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Morula is how many ceiled -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 16 o At about 16 cells stage the blastomeres tightly align by the process of compaction to form a compact ball of cells called morula (mulberry ).o This process of compaction leads to segregation of cells into two groups :Inner cells (inner cell mass)Outer cells (outer ceil mass)o Morula enters uterine cavity 4 days after fertilization.
4
4
8
12
16
Anatomy
Fertilization and Development of Embryo
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single
Culex mosquito transmits:
Ans: D (Japanese encephalitis) Ref: 21st edition Park.Explanation:The diseases transmitted by various insects are* Anopheles mosquito- MalariaFilaria (not in India)Culex mosquitoBancroftian FilariasisJapanese EncephalitisWest Nile feverViral Arthritis (epidemic / polyarthritis)Aedes mosquitoYellow fever (not in India)DengueDengue Haemorrhagic feverChikungunya feverChikungunya haemorrhagic feverRift Valley feverFilaria (not in India)Mansonoides mosquitoMalayan (Brugian) filariasisChikungunya feverHouseflyTyphoid and paratyphoid feverDiarrhoeaDysentryCholeraGastroenteritisAmoebiasisHelminthic infestationsPoliomyelitisConjucntivitisTrachomaAnthraxYawsSandflyKala-azarOriental SoreSandfly feverOraya FeverTsetse FlySleeping SicknessLouseEpidemic TyphusRelapsing FeverTrench FeverPediculosisRat FleaBubonic PlagueEndemic TyphusChiggerosisHymenolepis diminutaBlack FlyOnchocerciasisReduvid BugChagas DiseaseHard TickTick TyphusViral EncephalitisViral FeversViral Hemorrhagic fevers (eg KFD)TularemiaTick ParalysisHuman BabesiosisSoft TickQ FeverRelapsing FeverTrombiculid MiteScrub TyphusRickettsial PoxItch-miteScabiesCyclopsGuinea WormFish Tape wormCockroachesEnteric Pathogens
4
Yellow fever
Dengue fever
Tularemia
Japanese encephalitis
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
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single
Carbohydrate tumor marker for breast cancer:
Carbohydrate-rich tumor markers are specific antigens found either on the surface of tumor cells or may also be secreted as products by the tumor cells. CA: carbohydrate antigen/cancer antigen. Specific Proteins Immunoglobulins Multiple myeloma and other gammopathies Prostate-specific antigen and prostate-specific membrane antigen Prostate cancer Mucins and Other Glycoproteins CA-125 Ovarian cancer CA-19-9 Colon cancer, pancreatic cancer CA-15-3 Breast cancer CA 125: tumor marker of primary ovarian cancer of surface epithelial subtype.
1
CA 15-3
CA 125
CA 34
CA 19-9
Pathology
JIPMER 2017
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Which of the following is the action of the lateral pterygoid muscle on the temporomandibular joint?
Depression of the mandible or opening of the mouth is produced mainly by the lateral pterygoid helped by gravity.Elevation is produced by the medial pterygoid, temporalis and masseter.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head Neck, and Brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.148
2
Elevation
Depression
Adduction
Abduction
Anatomy
Head and neck
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single
Oedema aquosum occurs in :
A i.e. Wet drowning
1
Wet drowning
Dry drowning
Secondary drowning
Immersion syndrome
Forensic Medicine
null
0840315d-19cb-4836-89bb-704187ee49ed
single
Absolute contraindication for Transvaginal sonography
Imperforate hymen and patient refusal are the only absolute contraindications for Transvaginal sonography.
2
Placenta previa
Imperforate hymen
Abruptio placenta
Abnormal uterine bleeding
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f747bf68-aa24-4ceb-a245-b439736bd960
single
Learned Behaviour which is permanent and consistent but liable to change
null
2
Culture
Practice
Attitude
Socialism
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b2faae8d-fee0-41cd-88ef-cf02f3a2eba1
single
65 year old Ramdeen presents with Abdominal pain and distension of abdomen. His stools were maroon coloured and he gives a past history of cerebrovascular accident and myocardial infarction. What will be the probable diagnosis -
null
2
Ulcerative colitis
Acute mesentric ischemia
Irritable bowel syndrome
Chron's disease
Surgery
null
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single
Checkpoint for stability of fixation of ZMC fracture:
null
1
Zygomaticomaxillary
Zygomaticofrontal
Arch symmetry
Infraorbital rim
Surgery
null
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single
Peripheral smear may show vacuolated lymphocytes in all of the following EXCEPT?
Peripheral smear may show vacuolated lymphocytes in: Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis Fucosidosis Sialidosis Abetalipoproteinemia- acanthocytosis
1
Abetalipoproteinemia
Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis
Fucosidosis
Sialidosis
Pediatrics
Disorders of Carbohydrate Metabolism
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multi
Vocal cord palsy is not associated with:
Vocal cord paralysis is most commonly iatrogenic in origin following surgery to Thyroid, parathyroid, carotid or cardiothoracic structures. Neck trauma Benign or malignant thyroid disease Thyroid surgery Carcinoma cervical oesophagus Cervical lymphadenopathy
1
Veebral secondaries
Left atrial enlargement
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Secondaries in mediastinum
ENT
null
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single
The sequence of events in glycogenolysis?
Phosphorylase, Glucan transferase, Debranching, Phosphorylase Enzymes of glycogenolysis come into play in the following sequence : (i) Glycogen phosphorylase → (ii) Glucan transferase → (iii) Debranching enzyme.
1
Phosphorylase, Glucan transferase, Debranching, Phosphorylase
Debranching, Phosphorylase, transferase, phosphorylase
Transferase, phosphorylase, Debranching, phosphorylase
Any of the above
Biochemistry
null
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multi
Which of the following amino acid in a protein is involved in urea cycle and is required for synthesis of Nitric Oxide?
.
1
Arginine
Histidine
Tryptophan
Lysine
Pathology
All India exam
538dabe7-9dda-49ef-b826-2bd65ec7b9bc
single
Changes in the respiratory system in pregnancy;
Anatomical changes:The lower ribs flare out,the subcoastal angles increases from 68 to 103 degree,transverse diameter of chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises about 4cm in pregnancy. Functional changes:Increase in ventilation in pregnancy is achieved by an increase in tidal volume by 40%.Minute ventilatory volume also increases.There is no change in vital capacity.The functional residual capacity and residual volume are decreased due to elevated diaphragm. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.80
4
Vital capacity is increased
Subcostal angle remains unchanged
Tidal volume remains unaltered
Residual volume Is decreased
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
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SLE like syndrome is caused by:
Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 1967
4
Hydralazine
Phenytoin
Procainamide
All of the above
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
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multi
Cefoxitin - cycloserine fructose agar is used for ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridium difficle Cefoxitin - cycloserine fructose agar (CCFA) is an enriched selective and differential medium recommended for the isolation and cultivation of clostridium difficle from fecal specimens.
