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Analgetika is an umlsterm, Zeit is an umlsterm, Diagnostik is an umlsterm, Analyse is an umlsterm, Analgetika is an umlsterm, Acetylsalicylsaeure is an umlsterm, Risiken is an umlsterm
|
DerHautarzt.60470901.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Obwohl Intoleranzreaktionen gegenueber Analgetika nicht ungewoehnlich sind , gibt es zur Zeit kein einheitliches und allgemein anerkanntes Vorgehen bei der Diagnostik von Analgetikaintoleranzreaktionen . Wir fuehrten daher eine retrospektive Analyse der an unserer Klinik durchgefuehrten scratch- und Expositionstestungen mit Analgetika ( Acetylsalicylsaeure ausgenommen ) durch , um die Aussagekraft und Risiken dieser Testverfahren zu ueberpruefen .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O"
] |
Obwohl Intoleranzreaktionen gegenueber Analgetika nicht ungewoehnlich sind , gibt es zur Zeit kein einheitliches und allgemein anerkanntes Vorgehen bei der Diagnostik von Analgetikaintoleranzreaktionen . Wir fuehrten daher eine retrospektive Analyse der an unserer Klinik durchgefuehrten scratch- und Expositionstestungen mit Analgetika ( Acetylsalicylsaeure ausgenommen ) durch , um die Aussagekraft und Risiken dieser Testverfahren zu ueberpruefen .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Analgetika is an umlsterm, Zeit is an umlsterm, Diagnostik is an umlsterm, Analyse is an umlsterm, Analgetika is an umlsterm, Acetylsalicylsaeure is an umlsterm, Risiken is an umlsterm
|
DerHautarzt.60470901.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Obwohl Intoleranzreaktionen gegenueber Analgetika nicht ungewoehnlich sind , gibt es zur Zeit kein einheitliches und allgemein anerkanntes Vorgehen bei der Diagnostik von Analgetikaintoleranzreaktionen . Wir fuehrten daher eine retrospektive Analyse der an unserer Klinik durchgefuehrten scratch- und Expositionstestungen mit Analgetika ( Acetylsalicylsaeure ausgenommen ) durch , um die Aussagekraft und Risiken dieser Testverfahren zu ueberpruefen .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Analgetika, Zeit, Diagnostik, Analyse, Analgetika, Acetylsalicylsaeure, Risiken
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O"
] |
Obwohl Intoleranzreaktionen gegenueber Analgetika nicht ungewoehnlich sind , gibt es zur Zeit kein einheitliches und allgemein anerkanntes Vorgehen bei der Diagnostik von Analgetikaintoleranzreaktionen . Wir fuehrten daher eine retrospektive Analyse der an unserer Klinik durchgefuehrten scratch- und Expositionstestungen mit Analgetika ( Acetylsalicylsaeure ausgenommen ) durch , um die Aussagekraft und Risiken dieser Testverfahren zu ueberpruefen .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Analgetika, Zeit, Diagnostik, Analyse, Analgetika, Acetylsalicylsaeure, Risiken
|
DerHautarzt.60470901.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Obwohl Intoleranzreaktionen gegenueber Analgetika nicht ungewoehnlich sind , gibt es zur Zeit kein einheitliches und allgemein anerkanntes Vorgehen bei der Diagnostik von Analgetikaintoleranzreaktionen . Wir fuehrten daher eine retrospektive Analyse der an unserer Klinik durchgefuehrten scratch- und Expositionstestungen mit Analgetika ( Acetylsalicylsaeure ausgenommen ) durch , um die Aussagekraft und Risiken dieser Testverfahren zu ueberpruefen .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O"
] |
Obwohl Intoleranzreaktionen gegenueber Analgetika nicht ungewoehnlich sind , gibt es zur Zeit kein einheitliches und allgemein anerkanntes Vorgehen bei der Diagnostik von Analgetikaintoleranzreaktionen . Wir fuehrten daher eine retrospektive Analyse der an unserer Klinik durchgefuehrten scratch- und Expositionstestungen mit Analgetika ( Acetylsalicylsaeure ausgenommen ) durch , um die Aussagekraft und Risiken dieser Testverfahren zu ueberpruefen .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, Nuclear Factor κB1 is a GENE-Y, Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 is a GENE-Y, Cycloxygenase-2 is a GENE-Y, prostaglandin E2 is a CHEMICAL, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, COX-2 is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, prostaglandin E synthase is a GENE-Y, PGES is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, microsomal PGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES2 is a GENE-Y, cytosolic PGES is a GENE-Y, cPGES is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES2 is a GENE-Y, cPGES is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, thymidine is a CHEMICAL, NADPH oxidase is a GENE-N, NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, calcium - binding domains is a GENE-N, NOX5 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, thymidine is a CHEMICAL, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, nuclear factor κB is a GENE-N, NF - κB is a GENE-N, NF - κB1 is a GENE-Y, p50 is a GENE-Y, p50 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, thymidine is a CHEMICAL, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, NF - κB binding elements is a GENE-N, GGAGTCTCCC is a GENE-N, CGGGACACCC is a GENE-N, mPGES1 gene promoter is a GENE-N, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, NF - κB1 is a GENE-Y, p50 is a GENE-Y, Microsomal PGES1 is a GENE-Y
|
7014_task0
|
Sentence: NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S and Nuclear Factor κB1 Mediate Acid-Induced Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 Expression in Barrett's Esophageal Adenocarcinoma Cells.
The mechanisms of progression from Barrett's esophagus (BE) to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA) are not known. Cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2)-derived prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) has been shown to be important in esophageal tumorigenesis. We have shown that COX-2 mediates acid-induced PGE2 production. The prostaglandin E synthase (PGES) responsible for acid-induced PGE2 production in BE, however, is not known. We found that microsomal PGES1 (mPGES1), mPGES2, and cytosolic PGES (cPGES) were present in FLO EA cells. Pulsed acid treatment significantly increased mPGES1 mRNA and protein levels but had little or no effect on mPGES2 or cPGES mRNA. Knockdown of mPGES1 by mPGES1 small interfering RNA (siRNA) blocked acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and thymidine incorporation. Knockdown of NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, a variant lacking calcium-binding domains, by NOX5 siRNA significantly inhibited acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Overexpression of NOX5-S significantly increased the luciferase activity in FLO cells transfected with a nuclear factor κB (NF-κB) in vivo activation reporter plasmid pNF-κB-Luc. Knockdown of NF-κB1 p50 by p50 siRNA significantly decreased acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Two novel NF-κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC and CGGGACACCC, were identified in the mPGES1 gene promoter. We conclude that mPGES1 mediates acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and cell proliferation. Acid-induced mPGES1 expression depends on activation of NOX5-S and NF-κB1 p50. Microsomal PGES1 may be a potential target to prevent or treat EA.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: GENE-N, GENE-Y, CHEMICAL
|
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NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S and Nuclear Factor κB1 Mediate Acid-Induced Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 Expression in Barrett's Esophageal Adenocarcinoma Cells.
The mechanisms of progression from Barrett's esophagus (BE) to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA) are not known. Cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2)-derived prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) has been shown to be important in esophageal tumorigenesis. We have shown that COX-2 mediates acid-induced PGE2 production. The prostaglandin E synthase (PGES) responsible for acid-induced PGE2 production in BE, however, is not known. We found that microsomal PGES1 (mPGES1), mPGES2, and cytosolic PGES (cPGES) were present in FLO EA cells. Pulsed acid treatment significantly increased mPGES1 mRNA and protein levels but had little or no effect on mPGES2 or cPGES mRNA. Knockdown of mPGES1 by mPGES1 small interfering RNA (siRNA) blocked acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and thymidine incorporation. Knockdown of NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, a variant lacking calcium-binding domains, by NOX5 siRNA significantly inhibited acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Overexpression of NOX5-S significantly increased the luciferase activity in FLO cells transfected with a nuclear factor κB (NF-κB) in vivo activation reporter plasmid pNF-κB-Luc. Knockdown of NF-κB1 p50 by p50 siRNA significantly decreased acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Two novel NF-κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC and CGGGACACCC, were identified in the mPGES1 gene promoter. We conclude that mPGES1 mediates acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and cell proliferation. Acid-induced mPGES1 expression depends on activation of NOX5-S and NF-κB1 p50. Microsomal PGES1 may be a potential target to prevent or treat EA.
|
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[
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NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, Nuclear Factor κB1 is a GENE-Y, Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 is a GENE-Y, Cycloxygenase-2 is a GENE-Y, prostaglandin E2 is a CHEMICAL, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, COX-2 is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, prostaglandin E synthase is a GENE-Y, PGES is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, microsomal PGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES2 is a GENE-Y, cytosolic PGES is a GENE-Y, cPGES is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES2 is a GENE-Y, cPGES is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, thymidine is a CHEMICAL, NADPH oxidase is a GENE-N, NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, calcium - binding domains is a GENE-N, NOX5 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, thymidine is a CHEMICAL, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, nuclear factor κB is a GENE-N, NF - κB is a GENE-N, NF - κB1 is a GENE-Y, p50 is a GENE-Y, p50 is a GENE-Y, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, thymidine is a CHEMICAL, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, NF - κB binding elements is a GENE-N, GGAGTCTCCC is a GENE-N, CGGGACACCC is a GENE-N, mPGES1 gene promoter is a GENE-N, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, PGE2 is a CHEMICAL, mPGES1 is a GENE-Y, NOX5-S is a GENE-Y, NF - κB1 is a GENE-Y, p50 is a GENE-Y, Microsomal PGES1 is a GENE-Y
|
7014_task1
|
Sentence: NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S and Nuclear Factor κB1 Mediate Acid-Induced Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 Expression in Barrett's Esophageal Adenocarcinoma Cells.
The mechanisms of progression from Barrett's esophagus (BE) to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA) are not known. Cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2)-derived prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) has been shown to be important in esophageal tumorigenesis. We have shown that COX-2 mediates acid-induced PGE2 production. The prostaglandin E synthase (PGES) responsible for acid-induced PGE2 production in BE, however, is not known. We found that microsomal PGES1 (mPGES1), mPGES2, and cytosolic PGES (cPGES) were present in FLO EA cells. Pulsed acid treatment significantly increased mPGES1 mRNA and protein levels but had little or no effect on mPGES2 or cPGES mRNA. Knockdown of mPGES1 by mPGES1 small interfering RNA (siRNA) blocked acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and thymidine incorporation. Knockdown of NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, a variant lacking calcium-binding domains, by NOX5 siRNA significantly inhibited acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Overexpression of NOX5-S significantly increased the luciferase activity in FLO cells transfected with a nuclear factor κB (NF-κB) in vivo activation reporter plasmid pNF-κB-Luc. Knockdown of NF-κB1 p50 by p50 siRNA significantly decreased acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Two novel NF-κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC and CGGGACACCC, were identified in the mPGES1 gene promoter. We conclude that mPGES1 mediates acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and cell proliferation. Acid-induced mPGES1 expression depends on activation of NOX5-S and NF-κB1 p50. Microsomal PGES1 may be a potential target to prevent or treat EA.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S, Nuclear Factor κB1, Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1, Cycloxygenase-2, prostaglandin E2, PGE2, COX-2, PGE2, prostaglandin E synthase, PGES, PGE2, microsomal PGES1, mPGES1, mPGES2, cytosolic PGES, cPGES, mPGES1, mPGES2, cPGES, mPGES1, mPGES1, PGE2, thymidine, NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, calcium - binding domains, NOX5, mPGES1, thymidine, PGE2, NOX5-S, nuclear factor κB, NF - κB, NF - κB1, p50, p50, mPGES1, thymidine, PGE2, NF - κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC, CGGGACACCC, mPGES1 gene promoter, mPGES1, PGE2, mPGES1, NOX5-S, NF - κB1, p50, Microsomal PGES1
Options: GENE-N, GENE-Y, CHEMICAL
|
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NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S and Nuclear Factor κB1 Mediate Acid-Induced Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 Expression in Barrett's Esophageal Adenocarcinoma Cells.
The mechanisms of progression from Barrett's esophagus (BE) to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA) are not known. Cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2)-derived prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) has been shown to be important in esophageal tumorigenesis. We have shown that COX-2 mediates acid-induced PGE2 production. The prostaglandin E synthase (PGES) responsible for acid-induced PGE2 production in BE, however, is not known. We found that microsomal PGES1 (mPGES1), mPGES2, and cytosolic PGES (cPGES) were present in FLO EA cells. Pulsed acid treatment significantly increased mPGES1 mRNA and protein levels but had little or no effect on mPGES2 or cPGES mRNA. Knockdown of mPGES1 by mPGES1 small interfering RNA (siRNA) blocked acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and thymidine incorporation. Knockdown of NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, a variant lacking calcium-binding domains, by NOX5 siRNA significantly inhibited acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Overexpression of NOX5-S significantly increased the luciferase activity in FLO cells transfected with a nuclear factor κB (NF-κB) in vivo activation reporter plasmid pNF-κB-Luc. Knockdown of NF-κB1 p50 by p50 siRNA significantly decreased acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Two novel NF-κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC and CGGGACACCC, were identified in the mPGES1 gene promoter. We conclude that mPGES1 mediates acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and cell proliferation. Acid-induced mPGES1 expression depends on activation of NOX5-S and NF-κB1 p50. Microsomal PGES1 may be a potential target to prevent or treat EA.
|
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] |
[
"GENE-Y",
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NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S, Nuclear Factor κB1, Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1, Cycloxygenase-2, prostaglandin E2, PGE2, COX-2, PGE2, prostaglandin E synthase, PGES, PGE2, microsomal PGES1, mPGES1, mPGES2, cytosolic PGES, cPGES, mPGES1, mPGES2, cPGES, mPGES1, mPGES1, PGE2, thymidine, NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, calcium - binding domains, NOX5, mPGES1, thymidine, PGE2, NOX5-S, nuclear factor κB, NF - κB, NF - κB1, p50, p50, mPGES1, thymidine, PGE2, NF - κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC, CGGGACACCC, mPGES1 gene promoter, mPGES1, PGE2, mPGES1, NOX5-S, NF - κB1, p50, Microsomal PGES1
|
7014_task2
|
Sentence: NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S and Nuclear Factor κB1 Mediate Acid-Induced Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 Expression in Barrett's Esophageal Adenocarcinoma Cells.
The mechanisms of progression from Barrett's esophagus (BE) to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA) are not known. Cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2)-derived prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) has been shown to be important in esophageal tumorigenesis. We have shown that COX-2 mediates acid-induced PGE2 production. The prostaglandin E synthase (PGES) responsible for acid-induced PGE2 production in BE, however, is not known. We found that microsomal PGES1 (mPGES1), mPGES2, and cytosolic PGES (cPGES) were present in FLO EA cells. Pulsed acid treatment significantly increased mPGES1 mRNA and protein levels but had little or no effect on mPGES2 or cPGES mRNA. Knockdown of mPGES1 by mPGES1 small interfering RNA (siRNA) blocked acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and thymidine incorporation. Knockdown of NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, a variant lacking calcium-binding domains, by NOX5 siRNA significantly inhibited acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Overexpression of NOX5-S significantly increased the luciferase activity in FLO cells transfected with a nuclear factor κB (NF-κB) in vivo activation reporter plasmid pNF-κB-Luc. Knockdown of NF-κB1 p50 by p50 siRNA significantly decreased acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Two novel NF-κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC and CGGGACACCC, were identified in the mPGES1 gene promoter. We conclude that mPGES1 mediates acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and cell proliferation. Acid-induced mPGES1 expression depends on activation of NOX5-S and NF-κB1 p50. Microsomal PGES1 may be a potential target to prevent or treat EA.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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NADPH Oxidase NOX5-S and Nuclear Factor κB1 Mediate Acid-Induced Microsomal Prostaglandin E Synthase-1 Expression in Barrett's Esophageal Adenocarcinoma Cells.
The mechanisms of progression from Barrett's esophagus (BE) to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EA) are not known. Cycloxygenase-2 (COX-2)-derived prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) has been shown to be important in esophageal tumorigenesis. We have shown that COX-2 mediates acid-induced PGE2 production. The prostaglandin E synthase (PGES) responsible for acid-induced PGE2 production in BE, however, is not known. We found that microsomal PGES1 (mPGES1), mPGES2, and cytosolic PGES (cPGES) were present in FLO EA cells. Pulsed acid treatment significantly increased mPGES1 mRNA and protein levels but had little or no effect on mPGES2 or cPGES mRNA. Knockdown of mPGES1 by mPGES1 small interfering RNA (siRNA) blocked acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and thymidine incorporation. Knockdown of NADPH oxidase, NOX5-S, a variant lacking calcium-binding domains, by NOX5 siRNA significantly inhibited acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Overexpression of NOX5-S significantly increased the luciferase activity in FLO cells transfected with a nuclear factor κB (NF-κB) in vivo activation reporter plasmid pNF-κB-Luc. Knockdown of NF-κB1 p50 by p50 siRNA significantly decreased acid-induced increase in mPGES1 expression, thymidine incorporation, and PGE2 production. Two novel NF-κB binding elements, GGAGTCTCCC and CGGGACACCC, were identified in the mPGES1 gene promoter. We conclude that mPGES1 mediates acid-induced increase in PGE2 production and cell proliferation. Acid-induced mPGES1 expression depends on activation of NOX5-S and NF-κB1 p50. Microsomal PGES1 may be a potential target to prevent or treat EA.
|
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] |
[
"GENE-Y",
"GENE-N",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
CD14 is a Protein, mCD14 is a Protein, mCD14 is a Protein, CD14 is a Protein, complement receptor-1 is a Protein, CR1 is a Protein, CD14 is a Protein, TNF - alpha is a Protein, CD14 is a Protein, mCD14 is a Protein, CR1 is a Protein
|
9317151_task0
|
Sentence: Dual effects of LPS antibodies on cellular uptake of LPS and LPS-induced proinflammatory functions.
Human phagocytes recognize bacterial LPS (endotoxin) through membrane CD14 (mCD14), a proinflammatory LPS receptor. This study tested the hypothesis that anti-LPS Abs neutralize endotoxin by blocking cellular uptake through mCD14. Ab-associated changes in the uptake and cellular distribution of FITC-LPS were assessed by flow cytometry and laser scanning confocal microscopy in human CD14-transfected Chinese hamster ovary fibroblasts (CHO-CD14 cells) and human peripheral blood monocytes. LPS core- and O-side chain-specific mAbs inhibited mCD14-mediated LPS uptake by both cell types in the presence of serum. O-side chain-specific mAb concurrently enhanced complement-dependent LPS uptake by monocytes through complement receptor-1 (CR1) and uptake by CHO-CD14 cells involving another heat-labile serum factor(s) and cell-associated recognition molecule(s). Core-specific mAb inhibited mCD14-mediated uptake of homologous and heterologous LPS, while producing less concurrent enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake. The modulation by anti-LPS mAbs of mCD14-mediated LPS uptake was associated with inhibition of LPS-induced nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) translocation and TNF-alpha secretion in CHO-CD14 cells and monocytes, respectively, while mAb enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake stimulated these activities. LPS-specific Abs thus mediate anti-inflammatory and proinflammatory functions, respectively, by preventing target cell uptake of LPS through mCD14 and augmenting uptake through CR1 or other cell receptors.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Protein
|
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] |
Dual effects of LPS antibodies on cellular uptake of LPS and LPS-induced proinflammatory functions.
Human phagocytes recognize bacterial LPS (endotoxin) through membrane CD14 (mCD14), a proinflammatory LPS receptor. This study tested the hypothesis that anti-LPS Abs neutralize endotoxin by blocking cellular uptake through mCD14. Ab-associated changes in the uptake and cellular distribution of FITC-LPS were assessed by flow cytometry and laser scanning confocal microscopy in human CD14-transfected Chinese hamster ovary fibroblasts (CHO-CD14 cells) and human peripheral blood monocytes. LPS core- and O-side chain-specific mAbs inhibited mCD14-mediated LPS uptake by both cell types in the presence of serum. O-side chain-specific mAb concurrently enhanced complement-dependent LPS uptake by monocytes through complement receptor-1 (CR1) and uptake by CHO-CD14 cells involving another heat-labile serum factor(s) and cell-associated recognition molecule(s). Core-specific mAb inhibited mCD14-mediated uptake of homologous and heterologous LPS, while producing less concurrent enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake. The modulation by anti-LPS mAbs of mCD14-mediated LPS uptake was associated with inhibition of LPS-induced nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) translocation and TNF-alpha secretion in CHO-CD14 cells and monocytes, respectively, while mAb enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake stimulated these activities. LPS-specific Abs thus mediate anti-inflammatory and proinflammatory functions, respectively, by preventing target cell uptake of LPS through mCD14 and augmenting uptake through CR1 or other cell receptors.
|
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] |
[
"Protein"
] |
CD14 is a Protein, mCD14 is a Protein, mCD14 is a Protein, CD14 is a Protein, complement receptor-1 is a Protein, CR1 is a Protein, CD14 is a Protein, TNF - alpha is a Protein, CD14 is a Protein, mCD14 is a Protein, CR1 is a Protein
|
9317151_task1
|
Sentence: Dual effects of LPS antibodies on cellular uptake of LPS and LPS-induced proinflammatory functions.
Human phagocytes recognize bacterial LPS (endotoxin) through membrane CD14 (mCD14), a proinflammatory LPS receptor. This study tested the hypothesis that anti-LPS Abs neutralize endotoxin by blocking cellular uptake through mCD14. Ab-associated changes in the uptake and cellular distribution of FITC-LPS were assessed by flow cytometry and laser scanning confocal microscopy in human CD14-transfected Chinese hamster ovary fibroblasts (CHO-CD14 cells) and human peripheral blood monocytes. LPS core- and O-side chain-specific mAbs inhibited mCD14-mediated LPS uptake by both cell types in the presence of serum. O-side chain-specific mAb concurrently enhanced complement-dependent LPS uptake by monocytes through complement receptor-1 (CR1) and uptake by CHO-CD14 cells involving another heat-labile serum factor(s) and cell-associated recognition molecule(s). Core-specific mAb inhibited mCD14-mediated uptake of homologous and heterologous LPS, while producing less concurrent enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake. The modulation by anti-LPS mAbs of mCD14-mediated LPS uptake was associated with inhibition of LPS-induced nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) translocation and TNF-alpha secretion in CHO-CD14 cells and monocytes, respectively, while mAb enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake stimulated these activities. LPS-specific Abs thus mediate anti-inflammatory and proinflammatory functions, respectively, by preventing target cell uptake of LPS through mCD14 and augmenting uptake through CR1 or other cell receptors.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: CD14, mCD14, mCD14, CD14, complement receptor-1, CR1, CD14, TNF - alpha, CD14, mCD14, CR1
Options: Protein
|
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9317151_task2
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Sentence: Dual effects of LPS antibodies on cellular uptake of LPS and LPS-induced proinflammatory functions.
Human phagocytes recognize bacterial LPS (endotoxin) through membrane CD14 (mCD14), a proinflammatory LPS receptor. This study tested the hypothesis that anti-LPS Abs neutralize endotoxin by blocking cellular uptake through mCD14. Ab-associated changes in the uptake and cellular distribution of FITC-LPS were assessed by flow cytometry and laser scanning confocal microscopy in human CD14-transfected Chinese hamster ovary fibroblasts (CHO-CD14 cells) and human peripheral blood monocytes. LPS core- and O-side chain-specific mAbs inhibited mCD14-mediated LPS uptake by both cell types in the presence of serum. O-side chain-specific mAb concurrently enhanced complement-dependent LPS uptake by monocytes through complement receptor-1 (CR1) and uptake by CHO-CD14 cells involving another heat-labile serum factor(s) and cell-associated recognition molecule(s). Core-specific mAb inhibited mCD14-mediated uptake of homologous and heterologous LPS, while producing less concurrent enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake. The modulation by anti-LPS mAbs of mCD14-mediated LPS uptake was associated with inhibition of LPS-induced nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) translocation and TNF-alpha secretion in CHO-CD14 cells and monocytes, respectively, while mAb enhancement of non-mCD14-mediated LPS uptake stimulated these activities. LPS-specific Abs thus mediate anti-inflammatory and proinflammatory functions, respectively, by preventing target cell uptake of LPS through mCD14 and augmenting uptake through CR1 or other cell receptors.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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Osteotomie is an umlsterm, Methode is an umlsterm, Platte is an umlsterm, Fusssohlenhaut is an umlsterm
|
DerOrthopaede.60250345.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Eine einfache schraege Osteotomie im distalen Drittel des Schafts des Os metatarsale wird beschrieben . Es ist dies eine Methode , um Vorfussschmerzen zu behandeln , die auftreten , wenn das Metatarsalkoepfchen wie bei einem Knopflochmechanismus durch die plantare Platte prolabiert und der Fusssohlenhaut anhaftet . Dieses Verfahren hat eine hohe Erfolgsrate und hat sich auch bei langer Beobachtungszeit ( ueber 1/4 Jahrhundert ) bewaehrt .
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DerOrthopaede.60250345.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Eine einfache schraege Osteotomie im distalen Drittel des Schafts des Os metatarsale wird beschrieben . Es ist dies eine Methode , um Vorfussschmerzen zu behandeln , die auftreten , wenn das Metatarsalkoepfchen wie bei einem Knopflochmechanismus durch die plantare Platte prolabiert und der Fusssohlenhaut anhaftet . Dieses Verfahren hat eine hohe Erfolgsrate und hat sich auch bei langer Beobachtungszeit ( ueber 1/4 Jahrhundert ) bewaehrt .
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Eine einfache schraege Osteotomie im distalen Drittel des Schafts des Os metatarsale wird beschrieben . Es ist dies eine Methode , um Vorfussschmerzen zu behandeln , die auftreten , wenn das Metatarsalkoepfchen wie bei einem Knopflochmechanismus durch die plantare Platte prolabiert und der Fusssohlenhaut anhaftet . Dieses Verfahren hat eine hohe Erfolgsrate und hat sich auch bei langer Beobachtungszeit ( ueber 1/4 Jahrhundert ) bewaehrt .
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DerOrthopaede.60250345.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Eine einfache schraege Osteotomie im distalen Drittel des Schafts des Os metatarsale wird beschrieben . Es ist dies eine Methode , um Vorfussschmerzen zu behandeln , die auftreten , wenn das Metatarsalkoepfchen wie bei einem Knopflochmechanismus durch die plantare Platte prolabiert und der Fusssohlenhaut anhaftet . Dieses Verfahren hat eine hohe Erfolgsrate und hat sich auch bei langer Beobachtungszeit ( ueber 1/4 Jahrhundert ) bewaehrt .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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Eine einfache schraege Osteotomie im distalen Drittel des Schafts des Os metatarsale wird beschrieben . Es ist dies eine Methode , um Vorfussschmerzen zu behandeln , die auftreten , wenn das Metatarsalkoepfchen wie bei einem Knopflochmechanismus durch die plantare Platte prolabiert und der Fusssohlenhaut anhaftet . Dieses Verfahren hat eine hohe Erfolgsrate und hat sich auch bei langer Beobachtungszeit ( ueber 1/4 Jahrhundert ) bewaehrt .
|
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Literatur is an umlsterm, Fallbeobachtungen is an umlsterm, Therapie is an umlsterm, Kreuzotterbissen is an umlsterm, Bissverletzungen is an umlsterm, Kreuzottern is an umlsterm, Behandlung is an umlsterm, Oedeme is an umlsterm, Haemolyse is an umlsterm, Nierenversagen is an umlsterm, Vergiftung is an umlsterm, Wahrscheinlichkeit is an umlsterm, Vergiftung is an umlsterm
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Notfall+Rettungsmedizin.80010150.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Die Literatur zwischen 1990 und 1997 sowie 3 eigene Fallbeobachtungen wurden nach Symptomatik und aktueller Therapie von Kreuzotterbissen ( Vipera berus ) ausgewertet . Bissverletzungen durch Kreuzottern sind selten , der Verlauf in den meisten Faellen unter symptomatischer Behandlung gut- artig , Todesfaelle sind die Ausnahme . Die hauptsaechliche Giftwirkung besteht in der Entwicklung teils bedrohlicher Oedeme ; Haemolyse disseminierter Gerinnungsstoerung und konsekutives Nierenversagen , kommen vor . Wenn mehr als 2-3 h nach dem Ereignis noch keinerlei Anzeichen einer Vergiftung vorliegen , ist die Wahrscheinlichkeit einer schweren Vergiftung sehr gering .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
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Die Literatur zwischen 1990 und 1997 sowie 3 eigene Fallbeobachtungen wurden nach Symptomatik und aktueller Therapie von Kreuzotterbissen ( Vipera berus ) ausgewertet . Bissverletzungen durch Kreuzottern sind selten , der Verlauf in den meisten Faellen unter symptomatischer Behandlung gut- artig , Todesfaelle sind die Ausnahme . Die hauptsaechliche Giftwirkung besteht in der Entwicklung teils bedrohlicher Oedeme ; Haemolyse disseminierter Gerinnungsstoerung und konsekutives Nierenversagen , kommen vor . Wenn mehr als 2-3 h nach dem Ereignis noch keinerlei Anzeichen einer Vergiftung vorliegen , ist die Wahrscheinlichkeit einer schweren Vergiftung sehr gering .
|
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Notfall+Rettungsmedizin.80010150.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Die Literatur zwischen 1990 und 1997 sowie 3 eigene Fallbeobachtungen wurden nach Symptomatik und aktueller Therapie von Kreuzotterbissen ( Vipera berus ) ausgewertet . Bissverletzungen durch Kreuzottern sind selten , der Verlauf in den meisten Faellen unter symptomatischer Behandlung gut- artig , Todesfaelle sind die Ausnahme . Die hauptsaechliche Giftwirkung besteht in der Entwicklung teils bedrohlicher Oedeme ; Haemolyse disseminierter Gerinnungsstoerung und konsekutives Nierenversagen , kommen vor . Wenn mehr als 2-3 h nach dem Ereignis noch keinerlei Anzeichen einer Vergiftung vorliegen , ist die Wahrscheinlichkeit einer schweren Vergiftung sehr gering .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Literatur, Fallbeobachtungen, Therapie, Kreuzotterbissen, Bissverletzungen, Kreuzottern, Behandlung, Oedeme, Haemolyse, Nierenversagen, Vergiftung, Wahrscheinlichkeit, Vergiftung
Options: umlsterm
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Die Literatur zwischen 1990 und 1997 sowie 3 eigene Fallbeobachtungen wurden nach Symptomatik und aktueller Therapie von Kreuzotterbissen ( Vipera berus ) ausgewertet . Bissverletzungen durch Kreuzottern sind selten , der Verlauf in den meisten Faellen unter symptomatischer Behandlung gut- artig , Todesfaelle sind die Ausnahme . Die hauptsaechliche Giftwirkung besteht in der Entwicklung teils bedrohlicher Oedeme ; Haemolyse disseminierter Gerinnungsstoerung und konsekutives Nierenversagen , kommen vor . Wenn mehr als 2-3 h nach dem Ereignis noch keinerlei Anzeichen einer Vergiftung vorliegen , ist die Wahrscheinlichkeit einer schweren Vergiftung sehr gering .
