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Cork screw esophagus is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Diffuse esophageal spasm o Radiological appearances of diffuse esophageal spasm have been described as:Curling esophagusCorkscrew esophagus orPseudodiverticulosiso Diffuse esophageal spasm is a motor disorder of esophagus characterized by repetitive simultaneous non-peristal tic contractions.o Symptoms are substernal chest pain and/or dysphagiao Diagnosed by manometry
1
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Achalasia cardia
CA esophagus
Globus hystericus
Surgery
Esophageal Motility Disorders
8389f6b7-61b6-4c03-b83e-90f4af08f749
single
Site of IM injection without injuring any vessels or nerves
(B) Upper outer quadrant of buttock
2
Lower part of insertion of deltoid
Upper outer quadrant of buttock
Lower inner quadrant of buttock
Upper inner quadrant of buttock
Surgery
Miscellaneous
465f2677-85e0-42a3-9151-66705304b932
single
Highest level of integration in health service is?
The Bhore committee in 1946 gave the concept of primary health center as a basic health unit to provide as close to the people as possible an intergrated curative and preventive health care to the rural population with emphasis on preventive and promotive aspects of health care (refer pgno:904 park 23rd edition)
1
PHC
Sub centre
CHC
Distric hospital
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health care of community & international health
750c0914-64f8-45e6-888a-b919a1cea08f
single
Bruxism is mainly due to
null
1
Psychological stress
Diabetes
Functional grinding of teeth
None of above
Dental
null
446bf591-4b9c-4932-bccb-05923be4f061
multi
All of the following are risks seen in administration of pure oxygen to the hypoxic patients, except:
In some patients with severe lung disease, the hypoxic drive to ventilation becomes very important. These patients have chronic CO2 retention, and the pH of their brain extracellular fluid has returned to near normal in spite of a raised pCO2  (renal compensation). Thus, they have lost most of their increase in the stimulus to ventilation from CO2. Under these conditions, the arterial hypoxemia becomes the chief stimulus to ventilation. If such a patient is given a high O2 mixture to breathe to relieve the hypoxemia, ventilation may become grossly depressed. Pulmonary edema and convulsion are side effects of pure oxygen therapy.
3
Apnea occurs due to hypostimulation of peripheral receptors
Pulmonary edema
2,3 DPG toxicity
Convulsions
Physiology
null
04558c18-8feb-4f55-bba4-eaa9a08f74da
multi
All are feature of prematurity in neonate except
*Preterm bih, also known as premature bih, is the bih of a baby at fewer than 37 weeks gestational age* These babies are known as preemies or premmies.*Symptoms of preterm labor include uterine contractions which occur more often than every ten minutes or the leaking of fluid from the vagina.*Premature infants are at greater risk for cerebral palsy, delays in development, hearing problems, and sight problems. These risks are greater the earlier a baby is born.*The cause of preterm bih is often not known.*Risk factors include diabetes, high blood pressure, being pregnant with more than one baby, being either obese or underweight, a number of vaginal infections, tobacco smoking, and psychological stress, among others.*It is recommended that labor not be medically induced before 39 weeks unless required for other medical reasons. The same recommendation applies to cesarean section.* Medical reasons for early delivery include preeclampsia.often babies have empty scrotum , thick lanugo , no creases . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
3
No crease on sole
Abundant lanugo
Thick ear cailage
Empty Scotum
Pediatrics
New born infants
b00ec859-5cc9-4c12-848c-b6aa8b6c635e
multi
Which of the following statements about Wilson's disease is true -
null
2
Low serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper
Low serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper
High serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper
High serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper
Medicine
null
89381d24-f3c1-4341-96ce-e07a5ef956ae
multi
A 45-year-old construction worker suffers a penetrating wound of the left leg, which is cleaned and sutured. Three days later, the patient presents with sudden onset of severe pain at the site of injury. Physical examination shows darkening of the surrounding skin, hemorrhage, and cutaneous necrosis. The wound shows a thick serosanguinous discharge with gas bubbles and a fragrant odor. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's wound infection?
Gas gangrene (clostridial myonecrosis) is a necrotizing, gas-forming infection that begins in contaminated wounds and spreads rapidly to adjacent tissues. The disease can be fatal within hours of onset. Gas gangrene follows the deposition of C. perfringens into tissues under anaerobic conditions. Such conditions occur in areas of extensive necrosis (e.g., severe trauma, war-time injuries, and septic abortions). Clostridial myonecrosis is rare when the wound is subjected to prompt and thorough debridement of dead tissue. Damage to previously healthy muscle is mediated by a myotoxin. C. botulinum (choice A) secretes a preformed neurotoxin.Diagnosis: Gas gangrene, clostridial myonecrosis
2
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Pathology
Infectious Disease
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single
Which of the following parameters is not monitored in a patient on methotrexate therapy:
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite chemotherapeutic agent that binds to the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is involved in the synthesis of purine nucleotides. This interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis and disrupts cell multiplication. Methotrexate has long been known to be effective in the treatment of leukemias, lymphomas, and carcinomas of the head, neck, breast, ovary, and bladder. It has also been used as an immunosuppressive agent in the prevention of graft versus host disease and in the treatment of severe psoriasis and rheumatoid ahritis. The effectiveness of methotrexate on trophoblastic tissue has been well established and is derived from experience gained in using this agent in the treatment of hydatiform moles and choriocarcinomas. As used in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy, methotrexate is administered in a single or in multiple intramuscular (IM) injections. Treatment with methotrexate is an especially attractive option when the pregnancy is located on the cervix or ovary or in the interstitial or the cornual poion of the tube. Surgical treatment in these cases is often associated with increased risk of hemorrhage, often resulting in hysterectomy or oophorectomy. Indications Medical therapy for ectopic pregnancy involving methotrexate may be indicated in ceain patients. To determine acceptable candidates for methotrexate therapy, first establish the diagnosis by one of the following criteria: Abnormal doubling rate of the beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (b-HCG) level and ultrasonographic identification of a gestational sac outside of the uterus Abnormal doubling rate of the b-HCG level, an empty uterus, and menstrual aspiration with no chorionic villi A number of other factors must also be considered once the diagnosis is established, as follows: The patient must be hemodynamically stable, with no signs or symptoms of active bleeding or hemoperitoneum (must be met by every patient) The patient must be reliable, compliant, and able to return for follow-up care (must be met by every patient) The size of the gestation should not exceed 4cm at its greatest dimension (or exceed 3.5 cm with cardiac activity) on ultrasonographic measurement - Exceeding this size is a relative, but not absolute, contraindication to medical therapy Absence of fetal cardiac activity on ultrasonographic findings - The presence of fetal cardiac activity is a relative contraindication No evidence of tubal rupture - Evidence of tubal rupture is an absolute contraindication b-HCG level less than 5000 mIU/mL - Higher levels are a relative contraindication Methotrexate Treatment Protocols A number of accepted protocols with injected methotrexate exist for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy. Multiple-dose regimen Initial experience used multiple doses of methotrexate with leucovorin to minimize adverse effects. Leucovorin is folinic acid that is the end product of the reaction catalyzed by dihydrofolate reductase, the same enzyme inhibited by methotrexate. Normal dividing cells preferentially absorb leucovorin; hence, it decreases the action of methotrexate, thereby decreasing methotrexate's adverse systemic effects. This regimen involves administration of methotrexate as 1 mg/kg IM on days 0, 2, 4, and 6, followed by 4 doses of leucovorin as 0.1 mg/kg on days 1, 3, 5, and 7. Because of a higher incidence of adverse effects and the increased need for patient motivation and compliance, the multiple dosage regimen has fallen out of or in the United States. Single-dose regimen The more popular regimen today is the single-dose injection, which involves injection of methotrexate as 50 mg/m2 IM in a single injection or as a divided dose injected into each buttock. Studies comparing the multiple methotrexate dosage regimen with the single dosage regimen have demonstrated that the 2 methods have similar efficacy. With smaller dosing and fewer injections, fewer adverse effects are anticipated, and the use of leucovorin can be abandoned. The protocol for single-dose methotrexate is detailed below. Using this protocol, Stovall et al achieved a 96% success rate with a single injection of methotrexate. Day 0 Obtain b-HCG level, ultrasonography, and +/- dilatation and curettage. Day 1 Obtain levels of the following: b-HCG Liver function - Eg, aspaate aminotransferase (AST or serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase ), alanine aminotransferase (ALT or serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase ) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Creatinine Evidence of hepatic or renal compromise is a contraindication to methotrexate therapy. Blood type, Rh status, and antibody screening are also performed, and all Rh-negative patients are given Rh immunoglobulin REFERENCE: emedicine.medscape.com
3
Liver function tests
Lung function test
Eye examination
Hemogramz
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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A 1-year-old infant has biphasic stridor, barking cough and difficulty in breathing since 3-4 days. He has high-grade fever and leukocyte count is increased. Which of the following would not be a true statement regarding the clinical condition of the child?