2
Neisseria
Clostridium difficle
Bacillus anttacis
Reiter's treponema
Microbiology
null
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Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by:
Ans. B. Fumarylaceto Acetate HydrolaseAmino acidurias and enzyme defectClassic Phenyl KetonuriaPhenylalanine HydroxylaseAlkaptonuriaHomogentisate OxidaseTyrosinemia Type I (Most common Tyrosinemia)Fumaryl Aceto Acetate HydrolaseTyrosinemia Type IITyrosine TransaminaseTyrosinemia Type IIIPara Hydroxy Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase/Para hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate DioxygenaseHawkinsinuriaPara Hydroxy Phenyl Pyruvate hydroxylase/Para hydroxyl Phenyl Pyruvate Dioxygenase is mutant, so that it catalyse only partial reaction.Segawa SyndromeGTP CyclohydrolaseAlbinismTyrosinase
2
Tyrosine transaminase
Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
4 Hydroxy phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
Maleyl acetoacetate isomerase
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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Drug used in Toxoplasmosis is :
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Pyrimethamine Doc for Toxoplasmosis - Pyrimethamine and Trimethoprim
1
Pyrimethamine
Ribovarin
Ganciclovir
Tetracycline
Pharmacology
Anti-Helminths
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The best method to assess the adequacy of replacement of fluid in a case of shock is:
The primary goal in fluid resuscitation for all forms of shock is the same: restoration of adequate end organ perfusion. Urine output is a quantitative and relatively reliable indicator of organ perfusion. It is a reflection of kidney perfusion and function and an indicator of renal, cardiovascular, and fluid volume status. Must know: Signs of a successful initial resuscitation: Improved blood pressure Improving level of consciousness Improving peripheral perfusion Decreasing tachycardia Decreasing lactate Normalizing pH Ref: Holcroft J.W., Anderson J.T., Sena M.J. (2010). Chapter 12. Shock & Acute Pulmonary Failure in Surgical Patients. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment:
3
Decrease in thirst
Increased PaO
Increase in urine output
Blood pressure
Physiology
null
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True regarding gypsum bonded investments is:
After dehydration all forms of gypsum shrink between 200-400° C. Between 400 and 700° C, a slight expansion is noted. Lateral shrinkage in gypsum is caused due to the decomposition and the release of sulfur dioxide. It is imperative, that gypsum investment should not be heated above 700° C. Phillip’s 12th edition page 201
4
After dehydration all forms of gypsum shrink between 200-400 degree Celsius.
Between 400-700 degree Celsius a slight expansion is noted.
Lateral shrinkage in gypsum is caused due to decomposition and release of sulphur dioxide.
All of the above
Dental
null
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True about primary gastric lymphoma is
Ans. is 'd' i.e., H pylori infection increases the risk o The stomach is the most common site for extranodal lymphoma. Nearly al! gastric lymphomas are B-cell lymphomas of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MAL T lymphoma),o Majority of cases (80%) are associated with chronic gastritis and H. Pylori infection. The most striking evidence linking H. Pylori gastritis to MALToma is that eradication of infection by antibiotics induces durable remission with low rate of recurrence.o Gastric lymphoma represents 5% of all gastric malignancies. It is most prevalent is sixth decade of life.o Like other tumors of mature B cells, MALTomas express B-ceil markers CD 19 and CD 20. They do not express CD 5, CD 10 and CD 23.o Diagnosis is made by endoscopic biopsy.o Gastric lymphomas are chemosensitive and chemotherapy alone or along with surgeiy is used for the treatment of gastric lymphoma.o MALT lymphoma (Moltoma) produce lympho-epiihelial lesion in stomach.
4
Affects young adults
Surgery is never indicated
T cell lymphoma
H pylori infection increases the risk
Pathology
Hallmarks of Cancer
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Which of the following is not discarded in yellow bag?
Answer: D. Sharp waste. Types of Bio-medical waste Bio-medical waste means "any solid and/or liquid waste including its container and any intermediate product, which is generated during the diagnosis, treatment or immunization of human beings or animals or research activities pertaining thereto or in the production or testing of biological or in health camps. Biomedical waste poses hazard due to two principal reasons - the first is infectivity and other toxicity. Bio Medical waste consists of Human anatomical waste like tissues, organs and body parts Animal wastes generated during research from veterinary hospitals Microbiology and biotechnology wastes Waste sharps like hypodermic needles, syringes, scalpels and broken glass Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs Soiled waste such as dressing, bandages, plaster casts, material contaminated with blood, tubes and catheters Liquid waste from any of the infected areas Incineration ash and other chemical wastes The biomedical waste (BMW) management requires its categorisation as a first step. The BMW Rules classify the BMW into following categories. CATEGORIES OF BIOMEDICAL WASTE SCHEDULE - I CATEGORY TYPE OF WASTE TYPE OF BAG OR CONTAINER TO BE USED TREATMENT AND DISPOSAL OPTION Yellow Human tissues, organs, body parts and fetus below the viability period (as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971, amended from time to time). Yellow coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags Incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or deep burial * Animal Anatomical Waste : Experimental animal carcasses, body parts, organs, tissues, including the waste generated from animals used in experiments or testing in veterinary hospitals or colleges or animal houses. Soiled Waste: Items contaminated with blood, body fluids like dressings, plaster casts, cotton swabs and bags containing residual or discarded blood and blood components. Incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or deep burial * In absence of above facilities, autoclaving or micro-waving/ hydroclaving followed by shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent for energy recovery. Expired or Discarded Medicines: Pharmaceutical waste like antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs including all items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs along with glass or plastic ampoules, vials etc. Yellow coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers Expired cytotoxic drugs and items contaminated with cytotoxic drugs to be returned back to the manufacturer or supplier for incineration at temperature >1200 0 C or to common bio - medical waste treatment facility or hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility for incineration at >1200 0 C Or Encapsulation or Plasma Pyrolysis at >1200 0 C All other discarded medicines shall be either sent back to manufacturer or disposed by incineration. Chemical Waste: Chemicals used in production of biological and used or discarded disinfectants. Yellow coloured containers or non-chlorinated plastic bags Disposed of by incineration or Plasma Pyrolysis or Encapsulation in hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facility . Chemical Liquid Waste : Liquid waste generated due to use of chemicals in production of biological and used or discarded disinfectants, Silver X - ray film developing liquid, discarded Formalin, infected secretions, aspirated body fluids , liquid from laboratories an d floor washings, cleaning, house - keeping and disinfecting activities etc. Separate collection system leading to effluent treatment system After resource recovery, the chemical liquid waste shall be pre - treated before mixing with other wastewater. The combined discharge shall conform to the discharge norms given in Schedule - III. Discarded linen, mattresses, beddings contaminated with blood or body fluid. Non-chlorinated yellow plastic bags or suitable packing material Non - chlorinated chemical disinfection followed by incineration or Plazma Pyrolysis or for energy recovery. In absence of above facilities, shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent for energy recovery or incineration or Plazma Pyrolysis . Microbiology, Biotechnology and other clinical laboratory waste: Blood bags, Laboratory cultures, stocks or specimens of micro - organisms, live or attenuated vaccines, human and animal cell cultures used in research, industrial laboratories, production of biological, residual toxins, dishes and devices used for cultures. Autoclave safe plastic bags or containers Pre - treat to sterilize with non - chlorinated chemicals on - site as per National AIDS Control Organisation or World Health Organisation guidelines thereafter for Incineration. Red Waste (Recyclable) Wastes generated from disposable items such as tubing, bottles, intravenous tubes and sets, catheters, urine bags, syringes (without needles and fixed needle syringes ) and vaccutainers with their needles cut) and gloves. Red coloured non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers Autoclaving or micro - waving/ hydroclaving followed by shredding or mutilation or combination of sterilization and shredding. Treated waste to be sent to registered or authorized recyclers or for energy recovery or plastics to diesel or fuel oil or for road making, whichever is possible. Plastic waste should not be sent to landfill sites. White (Translucent) Waste sharps including Metals: Needles, syringes with fixed needles, needles from needle tip cutter or burner, scalpels, blades, or any other contaminated sharp object that may cause puncture and cuts. This includes both used, discarded and contaminated metal sharps Puncture proof, Leak proof, tamper proof containers Autoclaving or Dry Heat Sterilization followed by shredding or mutilation or encapsulation in metal container or cement concrete; combination of shredding cum autoclaving; and sent for final disposal to iron foundries (having consent to operate from the State Pollution Control Board s or Pollution Control Committee s) or sanitary landfill or designated concrete waste sharp pit. Blue Glassware: Broken or discarded and contaminated glass including medicine vials and ampoules except those contaminated with cytotoxic wastes Cardboard boxes with blue colored marking Disinfection (by soaking the washed glass waste after cleaning with detergent and Sodium Hypochlorite treatment) or through autoclaving or microwaving or hydroclaving and then sent for recycling. Metallic Body Implants * Disposal by deep burial is permitted only in rural or remote areas where there is no access to common bio - medical waste treatment facility. This will be carried out with prior approval from the prescribed authority and as per the Standards specified in Schedule - III. The deep burial facility shall be located as per the provisions and guidelines issued by Central Pollution Control Board from time to time.
