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True about Gaucher disease
This is an inborn error of metabolism due to failure of degradation of glucocerebrosides. The enzyme beta-glucosidase is deficient in this condition.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 192
2
Due to deficiency of enzymes sphingomyelinase
Due to deficiency of enzyme b-Gluco-cerebroisidase
Deposition of glucosylceramide
Foam cell deposition
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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Stages of pneumonia are all except:-
The stages of pneumonia/consolidation are:-  i. Stage of Exudation  ii. Stage of Red hepatisation  iii. Stage of Grey hepatisation  iv. Stage of Resolution
3
Stage of Exudation
Stage of Red hepatisation
Stage of Cavitation
Stage of Resolution
Medicine
null
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Most common Complication of TIPSS procedure
Since systemic blood is shunted toxins ( NH3) travel to brain causing encephalopathy. Hence TIPSS is contra indicated in encephalopathy patients.
2
Heart failure
Hepatic Encephalopathy
Thrombosis
Recurrent Variceal bleed
Surgery
null
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Schirmer's test detects abnormality of which nerve?
(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 389)*Schirmer's test is used for the production of tear by lacrimal glands*Preganglion secretory fibers for lacrimal gland arise from the lacrimatory nucleus and pass through the facial nerve, then to its greater petrosal branch. Greater petrosal nerve forms nerve to the pterygoid canal to reach pterygopalatine ganglion. Postganglionic fibers supply lacrimal gland*Thus, lesion in any structure of this pathway will have positive Schirmer's test
2
Oculomotor
Facial
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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All except one is required for the diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Repeated
1
Hypeension
Sleep disorder breathing
BMI more than or equal to 30 kg/m2
PaCO2 more than or eqal to 45 mmHg
Medicine
Respiratory system
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OCP are associated with which of the following complication (Repeat 2009)
Ans b (Optic neuritis)Ophthalmic complication of OCP central retinal artery occlusion prethrombosis of central retinal vein perivasculitis, inflammation of anterior segment of the eye ' macular hemorrage Papillitis & lesions of optic nerve causing variable degree of visual loss
2
Papilledema
optic neuritis
colourblindness
Papillitis
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase
Complex IV inhibitors i. Carbon monoxide, inhibits cellular respiration ii. Cyanide (CN-) iii. Azide (N3-) iv. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 234
4
Comlex I
Comlex II
Comlex III
Comlex IV
Biochemistry
Respiratory chain
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Which structure lies midway between the ASIS & pubic symphysis :
A. i.e. Femoral aery Femoral aery traverses the femoral triangle from its base (which is formed by inguinal ligament - attached between ASIS and Pubic tubercle) at midinguinal pointQDeep inguinal ring lies 1/2 inch above midinguinal pointQ; Superficial inguinal ring lies I/2 inch bellow midinguinal point; and Saphenous opening lies 4 cm below & lateral to the pubic tubercle.
1
Femoral aery
Deep inguinal ring
Superior epigastric aery
Inguinal ligament
Anatomy
null
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First antibody to appear in hepatitis -
Anti-HBV appears in serum a week or two after the appearance of HBsAg. It is therfore the earliest antibody marker to be seen in blood? long before anti-HBe or anti-HBs. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-546
3
IgM anti-Hbe
IgG-anti-Hbe
IgM-anti-HBc
IgM anti-HBs
Microbiology
Virology
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In which of the following vasculitis lung involvement does not occur:
Answer- B. Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN)Microscopic polyangiitis (microscopic polyaeritis, hypersensitivity, or leukocytoclastic vasculitis): This type of necrotizing vasculitis generally affects aerioles, capillaries, and venule.Wegener granulomatosis (Granulomatosis with polyangitis)- is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by th e triad ofacute necrotizing granulomasnecrotizing or granulomatous vasculitisrenal disease in the form of focal necrotizing often crescentic, glomerulitis"Churg- Strauss syndrome(allergic granulumatosis and angiitis) is a multisystem diseases with cutaneous involvement gastrointestinal tract bleeding, and renal disease.
2
Eosoniphilic granulomatosis with vasculitis
Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN)
Microscopic polyangitis
Granulomatosis with polyangitis
Medicine
null
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Which of the following drug is commonly used in narcoanalysis?
Ans. (B) Scopolamine hydrochloride(Ref: J Psychiatry and Law 1993:3:447-471)Controlled administration of intravenous hypnotics to obtain information from subjects who are unable or unwilling to provide it otherwise, is known as Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis.Drugs used for narcoanalysis are:[?]Ethanol[?]Scopolamine[?]Temazepam[?]Barbiturates like Thiopentone and AmobarbitalThese drugs are also known as truth drug or truth serum.Phenobarbitone is not used, rather amobarbital is used for narcoanalysis.
2
Atropine sulfate
Scopolamine hydrochloride
Phenobarbitone
Morphine
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
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The function common to neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages is:
Phagocytic cells are: neutrophils monocytes macrophages
2
Immune response is reduced
Phagocytosis
Liberation of histamine
Destruction of old erythrocytes
Pathology
Oxygen dependent bacterial killing
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Which of the following enzyme is involved in rejoining sho fragments of DNA on the lagging strand?
The okasaki fragments that are sho segments of DNA formed on the lagging strand of DNA in the 5'-3' direction are joined by DNA ligase. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 347-8
1
DNA Ligases
DNA Helicase
DNA Topoisomerase
DNA Polymerase
Biochemistry
null
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Ototoxicity caused by:
Ans. (b) StreptomycinRef : KDT 6th ed. / 743-44* Streptomycin has been assigned to pregnancy category D by the FDA.* Streptomycin crosses the placenta; reported cord concentrations have been equal to or less than the mothers serum concentration.* There are reports of fetal eighth cranial nerve damage with subsequent bilateral deafness. Most authorities, including the Centers for Disease Control and the American Thoracic Society, discourage the use of streptomycin during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal ototoxicity.
2
Vancomycin
Streptomycin
Ampicillin
Rifampicin
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
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The instrument below is used for
This is used for monitoring temperature, core temperature monitoring.
2
Endoscopic ultrasound probe
Oesophageal temperature probe
Enterography
None
Anaesthesia
null
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Alkalinization of urine is required to treat toxicity of all except:
Changes in urinary pH affect tubular reabsorption of drugs that are paially ionized - * Weak bases are ionize more and are less reabsorbed in acidic urine.* Weak acids ionize more and are less reabsorbed in alkaline urine. Urine is alkalinized in barbiturate, methotrexate and salicylate poisoning.
3
Salicylates
Barbiturates
Amphetamine
Methotrexate
Pharmacology
Sympathetic System
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Which of the following is the feature of vegetations in Libmann Sacks endocarditis?
Mitral and tricuspid valvulitis with small, sterile vegetations, called Libman-Sacks endocarditis, is occasionally encountered in systemic lupus erythematosus. The lesions are small (1 to 4 mm in diameter), single or multiple, sterile, pink vegetations with a way (verrucous) appearance. They may be located on the undersurfaces of the atrioventricular valves, on the valvular endocardium, on the chords, or on the mural endocardium of atria or ventricles.