CROUP (laryngotracheitis and laryngotracheobronchitis) Management Once the diagnosis of croup is made, mist therapy, coicosteroids and epinephrine are the usual treatments. Since croup is chiefly viral in etiology, antibiotics play no role. Mist therapy (warm or cool) is thought to reduce the severity of croup by moistening the mucosa and reducing the viscosity of exudates, making coughing more productive. For patients with mild symptoms, mist therapy may be all that is required and can be provided at home. For more severe cases, fuher intervention may be required like oxygen inhalation by mask, racemic epinephrine given by nebulizer, coicosteroids and intubation or tracheostomy.
3
It is more common in boys than in girls
Subglottic area is the common site of involvement
Antibiotics are mainstay of treatment
Narrowing of subglottic space with ballooning of hypo-pharynx is seen
ENT
null
3cf0cb36-e1c9-40c7-a534-1f11c0a137c9
multi
In pyelonephritis the diagnostic urinary finidng is -
null
1
Pus cell cast
RBC cast
Pus cells
RBCs
Medicine
null
d6bb1295-45ad-45ec-9e5f-f847b6cf690c
single
Which is the most common site for duodenal ulcer
About 95 percentage of duodenal ulcers occur within 2 centimetres of the pylorus
1
Within 2 centimetres of pylorus
Second part of duodenum
Distal duodenum
Early part of jejunum.
Surgery
null
87ee3561-0361-47ce-a3e9-ce784b0f4848
single
The emeiocytosis or reverse pinocytosis requires which ion
C i.e. Ca++
3
Na+
K+
Ca++
Mg++
Physiology
null
26c553d7-73d8-4557-ba34-b109e6570a71
single
True regarding fibromuscular dysplasia are all except
OCPS predispose Fibromuscular dysplasia affects mainly medium and large aeries. Sometimes alteration of the normal normal structure of the aerial wall gives rise to true aneurysms. There is also associated irregular hyperplasia. Muir's Textbook of pathology Edited by JR Anderson, 12 th edition, page no 14.36 Answer is option 2
2
Medium size vessels
OCPS predispose
Aneurysm may occur
Irregular hyperplasia
Pathology
Breast
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multi
Which is the longest chromosome?
Chromosome 1 is the longest chromosome. In a karyotype, chromosomes- arranged according to their length and banding features. Chromosomes 1 to 22 are arranged according to their length, in the descending order. Chromosome X is longer than the Y Chromosome.
1
Chromosome 1
Chromosome 21
Chromosome 14
Chromosome X
Pediatrics
Types of Genetic Disorders
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Oculomotor nerve leaves cranium through:
Ans a) superior orbital fissureStructure passing through Superior orbital fissureMedialMiddleLateralInferior ophthalmic veinSympathetic nerves around internal carotid arteryNasociliary nerveOtulomotur nerveAbducent nerveSuperior ophthalmic veinlacrimal nerveFrontal nerveTrochlear nerveMnemonic- Inferior sympathyMnemonic- NOAMnemonic Superior LPTInferior orbital fissure* Zygomatic br of maxillary nerve* Infraorbital nerve and vessels* Rami of Pterygoid ganglion* Communicating vein b/w inferior ophthalmic & pterygoid plexus of veinsOptic canal* Optic nerve* Ophthalmic arteryInfraorbital canal- Infra orbital nerve & vessels
1
superior orbital fissure
Inferior orbital fissure
Foramen magnum
Optic canal
Anatomy
Cranial Nerves
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single
A 33 year old male presented with homonymous hemianopia. He also has ataxia and personality changes. Characteristic inclusions are seen in oligodendrocytes. What is the MOST probable diagnosis in this patient?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy(PML) is characterized pathologically by multifocal areas of demyelination of varying size distributed throughout the brain but sparing the spinal cord and optic nerves. Characteristic microscopic feature: 1. Oligodendrocytes have enlarged, densely staining nuclei that contain viral inclusions formed by crystalline arrays of JC virus (JCV) paicles. 2. Astrocytes are enlarged and contain hyperchromatic, deformed, and bizarre nuclei and frequent mitotic figures. Clinical presentation: Visual deficits (45%), typically a homonymous hemianopia Mental impairment (38%) (dementia, confusion, personality change) Weakness, including hemi- or monoparesis Ataxia Ref: Roos K.L., Tyler K.L. (2012). Chapter 381. Meningitis, Encephalitis, Brain Abscess, and Empyema. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
1
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Cruetzfeld-Jacob disease
Japanese encephalitis
Poliomyelitis
Medicine
null
2d6e6d86-98d1-4e79-a5ff-ae3a3978a3c0
single
Pilocarpine is drug of choice in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Acute angle-closure glaucoma Important factsAngle-closure glaucomao Treatment of choice for acute congestive glaucoma - Laser iridotomy( 1st choice), Peripheral iridescence (2nd choice)o Drug of choice for acute congestive glaucoma - Pilocarpineo Initially, IOP is controlled (the first drug used) - Systemic mannitol or acetazolamideOpen-angle glaucomao Treatment of choice Topical antiglaucoma drugso Drug of choice b- blocker (Timolol, betaxolol, levobunolol)o Surgery of choice Argon or diode laser trabeculoplasty
2
Open angle glaucoma
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Pigmentary glaucoma
None
Unknown
null
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multi
Anaesthesia breathing circuit recommended for spontaneous breathing is
TypeA or Magills circuit is used in Spontaneous ventilation. Type D is used in controlled ventilation. TypeB and Type C are obselete nowadays
1
Mapleson A
Mapleson B
Mapleson C
Mapleson D
Anaesthesia
Anaesthetic equipments
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single
Pancreatic juice becomes thick if it has impaired
As the volume of pancreatic secretion increases, its Cl- concentration falls and its HCO3- concentration increases.The magnitude of the exchange is inversely propoionate to the rate of flow.In cystic fibrosis where this exchange mechanism is lost, pancreatic secretions become dehydrated and thickenedREF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, TWENTY-THIRD EDITION, PAGE NO:435,436
2
Na secretion
Cl- secretion
Na+ H+ exchange
H+ secretion
Physiology
G.I.T
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single
All of the following are acceptable criteria for water quality except -
The dissolved oxygen content of water is influenced by the raw water temperature,composition,treatment and any chemical or biological processes taking place in the distribution system.No health based guideline value has been recommended (refer pgno:720 park 23rd edition)
1
Dissolved O2 of 5 mg\/L
Nitrates of 1 mg\/L
Nitrites of 1-2 mg\/L
Free & saline NH3 of 0.05 mg\/L
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
058da16d-efb1-4856-8c25-096bea8e1a78
multi
Name of the procedure
This is V-to-Y advancement. Commonly used for fingeips and extremities.Ref: Bailey and love, 27e, page: 641
3
Z plasty
Rhomboid flap
V-Y advancement flap
Rotation flap
Surgery
All India exam
55737765-73f5-4057-a726-0584f11dede2
single
Taurine seen in bile acid metabolism is synthesized from which amino acid ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cysteine Taurine is synthesized from cysteine. Synthesis of other impoant amino acid is as follows :? Glutamate is synthesized from a-ketoglutarate by enzyme glutamate dehydrogenase. Glutamine is synthesized from glutamate by enzyme glutamine synthase. Alanine is synthesized from pyruvate by transamination. Aspaate is synthesized from oxaloacetate by transamination. Asparagine is synthesized from aspaate by enzyme asparagine synthase. Serine is synthesized from 3-phosphoglycerate (a glycolytic intermediate). It can also be synthesized from glycine as conversion of serine to glycine is reversible. Glycine is synthesized from (i) glyoxylate and glutamate or alanine; (ii) choline; and (iii) serine Proline is synthesized from glutamate Cysteine is synthesized from methionine and serine Tyrosine is synthesized from phenylalanine.