4
Human waste
Microbiological waste
Solid waste
Sharp waste
Unknown
null
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Spongiosis is seen in ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute eczemao Spongiosis is the accumulation of edema fluid within the intercellular space of epidermis and is characteristic of acute eczematous dermatitis.
1
Acute eczema
Lichen Planus
Psoriasis
Pemphigus
Pathology
null
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who gave the psychosocial stage of development
ERIC ERIKSON ERIC ERIKSON gave the psychosocail stages of development There are 8 psychosocial stages A person has to succesfully pass one stage to move to the next stage If he gets arrested in one stage he may develop some disorders Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no. 485
1
erikson
bleuler
freud
lorenz
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
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Unilateral clubbing seen in -a) Samilial clubbingb) Pancoast tumorc) Pulmonary A-V fistula d) Aortic aneurysm (arch)e) Congenital cyanotic heart ds.
null
1
bcd
acd
ac
bd
Medicine
null
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Which of the following medicaments is indicated to obturate the canals of a primary tooth in which a pulpectomy was performed?
Zinc Oxide Eugenol  Most commonly used. Bonastre (1837) discovered zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) and it was subsequently used in dentistry by Chisholm (1876).  Zinc oxide eugenol paste, the first root canal filling material to be recommended for primary teeth, as described by Sweet in 1930.  Zinc oxide eugenol is said to have anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties.  Its limitations are slow resorption, irritation to the periapical tissues, necrosis of bone and cementum and alters the path of erupting teeth.  When ZOE mixture is used, thin mixture is used to coat the walls of the canal, followed by a thick mixture that can be manually condensed into the lumen of the canal.  Barr et al. showed 82.3 percent clinical success rate, Gould showed 86.1 percent, Coll et al. showed 86.1 percent clinical success rate.  Barcelos et al. showed 85 percent of clinical success with ZOE but the overfilling was evident even after evaluation period. Reference: Pediatric Dentistry by Nikhil Marwah 3rd ed, page  no 672
3
Gutta-percha
Calcium hydroxide
Zinc oxide-eugenol
Calcium hydroxide-CMCP paste
Dental
null
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A 55-year-old woman who has a history of severe depression and had a radical mastectomy for carcinoma of breast one year back develops polyuria nocturia and excessive thirst - Laboratory values are as follows: Serum sodium 149 m Eq/L, Serum potassium 3.6 m Eq/L, Serum calcium 9.5 mg/dl, Glucose 110 mg.dl, Bun 30 mg/dl, Urine osmolarity 150 in Osm kg. The most likely clinical diagnosis would be -
null
4
Psychogenic polydipsia
Renal glycosuria
Hypercalcicuria
Diabetes insipidus
Medicine
null
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B cell maturation takes place in -
The key cells in our immune system are lymphocytes known as B cells and T cells, which originate in our bone marrow. After T cells fuher develop in our thymus. Reff: www.mayoclinic.com
3
thymus
Lymph node
Bone marrow
Spleen
Microbiology
Immunology
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In type I collagen, telopeptide corresponds to-
Ans. D. Both COOH and NH2-terminals superhelical conformationStructure of collagen molecule:-Pro-collagen is comprised of two alpha-1 chains and one alpha-2 chain intertwined into a triple helix. Pro-peptide domains at the carboxy-terminals and amino-terminals are cleaved, resulting in formation of mature collagen. When collagen is degraded, during physiological turnover or pathological adverse remodeling, telopeptide (from the amino- terminals or carboxy-terminals) are cleaved and released into the plasma.Urinary crosslinked N-terminal telopeptide and C terminal telopeptide of type 1 collagen are used as markers of bone resorption in osteoporosis.
4
COOH-terminal with super helical conformation NH2- terminal with super helical conformation
Both COOH and NH2-terminals are not super helical conformation
Both COOH and NH2-terminals super helical conformation
Both COOH and NH2-terminals super helical conformation
Biochemistry
Structure & Function of Protein
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Arrange the following nerves according to incidence of their involvement in Supra-condylar fracture of humerus a. Median nerve b. Radial nerve c. Anterior interosseous nerve d. Ulnar nerve
AMRU- Sequence of nerve involvement in SCF A- Anterior Interior Nerve M- Median Nerve R- Radial Nerve U- Ulnar nerve =Mechanism of injury-fall on outstretched hand(FOOSH) =TYPES- extension type most common (95-98%),flexion type less common (<5%). =Complications of supracondylar fracture of the humerus: Malunion leading to cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) Median nerve injury leading to pointing index sign Volkmann's ischemic contracture Vascular compromise - Rx- Urgent reduction in the OT and vascular status reassessed If perfusion is not restored, urgent exploration of the brachial aery is done
2
c,a,d,b
c,a,b,d
a,c,b,d
d,a,b,c
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injury
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Movements taking place during abduction of shoulder joint are all except:
Medial rotation of scapula Abduction of the ann involves rotation of the scapula as well as movement at the shoulder joint.For every 3deg abduction, a 2 deg abduction occurs in the shoulder joint & 1 deg abduction occurs by rotation of the scapula (forward rotation round the chest wall i.e. lateral rotation). Rotation of the scapula is facilitated by movements at the sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints.Also know: Abduction is initiated by the supraspinatus but the deltoid muscle is the main abductor.
1
Medial rotation of scapula
Axial rotation of humerus at acromioclavicular joint
Elevation of humerus
Movements at clavicular end of sternoclavicular joint
Anatomy
null
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A newborn baby has severe facial abnormalities, as shown below. What could be the underlying CNS abnormality in this baby?
c. HoloprosencephalySingle eye (cyclopia) with a tubular-shaped nose (proboscis), are usually seen in a child with Holoprosencephaly
3
Lissencephaly
Dandy walker malformation
Holoprosencephaly
Iniencephaly
Pediatrics
Central Nervous System
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Method of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is termed as:Affinity chromatography
Ion exchange chromatography is the chromatography in which molecules are separated on the basis of charge. Ref: Applications of High Performance Liquid Chromatography By Andrew Pryde, Mary T. Gilbe, Pages 50, 53; Biochemistry By Reginald Garrett, Charles M. Grisham, Page 127.
2
Affinity chromatography
Ion - Exchange chromatography
Adsorbtion chromatography
Size - Exclusion chromatography
Biochemistry
null
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Sphenopalatine foramen is 1 cm behind
null
3
Superior Turbinate
Middle Turbinate
Inferior Turbinate
Tonsil
ENT
null
3ff2d048-e172-4416-b9b9-fd66360ce294
single
Which ion is added in OPV vaccine acts as stabilizer
null
2
Sodium
Magnesium
Chloride
Potassium
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Costochondral junction swelling are seen in -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above
4
Scurvy
Rickets
Chondrodystrophy
All of the above
Pediatrics
null
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Hirschberg test is used to detect
Hirschberg corneal reflex test: It is a rough but handy method to estimate the angle of manifest squint. In it the patient is asked to fixate at point light held at a distance of 33 cm and the detion of the corneal light reflex from the centre of pupil is noted in the squinting eye. Roughly, the angle of squint is 15deg and 45deg when the corneal light reflex falls on the border of pupil and limbus, respectively. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-327
2
Optic atrophy
Squint
Glaucoma
Field defects
Ophthalmology
Ocular motility and squint
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A 6 yr old child with Acute onset of fever of 104o fever developed febrile seizure was treated. To avoid recurrence of seizure attack what should be given ?
Oral clobazam (benzodiazepines) is an effective prophylaxis and is given during fever episodes for 3 days Ref Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 557
2
Paracetamol 400 mg and phenobarbitone
Oral diazepam 6 hourly
Paracetamol 400 mg 6 hourly
IV Diazepam infusion over 12 hourly
Pediatrics
Central Nervous system
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single
Probing and irrigation is not done in -
Main treatment consist of topical and systemic antibiotics and anti inflamatory analgesics . Ref :ak khurana 6th edition pg no:395
2
Lacrimal fistula
Acute dacryocystitis
Congenital dacryocystitis
Trauma to eye
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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Candidiasis is associated with all except -
1. Predisposing factors of Candidiasis are: Extremes of age (infancy, old age) Pregnancy Low immunity Patients on broad spectrum antibiotics Diabetes mellitus, febrile neutropenia, Zinc or Iron deficiency. Candida is not associated with IUCD users It can increase chances of PID.
