s disease) Metabolic alkalosis Hypeonicity (e.g., Hyperglycemia) Diarrhoea Beta Blockers Cell lysis Eg., Intravascular hemolysis, tumor lysis syndrome, rhabdomyolysis Strenous excercise Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 387
2
Increased K+ excretion
Decreased K+ excretion
Increased Na+ excretion
Increased Na+ reabsorption
Physiology
Renal physiology
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single
Best index for chronic malnutrition is: September 2010
Ans. A: Height for age
1
Height for age
Weight for age
Weight for height
All of the above
Pediatrics
null
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multi
The highest concentrations of Vitamin A is seen in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Codliver oil Amongst the given options, cod liver oil has highest concentration.
2
Polar bear liver
Cod liver oil
Shark liver oil
Papaya
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
9652705d-ca1e-4f1d-9c23-15017485275d
single
Break bone fever is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dengue fever White disease AIDS Povey disease - Cholera Hundred day cough: Peussis (Whooping cough) 5 day fever: Trench fever 8' day disease: Tetanus Black sickness: Kala azar Black death: Plague Cerebrospinal fever: Meningococcal meningitis Breakbone fever: Dengue Koch's phenomenon: Tuberculosis Hansen 's disease: Leprosy Break-bone fever: Dengue Slim disease: AIDS Monkey fever : KFD First disease/ Rubeolla: Measles Second disease: Scarlet fever Third disease/ German Measles: Rubella Fouh disease: Duke's disease Fifth disease: Erythema infectiosum (Parvovirus) Sixth disease/ Baby Measles/ 3-day fever: Exanthem subitum/ Roseola infantum Barometer of Social Welfare (India): Tuberculosis Father of Public Health: Cholera River Blindness: Onchocerciasis
2
Malaria
Dengue fever
Kala azar
Japanese encephalitis
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a79e6709-5eb4-4874-bd37-23f761568d6e
single
Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, EXCEPT:
Each ureter measures about 10 in. (25 cm) long and resembles the esophagus (also 10 in. long) in having three constrictions along its course. The sites of ureteric constrictions include: where the renal pelvis joins the ureter, where it is kinked as it crosses the pelvic brim, and where it pierces the bladder wall.Ref: Richard S Snell's Clinical Anatomy for Medical Students, 6th Edition, Pages 236, 273
4
Ureteropelvic junction
Ureterovesical junction
Crossing of iliac aery
Ischial spine
Anatomy
null
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multi
Water sample which is likely to contain chlorine, will affect the results of bacteriological analysis of water. Which one of the following, if added in small amount in the test tube will help overcome it –
null
4
Potassium nitrate
Copper sulphate
Calcium hydrochloride
Sodium thiosulphate
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
9af583ef-f313-4d03-a1ae-894cb63e1410
multi
What is the thickness of the layer of prismless enamel found in primary teeth?
null
1
25 μm
50 μm
75 μm
100 μm
Dental
null
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single
The cyst is `deroofed' and the surrounding periosteum sutured to the margins of the cyst wall in
null
2
Decortication
Marsupialisation
Saucerization
Enucleation
Surgery
null
6200cc35-e5af-43d5-b3c3-4ce20391732d
multi
The virus with smallest genome is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Parvovirus . Smallest genome ----> Parvovirus . Largest genome --> Poxvirus
2
Reovirus
Parvovirus
Picornavirus
HIV
Microbiology
null
571b5eca-bd9b-457a-9efe-eeff386d2a3b
multi
The common feature of Nuclear Localization Signals is
Many nuclear proteins contain NLSs that are rich in basic arginine and lysine residues, which may be located anywhere in the polypeptide chain. Reference: Harper; 30th edition
4
They are rich in acidic amino acid residues and are located at the C-terminus of the protein
They are rich in basic amino acid residues and are located at the C-terminus of the protein
They are rich in acidic amino acid residues and may be located anywhere in the protein sequence
They are rich in basic amino acid residues and may be located anywhere in the protein sequence
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
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single
Superior pa of IVC develops from which pa?