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[
"umlsterm"
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|
Notfall+Rettungsmedizin.80010150.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Die Literatur zwischen 1990 und 1997 sowie 3 eigene Fallbeobachtungen wurden nach Symptomatik und aktueller Therapie von Kreuzotterbissen ( Vipera berus ) ausgewertet . Bissverletzungen durch Kreuzottern sind selten , der Verlauf in den meisten Faellen unter symptomatischer Behandlung gut- artig , Todesfaelle sind die Ausnahme . Die hauptsaechliche Giftwirkung besteht in der Entwicklung teils bedrohlicher Oedeme ; Haemolyse disseminierter Gerinnungsstoerung und konsekutives Nierenversagen , kommen vor . Wenn mehr als 2-3 h nach dem Ereignis noch keinerlei Anzeichen einer Vergiftung vorliegen , ist die Wahrscheinlichkeit einer schweren Vergiftung sehr gering .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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Die Literatur zwischen 1990 und 1997 sowie 3 eigene Fallbeobachtungen wurden nach Symptomatik und aktueller Therapie von Kreuzotterbissen ( Vipera berus ) ausgewertet . Bissverletzungen durch Kreuzottern sind selten , der Verlauf in den meisten Faellen unter symptomatischer Behandlung gut- artig , Todesfaelle sind die Ausnahme . Die hauptsaechliche Giftwirkung besteht in der Entwicklung teils bedrohlicher Oedeme ; Haemolyse disseminierter Gerinnungsstoerung und konsekutives Nierenversagen , kommen vor . Wenn mehr als 2-3 h nach dem Ereignis noch keinerlei Anzeichen einer Vergiftung vorliegen , ist die Wahrscheinlichkeit einer schweren Vergiftung sehr gering .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Limb is an umlsterm, dwarfism is an umlsterm, procedure is an umlsterm, prognosis is an umlsterm, leg is an umlsterm, leg is an umlsterm, femur is an umlsterm, humerus is an umlsterm, Limb is an umlsterm, dwarfism is an umlsterm, risks is an umlsterm, complications is an umlsterm, procedure is an umlsterm, time is an umlsterm, patients is an umlsterm, dwarfism is an umlsterm, Hospital is an umlsterm, Children is an umlsterm
|
DerOrthopaede.00290787.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Limb lengthening in dwarfism has become a standardised procedure with a good prognosis . In most cases external fixation is used . Gain of leg length up to 15 cm and more is possible in the lower leg and the femur and 8.5 cm in the humerus . Limb lengthening is useful in many cases of dwarfism due to skeletal dysplasia . There are a number of risks and possible complications involved and the procedure also requires considerable time . We report the results of 48 patients with dwarfism operated on in the Orthopaedische Kinderklinik Aschau ( Orthopaedic Hospital for Children ) .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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Limb lengthening in dwarfism has become a standardised procedure with a good prognosis . In most cases external fixation is used . Gain of leg length up to 15 cm and more is possible in the lower leg and the femur and 8.5 cm in the humerus . Limb lengthening is useful in many cases of dwarfism due to skeletal dysplasia . There are a number of risks and possible complications involved and the procedure also requires considerable time . We report the results of 48 patients with dwarfism operated on in the Orthopaedische Kinderklinik Aschau ( Orthopaedic Hospital for Children ) .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Limb is an umlsterm, dwarfism is an umlsterm, procedure is an umlsterm, prognosis is an umlsterm, leg is an umlsterm, leg is an umlsterm, femur is an umlsterm, humerus is an umlsterm, Limb is an umlsterm, dwarfism is an umlsterm, risks is an umlsterm, complications is an umlsterm, procedure is an umlsterm, time is an umlsterm, patients is an umlsterm, dwarfism is an umlsterm, Hospital is an umlsterm, Children is an umlsterm
|
DerOrthopaede.00290787.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Limb lengthening in dwarfism has become a standardised procedure with a good prognosis . In most cases external fixation is used . Gain of leg length up to 15 cm and more is possible in the lower leg and the femur and 8.5 cm in the humerus . Limb lengthening is useful in many cases of dwarfism due to skeletal dysplasia . There are a number of risks and possible complications involved and the procedure also requires considerable time . We report the results of 48 patients with dwarfism operated on in the Orthopaedische Kinderklinik Aschau ( Orthopaedic Hospital for Children ) .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Limb, dwarfism, procedure, prognosis, leg, leg, femur, humerus, Limb, dwarfism, risks, complications, procedure, time, patients, dwarfism, Hospital, Children
Options: umlsterm
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Limb lengthening in dwarfism has become a standardised procedure with a good prognosis . In most cases external fixation is used . Gain of leg length up to 15 cm and more is possible in the lower leg and the femur and 8.5 cm in the humerus . Limb lengthening is useful in many cases of dwarfism due to skeletal dysplasia . There are a number of risks and possible complications involved and the procedure also requires considerable time . We report the results of 48 patients with dwarfism operated on in the Orthopaedische Kinderklinik Aschau ( Orthopaedic Hospital for Children ) .
|
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Limb, dwarfism, procedure, prognosis, leg, leg, femur, humerus, Limb, dwarfism, risks, complications, procedure, time, patients, dwarfism, Hospital, Children
|
DerOrthopaede.00290787.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Limb lengthening in dwarfism has become a standardised procedure with a good prognosis . In most cases external fixation is used . Gain of leg length up to 15 cm and more is possible in the lower leg and the femur and 8.5 cm in the humerus . Limb lengthening is useful in many cases of dwarfism due to skeletal dysplasia . There are a number of risks and possible complications involved and the procedure also requires considerable time . We report the results of 48 patients with dwarfism operated on in the Orthopaedische Kinderklinik Aschau ( Orthopaedic Hospital for Children ) .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Limb lengthening in dwarfism has become a standardised procedure with a good prognosis . In most cases external fixation is used . Gain of leg length up to 15 cm and more is possible in the lower leg and the femur and 8.5 cm in the humerus . Limb lengthening is useful in many cases of dwarfism due to skeletal dysplasia . There are a number of risks and possible complications involved and the procedure also requires considerable time . We report the results of 48 patients with dwarfism operated on in the Orthopaedische Kinderklinik Aschau ( Orthopaedic Hospital for Children ) .
|
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"umlsterm"
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misoprostol is a Intervention_Pharmacological, syntometrine is a Intervention_Pharmacological, third stage of labor is a Participant_Condition, Three hundred and fifty - five is a Participant_Sample-size, women is a Participant_Sex, oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine is a Intervention_Pharmacological, hemoglobin level is a Outcome_Physical, mean blood loss is a Outcome_Physical, shivering is a Outcome_Physical, nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia is a Outcome_Adverse-effects
|
27828_task0
|
Sentence: A double-blind randomized controlled trial of oral misoprostol and intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . BACKGROUND The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of oral misoprostol 400 mug with intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . MATERIAL AND METHODS This was a double-blind randomized controlled trial conducted in a tertiary care hospital . Three hundred and fifty-five women randomized to receive either oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine in the third stage of labor were studied . The change in hemoglobin level from before to 48 h after delivery , use of additional oxytocics and treatment related side effects were the main outcome measures . RESULTS There were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of the change in hemoglobin level and mean blood loss . The incidence of shivering was significantly higher in the misoprostol group whilst that of vomiting was significantly higher in the syntometrine group . There were no differences in the incidence of nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia between the two groups . CONCLUSION Orally administered misoprostol at a dose of 400 mug is an acceptable alternative in preventing post-partum blood loss , as measured by the peri-partum change in hemoglobin level and was not associated with an increased incidence of side effects .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Participant_Sex, Participant_Condition, Outcome_Physical, Participant_Sample-size
|
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A double-blind randomized controlled trial of oral misoprostol and intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . BACKGROUND The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of oral misoprostol 400 mug with intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . MATERIAL AND METHODS This was a double-blind randomized controlled trial conducted in a tertiary care hospital . Three hundred and fifty-five women randomized to receive either oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine in the third stage of labor were studied . The change in hemoglobin level from before to 48 h after delivery , use of additional oxytocics and treatment related side effects were the main outcome measures . RESULTS There were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of the change in hemoglobin level and mean blood loss . The incidence of shivering was significantly higher in the misoprostol group whilst that of vomiting was significantly higher in the syntometrine group . There were no differences in the incidence of nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia between the two groups . CONCLUSION Orally administered misoprostol at a dose of 400 mug is an acceptable alternative in preventing post-partum blood loss , as measured by the peri-partum change in hemoglobin level and was not associated with an increased incidence of side effects .
|
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misoprostol is a Intervention_Pharmacological, syntometrine is a Intervention_Pharmacological, third stage of labor is a Participant_Condition, Three hundred and fifty - five is a Participant_Sample-size, women is a Participant_Sex, oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine is a Intervention_Pharmacological, hemoglobin level is a Outcome_Physical, mean blood loss is a Outcome_Physical, shivering is a Outcome_Physical, nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia is a Outcome_Adverse-effects
|
27828_task1
|
Sentence: A double-blind randomized controlled trial of oral misoprostol and intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . BACKGROUND The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of oral misoprostol 400 mug with intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . MATERIAL AND METHODS This was a double-blind randomized controlled trial conducted in a tertiary care hospital . Three hundred and fifty-five women randomized to receive either oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine in the third stage of labor were studied . The change in hemoglobin level from before to 48 h after delivery , use of additional oxytocics and treatment related side effects were the main outcome measures . RESULTS There were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of the change in hemoglobin level and mean blood loss . The incidence of shivering was significantly higher in the misoprostol group whilst that of vomiting was significantly higher in the syntometrine group . There were no differences in the incidence of nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia between the two groups . CONCLUSION Orally administered misoprostol at a dose of 400 mug is an acceptable alternative in preventing post-partum blood loss , as measured by the peri-partum change in hemoglobin level and was not associated with an increased incidence of side effects .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: misoprostol, syntometrine, third stage of labor, Three hundred and fifty - five, women, oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine, hemoglobin level, mean blood loss, shivering, nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Participant_Sex, Participant_Condition, Outcome_Physical, Participant_Sample-size
|
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A double-blind randomized controlled trial of oral misoprostol and intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . BACKGROUND The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of oral misoprostol 400 mug with intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . MATERIAL AND METHODS This was a double-blind randomized controlled trial conducted in a tertiary care hospital . Three hundred and fifty-five women randomized to receive either oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine in the third stage of labor were studied . The change in hemoglobin level from before to 48 h after delivery , use of additional oxytocics and treatment related side effects were the main outcome measures . RESULTS There were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of the change in hemoglobin level and mean blood loss . The incidence of shivering was significantly higher in the misoprostol group whilst that of vomiting was significantly higher in the syntometrine group . There were no differences in the incidence of nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia between the two groups . CONCLUSION Orally administered misoprostol at a dose of 400 mug is an acceptable alternative in preventing post-partum blood loss , as measured by the peri-partum change in hemoglobin level and was not associated with an increased incidence of side effects .
|
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misoprostol, syntometrine, third stage of labor, Three hundred and fifty - five, women, oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine, hemoglobin level, mean blood loss, shivering, nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia
|
27828_task2
|
Sentence: A double-blind randomized controlled trial of oral misoprostol and intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . BACKGROUND The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of oral misoprostol 400 mug with intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . MATERIAL AND METHODS This was a double-blind randomized controlled trial conducted in a tertiary care hospital . Three hundred and fifty-five women randomized to receive either oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine in the third stage of labor were studied . The change in hemoglobin level from before to 48 h after delivery , use of additional oxytocics and treatment related side effects were the main outcome measures . RESULTS There were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of the change in hemoglobin level and mean blood loss . The incidence of shivering was significantly higher in the misoprostol group whilst that of vomiting was significantly higher in the syntometrine group . There were no differences in the incidence of nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia between the two groups . CONCLUSION Orally administered misoprostol at a dose of 400 mug is an acceptable alternative in preventing post-partum blood loss , as measured by the peri-partum change in hemoglobin level and was not associated with an increased incidence of side effects .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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A double-blind randomized controlled trial of oral misoprostol and intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . BACKGROUND The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy and safety of oral misoprostol 400 mug with intramuscular syntometrine in the management of the third stage of labor . MATERIAL AND METHODS This was a double-blind randomized controlled trial conducted in a tertiary care hospital . Three hundred and fifty-five women randomized to receive either oral misoprostol 400 mug or intramuscular syntometrine in the third stage of labor were studied . The change in hemoglobin level from before to 48 h after delivery , use of additional oxytocics and treatment related side effects were the main outcome measures . RESULTS There were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of the change in hemoglobin level and mean blood loss . The incidence of shivering was significantly higher in the misoprostol group whilst that of vomiting was significantly higher in the syntometrine group . There were no differences in the incidence of nausea , headache , diarrhea and pyrexia between the two groups . CONCLUSION Orally administered misoprostol at a dose of 400 mug is an acceptable alternative in preventing post-partum blood loss , as measured by the peri-partum change in hemoglobin level and was not associated with an increased incidence of side effects .
|
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carcinoma epidermoide in situ is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, nevus is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, Tumoración is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa de partes blandas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, melanoma is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, maligna is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, Melanoma is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, lesiones óseas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa de partes blandas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, enfermedad a nivel cerebral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, maligna is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
621_task0
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Mujer con 68 años de edad diabética, obesa e hipertensa, con antecedentes personales de carcinoma epidermoide in situ de cérvix en el año 1996 intervenida quirúrgicamente y tratada con radioterapia (RT). Posteriormente, presentó obstrucción intestinal secundaria a enteritis rádica precisando hemicolectomía derecha con múltiples complicaciones secundarias (dehiscencia de anastomosis postquirúrgica, con ileostomía de rescate; en segundo tiempo se reconstruyó mediante anastomosis yeyunocólica y eventroplastia). Además, presentaba anemia leve normocítica en probable relación a patología de trastornos crónico.
En el año 2016, refiere lesión localizada en el vértice craneal, de crecimiento rápido en los últimos 6 meses que ha sangrado de forma abundante con la fricción. Según la paciente, creía que tenía una lesión previa en esa misma zona (no sabía especificar si nevus).
Exploración física
Tumoración multilobulada en vértex de 4,5 cm, de consistencia firme en base y blanda en lóbulo más grande con costra hemorrágica en su base derecha. En el dermatoscopio no se apreció patrón melanocítico. Se palpan adenopatías retro e infraauriculares y occipitales de consistencia firme.
Pruebas complementarias
TC cervicotoracoabdominopélvica con CIV (agosto de 2015): a nivel cervical, se visualizaron adenopatías que captaron realce en niveles IIb bilaterales, en región posterior de ambas parótidas y retroauriculares derechas, todas ellas de más de 1 cm de diámetro. En el tórax, destacó la presencia de varios nódulos bilaterales de predominio izquierdo, compatibles con metástasis sin observarse adenopatías. A nivel de esqueleto, también había múltiples lesiones compatibles con metástasis algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas asociadas (a nivel del 2º arco costal izquierdo, 5º arco costal y 6º arco costal derecho, hueso iliaco izquierdo y cuerpo vertebral D11).
Anatomía Patológica: melanoma que mide 1 cm de profundidad (ocupa todo el espesor de la muestra). Estudio de mutación V600E: negativo.
TC craneal (marzo de 2017): no se evidenciaban signos de sangrado intracraneal, con atenuación homogénea de la sustancia blanca y adecuada diferenciación corticosubcortical. No había lesiones ocupantes de espacio ni captación patológica meníngeas ni parenquimatosas.
PET-TC (marzo de 2018): estudio realizado desde vértex hasta tercio superior de los miembros inferiores. No se apreciaban lesiones con claro incremento de actividad metabólica que sugieran enfermedad tumoral activa; únicamente se evidenció leve incremento del metabolismo en arco posterior de 5ª costilla derecha (SUVmax 1,6 vs. 1,3 contralateral), en correspondencia con TC localizadora con lesión mixta de muy dudosa significación para enfermedad tumoral activa. Conclusión: estudio sin clara evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Diagnóstico
Melanoma estadio IV mutación V600E negativa.
Tratamiento
Se le realizó biopsia e indicó curas locales de la lesión; derivándose al Servicio de Oncología, donde comienza en marzo de ese año con nivolumab (3 mg/kg cada dos semanas, pesaba 92 kg). Se le han administrado 47 ciclos de nivolumab.
Evolución
La paciente, tras el primer ciclo de inmunoterapia presentó disminución leve del tamaño de la lesión, que continúo mejorando hasta junio de 2016 (tras 6 ciclos de tratamiento) donde se objetivó respuesta completa a nivel local, por lo que se solicitó body-TC de reevaluación.
Durante este tiempo, mantenía niveles de hemoglobina en torno a 8-8,5 mg/dl, por lo que se amplió con estudio de perfil de anemia, encontrándose ferropenia, para lo cual se pautó hierro y EPO (epoetina alfa). Además, presentó durante este tiempo mucositis oral y vaginal tras la toma de amoxicilina clavulánico por una infección faríngea y diarrea grado I que apareció a los 3 días del 10 ciclo (siendo dudosa la relación con el tratamiento).
En la 1ª body-TC de reevaluación tras 10 ciclos de nivolumab (septiembre de 2016), se objetivó la desaparición de lesiones nodulares hipercaptantes en cuero cabelludo, así como disminución de adenopatías hipercaptantes periparotídeas. En cuanto a las lesiones óseas se observan varias lesiones blásticas, algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas.
La mujer se mantuvo clínicamente estable, sin pérdida de peso con ciertas complicaciones leves tras algunos ciclos:
» Tras el ciclo 18, refirió sensación de escozor y ligera descamación en lesiones cutáneas milimétricas que no habían modificado el tamaño respecto a las previas y aparición de astenia grado I, a pesar de lo cual se continuó con el ciclo pautado, sin otra toxicidad relacionada con el tratamiento.
» Tras el ciclo 27, empezó a comentar anorexia grado 1 por lo que se añadió al tratamiento suplementos nutricionales continuando con la inmunoterapia.
» Tras el ciclo 30, nos indicó la aparición de diarrea grado I y prurito en cuero cabelludo, que se mantuvieron alrededor de un mes con resolución posterior.
» A partir del ciclo 36, reaparecieron toxicidades leves como toxicidad cutánea y diarrea grado I; comenzando con alteraciones del ciclo sueño-vigilia.
» No se han objetivado alteraciones analíticas hepáticas, manteniendo anemia en tratamiento con EPO con los máximos niveles evidenciados de 12,7 mg/dl, implicando una resolución de la misma a partir de ciclo 39.
En lo referente a las TC de reevaluación (torac-abdominopélvica y craneal), se realizaron tres: la primera de ellas en marzo de 2017 (tras haber recibido 27 ciclos), la segunda en julio de 2017 (tras haber recibido 30 ciclos) y la tercera en octubre de 2017 (tras 38 ciclos) con enfermedad estable radiológicamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad a nivel cerebral. El tratamiento se finaliza tras dos años en marzo de 2018, y se realiza PET-TC detallada previamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
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Anamnesis
Mujer con 68 años de edad diabética, obesa e hipertensa, con antecedentes personales de carcinoma epidermoide in situ de cérvix en el año 1996 intervenida quirúrgicamente y tratada con radioterapia (RT). Posteriormente, presentó obstrucción intestinal secundaria a enteritis rádica precisando hemicolectomía derecha con múltiples complicaciones secundarias (dehiscencia de anastomosis postquirúrgica, con ileostomía de rescate; en segundo tiempo se reconstruyó mediante anastomosis yeyunocólica y eventroplastia). Además, presentaba anemia leve normocítica en probable relación a patología de trastornos crónico.
En el año 2016, refiere lesión localizada en el vértice craneal, de crecimiento rápido en los últimos 6 meses que ha sangrado de forma abundante con la fricción. Según la paciente, creía que tenía una lesión previa en esa misma zona (no sabía especificar si nevus).
Exploración física
Tumoración multilobulada en vértex de 4,5 cm, de consistencia firme en base y blanda en lóbulo más grande con costra hemorrágica en su base derecha. En el dermatoscopio no se apreció patrón melanocítico. Se palpan adenopatías retro e infraauriculares y occipitales de consistencia firme.
Pruebas complementarias
TC cervicotoracoabdominopélvica con CIV (agosto de 2015): a nivel cervical, se visualizaron adenopatías que captaron realce en niveles IIb bilaterales, en región posterior de ambas parótidas y retroauriculares derechas, todas ellas de más de 1 cm de diámetro. En el tórax, destacó la presencia de varios nódulos bilaterales de predominio izquierdo, compatibles con metástasis sin observarse adenopatías. A nivel de esqueleto, también había múltiples lesiones compatibles con metástasis algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas asociadas (a nivel del 2º arco costal izquierdo, 5º arco costal y 6º arco costal derecho, hueso iliaco izquierdo y cuerpo vertebral D11).
Anatomía Patológica: melanoma que mide 1 cm de profundidad (ocupa todo el espesor de la muestra). Estudio de mutación V600E: negativo.
TC craneal (marzo de 2017): no se evidenciaban signos de sangrado intracraneal, con atenuación homogénea de la sustancia blanca y adecuada diferenciación corticosubcortical. No había lesiones ocupantes de espacio ni captación patológica meníngeas ni parenquimatosas.
PET-TC (marzo de 2018): estudio realizado desde vértex hasta tercio superior de los miembros inferiores. No se apreciaban lesiones con claro incremento de actividad metabólica que sugieran enfermedad tumoral activa; únicamente se evidenció leve incremento del metabolismo en arco posterior de 5ª costilla derecha (SUVmax 1,6 vs. 1,3 contralateral), en correspondencia con TC localizadora con lesión mixta de muy dudosa significación para enfermedad tumoral activa. Conclusión: estudio sin clara evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Diagnóstico
Melanoma estadio IV mutación V600E negativa.
Tratamiento
Se le realizó biopsia e indicó curas locales de la lesión; derivándose al Servicio de Oncología, donde comienza en marzo de ese año con nivolumab (3 mg/kg cada dos semanas, pesaba 92 kg). Se le han administrado 47 ciclos de nivolumab.
Evolución
La paciente, tras el primer ciclo de inmunoterapia presentó disminución leve del tamaño de la lesión, que continúo mejorando hasta junio de 2016 (tras 6 ciclos de tratamiento) donde se objetivó respuesta completa a nivel local, por lo que se solicitó body-TC de reevaluación.
Durante este tiempo, mantenía niveles de hemoglobina en torno a 8-8,5 mg/dl, por lo que se amplió con estudio de perfil de anemia, encontrándose ferropenia, para lo cual se pautó hierro y EPO (epoetina alfa). Además, presentó durante este tiempo mucositis oral y vaginal tras la toma de amoxicilina clavulánico por una infección faríngea y diarrea grado I que apareció a los 3 días del 10 ciclo (siendo dudosa la relación con el tratamiento).
En la 1ª body-TC de reevaluación tras 10 ciclos de nivolumab (septiembre de 2016), se objetivó la desaparición de lesiones nodulares hipercaptantes en cuero cabelludo, así como disminución de adenopatías hipercaptantes periparotídeas. En cuanto a las lesiones óseas se observan varias lesiones blásticas, algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas.
La mujer se mantuvo clínicamente estable, sin pérdida de peso con ciertas complicaciones leves tras algunos ciclos:
» Tras el ciclo 18, refirió sensación de escozor y ligera descamación en lesiones cutáneas milimétricas que no habían modificado el tamaño respecto a las previas y aparición de astenia grado I, a pesar de lo cual se continuó con el ciclo pautado, sin otra toxicidad relacionada con el tratamiento.
» Tras el ciclo 27, empezó a comentar anorexia grado 1 por lo que se añadió al tratamiento suplementos nutricionales continuando con la inmunoterapia.
» Tras el ciclo 30, nos indicó la aparición de diarrea grado I y prurito en cuero cabelludo, que se mantuvieron alrededor de un mes con resolución posterior.
» A partir del ciclo 36, reaparecieron toxicidades leves como toxicidad cutánea y diarrea grado I; comenzando con alteraciones del ciclo sueño-vigilia.
» No se han objetivado alteraciones analíticas hepáticas, manteniendo anemia en tratamiento con EPO con los máximos niveles evidenciados de 12,7 mg/dl, implicando una resolución de la misma a partir de ciclo 39.
En lo referente a las TC de reevaluación (torac-abdominopélvica y craneal), se realizaron tres: la primera de ellas en marzo de 2017 (tras haber recibido 27 ciclos), la segunda en julio de 2017 (tras haber recibido 30 ciclos) y la tercera en octubre de 2017 (tras 38 ciclos) con enfermedad estable radiológicamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad a nivel cerebral. El tratamiento se finaliza tras dos años en marzo de 2018, y se realiza PET-TC detallada previamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
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carcinoma epidermoide in situ is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, nevus is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, Tumoración is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa de partes blandas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, melanoma is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, maligna is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, Melanoma is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, lesiones óseas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa de partes blandas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, enfermedad a nivel cerebral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, maligna is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
621_task1
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Mujer con 68 años de edad diabética, obesa e hipertensa, con antecedentes personales de carcinoma epidermoide in situ de cérvix en el año 1996 intervenida quirúrgicamente y tratada con radioterapia (RT). Posteriormente, presentó obstrucción intestinal secundaria a enteritis rádica precisando hemicolectomía derecha con múltiples complicaciones secundarias (dehiscencia de anastomosis postquirúrgica, con ileostomía de rescate; en segundo tiempo se reconstruyó mediante anastomosis yeyunocólica y eventroplastia). Además, presentaba anemia leve normocítica en probable relación a patología de trastornos crónico.
En el año 2016, refiere lesión localizada en el vértice craneal, de crecimiento rápido en los últimos 6 meses que ha sangrado de forma abundante con la fricción. Según la paciente, creía que tenía una lesión previa en esa misma zona (no sabía especificar si nevus).
Exploración física
Tumoración multilobulada en vértex de 4,5 cm, de consistencia firme en base y blanda en lóbulo más grande con costra hemorrágica en su base derecha. En el dermatoscopio no se apreció patrón melanocítico. Se palpan adenopatías retro e infraauriculares y occipitales de consistencia firme.
Pruebas complementarias
TC cervicotoracoabdominopélvica con CIV (agosto de 2015): a nivel cervical, se visualizaron adenopatías que captaron realce en niveles IIb bilaterales, en región posterior de ambas parótidas y retroauriculares derechas, todas ellas de más de 1 cm de diámetro. En el tórax, destacó la presencia de varios nódulos bilaterales de predominio izquierdo, compatibles con metástasis sin observarse adenopatías. A nivel de esqueleto, también había múltiples lesiones compatibles con metástasis algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas asociadas (a nivel del 2º arco costal izquierdo, 5º arco costal y 6º arco costal derecho, hueso iliaco izquierdo y cuerpo vertebral D11).
Anatomía Patológica: melanoma que mide 1 cm de profundidad (ocupa todo el espesor de la muestra). Estudio de mutación V600E: negativo.
TC craneal (marzo de 2017): no se evidenciaban signos de sangrado intracraneal, con atenuación homogénea de la sustancia blanca y adecuada diferenciación corticosubcortical. No había lesiones ocupantes de espacio ni captación patológica meníngeas ni parenquimatosas.
PET-TC (marzo de 2018): estudio realizado desde vértex hasta tercio superior de los miembros inferiores. No se apreciaban lesiones con claro incremento de actividad metabólica que sugieran enfermedad tumoral activa; únicamente se evidenció leve incremento del metabolismo en arco posterior de 5ª costilla derecha (SUVmax 1,6 vs. 1,3 contralateral), en correspondencia con TC localizadora con lesión mixta de muy dudosa significación para enfermedad tumoral activa. Conclusión: estudio sin clara evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Diagnóstico
Melanoma estadio IV mutación V600E negativa.
Tratamiento
Se le realizó biopsia e indicó curas locales de la lesión; derivándose al Servicio de Oncología, donde comienza en marzo de ese año con nivolumab (3 mg/kg cada dos semanas, pesaba 92 kg). Se le han administrado 47 ciclos de nivolumab.
Evolución
La paciente, tras el primer ciclo de inmunoterapia presentó disminución leve del tamaño de la lesión, que continúo mejorando hasta junio de 2016 (tras 6 ciclos de tratamiento) donde se objetivó respuesta completa a nivel local, por lo que se solicitó body-TC de reevaluación.
Durante este tiempo, mantenía niveles de hemoglobina en torno a 8-8,5 mg/dl, por lo que se amplió con estudio de perfil de anemia, encontrándose ferropenia, para lo cual se pautó hierro y EPO (epoetina alfa). Además, presentó durante este tiempo mucositis oral y vaginal tras la toma de amoxicilina clavulánico por una infección faríngea y diarrea grado I que apareció a los 3 días del 10 ciclo (siendo dudosa la relación con el tratamiento).
En la 1ª body-TC de reevaluación tras 10 ciclos de nivolumab (septiembre de 2016), se objetivó la desaparición de lesiones nodulares hipercaptantes en cuero cabelludo, así como disminución de adenopatías hipercaptantes periparotídeas. En cuanto a las lesiones óseas se observan varias lesiones blásticas, algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas.
La mujer se mantuvo clínicamente estable, sin pérdida de peso con ciertas complicaciones leves tras algunos ciclos:
» Tras el ciclo 18, refirió sensación de escozor y ligera descamación en lesiones cutáneas milimétricas que no habían modificado el tamaño respecto a las previas y aparición de astenia grado I, a pesar de lo cual se continuó con el ciclo pautado, sin otra toxicidad relacionada con el tratamiento.
» Tras el ciclo 27, empezó a comentar anorexia grado 1 por lo que se añadió al tratamiento suplementos nutricionales continuando con la inmunoterapia.
» Tras el ciclo 30, nos indicó la aparición de diarrea grado I y prurito en cuero cabelludo, que se mantuvieron alrededor de un mes con resolución posterior.
» A partir del ciclo 36, reaparecieron toxicidades leves como toxicidad cutánea y diarrea grado I; comenzando con alteraciones del ciclo sueño-vigilia.
» No se han objetivado alteraciones analíticas hepáticas, manteniendo anemia en tratamiento con EPO con los máximos niveles evidenciados de 12,7 mg/dl, implicando una resolución de la misma a partir de ciclo 39.
En lo referente a las TC de reevaluación (torac-abdominopélvica y craneal), se realizaron tres: la primera de ellas en marzo de 2017 (tras haber recibido 27 ciclos), la segunda en julio de 2017 (tras haber recibido 30 ciclos) y la tercera en octubre de 2017 (tras 38 ciclos) con enfermedad estable radiológicamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad a nivel cerebral. El tratamiento se finaliza tras dos años en marzo de 2018, y se realiza PET-TC detallada previamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: carcinoma epidermoide in situ, nevus, Tumoración, metástasis, metástasis, masa de partes blandas, melanoma, tumoral, tumoral, maligna, Melanoma, lesiones óseas, masa de partes blandas, enfermedad a nivel cerebral, maligna
Options: MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
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Anamnesis
Mujer con 68 años de edad diabética, obesa e hipertensa, con antecedentes personales de carcinoma epidermoide in situ de cérvix en el año 1996 intervenida quirúrgicamente y tratada con radioterapia (RT). Posteriormente, presentó obstrucción intestinal secundaria a enteritis rádica precisando hemicolectomía derecha con múltiples complicaciones secundarias (dehiscencia de anastomosis postquirúrgica, con ileostomía de rescate; en segundo tiempo se reconstruyó mediante anastomosis yeyunocólica y eventroplastia). Además, presentaba anemia leve normocítica en probable relación a patología de trastornos crónico.
En el año 2016, refiere lesión localizada en el vértice craneal, de crecimiento rápido en los últimos 6 meses que ha sangrado de forma abundante con la fricción. Según la paciente, creía que tenía una lesión previa en esa misma zona (no sabía especificar si nevus).
Exploración física
Tumoración multilobulada en vértex de 4,5 cm, de consistencia firme en base y blanda en lóbulo más grande con costra hemorrágica en su base derecha. En el dermatoscopio no se apreció patrón melanocítico. Se palpan adenopatías retro e infraauriculares y occipitales de consistencia firme.
Pruebas complementarias
TC cervicotoracoabdominopélvica con CIV (agosto de 2015): a nivel cervical, se visualizaron adenopatías que captaron realce en niveles IIb bilaterales, en región posterior de ambas parótidas y retroauriculares derechas, todas ellas de más de 1 cm de diámetro. En el tórax, destacó la presencia de varios nódulos bilaterales de predominio izquierdo, compatibles con metástasis sin observarse adenopatías. A nivel de esqueleto, también había múltiples lesiones compatibles con metástasis algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas asociadas (a nivel del 2º arco costal izquierdo, 5º arco costal y 6º arco costal derecho, hueso iliaco izquierdo y cuerpo vertebral D11).
Anatomía Patológica: melanoma que mide 1 cm de profundidad (ocupa todo el espesor de la muestra). Estudio de mutación V600E: negativo.
TC craneal (marzo de 2017): no se evidenciaban signos de sangrado intracraneal, con atenuación homogénea de la sustancia blanca y adecuada diferenciación corticosubcortical. No había lesiones ocupantes de espacio ni captación patológica meníngeas ni parenquimatosas.
PET-TC (marzo de 2018): estudio realizado desde vértex hasta tercio superior de los miembros inferiores. No se apreciaban lesiones con claro incremento de actividad metabólica que sugieran enfermedad tumoral activa; únicamente se evidenció leve incremento del metabolismo en arco posterior de 5ª costilla derecha (SUVmax 1,6 vs. 1,3 contralateral), en correspondencia con TC localizadora con lesión mixta de muy dudosa significación para enfermedad tumoral activa. Conclusión: estudio sin clara evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Diagnóstico
Melanoma estadio IV mutación V600E negativa.
Tratamiento
Se le realizó biopsia e indicó curas locales de la lesión; derivándose al Servicio de Oncología, donde comienza en marzo de ese año con nivolumab (3 mg/kg cada dos semanas, pesaba 92 kg). Se le han administrado 47 ciclos de nivolumab.
Evolución
La paciente, tras el primer ciclo de inmunoterapia presentó disminución leve del tamaño de la lesión, que continúo mejorando hasta junio de 2016 (tras 6 ciclos de tratamiento) donde se objetivó respuesta completa a nivel local, por lo que se solicitó body-TC de reevaluación.
Durante este tiempo, mantenía niveles de hemoglobina en torno a 8-8,5 mg/dl, por lo que se amplió con estudio de perfil de anemia, encontrándose ferropenia, para lo cual se pautó hierro y EPO (epoetina alfa). Además, presentó durante este tiempo mucositis oral y vaginal tras la toma de amoxicilina clavulánico por una infección faríngea y diarrea grado I que apareció a los 3 días del 10 ciclo (siendo dudosa la relación con el tratamiento).
En la 1ª body-TC de reevaluación tras 10 ciclos de nivolumab (septiembre de 2016), se objetivó la desaparición de lesiones nodulares hipercaptantes en cuero cabelludo, así como disminución de adenopatías hipercaptantes periparotídeas. En cuanto a las lesiones óseas se observan varias lesiones blásticas, algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas.
La mujer se mantuvo clínicamente estable, sin pérdida de peso con ciertas complicaciones leves tras algunos ciclos:
» Tras el ciclo 18, refirió sensación de escozor y ligera descamación en lesiones cutáneas milimétricas que no habían modificado el tamaño respecto a las previas y aparición de astenia grado I, a pesar de lo cual se continuó con el ciclo pautado, sin otra toxicidad relacionada con el tratamiento.
» Tras el ciclo 27, empezó a comentar anorexia grado 1 por lo que se añadió al tratamiento suplementos nutricionales continuando con la inmunoterapia.
» Tras el ciclo 30, nos indicó la aparición de diarrea grado I y prurito en cuero cabelludo, que se mantuvieron alrededor de un mes con resolución posterior.
» A partir del ciclo 36, reaparecieron toxicidades leves como toxicidad cutánea y diarrea grado I; comenzando con alteraciones del ciclo sueño-vigilia.
» No se han objetivado alteraciones analíticas hepáticas, manteniendo anemia en tratamiento con EPO con los máximos niveles evidenciados de 12,7 mg/dl, implicando una resolución de la misma a partir de ciclo 39.
En lo referente a las TC de reevaluación (torac-abdominopélvica y craneal), se realizaron tres: la primera de ellas en marzo de 2017 (tras haber recibido 27 ciclos), la segunda en julio de 2017 (tras haber recibido 30 ciclos) y la tercera en octubre de 2017 (tras 38 ciclos) con enfermedad estable radiológicamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad a nivel cerebral. El tratamiento se finaliza tras dos años en marzo de 2018, y se realiza PET-TC detallada previamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
carcinoma epidermoide in situ, nevus, Tumoración, metástasis, metástasis, masa de partes blandas, melanoma, tumoral, tumoral, maligna, Melanoma, lesiones óseas, masa de partes blandas, enfermedad a nivel cerebral, maligna
|
621_task2
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Mujer con 68 años de edad diabética, obesa e hipertensa, con antecedentes personales de carcinoma epidermoide in situ de cérvix en el año 1996 intervenida quirúrgicamente y tratada con radioterapia (RT). Posteriormente, presentó obstrucción intestinal secundaria a enteritis rádica precisando hemicolectomía derecha con múltiples complicaciones secundarias (dehiscencia de anastomosis postquirúrgica, con ileostomía de rescate; en segundo tiempo se reconstruyó mediante anastomosis yeyunocólica y eventroplastia). Además, presentaba anemia leve normocítica en probable relación a patología de trastornos crónico.
En el año 2016, refiere lesión localizada en el vértice craneal, de crecimiento rápido en los últimos 6 meses que ha sangrado de forma abundante con la fricción. Según la paciente, creía que tenía una lesión previa en esa misma zona (no sabía especificar si nevus).
Exploración física
Tumoración multilobulada en vértex de 4,5 cm, de consistencia firme en base y blanda en lóbulo más grande con costra hemorrágica en su base derecha. En el dermatoscopio no se apreció patrón melanocítico. Se palpan adenopatías retro e infraauriculares y occipitales de consistencia firme.
Pruebas complementarias
TC cervicotoracoabdominopélvica con CIV (agosto de 2015): a nivel cervical, se visualizaron adenopatías que captaron realce en niveles IIb bilaterales, en región posterior de ambas parótidas y retroauriculares derechas, todas ellas de más de 1 cm de diámetro. En el tórax, destacó la presencia de varios nódulos bilaterales de predominio izquierdo, compatibles con metástasis sin observarse adenopatías. A nivel de esqueleto, también había múltiples lesiones compatibles con metástasis algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas asociadas (a nivel del 2º arco costal izquierdo, 5º arco costal y 6º arco costal derecho, hueso iliaco izquierdo y cuerpo vertebral D11).
Anatomía Patológica: melanoma que mide 1 cm de profundidad (ocupa todo el espesor de la muestra). Estudio de mutación V600E: negativo.