3
Large and fragile
Small way along the line of closure of valve
Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve
Small bland vegetations
Pathology
Endocarditis
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Permanent impairment of fingerprints occurs in all except
Permanent impairment of fingerprints occurs in: Leprosy Electrical injuries Radiation injuries Ridge alteration occur in: Acanthosis nigricans Scleroderma
2
Leprosy
Acanthosis nigricans
Electrical injuries
Radiation injuries
Forensic Medicine
Human identification
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True about ascent to high altitude:
Respiratory alkalosis occurs Polycythemia is due to increased erythropoietin Acute mountain sickness develops 8-24 hr after arrival at altitude and lasts 4-8 days. Acute altitude illness: 3 forms Acute mountain sickness (AMS) The pathophysiology of AMS is not well understood. The essential factor responsible for this condition is hypoxemia High altitude cerebral edema (HACE) High altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)
4
Respiratory acidosis
Polycythemia due to dehydration
Acute mountain sickness stas to develop on 7th day of ascent
Acetazolamide may be given prophylactically
Physiology
Respiratory System Pa 3
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Phenol test or Reidel Walker test is done to determine:
Ans. d. Efficacy of a disinfectants
4
Hardness of water
Chlorine demand
Quality of disinfectant
Efficacy of a disinfectants
Microbiology
null
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The instrument shown here is useful for:
null
3
To condense amalgam
For vital bleaching
Removal of crown
Removal of broken instrument
Dental
null
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Goodpasture syndrome has antibodies against:
(Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8thedition, pg no: 709)
3
Collagen 1
G-y or x-y of collagen
Collagen 4
Collagen 2
Unknown
null
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Zygote is dependent on which of the following for its nutrition -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above While zygote is passing down the fallopian tube and after a brief period as it enters the uterus, it depends for its nutrition on the yolk sac granules (deutoplasm) embedded in its cytoplasm and on the fluid medium surrounding it which is secreted by the walls of the uterine tube and uterus.It also derives its energy from the stored carbohydrate in sperm, whichfeilized the ovum,
4
Deutoplasm
Secretions from wall of fallopian tube and uterus
Sperm carbohydrate stores
All the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Urine is collected for examination in a pregnant female by :
Early morning sample
4
Mid stream collection
Suprapubic puncture
Catheterisation
Early morning sample
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Okazaki fragments are found during
DNA synthesis is always into 5&; to 3&; direction in both strands The strand which is discontinuously synthesized is referred to as the &;lagging strand &; otherwise called the retrograde strand The small DNA molecules attached to its own primer RNA are called Okazaki fragments The synthesis along the lagging strand is in 5&; to 3&; directionRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 580, 581
1
Replication
Translation
Translocation
Transcription
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of 'face to pubis' delivery:
As discussed in the text in Table 1.1 face-to-pubis delivery is common in anthropoid pelvis.
2
Gynaecoid pelvis
Anthropoid pelvis
Android pelvis
Platypelloid pelvis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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HIV primarily replications in which cells -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD4 T-cells * The receptor for the virus is the CD4 antigen on surface. The cells affected are :# CD4 T Cells (major target)# B lymphocytes# Monocytes and macrophages# Langerhans cells in dermis# Glial cells and microglia in the CNS# Follicular dendritic cells from tonsils can be infected by HIV without the involvement of CD4
1
CD4T-cells
CD8 T-cells
Neutrophils
Follicular dendritic cells
Microbiology
Virology
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According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, which of the following is considered an occupational disease?
Ans. b. Anthrax (Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0">According to The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923, Anthrax is considered an occupational disease.List of Occupational Diseases as per Employee Compensation Act 1923 (Workmen Compensation Act, 1923)Part APart BPart C* Infectious and parasitic diseases contracted in an occupation where there is a particular risk of contamination (Anthrax)* Diseases caused by work in compressed air* Diseases caused by lead or its toxic compounds* Poisoning by nitrous fumes* Poisoning by organophosphorus compounds.* Diseases caused by phosphorus or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by mercury or its toxic compounds* Diseases caused by benzene or its toxic homologues.* Diseases caused by nitro and amido toxic derivatives of benzene or its homologues.* Diseases caused by chromium, or its toxic compounds* Diseases caused by arsenic or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by radioactive substances or radiations.* Primary epitheliomatous cancer of the skin, caused by tar, pitch, bitumen, mineral oil, anthracence, or the compounds, products or residues of these substances.* Disease caused by the toxic halogen derivatives of hydrocarbons (of the aliphatic and aromatic series).* Diseases caused by carbon disulphide.* Occupational cataract due to infrared radiations.* Diseases caused by manganese or its toxic compounds.* Skin diseases caused by physical, chemical or biological agents not included in other items.* Hearing impairment caused by noise.* Poisoning by dinitrophenol or a homologue or by substituted or by the salts of such substances.* Diseases caused by beryllium or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by cadmium or its toxic compounds.* Occupational asthma caused by recognized sensitizing agents inherent to the work process.* Diseases caused by fluorine or its toxic compounds.* Diseases caused by nitroglycerine or other nitro acid esters.* Diseases caused by alcohols and ketones.* Diseases caused by asphyxiant carbon monoxide, and its toxic derivatives, hydrogen sulphide.* Lung cancer and mesotheliomas caused by asbestos.* Primary neoplasm of the epithelial lining of the urinary bladder or the kidney or the ureter.* Snow blindness in snow bound areas.* Disease due to effect of cold in extreme cold climate.* Pneumoconiosis caused by sclerogenic mineral dust silicosis, anthracosilicosis, asbestosis) and silicotubercuiosis provided that silicosis is an essential factor in causing the resultant incapacity or death.* Bagassosis* Bronchopulmonary diseases caused by cotton, flax hemp and sisal dust (Byssinosis).* Extrinsic allergic alveolitis caused by the inhalation of organic dusts.* Bronchopulmonary disease caused by hard metals.* Acute pulmonary edema of high altitude.
2
Typhoid
Anthrax
Tetanus
Dengue
Social & Preventive Medicine
Occupational Health
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Radiological factors indicating an unstable pelvis are all except:
Radiographic factors indicating unstable pelvis are: Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement >1cm Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament. Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process Disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm with posterior pelvic injury or injury to anterior/ posterior sacroiliac ligament or sacrospinous ligaments. Presence of gap rather than impaction in the posterior pelvic ring.
4
Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement by > 1 cm
Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament
Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process
Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm
Orthopaedics
Pelvis and Hip Injury
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Angioid streak is seen in -
null
2
Tuberous sclerosis
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Sturge weber syndrome
Septo optic dysplasia
Medicine
null
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Xiphoid process fuses with body of sternum by:
40 years
4
10 years
20 years
30 years
40 years
Forensic Medicine
null
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Uveitis is caused by –a) TBb) Staphylococcusc) Streptococcusd) Klebsiellae) E.Coli
TB causes chronic granulomatous uveitis. Staphylococcus and streptococcus cause acute non-granulomatous pyogenic uveitis.
2
ab
abc
acd
bcd
Ophthalmology
null
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A young female presented to you with primary amenorrhea. Examination reveals normal breast development and absent axillary hairs. Pelvic examination shows a normally developed vagina with clitoromegaly. On ultrasound, gonads are visible in the inguinal region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ans. is b, i.e. Partial androgen insentivity syndromeIn the question patient has 1deg amenorrhea:* Breast development is normal and absent axillary hair. (This means it cannot be Mayer Rokitansky kiister hauser syndrome --where Breast and pubic as well as axillary hair are well developed and it cannot be Gonadal dysgenesis as none of the secondary sexual characteristics are developed in it).We are left with 2 options:Option a --Complete androgen insensitivityOption b --Partial androgen insensitivityIn both these conditions --Breast development will be normal and pubic hair and axillary hair will be absent but clitoromegaly will be seen in partial androgen insensitivity only.