Anterior cardinal vein and subcardinal vein will be degenerated during development where as sacrocardinal segment forms the inferior pa. Reference: TEXTBOOK OF CLINICAL EMBRYOLOGY.... VISHRAM SINGH SECOND EDITION....PAGE NO:245
1
Right vitelline vein
Subcardinal vein
Anterior cardinal vein
Sacrocardinal vein
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Apparant volume of distribution of a drug less than 5 liters implies that the drug is predominantly in which of the following compament?
Ans is 'a' i.e., Extracellular fluido A drug with high volume of distribution has more concentration in tissue and less in plasma.o A drug with low volume of distribution has concentration only in plasma (intravascular)Relationship between volume of distribution and extent of distributionVd (L)% body weightExtent of distribution< 57only in plasma5-207-28In extracellular fluid20-4028-56In total body water>40>56In deep tissues; bound to peripheral tissues
1
Extracellular fluid
Total body water
Intracellular fluid
Intravascular fluid
Pharmacology
null
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single
Polychromatic luster type of cataract seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Complicated cataract o See above explanation
1
Complicated cataract
Myotonic Dystrophy
Diabetes mellitus
Wilson's disease
Ophthalmology
Acquired Cataract
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single
True about Bain circuit – a) Mapleson type Bb) Mapleson type Dc) Can be used for spontaneous respirationd) Can be used for controlled vantilatione) Coaxial
Bain circuit (type D Mapleson) is a co-axial system. It is the circuit of choice for controlled ventilation. It can also be used for spontaneous ventilation.
3
bce
abd
bcde
acde
Anaesthesia
null
0203f880-4956-46d1-9bb2-b8c08b7722bb
multi
In multiple myeloma following are seen -a) Increase Calciumb) Sclerotic bone lesion c) Gone depositiond) Renal failure
null
3
b
c
ad
ab
Medicine
null
12469f4e-740c-4d5b-9663-63b41988a3a5
single
True about fat embolism
B i.e. Patechae
2
Seen one week after injury
Patechie
Bradycardia
All
Surgery
null
676d0fe2-eaa5-4c7e-bdb2-e5fc422dbffe
multi
Ultrasonography transducer contain –
Lead zirconate titanate (PZT) is the most widely used material in the ultrasound transducers / probes replacing the firstly discovered barium titanate.
2
Sodium fluoride
Lead Zirconate
Caesium fluoride
None
Radiology
null
dc669407-a493-46ce-a33f-3e08773085a4
multi
All are true/ except regarding patch test
C. i.e. Angry back lit false negative test The gold standard method for the diagnosis of allergic dermatitis resulting from type IV delayed hypersenstivityQ. Such as allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) & air borne contact dermatitis (ABCD)Q remains the patch test. It is read after 48 hours (2 days)Q Type 1 hypersensitivity (eg atopic dermatitis) is detected by prick test (of debatable significance). And type IV delayed hypersensitivity (eg contact dermatitis) is diagnosd by patch skin test (gold standard). So skin test can be done for Type I (atophy) & type IV (contact dermatitis). Type of hypersensitive reaction Clinical Syndrome Type I : IgE type AnaphylaxisQ AtopyQ (prick test) Type II : Cytolytic & Antibody mediated damage? Cytotoxic Thrombocytopenia- agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemia etc. Type III : Immune Ahrus reaction complex Serum sickness Type IV : Delayed Tuberculosis Hypersensitivity Contact dermatitis (patch test)Q
3
Diagnose ABCD
Read after 48 hours
Angry back IA false negative test
T.R.U.E test
Skin
null
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multi
Voricanazole is not effective against
Refer Harrison 17th/1243 Voricanazole is drug of choice for treatment of Aspergillosis. It can also be used for Candida species Mucormycosis is treated by Amphotercin B.Posaconazole can also be used
2
Candida albicans
Mucormycosis
Candida tropicalis
Aspergillosis
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
Chromosome associated with familial polyposis coli ?