TC craneal (marzo de 2017): no se evidenciaban signos de sangrado intracraneal, con atenuación homogénea de la sustancia blanca y adecuada diferenciación corticosubcortical. No había lesiones ocupantes de espacio ni captación patológica meníngeas ni parenquimatosas.
PET-TC (marzo de 2018): estudio realizado desde vértex hasta tercio superior de los miembros inferiores. No se apreciaban lesiones con claro incremento de actividad metabólica que sugieran enfermedad tumoral activa; únicamente se evidenció leve incremento del metabolismo en arco posterior de 5ª costilla derecha (SUVmax 1,6 vs. 1,3 contralateral), en correspondencia con TC localizadora con lesión mixta de muy dudosa significación para enfermedad tumoral activa. Conclusión: estudio sin clara evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Diagnóstico
Melanoma estadio IV mutación V600E negativa.
Tratamiento
Se le realizó biopsia e indicó curas locales de la lesión; derivándose al Servicio de Oncología, donde comienza en marzo de ese año con nivolumab (3 mg/kg cada dos semanas, pesaba 92 kg). Se le han administrado 47 ciclos de nivolumab.
Evolución
La paciente, tras el primer ciclo de inmunoterapia presentó disminución leve del tamaño de la lesión, que continúo mejorando hasta junio de 2016 (tras 6 ciclos de tratamiento) donde se objetivó respuesta completa a nivel local, por lo que se solicitó body-TC de reevaluación.
Durante este tiempo, mantenía niveles de hemoglobina en torno a 8-8,5 mg/dl, por lo que se amplió con estudio de perfil de anemia, encontrándose ferropenia, para lo cual se pautó hierro y EPO (epoetina alfa). Además, presentó durante este tiempo mucositis oral y vaginal tras la toma de amoxicilina clavulánico por una infección faríngea y diarrea grado I que apareció a los 3 días del 10 ciclo (siendo dudosa la relación con el tratamiento).
En la 1ª body-TC de reevaluación tras 10 ciclos de nivolumab (septiembre de 2016), se objetivó la desaparición de lesiones nodulares hipercaptantes en cuero cabelludo, así como disminución de adenopatías hipercaptantes periparotídeas. En cuanto a las lesiones óseas se observan varias lesiones blásticas, algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas.
La mujer se mantuvo clínicamente estable, sin pérdida de peso con ciertas complicaciones leves tras algunos ciclos:
» Tras el ciclo 18, refirió sensación de escozor y ligera descamación en lesiones cutáneas milimétricas que no habían modificado el tamaño respecto a las previas y aparición de astenia grado I, a pesar de lo cual se continuó con el ciclo pautado, sin otra toxicidad relacionada con el tratamiento.
» Tras el ciclo 27, empezó a comentar anorexia grado 1 por lo que se añadió al tratamiento suplementos nutricionales continuando con la inmunoterapia.
» Tras el ciclo 30, nos indicó la aparición de diarrea grado I y prurito en cuero cabelludo, que se mantuvieron alrededor de un mes con resolución posterior.
» A partir del ciclo 36, reaparecieron toxicidades leves como toxicidad cutánea y diarrea grado I; comenzando con alteraciones del ciclo sueño-vigilia.
» No se han objetivado alteraciones analíticas hepáticas, manteniendo anemia en tratamiento con EPO con los máximos niveles evidenciados de 12,7 mg/dl, implicando una resolución de la misma a partir de ciclo 39.
En lo referente a las TC de reevaluación (torac-abdominopélvica y craneal), se realizaron tres: la primera de ellas en marzo de 2017 (tras haber recibido 27 ciclos), la segunda en julio de 2017 (tras haber recibido 30 ciclos) y la tercera en octubre de 2017 (tras 38 ciclos) con enfermedad estable radiológicamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad a nivel cerebral. El tratamiento se finaliza tras dos años en marzo de 2018, y se realiza PET-TC detallada previamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
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Anamnesis
Mujer con 68 años de edad diabética, obesa e hipertensa, con antecedentes personales de carcinoma epidermoide in situ de cérvix en el año 1996 intervenida quirúrgicamente y tratada con radioterapia (RT). Posteriormente, presentó obstrucción intestinal secundaria a enteritis rádica precisando hemicolectomía derecha con múltiples complicaciones secundarias (dehiscencia de anastomosis postquirúrgica, con ileostomía de rescate; en segundo tiempo se reconstruyó mediante anastomosis yeyunocólica y eventroplastia). Además, presentaba anemia leve normocítica en probable relación a patología de trastornos crónico.
En el año 2016, refiere lesión localizada en el vértice craneal, de crecimiento rápido en los últimos 6 meses que ha sangrado de forma abundante con la fricción. Según la paciente, creía que tenía una lesión previa en esa misma zona (no sabía especificar si nevus).
Exploración física
Tumoración multilobulada en vértex de 4,5 cm, de consistencia firme en base y blanda en lóbulo más grande con costra hemorrágica en su base derecha. En el dermatoscopio no se apreció patrón melanocítico. Se palpan adenopatías retro e infraauriculares y occipitales de consistencia firme.
Pruebas complementarias
TC cervicotoracoabdominopélvica con CIV (agosto de 2015): a nivel cervical, se visualizaron adenopatías que captaron realce en niveles IIb bilaterales, en región posterior de ambas parótidas y retroauriculares derechas, todas ellas de más de 1 cm de diámetro. En el tórax, destacó la presencia de varios nódulos bilaterales de predominio izquierdo, compatibles con metástasis sin observarse adenopatías. A nivel de esqueleto, también había múltiples lesiones compatibles con metástasis algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas asociadas (a nivel del 2º arco costal izquierdo, 5º arco costal y 6º arco costal derecho, hueso iliaco izquierdo y cuerpo vertebral D11).
Anatomía Patológica: melanoma que mide 1 cm de profundidad (ocupa todo el espesor de la muestra). Estudio de mutación V600E: negativo.
TC craneal (marzo de 2017): no se evidenciaban signos de sangrado intracraneal, con atenuación homogénea de la sustancia blanca y adecuada diferenciación corticosubcortical. No había lesiones ocupantes de espacio ni captación patológica meníngeas ni parenquimatosas.
PET-TC (marzo de 2018): estudio realizado desde vértex hasta tercio superior de los miembros inferiores. No se apreciaban lesiones con claro incremento de actividad metabólica que sugieran enfermedad tumoral activa; únicamente se evidenció leve incremento del metabolismo en arco posterior de 5ª costilla derecha (SUVmax 1,6 vs. 1,3 contralateral), en correspondencia con TC localizadora con lesión mixta de muy dudosa significación para enfermedad tumoral activa. Conclusión: estudio sin clara evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
Diagnóstico
Melanoma estadio IV mutación V600E negativa.
Tratamiento
Se le realizó biopsia e indicó curas locales de la lesión; derivándose al Servicio de Oncología, donde comienza en marzo de ese año con nivolumab (3 mg/kg cada dos semanas, pesaba 92 kg). Se le han administrado 47 ciclos de nivolumab.
Evolución
La paciente, tras el primer ciclo de inmunoterapia presentó disminución leve del tamaño de la lesión, que continúo mejorando hasta junio de 2016 (tras 6 ciclos de tratamiento) donde se objetivó respuesta completa a nivel local, por lo que se solicitó body-TC de reevaluación.
Durante este tiempo, mantenía niveles de hemoglobina en torno a 8-8,5 mg/dl, por lo que se amplió con estudio de perfil de anemia, encontrándose ferropenia, para lo cual se pautó hierro y EPO (epoetina alfa). Además, presentó durante este tiempo mucositis oral y vaginal tras la toma de amoxicilina clavulánico por una infección faríngea y diarrea grado I que apareció a los 3 días del 10 ciclo (siendo dudosa la relación con el tratamiento).
En la 1ª body-TC de reevaluación tras 10 ciclos de nivolumab (septiembre de 2016), se objetivó la desaparición de lesiones nodulares hipercaptantes en cuero cabelludo, así como disminución de adenopatías hipercaptantes periparotídeas. En cuanto a las lesiones óseas se observan varias lesiones blásticas, algunas de ellas con masa de partes blandas.
La mujer se mantuvo clínicamente estable, sin pérdida de peso con ciertas complicaciones leves tras algunos ciclos:
» Tras el ciclo 18, refirió sensación de escozor y ligera descamación en lesiones cutáneas milimétricas que no habían modificado el tamaño respecto a las previas y aparición de astenia grado I, a pesar de lo cual se continuó con el ciclo pautado, sin otra toxicidad relacionada con el tratamiento.
» Tras el ciclo 27, empezó a comentar anorexia grado 1 por lo que se añadió al tratamiento suplementos nutricionales continuando con la inmunoterapia.
» Tras el ciclo 30, nos indicó la aparición de diarrea grado I y prurito en cuero cabelludo, que se mantuvieron alrededor de un mes con resolución posterior.
» A partir del ciclo 36, reaparecieron toxicidades leves como toxicidad cutánea y diarrea grado I; comenzando con alteraciones del ciclo sueño-vigilia.
» No se han objetivado alteraciones analíticas hepáticas, manteniendo anemia en tratamiento con EPO con los máximos niveles evidenciados de 12,7 mg/dl, implicando una resolución de la misma a partir de ciclo 39.
En lo referente a las TC de reevaluación (torac-abdominopélvica y craneal), se realizaron tres: la primera de ellas en marzo de 2017 (tras haber recibido 27 ciclos), la segunda en julio de 2017 (tras haber recibido 30 ciclos) y la tercera en octubre de 2017 (tras 38 ciclos) con enfermedad estable radiológicamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad a nivel cerebral. El tratamiento se finaliza tras dos años en marzo de 2018, y se realiza PET-TC detallada previamente, sin evidencia de enfermedad macroscópica maligna desde el punto de vista metabólico.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
Analyse is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologischen Fraktur is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Knochentumoren is an umlsterm, pathologischen Fraktur is an umlsterm, Therapie is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Fraktur is an umlsterm, Diagnose is an umlsterm, Tumorleidens is an umlsterm, Pathologische Frakturen is an umlsterm, Knochens is an umlsterm, Tumoren is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, extremitaetenerhaltende is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologischer Fraktur is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologische Fraktur is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologischen Fraktur is an umlsterm, extremitaetenerhaltende is an umlsterm
|
DerChirurg.00711121.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Die retrospektive Analyse von 30 Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur aus einem Gesamtkollektiv von 336 Patienten mit primaer malignen Knochentumoren soll klaeren , welchen Einfluss das Auftreten einer pathologischen Fraktur und die Form der chirurgischen Therapie auf die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit haben . Bei 25 von 30 Patienten fuehrte die Fraktur zur Diagnose des Tumorleidens . Pathologische Frakturen traten gehaeuft bei malignen fibroesen Histiocytomen des Knochens und bei Tumoren im Stadium IIb und III auf . 26 von 30 Patienten wurden chirurgisch therapiert ( 12 ablative Verfahren , 14 extremitaetenerhaltende Verfahren ) . Das Sterberisiko von Patienten mit pathologischer Fraktur war gegenueber den Patienten ohne pathologische Fraktur mehr als verdoppelt ( p = 0,0062 ) . Bei Einhaltung adaequater Resektionsgrenzen ist die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit von Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur durch extremitaetenerhaltende Rekonstruktionsverfahren nicht beeinflusst .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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Zusammenfassung . Die retrospektive Analyse von 30 Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur aus einem Gesamtkollektiv von 336 Patienten mit primaer malignen Knochentumoren soll klaeren , welchen Einfluss das Auftreten einer pathologischen Fraktur und die Form der chirurgischen Therapie auf die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit haben . Bei 25 von 30 Patienten fuehrte die Fraktur zur Diagnose des Tumorleidens . Pathologische Frakturen traten gehaeuft bei malignen fibroesen Histiocytomen des Knochens und bei Tumoren im Stadium IIb und III auf . 26 von 30 Patienten wurden chirurgisch therapiert ( 12 ablative Verfahren , 14 extremitaetenerhaltende Verfahren ) . Das Sterberisiko von Patienten mit pathologischer Fraktur war gegenueber den Patienten ohne pathologische Fraktur mehr als verdoppelt ( p = 0,0062 ) . Bei Einhaltung adaequater Resektionsgrenzen ist die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit von Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur durch extremitaetenerhaltende Rekonstruktionsverfahren nicht beeinflusst .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
Analyse is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologischen Fraktur is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Knochentumoren is an umlsterm, pathologischen Fraktur is an umlsterm, Therapie is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Fraktur is an umlsterm, Diagnose is an umlsterm, Tumorleidens is an umlsterm, Pathologische Frakturen is an umlsterm, Knochens is an umlsterm, Tumoren is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, extremitaetenerhaltende is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologischer Fraktur is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologische Fraktur is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, pathologischen Fraktur is an umlsterm, extremitaetenerhaltende is an umlsterm
|
DerChirurg.00711121.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Die retrospektive Analyse von 30 Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur aus einem Gesamtkollektiv von 336 Patienten mit primaer malignen Knochentumoren soll klaeren , welchen Einfluss das Auftreten einer pathologischen Fraktur und die Form der chirurgischen Therapie auf die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit haben . Bei 25 von 30 Patienten fuehrte die Fraktur zur Diagnose des Tumorleidens . Pathologische Frakturen traten gehaeuft bei malignen fibroesen Histiocytomen des Knochens und bei Tumoren im Stadium IIb und III auf . 26 von 30 Patienten wurden chirurgisch therapiert ( 12 ablative Verfahren , 14 extremitaetenerhaltende Verfahren ) . Das Sterberisiko von Patienten mit pathologischer Fraktur war gegenueber den Patienten ohne pathologische Fraktur mehr als verdoppelt ( p = 0,0062 ) . Bei Einhaltung adaequater Resektionsgrenzen ist die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit von Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur durch extremitaetenerhaltende Rekonstruktionsverfahren nicht beeinflusst .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Analyse, Patienten, pathologischen Fraktur, Patienten, Knochentumoren, pathologischen Fraktur, Therapie, Patienten, Fraktur, Diagnose, Tumorleidens, Pathologische Frakturen, Knochens, Tumoren, Patienten, extremitaetenerhaltende, Patienten, pathologischer Fraktur, Patienten, pathologische Fraktur, Patienten, pathologischen Fraktur, extremitaetenerhaltende
Options: umlsterm
|
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"I-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Zusammenfassung . Die retrospektive Analyse von 30 Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur aus einem Gesamtkollektiv von 336 Patienten mit primaer malignen Knochentumoren soll klaeren , welchen Einfluss das Auftreten einer pathologischen Fraktur und die Form der chirurgischen Therapie auf die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit haben . Bei 25 von 30 Patienten fuehrte die Fraktur zur Diagnose des Tumorleidens . Pathologische Frakturen traten gehaeuft bei malignen fibroesen Histiocytomen des Knochens und bei Tumoren im Stadium IIb und III auf . 26 von 30 Patienten wurden chirurgisch therapiert ( 12 ablative Verfahren , 14 extremitaetenerhaltende Verfahren ) . Das Sterberisiko von Patienten mit pathologischer Fraktur war gegenueber den Patienten ohne pathologische Fraktur mehr als verdoppelt ( p = 0,0062 ) . Bei Einhaltung adaequater Resektionsgrenzen ist die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit von Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur durch extremitaetenerhaltende Rekonstruktionsverfahren nicht beeinflusst .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
Analyse, Patienten, pathologischen Fraktur, Patienten, Knochentumoren, pathologischen Fraktur, Therapie, Patienten, Fraktur, Diagnose, Tumorleidens, Pathologische Frakturen, Knochens, Tumoren, Patienten, extremitaetenerhaltende, Patienten, pathologischer Fraktur, Patienten, pathologische Fraktur, Patienten, pathologischen Fraktur, extremitaetenerhaltende
|
DerChirurg.00711121.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Die retrospektive Analyse von 30 Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur aus einem Gesamtkollektiv von 336 Patienten mit primaer malignen Knochentumoren soll klaeren , welchen Einfluss das Auftreten einer pathologischen Fraktur und die Form der chirurgischen Therapie auf die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit haben . Bei 25 von 30 Patienten fuehrte die Fraktur zur Diagnose des Tumorleidens . Pathologische Frakturen traten gehaeuft bei malignen fibroesen Histiocytomen des Knochens und bei Tumoren im Stadium IIb und III auf . 26 von 30 Patienten wurden chirurgisch therapiert ( 12 ablative Verfahren , 14 extremitaetenerhaltende Verfahren ) . Das Sterberisiko von Patienten mit pathologischer Fraktur war gegenueber den Patienten ohne pathologische Fraktur mehr als verdoppelt ( p = 0,0062 ) . Bei Einhaltung adaequater Resektionsgrenzen ist die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit von Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur durch extremitaetenerhaltende Rekonstruktionsverfahren nicht beeinflusst .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
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"I-umlsterm",
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"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Zusammenfassung . Die retrospektive Analyse von 30 Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur aus einem Gesamtkollektiv von 336 Patienten mit primaer malignen Knochentumoren soll klaeren , welchen Einfluss das Auftreten einer pathologischen Fraktur und die Form der chirurgischen Therapie auf die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit haben . Bei 25 von 30 Patienten fuehrte die Fraktur zur Diagnose des Tumorleidens . Pathologische Frakturen traten gehaeuft bei malignen fibroesen Histiocytomen des Knochens und bei Tumoren im Stadium IIb und III auf . 26 von 30 Patienten wurden chirurgisch therapiert ( 12 ablative Verfahren , 14 extremitaetenerhaltende Verfahren ) . Das Sterberisiko von Patienten mit pathologischer Fraktur war gegenueber den Patienten ohne pathologische Fraktur mehr als verdoppelt ( p = 0,0062 ) . Bei Einhaltung adaequater Resektionsgrenzen ist die Ueberlebenswahrscheinlichkeit von Patienten mit einer pathologischen Fraktur durch extremitaetenerhaltende Rekonstruktionsverfahren nicht beeinflusst .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Pflegewissenschaft is an umlsterm, Hochschulen is an umlsterm, pflegewissenschaftliche is an umlsterm, Universitaeten is an umlsterm, Bundesrepublik Deutschland is an umlsterm
|
ZfuerGerontologie+Geriatrie.80310157.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Die Etablierunf der Pflegewissenschaft an deutschen Hochschulen ist in eine Phase der Konsolidierung eingetreten , nachdem in den ersten Jahren ein deutlicher Nachholbedarf insbesondere gegenueber angloamerikanischen und skandinavischen Laendern zu verzeichnen war . Heute - 1997 - existieren ueber 40 pflegewissenschaftliche Studiengaenge an Fachhochschulen und Universitaeten in der Bundesrepublik Deutschland .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Die Etablierunf der Pflegewissenschaft an deutschen Hochschulen ist in eine Phase der Konsolidierung eingetreten , nachdem in den ersten Jahren ein deutlicher Nachholbedarf insbesondere gegenueber angloamerikanischen und skandinavischen Laendern zu verzeichnen war . Heute - 1997 - existieren ueber 40 pflegewissenschaftliche Studiengaenge an Fachhochschulen und Universitaeten in der Bundesrepublik Deutschland .
|
[
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Pflegewissenschaft is an umlsterm, Hochschulen is an umlsterm, pflegewissenschaftliche is an umlsterm, Universitaeten is an umlsterm, Bundesrepublik Deutschland is an umlsterm
|
ZfuerGerontologie+Geriatrie.80310157.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Die Etablierunf der Pflegewissenschaft an deutschen Hochschulen ist in eine Phase der Konsolidierung eingetreten , nachdem in den ersten Jahren ein deutlicher Nachholbedarf insbesondere gegenueber angloamerikanischen und skandinavischen Laendern zu verzeichnen war . Heute - 1997 - existieren ueber 40 pflegewissenschaftliche Studiengaenge an Fachhochschulen und Universitaeten in der Bundesrepublik Deutschland .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Pflegewissenschaft, Hochschulen, pflegewissenschaftliche, Universitaeten, Bundesrepublik Deutschland
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Die Etablierunf der Pflegewissenschaft an deutschen Hochschulen ist in eine Phase der Konsolidierung eingetreten , nachdem in den ersten Jahren ein deutlicher Nachholbedarf insbesondere gegenueber angloamerikanischen und skandinavischen Laendern zu verzeichnen war . Heute - 1997 - existieren ueber 40 pflegewissenschaftliche Studiengaenge an Fachhochschulen und Universitaeten in der Bundesrepublik Deutschland .
|
[
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Pflegewissenschaft, Hochschulen, pflegewissenschaftliche, Universitaeten, Bundesrepublik Deutschland
|
ZfuerGerontologie+Geriatrie.80310157.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Die Etablierunf der Pflegewissenschaft an deutschen Hochschulen ist in eine Phase der Konsolidierung eingetreten , nachdem in den ersten Jahren ein deutlicher Nachholbedarf insbesondere gegenueber angloamerikanischen und skandinavischen Laendern zu verzeichnen war . Heute - 1997 - existieren ueber 40 pflegewissenschaftliche Studiengaenge an Fachhochschulen und Universitaeten in der Bundesrepublik Deutschland .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Die Etablierunf der Pflegewissenschaft an deutschen Hochschulen ist in eine Phase der Konsolidierung eingetreten , nachdem in den ersten Jahren ein deutlicher Nachholbedarf insbesondere gegenueber angloamerikanischen und skandinavischen Laendern zu verzeichnen war . Heute - 1997 - existieren ueber 40 pflegewissenschaftliche Studiengaenge an Fachhochschulen und Universitaeten in der Bundesrepublik Deutschland .
|
[
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
History is a Observation, head trauma , seizure disorder , or mental retardation is a Scope, History is a Observation, alcohol or drug abuse or dependence is a Scope, within 1 month prior is a Temporal, History is a Observation, violence is a Observation, within 6 months prior is a Temporal
|
NCT00455663_exc_task0
|
Sentence: History of significant head trauma, seizure disorder, or mental retardation
History of alcohol or drug abuse or dependence within 1 month prior to study entry
History of violence within 6 months prior to study entry
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Scope, Temporal, Observation
|
[
"B-Observation",
"O",
"O",
"B-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"O",
"B-Observation",
"O",
"B-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"B-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Observation",
"O",
"B-Observation",
"B-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
History of significant head trauma, seizure disorder, or mental retardation
History of alcohol or drug abuse or dependence within 1 month prior to study entry
History of violence within 6 months prior to study entry
|
[
"History",
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"significant",
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"study",
"entry",
" \n \n"
] |
[
"Scope",
"Temporal",
"Condition",
"Observation"
] |
History is a Observation, head trauma , seizure disorder , or mental retardation is a Scope, History is a Observation, alcohol or drug abuse or dependence is a Scope, within 1 month prior is a Temporal, History is a Observation, violence is a Observation, within 6 months prior is a Temporal
|
NCT00455663_exc_task1
|
Sentence: History of significant head trauma, seizure disorder, or mental retardation
History of alcohol or drug abuse or dependence within 1 month prior to study entry
History of violence within 6 months prior to study entry
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: History, head trauma , seizure disorder , or mental retardation, History, alcohol or drug abuse or dependence, within 1 month prior, History, violence, within 6 months prior
Options: Scope, Temporal, Observation
|
[
"B-Observation",
"O",
"O",
"B-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"O",
"B-Observation",
"O",
"B-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"B-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Observation",
"O",
"B-Observation",
"B-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
History of significant head trauma, seizure disorder, or mental retardation
History of alcohol or drug abuse or dependence within 1 month prior to study entry
History of violence within 6 months prior to study entry
|
[
"History",
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[
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History, head trauma , seizure disorder , or mental retardation, History, alcohol or drug abuse or dependence, within 1 month prior, History, violence, within 6 months prior
|
NCT00455663_exc_task2
|
Sentence: History of significant head trauma, seizure disorder, or mental retardation
History of alcohol or drug abuse or dependence within 1 month prior to study entry
History of violence within 6 months prior to study entry
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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History of significant head trauma, seizure disorder, or mental retardation
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|
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[
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GSK3beta is a protein, APC - beta - catenin is a protein-complex
|
1.0alpha7.train.361_task0
|
Sentence: Cell, 78, 761-771 [Medline] ubinfeld, B. , Albert, I. , Porfiri, E. , Fiol, C. , Munemitso, S. and Polakis, P. (1996) Binding of GSK3beta to the APC-beta-catenin complex and regulation of complex assembly.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: protein, protein-complex
|
[
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Cell, 78, 761-771 [Medline] ubinfeld, B. , Albert, I. , Porfiri, E. , Fiol, C. , Munemitso, S. and Polakis, P. (1996) Binding of GSK3beta to the APC-beta-catenin complex and regulation of complex assembly.
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[
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GSK3beta is a protein, APC - beta - catenin is a protein-complex
|
1.0alpha7.train.361_task1
|
Sentence: Cell, 78, 761-771 [Medline] ubinfeld, B. , Albert, I. , Porfiri, E. , Fiol, C. , Munemitso, S. and Polakis, P. (1996) Binding of GSK3beta to the APC-beta-catenin complex and regulation of complex assembly.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: GSK3beta, APC - beta - catenin
Options: protein, protein-complex
|
[
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Cell, 78, 761-771 [Medline] ubinfeld, B. , Albert, I. , Porfiri, E. , Fiol, C. , Munemitso, S. and Polakis, P. (1996) Binding of GSK3beta to the APC-beta-catenin complex and regulation of complex assembly.
|
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[
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GSK3beta, APC - beta - catenin
|
1.0alpha7.train.361_task2
|
Sentence: Cell, 78, 761-771 [Medline] ubinfeld, B. , Albert, I. , Porfiri, E. , Fiol, C. , Munemitso, S. and Polakis, P. (1996) Binding of GSK3beta to the APC-beta-catenin complex and regulation of complex assembly.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
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"O"
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Cell, 78, 761-771 [Medline] ubinfeld, B. , Albert, I. , Porfiri, E. , Fiol, C. , Munemitso, S. and Polakis, P. (1996) Binding of GSK3beta to the APC-beta-catenin complex and regulation of complex assembly.
|
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[
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stem cell toxicity is a ADVERSE, cytotoxicity is a ADVERSE
|
example-146_task0
|
Sentence: Bendamustine, but not fludarabine, exhibits a low stem cell toxicity in vitro. PURPOSE: We investigated the in vitro toxicity of bendamustine and fludarabine to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells from healthy donors. METHODS: Clonogenic agar colony assays, non-clonogenic long-term liquid cultures (LTC) and apoptosis assays were used to assess the cytotoxicity of both the agents. RESULTS: Total colony-forming units (CFU) were more sensitive to fludarabine than to bendamustine in agar colony assays (IC(50) 0.7 microM/L and 8.5 microM/L, respectively). Using the Bliss independence model and combining the two agents yielded additive inhibition of progenitors. Non-clonogenic assays, including LTC and an apoptosis assay detecting activated caspases showed that stem cells are characterized by low sensitivity to bendamustine. In contrast, fludarabine strongly inhibited the viability and growth of stem cells in LTC. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that bendamustine is characterized by lower in vitro toxicity to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells than fludarabine and might thus be preferable in regimens prior to stem cells apheresis.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: ADVERSE
|
[
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Bendamustine, but not fludarabine, exhibits a low stem cell toxicity in vitro. PURPOSE: We investigated the in vitro toxicity of bendamustine and fludarabine to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells from healthy donors. METHODS: Clonogenic agar colony assays, non-clonogenic long-term liquid cultures (LTC) and apoptosis assays were used to assess the cytotoxicity of both the agents. RESULTS: Total colony-forming units (CFU) were more sensitive to fludarabine than to bendamustine in agar colony assays (IC(50) 0.7 microM/L and 8.5 microM/L, respectively). Using the Bliss independence model and combining the two agents yielded additive inhibition of progenitors. Non-clonogenic assays, including LTC and an apoptosis assay detecting activated caspases showed that stem cells are characterized by low sensitivity to bendamustine. In contrast, fludarabine strongly inhibited the viability and growth of stem cells in LTC. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that bendamustine is characterized by lower in vitro toxicity to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells than fludarabine and might thus be preferable in regimens prior to stem cells apheresis.
|
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] |
[
"ADVERSE"
] |
stem cell toxicity is a ADVERSE, cytotoxicity is a ADVERSE
|
example-146_task1
|
Sentence: Bendamustine, but not fludarabine, exhibits a low stem cell toxicity in vitro. PURPOSE: We investigated the in vitro toxicity of bendamustine and fludarabine to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells from healthy donors. METHODS: Clonogenic agar colony assays, non-clonogenic long-term liquid cultures (LTC) and apoptosis assays were used to assess the cytotoxicity of both the agents. RESULTS: Total colony-forming units (CFU) were more sensitive to fludarabine than to bendamustine in agar colony assays (IC(50) 0.7 microM/L and 8.5 microM/L, respectively). Using the Bliss independence model and combining the two agents yielded additive inhibition of progenitors. Non-clonogenic assays, including LTC and an apoptosis assay detecting activated caspases showed that stem cells are characterized by low sensitivity to bendamustine. In contrast, fludarabine strongly inhibited the viability and growth of stem cells in LTC. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that bendamustine is characterized by lower in vitro toxicity to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells than fludarabine and might thus be preferable in regimens prior to stem cells apheresis.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: stem cell toxicity, cytotoxicity
Options: ADVERSE
|
[
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Bendamustine, but not fludarabine, exhibits a low stem cell toxicity in vitro. PURPOSE: We investigated the in vitro toxicity of bendamustine and fludarabine to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells from healthy donors. METHODS: Clonogenic agar colony assays, non-clonogenic long-term liquid cultures (LTC) and apoptosis assays were used to assess the cytotoxicity of both the agents. RESULTS: Total colony-forming units (CFU) were more sensitive to fludarabine than to bendamustine in agar colony assays (IC(50) 0.7 microM/L and 8.5 microM/L, respectively). Using the Bliss independence model and combining the two agents yielded additive inhibition of progenitors. Non-clonogenic assays, including LTC and an apoptosis assay detecting activated caspases showed that stem cells are characterized by low sensitivity to bendamustine. In contrast, fludarabine strongly inhibited the viability and growth of stem cells in LTC. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that bendamustine is characterized by lower in vitro toxicity to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells than fludarabine and might thus be preferable in regimens prior to stem cells apheresis.
|
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] |
[
"ADVERSE"
] |
stem cell toxicity, cytotoxicity
|
example-146_task2
|
Sentence: Bendamustine, but not fludarabine, exhibits a low stem cell toxicity in vitro. PURPOSE: We investigated the in vitro toxicity of bendamustine and fludarabine to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells from healthy donors. METHODS: Clonogenic agar colony assays, non-clonogenic long-term liquid cultures (LTC) and apoptosis assays were used to assess the cytotoxicity of both the agents. RESULTS: Total colony-forming units (CFU) were more sensitive to fludarabine than to bendamustine in agar colony assays (IC(50) 0.7 microM/L and 8.5 microM/L, respectively). Using the Bliss independence model and combining the two agents yielded additive inhibition of progenitors. Non-clonogenic assays, including LTC and an apoptosis assay detecting activated caspases showed that stem cells are characterized by low sensitivity to bendamustine. In contrast, fludarabine strongly inhibited the viability and growth of stem cells in LTC. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that bendamustine is characterized by lower in vitro toxicity to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells than fludarabine and might thus be preferable in regimens prior to stem cells apheresis.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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Bendamustine, but not fludarabine, exhibits a low stem cell toxicity in vitro. PURPOSE: We investigated the in vitro toxicity of bendamustine and fludarabine to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells from healthy donors. METHODS: Clonogenic agar colony assays, non-clonogenic long-term liquid cultures (LTC) and apoptosis assays were used to assess the cytotoxicity of both the agents. RESULTS: Total colony-forming units (CFU) were more sensitive to fludarabine than to bendamustine in agar colony assays (IC(50) 0.7 microM/L and 8.5 microM/L, respectively). Using the Bliss independence model and combining the two agents yielded additive inhibition of progenitors. Non-clonogenic assays, including LTC and an apoptosis assay detecting activated caspases showed that stem cells are characterized by low sensitivity to bendamustine. In contrast, fludarabine strongly inhibited the viability and growth of stem cells in LTC. CONCLUSIONS: Our data show that bendamustine is characterized by lower in vitro toxicity to hematopoietic progenitors and stem cells than fludarabine and might thus be preferable in regimens prior to stem cells apheresis.