2
Neutropenia
IUCD user
Diabetes
Pregnancy
Microbiology
Mycology
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multi
A 17-year-old boy is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the risk that one of his siblings will develop the disease?
The risk of developing schizophrenia in first degree relatives of schizophrenic patients is elevated compared to the risk of the general population (0.9%). Parents of schizophrenic patients have a lifetime prevalence of 11%, and siblings have a prevalence of 9%. Identical twins have a 50% chance of suffering from schizophrenia if their sibling has it. Children of schizophrenics have a lifetime prevalence of 12.8%. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 310
3
2%
5%
9%
20%
Psychiatry
Mood disorders
20538a9a-b5e9-4879-9ff2-d648b2ae083f
single
A 6 year old female child reported with a chief complaint of proclined upper anteriors. Parents give a history of prolonged bottle-feeding and a persistent thumb sucking habit. Clinical examination reveals anterior open bite with proclined upper anterior and retroclined lower anterior teeth and associated tongue thrusting. In thumb sucking, protraction of the maxillary teeth is seen:
null
1
When the pollex is held upward against the palate
When the pollex is held downward against the tongue
When the pollex is held inward against the cheek
None of the above
Dental
null
0a4074c4-d530-4e2c-a2d5-75a4e05ea1eb
multi
Which of the following functionally componetent of largest unit of the ribosomes
(Catalyzes formation of the peptides) (436 - Lippincott's 4th)Polyribosome {Polysome) is used when several ribosomes simultaneously translate on a singe mRNA* The large ribosomal subunit catalyzes formation of the peptide bonds that link amino acids residues in a protein.* The small subunit binds mRNA and is responsible for the accuracy of translation by ensuring correct base- pairing between the codon in the m RNA and the anticodon of the tRNA
3
tRNA
mRNA
Catalyze formation of the peptides
Formation of the polyribosomes
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
26c3e903-15dc-4d01-b815-21f968d37342
multi
River blindness is caused by -
pathogenesis and clinical features The infective larvae deposited in the skin by the bite of the vector develop at the site to adult worms .Adult worms are seen singly, in pairs , or in tangled masses in the subcutaneous tissues ocular manifestations range from photophobia to gradual blurring of vision , progressing to total blindness. Ref : panikers textbook of medical parasitology 8th edition page 222
1
Onchocerca
Loa loa
Ascaria
B. Malayi
Microbiology
parasitology
f7b895c8-2529-4e78-b2e7-091bd28a46e3
single
Which of the following is false regarding HPV virus regarding oncogenesis
High-risk HPV types express oncogenic proteins that inactivate tumour suppressors, activate cyclins, inhibit apoptosis, and combat cellular senescence.Thus, it is evident that HPV proteins promote many of the hallmarks of cancer.(Refer: Robbins & Cotran's - Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol I-pg no: 325-327)
3
Express oncogenic proteins
Inactivate tumor suppressors,
Inactivate cyclins
Inhibit apoptosis,
Anatomy
All India exam
05a7e41a-058a-4540-85fb-ef6b011837e5
multi
The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately:
All alloys shrink when they change from liquid to solid. The casting shrinkage in gold alloys is less (1.25 to 1.65%) when compared to base metal alloys. Mannapalli 3 ed page no 276
2
0.40%
1.40%
2.40%
3.40%
Dental
null
b57d30e2-94bd-4576-a56a-2d7c53e6ecf2
multi
A 9-year-old girl develops widespread pinpoint skin hemorrhages. She recovered from a fl u-like illness 1 week earlier. Laboratory findings reveal a platelet count of 20,000/mL but no other abnormalities. Her bone marrow shows an increased number of megakaryocytes. The platelet count is normal after 2 months. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura -quantitative disorder of platelets caused by antibodies directed against platelet or megakaryocytic antigens -related to antibody-mediated immune destruction of platelets or their precursors. -The peripheral blood smear in ITP exhibits numerous large platelets, and the bone marrow shows a compensatory increase in megakaryocytes. - C/F Petechia Purpura Hemorrhagic bullae Gum bleeding Hematuria Melena *Thrombocytopenia may be observed in the other choices but is usually associated with other systemic signs and symptoms.
4
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Pathology
Bleeding disorder
00e0dcac-97a3-4624-b07f-8cef1b672d5e
single
When an antigen is administered for the first time to an animal or a human being who has never been exposed to it, the first antibody to develop-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgM type
2
IgG type
IgM type
IgA type
IgE type
Microbiology
null
584237b5-e777-4d84-bd33-9b6fa9292e5c
single
In chronic alcoholism which of the following is seen
D i.e. All
4
Delirium tremens
Wernike's syndrome
Korsakoff psychosis
All of the above
Forensic Medicine
null
37bd58b5-2993-4c1d-ba26-5b96c67657fd
multi
What is the definition of society –
Society A society is a body of individuals of species, generally seen as a community or group, that is outlined by the bounds of functional interdependence, comprising also possible characters or conditions such as cultural identity, social solidarity or eusociality. Human societies are characterized by patterns of relationships between individuals that share a distinctive culture or institution. The importance of society lies in the fact that it controls and regulates the behavior of the individual both by law and customs. It can exert pressure on the individuals to conform to its norms. In short, society is a vast network of relationships and compulsions that propel, direct and constrain man's individual efforts. Sociology is the study of society and social behavior.
2
System of social relationship between individuals
Social relationship between families
Interaction of individuals and people
Relationship of individual family and the country
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
dd3c398f-01f1-4f50-94c5-b7991b721e08
single
A 50 year old lady comes to your OPD. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
The above image shows Mitral facies which are seen in Mitral stenosis. Mitral stenosis may present with rosy cheeks, whilst the rest of the face has a bluish tinge due to cyanosis. In severe Mitral stenosis low cardiac output state produces vasoconstriction, peripheral cyanosis is often seen in lips, tip of nose and cheeks. Occasionally along with these, malar flush is seen due to vasodilation (vascular stasis) in malar area.
4
Aoic Stenosis
Aoic Regurgitation
Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis
Medicine
Murmurs
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single
About Cushing syndrome all are true except:
c. Hypoglycemia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2714-2723, Ghai 8/e p 526-527)Hyperglycemia is a feature of Cushing's syndrome and not hypoglycemia.