2
Serine
Cysteine
Methionine
Glycine
Biochemistry
null
7d4c4bb3-bc13-4582-b7ed-2bf6be7e1fb7
single
Color of diphtheretic membrane is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Grey
1
Grey
White
Yellow
Cream
Pediatrics
null
b68e8780-e5e0-497d-b4dd-412b59d46af8
single
why do GLYCOPYROLATE is used as pre-anesthetic medication ?
* Actions of glycopyrrolate are similar to atropine except for some differences,as given below.. * CNS-minimal CNS effects. * CVS-increased hea rate is to a lesser extent and for shoer duration than atropine,hence ,lodynamic sLao.ay when used as premedication. * Similar actions on RS,GIT,GUT and other smooth muscles and glands as atropine. * 2 times more potent rntisialogoguE than atropine. ref : kd tripathi 8th ed
1
no central effect as it do not cross BBB
as it have few side efects
as it increases pharyngeal secreation
no post surgical complications
Pharmacology
All India exam
cd9ea2a3-48e6-40a5-83ff-525af9a5a4e0
single
The pregnant female dies while doing illegal abortion. The doctor can be punished under
Refer the byte "Legal sections".
3
303 IPC
316 IPC
314 IPC
315 IPC
Forensic Medicine
null
9474d18f-c420-499c-9ffa-e3cf63e02632
single
Rodent ulcer is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Basal cell carcinoma Advanced basal cell carcinoma may ulcerate and extensive local invasion of bone or facial sinus may occur after many years of neglected or in unusually aggressive tumors, explaining the archaic designation rodent ulcer.
3
Infectious ulcer
Hypersensitivity
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamaous cell carcinoma
Pathology
null
be55a778-57b1-428b-81aa-eadcc0f835cc
single
Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers:
CALCINEURIN INHIBITORS (Specific T-cell inhibitors) Cyclosporine Mech of action:- It inhibits T lymphocyte proliferation, IL-2 and other cytokine production as well as response of inducer T cells to IL-1. Cyclosporin binds with protein cyclophiin-A and inactivate calcineurin and the transcription of genes involved in synthesis of IL2 and T Cell activation. Cyclosporine is most active when administered before antigen exposure uses:- 1) Cyclosporin selectively suppresses cell- mediated immunity (CMI), prevents graft rejection reaction. It is routinely used in renal, hepatic, cardiac, bone marrow and other transplantations. For induction it is staed orally 12 hours before the transplant and continued for as long as needed. 2) it is a second line drug in autoimmune diseases, like severe rheumatoid ahritis, uveitis, bronchial asthma, inflammatory bowel disease, dermatomyositis, etc. and in psoriasis, especially to suppress acute exacerbations. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-878,880,881
2
Cyclophosphamide
Cyclosporine
Methotrexate
6-Mercaptopurine
Pharmacology
Immunomodulators
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Injury to cervical nerve C5, C6 causes:
Ans. (a) Erb's paralysisRef: Apley's orthopedics 9th ed./ 279-80Erb's paralysis- Erb's palsy or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the upper group of the arm's main nerves, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5-C6 nerves.Position of hand in Erb's paralysis: Adducted, Internally rotated, and pronatedKlumpke's paralysisKlumpke's Palsy involves the eighth cervical vertebra and the first thoracic vertebra (C8 and Tl).Position of hand: Elbow flexed, arm supinatedThere may be unilateral homer syndromeHorner syndromeSeen with Pancoast tumor and presents with Ptosis, Miosis, enopthalmos, anhydrosis, loss of ciliospinal reflex.Central cord syndromeSeen most often after a hyperextension injury in an individual with long-standing cervical spondylosis. It presents with features of cortico-spinal pathway.
1
Erb's paralysis
Klumpke paralysis
Horner syndrome
Central cord syndrome
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around Shoulder
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single
'Doughnut' sign and 'Coiled spring' appearance are seen in
(A) Intusussception # Ultrasound Axial images of intussusception showed a doughnut pattern.> Hypoechoic external ring was formed by the everted returning limb of intussusceptum and, to a lesser degree, by the intussuscipiens.> Doughnut's center varied according to the scan level.> Scans obtained at the middle or at the base of the intussusception showed a characteristic hyperechoic crescent in all cases.> This crescent was formed by the mesentery enclosing the entering limb of the intussusceptum, which the authors have termed the Crescent-in-doughnut sign'.> On scans obtained at the apex of the intussusception, the center was hypoechoic owing to the entering limb of the intussusceptum and the absence of the mesentery.> Crescent-in-doughnut sign appears to be a characteristic feature of intussusception.> Contrast enema remains the gold standard, demonstrating the intussusception as an occluding mass prolapsing into the lurren, giving the "coiled spring" appearance (barium in the lumen of the intussusceptum and in the intraluminal space).> Main contraindication for an enema is a perforation.
1
Intussusception
Meckel's diverticulum
Intestinal malrotation
Volvulus
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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Vertical compaction of warm gutta-percha technique was given by?
null
3
Grossman
Ingle
Schilder
Cohen
Dental
null
03bafb10-eb8e-4315-8282-0d779e83fbe8
single
Worldwide accepted minimum dose of penicillin in latent syphilis-
null
3
4.8 mega units
6.0 mega units
7.0 mega units
10 units
Medicine
null
74e9a3ee-7ccd-479c-b3a2-f28774850ddd
single
Profuse watery diarrhea in an immuno compromised child is due to -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Giardia Diarrhea in immunocompromised child (AIDS) include bacterial (salmonella, compylobacter) ,protozoal (giardiasis, cryptosporidium), and viral (CMV, HSV) causes.