|
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] |
[
"ADVERSE"
] |
Oberkiefersegments is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Oberkiefersegmentposition is an umlsterm, schaedelbasisbezueglich is an umlsterm, Patientengut is an umlsterm
|
MundKieferGesichtschirurgie.90030067.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien koennen die Lage der Kiefergelenke beeinflussen . Waehrend des operativen Eingriffs entzieht sich jedoch das Kiefergelenk einer direkten visuellen Kontrolle des Operateurs . Mit Hilfe des computergestuetzten Navigationssystems SSN Surgical Segment Navigator ) ( wurden daher bei Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien intraoperativ die Bewegungen der Kiefergelenke registriert und aufgezeichnet , welche unbeabsichtigten Kiefergelenkpositionen aus konventionellen Einstellungen des Oberkiefersegments resultierten . Bei denselben Patienten wurden dann nach Vorgabe des SSN die Oberkiefersegmentposition schaedelbasisbezueglich nachkorrigiert und die Kondylenposition erneut bestimmt . Auf diese Weise konnten an demselben Patientengut die Genauigkeit einer konventionellen und SSN-gefuehrten Segmenteinstellung mit ihrem Einfluss auf die Kiefergelenkposition verglichen werden .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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] |
Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien koennen die Lage der Kiefergelenke beeinflussen . Waehrend des operativen Eingriffs entzieht sich jedoch das Kiefergelenk einer direkten visuellen Kontrolle des Operateurs . Mit Hilfe des computergestuetzten Navigationssystems SSN Surgical Segment Navigator ) ( wurden daher bei Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien intraoperativ die Bewegungen der Kiefergelenke registriert und aufgezeichnet , welche unbeabsichtigten Kiefergelenkpositionen aus konventionellen Einstellungen des Oberkiefersegments resultierten . Bei denselben Patienten wurden dann nach Vorgabe des SSN die Oberkiefersegmentposition schaedelbasisbezueglich nachkorrigiert und die Kondylenposition erneut bestimmt . Auf diese Weise konnten an demselben Patientengut die Genauigkeit einer konventionellen und SSN-gefuehrten Segmenteinstellung mit ihrem Einfluss auf die Kiefergelenkposition verglichen werden .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Oberkiefersegments is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Oberkiefersegmentposition is an umlsterm, schaedelbasisbezueglich is an umlsterm, Patientengut is an umlsterm
|
MundKieferGesichtschirurgie.90030067.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien koennen die Lage der Kiefergelenke beeinflussen . Waehrend des operativen Eingriffs entzieht sich jedoch das Kiefergelenk einer direkten visuellen Kontrolle des Operateurs . Mit Hilfe des computergestuetzten Navigationssystems SSN Surgical Segment Navigator ) ( wurden daher bei Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien intraoperativ die Bewegungen der Kiefergelenke registriert und aufgezeichnet , welche unbeabsichtigten Kiefergelenkpositionen aus konventionellen Einstellungen des Oberkiefersegments resultierten . Bei denselben Patienten wurden dann nach Vorgabe des SSN die Oberkiefersegmentposition schaedelbasisbezueglich nachkorrigiert und die Kondylenposition erneut bestimmt . Auf diese Weise konnten an demselben Patientengut die Genauigkeit einer konventionellen und SSN-gefuehrten Segmenteinstellung mit ihrem Einfluss auf die Kiefergelenkposition verglichen werden .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Oberkiefersegments, Patienten, Oberkiefersegmentposition, schaedelbasisbezueglich, Patientengut
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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] |
Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien koennen die Lage der Kiefergelenke beeinflussen . Waehrend des operativen Eingriffs entzieht sich jedoch das Kiefergelenk einer direkten visuellen Kontrolle des Operateurs . Mit Hilfe des computergestuetzten Navigationssystems SSN Surgical Segment Navigator ) ( wurden daher bei Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien intraoperativ die Bewegungen der Kiefergelenke registriert und aufgezeichnet , welche unbeabsichtigten Kiefergelenkpositionen aus konventionellen Einstellungen des Oberkiefersegments resultierten . Bei denselben Patienten wurden dann nach Vorgabe des SSN die Oberkiefersegmentposition schaedelbasisbezueglich nachkorrigiert und die Kondylenposition erneut bestimmt . Auf diese Weise konnten an demselben Patientengut die Genauigkeit einer konventionellen und SSN-gefuehrten Segmenteinstellung mit ihrem Einfluss auf die Kiefergelenkposition verglichen werden .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Oberkiefersegments, Patienten, Oberkiefersegmentposition, schaedelbasisbezueglich, Patientengut
|
MundKieferGesichtschirurgie.90030067.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien koennen die Lage der Kiefergelenke beeinflussen . Waehrend des operativen Eingriffs entzieht sich jedoch das Kiefergelenk einer direkten visuellen Kontrolle des Operateurs . Mit Hilfe des computergestuetzten Navigationssystems SSN Surgical Segment Navigator ) ( wurden daher bei Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien intraoperativ die Bewegungen der Kiefergelenke registriert und aufgezeichnet , welche unbeabsichtigten Kiefergelenkpositionen aus konventionellen Einstellungen des Oberkiefersegments resultierten . Bei denselben Patienten wurden dann nach Vorgabe des SSN die Oberkiefersegmentposition schaedelbasisbezueglich nachkorrigiert und die Kondylenposition erneut bestimmt . Auf diese Weise konnten an demselben Patientengut die Genauigkeit einer konventionellen und SSN-gefuehrten Segmenteinstellung mit ihrem Einfluss auf die Kiefergelenkposition verglichen werden .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
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"O",
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Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien koennen die Lage der Kiefergelenke beeinflussen . Waehrend des operativen Eingriffs entzieht sich jedoch das Kiefergelenk einer direkten visuellen Kontrolle des Operateurs . Mit Hilfe des computergestuetzten Navigationssystems SSN Surgical Segment Navigator ) ( wurden daher bei Le-Fort-I-Umstellungsosteotomien intraoperativ die Bewegungen der Kiefergelenke registriert und aufgezeichnet , welche unbeabsichtigten Kiefergelenkpositionen aus konventionellen Einstellungen des Oberkiefersegments resultierten . Bei denselben Patienten wurden dann nach Vorgabe des SSN die Oberkiefersegmentposition schaedelbasisbezueglich nachkorrigiert und die Kondylenposition erneut bestimmt . Auf diese Weise konnten an demselben Patientengut die Genauigkeit einer konventionellen und SSN-gefuehrten Segmenteinstellung mit ihrem Einfluss auf die Kiefergelenkposition verglichen werden .
|
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heparinized and nonheparinized solutions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency is a Outcome_Physical, subsequent occlusion is a Outcome_Physical, heparinized and nonheparinized infusions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency is a Outcome_Physical, incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion is a Outcome_Physical, flush solutions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . is a Intervention_Physical, complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, cannulations is a Outcome_Other, partial or total occlusion is a Outcome_Physical, long duration of cannulation is a Outcome_Other, heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency is a Outcome_Other
|
21060_task0
|
Sentence: A comparison of the efficacy of heparinized and nonheparinized solutions for maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency and subsequent occlusion . In a randomized , double-blind , controlled study , we compared heparinized and nonheparinized infusions for the maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency and the incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion . Two-hundred patients were randomized into 2 groups to receive heparinized ( group H , n = 100 ) or nonheparinized ( group S , n = 100 ) flush solutions . Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . The cannulation site was examined for complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection . The mean duration of cannulations was 378 +/- 159.0 min in group H and 332 +/- 154.6 min in group S. The mean number of corrective interventions caused by dampening of the pressure wave ( mean number of positional changes [ group S , 1.5 +/- 2.0 ; group H , 1.4 +/- 3.8 ] and mean number of manual flushes [ group S , 1.3 +/- 1.7 ; group H , 1.2 +/- 1.2 ] ) was not significantly different in both groups . After decannulation , partial or total occlusion developed in 20 group H patients and 16 group S patients ( not significant ) . The incidence of occlusion was correlated to the presence of hematoma at the puncture site after decannulation ( P = 0.013 ) , long duration of cannulation ( P = 0.04 ) , and age < 65 yr ( P = 0.009 ) . In conclusion , there is no significant difference between heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions for the maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Intervention_Physical, Outcome_Physical, Outcome_Other
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A comparison of the efficacy of heparinized and nonheparinized solutions for maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency and subsequent occlusion . In a randomized , double-blind , controlled study , we compared heparinized and nonheparinized infusions for the maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency and the incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion . Two-hundred patients were randomized into 2 groups to receive heparinized ( group H , n = 100 ) or nonheparinized ( group S , n = 100 ) flush solutions . Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . The cannulation site was examined for complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection . The mean duration of cannulations was 378 +/- 159.0 min in group H and 332 +/- 154.6 min in group S. The mean number of corrective interventions caused by dampening of the pressure wave ( mean number of positional changes [ group S , 1.5 +/- 2.0 ; group H , 1.4 +/- 3.8 ] and mean number of manual flushes [ group S , 1.3 +/- 1.7 ; group H , 1.2 +/- 1.2 ] ) was not significantly different in both groups . After decannulation , partial or total occlusion developed in 20 group H patients and 16 group S patients ( not significant ) . The incidence of occlusion was correlated to the presence of hematoma at the puncture site after decannulation ( P = 0.013 ) , long duration of cannulation ( P = 0.04 ) , and age < 65 yr ( P = 0.009 ) . In conclusion , there is no significant difference between heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions for the maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency .
|
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heparinized and nonheparinized solutions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency is a Outcome_Physical, subsequent occlusion is a Outcome_Physical, heparinized and nonheparinized infusions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency is a Outcome_Physical, incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion is a Outcome_Physical, flush solutions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . is a Intervention_Physical, complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, cannulations is a Outcome_Other, partial or total occlusion is a Outcome_Physical, long duration of cannulation is a Outcome_Other, heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions is a Intervention_Pharmacological, maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency is a Outcome_Other
|
21060_task1
|
Sentence: A comparison of the efficacy of heparinized and nonheparinized solutions for maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency and subsequent occlusion . In a randomized , double-blind , controlled study , we compared heparinized and nonheparinized infusions for the maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency and the incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion . Two-hundred patients were randomized into 2 groups to receive heparinized ( group H , n = 100 ) or nonheparinized ( group S , n = 100 ) flush solutions . Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . The cannulation site was examined for complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection . The mean duration of cannulations was 378 +/- 159.0 min in group H and 332 +/- 154.6 min in group S. The mean number of corrective interventions caused by dampening of the pressure wave ( mean number of positional changes [ group S , 1.5 +/- 2.0 ; group H , 1.4 +/- 3.8 ] and mean number of manual flushes [ group S , 1.3 +/- 1.7 ; group H , 1.2 +/- 1.2 ] ) was not significantly different in both groups . After decannulation , partial or total occlusion developed in 20 group H patients and 16 group S patients ( not significant ) . The incidence of occlusion was correlated to the presence of hematoma at the puncture site after decannulation ( P = 0.013 ) , long duration of cannulation ( P = 0.04 ) , and age < 65 yr ( P = 0.009 ) . In conclusion , there is no significant difference between heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions for the maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: heparinized and nonheparinized solutions, maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency, subsequent occlusion, heparinized and nonheparinized infusions, maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency, incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion, flush solutions, Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator ., complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection, cannulations, partial or total occlusion, long duration of cannulation, heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions, maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency
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|
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A comparison of the efficacy of heparinized and nonheparinized solutions for maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency and subsequent occlusion . In a randomized , double-blind , controlled study , we compared heparinized and nonheparinized infusions for the maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency and the incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion . Two-hundred patients were randomized into 2 groups to receive heparinized ( group H , n = 100 ) or nonheparinized ( group S , n = 100 ) flush solutions . Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . The cannulation site was examined for complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection . The mean duration of cannulations was 378 +/- 159.0 min in group H and 332 +/- 154.6 min in group S. The mean number of corrective interventions caused by dampening of the pressure wave ( mean number of positional changes [ group S , 1.5 +/- 2.0 ; group H , 1.4 +/- 3.8 ] and mean number of manual flushes [ group S , 1.3 +/- 1.7 ; group H , 1.2 +/- 1.2 ] ) was not significantly different in both groups . After decannulation , partial or total occlusion developed in 20 group H patients and 16 group S patients ( not significant ) . The incidence of occlusion was correlated to the presence of hematoma at the puncture site after decannulation ( P = 0.013 ) , long duration of cannulation ( P = 0.04 ) , and age < 65 yr ( P = 0.009 ) . In conclusion , there is no significant difference between heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions for the maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency .
|
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[
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heparinized and nonheparinized solutions, maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency, subsequent occlusion, heparinized and nonheparinized infusions, maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency, incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion, flush solutions, Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator ., complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection, cannulations, partial or total occlusion, long duration of cannulation, heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions, maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency
|
21060_task2
|
Sentence: A comparison of the efficacy of heparinized and nonheparinized solutions for maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency and subsequent occlusion . In a randomized , double-blind , controlled study , we compared heparinized and nonheparinized infusions for the maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency and the incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion . Two-hundred patients were randomized into 2 groups to receive heparinized ( group H , n = 100 ) or nonheparinized ( group S , n = 100 ) flush solutions . Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . The cannulation site was examined for complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection . The mean duration of cannulations was 378 +/- 159.0 min in group H and 332 +/- 154.6 min in group S. The mean number of corrective interventions caused by dampening of the pressure wave ( mean number of positional changes [ group S , 1.5 +/- 2.0 ; group H , 1.4 +/- 3.8 ] and mean number of manual flushes [ group S , 1.3 +/- 1.7 ; group H , 1.2 +/- 1.2 ] ) was not significantly different in both groups . After decannulation , partial or total occlusion developed in 20 group H patients and 16 group S patients ( not significant ) . The incidence of occlusion was correlated to the presence of hematoma at the puncture site after decannulation ( P = 0.013 ) , long duration of cannulation ( P = 0.04 ) , and age < 65 yr ( P = 0.009 ) . In conclusion , there is no significant difference between heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions for the maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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] |
A comparison of the efficacy of heparinized and nonheparinized solutions for maintenance of perioperative radial arterial catheter patency and subsequent occlusion . In a randomized , double-blind , controlled study , we compared heparinized and nonheparinized infusions for the maintenance of perioperative arterial catheter patency and the incidence of subsequent radial arterial occlusion . Two-hundred patients were randomized into 2 groups to receive heparinized ( group H , n = 100 ) or nonheparinized ( group S , n = 100 ) flush solutions . Radial and ulnar blood flows were assessed using Doppler probe and pulse oximetry before , just after , and 24 h after decannulation by the same investigator . The cannulation site was examined for complications such as hematoma , nerve injury , and infection . The mean duration of cannulations was 378 +/- 159.0 min in group H and 332 +/- 154.6 min in group S. The mean number of corrective interventions caused by dampening of the pressure wave ( mean number of positional changes [ group S , 1.5 +/- 2.0 ; group H , 1.4 +/- 3.8 ] and mean number of manual flushes [ group S , 1.3 +/- 1.7 ; group H , 1.2 +/- 1.2 ] ) was not significantly different in both groups . After decannulation , partial or total occlusion developed in 20 group H patients and 16 group S patients ( not significant ) . The incidence of occlusion was correlated to the presence of hematoma at the puncture site after decannulation ( P = 0.013 ) , long duration of cannulation ( P = 0.04 ) , and age < 65 yr ( P = 0.009 ) . In conclusion , there is no significant difference between heparinized and nonheparinized flush solutions for the maintenance of perioperative radial artery catheter patency .
|
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[
"Intervention_Physical",
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Miotika is an umlsterm, Bindehautsack is an umlsterm, Augeninnendruck is an umlsterm, Blut - Kammerwasser - Schranke is an umlsterm, Phakoemulsifikation is an umlsterm
|
DerOpthalmologe.90960583.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Hintergrund : Der Einfluss einer einmaligen , unmittelbar postoperativen Applikation von Miotika in den Bindehautsack auf Augeninnendruck und Blut-Kammerwasser-Schranke nach komplikationsloser Phakoemulsifikation und HKL-Implantation wurde untersucht .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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"O",
"O"
] |
Hintergrund : Der Einfluss einer einmaligen , unmittelbar postoperativen Applikation von Miotika in den Bindehautsack auf Augeninnendruck und Blut-Kammerwasser-Schranke nach komplikationsloser Phakoemulsifikation und HKL-Implantation wurde untersucht .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Miotika is an umlsterm, Bindehautsack is an umlsterm, Augeninnendruck is an umlsterm, Blut - Kammerwasser - Schranke is an umlsterm, Phakoemulsifikation is an umlsterm
|
DerOpthalmologe.90960583.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Hintergrund : Der Einfluss einer einmaligen , unmittelbar postoperativen Applikation von Miotika in den Bindehautsack auf Augeninnendruck und Blut-Kammerwasser-Schranke nach komplikationsloser Phakoemulsifikation und HKL-Implantation wurde untersucht .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Miotika, Bindehautsack, Augeninnendruck, Blut - Kammerwasser - Schranke, Phakoemulsifikation
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Hintergrund : Der Einfluss einer einmaligen , unmittelbar postoperativen Applikation von Miotika in den Bindehautsack auf Augeninnendruck und Blut-Kammerwasser-Schranke nach komplikationsloser Phakoemulsifikation und HKL-Implantation wurde untersucht .
|
[
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[
"umlsterm"
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Miotika, Bindehautsack, Augeninnendruck, Blut - Kammerwasser - Schranke, Phakoemulsifikation
|
DerOpthalmologe.90960583.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Hintergrund : Der Einfluss einer einmaligen , unmittelbar postoperativen Applikation von Miotika in den Bindehautsack auf Augeninnendruck und Blut-Kammerwasser-Schranke nach komplikationsloser Phakoemulsifikation und HKL-Implantation wurde untersucht .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
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"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
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"I-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Hintergrund : Der Einfluss einer einmaligen , unmittelbar postoperativen Applikation von Miotika in den Bindehautsack auf Augeninnendruck und Blut-Kammerwasser-Schranke nach komplikationsloser Phakoemulsifikation und HKL-Implantation wurde untersucht .
|
[
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"."
] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
creatinina is a NORMALIZABLES, creatinina is a NORMALIZABLES
|
80_task0
|
Sentence: Varón de 63 años. Consultó por hematuria macroscópica monosintomática. Se solicitó una ecografía donde se apreció una masa de 5 cm en cara lateral izquierda de la vejiga que producía una ureterohidronefrosis en el riñón izquierdo. Realizamos una RTU-biopsia, objetivando un tumor vesical infiltrante de alto grado. El estudio de extensión resultó negativo. La creatinina del paciente era de 2,5 mg/dl. Se realizó una cistoprostatectomía radical laparoscópica con derivación urinaria tipo Bricker en marzo 2005 (pT2b No Mo de alto grado, afectando a zona trigonal y cara posterior).
El curso operatorio evolucionó favorablemente. En la revisión postoperatoria al mes de la cirugía, se redujo la ureterohidronefrosis izquierda manteniendo cierto grado de atrofia cortical, y mejoró la función renal (creatinina de 1,65 mg/dl).
El paciente presentaba muy mala tolerancia al estoma, insistiendo en su conversión en una derivación continente. Situación que nos planteamos por la mejoría de su función renal. A los dos meses realizamos una laparotomía exploradora, logrando una buena disección pélvica e identificación del muñón uretral. Construimos una neovejiga ileal con 45 cm de íleon. El tiempo quirúrgico fue de 180 minutos, con un sangrado menor de 80 cc. El paciente fue dado de alta al sexto día postoperatorio sin presentar complicaciones.
A los 5 meses de la cirugía, está continente durante el día y la noche, con buen vaciamiento del reservorio.
Ambos pacientes fueron concienzudamente informados de los riesgos de la cirugía y de sus posibles complicaciones, así como de las potenciales secuelas en términos de trastornos metabólicos, diarrea persistente e incontinencia y/o necesidad de autocateterismos por alto residuo post-miccional. En ambos, el asa de Bricker se liberó de la pared abdominal y tras acortarlo se anastomosó a la chimenea de la neovejiga, no precisando de reimplante ureteral. La sonda vesical se retiró a las 3 semanas, logrando ambos la continencia en corto espacio de tiempo. Los dos pacientes están muy satisfechos con la derivación ortotópica.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: NORMALIZABLES
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"B-NORMALIZABLES",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Varón de 63 años. Consultó por hematuria macroscópica monosintomática. Se solicitó una ecografía donde se apreció una masa de 5 cm en cara lateral izquierda de la vejiga que producía una ureterohidronefrosis en el riñón izquierdo. Realizamos una RTU-biopsia, objetivando un tumor vesical infiltrante de alto grado. El estudio de extensión resultó negativo. La creatinina del paciente era de 2,5 mg/dl. Se realizó una cistoprostatectomía radical laparoscópica con derivación urinaria tipo Bricker en marzo 2005 (pT2b No Mo de alto grado, afectando a zona trigonal y cara posterior).
El curso operatorio evolucionó favorablemente. En la revisión postoperatoria al mes de la cirugía, se redujo la ureterohidronefrosis izquierda manteniendo cierto grado de atrofia cortical, y mejoró la función renal (creatinina de 1,65 mg/dl).
El paciente presentaba muy mala tolerancia al estoma, insistiendo en su conversión en una derivación continente. Situación que nos planteamos por la mejoría de su función renal. A los dos meses realizamos una laparotomía exploradora, logrando una buena disección pélvica e identificación del muñón uretral. Construimos una neovejiga ileal con 45 cm de íleon. El tiempo quirúrgico fue de 180 minutos, con un sangrado menor de 80 cc. El paciente fue dado de alta al sexto día postoperatorio sin presentar complicaciones.
A los 5 meses de la cirugía, está continente durante el día y la noche, con buen vaciamiento del reservorio.
Ambos pacientes fueron concienzudamente informados de los riesgos de la cirugía y de sus posibles complicaciones, así como de las potenciales secuelas en términos de trastornos metabólicos, diarrea persistente e incontinencia y/o necesidad de autocateterismos por alto residuo post-miccional. En ambos, el asa de Bricker se liberó de la pared abdominal y tras acortarlo se anastomosó a la chimenea de la neovejiga, no precisando de reimplante ureteral. La sonda vesical se retiró a las 3 semanas, logrando ambos la continencia en corto espacio de tiempo. Los dos pacientes están muy satisfechos con la derivación ortotópica.
|
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] |
[
"NORMALIZABLES"
] |
creatinina is a NORMALIZABLES, creatinina is a NORMALIZABLES
|
80_task1
|
Sentence: Varón de 63 años. Consultó por hematuria macroscópica monosintomática. Se solicitó una ecografía donde se apreció una masa de 5 cm en cara lateral izquierda de la vejiga que producía una ureterohidronefrosis en el riñón izquierdo. Realizamos una RTU-biopsia, objetivando un tumor vesical infiltrante de alto grado. El estudio de extensión resultó negativo. La creatinina del paciente era de 2,5 mg/dl. Se realizó una cistoprostatectomía radical laparoscópica con derivación urinaria tipo Bricker en marzo 2005 (pT2b No Mo de alto grado, afectando a zona trigonal y cara posterior).
El curso operatorio evolucionó favorablemente. En la revisión postoperatoria al mes de la cirugía, se redujo la ureterohidronefrosis izquierda manteniendo cierto grado de atrofia cortical, y mejoró la función renal (creatinina de 1,65 mg/dl).
El paciente presentaba muy mala tolerancia al estoma, insistiendo en su conversión en una derivación continente. Situación que nos planteamos por la mejoría de su función renal. A los dos meses realizamos una laparotomía exploradora, logrando una buena disección pélvica e identificación del muñón uretral. Construimos una neovejiga ileal con 45 cm de íleon. El tiempo quirúrgico fue de 180 minutos, con un sangrado menor de 80 cc. El paciente fue dado de alta al sexto día postoperatorio sin presentar complicaciones.
A los 5 meses de la cirugía, está continente durante el día y la noche, con buen vaciamiento del reservorio.
Ambos pacientes fueron concienzudamente informados de los riesgos de la cirugía y de sus posibles complicaciones, así como de las potenciales secuelas en términos de trastornos metabólicos, diarrea persistente e incontinencia y/o necesidad de autocateterismos por alto residuo post-miccional. En ambos, el asa de Bricker se liberó de la pared abdominal y tras acortarlo se anastomosó a la chimenea de la neovejiga, no precisando de reimplante ureteral. La sonda vesical se retiró a las 3 semanas, logrando ambos la continencia en corto espacio de tiempo. Los dos pacientes están muy satisfechos con la derivación ortotópica.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: creatinina, creatinina
Options: NORMALIZABLES
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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Varón de 63 años. Consultó por hematuria macroscópica monosintomática. Se solicitó una ecografía donde se apreció una masa de 5 cm en cara lateral izquierda de la vejiga que producía una ureterohidronefrosis en el riñón izquierdo. Realizamos una RTU-biopsia, objetivando un tumor vesical infiltrante de alto grado. El estudio de extensión resultó negativo. La creatinina del paciente era de 2,5 mg/dl. Se realizó una cistoprostatectomía radical laparoscópica con derivación urinaria tipo Bricker en marzo 2005 (pT2b No Mo de alto grado, afectando a zona trigonal y cara posterior).
El curso operatorio evolucionó favorablemente. En la revisión postoperatoria al mes de la cirugía, se redujo la ureterohidronefrosis izquierda manteniendo cierto grado de atrofia cortical, y mejoró la función renal (creatinina de 1,65 mg/dl).
El paciente presentaba muy mala tolerancia al estoma, insistiendo en su conversión en una derivación continente. Situación que nos planteamos por la mejoría de su función renal. A los dos meses realizamos una laparotomía exploradora, logrando una buena disección pélvica e identificación del muñón uretral. Construimos una neovejiga ileal con 45 cm de íleon. El tiempo quirúrgico fue de 180 minutos, con un sangrado menor de 80 cc. El paciente fue dado de alta al sexto día postoperatorio sin presentar complicaciones.
A los 5 meses de la cirugía, está continente durante el día y la noche, con buen vaciamiento del reservorio.
Ambos pacientes fueron concienzudamente informados de los riesgos de la cirugía y de sus posibles complicaciones, así como de las potenciales secuelas en términos de trastornos metabólicos, diarrea persistente e incontinencia y/o necesidad de autocateterismos por alto residuo post-miccional. En ambos, el asa de Bricker se liberó de la pared abdominal y tras acortarlo se anastomosó a la chimenea de la neovejiga, no precisando de reimplante ureteral. La sonda vesical se retiró a las 3 semanas, logrando ambos la continencia en corto espacio de tiempo. Los dos pacientes están muy satisfechos con la derivación ortotópica.
|
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] |
[
"NORMALIZABLES"
] |
creatinina, creatinina
|
80_task2
|
Sentence: Varón de 63 años. Consultó por hematuria macroscópica monosintomática. Se solicitó una ecografía donde se apreció una masa de 5 cm en cara lateral izquierda de la vejiga que producía una ureterohidronefrosis en el riñón izquierdo. Realizamos una RTU-biopsia, objetivando un tumor vesical infiltrante de alto grado. El estudio de extensión resultó negativo. La creatinina del paciente era de 2,5 mg/dl. Se realizó una cistoprostatectomía radical laparoscópica con derivación urinaria tipo Bricker en marzo 2005 (pT2b No Mo de alto grado, afectando a zona trigonal y cara posterior).
El curso operatorio evolucionó favorablemente. En la revisión postoperatoria al mes de la cirugía, se redujo la ureterohidronefrosis izquierda manteniendo cierto grado de atrofia cortical, y mejoró la función renal (creatinina de 1,65 mg/dl).
El paciente presentaba muy mala tolerancia al estoma, insistiendo en su conversión en una derivación continente. Situación que nos planteamos por la mejoría de su función renal. A los dos meses realizamos una laparotomía exploradora, logrando una buena disección pélvica e identificación del muñón uretral. Construimos una neovejiga ileal con 45 cm de íleon. El tiempo quirúrgico fue de 180 minutos, con un sangrado menor de 80 cc. El paciente fue dado de alta al sexto día postoperatorio sin presentar complicaciones.
A los 5 meses de la cirugía, está continente durante el día y la noche, con buen vaciamiento del reservorio.
Ambos pacientes fueron concienzudamente informados de los riesgos de la cirugía y de sus posibles complicaciones, así como de las potenciales secuelas en términos de trastornos metabólicos, diarrea persistente e incontinencia y/o necesidad de autocateterismos por alto residuo post-miccional. En ambos, el asa de Bricker se liberó de la pared abdominal y tras acortarlo se anastomosó a la chimenea de la neovejiga, no precisando de reimplante ureteral. La sonda vesical se retiró a las 3 semanas, logrando ambos la continencia en corto espacio de tiempo. Los dos pacientes están muy satisfechos con la derivación ortotópica.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Varón de 63 años. Consultó por hematuria macroscópica monosintomática. Se solicitó una ecografía donde se apreció una masa de 5 cm en cara lateral izquierda de la vejiga que producía una ureterohidronefrosis en el riñón izquierdo. Realizamos una RTU-biopsia, objetivando un tumor vesical infiltrante de alto grado. El estudio de extensión resultó negativo. La creatinina del paciente era de 2,5 mg/dl. Se realizó una cistoprostatectomía radical laparoscópica con derivación urinaria tipo Bricker en marzo 2005 (pT2b No Mo de alto grado, afectando a zona trigonal y cara posterior).
El curso operatorio evolucionó favorablemente. En la revisión postoperatoria al mes de la cirugía, se redujo la ureterohidronefrosis izquierda manteniendo cierto grado de atrofia cortical, y mejoró la función renal (creatinina de 1,65 mg/dl).
El paciente presentaba muy mala tolerancia al estoma, insistiendo en su conversión en una derivación continente. Situación que nos planteamos por la mejoría de su función renal. A los dos meses realizamos una laparotomía exploradora, logrando una buena disección pélvica e identificación del muñón uretral. Construimos una neovejiga ileal con 45 cm de íleon. El tiempo quirúrgico fue de 180 minutos, con un sangrado menor de 80 cc. El paciente fue dado de alta al sexto día postoperatorio sin presentar complicaciones.
A los 5 meses de la cirugía, está continente durante el día y la noche, con buen vaciamiento del reservorio.
Ambos pacientes fueron concienzudamente informados de los riesgos de la cirugía y de sus posibles complicaciones, así como de las potenciales secuelas en términos de trastornos metabólicos, diarrea persistente e incontinencia y/o necesidad de autocateterismos por alto residuo post-miccional. En ambos, el asa de Bricker se liberó de la pared abdominal y tras acortarlo se anastomosó a la chimenea de la neovejiga, no precisando de reimplante ureteral. La sonda vesical se retiró a las 3 semanas, logrando ambos la continencia en corto espacio de tiempo. Los dos pacientes están muy satisfechos con la derivación ortotópica.
|
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[
"NORMALIZABLES"
] |
this study previously , or any other study is a Scope, exenatide or GLP-1 analogs is a Scope, interventional , medical , surgical , or pharmaceutical study is a Scope, within 30 days of screening is a Temporal, characteristics contraindicating is a Condition, metformin or sulfonylurea is a Scope, exogenous insulin is a Drug, for more than 1 week is a Multiplier, within the 3 months prior to screening is a Temporal, drugs for weight loss is a Drug, within 1 month of screening is a Temporal
|
NCT00324363_exc_task0
|
Sentence: Have participated in this study previously, or any other study using exenatide or GLP-1 analogs.
Have participated in an interventional, medical, surgical, or pharmaceutical study within 30 days of screening.
Have characteristics contraindicating metformin or sulfonylurea use.
Have been treated with exogenous insulin for more than 1 week within the 3 months prior to screening.
Have used drugs for weight loss within 1 month of screening.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Temporal, Condition, Multiplier, Scope, Drug
|
[
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Have participated in this study previously, or any other study using exenatide or GLP-1 analogs.
Have participated in an interventional, medical, surgical, or pharmaceutical study within 30 days of screening.
Have characteristics contraindicating metformin or sulfonylurea use.
Have been treated with exogenous insulin for more than 1 week within the 3 months prior to screening.
Have used drugs for weight loss within 1 month of screening.
|
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[
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this study previously , or any other study is a Scope, exenatide or GLP-1 analogs is a Scope, interventional , medical , surgical , or pharmaceutical study is a Scope, within 30 days of screening is a Temporal, characteristics contraindicating is a Condition, metformin or sulfonylurea is a Scope, exogenous insulin is a Drug, for more than 1 week is a Multiplier, within the 3 months prior to screening is a Temporal, drugs for weight loss is a Drug, within 1 month of screening is a Temporal
|
NCT00324363_exc_task1
|
Sentence: Have participated in this study previously, or any other study using exenatide or GLP-1 analogs.
Have participated in an interventional, medical, surgical, or pharmaceutical study within 30 days of screening.
Have characteristics contraindicating metformin or sulfonylurea use.
Have been treated with exogenous insulin for more than 1 week within the 3 months prior to screening.
Have used drugs for weight loss within 1 month of screening.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: this study previously , or any other study, exenatide or GLP-1 analogs, interventional , medical , surgical , or pharmaceutical study, within 30 days of screening, characteristics contraindicating, metformin or sulfonylurea, exogenous insulin, for more than 1 week, within the 3 months prior to screening, drugs for weight loss, within 1 month of screening
Options: Temporal, Condition, Multiplier, Scope, Drug
|
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Have participated in this study previously, or any other study using exenatide or GLP-1 analogs.
Have participated in an interventional, medical, surgical, or pharmaceutical study within 30 days of screening.
Have characteristics contraindicating metformin or sulfonylurea use.
Have been treated with exogenous insulin for more than 1 week within the 3 months prior to screening.
Have used drugs for weight loss within 1 month of screening.
|
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this study previously , or any other study, exenatide or GLP-1 analogs, interventional , medical , surgical , or pharmaceutical study, within 30 days of screening, characteristics contraindicating, metformin or sulfonylurea, exogenous insulin, for more than 1 week, within the 3 months prior to screening, drugs for weight loss, within 1 month of screening
|
NCT00324363_exc_task2
|
Sentence: Have participated in this study previously, or any other study using exenatide or GLP-1 analogs.
Have participated in an interventional, medical, surgical, or pharmaceutical study within 30 days of screening.
Have characteristics contraindicating metformin or sulfonylurea use.
Have been treated with exogenous insulin for more than 1 week within the 3 months prior to screening.
Have used drugs for weight loss within 1 month of screening.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
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"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
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"I-Temporal",
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"O",
"O"
] |
Have participated in this study previously, or any other study using exenatide or GLP-1 analogs.
Have participated in an interventional, medical, surgical, or pharmaceutical study within 30 days of screening.
Have characteristics contraindicating metformin or sulfonylurea use.
Have been treated with exogenous insulin for more than 1 week within the 3 months prior to screening.