3
Purple striae
Plethora
Hypoglycemia
Obesity
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
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multi
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of –
DUCHENNE MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY (PSEUDO HYPERTROPHIC MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common hereditary neuromuscular disease affecting all races and ethnic groups. Inheritance: X linked recessive Presentation occurs between ages 3 and 5 Pathogenesis Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for producing dystrophin. Dystrophin is `subsarcolemmal protein' localized to the inner surface of the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. Dystrophin is part of Dystrophin - Glycoprotein sarcolenzmal complex and this protein deficiency leads to secondary loss of sarcoglycans and dystroglycans resulting in weakness of sarcolemma, causing membrane tears and muscle fibre necrosis. Clinical manifestations: Gower's sign is positive Pseudohypertrophy of the calf is seen (muscle is replaced by fat & connective tissue) Loss of muscle strength is progressive. Proximal muscles and neck flexors are involved more Leg involvement is more severe than arm involvement. Contractures of heel cords and iliotibial band occurs (by age of 6 years) progressive scoliosis develops. Complications: Chest deformity (scoliosis): Impairs pulmonary function By age of 16 and 18 years patients are predisposed to serious pulmonary fatal infections. Cardiac: Cardiomyopathy and CHF may be seen Cardiac cause of death is uncommon Intellectual impairment: is common (IQ is one SD below the mean)
2
Neuromuscular junction
Sarcolemmal proteins
Muscle contractile proteins
Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
Pediatrics
null
9fc8b8ee-4a3b-424c-b539-bd13f6be6d40
single
The ratio of chest compressions to ventilation in a newborn is
If the hea rate does not improve after 30 sec with bag-and-mask (or endotracheal) ventilation and remains below 100 beats/min, ventilation is continued and chest compression should be initiated over the lower third of the sternum at a rate of 90 compressions/min. The ratio of compressions to ventilation is 3 : 1 (90 compressions:30 breaths). If the hea rate remains <60 beats/min despite effective compressions and ventilation, administration of epinephrine should be considered.Ref: Nelson; 20th edition; Page no: 845
3
1:01
2:01
3:01
4:01
Pediatrics
New born infants
45c49f9b-1952-45c9-aaa5-b81cec4a1699
single
Auenbrugger's sign is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pericardial Effusion o Auenbruger 's sign is an epicardial bulging due to massive pericardial effusion.Auenbrugeer frsieno It represents bulging of the epigastrium that may be seen in case of severe pericardial effusion.o The auenbrugger s sign is seen in large pericardial effusion.o During a large pericardial effusion an epigastric bulge is present,o This represents large pericardial effusion extending subxiphoid.o Compression of this bulge may cause hemodynamic compromise and cardiac tamponade.Signs in pericardial effusion : -Sign PresentationFriedreich's sign-Sudden collapse inthe distended neck veins with diastole suggests pericardial tamponade.Pitres's sign-Anterior bidging of the lower sternum suggests pericardial effusion.Auenbrugger's sign-Protuberance/Bulging of the epigastrium suggests massive pericardial effusion (Sign on inspection).Sansom s sign-Percussible dullness in the left third intercostal space suggests large pericardial effusion.Greene's sign -Lateral displacement of the percussed cardiac border with expiration suggests a large pericardial effusions.Ebstein's sign A large pericardial effusion can blunt the percussible righ cardiomyopathic angle producing dullness along the lower right sternal border.Rotch's sign-Dullness at the right lower sternal border suggests large pericardial effusion.Moschcowitz s sign-In pericardial effusion, the transition on percussion from the lungs in the right heart border is abrupt.Ewart's sign-A large pericardial effusion produces egophony and bronchial breathing at the lower border of the left scapula.Ewart's second sign-A large pericardial effusion makes the first rib seen more prominent along the sternal border.Dressier 's sign-Is dullness to percussion of the lower one half of the sternum.The Dressier sound is aflat sound on percussion the lower half or two third of the sternum. In the absence of mitral stenosis, this finding 'should at once arouse suspicion of pericardial effusion '.Bamberger's sign-Dullness at the angle of the scapula that disappears when the patient leans forward is Bamberger s sign of pericardial effusion.Dullness at the left lower lung field is Ewart s sign ofpericardial effusion, while right-sided dullness is Conner s sign. Disappearance of Ewart s or Conner s signs when the patient sits up and leans forward is Bambeiger s sign of pericardial effusion.
1
Pericardial Effusion
Constrictive pericarditis
Aortic Regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis
Medicine
Pericardial Disease
3710bd21-b8b8-48a3-a6d7-bf0ef7126c6d
single
Reverse transcriptase is
null
2
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Biochemistry
null
fa405930-1d11-4304-ab81-ae2483082e15
single
The most sensitive index for renal tubular function is
The main function of renal tubules is the concentration of urine and this can be measured by the specific gravity of urine.
1
Specific gravity of urine
Blood urea
GFR
Creatinine clearance
Physiology
null
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single
Skip lesions are seen in
in ileocaecal tuberculosis,.Ulcerative--commonest 60%. Circumferential transverse often multiple 'girdle' ulcers - with skip lesions. It i common in old, malnourished people. skip lesions are typical in the case of crohn&;s diseaseskip lesions are also observed in wet gangrene and necrotizing enterocolitis . ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 513
2
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
Typhoid
Tuberculosis
Surgery
G.I.T
c578e074-2063-40bd-bcb2-e46852c541f6
single
In TRIAGE system for disaster management, Red colour code indicates?
Ans. c (High priority or transferable cases) (Ref. Park Textbook of PSM 22nd/pg.741)TRIAGEIt consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of the severities of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.Four colour coding# Red - High priority or transferable cases# Yellow - medium priority# Green - ambulatory patients# Black - dead or moribund patients.
3
About to die patients
Uninjured patients
High priority or transferable cases
Dead or moribund cases
Social & Preventive Medicine
Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health
58cf02fc-c186-41e4-bcca-ff8c8bcc53c1
single
Following are common features of malignant gastric ulcer on barium meal except:
Ans. Location on the greater curvature
1
Location on the greater curvature
Carman's meniscus sign
Radiating folds which do not reach the edge of the ulcer
Lesser curvature ulcer with a nodular rim
Radiology
null
e2b859fe-53e8-4c9b-8233-307992d061f0
multi
A 6-year-old boy had been in his normal state of good health until a few hours prior to presentation to the emergency department. His mother reports that he began to have difficulty walking, and she noticed that he was falling and unable to maintain his balance. Which of the following is the most likely to allow diagnosis of his condition?
Cerebellar ataxia in childhood can occur in association with infection, metabolic abnormalities, ingestion of toxins, hydrocephalus, cerebellar lesions, multiple sclerosis, labyrinthitis, polyradiculopathy, and neuroblastoma. Although a muscle biopsy might help identify muscular dystrophy, the finding of a triplet repeat expansion on chromosome 9 might identify Friedreich's ataxia, and finding skin telangiectasia might help identify ataxia telangiectasia, none of these would be expected to cause acute ataxia but rather more chronic symptoms. Ingestion (intentional or accidental) of barbiturates, phenytoin, alcohol, and other drugs also must be considered. Agenesis of the corpus callosum is usually diagnosed by imaging studies; however, it does not cause acute ataxia.
1
Obtain urine drug screen.
MRI to evaluate his corpus callosum.
Close scrutiny of his skin for telangiectasia.
Perform a muscle biopsy of the gastrocnemius muscle.
Pediatrics
Musculo Skeletal Disorders
7812346b-b0b5-4627-8154-6dd2904b98c6
multi
False positive test of protein in dipstick test seen in -a) Chlorpropamideb) IV contrast agentc) Viral infectiond) IV administration of drugs
False positive dipstick test is given by- Concentrated urine, gross hematuria, presence of mucus, semen or leukocytes, highly alkaline urine (>7pH), iodinated IV contrast agent, contaminated with chlorhexidine, benzalkonium, penicillin, aspirins, oral hypoglycemic agents (e.g. chlorpropamide). False positive dipstick test is given by- Non-albumin proteins, albumin in a small amount.
1
ab
a
ad
bc
Biochemistry
null
44a09039-0397-4409-88eb-5bcd181c7135
multi
17-year-old boy presented with complain of petechiae. O/E ,sternal tenderness is present. BM biopsy show hypercellularity and more than 20% Lymphoblast. Peripheral smear show ||| TLC and presence of lymphoblast . On X ray. retrosternal mass is seen. All are true about condition patient is suffering except?
Above patient is most likely suffering from T-cell ALL. Points in our of above diagnosis: Peak at pubey Retrosternal mass More than 20% Lymphoblast( Tdt +, PAS +) in BM ||| TLC Lymphoblast present in blood Less common than B cell ALL Thymus ++ Notch gene mutation Gain of function Poor prognosis CD1/2/5/7 positive Immunophenotyping of immature T-cell phenotype : Tdt/CD34/CD7 positive
1
It has good prognosis
Notch gene mutation present
An immature T-cell phenotype (Tdt/CD34/CD7 positive)
Thymic involvement is seen
Pathology
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
66aff348-070c-4e54-9ca6-c0c398c4c438
multi
Best Investigation to assess tubal patency:
null
4
Rubin's test
HSG
Laparotomy
Laparoscopic chromtubation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
107ef114-86cc-412b-882d-9252b6ab4445
single
Posterior gastric aery is a branch of
The fundic branches of the stomach can be defined as a group of vessels that can arise either directly or indirectly from the following source aeries: the left inferior phrenic aery, the accessory left hepatic aery, the left gastric aery, the left middle suprarenal aery, the main trunk of the splenic aery Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg277
1
Splenic aery
Hepatic aery
Left Gastric aery
Right Hastric aery
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
982bc630-53b0-4431-bc0c-24dfad256bed
single
All are derived from branchial arch EXCEPT?