2
Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome
Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome
Gonadal dysgenesis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Disorders in Menstruation
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A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked platelet/immunologic disorder caused by mutations in the WASP gene. The triad of eczema, recurrent infections, and microthrombocytopenia that characterizes WAS only occurs in 27% of the cases. The immunologic defects include low serum concentrations of IgM, while IgA and IgG are normal and IgE is frequently increased. Ref: The Elements of Immunology By Fahim Halim Khan, 2009, Page 413 ; Harrison's 17th ed chapter 310
1
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
A beta gammaglobulinemia
Chediak higashi syndrome
Lazy leukocyte syndrome
Medicine
null
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A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
Baby in the above mentioned case scenario is showing signs and symptoms of multiple carboxylase deficiency such as dermatitis severe metabolic acidosis, organic acid excretion. Ref: Essentials of Pediatrics By Nelson, 16th Edition, Pages 356 ; The Embryo: Scientific Discovery and Medical Ethics By Shraga Blazer, Page 246 ; NORD Guide to Rare Disorders: National Organization for Rare Disorders, Page 483
2
Proprionic aciduria
Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Maple syrup urine disease
Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
Biochemistry
null
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Carbamoyl phosphate intermediates the synthesis of
(B) Urea & Pyrimidine # Biosynthesis of urea begins with the condensation of CC>2, NHs and ATP to form carbamoyl phosphate, a reaction catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthase I which is a mitochondrial enzyme, and rate limiting or pacemaker enzyme and the enzyme is active only in the presence of its allosteric activator N-acetylglutamate, which enhances the affinity of synthase for ATP.
2
Urea
Urea & Pyrimidine
Uric acid
Ketone body
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
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Which of the following is not true about Diplococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae is optochin sensitive. Optochin sensitivity: the sensitivity of Streptococcus pneumoniae to optochin is useful in differentiating it from other streptococci. When a disc impregnated with optochin is applied on a plate of blood agar inoculated with Streptococcus pneumoniae, a wide zone of inhibition appears on incubation. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 225
2
Bile solubility
Optochin resistance
Causes Meningitis
Possess Capsule
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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A patient on Bilonatumomab for refractory B cell All is now resistance to the drug. Which drug to be used:-
Drug Mechanism Use Vorinostat HDAC inhibitor Cutaneous T cell lymphoma Brentuximab Man against CD30 Hodgkin lymphoma Pembrolizumab PD-1 Melanoma Lung Cancer Head and neck cancer Tisagenlecleucel Ca therapy ALL Blinatumomab Bispecific t-cell engages ( targets CD19 and CD3) ALL
3
Vorinostat
Brentuximab
Pembrolizumab
Tisagenlecleucel
Pharmacology
JIPMER 2019
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Horizontal semicircular canal responds to
The three canals lie at right angles to each other but the one which lies at right angles to the axis of rotation is stimulated the most.Thus horizontal canal will respond maximum to the rotation on the veical axis. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE and THROAT by PL Dhingra; 6th edition; page no.17)
2
Horizontal acceleration
Rotational acceleration
Gravity
Antero-posterior acceleration
ENT
Ear
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Roof of the Anatomical snuff box is formed by the
Anatomical snuff box boundaries: Lateral wall Abductor pollicis longus Extensor pollicis brevis Medial wall Extensor pollicis longus Roof Cephalic vein Sup branch of radial nerve Floor Radial styloid, scaphoid, trapezium,1st meta carpal Content Radial Aery Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 893.
3
Radial aery
Basilic aery
Sup branch of radial nerve
Sup branch of ulnar nerve
Anatomy
Upper limb
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Which of these differentiates between ante moem and post moem burns?
SPECIFIC FINDINGS IN ANTEMOEM BURNS 1.SOOT PAICLES UPTO THE LEVEL OF TERMINAL BRONCHIOLE. 2. PRESENCE OF CARBOXYHEMOGLOBIN IN BLOOD. 3. Cyanide IN BLOOD 4. CURLING ULCER IN FIRST PA OF DUODENUM. NON SPECIFIC FINDINGS IN BURNS( ANTEMOEM + POSTMOEM BURNS) 1. PUGILISTIC ATTITUDE OR HEAT STIFFENING. 2. HEAT RUPTURE 3. HEAT HEMATOMA 4. HEAT FRACTURE.
3
Heat rupture
Heat Hematoma
Soot paicles up to terminal bronchioles
Pugilistic attitude
Forensic Medicine
Thermal injuries
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Arrange the following in sequential order of their involvement in estrogen synthesis: A. Progesterone B. Androgen in granulosa cell C. Androgen in theca cell D. Aromatase
Interaction of follicular theca and granulosa cells for production of estrogens. The theca cells, under the control of luteinizing hormone (LH), produce androgens that diffuse into the granulosa cells. In mature follicles, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) acts on granulosa cells to stimulate aromatase activity, which conves the androgens to estrogens. AC - Adenylate cyclase; ATP - Adenosine triphosphate; cAMP - Cyclic adenosine monophosphate; LDL - Low density lipoproteins.
4
B-A-D-C
A-C-D-B
D-C-A-B
A-C-B-D
Physiology
Female Reproductive System
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Left bundle branch block (LBBB) on ECG can suddenly develop in all of the following except:
Ans. b. Ashman phenomenon (Ref: Harrison 18/e p1835) style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-weight: bold; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0">Ashman phenomenon:Ashman phenomenon is an intraventricular conduction abnormality caused by a change in the heart rate.Wide QRS complex) on the surface ECGA RBBB pattern is more common because of the longer refractory period of the right bundle branch, although association with LBBB has been documentedCauses of Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB)* Aortic stenosis* Dilated cardiomyopathy* Acute myocardial infarction* Extensive coronary artery disease* Primary disease of the cardiac electrical conduction system* Long standing hypertension leading to aortic root dilatation and AR* Hypokalemia* Hyperkalemia
2
Acute MI
Ashman phenomenon
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Medicine
Electrocardiography
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C-3 convertase in alternate complement pathway -
null
3
C4b2a
C3b
C3bBb
C3a
Microbiology
null
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Treatment of latent TB infection in Tuberculin positive, HIV positive patients:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1NH biweekly for 9 month Dosing regimens for treatment of latent tuberculosis* AdultsChildren <12IsoniazidStandard regimen:o 300 mg PO daily for nine months Alternate regimens:o 300 mg PO daily for six months900 mg PO twice weeklyD for nine months900 mg PO twice weeklyD for six monthsStandard regimen:o 10 to 15 mg/kg PO daily for nine months; not to exceed 300 mg/dayAlternate regimen:o 20 to 30 mg/kg PO twice weekly for nine months; not to exceed 900 mg/dayIsoniazid and rifapentineIsoniazid (orally once weekly for 12 doses, given by direct observation):o 15 mg/kg, rounded up to the nearest 50 or 100 mg; 900 mg maximumRifapentine (orally once weekly for three months, given by direct observation):o 10 to 14 kg: 300 mgo 14.1 to 25 kg: 450 mgo 25.1 to 32 kg: 600 mgo 32.1 to 49.9 kg: 750 mg o >50 kg: 900 mg maximumSee noteYIsoniazid (orally once weekly for 12 doses, given by direct observation):o 15 mg/kg, rounded up to the nearest 50 or 100 mg; 900 mg maximumRifapentine (orally once weekly for three months, given by direct observation):o 10 to 14 kg: 300 mgo 14.1 to 25 kg: 450 mgo 25.1 to 32 kg: 600 mgo 32.1 to 49.9 kg: 750 mgo >50 kg: 900 mg maximumRifampin600 mg PO daily for four months10 to 20 mg/kg PO daily for four months; not to exceed 600 mg/dayIsoniazid and rifampinIsoniazid 300 mg PO daily for three monthsIsoniazid 10 to 15 mg/kg PO daily for three months; not to exceed 300 mg/day Rifampin 600 mg PO daily for three monthsRifampin 10 to 20 mg/kg PO daily for three months; not to exceed 600 mg/day
1
INH biweekly for 9 month
2(HRZ)3 + 4(HR)3
Rifampicin biweekly for 6 months
Pyrazinamide daily for 6 months
Medicine
Bacteriology
4895947e-dd27-4326-a9cb-aa7b66c26380
single
In MI, which enzyme is raised in 4 to 6 hrs. & decreases in 3 to 4 days :
Answer is C (Creatinine phosphokinase) Creatinine phosphokinase is seen at 4 to 8 hours (May be seen at 2-4 hours), peaks at 24 hours and return to normal by 72 hours. Creatinine phosphokinase MB (CPKMB) Very sensitive (CPK MB isoenzyme increases the specificity) 'Absence in change in levels of CPK and CPKMB during the 1st 2 days essentially excludes the diagnosis of MI' -Chandrasoma CK elevation used to be test of choice in First 24 hours. ('Cardiac troponins are now preferred'). CKMB is still the test of choice for detecting recurrent ischaemic event.