Have used drugs for weight loss within 1 month of screening.
|
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[
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5-fluorouracil is a Intervention_Pharmacological, folinic acid is a Intervention_Pharmacological, ifosfamide is a Intervention_Pharmacological, advanced colorectal cancer is a Outcome_Physical, 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) is a Intervention_Pharmacological, folinic acid ( FA is a Intervention_Pharmacological, IFO is a Intervention_Pharmacological, Forty - eight is a Participant_Sample-size, Forty - five is a Participant_Sample-size, partial response is a Outcome_Physical, complete is a Outcome_Physical, Time to failure is a Outcome_Physical, median is a Outcome_Physical, survival time is a Outcome_Mortality, Diarrhea is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, stomatitis is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, vomiting is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, nonhematologic toxicities is a Outcome_Physical, hematologic toxicity is a Outcome_Physical, leukopenia is a Outcome_Physical
|
3996_task0
|
Sentence: 5-fluorouracil plus folinic acid with or without ifosfamide in advanced colorectal cancer : a phase II randomized trial . AIM This phase II trial evaluated the biomodulation of 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) plus folinic acid ( FA ) with or without ifosfamide ( IFO ) in chemotherapy-naive patients with colorectal cancer . PATIENTS AND METHODS Forty-eight patients were randomized to receive : FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , arm A ; or FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) plus IFO ( 2,000 mg/m2 in 1000 mL 5 % dextrose in a 2-hr infusion , days 1 to 3 ) , arm B. Mesna was added during and after IFO to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis . Treatment was repeated every 21 days in both arms . RESULTS Forty-five patients were assessable for response : in arm A , 5 patients achieved a partial response ( overall response , 25 % ) , and in arm B , 2 patients achieved a complete and 1 a partial response ( overall response , 12 % ) . Time to failure was 3.5 months ( range , 1-38 ) in patients treated with 5-FU plus FA , and 3 months ( range , 1-21 ) in patients treated with the IFO combination . The median survival time was 13.5 months ( range , 1-49 months ) in arm A and 16 months ( range , 1-43 months ) in arm B . Diarrhea , stomatitis and vomiting were the most common nonhematologic toxicities in both arms . The most notable hematologic toxicity was leukopenia ; 15 % and 20 % of patients experienced grade 4 in arm A and arm B , respectively . CONCLUSIONS IFO does not increase the activity of the 5-FU plus FA combination in advanced colorectal cancer .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Outcome_Mortality, Outcome_Physical, Participant_Sample-size
|
[
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"B-Intervention_Pharmacological",
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5-fluorouracil plus folinic acid with or without ifosfamide in advanced colorectal cancer : a phase II randomized trial . AIM This phase II trial evaluated the biomodulation of 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) plus folinic acid ( FA ) with or without ifosfamide ( IFO ) in chemotherapy-naive patients with colorectal cancer . PATIENTS AND METHODS Forty-eight patients were randomized to receive : FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , arm A ; or FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) plus IFO ( 2,000 mg/m2 in 1000 mL 5 % dextrose in a 2-hr infusion , days 1 to 3 ) , arm B. Mesna was added during and after IFO to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis . Treatment was repeated every 21 days in both arms . RESULTS Forty-five patients were assessable for response : in arm A , 5 patients achieved a partial response ( overall response , 25 % ) , and in arm B , 2 patients achieved a complete and 1 a partial response ( overall response , 12 % ) . Time to failure was 3.5 months ( range , 1-38 ) in patients treated with 5-FU plus FA , and 3 months ( range , 1-21 ) in patients treated with the IFO combination . The median survival time was 13.5 months ( range , 1-49 months ) in arm A and 16 months ( range , 1-43 months ) in arm B . Diarrhea , stomatitis and vomiting were the most common nonhematologic toxicities in both arms . The most notable hematologic toxicity was leukopenia ; 15 % and 20 % of patients experienced grade 4 in arm A and arm B , respectively . CONCLUSIONS IFO does not increase the activity of the 5-FU plus FA combination in advanced colorectal cancer .
|
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[
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"Outcome_Mortality",
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5-fluorouracil is a Intervention_Pharmacological, folinic acid is a Intervention_Pharmacological, ifosfamide is a Intervention_Pharmacological, advanced colorectal cancer is a Outcome_Physical, 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) is a Intervention_Pharmacological, folinic acid ( FA is a Intervention_Pharmacological, IFO is a Intervention_Pharmacological, Forty - eight is a Participant_Sample-size, Forty - five is a Participant_Sample-size, partial response is a Outcome_Physical, complete is a Outcome_Physical, Time to failure is a Outcome_Physical, median is a Outcome_Physical, survival time is a Outcome_Mortality, Diarrhea is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, stomatitis is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, vomiting is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, nonhematologic toxicities is a Outcome_Physical, hematologic toxicity is a Outcome_Physical, leukopenia is a Outcome_Physical
|
3996_task1
|
Sentence: 5-fluorouracil plus folinic acid with or without ifosfamide in advanced colorectal cancer : a phase II randomized trial . AIM This phase II trial evaluated the biomodulation of 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) plus folinic acid ( FA ) with or without ifosfamide ( IFO ) in chemotherapy-naive patients with colorectal cancer . PATIENTS AND METHODS Forty-eight patients were randomized to receive : FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , arm A ; or FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) plus IFO ( 2,000 mg/m2 in 1000 mL 5 % dextrose in a 2-hr infusion , days 1 to 3 ) , arm B. Mesna was added during and after IFO to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis . Treatment was repeated every 21 days in both arms . RESULTS Forty-five patients were assessable for response : in arm A , 5 patients achieved a partial response ( overall response , 25 % ) , and in arm B , 2 patients achieved a complete and 1 a partial response ( overall response , 12 % ) . Time to failure was 3.5 months ( range , 1-38 ) in patients treated with 5-FU plus FA , and 3 months ( range , 1-21 ) in patients treated with the IFO combination . The median survival time was 13.5 months ( range , 1-49 months ) in arm A and 16 months ( range , 1-43 months ) in arm B . Diarrhea , stomatitis and vomiting were the most common nonhematologic toxicities in both arms . The most notable hematologic toxicity was leukopenia ; 15 % and 20 % of patients experienced grade 4 in arm A and arm B , respectively . CONCLUSIONS IFO does not increase the activity of the 5-FU plus FA combination in advanced colorectal cancer .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: 5-fluorouracil, folinic acid, ifosfamide, advanced colorectal cancer, 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ), folinic acid ( FA, IFO, Forty - eight, Forty - five, partial response, complete, Time to failure, median, survival time, Diarrhea, stomatitis, vomiting, nonhematologic toxicities, hematologic toxicity, leukopenia
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Outcome_Mortality, Outcome_Physical, Participant_Sample-size
|
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5-fluorouracil plus folinic acid with or without ifosfamide in advanced colorectal cancer : a phase II randomized trial . AIM This phase II trial evaluated the biomodulation of 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) plus folinic acid ( FA ) with or without ifosfamide ( IFO ) in chemotherapy-naive patients with colorectal cancer . PATIENTS AND METHODS Forty-eight patients were randomized to receive : FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , arm A ; or FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) plus IFO ( 2,000 mg/m2 in 1000 mL 5 % dextrose in a 2-hr infusion , days 1 to 3 ) , arm B. Mesna was added during and after IFO to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis . Treatment was repeated every 21 days in both arms . RESULTS Forty-five patients were assessable for response : in arm A , 5 patients achieved a partial response ( overall response , 25 % ) , and in arm B , 2 patients achieved a complete and 1 a partial response ( overall response , 12 % ) . Time to failure was 3.5 months ( range , 1-38 ) in patients treated with 5-FU plus FA , and 3 months ( range , 1-21 ) in patients treated with the IFO combination . The median survival time was 13.5 months ( range , 1-49 months ) in arm A and 16 months ( range , 1-43 months ) in arm B . Diarrhea , stomatitis and vomiting were the most common nonhematologic toxicities in both arms . The most notable hematologic toxicity was leukopenia ; 15 % and 20 % of patients experienced grade 4 in arm A and arm B , respectively . CONCLUSIONS IFO does not increase the activity of the 5-FU plus FA combination in advanced colorectal cancer .
|
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[
"Outcome_Physical",
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"Participant_Condition",
"Outcome_Mortality",
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"Outcome_Adverse-effects"
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5-fluorouracil, folinic acid, ifosfamide, advanced colorectal cancer, 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ), folinic acid ( FA, IFO, Forty - eight, Forty - five, partial response, complete, Time to failure, median, survival time, Diarrhea, stomatitis, vomiting, nonhematologic toxicities, hematologic toxicity, leukopenia
|
3996_task2
|
Sentence: 5-fluorouracil plus folinic acid with or without ifosfamide in advanced colorectal cancer : a phase II randomized trial . AIM This phase II trial evaluated the biomodulation of 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) plus folinic acid ( FA ) with or without ifosfamide ( IFO ) in chemotherapy-naive patients with colorectal cancer . PATIENTS AND METHODS Forty-eight patients were randomized to receive : FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , arm A ; or FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) plus IFO ( 2,000 mg/m2 in 1000 mL 5 % dextrose in a 2-hr infusion , days 1 to 3 ) , arm B. Mesna was added during and after IFO to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis . Treatment was repeated every 21 days in both arms . RESULTS Forty-five patients were assessable for response : in arm A , 5 patients achieved a partial response ( overall response , 25 % ) , and in arm B , 2 patients achieved a complete and 1 a partial response ( overall response , 12 % ) . Time to failure was 3.5 months ( range , 1-38 ) in patients treated with 5-FU plus FA , and 3 months ( range , 1-21 ) in patients treated with the IFO combination . The median survival time was 13.5 months ( range , 1-49 months ) in arm A and 16 months ( range , 1-43 months ) in arm B . Diarrhea , stomatitis and vomiting were the most common nonhematologic toxicities in both arms . The most notable hematologic toxicity was leukopenia ; 15 % and 20 % of patients experienced grade 4 in arm A and arm B , respectively . CONCLUSIONS IFO does not increase the activity of the 5-FU plus FA combination in advanced colorectal cancer .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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] |
5-fluorouracil plus folinic acid with or without ifosfamide in advanced colorectal cancer : a phase II randomized trial . AIM This phase II trial evaluated the biomodulation of 5-fluorouracil ( 5-FU ) plus folinic acid ( FA ) with or without ifosfamide ( IFO ) in chemotherapy-naive patients with colorectal cancer . PATIENTS AND METHODS Forty-eight patients were randomized to receive : FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , arm A ; or FA ( 25 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) , followed by 5-FU ( 750 mg/m2 iv bolus days 1 to 3 ) plus IFO ( 2,000 mg/m2 in 1000 mL 5 % dextrose in a 2-hr infusion , days 1 to 3 ) , arm B. Mesna was added during and after IFO to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis . Treatment was repeated every 21 days in both arms . RESULTS Forty-five patients were assessable for response : in arm A , 5 patients achieved a partial response ( overall response , 25 % ) , and in arm B , 2 patients achieved a complete and 1 a partial response ( overall response , 12 % ) . Time to failure was 3.5 months ( range , 1-38 ) in patients treated with 5-FU plus FA , and 3 months ( range , 1-21 ) in patients treated with the IFO combination . The median survival time was 13.5 months ( range , 1-49 months ) in arm A and 16 months ( range , 1-43 months ) in arm B . Diarrhea , stomatitis and vomiting were the most common nonhematologic toxicities in both arms . The most notable hematologic toxicity was leukopenia ; 15 % and 20 % of patients experienced grade 4 in arm A and arm B , respectively . CONCLUSIONS IFO does not increase the activity of the 5-FU plus FA combination in advanced colorectal cancer .
|
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[
"Outcome_Physical",
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"Outcome_Adverse-effects"
] |
osteoporosis is a Condition, DXA is a Procedure, bone mineral density is a Measurement, femur neck and / or total hip and / or lumbar spine is a Scope, T value is a Measurement, 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean is a Value, past 24 months is a Temporal, Not is a Negation, anti - resorptive agents is a Drug, bisphosphonates and denosumab is a Scope, more than 4 consecutive years , is a Temporal, = 50 years is a Value, old is a Person, menopause is a Condition, permanent is a Qualifier, cessation of ovulation is a Condition, at least one year is a Temporal, Residual alveolar width is a Measurement, = 4 mm is a Value, residual alveolar height is a Measurement, > 8 mm is a Value
|
NCT02884401_inc_task0
|
Sentence: Participants must present a diagnosis of osteoporosis based on DXA measurement of the bone mineral density at the femur neck and/or total hip and/or lumbar spine (T value 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean) within the past 24 months.
Not in treatment with anti-resorptive agents (like bisphosphonates and denosumab) for more than 4 consecutive years, in order to reduce the risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (Lo et al., 2010).
= 50 years old.
In self-reported menopause, defined as the permanent cessation of ovulation, for at least one year (Soules et al., 2001).
Edentulous area involving a maximum of two teeth (wisdom teeth and second molars are excluded) and presenting at least one neighbouring tooth (e.g. gap in the area of a second premolar and first molar, with first premolar in place).
Residual alveolar width = 4 mm (Milinkovic and Cordaro, 2014), residual alveolar height >8 mm, enough inter-arch space for a crown (at least 5 mm) and a minimum distance of 7 mm from the adjacent teeth (Shah and Lum, 2008). The width and height will be confirmed after x-ray examination in Visit 2.
Possibility to restore a functional occlusion with a minimum of four occlusal units (i.e. pairs of occluding posterior teeth).
Willingness to replace the missing tooth/teeth with dental implants
Registration with a GDP
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Temporal, Condition, Qualifier, Value, Person, Procedure, Negation, Scope, Measurement, Drug
|
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"O",
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"O"
] |
Participants must present a diagnosis of osteoporosis based on DXA measurement of the bone mineral density at the femur neck and/or total hip and/or lumbar spine (T value 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean) within the past 24 months.
Not in treatment with anti-resorptive agents (like bisphosphonates and denosumab) for more than 4 consecutive years, in order to reduce the risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (Lo et al., 2010).
= 50 years old.
In self-reported menopause, defined as the permanent cessation of ovulation, for at least one year (Soules et al., 2001).
Edentulous area involving a maximum of two teeth (wisdom teeth and second molars are excluded) and presenting at least one neighbouring tooth (e.g. gap in the area of a second premolar and first molar, with first premolar in place).
Residual alveolar width = 4 mm (Milinkovic and Cordaro, 2014), residual alveolar height >8 mm, enough inter-arch space for a crown (at least 5 mm) and a minimum distance of 7 mm from the adjacent teeth (Shah and Lum, 2008). The width and height will be confirmed after x-ray examination in Visit 2.
Possibility to restore a functional occlusion with a minimum of four occlusal units (i.e. pairs of occluding posterior teeth).
Willingness to replace the missing tooth/teeth with dental implants
Registration with a GDP
|
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osteoporosis is a Condition, DXA is a Procedure, bone mineral density is a Measurement, femur neck and / or total hip and / or lumbar spine is a Scope, T value is a Measurement, 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean is a Value, past 24 months is a Temporal, Not is a Negation, anti - resorptive agents is a Drug, bisphosphonates and denosumab is a Scope, more than 4 consecutive years , is a Temporal, = 50 years is a Value, old is a Person, menopause is a Condition, permanent is a Qualifier, cessation of ovulation is a Condition, at least one year is a Temporal, Residual alveolar width is a Measurement, = 4 mm is a Value, residual alveolar height is a Measurement, > 8 mm is a Value
|
NCT02884401_inc_task1
|
Sentence: Participants must present a diagnosis of osteoporosis based on DXA measurement of the bone mineral density at the femur neck and/or total hip and/or lumbar spine (T value 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean) within the past 24 months.
Not in treatment with anti-resorptive agents (like bisphosphonates and denosumab) for more than 4 consecutive years, in order to reduce the risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (Lo et al., 2010).
= 50 years old.
In self-reported menopause, defined as the permanent cessation of ovulation, for at least one year (Soules et al., 2001).
Edentulous area involving a maximum of two teeth (wisdom teeth and second molars are excluded) and presenting at least one neighbouring tooth (e.g. gap in the area of a second premolar and first molar, with first premolar in place).
Residual alveolar width = 4 mm (Milinkovic and Cordaro, 2014), residual alveolar height >8 mm, enough inter-arch space for a crown (at least 5 mm) and a minimum distance of 7 mm from the adjacent teeth (Shah and Lum, 2008). The width and height will be confirmed after x-ray examination in Visit 2.
Possibility to restore a functional occlusion with a minimum of four occlusal units (i.e. pairs of occluding posterior teeth).
Willingness to replace the missing tooth/teeth with dental implants
Registration with a GDP
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: osteoporosis, DXA, bone mineral density, femur neck and / or total hip and / or lumbar spine, T value, 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean, past 24 months, Not, anti - resorptive agents, bisphosphonates and denosumab, more than 4 consecutive years ,, = 50 years, old, menopause, permanent, cessation of ovulation, at least one year, Residual alveolar width, = 4 mm, residual alveolar height, > 8 mm
Options: Temporal, Condition, Qualifier, Value, Person, Procedure, Negation, Scope, Measurement, Drug
|
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Participants must present a diagnosis of osteoporosis based on DXA measurement of the bone mineral density at the femur neck and/or total hip and/or lumbar spine (T value 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean) within the past 24 months.
Not in treatment with anti-resorptive agents (like bisphosphonates and denosumab) for more than 4 consecutive years, in order to reduce the risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (Lo et al., 2010).
= 50 years old.
In self-reported menopause, defined as the permanent cessation of ovulation, for at least one year (Soules et al., 2001).
Edentulous area involving a maximum of two teeth (wisdom teeth and second molars are excluded) and presenting at least one neighbouring tooth (e.g. gap in the area of a second premolar and first molar, with first premolar in place).
Residual alveolar width = 4 mm (Milinkovic and Cordaro, 2014), residual alveolar height >8 mm, enough inter-arch space for a crown (at least 5 mm) and a minimum distance of 7 mm from the adjacent teeth (Shah and Lum, 2008). The width and height will be confirmed after x-ray examination in Visit 2.
Possibility to restore a functional occlusion with a minimum of four occlusal units (i.e. pairs of occluding posterior teeth).
Willingness to replace the missing tooth/teeth with dental implants
Registration with a GDP
|
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osteoporosis, DXA, bone mineral density, femur neck and / or total hip and / or lumbar spine, T value, 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean, past 24 months, Not, anti - resorptive agents, bisphosphonates and denosumab, more than 4 consecutive years ,, = 50 years, old, menopause, permanent, cessation of ovulation, at least one year, Residual alveolar width, = 4 mm, residual alveolar height, > 8 mm
|
NCT02884401_inc_task2
|
Sentence: Participants must present a diagnosis of osteoporosis based on DXA measurement of the bone mineral density at the femur neck and/or total hip and/or lumbar spine (T value 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean) within the past 24 months.
Not in treatment with anti-resorptive agents (like bisphosphonates and denosumab) for more than 4 consecutive years, in order to reduce the risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (Lo et al., 2010).
= 50 years old.
In self-reported menopause, defined as the permanent cessation of ovulation, for at least one year (Soules et al., 2001).
Edentulous area involving a maximum of two teeth (wisdom teeth and second molars are excluded) and presenting at least one neighbouring tooth (e.g. gap in the area of a second premolar and first molar, with first premolar in place).
Residual alveolar width = 4 mm (Milinkovic and Cordaro, 2014), residual alveolar height >8 mm, enough inter-arch space for a crown (at least 5 mm) and a minimum distance of 7 mm from the adjacent teeth (Shah and Lum, 2008). The width and height will be confirmed after x-ray examination in Visit 2.
Possibility to restore a functional occlusion with a minimum of four occlusal units (i.e. pairs of occluding posterior teeth).
Willingness to replace the missing tooth/teeth with dental implants
Registration with a GDP
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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"O"
] |
Participants must present a diagnosis of osteoporosis based on DXA measurement of the bone mineral density at the femur neck and/or total hip and/or lumbar spine (T value 2.5 SD or more below the young female adult mean) within the past 24 months.
Not in treatment with anti-resorptive agents (like bisphosphonates and denosumab) for more than 4 consecutive years, in order to reduce the risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaws (Lo et al., 2010).
= 50 years old.
In self-reported menopause, defined as the permanent cessation of ovulation, for at least one year (Soules et al., 2001).
Edentulous area involving a maximum of two teeth (wisdom teeth and second molars are excluded) and presenting at least one neighbouring tooth (e.g. gap in the area of a second premolar and first molar, with first premolar in place).
Residual alveolar width = 4 mm (Milinkovic and Cordaro, 2014), residual alveolar height >8 mm, enough inter-arch space for a crown (at least 5 mm) and a minimum distance of 7 mm from the adjacent teeth (Shah and Lum, 2008). The width and height will be confirmed after x-ray examination in Visit 2.
Possibility to restore a functional occlusion with a minimum of four occlusal units (i.e. pairs of occluding posterior teeth).
Willingness to replace the missing tooth/teeth with dental implants
Registration with a GDP
|
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[
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acetaminophen is a compound
|
DS.d1477_task0
|
Sentence: Surprisingly, no role of ERK1/2 or STAT-3 was found in the protein-mediated protection of hepatocytes during acetaminophen exposure.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: compound
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-compound",
"O",
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] |
Surprisingly, no role of ERK1/2 or STAT-3 was found in the protein-mediated protection of hepatocytes during acetaminophen exposure.
|
[
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[
"compound",
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] |
acetaminophen is a compound
|
DS.d1477_task1
|
Sentence: Surprisingly, no role of ERK1/2 or STAT-3 was found in the protein-mediated protection of hepatocytes during acetaminophen exposure.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: acetaminophen
Options: compound
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-compound",
"O",
"O"
] |
Surprisingly, no role of ERK1/2 or STAT-3 was found in the protein-mediated protection of hepatocytes during acetaminophen exposure.
|
[
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[
"compound",
"protein"
] |
acetaminophen
|
DS.d1477_task2
|
Sentence: Surprisingly, no role of ERK1/2 or STAT-3 was found in the protein-mediated protection of hepatocytes during acetaminophen exposure.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-compound",
"O",
"O"
] |
Surprisingly, no role of ERK1/2 or STAT-3 was found in the protein-mediated protection of hepatocytes during acetaminophen exposure.
|
[
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] |
[
"compound",
"protein"
] |
H2O2 is a compound, thioredoxin reductase 1 is a protein
|
DS.d611_task0
|
Sentence: Both MudPIT and cDNA microarray analyses indicate that H2O2 treatment caused elevated levels of thioredoxin reductase 1.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: compound, protein
|
[
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-compound",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-protein",
"I-protein",
"I-protein",
"O"
] |
Both MudPIT and cDNA microarray analyses indicate that H2O2 treatment caused elevated levels of thioredoxin reductase 1.
|
[
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[
"protein",
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] |
H2O2 is a compound, thioredoxin reductase 1 is a protein
|
DS.d611_task1
|
Sentence: Both MudPIT and cDNA microarray analyses indicate that H2O2 treatment caused elevated levels of thioredoxin reductase 1.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: H2O2, thioredoxin reductase 1
Options: compound, protein
|
[
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"B-compound",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-protein",
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] |
Both MudPIT and cDNA microarray analyses indicate that H2O2 treatment caused elevated levels of thioredoxin reductase 1.
|
[
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[
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H2O2, thioredoxin reductase 1
|
DS.d611_task2
|
Sentence: Both MudPIT and cDNA microarray analyses indicate that H2O2 treatment caused elevated levels of thioredoxin reductase 1.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
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Both MudPIT and cDNA microarray analyses indicate that H2O2 treatment caused elevated levels of thioredoxin reductase 1.
|
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[
"protein",
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neoplasia is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, CDI grado histológico III is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, CDI is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, pT1N3M0 is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, progresión hepática is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metastásica is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, neoplasia is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, células tumorales is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
159_task0
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Mujer de 57 años de edad sin alergias medicamentosas conocidas ni hábitos tóxicos, que como antecedentes no oncológicos de interés, presentaba una obesidad tratada quirúrgicamente con bypass gástrico en Junio de 2001 así como una resección de quiste mamario izquierdo en 2009. No presentaba antecedentes oncológicos familiares.
El origen de la historia oncológica de la paciente se remonta a Febrero de 2014 presentando como primer síntoma un nódulo auto palpable sobre mama derecha con Ecografía-BAG compatible con una imagen heterogénea de 50x23 mm en el cuadrante externo de mama derecha y una anatomía patológica que resultó positiva para neoplasia de mama CDI grado histológico III, RHE-, RP- , HER2 -, Ki67 del 75%. El PET-TC mostró adenopatías en territorio axilar, de mamaria interna y supraclavicular ipsilateral sin imágenes sugestivas de metástasis sistémicas. Nuestra paciente inició tratamiento neoadyuvante con CBDP/docetaxel durante seis ciclos entre Marzo y Julio de 2014 siendo intervenida en Agosto de 2014 mediante mastectomía radical modificada derecha. La anatomía patológica de la pieza quirúrgica fue compatible con CDI triple negativo con un total de once ganglios afectos de los 25 examinados. Valorado como pT1N3M0, tras la intervención, nuestra paciente continuó con tratamiento adyuvante según esquema FEC (5-Fluorouracilo, epirrubicina y ciclofosfamida) por tres ciclos, radioterapia sobre lecho quirúrgico con dosis total de 50 Gy y letrozol. En Febrero de 2015 se objetivó en TC toraco-abdominal de control, progresión hepática, con la aparición de 3 metástasis hepáticas, comenzando entonces una primera línea de tratamiento de enfermedad metastásica con Capecitabina/Gemcitabina realizando un total de dos ciclos entre Febrero y Marzo de 2015.
En Abril de 2015 nuestra paciente, acudió a urgencias con una historia de 72 horas de evolución de disnea brusca, dolor torácico y tos seca no asociada a fiebre ni expectoración.
Exploración física
A su llegada a Urgencias, la paciente presentaba un estado general conservado, encontrándose hemodinámicamente estable, afebril y con cifras de saturación de 88% a aire ambiente. A la exploración física no existían alteraciones a nivel de la auscultación pulmonar, ni signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Pruebas complementarias
Analiticamente destacaba plaquetopenia de 28 x10E9/L (rango normal 147-386 x10E9/L) y un D-dímero elevado sin otras alteraciones de interés. Como parte de los estudios iniciales se solicitó un electrocardiograma que mostraba bloqueo de rama derecha no presente en previos, sin otros hallazgos patológicos. La radiografía de tórax no mostró signos de insuficiencia cardiaca ni imágenes sugestivas de proceso infeccioso. Además, dado que se trataba de una paciente con obesidad con clínica de dolor torácico de reciente aparición se solicitaron a nivel analítico enzimas de daño miocárdico que resultaron en rango normal. Tras el resultado de las pruebas iniciales, y bajo la sospecha de tromboembolismo pulmonar, se realizó un Angio- TAC pulmonar que mostró aumento de calibre del tronco de la arteria pulmonar (31 mm) así como signos de sobrecarga de ventrículo derecho y pequeñas opacidades parcheadas en vidrio esmerilado de localización subpleural no presentes en estudios previos, descartando la presencia de defectos de repleción en arterias pulmonares ni condensaciones parenquimatosas orientativas de proceso infeccioso.
Se solicitaron hemocultivos de entrada, que resultaron negativos, así como esputo inducido y PCR para virus respiratorios, sin aislamientos microbiológicos en ninguna de las muestras. Desde el punto de vista analítico, el antígeno CA-15-3 resultó de 152.4 U/mL (rango normal 0.0 - 35.0 U/mL ).
Diagnóstico
Ante las imágenes sugestivas de sobrecarga derecha por Angio-TC y sintomatología de dolor torácico, la paciente fue valorada por Cardiología. Se realizó un ecocardiograma que describió signos de sobrecarga derecha, desplazamiento de tabique ventricular y ausencia de colapso de la vena cava inferior con la inspiración, descartándose alteraciones segmentarias de la contractilidad ventricular orientativas de cardiopatía isquémica.
Ninguno de dichos hallazgos estaba presente en el ecocardiograma previo al inicio de tratamiento oncológico.
Todas las imágenes anteriormente descritas en relación al Angio-TC y ecocardiograma junto con la clínica de la paciente eran compatibles con un cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda.
Tratamiento
Debido a que nuestra paciente se encontraba en situación de insuficiencia respiratoria rápidamente progresiva, y aunque el cuadro clínico era poco sugestivo de proceso infeccioso se inició antibioterapia empírica con piperazilina/tazobactam y azitromicina así como oxigenoterapia a altos flujos. A pesar de lo cual la paciente evolucionó de forma tórpida con requerimientos progresivamente mayores de oxigenoterapia e hipotensión refractaria a sueroterapia requiriendo finalmente el inicio de soporte vasoactivo y monitorización cardiaca a las 48 horas de su llegada a urgencias.
Evolución
Así pues, se trata de una mujer afecta de una neoplasia de mama triple negativa con reciente inicio de tratamiento de primera línea con gemcitabina/capecitabina habiendo presentado un cuadro agudo de disnea secundario a hipertensión pulmonar aguda de causa no aclarada y habiéndose descartado la etiología infecciosa y cardiológica. En este momento se valoró la opción de un cuadro de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causante del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda. Para completar el diagnóstico se solicitó una gammagrafía que mostró pequeños defectos de repleción de distribución parcheada realizándose, entonces, el diagnóstico de presunción.
Nuestra paciente derivó progresivamente en un cuadro de insuficiencia cardiaca derecha a pesar de las medidas de soporte. Valorada por el Equipo de Medicina Intensiva se realizó intubación e ingreso en Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos, sin embargo la paciente terminó falleciendo a las 96 horas de su llegada a Urgencias.
El informe de la necropsia describió, a posteriori, hallazgos de microangiopatía trombótica masiva con edema y hemorragia pulmonar con presencia de de células tumorales en la luz capilar pulmonar en forma de émbolos así como signos de insuficiencia cardiaca con cor pulmonale, cardiomegalia y dilatación de ventrículo derecho. A continuación se muestran las imágenes adjuntadas al informe.
Todos los cultivos microbiológicos de tejido pulmonar, hepático y esplénico resultaron negativos. El líquido ascítico y pericárdico así como los hemocultivos que fueron cursados inicialmente no presentaron aislamientos microbiológicos. Era por tanto definitivo el diagnóstico de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causa fundamental del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda y fallecimiento de nuestra paciente.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
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Anamnesis
Mujer de 57 años de edad sin alergias medicamentosas conocidas ni hábitos tóxicos, que como antecedentes no oncológicos de interés, presentaba una obesidad tratada quirúrgicamente con bypass gástrico en Junio de 2001 así como una resección de quiste mamario izquierdo en 2009. No presentaba antecedentes oncológicos familiares.
El origen de la historia oncológica de la paciente se remonta a Febrero de 2014 presentando como primer síntoma un nódulo auto palpable sobre mama derecha con Ecografía-BAG compatible con una imagen heterogénea de 50x23 mm en el cuadrante externo de mama derecha y una anatomía patológica que resultó positiva para neoplasia de mama CDI grado histológico III, RHE-, RP- , HER2 -, Ki67 del 75%. El PET-TC mostró adenopatías en territorio axilar, de mamaria interna y supraclavicular ipsilateral sin imágenes sugestivas de metástasis sistémicas. Nuestra paciente inició tratamiento neoadyuvante con CBDP/docetaxel durante seis ciclos entre Marzo y Julio de 2014 siendo intervenida en Agosto de 2014 mediante mastectomía radical modificada derecha. La anatomía patológica de la pieza quirúrgica fue compatible con CDI triple negativo con un total de once ganglios afectos de los 25 examinados. Valorado como pT1N3M0, tras la intervención, nuestra paciente continuó con tratamiento adyuvante según esquema FEC (5-Fluorouracilo, epirrubicina y ciclofosfamida) por tres ciclos, radioterapia sobre lecho quirúrgico con dosis total de 50 Gy y letrozol. En Febrero de 2015 se objetivó en TC toraco-abdominal de control, progresión hepática, con la aparición de 3 metástasis hepáticas, comenzando entonces una primera línea de tratamiento de enfermedad metastásica con Capecitabina/Gemcitabina realizando un total de dos ciclos entre Febrero y Marzo de 2015.
En Abril de 2015 nuestra paciente, acudió a urgencias con una historia de 72 horas de evolución de disnea brusca, dolor torácico y tos seca no asociada a fiebre ni expectoración.
Exploración física
A su llegada a Urgencias, la paciente presentaba un estado general conservado, encontrándose hemodinámicamente estable, afebril y con cifras de saturación de 88% a aire ambiente. A la exploración física no existían alteraciones a nivel de la auscultación pulmonar, ni signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Pruebas complementarias
Analiticamente destacaba plaquetopenia de 28 x10E9/L (rango normal 147-386 x10E9/L) y un D-dímero elevado sin otras alteraciones de interés. Como parte de los estudios iniciales se solicitó un electrocardiograma que mostraba bloqueo de rama derecha no presente en previos, sin otros hallazgos patológicos. La radiografía de tórax no mostró signos de insuficiencia cardiaca ni imágenes sugestivas de proceso infeccioso. Además, dado que se trataba de una paciente con obesidad con clínica de dolor torácico de reciente aparición se solicitaron a nivel analítico enzimas de daño miocárdico que resultaron en rango normal. Tras el resultado de las pruebas iniciales, y bajo la sospecha de tromboembolismo pulmonar, se realizó un Angio- TAC pulmonar que mostró aumento de calibre del tronco de la arteria pulmonar (31 mm) así como signos de sobrecarga de ventrículo derecho y pequeñas opacidades parcheadas en vidrio esmerilado de localización subpleural no presentes en estudios previos, descartando la presencia de defectos de repleción en arterias pulmonares ni condensaciones parenquimatosas orientativas de proceso infeccioso.
Se solicitaron hemocultivos de entrada, que resultaron negativos, así como esputo inducido y PCR para virus respiratorios, sin aislamientos microbiológicos en ninguna de las muestras. Desde el punto de vista analítico, el antígeno CA-15-3 resultó de 152.4 U/mL (rango normal 0.0 - 35.0 U/mL ).
Diagnóstico
Ante las imágenes sugestivas de sobrecarga derecha por Angio-TC y sintomatología de dolor torácico, la paciente fue valorada por Cardiología. Se realizó un ecocardiograma que describió signos de sobrecarga derecha, desplazamiento de tabique ventricular y ausencia de colapso de la vena cava inferior con la inspiración, descartándose alteraciones segmentarias de la contractilidad ventricular orientativas de cardiopatía isquémica.
Ninguno de dichos hallazgos estaba presente en el ecocardiograma previo al inicio de tratamiento oncológico.
Todas las imágenes anteriormente descritas en relación al Angio-TC y ecocardiograma junto con la clínica de la paciente eran compatibles con un cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda.
Tratamiento
Debido a que nuestra paciente se encontraba en situación de insuficiencia respiratoria rápidamente progresiva, y aunque el cuadro clínico era poco sugestivo de proceso infeccioso se inició antibioterapia empírica con piperazilina/tazobactam y azitromicina así como oxigenoterapia a altos flujos. A pesar de lo cual la paciente evolucionó de forma tórpida con requerimientos progresivamente mayores de oxigenoterapia e hipotensión refractaria a sueroterapia requiriendo finalmente el inicio de soporte vasoactivo y monitorización cardiaca a las 48 horas de su llegada a urgencias.
Evolución
Así pues, se trata de una mujer afecta de una neoplasia de mama triple negativa con reciente inicio de tratamiento de primera línea con gemcitabina/capecitabina habiendo presentado un cuadro agudo de disnea secundario a hipertensión pulmonar aguda de causa no aclarada y habiéndose descartado la etiología infecciosa y cardiológica. En este momento se valoró la opción de un cuadro de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causante del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda. Para completar el diagnóstico se solicitó una gammagrafía que mostró pequeños defectos de repleción de distribución parcheada realizándose, entonces, el diagnóstico de presunción.
Nuestra paciente derivó progresivamente en un cuadro de insuficiencia cardiaca derecha a pesar de las medidas de soporte. Valorada por el Equipo de Medicina Intensiva se realizó intubación e ingreso en Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos, sin embargo la paciente terminó falleciendo a las 96 horas de su llegada a Urgencias.
El informe de la necropsia describió, a posteriori, hallazgos de microangiopatía trombótica masiva con edema y hemorragia pulmonar con presencia de de células tumorales en la luz capilar pulmonar en forma de émbolos así como signos de insuficiencia cardiaca con cor pulmonale, cardiomegalia y dilatación de ventrículo derecho. A continuación se muestran las imágenes adjuntadas al informe.
Todos los cultivos microbiológicos de tejido pulmonar, hepático y esplénico resultaron negativos. El líquido ascítico y pericárdico así como los hemocultivos que fueron cursados inicialmente no presentaron aislamientos microbiológicos. Era por tanto definitivo el diagnóstico de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causa fundamental del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda y fallecimiento de nuestra paciente.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
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neoplasia is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, CDI grado histológico III is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, CDI is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, pT1N3M0 is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, progresión hepática is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metastásica is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, neoplasia is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, células tumorales is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumoral is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
159_task1
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Mujer de 57 años de edad sin alergias medicamentosas conocidas ni hábitos tóxicos, que como antecedentes no oncológicos de interés, presentaba una obesidad tratada quirúrgicamente con bypass gástrico en Junio de 2001 así como una resección de quiste mamario izquierdo en 2009. No presentaba antecedentes oncológicos familiares.