Ans. (a) Ultimobranchial bodyRef: Inderbir Singh's Embroyology, 7th ed. /119-120* In humans, the ultimobranchial body is an embryological structure that gives rise to the calcitonin-producing cells--also called parafollicular cells or C cells--of the thyroid gland.* In humans, this body is a derivative of the ventral recess of the fourth pharyngeal pouch.* Stapes: from 2nd Branchial arch* Laryngeal cartilage: from 6th branchial arch* Mandible: from 1st branchial arch
1
Ultimobranchial body
Stapes
Laryngeal cartilage
Mandible
ENT
Embryology of Ear and Malformations
81828e15-a701-49b0-9a34-2ba5fc1e35fb
multi
In atropine instillation, all are seen except:
Ans. C.)Increased water content to tear. Causes of decreased tear formation: Idiopathic, congenital alacrima, xerophthalmia, lacrimal gland ablation, and sensory denervation. Collagen vascular diseases, including relapsing polychondritis, rheumatoid ahritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Sjogren's syndrome and other autoimmune diseases are associated with aqueous tear deficiency. Drugs such as isotretinoin, sedatives, diuretics, tricyclic antidepressants, antihypeensives, oral contraceptives, antihistamines, nasal decongestants, beta-blockers, phenothiazines, atropine, and pain relieving opiates such as morphine can cause or worsen this condition. Infiltration of the lacrimal glands by sarcoidosis or tumors, or postradiation fibrosis of the lacrimal glands Mode of action of Atropine (i) gives comfo and rest to the eye by relieving spasm of iris sphincter and ciliary muscle, (ii) prevents the formation of synechiae and may break the already formed synechiae, (iii) reduces exudation by decreasing hyperaemia and vascular permeability and(iv) increases the blood supply to anterior uvea by relieving pressure on the anterior ciliary aeries. As a result more antibodies reach the target tissues and more toxins are absorbed.
3
Dilated pupil
Paralysis of accommodation
Increased water content to tear
Decreased water content to tear
Ophthalmology
null
8e6c3f69-7d9a-454b-ad38-d9770867e635
multi
Chalcosis is seen with-
*Chalcosis refers to the specific changes produced by the alloy of copper in the eye. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.452
2
Pb
Cu
Fe
Hg
Ophthalmology
Ocular trauma
23787236-6241-44b3-b752-cfafe9180a86
single
In juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME), which is the most common presentation?
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JANZ syndrome) - Polygenetic inheritance, Strong family history - Onset: 10 -19 yrs. - Myoclonic Jerk (early morning) and prominent in morning after awakening. Consciousness is preserved unless severe - EEG: 4-6 Hz Polyspike pattern seen. - May develop GTCS in future and in 30% will also develop absence seizure in future Rx - Valproate (lifelong)
3
GTCS during sleep
GTCS on awake state
Myoclonus
Absence seizures
Medicine
Epilepsy and EEG
42a6f6e3-e758-433a-bc9e-0d42a9e08043
single
The aim of post marketing pharmacokinetics is
(Safety and comparisons with other medicines) (43-Bennett & Brown) (61-62-GG)Pharmacokinetics - what the body does to the drag. This refers to movements of the drug in and alteration of the drug by the body; includes absorption, distribution, binding/localization/storage, biotransformation and excretion of the drug (1-KDT)* Post licensing (marketing) studies of safety and comparisons with other medicines (43-BB)Pharmacodynamics - What the drug does to the body. This includes physiological and biochemical effects of drugs and their mechanism of action at macromolecular/subcellular/ organ system levels.Post marketing detection of adverse reaction - several strategies exist to detect adverse reactions after marketing of a drug, but debate continues about the most efficient and effective method. Formal approaches for estimation of the magnitude of an adverse drug effect are the follow-up or "cohort" study of patients who are receiving a particular drug, the "case control" study where the potential for a drug to cause a particular disease is assessed, and meta-analysis of pre and post marketing (61-62-Goodman & Gillman's 10th)
4
Efficacy of the drug
Dosage of the drug
Deals with alteration of the drug includes absorption, distribution, binding / storage
Safety and comparisions with other medicines
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
c61e1ba9-8e7f-44d4-bda5-0e04fe2d46f4
single
Women receiving estrogen therapy have an increased risk of development of all of the following EXCEPT:
null
3
Breast cancer
Endometrial cancer
Carcinoma of the gall bladder
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Pharmacology
null
b7d8ea1d-aee4-4344-884c-b34a8fe78e3e
multi
Efferent pathway for milk ej ection reflex -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oxytocin Milk ejection reflexo Milk ejection is normally initiated by a neuroendocrine reflex.o The receptors involved are the touch receptors, which are plentiful in the breast-especially around the nipple,o Impulses generated in these receptors are relayed to the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei,o Discharge of the neurons causes secretion of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.o Oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells, smooth muscle - like cells that line the ducts of the breast,o This squeezes the milk out of the alveoli of the lactating breast into the large ducts (sinuses) and thence out of the nipple ready to flow into the mouth of the waiting infant,o In lactating women, genital stimulation and emotional stimuli also produce oxytocin secretion, sometimes causing milk to spurt from the breasts.
2
Prolactin
Oxytocin
ACTH
Growth hormone
Physiology
Pituitary
a6c2dd05-bbda-4de4-aef4-b02a19c6ddb1
single
All of the following are features of wet gangrene except
In wet gangrene there is no line of demarcation.
2
Spreads faster
Line of demarcation
Arterial and venous block
Not Localised
Surgery
null
a1f703e1-ef63-486d-98bf-bf8ac525a113
multi
A 8 yr old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. On examination, he is found to have splenomegaly; there are no signs of ascites, or hepatomegaly; esophageal varices are found on upper GI endoscopy. Most likely diagnosis is:
The diagnostic criteria of NCPF includes splenomegaly, normal liver function test, esophageal varices (90-95% cases), patent hepatic and poal veins and no evidence of cirrhosis on biopsy. Based on this criteria, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis. Ref: Arun J. Sanyal, Vijay H. Shah (2005), Chapter 25, "Noncirrhotic Poal Hypeension and Poal Vein Thrombosis", In the book, "Poal Hypeension: Pathobiology, Evaluation and Treatment", USA, Pages 411-12 ; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 15th Edition, Page 1759
4
Budd chiari syndrome
Cirrhosis
Veno-occlusive disease
Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis
Pediatrics
null
02a8a7a8-223d-4fa2-8eb1-eb80307dbe73
single
Which of the following NSAID is preferred in treatment of dysmenorrhoea
null
3
Indomethacin
Ketorolac
Mefenamic acid
Naproxen
Pharmacology
null
e882bbe7-e64e-4381-ad21-740766e34e87
single
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors should not be given in
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors(CAIs)are more likely to produce acidosis in patients of COPD,CRF and DM.They are contraindicated in COPD as they may precipitate respiratory acidosis. They are sulfonamides in structure,so should not be given in hypeensitive persons.
1
Sulfonamide hypersensitivity
Glaucoma
High altitude sickness
Metabolic acidosis
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
f3f3db02-5a89-4d17-a1a7-d8c1f6921fdf
single
True about Insulinoma is:
Insulinoma b-cell tumor Benign C peptide level is elevated Most common of pancreatic Neuro-endocrine neoplasms Produce sufficient insulin to induce clinically significant hypoglycaemia MEN 1 syndrome- Associated with 3-Ps Pancreas:- Gastrinoma, Insulinoma Pituitary tumor Parathyroid
3
Alpha cell tumor
Most of them are malignant
C-peptide level is elevated
It is not associated with MEN 1 syndrome
Pathology
Miscellaneous
75c002c4-46a3-4c3f-a9eb-9a74de435959
multi
A 5-year-old boy presents with Severe ptosis associated with poor levator function. Which of the following will be the treatment?