3
SGOT
LDH
CPK
SGPT
Medicine
null
40f0dcf9-4e03-4698-ba8d-7da048d6d0c7
single
The most impoant factor in fracture healing is:
D i.e. Immobilization
4
Good alignment
Organization of blood clot
Accurate reduction and 100% apposition of fractured fragments
Immobilisation
Surgery
null
466a0e38-82d4-45ca-8246-f1f5602a5730
single
Rubella causes all except
Rubella: Rubella/ german measles is caused by RNA virus of togavirus family. Rubella inhibits cell division and this is the reason for congenital malformations. Congenital Rubella syndrome refers to infants born with defects secondary to intrauterine infections sometime after bih. It consists of triad of symptoms of deafness, cardiac malformation and cataract . Other defects include glaucoma , retinopathy, microcephalus, cerebral palsy , intrauterine growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, mental and motor retardation. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 9 th edition
4
Microcephaly
VSD
PDA
AS
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
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multi
Optical urethroplasty is done in:(Internet)
(Congenital stricture of urethra) (1388-89-Baily & Love 24th) (Internet) (1362-Baily & Love 25th)Hypospadias - surgical plastic repair of hypospadias is currently accomplished by a variety of highly successful one stage operations and is routinely performed between 6 and 19 months of age (1008-CSDT 12(tm))Epispadias - Treatment consist of correction of penile curvature reconstriction of the bladder neck in incontinent patients.Congenital urethral stricture - commonly these strictures are thin diaphragms that may respond to simple dilation onto direct vision internal urethrotomy.A single treatment by optical urethrotomy or dilatation is usually effective (1388-Bailey & Love 24th)* A one stage dorsal free graft urethroplasty for bulbar urethral structure to reduce the incidence of urethrocele.
1
Congenital stricture of urethra
Hypospadias
Epispadias
Testicular tumour's
Surgery
Urethra & Penis
03cd7e2f-3eba-43df-96f3-9276236534cf
single
A 78-year-old man with advanced renal disease has the ECG(lead II). What is the diagnosis?
(a) Source: (Fuster, p. 313)No atrial activity is detected. The ventricular rate is slightly irregular. Beat number 4 is a ventricular premature contraction. The T waves are tall and markedly peaked. This type of T wave is characteristic of hyperkalemia, as is absence of visible atrial activity. The potassium level was 8.2 mmol/L.
1
hyperkalemia
hypercalcemia
hypernatremia
pericarditis
Medicine
C.V.S.
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single
Acute changes in brain due to wernicke's encephalopathy in chronic alcoholics is most frequently seen in:
Acute changes are most frequently seen in the 1. Mamillary bodies And also seen in 2. Around the third and fouh ventricles and 3. Aqueduct of the midbrain. Ref: Thorarinsson BL, S C I E N T I F I C P A P E R O V E R V I E W
1
Mamillary bodies
Aqueduct of the midbrain
Around the third ventricle
Around the fouh ventricle
Medicine
null
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single
Secondary oocyte consists of
Ans. d (23 X)Secondary oocyte consist of 23 X chromosomes.The chromosomal complement of a primary oocyte is 46 XX and that of secondary oocyte is 23 X.Sequence of maturation of ovarian primordial follicle after primary follicle stage:Primordial follicle(Single layered ovarian follicle)Spermatogonium (diploid, 2N) ||Primary Spermatocyte (diploid, 2N)Primordial follicle ||Secondary Spermatocyte (haploid, N)Secondary follicle (Antral follicle) ||Spermatid (haploid, N)(Spermatogenesis begins with Spermatogonia.Full development takes 2 months.It occurs in seminiferous tubules)Graffian follicle|Corpus luteum| Corpus albicans # While majority of oogonia divide, some enter into prophase of first meiotic division and are primary oocytes. These are surrounded by flat cells, which are called primordial follicles, and are present in cortex of the ovary.# At birth, there is no more mitotic division and all the oogonia are replaced by primary oocytes, which have finished prophase of first meiotic division and remain in resting phase between prophase and metaphase.# The first stage of maturation occurs with full maturation of ovarian follicle just prior to ovulation but the final maturation occurs only after fertilization.# The primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division giving rise to secondary oocyte and one polar body.# Secondary oocyte has haploid number of chromosomes.# Ovulation occurs soon after formation of secondary oocyte.# The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division only after fertilization by the sperm in the fallopian tube.
4
46 XY
46 XX
23 Y
23 X
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
The Ovarian Cycle
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single
True about mucosa associated lymphoma
Gastric lymphoma This is a rare tumour, accounting for less than 5% of all gastric malignancies. The stomach is, however, the most common site for extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma and 60% of all primary gastrointestinal lymphomas occur at this site. Lymphoid tissue is not found in the normal stomach but lymphoid aggregates develop in the presence of H. pylori infection. Indeed, H. pylori infection is closely associated with the development of a low-grade lymphoma (classified as extranodal marginal-zone lymphomas of MALT type). EUS plays an impoant role in staging these lesions by accurately defining the depth of invasion into the gastric wall. The clinical presentation is similar to that of gastric cancer and endoscopically the tumour appears as a polypoid or ulcerating mass. While initial treatment of low-grade lesions confined to the superficial layers of the gastric wall consists of H. pylori eradication and close observation, 25% contain t(11:18) chromosomal translocations. In these cases, additional radiotherapy or chemotherapy is usually necessary. High-grade B-cell lymphomas should be treated by a combination of rituximab, chemotherapy , surgery and radiotherapy. The choice depends on the site and extent of tumour, the presence of comorbid illnesses, and other factors, such as symptoms of bleeding and gastric outflow obstruction. The prognosis depends on the stage at diagnosis. Features predicting a ourable prognosis are stage I or II disease, small resectable tumours, tumours with low-grade histology, and age below 60 years. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg805
1
H. Pylori predisposes
Chemotherapy sensitive
Multiple lymphomas
Stromal Polyp
Medicine
G.I.T
c4a55ae6-dbec-4b2d-a084-081118673a68
multi
Which is not Glucogenic?
The glucogenic amino acids are: Alanine Arginine Asparagine Aspaic Cysteine Glutamic Glutamine Glycine Histidine Methionine Proline Serine ValineRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition
4
Arginine
HIstidine
Glycine
Lysine
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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single
The gene for folic acid transpoer is located on which chromosome:
C i.e. 21Folic acid transpoer gene (SLC 19 AI solute carrier family 19) is located on long arm of chromosome 21 (21q) Q at band 22.3. Transpo of folate occurs by potocytosis which functionally couples folate receptor, folate transpoer and V- type h+ pump.