3
Cryptococcus
Amoeba
Giardia
Lactose intolerance
Pediatrics
null
7db0f85c-3610-4da8-ace7-87fd78e444b2
single
Latest retinoid drug used in acne is: March 2005
Ans. C: Adapalane Adapalene is an aromatic naphthoic acid derivative. Adapalene is stable in the presence of light and resistant to oxidation by benzoyl peroxide. Additionally, it differs from tretinoin/ retinoic acid in its affinity for various retinoic acid receptors. Moreover, adapalene is a very effective antiacne agent and shows low irritation potential, no sensitization, and no phototoxicity. Adapalene was approved for the topical treatment of acne in 1996
3
Retinoic acid
Clindamycin
Adapalane
Azelaic acid
Skin
null
6309e1e8-eff8-48f6-a9e8-4bce44338d1b
single
Metabolic changes associated with excessive vomiting includes the following
Vomiting causes loss of gastric secretions which include HCl & K+ ions, resulting in metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia and hypochloremia. However note that the moderate to severe hypokalemia seen with excessive vomiting is not merely explained by loss of K+ ions in vomiting. "In fact the hypokalemia is primarily due to increased renal K+ excretion. Loss of gastric contents results in volume depletion and metabolic alkalosis, both of which promote Kaliuresis.
3
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperchloremia
Hypokalemia
Decreases bicarbonates
Anatomy
General surgery
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single
Gastric lavage in contraindicated in which of the following poisonings?
Ans. A. Hydrocarbon poisoningGastric lavage involves the passage of a oro gastric tube with sequential administration and aspiration of small volumes of normal saline with the intent of removing toxic substances present in the stomach. Contraindications to gastric lavage include ingestion of hydrocarbons because of high aspiration potential, ingestion of corrosive substances, and risk of hemorrhage or GI perforation resulting from pathology or recent surgery. As with induction of emesis, the effectiveness of this procedure is dependent on the time of ingestion and is likely to be most effective within the first 1 to 2 hours post intoxication
1
Hydrocarbon poisoning
Excessive intake of anti- tubercular drugs
Excessive intake of iron tablets
Excessive intake of Paracetamol
Pediatrics
Fluid & Electrolyte
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single
A patient is admitted with 3rd episode of deep venous thrombosis. There is no history of any associated medical illness. All of the following investigations are required for establishing the diagnosis except-
null
3
Proteing C deficiency
Antithrombin III deficiency
Antibodies to factor VIII
Antibodies to cardiolipin
Medicine
null
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multi
Calcium hydroxide is preferred to ZOE fillings below a composite resin restoration as:
null
3
Calcium hydroxide forms a calcific bridge
Eugenol irritates the inflamed pulp
Eugenol interferes with the setting of composite resins
None of the above
Dental
null
8a56a37c-3edc-44c1-9d94-2976fc77907a
multi
Which of the following enzyme deficiency is the most common cause of pseudohermaphroditism in a female child?
Most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism is congenital adrenal hyperplasia mostly caused by deficiency of the enzyme 21 hydroxylase. Due to this enzyme deficiency, there is deficient production of adrenal coisol and aldosterone and overproduction of adrenal androgens.
4
3 - hydroxylase deficiency
11 - hydroxylase deficiency
17 - hydroxylase deficiency
21- hydroxylase deficiency
Medicine
null
1b1888f5-401c-4c13-ac3f-7ed889e02c00
single
All the following in the Light's criteria are suggestive of exudative pleural effusion except -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Pleural fluid ADA <16 Diagnostic criteriao The Light's Criteria Rule is a traditional method of differentiating transudates and exudates that measures serum and pleural fluid protein and LDH.According to the traditional Light's Criteria Rule, if at least one of the following three criteria lie, component tests of the rule) is fulfilled, the fluid is defined as an exudate.o Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio greater than 0.5. oro Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6 oro Pleural fluid LDH greater than two-thirds the upper limits of the laboratory's normal serum LDH.
2
Pleural fluid protein : serum protein ratio > 0.5
Pleural fluid ADA < 16
Pleural fluid LDH : serum LDH ratio >0.6
Pleural fluid L DH > two thirds of the upper limitof serum LDH
Medicine
Pleural Effusion & Pneumothorax
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multi
Most common inherited cause of Aplastic anemia
M/C acquired cause - Idiopataic. M/C inherited - Fanconi anemia.
2
Idiopathic
Fanconi anemia
Scwachman - diamond syndrome
Down syndrome
Medicine
null
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single
Acute mechanical large bowel obstruction should be operated early because -
null
3
Electrolyte imbalance due to third space loss
Septicaemia from absorption of bowel contents
Early gangrene and perforation
Respiratory embarrassment to massive abdminal distension
Surgery
null
5895bf7d-2066-4ca8-a538-d3abe95b3709
single
Most potent stimulator of naive Tcells?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mature dendritic cells . Mature B cells and T-cells before antigenic exposure are called naive B and T cells respectively. Sequence of events in activation of naive T cells : . Immature dendritic cells in the epidermis are called langerhans cells. . These immature dendritic cells ( langerhans cells) capture the antigen in the epidermis. . After capturing the antigen, these cells secrete cytokines. . These cytokines cause loss of adhesiveness of langerhans cells. . Langerhans cells separate from each other and migrate to lymphatic vessels. . In lymphatic vessel, maturation of langerhans cells takes place. . Then these mature langerhan dendritic cells reach to naive T cells in the lymph nodes and present antigen to these cells and activate them.
1
Mature dendritic cells
Follicular dendritic cells
Macrophages
B cell
Microbiology
null
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single
Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national and state level reliable estimates of feility?
General Feility Rate (GFR):It is the "number of live bihs per 1000 women in the reproductive age-group (15-44 or 49 years) in a given year".GFR = in the same area in same year] x 1000General feility rate is a better measure of feility than the crude bih rate because the denominator is restricted to the number of women in the child-bearing age, rather than the whole population. The major weakness of this rate is that not all women in the denominator are exposed to the risk of childbih. Ref: Park; 23rd ed; Pg 488
4
Civil registration system
Census
Ad-noc survey
General feility rate
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
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single
Graft from homozygotic twin is known as ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Isograft Graft from homozygotic (identical) twin is called as isograft. Graft A tissue graft is a medical procedure in which tissue from a donor is used to replace missing or damaged tissue on a patient ( recipient).
2
Autograft
Isograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Microbiology
null
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multi
Cumulative increase in the height of the baby at 6 months:
Ans: B (18 cm) Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition and Achar Textbook of Pediatrics, 4th edition.Explanation:Average Length/Height at different Postnatal AgesAt Birth - 50 cmAt 3 months - 60 cmAt 6 months - 65 cmAt 9 months - 70 cmAt 1 year - 75 cmAt 2 years - 87.5 cmAt 4 years - 100 cmAt 8 years-125 cmAt 12 years - 150 cm>>>Expected adult height can be calculated by the formula 2 * Height at 2 years of age.Average Cumulative Gain in HeightAt 3 months - 10 cmAt 6 months - 15 cmAt 1 year - 25 cmAt 2 years - 37.5 cmAlso Note:In first year of life, the height increases by 25 cm.In second year of life, the height increases by 12.5 cm.From 2-12 years - the height increases 6 cm per year.Weech FormulaTo calculate expected height between 2-12 yearsExpected Height (2 to 12 year) = Age 6+77 (in cm)Waterlow Classification of StuntingPercentage of ideal height expected for ageGrade of stunting>95%No Stunting90 - 95%Grade 185 - 89%Grade 2<85%Grade 3
2
9 cm
18 an
24 cm
6 cm
Pediatrics
Assessment of Growth
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single
Management of stone on CBD includes following except
Medical dissolution of stone is used for gallstones, not the CBD stones CBD ctones are rarely asymptomatic, often present with complication CBD stones should be treated, if diagnosed. Treatment options include ERCP, laparoscopic or open CBD exploration Ref : Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1200
3
ERCP
Laparoscopic CBD exploration
Medical dissolution of stone
Endosphincteric removal
Anatomy
G.I.T
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multi
What is the probable diagnosis in the patient with below flow volume loop (FVL)?