null
1
Chromosome 5
Chromosome 6
Chromosome 11
Chromosome 13
Pathology
null
b096e6d4-59f0-4a2c-bf7f-017ce13d406f
single
All of the following reactions are catalysed by microsomal enzymes except
Ref-KDT 6/e p25 Most of the Phase 1 reactions and Glucuronide conjugation(phase II reaction)are catalysed by microsomal enzymes.these enzyme can be induced or inhibited by drugs .acetylation is carried out by N-acetyl transferase,a non microsomal enzyme
2
Glucuronidation
Acetylation
Oxidation
Reduction
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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multi
CAP in LAC operon is an example of:(AIIMS Nov 2011, May 2011)
Ans. a. Positive regulator (Ref: Lippincott 4/e p418-420)CAP in LAC operon is an example of positive regulator."CAP-cAMP regulator is a positive regulator for Lac operonQ because its presence is required for gene expression."Operon is the segment of DN A strand, consisting of cluster of several genes involved in metabolic pathway.Operon = structural genes coding for enzymes of metabolic pathway + regulatory genes that determine their transcriptionStructural genes for Lac operonCoded proteinRegulator genes/ proteins and inducersLac Zb galactosidasePositive regulatorCRP = CAP + CAMPLac YPermeaseNegative regulatorLac 1 geneRepressor proteinLac AAcetylaseInducerLactoseIPTG (gratuitous inducer)Jacob and Monod's Operon Concept for Prokaryotic GeneIn prokaryotes, genes involved in a metabolic pathway are often present in a linear array called an operon.The cistron is the smallest unit of genetic expression coding for subunit of a protein molecule (One cistron-one subunit concept)Q.Polycistronie mRNA, predominantly found in prokaryotes is a m-RNA that encodes more than one separately translated proteins.Operon (transcription unit of prokaryotes) consists of structural (coding) genes and regulatory region consistingQ.Structural (coding) genesCarries the codon that code for proteins involved in a particular metabolic pathwayIn lac operon of E coli (responsible for lactose metabolism), 3 structural genes lac Z, lac Y, and lac A code respectively for b-galactosidase, (hydrolyze lactose or b- galactoside to galactose and glucose), permease (responsible for permeation of galactose into cell), and thiogalactosida transacetylaseQ.Inducible regulated genes: Their expression increases in response to an inducer or activator (a positive regulatory signal). In general, inducible genes have relatively low rates of transcriptionConstitutive (house keeping) genes: They are expressed at a reasonably constant rate and are not subjected to regulationQ. The product of these genes are required all the timeQ in a cell. A mutation resulting in constitutive expression of what was formerly a regulated gene is called constitutive mutationRegulatory region consistingPromoter (P) geneOperator (O) genesRegulator (I) genes* It is situated on the upstream (5'- side of transcription start site between operator and regulator gene.* It is the site, where DNA dependent- RNA polymerase (RNP) binds to form pre-initiation complex (PIC)Q, and commence transcription.* Catabolite gene activator protein (CAP) in conjunction with c-AMP (known as c-AMP regulatory protein = CRP) is required for efficient formation of PIC. So it is a positive regulator. Adenylate cyclase which forms c-AMP from ATP, is activated by absence of glucose. So the lac operon transcription only occurs in absence of glucoseQ (catabolite repression). And presence of glucose prevents it by depleting c-AMP.* It is a segment of ds DNA that regulates the activity of the structural genes.* In lac operon, it is 27 bp long segment situated between promoter site (at which RNAP binds) and lac Z (transcription initiation site) and show a twofold rotational symmetry and an inverted palindrome in 21 bp long region* When attached to operator (o) gene, the repressor (Lacl) acts as a negative regulator and prevents transcription of operator and structural (lac Z/Y/A) genesQ.* It is a constitutive gene, that forms subunits of lac repressor (MW 38,000), a lac repressor molecule (Lac I repressor protein) is formed by union of 4 subunits and has high affinity for operator locusQ.* At any time only 2 subunits of repressor binds to operator, mostly in its major groove without interrupting the base paired double helical nature of operator DNA.* Normally 20-40 repressor tetramers, occupy >95% of lac operator, thus ensuring a low lac operon transcription in absence of inducer.* Presence of lactose or gratuitous inducer such as isopropylthio galactoside (IPTG) on bacteria growing on poorly utilized carbon source (e.g. succinate) results induction of lac operon enzymes by de-repression.