3
5
15
21
X
Biochemistry
null
f24130de-63a8-4a78-9ccf-fb1c5a0993bb
single
The best treatment for class V lesion on a tooth along with extensive class II caries is:
With class V lesion and extensive class II cavity in the same tooth  the  remaining  enamel  surface  with  the  supported healthy dentin will be much less hence  in such situation full crown restoration will be long lasting.
3
Restoration of class II followed by class V
Cast gold restoration
A full crown restoration
Restoration of class V followed by class II
Dental
null
51dd9041-40e1-49e3-8f3b-0983ead096f6
single
Which has maximum nicotinic effect-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carbachol o Amongst the given options carbachol has maximum nicotinic actions. It has nicotinic as well as muscarinic action.
2
Bethanechol
Carbachol
Pilocarpine
Methacholine
Pharmacology
null
7252503e-f6ba-44d0-a96c-e3bd9e355781
single
Indications for cesarean hysterectomy are all except:
Cesarean hysterectomy refers to an operation where cesarean section is followed by removal of the uterus. Peripartum hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the uterus either at the time of cesarean delivery or in the immediate postpartum period (even following vaginal delivery). Some indications for peripartum hysterectomy Uterine atony Abnormal placentation – Bleeding – Accrete syndromes Uterine extension Uterine rupture Cervical laceration Postpartum uterine infection Leiomyoma Invasive cervical cancer Ovarian neoplasia M/C cause of cesarean/peripartum hysterectomy is PPH.
2
Placenta accreta
Couvelaire uterus
Atonic uterus with uncontrolled PPH
Rupture uterus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a2f3cb49-a4fa-46d3-9743-bd1de0ca096e
multi
The parasympathetic secretomotor nerve supply to the nose is
The nerve of the pterygoid canal passes through the pterygoid canal to reach the pterygopalatine ganglion. The parasympathetic fibres relay in this ganglion. Postganglion are parasympathetic fibres arising in the ganglion ultimately supply the lacrimal gland and the mucosal glands of the nose, palate, and pharynx. The gustatory or taste fibres do not relay in the ganglion and are distributed to the palate. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition.
3
Anterior ethmoid nerve
Greater palatine nerve
Vidian nerve
Inferior orbital nerve
Anatomy
Head and neck
702f2177-19eb-46fc-a1e4-972372aaadf9
single
Foot process effacement is seen on EM in ?
Ans. is All 'a' i.e., Minimal change disease, 'b' i.e., Focal segmental GN, 'c' i.e., IgA nephropathyo Foot process effacement is noted in patients with nephrotic syndrome.o A variety of injurious stimuli may cause the podocyte to react with flatteninng or simplification of the foot process architecture.While most commonly noted in lipoid nephrosis (minimal change disease), foot process effacement can also be seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous glomerulonephropathy and in other glomerulonephritis.So, keep in mind that foot process efffacement is seen most commonly in minimal change disease, but can also occur in other glomerulonephropathies causing nephrotic syndrome (FSGS, IgA nephropathy, MPGN) o For option IgA nephropathy is a type of mesangioproliferative GN.
4
Minimal change disease
Focal segmental GN
IgA nephropathy
All
Pathology
null
bcb2dd5b-4db9-4cc5-a1b7-ce725cc2c324
multi
Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is?
null
3
Staphylococcus
Shigella
Chlamydia
Yersinia
Medicine
null
57457e76-0ccb-4fe8-8ee7-05cbef9d1d7e
single
Which of the following drug is category B (adequate studies in pregnant woman have failed to demonstrate a fetal risk)?
Category B drugus are the one that have shown no risks in animal studies, but human studies do not exist or also if adverse effect have been seen in animal studies with no such effect im well controlled human trials. eg.ranitidine,paracetamol. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.564
1
Ranitidine
Pilocarpine
Latanoprost
Dorzolamide
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
40d34782-f2cd-4463-a921-396b1260cd38
single
Which of the following is true regarding Hybridoma Technique
All the following statements are corret.
4
It is a method for production of monoclonal antibodies
B Cells are fused with myeloma cells using polyethylene glycol
HAT medium is used to differentiate fused v/s unfused cells
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
6ed150e0-6324-40a3-8bfb-b716a0175cb9
multi
Hu is defined under section: NEET 14
Ans. 319 IPC
1
319 IPC
320 IPC
321 IPC
323 IPC
Forensic Medicine
null
dbe81316-be72-4dc9-b134-ee55072ac07b
single
Pale infarcts are seen at all of the following sites except-
Ans is 'd' i.e., Lung INFARCTION o An infarct is an area of ischemic necrosis by occlusion of either the aerial supply or venous drainage in a paicular tissue. Pathogenesis o Mostly it is caused by interrupted blood supply. o "Nearly 99% of all infarcts results from thrombotic or embolic events and almost all result. from aerial occlusion". o Other causes of interrupted aerial supply are local vasospasm, extrinsic compression of a vessel by tumor, twisting of vessel e.g., in testicular torsion, expansion of atheroma due to hemorrhage within the plaque. o Venous obstruction usually cause congesion, edema, infarction does not occur because bypass channels rapidly open after the thrombus, providing some outflow from the area, which inturn improves aerial inflow. Infarct cause by venous thrombosis is more likely in organs with a single venous outflow channel, such as in testis and ovary. Types of infarct o Infarcts are classified on the basis of their color. o Infarcts are classified into either Red (Haemorrhagic) or White or Pale (anaemic) infarcts, reflecting the amount of haemorrhage. Red infarcts (Haemorrhagic) : occur with : Venous occlusions (eg ovarian torsion); In loose tissues (such as lungs); In tissues with dual circulation (e.g. Lung & S. intestine) In tissues that were previously congested because of sluggish venous out flow. When flow is reestablilshed to a site of previous aerial occulusion and necrosis. White or Pale infarcts : occur with : Aerial occlusions, or In solid organs e.g. Hea, spleen, Liver, kidney and brain where the solidity of tissue limits the amount of haemorrhage that can seep into the area of ischaemic necrosis.
4
Hea
Spleen
Kidney
Lung
Pathology
null
9d0fc292-fee0-4862-8e40-56b7128a6bb1
multi
All are split - thickness skin graft except
Wolfe graft is full thickness skin graft.
3
Thiersch graft
Padgett graft
Wolfe graft
Blair-Brown graft
Surgery
null
d250a721-a6c3-4c82-aef1-f19effcae5be
multi
Enteropathy type T cell lymphoma is associated with -
Answer- B. Celiac SprueEnteropathy-type- T cell lymphoma is a rare complication of long-standing celiac disease.
2
M.A.L. Toma
Celiac Sprue
Menetrier disease
Crohn's disease
Medicine
null
42f67821-567d-464b-9ea9-c0f7153fd39c
single
Fine touch is transmitted via:
Ans. A. The dorsal lemniscal systema. Lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature;b. Anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch;c. All other sensations are carried by dorsal lemniscal.
1
The dorsal lemniscal system
The anterior spinothalamic tract
The lateral spinothalamic tract
The cerebellopontine tracts
Physiology
Nervous System
4d7125b4-f5d7-4c00-a87b-8d2304559eb5
single
A young 25 year old man following A presented with proptosis (pulsatile in nature) ,chemosis and pain in right eye after 4 days. On Examination there was bruit on forehead and right eye. The probable diagnosis is
B i.e. Carotico cavernos Fistula
2
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Carotico cavernous Fistula
Fracture sphenoid
Internal Carotid Aery Aneurysm
Ophthalmology
null
63171850-88da-4d16-ad44-4419876674c0
single
BERA can be most accurate from which gestation?