The above FVL is a typical of fixed central airway obstruction (Either above or below the thoracic inlet) such as tracheal stenosis. In this, there is limitation to peak flow rate,Flattened inspiratory and expiratory curves are seen. Other FVL patterns: 1.Normal 2. Airflow obstruction:- COPD 3. Fixed Upper Airway obstruction 4.Variable upper airway obstruction 5.
2
Restrictive airway disease
Tracheal stenosis
Obstructive airway disease
None of the above
Medicine
Pneumonia
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multi
The minimum amount of normal perfused liver parenchyma to be left intact when a hepatic resection is planned is -
• Up to 70% to 75% of the hepatic volume may be resected with good recovery in patients with relatively normal hepatic parenchyma (without active hepatitis, cirrhosis, or metabolic defects), as long as the remnant liver has adequate portal venous and hepatic arterial inflow, adequate hepatic venous outflow, and adequate biliary drainage.
2
10%
20%
50%
75%
Surgery
null
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single
A -wave in JVP indicates:
Ans. B: Atrial contraction Waves - a - presystolic; produced by right atrial contraction - c - bulging of tricuspid valve into the right atrium during ventricular systole (isovolumic phase) - v - occurs in late ventricular systole; increased blood in right atrium from venous return Descents - x - combination of atrial relaxation, downward movement of the tricuspid valve and ventricular systole - y - tricuspid valve opens and blood flows in to the right ventricle Abnormal waveform causes Dominant a wave - Pulmonary stenosis - Pulmonary hypeension - Tricuspid stenosis Cannon a wave - Complete hea block - Paroxysmal nodal tachycardia Ventricular tachycardia Dominant v wave - Tricuspid regurgitation Absent x descent - Atrial fibrillation Exaggerated x descent - Cardiac tamponade - Constrictive pericarditis Sharp y descent - Constrictive pericarditis - Tricuspid regurgitation Slow y descent - Right atrial myxoma
2
Atrial relaxation
Atrial contraction
Bulging of tricuspid valve into right atrium
Ventricular contraction
Medicine
null
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single
A 35 year old pregnant female at 40 weeks gestational age presents with pain and regular uterine contractions every 4-5 min. On arrival,the patient is in lot of pain and requesting relief immediately. Her cervix is 5cm dilated. What is the most appropriate method of pain control for this patient?
When complete relief of pain is needed throughout labour,epidural analgesia is safest and simplest. Ref: Williams Obs 24e pg 513 .
4
Intramuscular morphine
Pudendal block
Local block
Epidural block
Anatomy
General obstetrics
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single
A 2- year old child presented with leucocoria in the right eye since 2 months. On examination a total retinal detachment was present in the same eye. Ultrasound B scan revealed a heterogenous subretinal mass with calcification. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
B i.e. Retinoblastoma Leukokoria in a child less than 6 years with hetrogenous mass & calcification on USG or CT scan is diagnostic of retinoblastomaQ. It may lead to secondary glaucoma & retinal detachment.
2
Coats- disease
Retinoblastoma
Toxocariasis
Retinal tuberculoma
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following except :
Answer is D (Ventricular septal defect) Amongst the options provided ventricular septal defect is the least likely diagnosis to result in sudden cardiac death. Hyperophic and Dilated Cardiomyopathy : The cardiomyopathies (Hyperophic and Dilated) are the second most common category of diseases associated with risk of 'Sudden cardiac death'.- Harrison 16th/1620 Eisenmenger's Syndrome : "Most patients with the Eisenmenger's syndrome die of 'sudden cardiac death', probably from a ventricular arrythmia." Ventricular septal defect : The occurance of sudden cardiac death in cases of isolated ventricular septal defect has not been emphasized in literature. Sudden death may probably be seen in early childhood but only isolated case repos have been documented. VSD therefore is the least likely diagnosis and hence the answer of exclusion.
4
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Hyperophic cardiomyopathy
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Ventricular septal defect
Medicine
null
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multi
Bleeding vessel in haemorrhoids is
Bleeding vessel in haemorrhoids is superior rectal vein which is a branch of inferior mesenteric vein at the level of rectum. Dilation of these vessels leads to bleeding leading to internal haemorrhoids. Veins are better option than aery.
2
Superior rectal aery
Superior rectal vein
Middle rectal aery
Middle rectal vein
Anatomy
Pelvis and Perineum 3
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single
Hydrochloric acid is produced by?
Ans. C Oxyntic cellsRef: Ganong, 23rd ed. pg. 431-32Secretion in Stomach* Oxyntic cell (parietal cell) secretes: HCl and intrinsic factor of castle* Chief cell (zymogen or peptic cell) secrete: pepsinogen* G cell secrete: Gastrin* D cell secrete: Somatostatin* ECL cells secrete: Histamine
3
G-cell
D-cell
Oxyntic cells
Chief cells
Physiology
G.I.T.
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single
Which of the following is shown in the diagram shown below?
Ans. (c) Entropion.The image shows presence of lower eyelid Entropion which is a malposition showing inversion of eyelid margin. The subtype is of involutional type with relative Enophthalmos.
3
Chalazion
Stye
Entropion
Ectropion
Ophthalmology
Anomalies in the Position of Lashes and Lid Margin
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single
Which of the following contract together with stapes to stiffen the ossicular chain and protect the inner ear from noise damage?
Stapedius and tensor tympani muscles contract through a neural reflex arc mediated by loud sounds (>80 dB). They act to stiffen the ossicular chain and protect the inner ear from noise damage, paicularly at low frequencies. In contrast, cholesteatoma formation in the middle ear can contact the ossicular chain, increasing the total mass, causing a predominantly high-frequency conductive hearing loss.
2
Scala media
Tensor tympani
Scala vestibuli
Semicircular canal
ENT
null
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single
Recommended level of fluoride in drinking water?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 0.5 - 0.8 mg/L The recommended level of fluoride in drinking water in the country is accepted as 0.5 to 0.8 mg/ Liter. -Park Maximum permissible limit is 1.5 mg/Lit.
2
0.2-0.5 mg/L
0-5-0.8 mg/L
0.8-1.2 mg/L
1.2-2.0 mg/L
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
All lesions are seen in leprosy except –
Leprosy is not a vesiculo-bullous (blistering) disorder.
3
Erythematous Macule
Hypopigmented patch
Vesicles
Flat & raised patches
Dental
null
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multi
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this MRI scan showing a sagittal section through the head and neck. Tears drain through the nasolacrimal duct into the space below which structure?
(b) The inferior nasal meatus below the inferior concha receives the nasolacrimal duct.
2
A
B
C
D
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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single
Tetracycline ointment for mass prophylaxis:
Ans. 0.1%
1
0.10%
0.50%
1%
5%
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Late Complication of radiotherapy
Mucositis (Inflammation of mucosa) is a late complication.
3
Nausea
Thrombocytopenia
Mucositis
Erythema
Radiology
null
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single
HIV primarily infects?