1
Positive regulator
Negative regulator
Attenuation
Constitutive expression
Biochemistry
Regulation of Gene Expression
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Gluten-sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with
Celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)*Genetic predisposition: HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8*Pathogenesis: Gluten contains an alcohol-soluble fraction called "gliadin" which resist degradation by gastric, pancreatic and small intestinal proteases. Such gliadins induce CD8+ T cell response and damage epithelial cells. Through the damaged epithelium, other gliadin were transpoed which are deamidated by tissue transglutaminase. Deamidated gliadins interact with HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8 of antigen presenting cells and induce a CD4 response. *Microscopic findings: Villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and intraepithelial lymphocytosis. Based on these 3 findings, celiac disease was typed by Marsh classification.*Most sensitive test: Anti-TTG antibody test*Most specific test: Anti-endomysial antibody test*Most common skin manifestation in celiac disease patients: Dermatitis herpetiformis *Most common celiac disease associated cancer: Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma.Ref: Robbins 8/e p795
1
HLA DQ2
HLA DR4
HLA DQ3
Blood group B
Pathology
G.I.T
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Epiphyseal enlargement is seen in:
Ans. Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis
4
Rickets
Ankylosing spondylitis
Spondo-epiphyseal dysplasia
Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis
Pathology
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Which of the following vessels have the function of capacitation?
Capacitation is the penultimate step in the maturation of mammalian spermatozoa and is required to render them competent to feilize an oocyte. This step is a biochemical event; the sperm moves normally and looks mature prior to capacitation.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no:-423
3
Aeriole
Capillary
Male reproductive tract
Aery
Physiology
Endocrinology
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Which of the following is a cyanotic hea disease:
CLASSIFICATION OF CONGENITAL HEA DISEASES: Acyanotic hea disease Cyanotic hea disease - VSD - ASD - PDA -TOF -Tricuspid atresia -Pulmonary atresia with intact septum -Transposition of great aeries -TAPVC -Truncus aeriosus -Ebstein anomaly BASED ON PATHOPHYSIOLOGY:
3
PDA
VSD
TOF
ASD
Pediatrics
Other hea diseases in children
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Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver?
Fatty liver is also known as hepatic steatosis. It happens when fat builds up in the liver. Having small amounts of fat in your liver is normal, but too much can become a health problem When fatty liver develops in someone who drinks a lot of alcohol, it's known as (AFLD) Refer robbins 9/e
4
Hepatitis B virus infection
Wilson s disease
Hepatitis C virus infection
Chronic alcoholism
Pathology
G.I.T
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multi
Which of the following condition is associated with the development of sunflower cataract?
Sunflower cataract occur due to chalcosis. Chalcosis of the lens develop with the presence of copper containing intra ocular foreign bodies or as a pa of Wilson's disease. In this condition copper also gets deposited in basements membrane resulting in Kayser Fleischer ring. Retention of iron containing foreign bodies can cause cataract due to toxicity from ferrous ions. Deposits within the lens epithelium, iris pigment epithelium and and retinal pigment leads to siderosis. The ferrous ions cause a flower shaped coical fiber opacity, brown pigment deposition on the lens capsule and iris heterochromia. Ref: Clinical Guide to Comprehensive Ophthalmology edited by David A. Lee, Eve J. Higginbotham page 315.
3
Diabetes mellitus
Injuries
Chalcosis
Infections
Ophthalmology
null
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Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction?
In Thiamine deficiency, PDH reaction is defective. So, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid. Causes of inhibition of PDH leading to lactic acidosis: Inherited PDH deficiency Thiamine deficiency Alcoholics due to thiamine deficiency Arsenite and Mercury poisoning Harper 30th edition
2
Phosphoenol Pyruvate Carboxykinase
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Pyruvate Carboxylase
Aldolase
Biochemistry
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The most common organism causing meningitis is-
null
4
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Mycoplasma
Pneumococcus
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following is excreted in saliva
(Lithium) (416-670 KDT) (435-KDT 6th)LITHIUM - is excreted in sweat and saliva also salivary concentration is proportional to serum concentration and may be usedfor non invasive monitoring* Lithium is excreted in breast milk, Mothers on lithium should not breast feed (416 - KDT)Tetracyclines - are concentrated in liver spleen and bind to the connective tissue in bones and joint* They are secreted in milk in amounts sufficient to affect the suckling infants
3
Tetracyclines
Ampicilline
Lithium
Chloramphenicol
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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32 year old man, presented with painless ulcer with a black eschar on his leg. Smears of exudate show non motile organisms which are in chains. Spores are absent in the smear. Most probable organism is:
Bacillus anthracis is a large gram-positive rod with square ends, frequently found in chains. It is non motile, whereas other members of the genus are motile. Spores are usually not seen in smears of exudate because spores form when nutrients are insufficient, and nutrients are plentiful in infected tissue. Also know: Anthrax toxin is encoded on one plasmid, and the polyglutamate capsule is encoded on a different plasmid. Its antiphagocytic capsule is composed of D-glutamate. (This is unique--capsules of other bacteria are polysaccharides.) Ref: (2012). Chapter 17. Gram-Positive Rods. In Levinson W (Eds), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e.