Ref: Clohertys Manual of Neonatal Care, 6th edition. Page 646 and ENT DhingraExplanation:"ABR is reliable after 34 weeks postnatal age. "Ref: ClohertyBRAINSTEM EVOKED RESPONSE AUDIOMETRY (BERA)Other nameso Auditory brainstem responses (ABR)o Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER)o Brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP).Measures the electroencephalographic waves generated hy the auditory system in response to clicks through three electrodes placed on the infant's scalp.The characteristic waveform recorded from the electrodes becomes better defined with increasing postnatal age.ABR is reliable after 34 weeks postnatal age.At present, because of the increased risk of injury to the auditory pathway beyond the cochlea (auditory nerve) including auditory dyssynchrony, ABR is the preferred screening method to evaluate hearing loss in the NICE graduate.Non-invasive technique to find integrity of central auditory pathways through the 8th cranial nerve, pons and midhrain.Electrical potentials are generated in response to several click stimuli or tone-bursts and picked up from the vertex by surface electrodes.It measures hearing sensitivity in the range of 1000 - 4000 Hz.In normal person. 7 waves are produced in the first 10 milliseconds.The 1st, 3rd and 5th waves are most stable and are used in measurements.Parameters studied in waveforms:o Latencyo Inter-wave latencyo Amplitude.The exact anatomic site of neural generators are:o Wave 1 - Distal part of CN 8.o Wave 2 - Proximal part of CN 8 near the brainstem.o Wave 3 - Cochlear nucleuso Wave 4 - Superior olivary complexo Wave 5 - Lateral lemniscuso Wave 6 & 7 - Inferior colliculus.UsesScreening for hearing in infants.To determine the threshold of hearing in:o Infants.o Children.o Uncooperative adultso Malingerers.To diagnose retroeochlear pathology (e.g.: Acoustic neuroma).To diagnose brainstem pathology (e.g.: Multiple sclerosis or Pontine tumors)To monitor CN 8 intraoperatively in surgery of acoustic neuromas to preserve the function of cochlear nerve.
3
30 weeks
32 weeks
34 weeks
28 weeks
ENT
Hearing Loss
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single
Parapharygeal space is also known as
Parapharyngeal space is situated on the side of the pharynx. It is pyramidal in shape with the base at the base of the skull and apex at the hyoid bone. It contains carotid vessels, jugular vein, last 4 cranial nerves and cervical sympathetic chain. Ref: Diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 301
3
Retropharyngeal space
Pyriform sinus
Lateral pharyngeal space
Pterygomaxillary space
ENT
Pharynx
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single
A patient undergoing chest x-ray following an automobile accident is found to have an enlarged mediastinum with bilateral hilar and right paratracheal adenopathy. The patient has been asymptomatic, but careful examination demonstrates an enlarged cervical lymph node. This node is biopsied and demonstrates involvement by small, non-caseating granulomas. Occasional giant cells with stellate inclusions are seen within the granulomas. These are most likely which of the following?
The cells described are asteroid bodies, and are classically associated with sarcoidosis, although they are not completely specific for this disease. Anitschkow cells are a form of activated histiocyte with an unusual wavy chromatin. They are found within inflammatory lesions called Aschoff bodies in the heas of patients with acute rheumatic hea disease. Paget's cells are individual adenocarcinoma cells found within the squamous epithelium of the skin.
3
Anitschkow cells
Aschoff bodies
Asteroid bodies
Paget's cells
Pathology
null
98c3413d-8056-4956-9828-5beb051e2612
multi
Which of the following is not true about Mumps: March 2007
Ans. B: Incubation period is less than 14 Incubation period of mumps is 14-18 days The more common symptoms of mumps are: Parotid inflammation/ parotitis in 60-70% of infections. Fever Headache Orchitis, referring to painful inflammation of the testicle.Males past pubey who develop mumps have a 30 percent risk of orchitis. There is no specific treatment for mumps. Mumps viral infections in adult males carries a 25% risk that the testes may become infected which in rare cases leads to sterility. After the illness, life-long immunity to mumps generally occurs. Complications Infection of other organ systems Sterility in men (this is quite rare, and mostly occurs in older men) Mild forms of meningitis (rare, 40% of cases occur without parotid swelling) Encephalitis (very rare, rarely fatal) Profound (91 dB or more) but rare sensorineural hearing loss, uni- or bilateral Pancreatitis manifesting as pain abdomen and vomiting Oophoritis (inflammation of ovaries) but feility is rarely affected.
2
Caused by paramyxovirus
Incubation period is less than 14 days
Orchitis is a common complication in males
Aseptic meningitis is a commoner complication in children
Medicine
null
7cf95b23-c2c6-416b-8f04-1b61b0df3d2b
multi
All are true regarding Scheuermann's osteochondritis except?
Scheuermann's osteochondritis has autosomal dominant inheritance. It commonly affects adolescent boys. It is characterised by irregular ossification of veebral endplates and dorsal kyphosis. Most patients are asymptomatic. It can present with backache which is aggravated by exercise. Management is by protective postural exercises with avoidance of excessive activity. Ref: Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, p1130
2
Dorsal kyphosis
Autosomal recessive inheritance
Predominantly affects adolescent boys
Irregular ossification of veebral endplates
Medicine
All India exam
18f1f812-6c33-4640-904c-e533d07f8517
multi
Which among the following electrolyte disturbance following diarrhoea can cause convulsions?
Hyponatremia can result from diarrhea, vomiting, burns, diuretic administration, and administration of sodium-poor parenteral solutions. Seizures and coma usually are associated with severe hyponatremia and may be life-threatening. Acute hypernatremia usually is caused by severe water depletion with diarrhea especially in children. Ref: Harrison's 17th edition, chapter 46
2
Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia
Medicine
null
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single
All are true about liver adenoma except
Clinical features Symptomatic ( upper abdominal pain) in 50-75%, related to hemorrhage or local compressive symptoms Two major risks - Rupture and malignant transformation Pathology Composed of cords of benign hepatocytes containing increased glycogen and fat, without bile ductules, fibrous septa, poal tracts or central vein Normal architecture of the liver is not seen in these lesions Central large plates of hepatocytes separated by dilated sinusoids which are perfused solely by peripheral aerial feeding vessels(lack poal venous supply), under aerial pressure Hemorrhage and necrosis are commonly seen
1
Normal liver architecture
Increased fat
Increased glycogen
Cells arranged in cords
Anatomy
G.I.T
56e18036-e4d2-4a52-a9ce-f08fefc48044
multi
First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy: (PGI Dec 2007)
Ans. A (Microaneurysm) [Ref Khurana 4th/260-62; Parson 20th/294-98}"The earliest detectable lesion is microaneurysms in the macular area" -Khurana 4th/260Diabetic Retinopathy: Classification- 4 types Khurana 4th/260-62Non-proliferative Diabetic RetinopathyMicro aneurysmQ in macular area (the earliest detectable lesionQ)Retinal haemorrhage both deep (dot & blot haemorrhage) & superficial haemorrhages (flame shaped)Hard exudateQRetinal oedemaCotton-wool spotQProliferative Diabetic RetinopathyPDR develops in >50% of cases after about 25 years of the onset of diseaseThe hallmark Q of PDR is the occurence of neovasculari- ation'i over the changes of very severe NPDRVitreous detachment & vitreous haemorrhage may occurDiabetic MaculopathyMacular edemaQ is termed as clinically significant macular edemaChanges in macula affect visionD.Maculopathy-4 subtypeFocal exudative maculopathyDiffuse exudative maculopathyIschaemic maculopathyMixed maculopathyAdvanced Diabetic Eye DiseasePersistent vitreous haemorrhageTractiona! retinal detach m entQNeovascularglaucoma Q
1
Microaneurysm
Hard exudates
Soft exudates
Cotton Wool spots
Ophthalmology
Vascular Disorders
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Phase I trial is done to test:
Ans. D. PharmacokineticsPhase I trial is also called First in human trial. In this phase, 10-100 healthy people are enrolled to calculate pharmacokinetic data. Phase 0 trials are also done sometimes prior to phase I studies to calculate early pharmacokinetic data. Phase II and III trials usually enrol patients. Phase II trials enrol 50-100 and usually determine drug efficacy and dose ranging. Phase III trials confirm the efficacy in larger population (100-1000). Phase IV trials are also known as postmarketing studies which determine safety (adverse drug reactions, adverse events, and drug-drug interactions). Even safety of long-term drug treatment can be determined in Phase IV trials which can be missed in clinical trials due to limited duration of clinical trials.