ANSWER: (A) CD4+ cellsREF: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24TH edition Chapter 44Repeat Microbiology December 2010
1
CD4* cells
CD8+ cells
NK cells
All of these
Microbiology
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
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multi
The magnetic field in MRI is measured in
Tesla =magnetic fieldHounsfield units =CT numberMHz = To denote probe frequency in USGThe units of magnetic field strength are Gauss and Tesla. Tesla was the father of alternating current and Gauss was German mathematician. 1Tesla = 10 KG = 10, 000 Gauss Gauss is a measure of low magnetic field strength. Eah's magnetic field strength is approximately 0.6 G. MR systems used for clinical purpose have the strength ranging from 0.2 to 3 Tesla. Field strengths higher than 3T are used for research purposes. SNR and resolution increase with the field strength. Advanced MR applications like Spectroscopy, functional MRI, cardiac MR are possible only on higher field strengths like 1.5 T and above.(Ref: MRI made Easy by Chavan; 2nd Edition, Page No 23)
2
Hounsfield units
Tesla
MHz
None
Radiology
All India exam
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multi
A 42 yr old engineer developed redness of the glans and radial fissuring of the prepuce 2 weeks ago. A potassium hydroxide preparation of scrapings from the glans showed pseudohyphae and buds. Which one of the following systemic illness should he be screened for?
Visualization of pseudohyphae s/o candidiasis and DM is a predisposing factor for it. Candidiasis Predisposing factors or conditions (especially for disseminated form): DM Antibacterial agents Indwelling urinary catheters Parenteral glucocoicoids Neutropenia Abdominal and thoracic surgery Immunocompromised state Patients with severe burns low-bih-weight neonates persons using illicit IV drugs
2
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Diabetes mellitus
Systemic candidiasis
Chronic renal failure
Dental
Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Treatment of choice for congenital hydrocele?
Ans. B. Herniotomy. (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 1382; 381).# In congenital hydrocele, the processus vaginalis is patent and connects with the peritoneal cavity. The communication is usually too small to allow herniation of intra-abdominal contents. Pressure on the hydrocele does not always empty it but the hydrocele fluid may drain into the peritoneal cavity when the child is lying down; thus, the hydrocele is often intermittent. Ascites should be considered if the swellings are bilateral.# Congenital hydroceles are treated by herniotomy if they do not resolve spontaneously.# Established acquired hydroceles often have thick walls. Lord's operation is suitable when the sac is reasonably thin- walled. There is minimal dissection and the risk of haematoma is reduced. Eversion of the sac with placement of the testis in a pouch prepared by dissection in the fascial planes of the scrotum is an alternative (Jaboulay's procedure).# Herniotomy: In children who have lateral hernias with a persistent processus, it is sufficient only to remove and close the sac. This is called a herniotomy. In adult surgery, herniotomy alone has a high recurrence rate and some form of muscle strengthening is added (herniorrhaphy).
2
Sac eversion
Herniotomy
Conservative
Hernioraphy
Surgery
Testis & Scrotum
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Which one of the following is not associated with carbohydrate digestion, absorption, or both?
Enterokinase is an intestinal enzyme that activates trypsinogen as it enters the small intestine from the pancreas. Enterokinase is secreted into the lumen by mucosa cells, but much of it adheres to the enterocyte membrane. Once activated, trypsin can fuher activate itself as well as other inactive proteases. Amylase is secreted in active form and does not depend on enterokinase to be effective.Amylase is found in saliva and pancreatic juice.Starch is ingested in two forms, amylose and amylopectin. Amylase hydrolyzes amylose to maltose or maltotriose. Amylopectin contains -1,6 branch points, which cannot be digested by amylase. In this case, a limit dextrins are produced; they are polysaccharide fragments of variable size, each containing an -1,6 linkage. The brush-border enzyme -dextrinase completes the digestion of a-limit dextrins to single glucose units.Sucrase is a brush-border enzyme that hydrolyzes sucrose to glucose and fructose. These monosaccharides are subsequently absorbed by the enterocyte.The absorption of glucose and galactose is secondary active transpo. The absorption is sodium dependent. A carrier molecule in the mucosal membrane binds two sodium molecules for every glucose or galactose molecule; these two monosaccharides share the same transpo protein. Basolateral membrane sodium-potassium ATPase pumps keep the enterocyte intracellular concentration of sodium low. This situation provides a concentration gradient that ors the movement of sodium from the lumen into the enterocyte. Sodium moving down its concentration gradient can bring glucose or galactose into the enterocyte, even against a concentration gradient.
4
Amylase
Sucrase
Secondary active transpo
Enterokinase
Physiology
G.I.T
129cb58b-a145-45fb-acf9-ee930371ec72
multi
Bilateral facial palsy is seen in-
null
2
Myaesthania gravis
Guillain Bane
Muscular dystrophy
Duchnene muscular dystrophy
Medicine
null
480f70d6-9eba-40b1-ae75-d6e002152468
single
Which of the following is the late toxic manifestation of diphtheria in child?
Polyneuropathy and myocarditis are late toxic manifestations of diphtheria. Myocarditis is typically associated with dysrhythmia of the conduction tract and dilated cardiomyopathy. Other complications of diphtheria include pneumonia, renal failure, encephalitis, cerebral infarction, and pulmonary embolism. Neurologic manifestations may appear during the first or second week of illness, typically beginning with dysphagia and nasal dysahria and progressing to other signs of cranial nerve involvement, including weakness of the tongue and facial numbness. Ref: Bishai W.R., Murphy J.R. (2012). Chapter 138. Diphtheria and Other Infections Caused by Corynebacteria and Related Species. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e
2
Renal failure
Myocarditis
v
Septicemia
Pediatrics
null
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single
When can a child begin to take a biscuit to his mouth?
By 6 months, a child can begin to take a biscuit to his mouth. By 12 months, he can try to feed self with a cup but spills some of contents. By 15 months, he can drink from cup without much spilling By 18 months, he can feed himself well with a spoon
3
2 months
4 months
6 months
9 months
Pediatrics
Impoant Motor Milestones
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single
Early recovery of Sudeck's atrophy can be best seen by:
It is claimed to be the most successful treatment
2
Intraarterial injection of articaine.
Intraarterial injection of novacaine.
Both.
None.
Surgery
null
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multi
If a conraceptive has failure rate of 15, how many unplanned pregnancies will the female have in her reproductive period.
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 4.5 Failure rate per HWY =Total accidental pregnancies--------------------------Total months of exposurex 1200"A woman's reproductive period is roughly from 15 to 45 years, i.e a period of 30 years"------ Park24th/e - 521* Thus,15 =Total accidental pregnancies--------------------------30 x 12x 1200Total accidental pregnancies = 4.5
3
3.5
4
4.5
5
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and Family Planning
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single
Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the following:
Saturated fatty acids are a long-chain carboxylic acid that usually has between 12 and 24 carbon atoms that has no double bonds.Thus, saturated fatty acids are saturated with hydrogen (since double bonds reduce the number of hydrogens on each carbon).example; 1) Lauric acid (12 C) 2) Myristic acid (14 C) 3) Palmitic acid (16 C) 4) Stearic acid ( 18 C) 5) Arachidic acid (20 C)Coconut oil contains approximately 92.1% saturated fatty acids, 6.2% monounsaturated fatty acids, 1.6% polyunsaturated fatty acids.