4
Proteus
Diphtheroids
Clostridium
Bacillus anthracis
Microbiology
null
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Not a component of DOTS
Components of DOTS Accountability Political commitment Uninterrupted drug supply Good quality sputum microscopy Directly observed treatment.
4
Accountability
Political commitment
Uninterrupted drug supply
Medicines given for 30 days
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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After I.V drug administration , elimination of a drug depends on
elimination of drug depends on -volume of distribution -clearance Volume of distribution is more for high lipids solubility Ref-KDT 7/e p30-31
4
Volume of distribution
Clearance
Lipids solubility
All
Anatomy
General anatomy
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The most common symptom of AIDS in an infant is
Clinical features in an HIV infected infant is:Recurrent GI infection and oral thrush is commonly foundClinical features in older children:Growth failureFeverDiarrheaSecondary infection(Refer: OP Ghai's Textbook of Pediatrics, 8th edition, pg no. 202)
1
Gastrointestinal infection
Persistent cough
Failure to thrive
Lymphadenopathy
Pediatrics
All India exam
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Colostrum contains more of _________
Colostrum is known to contain immune cells (as lymphocytes) and many antibodies such as IgA, IgG, and IgM. ... Other immune components of colostrum include the major components of the innate immune system, such as lactoferrin, lysozyme, lactoperoxidase, complement, and proline-rich polypeptides (PRP). Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 664,665,666
4
Ca
Mg
Fe
Cu
Physiology
G.I.T
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DNA fragments formed by restriction enzymes are separated by
Agarose is the supp medium for the gel electrophoresis it is viscous liquid when hot but solidify to a gel on cooling.The gel is prepared in the buffer and spread over microscopic slides and allowed to cool.A small sample of serum or the biological fluid is applid by cutting into the gel with a sharp edge.The electrophoretic run takes about 90 minutes.This technique is modified for immunoelectrophoresis.Agarose gel is used as suppo to seperate different types of protein mixtures as well as nucleic acids. REFERENCE: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK SEVENTH EDITION Page no:447
2
Ultra centrifugation
Agarose gel electrophoresis
Paper chromatography
HPLC
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
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Rural and Urban difference in prevalence is seen in all of the following, except:
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2
Lung cancer
Tuberculosis
Mental illness
Chronic bronchitis
Dental
null
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Which of the following is not the function of complements?
Ans: D (Toxin neutralization) Ref: Ananthanarayan, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg 120Explanation:Functions of ComplementIt mediates immunological membrane damage (cytolysis, bacteriolysis)It amplifies the inflammatory response and participates in the pathogenesis of certain hypersensitivity reactions.It exhibits antiviral activityIt promotes phagocytosis and immune adherence.It also interacts with the coagulation, fibrinolytic and kininogenic systems of blood.
4
Ceil lysis
Antiviral action
Promotes phagocytosis
Toxin neutralization
Microbiology
Complement System
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Thalidomide is useful in which of the following conditions?
Lepra Reaction TYPE 1 LEPRA REACTION TYPE 2 LEPRA REACTION - It is also known as reversal reaction. - It is seen in TT and BL cases of leprosy. - Drug of choice is coicosteroids. Alternative is clofazimine. - Thalidomide is ineffective. - It is also known as erythema nodosum leprosum. - It is seen in LL cases of leprosy. - Drug of choice is coicosteroids. Alternative is clofazimine. - Thalidomide is useful in severe cases.
2
Treatment of leprosy
Treatment of type II lepra reaction
Treatment of type I lepra reaction
Treatment of neuritic leprosy
Pharmacology
Mycobacterial Diseases (TB, Leprosy and MAC)
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