4
Safety
Efficacy
Dose
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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single
New infectious agents are -
A new genus Henipavirus has been recently identified with the Nipah and Henda viruses causing zoonotic outbreaks. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:515
1
Nipah virus
Pneumocystis jieruveci
Corona virus
SARS
Microbiology
Virology
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single
All of the following are tumor markers, except
Beta-2 microglobulin and not beta macroglobulin may be used as a tumor marker (as in multiple myeloma).
4
CEA
HCG
Alpha-fetoprotein
Beta-2 macroglobulin
Pathology
null
5292a5ee-7e19-426f-b0a4-20a07af51d58
multi
Felty syndrome is characterised by A/E
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thrombocytopenia Felty's syndrome is characterized by the combination of rheumatoid ahritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia. The condition is more common in those aged 50-70 years, and is more prevalent in females than males
4
Rheumatoid ahritis
Splenomegaly
Neutropeni
Thrombocytopenia
Pediatrics
null
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single
Inversion of foot is at
C. i.e. Talocalcaneal joint
3
Talocalcaneonavicular joint
Calcaneocuboid joint
Talocalcaneal joint
Inferior tibiofibular joint
Anatomy
null
52f4ab9b-7c18-4f58-897a-a54c73703718
single
The motility of cell is due to protein-
Functions of Microtubules include determination of cell shape and various cell movements.
2
Motilin
Tubulin
Laminin
Tactilin
Physiology
null
a6a7bf87-ad7b-4df1-aace-9c360b80df9f
single
After the first postoperative year of cardiac transplantation, the most common cause of death is
Chronic graft rejection is manifested in cardiac allografts as chronic vascular rejection of main and intramuscular coronary arteries. Myointimal proliferation and medial scarring result in diffuse and eccentric arterial narrowing referred to as accelerated graft atherosclerosis. Infection remains the primary cause of death within the first year of cardiac transplant, but accelerated graft arteriosclerosis is the most common cause of mortality thereafter. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, coronary artery bypass grafting, and re-transplantation are the current options for combating this problem.
3
Infection
Arrhythmia
Accelerated graft arteriosclerosis
Acute rejection episode
Surgery
Transplantation
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single
Shape memory is seen in:
null
2
Stainless steel wire
NITINOL wire
TMA wire
Aluminium
Dental
null
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single
Thyroid carcinoma associated with hypocalcemia is
Answer is B (Medullary Carcinoma) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid secretes calcitonin and this causes reduction in calcium levels.
2
Follicular carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
Medicine
null
8ba15321-64eb-47d5-8b73-6e9e087a39bc
single
Fetal abdominal circumference is measured at the level of :
Abdominal Circumference (AC) is measured in the transverse section of the fetal abdomen at the level of the fetal stomach and the umbilical poion of the poal vein.This is usually affected in IUGR and is less useful in dating as it is the parameter most affected by fetal growth. Refer page no 479 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition.
1
Stomach and umbilical vein, perpendicular to spine
Kidneys
Stomach parallel to spine
Liver and spleen
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in obstetrics
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multi
A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple erythamatous annular lesions with a collarette of scales at periph-ery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
C i.e. Pityriasis rosea Pityriasis rosea is a self limiting disorderQ of unknown etiology, with a suspected association with Herpes virus 7 and 6Q. It presents with development of usually asymptomatic (i.e. no prodromal or constitutional system), sharply (well) demarcated, larger (2-6 cm), annular (oval-round), erythematousQ (red to brown) lesion k/a primary/herald/mother patch mostly located on trunk in children and young adults (10-35 yrs)( 2. Similar but smaller secondary eruptions appear in crops at interval of usually 2 weeks distributed along lines of cleavage in christmas (fir) tree appearanceQ. Lesions demonstrate fine (cigarette paper) collarette of scaleQ just inside the peripheray of plaque.
3
Pityriasis versicolor
Pityriasis alba
Pityriasis rosacea
Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Skin
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Which of the following is a stain for fat cells?
ANSWER: (C) Sudan IVREF: See APPENDIX-24 for "HISTOLOGY/PATHOLOGY/ MICROBIOLOGY STAINS" APPENDIX - 24Histology/Pathology/Microbiology StainsT issue/substanoeStainCommentAmyloidGross stainingLugol's iodine Light microscopyH & E, Congo redPolarised lightCongo redMetachromatic stainMethyl violet, crystal violetFluorescent stainThioflavin TNon specific stainPAS, Toludine blue. Aldan blueCaldum/calcificationVon kossa Alizarin Red SFor small quantitiesCalcein Tetracycline labellingBest for bone mineralizationConnective tissueVan Gieson stain (Picric Add + Acid Fuchsin)Simplest method of differential staining of Collagen and other Connective TissueTrichome stain (Gomori trichrome stain, Lillie's trichome & Masson trichome)Red = keratin/muscleBlue/green = bone /'collagenPink = cytoplasmCarcohydrate (Glycogen, cellulose etc)Periodic acid-Schiff stainNon specific for glycogenDiastaseSpecific for glycogenBest's carmine LipidSudan stains{Sudan III, IV, Sudan Back-B, Oil Red 0)Oil Red O largely replaced Sudan III and Sudan IVOil Red O is also used in a technique for staining latent fingerprintsOsmium tetra oxideAs a lipid stain, it is useful in scanning electron microscopy (SEM)LipofuscinSudan Black B MucinMuscarmineMost specific but less usefulPASMost sensitive, For neutral mucopolysaccharidesAlcian blue Bismark brownCan be used with live cellsColloidal iron Micro organismsFungiH & EBluePASRedGomori methamine silverMost sensitiveMycobacteriumZ N stain/methodCarbol fuchsinAuramine Rhodamine stainMost sensitive, mixture of Auramine O and Rhodamine B, used in fluorescence microscopySpirochetesWarthin starry silver stain H PyloriWarthin starry silver stainGiemsa stainH&E Pneumocystis/ Cryptococcus/ cocci diomycetesGomori methamine silver
3
PAS
Prussian blue
Sudan IV
Alcian blue
Pathology
Histo Pathology
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In a person with HIV-1 infection, which of the following is the most predictive of the patient's prognosis
Amplification assays (-PCR, DNA PCR, and b DNA tests) are routinely used to detect viral RNA in clinical specimens. The tests can be quantitative when reference standards are used, and appropriate positive and negative controls must be included in each test. Because these molecular based tests are very sensitive, they form the basis for plasma viral load determinations. It is generally agreed that the amount of HIV in the blood (viral load) is of significant prognostic value. There are continual rounds of viral replication and cell killing in each patient, and the steady-state level of virus in the blood varies with individuals. A single measurement of plasma viral load approximately 6 months after infection can predict the risk of development of AIDS in men several years later. In women, viral load appears to be less predictive. The plasma viral load appears to be the best predictor of long-term clinical outcome, whereas CD4 lymphocyte counts are the best predictor of sho-term risk of developing an oppounistic disease. Plasma viral load measurements are a critical element in assessing the effectiveness of antiretroviral drug therapy. Ref:- Baveja textbook of Microbiology
3
CD4+ cell count
CD4:CD8 cell ratio
Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma
Degree of lymphadenopathy
Microbiology
Virology
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single
All of the following are biochemical markers included for triple test except
Triple test It is a combined biochemical test which includes MSAFP,hCG,UE3(unconjugated oestriol).Maternal age in relation to confirmed gestational age is also taken into account.It is used for the detection of Down&;s syndrome.In an affected pregnancy,level of MSAFP and UE3 tend to be low while that of hCG is high.It is performed in 15-18 weeks. D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS,pg no:106,7th edition
3
Alfa-fetoprotein
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Human placental lactogen (HPL
Unconjugated oestriol
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in obstetrics
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multi
Maximum collagen in wound healing is seen at which stage of healing
ref Robbins 9/ep106-108 When the levels of collagen production and degradation equalize, the maturation phase of tissue repair is said to have begun. During maturation, type III collagen, which is prevalent during proliferation, is replaced by type I collagen.Originally disorganized collagen fibers are rearranged, cross-linked, and aligned along tension lines. The onset of the maturation phase may vary extensively, depending on the size of the wound and whether it was initially closed or left open, ranging from approximately 3 days to 3 weeks. The maturation phase can last for a year or longer, similarly depending on wound type.