2
Sunflower oil
Coconut oil
Soyabean
Safflower oil
Biochemistry
null
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single
Shortest diameter is:
Ans. is b, i.e. Obstetric conjugateRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 80-81Anteroposterior diameters of the pelvic inlet.DiametersFeatureMeasurement IObstetric conjugate* It is the distance between the midpoint of the sacral promontory to prominent bony projection in the midline on the inner surface of the symphysis pubis.* It is the smallest AP diameter of pelvic inlet.* It is the diameter through which the fetus must pass.* It can not be measured clinically, but can be derived by subtracting 1.5 cm from diagonal conjugate.10-10.5 cmTrue conjugate(Anatomical conjugate)* It is the distance between the midpoint of the sacral promontory to the inner margin of the upper border of symphysis pubis.* It has no obstetrical significance.11 cmDiagonal conjugate* It is the distance between the midpoint of the sacral promontory to the lower border of symphysis pubis.* Its importance as that it can be measured clinically.12 cm
2
Diagonal conjugate
Obstetric conjugate
True conjugate
All are equal
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
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multi
Drug used in severe hypercalcemia -
Medical Management 1.Rehydration until serum calcium level falls (4-6 litres of normal saline in first 24 hrs) 2.Correct electrolyte imbalance and give frusemide 100 mg 1-2 hours 3.Other methods to decrease serum calcium are: a.Salmon calcitonin 200-400 IU 8 hourly subcutaneously b.Mithramycin 25 ug/kg IV c.Neutral phosphate IV (500 ml over 6-8 hrs) 4.Avoid drugs like digoxin (hypercalcaemia and hypocalcaemia may potentiate its toxicity), thiazides (decrease the calcium excretion), vitamin A, D (increase the bone turnover) oestrogen and antioestrogen. R ALAGAPPAN MANUAL OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE 4TH EDITION PAGE NO-631
4
Furosemide
Prednisolone
Pamidronate
All
Medicine
Endocrinology
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multi
The aqueous flare is best demonstrated by:
Ans. Biomicroscope
1
Biomicroscope
Keratoscope
Pentoscope
Ophthalmoscope
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Best investigation when there is clinical suspicion of pulmonary embolism in a patient is -
CT pulminary angiography is the first-line diagnostic test.It has the advantages of visualising the distribution and extent of the emboli,or highlighting an alternative diagnosis,such as consolidation,pneumothorax, or aoic dissection.A definitive diagnosis of PE depends on visualisation of an intraluminal filling defect in more than one projection.Secondary signs of PE include abrupt occlusion("cut-off") of vessels,segmental oligemia or avascularity,a prolonged aerial phase with slow filling,and touous,tapering peripheral vessels. Reference:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2174;Davidson's medicine-22nd edition,page no:722.
2
D - Dimer assay
Multi detector CT angiography
Doppler ultrasound
Catheter angiography
Medicine
Respiratory system
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single
In EEG, delta waves are seen:
Ans. C. In deep sleep Type Frequency (Hz)LocationNormallyPathologicallyDeltaup to 3frontal, high amplitude (20- 200uV)Adults*deep sleep* infants* subcortical lesions* diffuse lesionsTheta4-7 HzParietal and temporal regions* young children*drowsiness (early sleep)* focal subcortical lesionsAlpha8 -12 HzParietal and occipital (50- 100 uV)* closing the eyes and by relaxation.Frequency decreases in: hypoglycemia, hypothermia, hypercapnia, GA, sleep, comaBeta12 - 30 HzFrontal region; low amplitude waves 10 uV* active, busy or anxious thinking, active concentration* sedatives
3
Due to reticular system
When the thalamus is cut off from pons
In deep sleep Type
These originate from thalamocortical area
Physiology
Nervous System
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single
Mottled enamel occurs due to:
null
1
Fluorosis
Trauma
Hypocalcemia
Congenital syphilis
Dental
null
d5be8b4e-59a8-4a63-9ec2-145ab47a11dc
single
Thimble bladder is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tuberculosis o Bladder tuberculosis is almost always secondaryto renal tuberculosiso The disease starts at the ureteric opening, the earliest evidence being pallor of the mucosa due to submucosal edema.o Subsequently tiny white transluscent tubercles develop all over. Gradually these tubercles enlarge and may ulcerate (but do not cause bladder perforation).o These tubercles lend 'cobblestone* appearance on cystoscopy.o There is considerable submucous fibrosis which causes diminished capacity of bladder. Scarred & fibrosed, small capacity bladder is b'a thimble bladder.o The fibrosis which usually starts around the ureter, contracts to cause a pull at the ureters. This either leads to a stricture or displaced, dilated and rigid wide mouthed ureter k/a golf hole ureters, this almost always leads to ureteral reflux.
1
Tuberculosis
Pyelonephritis
Radiation cystitis
Chemical cystitis
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Bladder)
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single
"Crumbled egg appearance" in liver is seen in?
Ans is 'c' i.e., Hydatid liver disease
3
Hepatic adenoma
Chronic amoebic liver abscess
Hydatid liver disease
Haemangioma
Surgery
null
0343a5b4-6ed7-4b6e-bb3c-1321ff16e6ee
single
Alkalinization of urine ameliorates the toxicity of which of the following drugs
refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p85 Alkalinization of urine speeds the clearance of weakly acidic drugs like. Aspirin Phenobarbitone Chlotpropapamide Methotrexate
4
Arabinoside -cytosine
Ifosfamide
Cisplatin
Methotrexate
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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Cystic hygroma may be associated with:
Cystic hygroma Cystic hygromas are multiloculated cystic spaces lined by endothelial cells It results due to sequestration of a poion of jugular lymph sac from the lymphatic system Cysts are filled with clear lymph and are lined by endothelium Turner's syndrome is associated with cystic hygroma Most cystic hygromas involve the lymphatic jugular sacs Cystic hygroma MC site: Posterior neck region Other common sites: Axilla, mediastinum, inguinal & retroperitoneal regions Approximately 50% of them present at bih It may show spontaneous regression Clinical features Usually present at soft cystic masses that disto the surrounding anatomy, can result in acute airway obstruction. Usually manifests in the neonates or in early infancy (50% present at bih) Prone to infection & hemorrhage within the mass Swelling is soft & paially compressible and invariably increases in size when the child coughs or cries. Characteristic features: Brilliantly translucent Diagnosis MRI play a crucial role in preoperative planning Treatment Complete surgical excision is the preferred treatment Injection of Sclerosing agents such as bleomycin or OK-432 (Picibanil), derived from streptococcus pyogenes may eradicate the cystic hygroma.
1
Turner's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Down's syndrome
All of the above
Surgery
Neck
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multi
Minimum separable distance for two-point threshold test is greatest at?
The size of the receptive fields for light touch can be measured by the two-point threshold test. In this procedure, the two points on a pair of calipers are simultaneously positioned on the skin and one determines the minimum distance between the two caliper points that can be perceived as separate points of stimulation. This is called the two-point discrimination threshold.If the distance is very small, each caliper point touches the receptive field of only one sensory neuron. If the distance between stimulation points is less than this threshold, only one point of stimulation can be felt. Thus, the two-point discrimination threshold is a measure of tactile acuity. The magnitude of two-point discrimination thresholds varies from place to place on the body and is smallest where touch receptors are most abundant.Stimulus points on the back, for instance, must be separated by at least 65 mm before they can be distinguished as separate, whereas on the fingeips two stimuli are recognized if they are separated by as little as 2 mm. Blind individuals benefit from the tactile acuity of fingeips to facilitate the ability to read Braille; the dots forming Braille symbols are separated by 2.5 mm. Two-point discrimination is used to test the integrity of the dorsal column (medial lemniscus) system, the central pathway for touch and proprioception.
3
Lips
Palm of hand
Back of scapula
Dorsum of hand
Physiology
Nervous system
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single
Osmotic adaptations are all except
null
3
Due to osmolysis
In brain cells
Due to urea & glucose mainly
Protects against large H2O shift
Physiology
null
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multi
Erotomania is seen in: NEET 13
Ans. Bipolar mania
1
Bipolar mania
Unipolar mania
Neurosis
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Antibodies to one of the following infection are not transmitted to a child –
Protective Antibodies against pertussis do not cross placenta. So, early immunization is desired.