El origen de la historia oncológica de la paciente se remonta a Febrero de 2014 presentando como primer síntoma un nódulo auto palpable sobre mama derecha con Ecografía-BAG compatible con una imagen heterogénea de 50x23 mm en el cuadrante externo de mama derecha y una anatomía patológica que resultó positiva para neoplasia de mama CDI grado histológico III, RHE-, RP- , HER2 -, Ki67 del 75%. El PET-TC mostró adenopatías en territorio axilar, de mamaria interna y supraclavicular ipsilateral sin imágenes sugestivas de metástasis sistémicas. Nuestra paciente inició tratamiento neoadyuvante con CBDP/docetaxel durante seis ciclos entre Marzo y Julio de 2014 siendo intervenida en Agosto de 2014 mediante mastectomía radical modificada derecha. La anatomía patológica de la pieza quirúrgica fue compatible con CDI triple negativo con un total de once ganglios afectos de los 25 examinados. Valorado como pT1N3M0, tras la intervención, nuestra paciente continuó con tratamiento adyuvante según esquema FEC (5-Fluorouracilo, epirrubicina y ciclofosfamida) por tres ciclos, radioterapia sobre lecho quirúrgico con dosis total de 50 Gy y letrozol. En Febrero de 2015 se objetivó en TC toraco-abdominal de control, progresión hepática, con la aparición de 3 metástasis hepáticas, comenzando entonces una primera línea de tratamiento de enfermedad metastásica con Capecitabina/Gemcitabina realizando un total de dos ciclos entre Febrero y Marzo de 2015.
En Abril de 2015 nuestra paciente, acudió a urgencias con una historia de 72 horas de evolución de disnea brusca, dolor torácico y tos seca no asociada a fiebre ni expectoración.
Exploración física
A su llegada a Urgencias, la paciente presentaba un estado general conservado, encontrándose hemodinámicamente estable, afebril y con cifras de saturación de 88% a aire ambiente. A la exploración física no existían alteraciones a nivel de la auscultación pulmonar, ni signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Pruebas complementarias
Analiticamente destacaba plaquetopenia de 28 x10E9/L (rango normal 147-386 x10E9/L) y un D-dímero elevado sin otras alteraciones de interés. Como parte de los estudios iniciales se solicitó un electrocardiograma que mostraba bloqueo de rama derecha no presente en previos, sin otros hallazgos patológicos. La radiografía de tórax no mostró signos de insuficiencia cardiaca ni imágenes sugestivas de proceso infeccioso. Además, dado que se trataba de una paciente con obesidad con clínica de dolor torácico de reciente aparición se solicitaron a nivel analítico enzimas de daño miocárdico que resultaron en rango normal. Tras el resultado de las pruebas iniciales, y bajo la sospecha de tromboembolismo pulmonar, se realizó un Angio- TAC pulmonar que mostró aumento de calibre del tronco de la arteria pulmonar (31 mm) así como signos de sobrecarga de ventrículo derecho y pequeñas opacidades parcheadas en vidrio esmerilado de localización subpleural no presentes en estudios previos, descartando la presencia de defectos de repleción en arterias pulmonares ni condensaciones parenquimatosas orientativas de proceso infeccioso.
Se solicitaron hemocultivos de entrada, que resultaron negativos, así como esputo inducido y PCR para virus respiratorios, sin aislamientos microbiológicos en ninguna de las muestras. Desde el punto de vista analítico, el antígeno CA-15-3 resultó de 152.4 U/mL (rango normal 0.0 - 35.0 U/mL ).
Diagnóstico
Ante las imágenes sugestivas de sobrecarga derecha por Angio-TC y sintomatología de dolor torácico, la paciente fue valorada por Cardiología. Se realizó un ecocardiograma que describió signos de sobrecarga derecha, desplazamiento de tabique ventricular y ausencia de colapso de la vena cava inferior con la inspiración, descartándose alteraciones segmentarias de la contractilidad ventricular orientativas de cardiopatía isquémica.
Ninguno de dichos hallazgos estaba presente en el ecocardiograma previo al inicio de tratamiento oncológico.
Todas las imágenes anteriormente descritas en relación al Angio-TC y ecocardiograma junto con la clínica de la paciente eran compatibles con un cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda.
Tratamiento
Debido a que nuestra paciente se encontraba en situación de insuficiencia respiratoria rápidamente progresiva, y aunque el cuadro clínico era poco sugestivo de proceso infeccioso se inició antibioterapia empírica con piperazilina/tazobactam y azitromicina así como oxigenoterapia a altos flujos. A pesar de lo cual la paciente evolucionó de forma tórpida con requerimientos progresivamente mayores de oxigenoterapia e hipotensión refractaria a sueroterapia requiriendo finalmente el inicio de soporte vasoactivo y monitorización cardiaca a las 48 horas de su llegada a urgencias.
Evolución
Así pues, se trata de una mujer afecta de una neoplasia de mama triple negativa con reciente inicio de tratamiento de primera línea con gemcitabina/capecitabina habiendo presentado un cuadro agudo de disnea secundario a hipertensión pulmonar aguda de causa no aclarada y habiéndose descartado la etiología infecciosa y cardiológica. En este momento se valoró la opción de un cuadro de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causante del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda. Para completar el diagnóstico se solicitó una gammagrafía que mostró pequeños defectos de repleción de distribución parcheada realizándose, entonces, el diagnóstico de presunción.
Nuestra paciente derivó progresivamente en un cuadro de insuficiencia cardiaca derecha a pesar de las medidas de soporte. Valorada por el Equipo de Medicina Intensiva se realizó intubación e ingreso en Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos, sin embargo la paciente terminó falleciendo a las 96 horas de su llegada a Urgencias.
El informe de la necropsia describió, a posteriori, hallazgos de microangiopatía trombótica masiva con edema y hemorragia pulmonar con presencia de de células tumorales en la luz capilar pulmonar en forma de émbolos así como signos de insuficiencia cardiaca con cor pulmonale, cardiomegalia y dilatación de ventrículo derecho. A continuación se muestran las imágenes adjuntadas al informe.
Todos los cultivos microbiológicos de tejido pulmonar, hepático y esplénico resultaron negativos. El líquido ascítico y pericárdico así como los hemocultivos que fueron cursados inicialmente no presentaron aislamientos microbiológicos. Era por tanto definitivo el diagnóstico de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causa fundamental del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda y fallecimiento de nuestra paciente.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: neoplasia, CDI grado histológico III, metástasis, CDI, pT1N3M0, progresión hepática, metástasis, metastásica, neoplasia, tumoral, células tumorales, tumoral
Options: MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
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Anamnesis
Mujer de 57 años de edad sin alergias medicamentosas conocidas ni hábitos tóxicos, que como antecedentes no oncológicos de interés, presentaba una obesidad tratada quirúrgicamente con bypass gástrico en Junio de 2001 así como una resección de quiste mamario izquierdo en 2009. No presentaba antecedentes oncológicos familiares.
El origen de la historia oncológica de la paciente se remonta a Febrero de 2014 presentando como primer síntoma un nódulo auto palpable sobre mama derecha con Ecografía-BAG compatible con una imagen heterogénea de 50x23 mm en el cuadrante externo de mama derecha y una anatomía patológica que resultó positiva para neoplasia de mama CDI grado histológico III, RHE-, RP- , HER2 -, Ki67 del 75%. El PET-TC mostró adenopatías en territorio axilar, de mamaria interna y supraclavicular ipsilateral sin imágenes sugestivas de metástasis sistémicas. Nuestra paciente inició tratamiento neoadyuvante con CBDP/docetaxel durante seis ciclos entre Marzo y Julio de 2014 siendo intervenida en Agosto de 2014 mediante mastectomía radical modificada derecha. La anatomía patológica de la pieza quirúrgica fue compatible con CDI triple negativo con un total de once ganglios afectos de los 25 examinados. Valorado como pT1N3M0, tras la intervención, nuestra paciente continuó con tratamiento adyuvante según esquema FEC (5-Fluorouracilo, epirrubicina y ciclofosfamida) por tres ciclos, radioterapia sobre lecho quirúrgico con dosis total de 50 Gy y letrozol. En Febrero de 2015 se objetivó en TC toraco-abdominal de control, progresión hepática, con la aparición de 3 metástasis hepáticas, comenzando entonces una primera línea de tratamiento de enfermedad metastásica con Capecitabina/Gemcitabina realizando un total de dos ciclos entre Febrero y Marzo de 2015.
En Abril de 2015 nuestra paciente, acudió a urgencias con una historia de 72 horas de evolución de disnea brusca, dolor torácico y tos seca no asociada a fiebre ni expectoración.
Exploración física
A su llegada a Urgencias, la paciente presentaba un estado general conservado, encontrándose hemodinámicamente estable, afebril y con cifras de saturación de 88% a aire ambiente. A la exploración física no existían alteraciones a nivel de la auscultación pulmonar, ni signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Pruebas complementarias
Analiticamente destacaba plaquetopenia de 28 x10E9/L (rango normal 147-386 x10E9/L) y un D-dímero elevado sin otras alteraciones de interés. Como parte de los estudios iniciales se solicitó un electrocardiograma que mostraba bloqueo de rama derecha no presente en previos, sin otros hallazgos patológicos. La radiografía de tórax no mostró signos de insuficiencia cardiaca ni imágenes sugestivas de proceso infeccioso. Además, dado que se trataba de una paciente con obesidad con clínica de dolor torácico de reciente aparición se solicitaron a nivel analítico enzimas de daño miocárdico que resultaron en rango normal. Tras el resultado de las pruebas iniciales, y bajo la sospecha de tromboembolismo pulmonar, se realizó un Angio- TAC pulmonar que mostró aumento de calibre del tronco de la arteria pulmonar (31 mm) así como signos de sobrecarga de ventrículo derecho y pequeñas opacidades parcheadas en vidrio esmerilado de localización subpleural no presentes en estudios previos, descartando la presencia de defectos de repleción en arterias pulmonares ni condensaciones parenquimatosas orientativas de proceso infeccioso.
Se solicitaron hemocultivos de entrada, que resultaron negativos, así como esputo inducido y PCR para virus respiratorios, sin aislamientos microbiológicos en ninguna de las muestras. Desde el punto de vista analítico, el antígeno CA-15-3 resultó de 152.4 U/mL (rango normal 0.0 - 35.0 U/mL ).
Diagnóstico
Ante las imágenes sugestivas de sobrecarga derecha por Angio-TC y sintomatología de dolor torácico, la paciente fue valorada por Cardiología. Se realizó un ecocardiograma que describió signos de sobrecarga derecha, desplazamiento de tabique ventricular y ausencia de colapso de la vena cava inferior con la inspiración, descartándose alteraciones segmentarias de la contractilidad ventricular orientativas de cardiopatía isquémica.
Ninguno de dichos hallazgos estaba presente en el ecocardiograma previo al inicio de tratamiento oncológico.
Todas las imágenes anteriormente descritas en relación al Angio-TC y ecocardiograma junto con la clínica de la paciente eran compatibles con un cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda.
Tratamiento
Debido a que nuestra paciente se encontraba en situación de insuficiencia respiratoria rápidamente progresiva, y aunque el cuadro clínico era poco sugestivo de proceso infeccioso se inició antibioterapia empírica con piperazilina/tazobactam y azitromicina así como oxigenoterapia a altos flujos. A pesar de lo cual la paciente evolucionó de forma tórpida con requerimientos progresivamente mayores de oxigenoterapia e hipotensión refractaria a sueroterapia requiriendo finalmente el inicio de soporte vasoactivo y monitorización cardiaca a las 48 horas de su llegada a urgencias.
Evolución
Así pues, se trata de una mujer afecta de una neoplasia de mama triple negativa con reciente inicio de tratamiento de primera línea con gemcitabina/capecitabina habiendo presentado un cuadro agudo de disnea secundario a hipertensión pulmonar aguda de causa no aclarada y habiéndose descartado la etiología infecciosa y cardiológica. En este momento se valoró la opción de un cuadro de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causante del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda. Para completar el diagnóstico se solicitó una gammagrafía que mostró pequeños defectos de repleción de distribución parcheada realizándose, entonces, el diagnóstico de presunción.
Nuestra paciente derivó progresivamente en un cuadro de insuficiencia cardiaca derecha a pesar de las medidas de soporte. Valorada por el Equipo de Medicina Intensiva se realizó intubación e ingreso en Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos, sin embargo la paciente terminó falleciendo a las 96 horas de su llegada a Urgencias.
El informe de la necropsia describió, a posteriori, hallazgos de microangiopatía trombótica masiva con edema y hemorragia pulmonar con presencia de de células tumorales en la luz capilar pulmonar en forma de émbolos así como signos de insuficiencia cardiaca con cor pulmonale, cardiomegalia y dilatación de ventrículo derecho. A continuación se muestran las imágenes adjuntadas al informe.
Todos los cultivos microbiológicos de tejido pulmonar, hepático y esplénico resultaron negativos. El líquido ascítico y pericárdico así como los hemocultivos que fueron cursados inicialmente no presentaron aislamientos microbiológicos. Era por tanto definitivo el diagnóstico de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causa fundamental del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda y fallecimiento de nuestra paciente.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
neoplasia, CDI grado histológico III, metástasis, CDI, pT1N3M0, progresión hepática, metástasis, metastásica, neoplasia, tumoral, células tumorales, tumoral
|
159_task2
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Mujer de 57 años de edad sin alergias medicamentosas conocidas ni hábitos tóxicos, que como antecedentes no oncológicos de interés, presentaba una obesidad tratada quirúrgicamente con bypass gástrico en Junio de 2001 así como una resección de quiste mamario izquierdo en 2009. No presentaba antecedentes oncológicos familiares.
El origen de la historia oncológica de la paciente se remonta a Febrero de 2014 presentando como primer síntoma un nódulo auto palpable sobre mama derecha con Ecografía-BAG compatible con una imagen heterogénea de 50x23 mm en el cuadrante externo de mama derecha y una anatomía patológica que resultó positiva para neoplasia de mama CDI grado histológico III, RHE-, RP- , HER2 -, Ki67 del 75%. El PET-TC mostró adenopatías en territorio axilar, de mamaria interna y supraclavicular ipsilateral sin imágenes sugestivas de metástasis sistémicas. Nuestra paciente inició tratamiento neoadyuvante con CBDP/docetaxel durante seis ciclos entre Marzo y Julio de 2014 siendo intervenida en Agosto de 2014 mediante mastectomía radical modificada derecha. La anatomía patológica de la pieza quirúrgica fue compatible con CDI triple negativo con un total de once ganglios afectos de los 25 examinados. Valorado como pT1N3M0, tras la intervención, nuestra paciente continuó con tratamiento adyuvante según esquema FEC (5-Fluorouracilo, epirrubicina y ciclofosfamida) por tres ciclos, radioterapia sobre lecho quirúrgico con dosis total de 50 Gy y letrozol. En Febrero de 2015 se objetivó en TC toraco-abdominal de control, progresión hepática, con la aparición de 3 metástasis hepáticas, comenzando entonces una primera línea de tratamiento de enfermedad metastásica con Capecitabina/Gemcitabina realizando un total de dos ciclos entre Febrero y Marzo de 2015.
En Abril de 2015 nuestra paciente, acudió a urgencias con una historia de 72 horas de evolución de disnea brusca, dolor torácico y tos seca no asociada a fiebre ni expectoración.
Exploración física
A su llegada a Urgencias, la paciente presentaba un estado general conservado, encontrándose hemodinámicamente estable, afebril y con cifras de saturación de 88% a aire ambiente. A la exploración física no existían alteraciones a nivel de la auscultación pulmonar, ni signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Pruebas complementarias
Analiticamente destacaba plaquetopenia de 28 x10E9/L (rango normal 147-386 x10E9/L) y un D-dímero elevado sin otras alteraciones de interés. Como parte de los estudios iniciales se solicitó un electrocardiograma que mostraba bloqueo de rama derecha no presente en previos, sin otros hallazgos patológicos. La radiografía de tórax no mostró signos de insuficiencia cardiaca ni imágenes sugestivas de proceso infeccioso. Además, dado que se trataba de una paciente con obesidad con clínica de dolor torácico de reciente aparición se solicitaron a nivel analítico enzimas de daño miocárdico que resultaron en rango normal. Tras el resultado de las pruebas iniciales, y bajo la sospecha de tromboembolismo pulmonar, se realizó un Angio- TAC pulmonar que mostró aumento de calibre del tronco de la arteria pulmonar (31 mm) así como signos de sobrecarga de ventrículo derecho y pequeñas opacidades parcheadas en vidrio esmerilado de localización subpleural no presentes en estudios previos, descartando la presencia de defectos de repleción en arterias pulmonares ni condensaciones parenquimatosas orientativas de proceso infeccioso.
Se solicitaron hemocultivos de entrada, que resultaron negativos, así como esputo inducido y PCR para virus respiratorios, sin aislamientos microbiológicos en ninguna de las muestras. Desde el punto de vista analítico, el antígeno CA-15-3 resultó de 152.4 U/mL (rango normal 0.0 - 35.0 U/mL ).
Diagnóstico
Ante las imágenes sugestivas de sobrecarga derecha por Angio-TC y sintomatología de dolor torácico, la paciente fue valorada por Cardiología. Se realizó un ecocardiograma que describió signos de sobrecarga derecha, desplazamiento de tabique ventricular y ausencia de colapso de la vena cava inferior con la inspiración, descartándose alteraciones segmentarias de la contractilidad ventricular orientativas de cardiopatía isquémica.
Ninguno de dichos hallazgos estaba presente en el ecocardiograma previo al inicio de tratamiento oncológico.
Todas las imágenes anteriormente descritas en relación al Angio-TC y ecocardiograma junto con la clínica de la paciente eran compatibles con un cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda.
Tratamiento
Debido a que nuestra paciente se encontraba en situación de insuficiencia respiratoria rápidamente progresiva, y aunque el cuadro clínico era poco sugestivo de proceso infeccioso se inició antibioterapia empírica con piperazilina/tazobactam y azitromicina así como oxigenoterapia a altos flujos. A pesar de lo cual la paciente evolucionó de forma tórpida con requerimientos progresivamente mayores de oxigenoterapia e hipotensión refractaria a sueroterapia requiriendo finalmente el inicio de soporte vasoactivo y monitorización cardiaca a las 48 horas de su llegada a urgencias.
Evolución
Así pues, se trata de una mujer afecta de una neoplasia de mama triple negativa con reciente inicio de tratamiento de primera línea con gemcitabina/capecitabina habiendo presentado un cuadro agudo de disnea secundario a hipertensión pulmonar aguda de causa no aclarada y habiéndose descartado la etiología infecciosa y cardiológica. En este momento se valoró la opción de un cuadro de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causante del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda. Para completar el diagnóstico se solicitó una gammagrafía que mostró pequeños defectos de repleción de distribución parcheada realizándose, entonces, el diagnóstico de presunción.
Nuestra paciente derivó progresivamente en un cuadro de insuficiencia cardiaca derecha a pesar de las medidas de soporte. Valorada por el Equipo de Medicina Intensiva se realizó intubación e ingreso en Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos, sin embargo la paciente terminó falleciendo a las 96 horas de su llegada a Urgencias.
El informe de la necropsia describió, a posteriori, hallazgos de microangiopatía trombótica masiva con edema y hemorragia pulmonar con presencia de de células tumorales en la luz capilar pulmonar en forma de émbolos así como signos de insuficiencia cardiaca con cor pulmonale, cardiomegalia y dilatación de ventrículo derecho. A continuación se muestran las imágenes adjuntadas al informe.
Todos los cultivos microbiológicos de tejido pulmonar, hepático y esplénico resultaron negativos. El líquido ascítico y pericárdico así como los hemocultivos que fueron cursados inicialmente no presentaron aislamientos microbiológicos. Era por tanto definitivo el diagnóstico de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causa fundamental del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda y fallecimiento de nuestra paciente.
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Anamnesis
Mujer de 57 años de edad sin alergias medicamentosas conocidas ni hábitos tóxicos, que como antecedentes no oncológicos de interés, presentaba una obesidad tratada quirúrgicamente con bypass gástrico en Junio de 2001 así como una resección de quiste mamario izquierdo en 2009. No presentaba antecedentes oncológicos familiares.
El origen de la historia oncológica de la paciente se remonta a Febrero de 2014 presentando como primer síntoma un nódulo auto palpable sobre mama derecha con Ecografía-BAG compatible con una imagen heterogénea de 50x23 mm en el cuadrante externo de mama derecha y una anatomía patológica que resultó positiva para neoplasia de mama CDI grado histológico III, RHE-, RP- , HER2 -, Ki67 del 75%. El PET-TC mostró adenopatías en territorio axilar, de mamaria interna y supraclavicular ipsilateral sin imágenes sugestivas de metástasis sistémicas. Nuestra paciente inició tratamiento neoadyuvante con CBDP/docetaxel durante seis ciclos entre Marzo y Julio de 2014 siendo intervenida en Agosto de 2014 mediante mastectomía radical modificada derecha. La anatomía patológica de la pieza quirúrgica fue compatible con CDI triple negativo con un total de once ganglios afectos de los 25 examinados. Valorado como pT1N3M0, tras la intervención, nuestra paciente continuó con tratamiento adyuvante según esquema FEC (5-Fluorouracilo, epirrubicina y ciclofosfamida) por tres ciclos, radioterapia sobre lecho quirúrgico con dosis total de 50 Gy y letrozol. En Febrero de 2015 se objetivó en TC toraco-abdominal de control, progresión hepática, con la aparición de 3 metástasis hepáticas, comenzando entonces una primera línea de tratamiento de enfermedad metastásica con Capecitabina/Gemcitabina realizando un total de dos ciclos entre Febrero y Marzo de 2015.
En Abril de 2015 nuestra paciente, acudió a urgencias con una historia de 72 horas de evolución de disnea brusca, dolor torácico y tos seca no asociada a fiebre ni expectoración.
Exploración física
A su llegada a Urgencias, la paciente presentaba un estado general conservado, encontrándose hemodinámicamente estable, afebril y con cifras de saturación de 88% a aire ambiente. A la exploración física no existían alteraciones a nivel de la auscultación pulmonar, ni signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Pruebas complementarias
Analiticamente destacaba plaquetopenia de 28 x10E9/L (rango normal 147-386 x10E9/L) y un D-dímero elevado sin otras alteraciones de interés. Como parte de los estudios iniciales se solicitó un electrocardiograma que mostraba bloqueo de rama derecha no presente en previos, sin otros hallazgos patológicos. La radiografía de tórax no mostró signos de insuficiencia cardiaca ni imágenes sugestivas de proceso infeccioso. Además, dado que se trataba de una paciente con obesidad con clínica de dolor torácico de reciente aparición se solicitaron a nivel analítico enzimas de daño miocárdico que resultaron en rango normal. Tras el resultado de las pruebas iniciales, y bajo la sospecha de tromboembolismo pulmonar, se realizó un Angio- TAC pulmonar que mostró aumento de calibre del tronco de la arteria pulmonar (31 mm) así como signos de sobrecarga de ventrículo derecho y pequeñas opacidades parcheadas en vidrio esmerilado de localización subpleural no presentes en estudios previos, descartando la presencia de defectos de repleción en arterias pulmonares ni condensaciones parenquimatosas orientativas de proceso infeccioso.
Se solicitaron hemocultivos de entrada, que resultaron negativos, así como esputo inducido y PCR para virus respiratorios, sin aislamientos microbiológicos en ninguna de las muestras. Desde el punto de vista analítico, el antígeno CA-15-3 resultó de 152.4 U/mL (rango normal 0.0 - 35.0 U/mL ).
Diagnóstico
Ante las imágenes sugestivas de sobrecarga derecha por Angio-TC y sintomatología de dolor torácico, la paciente fue valorada por Cardiología. Se realizó un ecocardiograma que describió signos de sobrecarga derecha, desplazamiento de tabique ventricular y ausencia de colapso de la vena cava inferior con la inspiración, descartándose alteraciones segmentarias de la contractilidad ventricular orientativas de cardiopatía isquémica.
Ninguno de dichos hallazgos estaba presente en el ecocardiograma previo al inicio de tratamiento oncológico.
Todas las imágenes anteriormente descritas en relación al Angio-TC y ecocardiograma junto con la clínica de la paciente eran compatibles con un cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda.
Tratamiento
Debido a que nuestra paciente se encontraba en situación de insuficiencia respiratoria rápidamente progresiva, y aunque el cuadro clínico era poco sugestivo de proceso infeccioso se inició antibioterapia empírica con piperazilina/tazobactam y azitromicina así como oxigenoterapia a altos flujos. A pesar de lo cual la paciente evolucionó de forma tórpida con requerimientos progresivamente mayores de oxigenoterapia e hipotensión refractaria a sueroterapia requiriendo finalmente el inicio de soporte vasoactivo y monitorización cardiaca a las 48 horas de su llegada a urgencias.
Evolución
Así pues, se trata de una mujer afecta de una neoplasia de mama triple negativa con reciente inicio de tratamiento de primera línea con gemcitabina/capecitabina habiendo presentado un cuadro agudo de disnea secundario a hipertensión pulmonar aguda de causa no aclarada y habiéndose descartado la etiología infecciosa y cardiológica. En este momento se valoró la opción de un cuadro de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causante del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda. Para completar el diagnóstico se solicitó una gammagrafía que mostró pequeños defectos de repleción de distribución parcheada realizándose, entonces, el diagnóstico de presunción.
Nuestra paciente derivó progresivamente en un cuadro de insuficiencia cardiaca derecha a pesar de las medidas de soporte. Valorada por el Equipo de Medicina Intensiva se realizó intubación e ingreso en Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos, sin embargo la paciente terminó falleciendo a las 96 horas de su llegada a Urgencias.
El informe de la necropsia describió, a posteriori, hallazgos de microangiopatía trombótica masiva con edema y hemorragia pulmonar con presencia de de células tumorales en la luz capilar pulmonar en forma de émbolos así como signos de insuficiencia cardiaca con cor pulmonale, cardiomegalia y dilatación de ventrículo derecho. A continuación se muestran las imágenes adjuntadas al informe.
Todos los cultivos microbiológicos de tejido pulmonar, hepático y esplénico resultaron negativos. El líquido ascítico y pericárdico así como los hemocultivos que fueron cursados inicialmente no presentaron aislamientos microbiológicos. Era por tanto definitivo el diagnóstico de microangiopatía trombótica tumoral pulmonar como causa fundamental del cuadro de hipertensión pulmonar aguda y fallecimiento de nuestra paciente.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
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Fernmetastasendiagnostik is an umlsterm, Kopf - Hals - Tumoren is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Plattenepithelkarzinomen is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Fernmetastasen is an umlsterm, Primaertumordiagnose is an umlsterm, Fernmetastasenrate is an umlsterm, Tumorstadium is an umlsterm, Rezidivs is an umlsterm, Zweittumors is an umlsterm, Vorhersagewert is an umlsterm, Tumorstadien is an umlsterm, Lunge is an umlsterm, Leber is an umlsterm, Skelett is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Erstdiagnose is an umlsterm, Fernmetastasensuche is an umlsterm, Tumoren is an umlsterm, Roentgenuntersuchung is an umlsterm, Thorax is an umlsterm, Diagnostik is an umlsterm, Computertomographie is an umlsterm, Thorax is an umlsterm, Tumoren is an umlsterm, Rezidiven is an umlsterm, Zweittumoren is an umlsterm
|
HNO.90470038.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Der Umfang der Fernmetastasendiagnostik bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren wird nach wie vor kontrovers diskutiert . In der vorliegenden retrospektiven Studie wurde anhand der Verlaeufe von 1087 Patienten mit primaeren Plattenepithelkarzinomen des oberen Aerodigestivtrakts untersucht , welche Faktoren die Haeufigkeit und die Lokalisation einer Fernmetastasierung beeinflussen . Bei insgesamt 130 Patienten ( 12,0% ) wurden zu Lebzeiten Fernmetastasen diagnostiziert , darunter 17 mal ( 1,6% ) zum Zeitpunkt der Primaertumordiagnose . Die Fernmetastasenrate korrelierte positiv mit dem initialen Tumorstadium ( p 0,00001 ) sowie mit der Manifestation eines lokalen und/oder regionaeren Rezidivs ( p 0,00001 ) oder eines Zweittumors ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs ( p 0,0005 ) . Die Parameter ' Primaertumorlokalisation und ' histopathologisches Tumorgrading ' ' besassen hingegen keinen eigenstaendigen Vorhersagewert , sondern spiegelten im wesentlichen unterschiedliche Haeufigkeiten der Tumorstadien wider . Die Lunge , die Leber und das Skelett waren bei 68,5% , 23,8% bzw. 20,0% der Patienten involviert und damit die am haeufigsten befallenen Organsysteme . Folgerungen : Zum Zeitpunkt der Erstdiagnose kann sich die Fernmetastasensuche bei Tumoren der Kategorien T1-3 N0 auf eine Roentgenuntersuchung des Thorax beschraenken . Eine weitergehende Diagnostik , bestehend aus Abdomensonographie , Skelettszintigraphie und/oder Computertomographie ( CT ) des Thorax , ist bei lokoregionaer fortgeschrittenen Tumoren , bei Rezidiven und bei Zweittumoren ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs indiziert . Allerdings sollte man sich dabei im Einzelfall stets die Frage nach den therapeutischen Konsequenzen stellen .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
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Der Umfang der Fernmetastasendiagnostik bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren wird nach wie vor kontrovers diskutiert . In der vorliegenden retrospektiven Studie wurde anhand der Verlaeufe von 1087 Patienten mit primaeren Plattenepithelkarzinomen des oberen Aerodigestivtrakts untersucht , welche Faktoren die Haeufigkeit und die Lokalisation einer Fernmetastasierung beeinflussen . Bei insgesamt 130 Patienten ( 12,0% ) wurden zu Lebzeiten Fernmetastasen diagnostiziert , darunter 17 mal ( 1,6% ) zum Zeitpunkt der Primaertumordiagnose . Die Fernmetastasenrate korrelierte positiv mit dem initialen Tumorstadium ( p 0,00001 ) sowie mit der Manifestation eines lokalen und/oder regionaeren Rezidivs ( p 0,00001 ) oder eines Zweittumors ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs ( p 0,0005 ) . Die Parameter ' Primaertumorlokalisation und ' histopathologisches Tumorgrading ' ' besassen hingegen keinen eigenstaendigen Vorhersagewert , sondern spiegelten im wesentlichen unterschiedliche Haeufigkeiten der Tumorstadien wider . Die Lunge , die Leber und das Skelett waren bei 68,5% , 23,8% bzw. 20,0% der Patienten involviert und damit die am haeufigsten befallenen Organsysteme . Folgerungen : Zum Zeitpunkt der Erstdiagnose kann sich die Fernmetastasensuche bei Tumoren der Kategorien T1-3 N0 auf eine Roentgenuntersuchung des Thorax beschraenken . Eine weitergehende Diagnostik , bestehend aus Abdomensonographie , Skelettszintigraphie und/oder Computertomographie ( CT ) des Thorax , ist bei lokoregionaer fortgeschrittenen Tumoren , bei Rezidiven und bei Zweittumoren ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs indiziert . Allerdings sollte man sich dabei im Einzelfall stets die Frage nach den therapeutischen Konsequenzen stellen .
|
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[
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Fernmetastasendiagnostik is an umlsterm, Kopf - Hals - Tumoren is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Plattenepithelkarzinomen is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Fernmetastasen is an umlsterm, Primaertumordiagnose is an umlsterm, Fernmetastasenrate is an umlsterm, Tumorstadium is an umlsterm, Rezidivs is an umlsterm, Zweittumors is an umlsterm, Vorhersagewert is an umlsterm, Tumorstadien is an umlsterm, Lunge is an umlsterm, Leber is an umlsterm, Skelett is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Erstdiagnose is an umlsterm, Fernmetastasensuche is an umlsterm, Tumoren is an umlsterm, Roentgenuntersuchung is an umlsterm, Thorax is an umlsterm, Diagnostik is an umlsterm, Computertomographie is an umlsterm, Thorax is an umlsterm, Tumoren is an umlsterm, Rezidiven is an umlsterm, Zweittumoren is an umlsterm
|
HNO.90470038.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Der Umfang der Fernmetastasendiagnostik bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren wird nach wie vor kontrovers diskutiert . In der vorliegenden retrospektiven Studie wurde anhand der Verlaeufe von 1087 Patienten mit primaeren Plattenepithelkarzinomen des oberen Aerodigestivtrakts untersucht , welche Faktoren die Haeufigkeit und die Lokalisation einer Fernmetastasierung beeinflussen . Bei insgesamt 130 Patienten ( 12,0% ) wurden zu Lebzeiten Fernmetastasen diagnostiziert , darunter 17 mal ( 1,6% ) zum Zeitpunkt der Primaertumordiagnose . Die Fernmetastasenrate korrelierte positiv mit dem initialen Tumorstadium ( p 0,00001 ) sowie mit der Manifestation eines lokalen und/oder regionaeren Rezidivs ( p 0,00001 ) oder eines Zweittumors ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs ( p 0,0005 ) . Die Parameter ' Primaertumorlokalisation und ' histopathologisches Tumorgrading ' ' besassen hingegen keinen eigenstaendigen Vorhersagewert , sondern spiegelten im wesentlichen unterschiedliche Haeufigkeiten der Tumorstadien wider . Die Lunge , die Leber und das Skelett waren bei 68,5% , 23,8% bzw. 20,0% der Patienten involviert und damit die am haeufigsten befallenen Organsysteme . Folgerungen : Zum Zeitpunkt der Erstdiagnose kann sich die Fernmetastasensuche bei Tumoren der Kategorien T1-3 N0 auf eine Roentgenuntersuchung des Thorax beschraenken . Eine weitergehende Diagnostik , bestehend aus Abdomensonographie , Skelettszintigraphie und/oder Computertomographie ( CT ) des Thorax , ist bei lokoregionaer fortgeschrittenen Tumoren , bei Rezidiven und bei Zweittumoren ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs indiziert . Allerdings sollte man sich dabei im Einzelfall stets die Frage nach den therapeutischen Konsequenzen stellen .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Fernmetastasendiagnostik, Kopf - Hals - Tumoren, Patienten, Plattenepithelkarzinomen, Patienten, Fernmetastasen, Primaertumordiagnose, Fernmetastasenrate, Tumorstadium, Rezidivs, Zweittumors, Vorhersagewert, Tumorstadien, Lunge, Leber, Skelett, Patienten, Erstdiagnose, Fernmetastasensuche, Tumoren, Roentgenuntersuchung, Thorax, Diagnostik, Computertomographie, Thorax, Tumoren, Rezidiven, Zweittumoren
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Der Umfang der Fernmetastasendiagnostik bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren wird nach wie vor kontrovers diskutiert . In der vorliegenden retrospektiven Studie wurde anhand der Verlaeufe von 1087 Patienten mit primaeren Plattenepithelkarzinomen des oberen Aerodigestivtrakts untersucht , welche Faktoren die Haeufigkeit und die Lokalisation einer Fernmetastasierung beeinflussen . Bei insgesamt 130 Patienten ( 12,0% ) wurden zu Lebzeiten Fernmetastasen diagnostiziert , darunter 17 mal ( 1,6% ) zum Zeitpunkt der Primaertumordiagnose . Die Fernmetastasenrate korrelierte positiv mit dem initialen Tumorstadium ( p 0,00001 ) sowie mit der Manifestation eines lokalen und/oder regionaeren Rezidivs ( p 0,00001 ) oder eines Zweittumors ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs ( p 0,0005 ) . Die Parameter ' Primaertumorlokalisation und ' histopathologisches Tumorgrading ' ' besassen hingegen keinen eigenstaendigen Vorhersagewert , sondern spiegelten im wesentlichen unterschiedliche Haeufigkeiten der Tumorstadien wider . Die Lunge , die Leber und das Skelett waren bei 68,5% , 23,8% bzw. 20,0% der Patienten involviert und damit die am haeufigsten befallenen Organsysteme . Folgerungen : Zum Zeitpunkt der Erstdiagnose kann sich die Fernmetastasensuche bei Tumoren der Kategorien T1-3 N0 auf eine Roentgenuntersuchung des Thorax beschraenken . Eine weitergehende Diagnostik , bestehend aus Abdomensonographie , Skelettszintigraphie und/oder Computertomographie ( CT ) des Thorax , ist bei lokoregionaer fortgeschrittenen Tumoren , bei Rezidiven und bei Zweittumoren ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs indiziert . Allerdings sollte man sich dabei im Einzelfall stets die Frage nach den therapeutischen Konsequenzen stellen .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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|
HNO.90470038.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Der Umfang der Fernmetastasendiagnostik bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren wird nach wie vor kontrovers diskutiert . In der vorliegenden retrospektiven Studie wurde anhand der Verlaeufe von 1087 Patienten mit primaeren Plattenepithelkarzinomen des oberen Aerodigestivtrakts untersucht , welche Faktoren die Haeufigkeit und die Lokalisation einer Fernmetastasierung beeinflussen . Bei insgesamt 130 Patienten ( 12,0% ) wurden zu Lebzeiten Fernmetastasen diagnostiziert , darunter 17 mal ( 1,6% ) zum Zeitpunkt der Primaertumordiagnose . Die Fernmetastasenrate korrelierte positiv mit dem initialen Tumorstadium ( p 0,00001 ) sowie mit der Manifestation eines lokalen und/oder regionaeren Rezidivs ( p 0,00001 ) oder eines Zweittumors ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs ( p 0,0005 ) . Die Parameter ' Primaertumorlokalisation und ' histopathologisches Tumorgrading ' ' besassen hingegen keinen eigenstaendigen Vorhersagewert , sondern spiegelten im wesentlichen unterschiedliche Haeufigkeiten der Tumorstadien wider . Die Lunge , die Leber und das Skelett waren bei 68,5% , 23,8% bzw. 20,0% der Patienten involviert und damit die am haeufigsten befallenen Organsysteme . Folgerungen : Zum Zeitpunkt der Erstdiagnose kann sich die Fernmetastasensuche bei Tumoren der Kategorien T1-3 N0 auf eine Roentgenuntersuchung des Thorax beschraenken . Eine weitergehende Diagnostik , bestehend aus Abdomensonographie , Skelettszintigraphie und/oder Computertomographie ( CT ) des Thorax , ist bei lokoregionaer fortgeschrittenen Tumoren , bei Rezidiven und bei Zweittumoren ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs indiziert . Allerdings sollte man sich dabei im Einzelfall stets die Frage nach den therapeutischen Konsequenzen stellen .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Der Umfang der Fernmetastasendiagnostik bei Kopf-Hals-Tumoren wird nach wie vor kontrovers diskutiert . In der vorliegenden retrospektiven Studie wurde anhand der Verlaeufe von 1087 Patienten mit primaeren Plattenepithelkarzinomen des oberen Aerodigestivtrakts untersucht , welche Faktoren die Haeufigkeit und die Lokalisation einer Fernmetastasierung beeinflussen . Bei insgesamt 130 Patienten ( 12,0% ) wurden zu Lebzeiten Fernmetastasen diagnostiziert , darunter 17 mal ( 1,6% ) zum Zeitpunkt der Primaertumordiagnose . Die Fernmetastasenrate korrelierte positiv mit dem initialen Tumorstadium ( p 0,00001 ) sowie mit der Manifestation eines lokalen und/oder regionaeren Rezidivs ( p 0,00001 ) oder eines Zweittumors ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs ( p 0,0005 ) . Die Parameter ' Primaertumorlokalisation und ' histopathologisches Tumorgrading ' ' besassen hingegen keinen eigenstaendigen Vorhersagewert , sondern spiegelten im wesentlichen unterschiedliche Haeufigkeiten der Tumorstadien wider . Die Lunge , die Leber und das Skelett waren bei 68,5% , 23,8% bzw. 20,0% der Patienten involviert und damit die am haeufigsten befallenen Organsysteme . Folgerungen : Zum Zeitpunkt der Erstdiagnose kann sich die Fernmetastasensuche bei Tumoren der Kategorien T1-3 N0 auf eine Roentgenuntersuchung des Thorax beschraenken . Eine weitergehende Diagnostik , bestehend aus Abdomensonographie , Skelettszintigraphie und/oder Computertomographie ( CT ) des Thorax , ist bei lokoregionaer fortgeschrittenen Tumoren , bei Rezidiven und bei Zweittumoren ausserhalb des HNO-Bereichs indiziert . Allerdings sollte man sich dabei im Einzelfall stets die Frage nach den therapeutischen Konsequenzen stellen .