Ans. (a) Frontalis Suspension surgery(Ref: Kanski 8/e, p. 45; Parsons 22/e, p. 464; Yanoff 4/e, p. 1273)Brow (frontalis) suspension is used for severe ptosis (> 4 mm) with very poor levator function (< 4 mm) in simple congenital ptosis or occurring due to 3rd nerve palsy, blepharophimosis syndrome and following unsatisfactory previous LPS resection. The tarsal plate is suspended from the frontalis muscle using a sling made of either fascia lata or silicone/prolene
1
Frontalis Suspension surgery
Levator resection
Mullerectomy
Fasnella servat operation
Ophthalmology
Orbit
ab4f2185-9e5c-45b3-9877-e7330db26804
single
A complicated case of diveicular disease is defined as diveicula with?
.DIVEICULAR DISEASE OF THE COLON * They are acquired herniations of colonic mucosa through circular muscles at the points where blood vessels penetrate (points of least resistance). * It is more commonly localised to sigmoid colon (90%) but occasionally seen in full length of the colon. Rectum is not affected. saint's triad (5%) includes *Diveiculitis *Hiatus hernia *Gallstones.Complications of diveiculitis * Perforation and pericolic abscess or peritonitis * Progressive stenosis and intestinal obstruction * Profuse colonic haemorrhage (17-20%) * Fistula formation (5%)--vesicocolic, vaginocolic, enterocolic, colocutaneous. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 820
2
Abdominal pain
Abscess and perforation
Constipation or diarrhea
Diveicular bleeding
Surgery
Urology
cc326ba5-8dce-434d-a32f-e8b13fced49b
single
Which of the following is a voluntary organization -
Voluntary health organisations of India: 1.Indian red cross 2.Hind kusht nivaran sangh 3.Indian council for child welfare 4.Tubercukosis association of India 5.Bharath sevak samaj 6.Central social welfare board 7.The Kasthurba memorial fund 8.Famaily planning association of India 9.All India womens conference 10.All India blind relief society 11.professional bodies 12.International agencies like CARE Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 916
1
TB association of India
Directrate of Health Service
Indian Medical Council
Council of Medical Research
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health care of community & international health
85bb7548-0b76-4294-b963-d9f3e6d7b2f5
single
SA Node is located at
SA node is situated at the atriocaval junction in the upper pa of the sulcus terminalis B D CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX-VOLUME 1 SIXTH EDITION Page no-262
1
Upper end crista terminalis
Lower end of crista terminalis
At opening of IVC
At ostium primum
Anatomy
Thorax
ce726946-4c40-447b-ab9f-064b43256c69
single
Process by which an individual gradually aquires cultureand becomes a member of a social group is called ?
Socialization It is the process by which an individual gradually acquires culture ad becomes a member of a social group. Example → Internship training programme of doctors gives them an opportunity to learn how to become acceptable to the public at large as doctors. Socialism It is a system of production and distribution based on social ownership for raising the living standard of working class. In other words, socialism is a system of social organization that advocates the vesting of the ownership and control of means of production and distribution, of capital, land, etc. in the community as whole. In contrast to socialism, Capitalism is an economic and social system in which most trade and industry are privately controlled for profit rather than by the state. The means of production (i.e., capital) are owned, operated and traded for the purpose of generating profits by private individuals, either singly or jointly. Culture Culture is defined as "learned behavior which has been socially acquired".
1
Socialization
Accultration
Socialism
Custom
Social & Preventive Medicine
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Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the following electrolytes:-
Hypokalemia is a serious adverse effect of Amphotericin B hence treatment mandates the monitoring of serum K+levels. ADVERSE EFFECTS OF AMPHOTERICIN B: Infusion related reactions are most common adverse effects and require premedication with antihistaminics or glucocoicoids. Dose limiting toxicity is nephrotoxicity manifested by renal tubular acidosis, hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia. It is most common dose dependent adverse effect. It may also result in anemia (due to decreased erythropoietin). * Intrathecal administration may cause seizures and neurological damage. Liposomal AMB, colloidal dispersion (ABCD) and lipid complex (ABLC) are lipid preparations of amphotericin B. These formulations result in decreased accumulation of the drug in tissues like kidney, thus nephrotoxicity is decreased. Some formulations also show decreased incidence of infusion related reactions. However, these new preparations have similar efficacy and antifungal spectrum as possessed by conventional preparations.
3
Ca2+
Na+
K+
Cl-
Pharmacology
Anti-Fungal Drugs
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A 35 year old woman comes to you for routine gynecological examination. You examined her and takes a pap smear which turns out to be normal. She was determined to be a low risk case. At what intervals will you recommend a pap smear examination for her? Note :- She had normal smear in the last 3 consecutive years.
For a woman over the age of 30 years a pap smear is recommended once every 3 years if : HPV DNA is negative, is at low risk for Ca cervix and 3 consecutive annual screening are negative. Also know An annual screening is recommended in women over 30 years if she is : HPV DNA +ve or is at high risk for Ca cervix. Note:- > 70 years, Pap smear need not be done if there have not been a +ve test in the last 10 years. Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 467
3
Annually
Every 2 year
Every 3 year
Every 5 yaer
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Enzyme deficient in alkaptonuria -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Homogentisate oxidaseo Has been explained in previous sessions
2
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Homogentisate oxidase
Tyrosinase
None
Biochemistry
Amino Acid Metabolic Disorder
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Feature of fat embolism includes all except: (PGI Dec 2010)
Ans: D Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma- this is rarely seen . Hence, this statement is wrong. Correct statement is- Usually manifests itself within 24-48 hours of trauma "Sputum & urine mav reveal the presence of fat a lobulesQ"- Maheswari 3rd/34 Fat Embolism Syndrome | | | | Pathophysiology * Fat embolism is a common phenomenon It is more commonly seen in patients with multiple fractures and in fractures (involving lower limb especially femurQ * Fat originates from the site of trauma, particularly from the injured marrow of the fractured bones and the suggestion that the fat arises from the plasma as a result of agglutination of chylomicrons is not supported by the vivo experiments,. * Circulating fat globules > 10 mm in diameter occur in most adults after close fracture of long bonesQ and histological traces of fat can be found in the lungs and other internal oigans. * Few of these patients develop clinical features similar to ARDS and are k/a fat embolism syndrome Clinical Presentation - The patient is usually a young adult with a lower limb (esp. femur) fracture, most commonly after closed fractures of long bone (esp) shaft femurQ and more so when fractures are multipleQ - It usually manifests itself within 24-48 hoursQ, but occasionally the onset may be delayed for several days. - Early warning signs (with in 72 hours of injury) are a slight rise in temperature (pyrexia) and pulse rate (tachycardia) Q - In more pronounced cases there is breathlessness, mild mental confusion or restlessness , PectechiacQ on chest, axillae, retina & conjuctival folds; progressing to marked respiratory distress & coma in severe cases. Management * Prevention: - Rough handling, inadequate immobilization and long journey to reach trauma center predisposing factors that must be avoided in long bone fractures - Fracture stabilization by IM nail * Stopping the emboli from reaching main circulation bytieing profunda vein (? of doubtful value) * Removing fat emboli from circulation by - Lipolytic agents as heparinQ ( serum lipase activity) - Hypertonic glucose (decrease F FA production) * Offset its effect by - Vasodilation e.g. phenxv benzamine - Prompt correction of hypovlemia - Prophylactic use of O2 - DextranQ (expand plasma volume, reduce RBC aggregation and platelet adherence) - Aprotinin (this protease inhibitor) decrease platelet aggregation and serotonin release) - Alcohol has vasodilator & lipolytic effect. * Treatment of Established Case - The aim of treatment is maintaining adequate oxygen level in the ventilation. - Oxygen is the only therapeutic tool of proven useQ. It should be administered in sufficient amount to maintain arterial PO 2 > 80 mm Hg - O2 toxicity (pneumonitis) is avoided by using O2 cone, below 40%. - Steroids are given to avoid chemical pneumonitis resulting from break down of pulmonary fat emboli into FFA - Surface cooling w ill diminish O2 demand.