3
End of first week
End of second week
End of third week
End of 2months
Anatomy
General anatomy
edbfe6fe-21c2-4743-98c2-e0c7426c7a9d
single
Elective endodontic treatment is contraindicated in
null
2
Angina patients
Recent MI
Diabetes
Hypertension
Dental
null
ac0b04af-936c-4c5f-b4ac-507813dd5b38
single
Which of the following is not a High Risk Characteristic in proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy Early PDR- Presence of new vessels High risk PDR NVD >= 1/3 - 1/2 disc area or NVD and Vitreous or Preretinal haemorrhage or NVE >= 1/2 disc area and Preretinal or Vitreous haemorrhage
4
NVD >= 1/3 - 1/2 disc area
NVD + Vitreous or Preretinal haemorrhage
NVE >= 1/2 disc area and Preretinal or Vitreous haemorrhage
NVD + Clinically signifacnt macular edema
Ophthalmology
Retina
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multi
Normal aqueous production rate -
Aqueous humour is derived from plasma within the capillary network of ciliary processes.The normal aqueous production rate is 2.3ml/min. Ref:ophthalmology -AK khurana -6th edition chapt:10 page no:221
3
2 ml/min
5 ml/min
2ml/min
5 ml/min
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
d02718fd-e241-4256-ae93-467655317154
single
Ex-Press giaueoma implant is oiaily up of:
Ans. d. Stainless steel
4
Silicone
Titanium
Gold
Stainless steel
Ophthalmology
null
4f8f7930-288a-452d-8d93-86a9bd6aede3
single
A 45 year - male presents with abrupt onset pain, weakness, loss of contour of shoulder and muscle wasting on 5deg day of tetanus toxoid immunization. Likely cause is:
Brachial plexus neuritis Ref: Basic neurology [By John Gilroy 3/e p594; "Brachial plexus neuritis is characterized by a sudden paralysis of muscles supplied through the brachial plexus and is often associated with painful dysesthesia of the arm. The condition occurs in known viral infections (herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr virus), following injections of tetanus toxoid, in putative viral infections; and as an autobnmune disorder following a surgical procedure."- Basic neurology By John Gilroy 3/e p594 Brachial plexus neuritis usually is characterized by the acute onset of excruciating unilateral shoulder pain, followed by flaccid paralysis of shoulder and parascapular muscles several days later. The syndrome can vary greatly in presentation and nerve involvement. Brachial neuritis (BN) exists in an inherited and an idiopathic form. In the idiopathic version, the pathophysiology is unknown, but the condition is generally thought to be an immune system - mediated inflammatory reaction against nerve fibers of the brachial plexus. The onset of pain in brachial neuritis (BN) is often abrupt and may follow recent illness, surgery, immunization, or even trauma (see Causes, below). Up to two thirds of cases begin during the nighttime. Sensory abnormalities are of usually of less intensity than the pain and muscle weakness. Causes: The exact cause of brachial neuritis is unknown, but the condition has been linked to many antecedent events or illnesses, as follows: Viral infection (paicularly of the upper respiratory tract) Bacterial infection (eg, pneumonia, diphtheria, typhoid) Parasitic infestation S urgery 2 Trauma (not related to shoulder) Vaccinations (eg, influenza, tetanus, diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, peussis [DPT J. smallpox, swine flu) Childbih Miscellaneous medical investigative procedures (eg, lumbar puncture, administration of radiologic dye) Systemic illness (eg, polyaeritis nodosa, lymphoma, systemic lupus erythematosus, temporal aeritis, EhlersDanlos syndrome) A rarer, hereditary form of BN has been localized to the SEPT9 gene on chromosome arm 17q and should be considered a distinct disorder. This entity presents in a younger age group, and is characterized by recurrent, often bilateral attacks. Dysmorphic facial features (eg, hypotelorism, long nasal bridge, facial asymmetry) can also be present. Diagnosis: Other causes of severe pain, such as an acute herniated cervical disc, should be excluded. In brachial plexus neuritis, electromyography and nerve conduction studies reveal abnormalities in more than one nerve; in contrast, cervical radiculopathy may show osteophytes and interspace narrowing on cervical spine x-rays and neuroforaminal disc impingement of MRI. Treatment: of brachial plexus neuritis is suppoive, with analgesics for pain, physical therapy to maintain shoulder strength/mobility, and reassurance that the condition generally will improve, albeit slowly.
3
Hysterical
Radial nerve entrapment
Brachial plexus neuritis
Thoracic outlet syndrome
Anaesthesia
null
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single
MOST common acute complication of hemodialysis is:
Hypotension is the most common acute complication of hemodialysis. It is paicularly common among patients with diabetes mellitus. The factors that appear to increase the risk of hypotension, are excessive ultrafiltration with inadequate compensatory vascular filling, impaired vasoactive or autonomic responses, osmolar shifts, overzealous use of antihypeensive agents, and reduced cardiac reserve. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2324.
3
Muscle cramps
Anaphylaxis
Hypotension
Arrythmias
Medicine
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single
Which of the following decreases effectiveness of insulin -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thiazide o Thiazide, furosamide, coicosteroids, oral contraceptives, salbutamol, nifedipine tend to raise blood sugar and reduce effectiveness of insulin.
1
Thiazide
Atropine
b-blockers
Acute alcohol ingestion
Pharmacology
null
261a31e5-a2c6-43c1-a968-36d399308efb
single
Causes of exudative retinal detachment are all except -
Occurs due to the retina being pushed away by a neoplasm or accumulation of fluid beneath the retina following inflammatory or vascular lesions. Etiology: Systemic diseases- toxaemia of pregnancy, retinal HTN, blood dyscrasias. Ocular diseases- scleritis, central serous retinopathy, orbital cellulitis, retinoblastoma, malignant melanoma of choroid. Ref: Khurana 5th edition , page no 298
3
Toxemia of pregnancy
Scleritis
High myopia
Central serous retinopathy
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
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multi