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melamine is a CHEMICAL
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23052191_task0
|
Sentence: Repeat oral dose toxicity studies of melamine in rats and monkeys.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: CHEMICAL
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melamine is a CHEMICAL
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23052191_task1
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Sentence: Repeat oral dose toxicity studies of melamine in rats and monkeys.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: melamine
Options: CHEMICAL
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23052191_task2
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Sentence: Repeat oral dose toxicity studies of melamine in rats and monkeys.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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|
875_task0
|
Sentence: Interleukin-12 expression in B cells by transformation with Epstein-Barr virus.
Although interleukin (IL)-12 was originally purified from an Epstein-Barr (EBV)-transformed B cell line and the high correlation of EBV infection and IL-12 expression has been suggested, no study has reported whether EBV infection is directly linked to IL-12 expression. To address this issue, we have investigated IL-12 expression in B cells during in vitro transformation with EBV. Human peripheral B cells became capable of constitutively producing p40 by in vitro transformation with EBV, coincident with the expression of latent membrane protein 1 (LMP1) of EBV. These B cells expressed p40 and p35 mRNA, and phorbol myristate acetate (PMA) stimulation strongly enhanced p40 and p70 production. Furthermore, transfection with LMP1 expression vector into a human B lymphoma cell line, Daudi, led to p40 production with nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB activation. These results suggest that transformation of primary B cells with EBV induces IL-12 expression potentially through LMP1 expression. Copyright 1998 Academic Press.
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|
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[
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p40 is a Protein, latent membrane protein 1 is a Protein, LMP1 is a Protein, p40 is a Protein, p35 is a Protein, p40 is a Protein, LMP1 is a Protein, p40 is a Protein, LMP1 is a Protein
|
875_task1
|
Sentence: Interleukin-12 expression in B cells by transformation with Epstein-Barr virus.
Although interleukin (IL)-12 was originally purified from an Epstein-Barr (EBV)-transformed B cell line and the high correlation of EBV infection and IL-12 expression has been suggested, no study has reported whether EBV infection is directly linked to IL-12 expression. To address this issue, we have investigated IL-12 expression in B cells during in vitro transformation with EBV. Human peripheral B cells became capable of constitutively producing p40 by in vitro transformation with EBV, coincident with the expression of latent membrane protein 1 (LMP1) of EBV. These B cells expressed p40 and p35 mRNA, and phorbol myristate acetate (PMA) stimulation strongly enhanced p40 and p70 production. Furthermore, transfection with LMP1 expression vector into a human B lymphoma cell line, Daudi, led to p40 production with nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB activation. These results suggest that transformation of primary B cells with EBV induces IL-12 expression potentially through LMP1 expression. Copyright 1998 Academic Press.
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[
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|
875_task2
|
Sentence: Interleukin-12 expression in B cells by transformation with Epstein-Barr virus.
Although interleukin (IL)-12 was originally purified from an Epstein-Barr (EBV)-transformed B cell line and the high correlation of EBV infection and IL-12 expression has been suggested, no study has reported whether EBV infection is directly linked to IL-12 expression. To address this issue, we have investigated IL-12 expression in B cells during in vitro transformation with EBV. Human peripheral B cells became capable of constitutively producing p40 by in vitro transformation with EBV, coincident with the expression of latent membrane protein 1 (LMP1) of EBV. These B cells expressed p40 and p35 mRNA, and phorbol myristate acetate (PMA) stimulation strongly enhanced p40 and p70 production. Furthermore, transfection with LMP1 expression vector into a human B lymphoma cell line, Daudi, led to p40 production with nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB activation. These results suggest that transformation of primary B cells with EBV induces IL-12 expression potentially through LMP1 expression. Copyright 1998 Academic Press.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Interleukin-12 expression in B cells by transformation with Epstein-Barr virus.
Although interleukin (IL)-12 was originally purified from an Epstein-Barr (EBV)-transformed B cell line and the high correlation of EBV infection and IL-12 expression has been suggested, no study has reported whether EBV infection is directly linked to IL-12 expression. To address this issue, we have investigated IL-12 expression in B cells during in vitro transformation with EBV. Human peripheral B cells became capable of constitutively producing p40 by in vitro transformation with EBV, coincident with the expression of latent membrane protein 1 (LMP1) of EBV. These B cells expressed p40 and p35 mRNA, and phorbol myristate acetate (PMA) stimulation strongly enhanced p40 and p70 production. Furthermore, transfection with LMP1 expression vector into a human B lymphoma cell line, Daudi, led to p40 production with nuclear factor (NF)-kappaB activation. These results suggest that transformation of primary B cells with EBV induces IL-12 expression potentially through LMP1 expression. Copyright 1998 Academic Press.
|
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[
"Protein"
] |
profilin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein, profilin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein, profilin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein
|
61_task0
|
Sentence: Although profilin released actin at the appropriate time to stimulate actin assembly during exposure to chemoattractants, the concentration of profilin in PMN was insufficient to explain the high unpolymerized actin content in unstimulated PMN and the quantity of actin released from profilin too small to account for the large shifts from unpolymerized to polymerized actin associated with maximal chemoattractant stimulation.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Individual_protein
|
[
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Although profilin released actin at the appropriate time to stimulate actin assembly during exposure to chemoattractants, the concentration of profilin in PMN was insufficient to explain the high unpolymerized actin content in unstimulated PMN and the quantity of actin released from profilin too small to account for the large shifts from unpolymerized to polymerized actin associated with maximal chemoattractant stimulation.
|
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[
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|
61_task1
|
Sentence: Although profilin released actin at the appropriate time to stimulate actin assembly during exposure to chemoattractants, the concentration of profilin in PMN was insufficient to explain the high unpolymerized actin content in unstimulated PMN and the quantity of actin released from profilin too small to account for the large shifts from unpolymerized to polymerized actin associated with maximal chemoattractant stimulation.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: profilin, actin, actin, profilin, actin, actin, profilin, actin
Options: Individual_protein
|
[
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Although profilin released actin at the appropriate time to stimulate actin assembly during exposure to chemoattractants, the concentration of profilin in PMN was insufficient to explain the high unpolymerized actin content in unstimulated PMN and the quantity of actin released from profilin too small to account for the large shifts from unpolymerized to polymerized actin associated with maximal chemoattractant stimulation.
|
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[
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profilin, actin, actin, profilin, actin, actin, profilin, actin
|
61_task2
|
Sentence: Although profilin released actin at the appropriate time to stimulate actin assembly during exposure to chemoattractants, the concentration of profilin in PMN was insufficient to explain the high unpolymerized actin content in unstimulated PMN and the quantity of actin released from profilin too small to account for the large shifts from unpolymerized to polymerized actin associated with maximal chemoattractant stimulation.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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] |
Although profilin released actin at the appropriate time to stimulate actin assembly during exposure to chemoattractants, the concentration of profilin in PMN was insufficient to explain the high unpolymerized actin content in unstimulated PMN and the quantity of actin released from profilin too small to account for the large shifts from unpolymerized to polymerized actin associated with maximal chemoattractant stimulation.
|
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[
"Individual_protein"
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Kataraktchirurgie is an umlsterm, Astigmatismus is an umlsterm, Schnittfuehrung is an umlsterm, Astigmatismus is an umlsterm, Astigmatismus is an umlsterm
|
DerOpthalmologe.70940006.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Einer der Hauptvorteile der selbstschliessenden Wundkonstruktion in der Kataraktchirurgie ist eine fruehzeitige Stabilisierung des postoperativen Astigmatismus . Zudem ermoeglicht die hohe mechanische Wundstabilitaet , Parameter der Wundkonstruktion zu variieren . Bei Kenntnis aller Einflussmoeglichkeiten koennte die astigmatismusinduzierende Wirkung der jeweiligen Schnittfuehrung vorhergesagt und ein praeoperativer Astigmatismus sogar korrigiert , statt ein zusaetzlicher induziert werden . Die Wirkung von Inzisionsbreite , Tunnellaenge und Inzisionsform sind bekannt . Wir haben daher in einer randomisierten prospektiven Studie den Einfluss der Schnittlokalisation und -tiefe sowie bulbusspezifischer Parameter auf den postoperativen Astigmatismus untersucht .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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] |
Einer der Hauptvorteile der selbstschliessenden Wundkonstruktion in der Kataraktchirurgie ist eine fruehzeitige Stabilisierung des postoperativen Astigmatismus . Zudem ermoeglicht die hohe mechanische Wundstabilitaet , Parameter der Wundkonstruktion zu variieren . Bei Kenntnis aller Einflussmoeglichkeiten koennte die astigmatismusinduzierende Wirkung der jeweiligen Schnittfuehrung vorhergesagt und ein praeoperativer Astigmatismus sogar korrigiert , statt ein zusaetzlicher induziert werden . Die Wirkung von Inzisionsbreite , Tunnellaenge und Inzisionsform sind bekannt . Wir haben daher in einer randomisierten prospektiven Studie den Einfluss der Schnittlokalisation und -tiefe sowie bulbusspezifischer Parameter auf den postoperativen Astigmatismus untersucht .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Kataraktchirurgie is an umlsterm, Astigmatismus is an umlsterm, Schnittfuehrung is an umlsterm, Astigmatismus is an umlsterm, Astigmatismus is an umlsterm
|
DerOpthalmologe.70940006.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Einer der Hauptvorteile der selbstschliessenden Wundkonstruktion in der Kataraktchirurgie ist eine fruehzeitige Stabilisierung des postoperativen Astigmatismus . Zudem ermoeglicht die hohe mechanische Wundstabilitaet , Parameter der Wundkonstruktion zu variieren . Bei Kenntnis aller Einflussmoeglichkeiten koennte die astigmatismusinduzierende Wirkung der jeweiligen Schnittfuehrung vorhergesagt und ein praeoperativer Astigmatismus sogar korrigiert , statt ein zusaetzlicher induziert werden . Die Wirkung von Inzisionsbreite , Tunnellaenge und Inzisionsform sind bekannt . Wir haben daher in einer randomisierten prospektiven Studie den Einfluss der Schnittlokalisation und -tiefe sowie bulbusspezifischer Parameter auf den postoperativen Astigmatismus untersucht .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Kataraktchirurgie, Astigmatismus, Schnittfuehrung, Astigmatismus, Astigmatismus
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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] |
Einer der Hauptvorteile der selbstschliessenden Wundkonstruktion in der Kataraktchirurgie ist eine fruehzeitige Stabilisierung des postoperativen Astigmatismus . Zudem ermoeglicht die hohe mechanische Wundstabilitaet , Parameter der Wundkonstruktion zu variieren . Bei Kenntnis aller Einflussmoeglichkeiten koennte die astigmatismusinduzierende Wirkung der jeweiligen Schnittfuehrung vorhergesagt und ein praeoperativer Astigmatismus sogar korrigiert , statt ein zusaetzlicher induziert werden . Die Wirkung von Inzisionsbreite , Tunnellaenge und Inzisionsform sind bekannt . Wir haben daher in einer randomisierten prospektiven Studie den Einfluss der Schnittlokalisation und -tiefe sowie bulbusspezifischer Parameter auf den postoperativen Astigmatismus untersucht .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
Kataraktchirurgie, Astigmatismus, Schnittfuehrung, Astigmatismus, Astigmatismus
|
DerOpthalmologe.70940006.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Einer der Hauptvorteile der selbstschliessenden Wundkonstruktion in der Kataraktchirurgie ist eine fruehzeitige Stabilisierung des postoperativen Astigmatismus . Zudem ermoeglicht die hohe mechanische Wundstabilitaet , Parameter der Wundkonstruktion zu variieren . Bei Kenntnis aller Einflussmoeglichkeiten koennte die astigmatismusinduzierende Wirkung der jeweiligen Schnittfuehrung vorhergesagt und ein praeoperativer Astigmatismus sogar korrigiert , statt ein zusaetzlicher induziert werden . Die Wirkung von Inzisionsbreite , Tunnellaenge und Inzisionsform sind bekannt . Wir haben daher in einer randomisierten prospektiven Studie den Einfluss der Schnittlokalisation und -tiefe sowie bulbusspezifischer Parameter auf den postoperativen Astigmatismus untersucht .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Einer der Hauptvorteile der selbstschliessenden Wundkonstruktion in der Kataraktchirurgie ist eine fruehzeitige Stabilisierung des postoperativen Astigmatismus . Zudem ermoeglicht die hohe mechanische Wundstabilitaet , Parameter der Wundkonstruktion zu variieren . Bei Kenntnis aller Einflussmoeglichkeiten koennte die astigmatismusinduzierende Wirkung der jeweiligen Schnittfuehrung vorhergesagt und ein praeoperativer Astigmatismus sogar korrigiert , statt ein zusaetzlicher induziert werden . Die Wirkung von Inzisionsbreite , Tunnellaenge und Inzisionsform sind bekannt . Wir haben daher in einer randomisierten prospektiven Studie den Einfluss der Schnittlokalisation und -tiefe sowie bulbusspezifischer Parameter auf den postoperativen Astigmatismus untersucht .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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corticoides is a NORMALIZABLES, betametasona is a NORMALIZABLES, prednisona is a NORMALIZABLES, insulina is a PROTEINAS, yodo is a NORMALIZABLES, Levotiroxina is a NORMALIZABLES, Carbamazepina is a NORMALIZABLES, Metformina is a NORMALIZABLES, Kenacort ® -A is a NORMALIZABLES, Triamcinolona acetónido is a NORMALIZABLES, lidocaína is a NORMALIZABLES
|
328_task0
|
Sentence: Se presenta una paciente de género femenino de 24 años de edad que consulta al Servicio de Cirugía Maxilofacial del Complejo Hospitalario San José en octubre de 2006, derivado del Servicio de Dermatología del mismo centro con diagnóstico de SMR por presentar aumento de volumen del labio inferior que no ha presentado respuesta al tratamiento con corticoides intralesionales y orales.
La paciente relata que este aumento de volumen en el labio inferior data del año 2004, el cual fue biopsiado el mismo año siendo diagnosticado histopatológicamente como una QG asociada a un SMR. El tratamiento inicial consistió en infiltraciones intralesionales realizadas en el servicio de dermatología con betametasona 4 mg y toma de prednisona 0,5 mg sin resultados positivos.
En su anamnesis relata antecedentes mórbidos de epilepsia en tratamiento, retraso mental leve, hipotiroidismo, resistencia a la insulina y alergia al yodo. Los fármacos que utiliza en forma habitual son Levotiroxina 100 mg 1 comp/día, Carbamazepina 200 mg 1,5 comp/día, Metformina 850 mg 1 comp/día.
En su examen físico se observa un gran aumento de volumen del labio inferior el cual está evertido, asociada a una lengua depapilada y presencia de surcos transversales en dorso lingual compatible con lengua fisurada así como una discreta macroglosia.
El tratamiento consistió en 3 infiltraciones intralesionales en el labio inferior de 1 ml de Kenacort®-A 40 mg (Triamcinolona acetónido) diluida en 1 ml de lidocaína al 2% con el objetivo de controlar el dolor post infiltración, con intervalos de una semana. Se controló a la paciente durante tres meses donde se evidencio una marcada reducción del tamaño del labio inferior pero sin lograr todavía un tamaño estético, por lo tanto se realizó una cuarta infiltración sin observarse mejoras. Luego se programo una queiloplastía de reducción del labio inferior bajo anestesia general para mejorar la estética labial de la paciente, con buenos resultados que fueron controlados al mes post operatorio.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: NORMALIZABLES, PROTEINAS
|
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Se presenta una paciente de género femenino de 24 años de edad que consulta al Servicio de Cirugía Maxilofacial del Complejo Hospitalario San José en octubre de 2006, derivado del Servicio de Dermatología del mismo centro con diagnóstico de SMR por presentar aumento de volumen del labio inferior que no ha presentado respuesta al tratamiento con corticoides intralesionales y orales.
La paciente relata que este aumento de volumen en el labio inferior data del año 2004, el cual fue biopsiado el mismo año siendo diagnosticado histopatológicamente como una QG asociada a un SMR. El tratamiento inicial consistió en infiltraciones intralesionales realizadas en el servicio de dermatología con betametasona 4 mg y toma de prednisona 0,5 mg sin resultados positivos.
En su anamnesis relata antecedentes mórbidos de epilepsia en tratamiento, retraso mental leve, hipotiroidismo, resistencia a la insulina y alergia al yodo. Los fármacos que utiliza en forma habitual son Levotiroxina 100 mg 1 comp/día, Carbamazepina 200 mg 1,5 comp/día, Metformina 850 mg 1 comp/día.
En su examen físico se observa un gran aumento de volumen del labio inferior el cual está evertido, asociada a una lengua depapilada y presencia de surcos transversales en dorso lingual compatible con lengua fisurada así como una discreta macroglosia.
El tratamiento consistió en 3 infiltraciones intralesionales en el labio inferior de 1 ml de Kenacort®-A 40 mg (Triamcinolona acetónido) diluida en 1 ml de lidocaína al 2% con el objetivo de controlar el dolor post infiltración, con intervalos de una semana. Se controló a la paciente durante tres meses donde se evidencio una marcada reducción del tamaño del labio inferior pero sin lograr todavía un tamaño estético, por lo tanto se realizó una cuarta infiltración sin observarse mejoras. Luego se programo una queiloplastía de reducción del labio inferior bajo anestesia general para mejorar la estética labial de la paciente, con buenos resultados que fueron controlados al mes post operatorio.
|
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[
"NORMALIZABLES",
"PROTEINAS"
] |
corticoides is a NORMALIZABLES, betametasona is a NORMALIZABLES, prednisona is a NORMALIZABLES, insulina is a PROTEINAS, yodo is a NORMALIZABLES, Levotiroxina is a NORMALIZABLES, Carbamazepina is a NORMALIZABLES, Metformina is a NORMALIZABLES, Kenacort ® -A is a NORMALIZABLES, Triamcinolona acetónido is a NORMALIZABLES, lidocaína is a NORMALIZABLES
|
328_task1
|
Sentence: Se presenta una paciente de género femenino de 24 años de edad que consulta al Servicio de Cirugía Maxilofacial del Complejo Hospitalario San José en octubre de 2006, derivado del Servicio de Dermatología del mismo centro con diagnóstico de SMR por presentar aumento de volumen del labio inferior que no ha presentado respuesta al tratamiento con corticoides intralesionales y orales.
La paciente relata que este aumento de volumen en el labio inferior data del año 2004, el cual fue biopsiado el mismo año siendo diagnosticado histopatológicamente como una QG asociada a un SMR. El tratamiento inicial consistió en infiltraciones intralesionales realizadas en el servicio de dermatología con betametasona 4 mg y toma de prednisona 0,5 mg sin resultados positivos.
En su anamnesis relata antecedentes mórbidos de epilepsia en tratamiento, retraso mental leve, hipotiroidismo, resistencia a la insulina y alergia al yodo. Los fármacos que utiliza en forma habitual son Levotiroxina 100 mg 1 comp/día, Carbamazepina 200 mg 1,5 comp/día, Metformina 850 mg 1 comp/día.
En su examen físico se observa un gran aumento de volumen del labio inferior el cual está evertido, asociada a una lengua depapilada y presencia de surcos transversales en dorso lingual compatible con lengua fisurada así como una discreta macroglosia.
El tratamiento consistió en 3 infiltraciones intralesionales en el labio inferior de 1 ml de Kenacort®-A 40 mg (Triamcinolona acetónido) diluida en 1 ml de lidocaína al 2% con el objetivo de controlar el dolor post infiltración, con intervalos de una semana. Se controló a la paciente durante tres meses donde se evidencio una marcada reducción del tamaño del labio inferior pero sin lograr todavía un tamaño estético, por lo tanto se realizó una cuarta infiltración sin observarse mejoras. Luego se programo una queiloplastía de reducción del labio inferior bajo anestesia general para mejorar la estética labial de la paciente, con buenos resultados que fueron controlados al mes post operatorio.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: corticoides, betametasona, prednisona, insulina, yodo, Levotiroxina, Carbamazepina, Metformina, Kenacort ® -A, Triamcinolona acetónido, lidocaína
Options: NORMALIZABLES, PROTEINAS
|
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"O"
] |
Se presenta una paciente de género femenino de 24 años de edad que consulta al Servicio de Cirugía Maxilofacial del Complejo Hospitalario San José en octubre de 2006, derivado del Servicio de Dermatología del mismo centro con diagnóstico de SMR por presentar aumento de volumen del labio inferior que no ha presentado respuesta al tratamiento con corticoides intralesionales y orales.
La paciente relata que este aumento de volumen en el labio inferior data del año 2004, el cual fue biopsiado el mismo año siendo diagnosticado histopatológicamente como una QG asociada a un SMR. El tratamiento inicial consistió en infiltraciones intralesionales realizadas en el servicio de dermatología con betametasona 4 mg y toma de prednisona 0,5 mg sin resultados positivos.
En su anamnesis relata antecedentes mórbidos de epilepsia en tratamiento, retraso mental leve, hipotiroidismo, resistencia a la insulina y alergia al yodo. Los fármacos que utiliza en forma habitual son Levotiroxina 100 mg 1 comp/día, Carbamazepina 200 mg 1,5 comp/día, Metformina 850 mg 1 comp/día.
En su examen físico se observa un gran aumento de volumen del labio inferior el cual está evertido, asociada a una lengua depapilada y presencia de surcos transversales en dorso lingual compatible con lengua fisurada así como una discreta macroglosia.
El tratamiento consistió en 3 infiltraciones intralesionales en el labio inferior de 1 ml de Kenacort®-A 40 mg (Triamcinolona acetónido) diluida en 1 ml de lidocaína al 2% con el objetivo de controlar el dolor post infiltración, con intervalos de una semana. Se controló a la paciente durante tres meses donde se evidencio una marcada reducción del tamaño del labio inferior pero sin lograr todavía un tamaño estético, por lo tanto se realizó una cuarta infiltración sin observarse mejoras. Luego se programo una queiloplastía de reducción del labio inferior bajo anestesia general para mejorar la estética labial de la paciente, con buenos resultados que fueron controlados al mes post operatorio.
|
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[
"NORMALIZABLES",
"PROTEINAS"
] |
corticoides, betametasona, prednisona, insulina, yodo, Levotiroxina, Carbamazepina, Metformina, Kenacort ® -A, Triamcinolona acetónido, lidocaína
|
328_task2
|
Sentence: Se presenta una paciente de género femenino de 24 años de edad que consulta al Servicio de Cirugía Maxilofacial del Complejo Hospitalario San José en octubre de 2006, derivado del Servicio de Dermatología del mismo centro con diagnóstico de SMR por presentar aumento de volumen del labio inferior que no ha presentado respuesta al tratamiento con corticoides intralesionales y orales.
La paciente relata que este aumento de volumen en el labio inferior data del año 2004, el cual fue biopsiado el mismo año siendo diagnosticado histopatológicamente como una QG asociada a un SMR. El tratamiento inicial consistió en infiltraciones intralesionales realizadas en el servicio de dermatología con betametasona 4 mg y toma de prednisona 0,5 mg sin resultados positivos.
En su anamnesis relata antecedentes mórbidos de epilepsia en tratamiento, retraso mental leve, hipotiroidismo, resistencia a la insulina y alergia al yodo. Los fármacos que utiliza en forma habitual son Levotiroxina 100 mg 1 comp/día, Carbamazepina 200 mg 1,5 comp/día, Metformina 850 mg 1 comp/día.
En su examen físico se observa un gran aumento de volumen del labio inferior el cual está evertido, asociada a una lengua depapilada y presencia de surcos transversales en dorso lingual compatible con lengua fisurada así como una discreta macroglosia.
El tratamiento consistió en 3 infiltraciones intralesionales en el labio inferior de 1 ml de Kenacort®-A 40 mg (Triamcinolona acetónido) diluida en 1 ml de lidocaína al 2% con el objetivo de controlar el dolor post infiltración, con intervalos de una semana. Se controló a la paciente durante tres meses donde se evidencio una marcada reducción del tamaño del labio inferior pero sin lograr todavía un tamaño estético, por lo tanto se realizó una cuarta infiltración sin observarse mejoras. Luego se programo una queiloplastía de reducción del labio inferior bajo anestesia general para mejorar la estética labial de la paciente, con buenos resultados que fueron controlados al mes post operatorio.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Se presenta una paciente de género femenino de 24 años de edad que consulta al Servicio de Cirugía Maxilofacial del Complejo Hospitalario San José en octubre de 2006, derivado del Servicio de Dermatología del mismo centro con diagnóstico de SMR por presentar aumento de volumen del labio inferior que no ha presentado respuesta al tratamiento con corticoides intralesionales y orales.
La paciente relata que este aumento de volumen en el labio inferior data del año 2004, el cual fue biopsiado el mismo año siendo diagnosticado histopatológicamente como una QG asociada a un SMR. El tratamiento inicial consistió en infiltraciones intralesionales realizadas en el servicio de dermatología con betametasona 4 mg y toma de prednisona 0,5 mg sin resultados positivos.
En su anamnesis relata antecedentes mórbidos de epilepsia en tratamiento, retraso mental leve, hipotiroidismo, resistencia a la insulina y alergia al yodo. Los fármacos que utiliza en forma habitual son Levotiroxina 100 mg 1 comp/día, Carbamazepina 200 mg 1,5 comp/día, Metformina 850 mg 1 comp/día.
En su examen físico se observa un gran aumento de volumen del labio inferior el cual está evertido, asociada a una lengua depapilada y presencia de surcos transversales en dorso lingual compatible con lengua fisurada así como una discreta macroglosia.