4
Tachypnoea
Systemic hypoxia may occur
Fat globules in urine are diagnostic
Commonly Manifests after several days of trauma
Unknown
null
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All of the following hereditary conditions predispose to CNS tumors, except
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a genetic disorder in which there is a decreased ability to repair DNA damage such as that caused by ultraviolet (UV) light. Symptoms may include a severe sunburn after only a few minutes in the sun, freckling in sun exposed areas, dry skin and changes in skin pigmentation.it doesn't cause CNS tumors Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2675
4
Neurofibromatosis 1 & 2
Tuberous sclerosis
Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Xeroderma pigmentosum
Medicine
C.N.S
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ACL prevents
Anterior cruciate ligament prevents Posterior dislocation of femur on tibia Anterior displacement of tibia on femur Ref: Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 1394.
4
Anterior displacement of fibula
Posterior displacement of tibia
Anterior displacement of femur
Posterior displacement of femur
Anatomy
Lower limb
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single
Which of the following is not true about bulimia nervosa?
Bulimia nervosa: Characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate ways of stopping weight gain - Purging (self-induced vomiting Weight is normal but there is fear of gaining weight Hypokalemia and Hypochloremia alkalosis Endocrine disorders are seen in anorexia nervosa and not bulimia nervosa.
1
Invariable weight loss with endocrine disorder
Occurrence of both binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors
Recurrent episodes of binge eating
Recurrent self - induced vomiting
Psychiatry
Eating Disorders
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Excessive sexual desire in males is known as
Disorders of Appetitive Phase (Sexual Desire Disorders)1. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder:This disorder is characterised by an absence of fantasies and desire for sexual activity which is not secondary to other sexual dysfunctions, such as premature ejaculation or dyspareunia.This disorder is many times more common in females (previously called as frigidity) and its prevalence increases with age. 2. Sexual aversion disorder and lack of sexual enjoyment disorder:In the sexual aversion disorder, there is an aversion to and avoidance of all sexual activity with a sexual paner. 3. Excessive sexual drive:Rarely, both men (Satyriasis) and women (Nymphomania) may complain of the excessive sexual drive as a problem. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 126
2
Nymphomania
Satyriasis
Triabadism
Sadism
Psychiatry
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
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single
All are true regarding chloroquine, except ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acts only on exoerythrocytic cycle o It is a rabidly acting erythrocytic Schizontacide against all species of plasmodium. o It has no effect on pre and exoerythric stage.
1
Acts only on exo erythrocytic cycle
Acts on DNA and RNA of parasite
Causes pigmentation of nail and mucosa
Infected RBC has more drug
Pharmacology
null
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multi
In the cell membrane, the following is true -
There is lateral diffusion of protein and lipids in membrane.
3
Lipids are regularly arranged
Lipids are symmetrical
Protein displaced laterally
None
Physiology
null
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multi
Which of the following benign condition can mimic cancer in the breast?
The presentations of fat necrosis are protean and can closely mimic cancer as a painless palpable mass, skin thickening or retraction, or mammographic densities or calcifications. About half of affected women have a history of breast trauma or prior surgery.Duct ectasia too can mimic cancerDuct ectasia presents as a palpable periareolar mass that is often associated with thick, white nipple secretions and occasionally with skin retraction. Pain and erythema are uncommon. This disorder tends to occur in the fifth or sixth decade of life, usually in multiparous women. The principal significance of this disorder is that the irregular palpable mass mimics the clinical and radiographic appearance of invasive carcinomaRef: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 1047
2
Accessory Axillary Breast Tissue
Fat necrosis
Fibrocystic disease
Granulomatous Mastitis
Pathology
Breast
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single
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus very much wants to become pregnant. What should her physician tell her regarding pregnancy in lupus patients?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) predominantly affects younger women, and so the question of lupus and pregnancy may arise frequently in clinical practice. Patients with SLE have an increased incidence of spontaneous aboion, fetal death in utero, and prematurity. The mother may experience an exacerbation in the activity of her disease in the third trimester or peripaum period, and it may be difficult to distinguish between active SLE and preeclampsia. Therapy of pregnant patients with SLE is problematic, and the generalist should consult the literature or a specialist when such a patient is encountered.Congenital malformations (choices B, C, and D) are not a complication of pregnancies in patients with SLE. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 54. Connective-Tissue Disorders. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
4
There is no increased risk to the baby.
There may be an increase in cardiovascular malformations
There may be an increase in nervous system malformations.
There may be an increase in spontaneous aboions and prematurity.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Not true regarding meibomian glands
* Meibomian glands open in eyelid margins Meibomian glands Arranged veically More in upper lid than in lower lid Modified sebaceous glands Open in eyelid margins Constitute the oily layer of tear film Internal Hordeolum is the infection of meibomian gland
4
Arranged veically
More in upper lid than in lower lid
Modified sebaceous glands
Open in follicles of eyelashes
Ophthalmology
Lacrimal Apparatus and Eyelid Disorders
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multi
The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization is -
Panretinal photocoagulation is used to prevent fuher neovascularization Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:250 Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:250
3
Goniophotocoagulation
Laser trabeculoplasty
Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)
Laser iridoplasty
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
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single
All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of Pneumocystis carni pneumonia, except?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Cotrimoxazole) is the drug of choice of Pneumocystis carini pneumonia. Other drugs effective in its treatment are dapsone, pentamidine, atovaquone, primaquine and clindamycin. Methylprednisolone is also indicated in HIV positive patients with moderate to severe PCP. Fluoroquinolones are not indicated in its treatment.
4
Pentamidine
Dapsone
Cotrimoxazole
Fluoroquinolones
Medicine
null
ab4e4eb4-4b81-4b58-8801-79e8d581e24b
multi
Best marker for chronic PEM is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Height for age Assessment of PEM* Weight for age = Acute* Height for age = Chronic* Weight for Height = Acute on chronicAge dependent factors* Weight# Height* Head circumference# Chest circumferenceAge independent factor* Mid arm circumference# Kanawati index* Me Laren's index# Quae stick* Shakir tape# Skin fold thickness* Rao & Singh# Dugdale* Jelleff's ration
2
Weight for age
Height for age
Weight for Height
Head circumference
Pediatrics
Nutrition, Food Security, and Health
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single
All are seen in reiter's syndrome except?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Subcutaneous nodules Arthropathy following a recent leisure trip suggests reactive arthritis.Eye involvement points towards Reiter's syndrome.Reactive arthritis refers to acute nonpurulent arthritis, complicating an infection elsewhere in the body.Reiter's syndrome is one of the classic forms of reactive arthritis i.e. an aseptic inflammatory arthritis associated with nonspecific urogenital or bowel infection (with manifestations in the eye).Reactive arthritis is frequently associated with the human leucocyte antigen B27 (HLA - B27) Q haplotype.The etiology of reactive arthritis remains uncertain. The most accepted theory about the pathophysiology of reactive arthritis involves initial activation by a microbial antigen followed by an autoimmune reaction that involves skin, eyes and joints.Two forms of reactive arthritis have been recognized a sexually transmitted form and a dysenteric form.Gastrointestinal infections with, shigella Q, salmonella Q and Campylobacter species and genitourinary infections with chlamydia trachomatis Q have been found to trigger reactive arthritis.The characteristic triad of Reiter's syndromeArthritis Q (polyarthritis, non erosive)Urethritis QConjunctivitis Q
1
Subcutaneous nodules
Oral ulcers
Keratoderma blenorrhagicum
Circinate balanitis
Skin
Autoimmune Skin Disorders
4d479168-dc99-4de6-8775-854e41dedb80
multi
L1 L2 L3 serovar of chlamydia trachomatis cause ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., LGV
4
Trachoma
Inclusion conjuctivitis
NGU
LGV
Microbiology
null
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single