2
Measles
Pertusis
Diphtheria
Polio
Pediatrics
null
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single
According to Herrington classification the decerebrate rigidity is characterised by all EXCEPT
(Rigidity occurs in all muscles of the body) (210-11 Ganong 22nd) (692- Guyton 11th) (247- Ganong 23rd)DECEREBRATE - RIGIDITY -* When the brain stem of an animal is sectioned below the mid level of the mesencephalon. But the pontine and medullary reticular system as well as the vestibular system are left intact, the animal develops a condition called decerebrate rigidity* This rigidity does not occur in all muscles of the body but does occur in the antigravity muscles - the muscles of the neck and trunk and the extensors of the leg.* The cause of decerebrate rigidity is blockage of normally strong input to the medullary reticular nuclei from the cerebral cortex, the red nucleus and the basal ganglia. Lacking this input, the medullary reticular inhibitor system become non functional; Full overactivity of the pontine excitatory system occurs, and rigidity develops.* Decerebrate rigidity is found to be spasticity due to diffuse facilitation of stretch reflexes* The facilitation is due to two factors: increased general excitability of the motor neuron pool and increased in the rate of discharge in the y' efferent neuron* Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal shock. And the rigidity develops as soon as the brain stem is transected
1
Rigidity occurs all muscles of the body
Increased in the rate of discharge of the 'y' efferent neuron
Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool
Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal shock
Physiology
Nervous System
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multi
BCRABL gene mutation is seen in? (A)CML (B)AML (C)CLL (D)ALL
Chronic Myeloid leukemia o Chronic myeloid leukemia is a stem cell disease that is characterized by leucocytosis with granulocyc immaturies, basophilia, splenomegaly and disnct chromosomal abnormality - Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. It is one of the chronic myeloproliferave disorders. Pathogenesis of chronic mveloid leukemia o CML is an acquired disease of haemopoiec stem cell and Ph’ chromosome is demonstrable in erythroid, myeloid and megakaryocyc precursors. Philadelphia chromosome BCR-ABL fusion gene Philadelphia chromosome is formed as a result of reciprocal translocaon between long arm of chromosome 22 and chromosome 9 i.e. + (9:22) ABL proto-oncogene from chromosome 9 is translocated to chromosome 22 where BCR is present and results in formaon of BCR-ABL fusion chimeric gene BCR ABL gene is hallmark of CML.
3
B
C
A
D
Pathology
null
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multi
An infant brought to emergency, unresponsive, bradycardia, shallow breathing. Next step of management:
d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitationThe sequence of resuscitation in infants & children is C-A-B (compressions, airway, breathing) rather than A-B-C i.e initiate CPR with chest compressions, rather than with rescue breaths
4
IV epinephrine
IV atropine
Stabilize the airway and assist breathing
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Pediatrics
Respiratory System
cf45ae1c-0f7c-4bb7-8a47-d955393746da
multi
Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on action and myosin :
D i.e. Tropomyosin
4
Troponin
Calmodulin
Thymosin
Tropomyosin
Physiology
null
5d0d25fe-d12c-4a6f-916f-495aee7b985a
single
The most common causative organism of canaliculitis is
Chronic canaliculitis is an uncommon condition, frequently caused by Actinomyces israelii, anaerobic Gram-positive bacteria. Occasionally scarring and canalicular obstruction may result. Presentation is with unilateral epiphora associated with chronic mucopurulent conjunctivitis refractory to conventional treatment. There is pericanalicular redness and oedema, and mucopurulent discharge on pressure over the canaliculus. A 'pouting' punctum may be a diagnostic clue in mild cases. In contrast to dacryocystitis, there is no lacrimal sac involvement. Concretions (sulfur granules) are metabolic products of Actinomyces and other hydrogen sulfide-utilizing bacteria, and classically are expressed on canalicular compression or following canaliculotomy
3
HSV
Candida albicans
Actinomyces israelii
Nocardia asteroides
Ophthalmology
Nasolacrimal Disorders
e2e661dc-aa30-4dfb-a0df-43a65ec78cc0
single
Fever increase w ater losses by ______ ml/day per degree Celsius -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 200 ml/day per degree Celsius \
2
100
200
400
800
Medicine
Infection
5df8123d-d398-44ca-965d-8a5cfcde24f4
single
In root, the inner cell layer of root sheath induce the formation of:
The inner cell layer of the root sheath forms from the inner enamel epithelium or ameloblasts in the crown, and enamel is produced. In the root, these cells induce odontoblasts of the dental papilla to differentiate and form dentin. The root sheath originates at the point that.
4
Coronal Dentin.
Ameloblasts.
Enamel.
Odontoblasts.
Dental
null
6e57cf40-5e9e-42fd-aa04-bfca460aa3ac
single
The impression material with lowest viscosity is
Impression plaster is a β-calcium sulfate hemihydrate used at a water/powder ratio of approximately 0.5 to 0.6. Its fluidity makes it suitable for making impressions of soft tissues in the uncompressed state, a characteristic of mucostatic impression material. Ref: Phillips 12 ed page no 177
1
Plaster of paris
Agar-agar
Zinc oxide eugenol
Elastomers
Dental
null
42d53244-8534-4f87-9e75-6c3adedc8feb
single
PCR detects
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used in molecular biology to amplify a single copy or a few copies of a piece of DNA across several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions of copies of a paicular DNA sequenceRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 638
3
Antigen
Antibody
Nucleic acid
All of the above
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
bffcc099-d30d-45e6-97f7-010c0b96d330
multi
Factors which help in descent of presenting pa during labour are all except
Factors facilitating descent are Uterine contraction and retraction Bearing down effos Straightening of the fetal ovoid specially after rupture of membranes
4
Uterine contraction and retraction
Straightening of the fetal axis
Bearing down effos
Resistance from the pelvic floor
Anatomy
General obstetrics
af4e3b0f-4651-42de-81e7-f9fac0864483
multi
Which of the following is the earliest sign of lead poisoning?
Facial pallor paicularly of the mouth is the earliest and most consistent sign of chronic lead poisoning and is due to vasospasm. Chronic poisoning results from a daily intake of 1-2mg of lead. Other characteristic features of chronic lead poisoning are anaemia (punctate basophilia), lead line, colic and constipation, lead palsy and encephalopathy. Reference: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Dr K.S Narayan Reddy 27th edition page 479.
1
Facial pallor
Colic and constipation
Punctate basophilia
Encephalopathy
Forensic Medicine
null
06ad97e1-e23c-48b1-a55a-d7a59c7d5fbe
multi
BRCA1 gene is located on?
BRCA1 gene is located on the chromosome 17. Mutations in the BRCA1, BRCA2, account for 80% of cases of familial breast cancer. In addition to breast cancer, women with BRCA1 mutation have a substantially higher risk of epithelial ovarian cancers & men have a slightly higher risk of prostate cancer. Likewise mutation in the BRCA2 gene increase the risk of breast cancer in both men & women as well as cancer of the ovary, prostate, pancreas, bile ducts, stomach & melanocytes. Ref: Robbins Basic Pathology ed 8 pg 205.
3
Chromosome 12
Chromosome 21
Chromosome 17
Chromosome 22
Pathology
null
c2120704-03d0-4b51-ac3d-c686fc19c83c
single
Recruitment of follicles is caused by
FSH is responsible for recruitment of follicles.
2
LH
FSH
Inhibin β
GnRH
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f175cb06-0cdb-48da-a01b-9d85f235c8a8
single