El tratamiento consistió en 3 infiltraciones intralesionales en el labio inferior de 1 ml de Kenacort®-A 40 mg (Triamcinolona acetónido) diluida en 1 ml de lidocaína al 2% con el objetivo de controlar el dolor post infiltración, con intervalos de una semana. Se controló a la paciente durante tres meses donde se evidencio una marcada reducción del tamaño del labio inferior pero sin lograr todavía un tamaño estético, por lo tanto se realizó una cuarta infiltración sin observarse mejoras. Luego se programo una queiloplastía de reducción del labio inferior bajo anestesia general para mejorar la estética labial de la paciente, con buenos resultados que fueron controlados al mes post operatorio.
|
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[
"NORMALIZABLES",
"PROTEINAS"
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plasma von Willebrand factor is a Outcome_Physical, soluble P - selectin concentrations is a Outcome_Physical, patients with non - valvar atrial fibrillation . is a Participant_Condition, plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) is a Outcome_Physical, soluble P - selectin ( sP - sel , an index of platelet activation ) is a Outcome_Physical, Plasma concentrations of vWf is a Outcome_Physical, Mean plasma vWf is a Outcome_Physical, severe LV dysfunction is a Outcome_Physical, vWf concentrations is a Outcome_Physical, mean vWf concentrations is a Outcome_Physical, mitral regurgitation in CHF is a Outcome_Physical, Plasma sP - sel concentrations is a Outcome_Physical
|
21715_task0
|
Sentence: Effects of congestive heart failure on plasma von Willebrand factor and soluble P-selectin concentrations in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation . OBJECTIVE To examine further the relations of plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) and soluble P-selectin ( sP-sel , an index of platelet activation ) concentrations to the presence and onset of clinical congestive heart failure ( CHF ) and the degree of left ventricular ( LV ) dysfunction in patients taking part in the SPAF ( stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation ) study . METHODS Plasma concentrations of vWf and sP-sel were measured by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA ) in 1321 participants in the SPAF III study and related to the presence and onset of clinical CHF , as well as echocardiographic findings . Of the 1321 patients with atrial fibrillation ( AF ) , 331 ( 25 % ) had a documented history of clinical heart failure , of which 168 cases were related to a new or recurrent episode of acute decompensated heart failure occurring within the preceding three months . RESULTS Mean plasma vWf was higher among patients with AF and CHF ( 154 ( 29 ) v 144 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) , particularly those with acute or recent decompensated symptoms . Patients with severe LV dysfunction on two dimensional echocardiography and low fractional shortening also had significantly higher vWf concentrations than those with no LV dysfunction . CHF patients with clinical features -- with ( 156 ( 28 ) IU/dl ) and without ( 152 ( 31 ) IU/dl ) LV dysfunction -- also had higher mean vWf concentrations than patients with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ( 146 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) . The presence of mitral regurgitation in CHF was associated with lower vWf concentrations . Plasma sP-sel concentrations were not affected by presence , onset , or severity of heart failure . CONCLUSIONS CHF may contribute to hypercoagulability and thrombotic risk in AF through increased endothelial damage and dysfunction . Patients with acute or recent decompensated features have the highest degree of endothelial damage and dysfunction . The presence of CHF clinical features was an important determinant of plasma vWf concentrations .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Outcome_Physical, Participant_Condition
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Effects of congestive heart failure on plasma von Willebrand factor and soluble P-selectin concentrations in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation . OBJECTIVE To examine further the relations of plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) and soluble P-selectin ( sP-sel , an index of platelet activation ) concentrations to the presence and onset of clinical congestive heart failure ( CHF ) and the degree of left ventricular ( LV ) dysfunction in patients taking part in the SPAF ( stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation ) study . METHODS Plasma concentrations of vWf and sP-sel were measured by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA ) in 1321 participants in the SPAF III study and related to the presence and onset of clinical CHF , as well as echocardiographic findings . Of the 1321 patients with atrial fibrillation ( AF ) , 331 ( 25 % ) had a documented history of clinical heart failure , of which 168 cases were related to a new or recurrent episode of acute decompensated heart failure occurring within the preceding three months . RESULTS Mean plasma vWf was higher among patients with AF and CHF ( 154 ( 29 ) v 144 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) , particularly those with acute or recent decompensated symptoms . Patients with severe LV dysfunction on two dimensional echocardiography and low fractional shortening also had significantly higher vWf concentrations than those with no LV dysfunction . CHF patients with clinical features -- with ( 156 ( 28 ) IU/dl ) and without ( 152 ( 31 ) IU/dl ) LV dysfunction -- also had higher mean vWf concentrations than patients with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ( 146 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) . The presence of mitral regurgitation in CHF was associated with lower vWf concentrations . Plasma sP-sel concentrations were not affected by presence , onset , or severity of heart failure . CONCLUSIONS CHF may contribute to hypercoagulability and thrombotic risk in AF through increased endothelial damage and dysfunction . Patients with acute or recent decompensated features have the highest degree of endothelial damage and dysfunction . The presence of CHF clinical features was an important determinant of plasma vWf concentrations .
|
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[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Physical",
"Intervention_Psychological",
"Intervention_Educational"
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plasma von Willebrand factor is a Outcome_Physical, soluble P - selectin concentrations is a Outcome_Physical, patients with non - valvar atrial fibrillation . is a Participant_Condition, plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) is a Outcome_Physical, soluble P - selectin ( sP - sel , an index of platelet activation ) is a Outcome_Physical, Plasma concentrations of vWf is a Outcome_Physical, Mean plasma vWf is a Outcome_Physical, severe LV dysfunction is a Outcome_Physical, vWf concentrations is a Outcome_Physical, mean vWf concentrations is a Outcome_Physical, mitral regurgitation in CHF is a Outcome_Physical, Plasma sP - sel concentrations is a Outcome_Physical
|
21715_task1
|
Sentence: Effects of congestive heart failure on plasma von Willebrand factor and soluble P-selectin concentrations in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation . OBJECTIVE To examine further the relations of plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) and soluble P-selectin ( sP-sel , an index of platelet activation ) concentrations to the presence and onset of clinical congestive heart failure ( CHF ) and the degree of left ventricular ( LV ) dysfunction in patients taking part in the SPAF ( stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation ) study . METHODS Plasma concentrations of vWf and sP-sel were measured by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA ) in 1321 participants in the SPAF III study and related to the presence and onset of clinical CHF , as well as echocardiographic findings . Of the 1321 patients with atrial fibrillation ( AF ) , 331 ( 25 % ) had a documented history of clinical heart failure , of which 168 cases were related to a new or recurrent episode of acute decompensated heart failure occurring within the preceding three months . RESULTS Mean plasma vWf was higher among patients with AF and CHF ( 154 ( 29 ) v 144 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) , particularly those with acute or recent decompensated symptoms . Patients with severe LV dysfunction on two dimensional echocardiography and low fractional shortening also had significantly higher vWf concentrations than those with no LV dysfunction . CHF patients with clinical features -- with ( 156 ( 28 ) IU/dl ) and without ( 152 ( 31 ) IU/dl ) LV dysfunction -- also had higher mean vWf concentrations than patients with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ( 146 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) . The presence of mitral regurgitation in CHF was associated with lower vWf concentrations . Plasma sP-sel concentrations were not affected by presence , onset , or severity of heart failure . CONCLUSIONS CHF may contribute to hypercoagulability and thrombotic risk in AF through increased endothelial damage and dysfunction . Patients with acute or recent decompensated features have the highest degree of endothelial damage and dysfunction . The presence of CHF clinical features was an important determinant of plasma vWf concentrations .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: plasma von Willebrand factor, soluble P - selectin concentrations, patients with non - valvar atrial fibrillation ., plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ), soluble P - selectin ( sP - sel , an index of platelet activation ), Plasma concentrations of vWf, Mean plasma vWf, severe LV dysfunction, vWf concentrations, mean vWf concentrations, mitral regurgitation in CHF, Plasma sP - sel concentrations
Options: Outcome_Physical, Participant_Condition
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Effects of congestive heart failure on plasma von Willebrand factor and soluble P-selectin concentrations in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation . OBJECTIVE To examine further the relations of plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) and soluble P-selectin ( sP-sel , an index of platelet activation ) concentrations to the presence and onset of clinical congestive heart failure ( CHF ) and the degree of left ventricular ( LV ) dysfunction in patients taking part in the SPAF ( stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation ) study . METHODS Plasma concentrations of vWf and sP-sel were measured by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA ) in 1321 participants in the SPAF III study and related to the presence and onset of clinical CHF , as well as echocardiographic findings . Of the 1321 patients with atrial fibrillation ( AF ) , 331 ( 25 % ) had a documented history of clinical heart failure , of which 168 cases were related to a new or recurrent episode of acute decompensated heart failure occurring within the preceding three months . RESULTS Mean plasma vWf was higher among patients with AF and CHF ( 154 ( 29 ) v 144 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) , particularly those with acute or recent decompensated symptoms . Patients with severe LV dysfunction on two dimensional echocardiography and low fractional shortening also had significantly higher vWf concentrations than those with no LV dysfunction . CHF patients with clinical features -- with ( 156 ( 28 ) IU/dl ) and without ( 152 ( 31 ) IU/dl ) LV dysfunction -- also had higher mean vWf concentrations than patients with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ( 146 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) . The presence of mitral regurgitation in CHF was associated with lower vWf concentrations . Plasma sP-sel concentrations were not affected by presence , onset , or severity of heart failure . CONCLUSIONS CHF may contribute to hypercoagulability and thrombotic risk in AF through increased endothelial damage and dysfunction . Patients with acute or recent decompensated features have the highest degree of endothelial damage and dysfunction . The presence of CHF clinical features was an important determinant of plasma vWf concentrations .
|
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[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Physical",
"Intervention_Psychological",
"Intervention_Educational"
] |
plasma von Willebrand factor, soluble P - selectin concentrations, patients with non - valvar atrial fibrillation ., plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ), soluble P - selectin ( sP - sel , an index of platelet activation ), Plasma concentrations of vWf, Mean plasma vWf, severe LV dysfunction, vWf concentrations, mean vWf concentrations, mitral regurgitation in CHF, Plasma sP - sel concentrations
|
21715_task2
|
Sentence: Effects of congestive heart failure on plasma von Willebrand factor and soluble P-selectin concentrations in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation . OBJECTIVE To examine further the relations of plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) and soluble P-selectin ( sP-sel , an index of platelet activation ) concentrations to the presence and onset of clinical congestive heart failure ( CHF ) and the degree of left ventricular ( LV ) dysfunction in patients taking part in the SPAF ( stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation ) study . METHODS Plasma concentrations of vWf and sP-sel were measured by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA ) in 1321 participants in the SPAF III study and related to the presence and onset of clinical CHF , as well as echocardiographic findings . Of the 1321 patients with atrial fibrillation ( AF ) , 331 ( 25 % ) had a documented history of clinical heart failure , of which 168 cases were related to a new or recurrent episode of acute decompensated heart failure occurring within the preceding three months . RESULTS Mean plasma vWf was higher among patients with AF and CHF ( 154 ( 29 ) v 144 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) , particularly those with acute or recent decompensated symptoms . Patients with severe LV dysfunction on two dimensional echocardiography and low fractional shortening also had significantly higher vWf concentrations than those with no LV dysfunction . CHF patients with clinical features -- with ( 156 ( 28 ) IU/dl ) and without ( 152 ( 31 ) IU/dl ) LV dysfunction -- also had higher mean vWf concentrations than patients with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ( 146 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) . The presence of mitral regurgitation in CHF was associated with lower vWf concentrations . Plasma sP-sel concentrations were not affected by presence , onset , or severity of heart failure . CONCLUSIONS CHF may contribute to hypercoagulability and thrombotic risk in AF through increased endothelial damage and dysfunction . Patients with acute or recent decompensated features have the highest degree of endothelial damage and dysfunction . The presence of CHF clinical features was an important determinant of plasma vWf concentrations .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Effects of congestive heart failure on plasma von Willebrand factor and soluble P-selectin concentrations in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation . OBJECTIVE To examine further the relations of plasma von Willebrand factor ( vWf , an index of endothelial damage and dysfunction ) and soluble P-selectin ( sP-sel , an index of platelet activation ) concentrations to the presence and onset of clinical congestive heart failure ( CHF ) and the degree of left ventricular ( LV ) dysfunction in patients taking part in the SPAF ( stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation ) study . METHODS Plasma concentrations of vWf and sP-sel were measured by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA ) in 1321 participants in the SPAF III study and related to the presence and onset of clinical CHF , as well as echocardiographic findings . Of the 1321 patients with atrial fibrillation ( AF ) , 331 ( 25 % ) had a documented history of clinical heart failure , of which 168 cases were related to a new or recurrent episode of acute decompensated heart failure occurring within the preceding three months . RESULTS Mean plasma vWf was higher among patients with AF and CHF ( 154 ( 29 ) v 144 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) , particularly those with acute or recent decompensated symptoms . Patients with severe LV dysfunction on two dimensional echocardiography and low fractional shortening also had significantly higher vWf concentrations than those with no LV dysfunction . CHF patients with clinical features -- with ( 156 ( 28 ) IU/dl ) and without ( 152 ( 31 ) IU/dl ) LV dysfunction -- also had higher mean vWf concentrations than patients with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ( 146 ( 31 ) IU/dl , p < 0.001 ) . The presence of mitral regurgitation in CHF was associated with lower vWf concentrations . Plasma sP-sel concentrations were not affected by presence , onset , or severity of heart failure . CONCLUSIONS CHF may contribute to hypercoagulability and thrombotic risk in AF through increased endothelial damage and dysfunction . Patients with acute or recent decompensated features have the highest degree of endothelial damage and dysfunction . The presence of CHF clinical features was an important determinant of plasma vWf concentrations .
|
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Arteriovenoese Fisteln is an umlsterm, Komplikation is an umlsterm, Direktpunktion is an umlsterm, Angiographie is an umlsterm, Angiographietechnik is an umlsterm, Venenpunktion is an umlsterm, Hals is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Langzeitergebnisse is an umlsterm, Therapie is an umlsterm
|
DerChirurg.80690094.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Arteriovenoese Fisteln der A. vertebralis sind eine bekannte Komplikation nach Direktpunktion der A. vertebralis zur Angiographie . Da diese Angiographietechnik verlassen wurde , tritt heutzutage die haeufige Venenpunktion am Hals zum Einbringen zentralvenoeser Katheter aetiologisch in den Vordergrund . Unsere Erfahrungen bei 4 Patienten sowie die Langzeitergebnisse nach gefaesschirurgischer Therapie werden geschildert .
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Options: umlsterm
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Zusammenfassung . Arteriovenoese Fisteln der A. vertebralis sind eine bekannte Komplikation nach Direktpunktion der A. vertebralis zur Angiographie . Da diese Angiographietechnik verlassen wurde , tritt heutzutage die haeufige Venenpunktion am Hals zum Einbringen zentralvenoeser Katheter aetiologisch in den Vordergrund . Unsere Erfahrungen bei 4 Patienten sowie die Langzeitergebnisse nach gefaesschirurgischer Therapie werden geschildert .
|
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|
DerChirurg.80690094.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Arteriovenoese Fisteln der A. vertebralis sind eine bekannte Komplikation nach Direktpunktion der A. vertebralis zur Angiographie . Da diese Angiographietechnik verlassen wurde , tritt heutzutage die haeufige Venenpunktion am Hals zum Einbringen zentralvenoeser Katheter aetiologisch in den Vordergrund . Unsere Erfahrungen bei 4 Patienten sowie die Langzeitergebnisse nach gefaesschirurgischer Therapie werden geschildert .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Arteriovenoese Fisteln, Komplikation, Direktpunktion, Angiographie, Angiographietechnik, Venenpunktion, Hals, Patienten, Langzeitergebnisse, Therapie
Options: umlsterm
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Zusammenfassung . Arteriovenoese Fisteln der A. vertebralis sind eine bekannte Komplikation nach Direktpunktion der A. vertebralis zur Angiographie . Da diese Angiographietechnik verlassen wurde , tritt heutzutage die haeufige Venenpunktion am Hals zum Einbringen zentralvenoeser Katheter aetiologisch in den Vordergrund . Unsere Erfahrungen bei 4 Patienten sowie die Langzeitergebnisse nach gefaesschirurgischer Therapie werden geschildert .
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|
DerChirurg.80690094.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Arteriovenoese Fisteln der A. vertebralis sind eine bekannte Komplikation nach Direktpunktion der A. vertebralis zur Angiographie . Da diese Angiographietechnik verlassen wurde , tritt heutzutage die haeufige Venenpunktion am Hals zum Einbringen zentralvenoeser Katheter aetiologisch in den Vordergrund . Unsere Erfahrungen bei 4 Patienten sowie die Langzeitergebnisse nach gefaesschirurgischer Therapie werden geschildert .
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|
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|
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|
DerUnfallchirurg.01030787.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: In dieser Kasuistik wird ueber die erfolgreiche Anwendung der Beatmung in Bauchlage bei einem 5-jaehrigen Maedchen berichtet , welches von einem Pkw ueberrollt worden war und sich Thorax- und Abdominalverletzungen ( Rippenserienfraktur Lungenkontusion , Leber- und Milzeinrisse ) , zugezogen hatte . Wegen des akuten Lungenversagens mit persistierenden Atelektasen , die durch wiederholte fiberoptische Bronchiallavagen und durch Reexpansionsmanoever nicht zu beheben waren , wurde der Entschluss zur 6-stuendigen Lagerung auf den Bauch gefasst , obwohl ueber den Effekt dieser Lagerungsmassnahme bei traumatisierten Kindern wenig bekannt ist und zu moeglichen negativen Auswirkungen auf das schwerverletzte Abdomen eine Informationen vorliegen .
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|
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In dieser Kasuistik wird ueber die erfolgreiche Anwendung der Beatmung in Bauchlage bei einem 5-jaehrigen Maedchen berichtet , welches von einem Pkw ueberrollt worden war und sich Thorax- und Abdominalverletzungen ( Rippenserienfraktur Lungenkontusion , Leber- und Milzeinrisse ) , zugezogen hatte . Wegen des akuten Lungenversagens mit persistierenden Atelektasen , die durch wiederholte fiberoptische Bronchiallavagen und durch Reexpansionsmanoever nicht zu beheben waren , wurde der Entschluss zur 6-stuendigen Lagerung auf den Bauch gefasst , obwohl ueber den Effekt dieser Lagerungsmassnahme bei traumatisierten Kindern wenig bekannt ist und zu moeglichen negativen Auswirkungen auf das schwerverletzte Abdomen eine Informationen vorliegen .
|
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DerUnfallchirurg.01030787.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: In dieser Kasuistik wird ueber die erfolgreiche Anwendung der Beatmung in Bauchlage bei einem 5-jaehrigen Maedchen berichtet , welches von einem Pkw ueberrollt worden war und sich Thorax- und Abdominalverletzungen ( Rippenserienfraktur Lungenkontusion , Leber- und Milzeinrisse ) , zugezogen hatte . Wegen des akuten Lungenversagens mit persistierenden Atelektasen , die durch wiederholte fiberoptische Bronchiallavagen und durch Reexpansionsmanoever nicht zu beheben waren , wurde der Entschluss zur 6-stuendigen Lagerung auf den Bauch gefasst , obwohl ueber den Effekt dieser Lagerungsmassnahme bei traumatisierten Kindern wenig bekannt ist und zu moeglichen negativen Auswirkungen auf das schwerverletzte Abdomen eine Informationen vorliegen .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Bauchlage, Thorax-, Abdominalverletzungen, Rippenserienfraktur, Lungenkontusion, Leber-, Lungenversagens, Bronchiallavagen, Kindern, Abdomen
Options: umlsterm
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In dieser Kasuistik wird ueber die erfolgreiche Anwendung der Beatmung in Bauchlage bei einem 5-jaehrigen Maedchen berichtet , welches von einem Pkw ueberrollt worden war und sich Thorax- und Abdominalverletzungen ( Rippenserienfraktur Lungenkontusion , Leber- und Milzeinrisse ) , zugezogen hatte . Wegen des akuten Lungenversagens mit persistierenden Atelektasen , die durch wiederholte fiberoptische Bronchiallavagen und durch Reexpansionsmanoever nicht zu beheben waren , wurde der Entschluss zur 6-stuendigen Lagerung auf den Bauch gefasst , obwohl ueber den Effekt dieser Lagerungsmassnahme bei traumatisierten Kindern wenig bekannt ist und zu moeglichen negativen Auswirkungen auf das schwerverletzte Abdomen eine Informationen vorliegen .
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DerUnfallchirurg.01030787.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: In dieser Kasuistik wird ueber die erfolgreiche Anwendung der Beatmung in Bauchlage bei einem 5-jaehrigen Maedchen berichtet , welches von einem Pkw ueberrollt worden war und sich Thorax- und Abdominalverletzungen ( Rippenserienfraktur Lungenkontusion , Leber- und Milzeinrisse ) , zugezogen hatte . Wegen des akuten Lungenversagens mit persistierenden Atelektasen , die durch wiederholte fiberoptische Bronchiallavagen und durch Reexpansionsmanoever nicht zu beheben waren , wurde der Entschluss zur 6-stuendigen Lagerung auf den Bauch gefasst , obwohl ueber den Effekt dieser Lagerungsmassnahme bei traumatisierten Kindern wenig bekannt ist und zu moeglichen negativen Auswirkungen auf das schwerverletzte Abdomen eine Informationen vorliegen .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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In dieser Kasuistik wird ueber die erfolgreiche Anwendung der Beatmung in Bauchlage bei einem 5-jaehrigen Maedchen berichtet , welches von einem Pkw ueberrollt worden war und sich Thorax- und Abdominalverletzungen ( Rippenserienfraktur Lungenkontusion , Leber- und Milzeinrisse ) , zugezogen hatte . Wegen des akuten Lungenversagens mit persistierenden Atelektasen , die durch wiederholte fiberoptische Bronchiallavagen und durch Reexpansionsmanoever nicht zu beheben waren , wurde der Entschluss zur 6-stuendigen Lagerung auf den Bauch gefasst , obwohl ueber den Effekt dieser Lagerungsmassnahme bei traumatisierten Kindern wenig bekannt ist und zu moeglichen negativen Auswirkungen auf das schwerverletzte Abdomen eine Informationen vorliegen .
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DerSchmerz.60100080.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Zielsetzung : Eine kontinuierliche parenterale Opioidanalgesie ist in der Regel erforderlich , um aeusserst schmerzhafte Entzuendungen der Schleimhaeute ( Mukositis ) zu behandeln , die Patienten nach zytostatischer Konditionierung im Rahmen einer Knochenmarktransplantation ( KMT ) entwickeln . Kognitive und psychologische Beeintraechtigungen treten haeufig im Gefolge einer KMT auf und koennen Ausdruck von zerebralen Opioidnebenwirkungen sein . Das Ziel der Studie war die Bewertung der Effizienz und der Nebenwirkungen kontinuierlich verabreichten Morphins zur Behandlung der Mukositisschmerzen bei KMT-Patienten . Ein besonderes Augenmerk galt der Frage , ob Reaktionszeiten , die zur Abschaetzung von Vigilanzeffekten nach Opioidgaben bei Gesunden ueblicherweise herangezogen werden , bei Patienten mit Schmerzen massgeblich durch schmerzbedingte kognitive Leistungseinbussen beeinflusst werden . Methoden : Waehrend ihres stationaeren Aufenthaltes wurden 10 KMT-Patienten taeglich untersucht anhand einer Mukositisskala , subjektiver visueller Analogskalen ( VAS ) fuer Schmerz und Befindlichkeitsparameter , einer deutschen Version des McGill Schmerzfragebogens ( MPQ einer mentalen Leistungstestbatterie sowie der Dokumentation ) , der verabreichten Morphinmenge . Die Testbatterie beinhaltete die einfache auditive Reaktionszeit und eine Wahlreaktionsaufgabe . 7 Patienten bearbeiteten zusaetzlich einen Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest , bei dem sie durch Ja ' - und " Nein'-Antworttasten " angeben mussten , ob visuell dargebotene Probenbuchstaben mit zuvor eingepraegten Testbuchstaben uebereinstimmten . Uebungs- und Kontrolldaten wurden in der ersten Woche vor KMT erhoben . Ergebnisse : Intensitaet und Dauer der Mukositis variierten zwischen den Patienten und bewirkten unterschiedliche Schmerzintensitaeten und MPQ-Skalenwerte . Die Verlaengerung der Wahlreaktionszeit , gemittelt ueber die Mukositis-Behandlungsperiode , korrelierte signifikant mit der Restschmerzintensitaet ( Spearman rs = 0,88 , p 0,01 ) , nicht aber mit der Morphindosierung ( rs = 0,35 , p = 0,33 ) . Im Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest hingegen resultierten hoehere Korrelationskoeffizienten zwischen Reaktionszeit und Morphindosis ( rs = 0,86 , p = 0,014 ) als zwischen Reaktionszeit und Restschmerzintensitaet ( rs = 0,61 , p = 0,15 ) . Befindlichkeitsparameter fuer Depressivitaet , Passivitaet und Muedigkeit korrelierten wiederum mit Schmerzintensitaet , nicht aber mit Morphinmenge . Schlussfolgerungen : Es wird gefolgert , dass sowohl Schmerz als auch Morphin die kognitive Leistungsfaehigkeit verschlechtern koennen . Allerdings scheinen sich beide mentalen Stressoren bezueglich qualitativer Merkmale zu unterscheiden . Waehrend Schmerz Reaktionszeiten moeglicherweise durch Ablenkung der Aufmerksamkeit vornehmlich in Aufgaben mit geringen mentalen Anforderungsmerkmalen verlangsamt , koennte Morphin mit spezifischeren kognitiven Prozessen interferieren , etwa Suchvorgaengen im Kurzzeitgedaechtnis , die bei komplexeren Aufgaben erforderlich sind .
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Options: umlsterm
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Zielsetzung : Eine kontinuierliche parenterale Opioidanalgesie ist in der Regel erforderlich , um aeusserst schmerzhafte Entzuendungen der Schleimhaeute ( Mukositis ) zu behandeln , die Patienten nach zytostatischer Konditionierung im Rahmen einer Knochenmarktransplantation ( KMT ) entwickeln . Kognitive und psychologische Beeintraechtigungen treten haeufig im Gefolge einer KMT auf und koennen Ausdruck von zerebralen Opioidnebenwirkungen sein . Das Ziel der Studie war die Bewertung der Effizienz und der Nebenwirkungen kontinuierlich verabreichten Morphins zur Behandlung der Mukositisschmerzen bei KMT-Patienten . Ein besonderes Augenmerk galt der Frage , ob Reaktionszeiten , die zur Abschaetzung von Vigilanzeffekten nach Opioidgaben bei Gesunden ueblicherweise herangezogen werden , bei Patienten mit Schmerzen massgeblich durch schmerzbedingte kognitive Leistungseinbussen beeinflusst werden . Methoden : Waehrend ihres stationaeren Aufenthaltes wurden 10 KMT-Patienten taeglich untersucht anhand einer Mukositisskala , subjektiver visueller Analogskalen ( VAS ) fuer Schmerz und Befindlichkeitsparameter , einer deutschen Version des McGill Schmerzfragebogens ( MPQ einer mentalen Leistungstestbatterie sowie der Dokumentation ) , der verabreichten Morphinmenge . Die Testbatterie beinhaltete die einfache auditive Reaktionszeit und eine Wahlreaktionsaufgabe . 7 Patienten bearbeiteten zusaetzlich einen Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest , bei dem sie durch Ja ' - und " Nein'-Antworttasten " angeben mussten , ob visuell dargebotene Probenbuchstaben mit zuvor eingepraegten Testbuchstaben uebereinstimmten . Uebungs- und Kontrolldaten wurden in der ersten Woche vor KMT erhoben . Ergebnisse : Intensitaet und Dauer der Mukositis variierten zwischen den Patienten und bewirkten unterschiedliche Schmerzintensitaeten und MPQ-Skalenwerte . Die Verlaengerung der Wahlreaktionszeit , gemittelt ueber die Mukositis-Behandlungsperiode , korrelierte signifikant mit der Restschmerzintensitaet ( Spearman rs = 0,88 , p 0,01 ) , nicht aber mit der Morphindosierung ( rs = 0,35 , p = 0,33 ) . Im Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest hingegen resultierten hoehere Korrelationskoeffizienten zwischen Reaktionszeit und Morphindosis ( rs = 0,86 , p = 0,014 ) als zwischen Reaktionszeit und Restschmerzintensitaet ( rs = 0,61 , p = 0,15 ) . Befindlichkeitsparameter fuer Depressivitaet , Passivitaet und Muedigkeit korrelierten wiederum mit Schmerzintensitaet , nicht aber mit Morphinmenge . Schlussfolgerungen : Es wird gefolgert , dass sowohl Schmerz als auch Morphin die kognitive Leistungsfaehigkeit verschlechtern koennen . Allerdings scheinen sich beide mentalen Stressoren bezueglich qualitativer Merkmale zu unterscheiden . Waehrend Schmerz Reaktionszeiten moeglicherweise durch Ablenkung der Aufmerksamkeit vornehmlich in Aufgaben mit geringen mentalen Anforderungsmerkmalen verlangsamt , koennte Morphin mit spezifischeren kognitiven Prozessen interferieren , etwa Suchvorgaengen im Kurzzeitgedaechtnis , die bei komplexeren Aufgaben erforderlich sind .
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[
"umlsterm"
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Entzuendungen is an umlsterm, Schleimhaeute is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Konditionierung is an umlsterm, Knochenmarktransplantation is an umlsterm, Effizienz is an umlsterm, Morphins is an umlsterm, Behandlung is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Schmerzen is an umlsterm, schmerzbedingte is an umlsterm, Leistungseinbussen is an umlsterm, Methoden is an umlsterm, Schmerz is an umlsterm, McGill Schmerzfragebogens is an umlsterm, Dokumentation is an umlsterm, Morphinmenge is an umlsterm, Reaktionszeit is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Sternberg - Gedaechtnistest is an umlsterm, Patienten is an umlsterm, Schmerzintensitaeten is an umlsterm, Restschmerzintensitaet is an umlsterm, Morphindosierung is an umlsterm, Sternberg - Gedaechtnistest is an umlsterm, Reaktionszeit is an umlsterm, Morphindosis is an umlsterm, Reaktionszeit is an umlsterm, Restschmerzintensitaet is an umlsterm, Muedigkeit is an umlsterm, Schmerzintensitaet is an umlsterm, Morphinmenge is an umlsterm, Schmerz is an umlsterm, Morphin is an umlsterm, Schmerz is an umlsterm, Aufmerksamkeit is an umlsterm, Morphin is an umlsterm, Kurzzeitgedaechtnis is an umlsterm
|
DerSchmerz.60100080.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Zielsetzung : Eine kontinuierliche parenterale Opioidanalgesie ist in der Regel erforderlich , um aeusserst schmerzhafte Entzuendungen der Schleimhaeute ( Mukositis ) zu behandeln , die Patienten nach zytostatischer Konditionierung im Rahmen einer Knochenmarktransplantation ( KMT ) entwickeln . Kognitive und psychologische Beeintraechtigungen treten haeufig im Gefolge einer KMT auf und koennen Ausdruck von zerebralen Opioidnebenwirkungen sein . Das Ziel der Studie war die Bewertung der Effizienz und der Nebenwirkungen kontinuierlich verabreichten Morphins zur Behandlung der Mukositisschmerzen bei KMT-Patienten . Ein besonderes Augenmerk galt der Frage , ob Reaktionszeiten , die zur Abschaetzung von Vigilanzeffekten nach Opioidgaben bei Gesunden ueblicherweise herangezogen werden , bei Patienten mit Schmerzen massgeblich durch schmerzbedingte kognitive Leistungseinbussen beeinflusst werden . Methoden : Waehrend ihres stationaeren Aufenthaltes wurden 10 KMT-Patienten taeglich untersucht anhand einer Mukositisskala , subjektiver visueller Analogskalen ( VAS ) fuer Schmerz und Befindlichkeitsparameter , einer deutschen Version des McGill Schmerzfragebogens ( MPQ einer mentalen Leistungstestbatterie sowie der Dokumentation ) , der verabreichten Morphinmenge . Die Testbatterie beinhaltete die einfache auditive Reaktionszeit und eine Wahlreaktionsaufgabe . 7 Patienten bearbeiteten zusaetzlich einen Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest , bei dem sie durch Ja ' - und " Nein'-Antworttasten " angeben mussten , ob visuell dargebotene Probenbuchstaben mit zuvor eingepraegten Testbuchstaben uebereinstimmten . Uebungs- und Kontrolldaten wurden in der ersten Woche vor KMT erhoben . Ergebnisse : Intensitaet und Dauer der Mukositis variierten zwischen den Patienten und bewirkten unterschiedliche Schmerzintensitaeten und MPQ-Skalenwerte . Die Verlaengerung der Wahlreaktionszeit , gemittelt ueber die Mukositis-Behandlungsperiode , korrelierte signifikant mit der Restschmerzintensitaet ( Spearman rs = 0,88 , p 0,01 ) , nicht aber mit der Morphindosierung ( rs = 0,35 , p = 0,33 ) . Im Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest hingegen resultierten hoehere Korrelationskoeffizienten zwischen Reaktionszeit und Morphindosis ( rs = 0,86 , p = 0,014 ) als zwischen Reaktionszeit und Restschmerzintensitaet ( rs = 0,61 , p = 0,15 ) . Befindlichkeitsparameter fuer Depressivitaet , Passivitaet und Muedigkeit korrelierten wiederum mit Schmerzintensitaet , nicht aber mit Morphinmenge . Schlussfolgerungen : Es wird gefolgert , dass sowohl Schmerz als auch Morphin die kognitive Leistungsfaehigkeit verschlechtern koennen . Allerdings scheinen sich beide mentalen Stressoren bezueglich qualitativer Merkmale zu unterscheiden . Waehrend Schmerz Reaktionszeiten moeglicherweise durch Ablenkung der Aufmerksamkeit vornehmlich in Aufgaben mit geringen mentalen Anforderungsmerkmalen verlangsamt , koennte Morphin mit spezifischeren kognitiven Prozessen interferieren , etwa Suchvorgaengen im Kurzzeitgedaechtnis , die bei komplexeren Aufgaben erforderlich sind .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Entzuendungen, Schleimhaeute, Patienten, Konditionierung, Knochenmarktransplantation, Effizienz, Morphins, Behandlung, Patienten, Schmerzen, schmerzbedingte, Leistungseinbussen, Methoden, Schmerz, McGill Schmerzfragebogens, Dokumentation, Morphinmenge, Reaktionszeit, Patienten, Sternberg - Gedaechtnistest, Patienten, Schmerzintensitaeten, Restschmerzintensitaet, Morphindosierung, Sternberg - Gedaechtnistest, Reaktionszeit, Morphindosis, Reaktionszeit, Restschmerzintensitaet, Muedigkeit, Schmerzintensitaet, Morphinmenge, Schmerz, Morphin, Schmerz, Aufmerksamkeit, Morphin, Kurzzeitgedaechtnis
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Zielsetzung : Eine kontinuierliche parenterale Opioidanalgesie ist in der Regel erforderlich , um aeusserst schmerzhafte Entzuendungen der Schleimhaeute ( Mukositis ) zu behandeln , die Patienten nach zytostatischer Konditionierung im Rahmen einer Knochenmarktransplantation ( KMT ) entwickeln . Kognitive und psychologische Beeintraechtigungen treten haeufig im Gefolge einer KMT auf und koennen Ausdruck von zerebralen Opioidnebenwirkungen sein . Das Ziel der Studie war die Bewertung der Effizienz und der Nebenwirkungen kontinuierlich verabreichten Morphins zur Behandlung der Mukositisschmerzen bei KMT-Patienten . Ein besonderes Augenmerk galt der Frage , ob Reaktionszeiten , die zur Abschaetzung von Vigilanzeffekten nach Opioidgaben bei Gesunden ueblicherweise herangezogen werden , bei Patienten mit Schmerzen massgeblich durch schmerzbedingte kognitive Leistungseinbussen beeinflusst werden . Methoden : Waehrend ihres stationaeren Aufenthaltes wurden 10 KMT-Patienten taeglich untersucht anhand einer Mukositisskala , subjektiver visueller Analogskalen ( VAS ) fuer Schmerz und Befindlichkeitsparameter , einer deutschen Version des McGill Schmerzfragebogens ( MPQ einer mentalen Leistungstestbatterie sowie der Dokumentation ) , der verabreichten Morphinmenge . Die Testbatterie beinhaltete die einfache auditive Reaktionszeit und eine Wahlreaktionsaufgabe . 7 Patienten bearbeiteten zusaetzlich einen Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest , bei dem sie durch Ja ' - und " Nein'-Antworttasten " angeben mussten , ob visuell dargebotene Probenbuchstaben mit zuvor eingepraegten Testbuchstaben uebereinstimmten . Uebungs- und Kontrolldaten wurden in der ersten Woche vor KMT erhoben . Ergebnisse : Intensitaet und Dauer der Mukositis variierten zwischen den Patienten und bewirkten unterschiedliche Schmerzintensitaeten und MPQ-Skalenwerte . Die Verlaengerung der Wahlreaktionszeit , gemittelt ueber die Mukositis-Behandlungsperiode , korrelierte signifikant mit der Restschmerzintensitaet ( Spearman rs = 0,88 , p 0,01 ) , nicht aber mit der Morphindosierung ( rs = 0,35 , p = 0,33 ) . Im Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest hingegen resultierten hoehere Korrelationskoeffizienten zwischen Reaktionszeit und Morphindosis ( rs = 0,86 , p = 0,014 ) als zwischen Reaktionszeit und Restschmerzintensitaet ( rs = 0,61 , p = 0,15 ) . Befindlichkeitsparameter fuer Depressivitaet , Passivitaet und Muedigkeit korrelierten wiederum mit Schmerzintensitaet , nicht aber mit Morphinmenge . Schlussfolgerungen : Es wird gefolgert , dass sowohl Schmerz als auch Morphin die kognitive Leistungsfaehigkeit verschlechtern koennen . Allerdings scheinen sich beide mentalen Stressoren bezueglich qualitativer Merkmale zu unterscheiden . Waehrend Schmerz Reaktionszeiten moeglicherweise durch Ablenkung der Aufmerksamkeit vornehmlich in Aufgaben mit geringen mentalen Anforderungsmerkmalen verlangsamt , koennte Morphin mit spezifischeren kognitiven Prozessen interferieren , etwa Suchvorgaengen im Kurzzeitgedaechtnis , die bei komplexeren Aufgaben erforderlich sind .
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DerSchmerz.60100080.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Zielsetzung : Eine kontinuierliche parenterale Opioidanalgesie ist in der Regel erforderlich , um aeusserst schmerzhafte Entzuendungen der Schleimhaeute ( Mukositis ) zu behandeln , die Patienten nach zytostatischer Konditionierung im Rahmen einer Knochenmarktransplantation ( KMT ) entwickeln . Kognitive und psychologische Beeintraechtigungen treten haeufig im Gefolge einer KMT auf und koennen Ausdruck von zerebralen Opioidnebenwirkungen sein . Das Ziel der Studie war die Bewertung der Effizienz und der Nebenwirkungen kontinuierlich verabreichten Morphins zur Behandlung der Mukositisschmerzen bei KMT-Patienten . Ein besonderes Augenmerk galt der Frage , ob Reaktionszeiten , die zur Abschaetzung von Vigilanzeffekten nach Opioidgaben bei Gesunden ueblicherweise herangezogen werden , bei Patienten mit Schmerzen massgeblich durch schmerzbedingte kognitive Leistungseinbussen beeinflusst werden . Methoden : Waehrend ihres stationaeren Aufenthaltes wurden 10 KMT-Patienten taeglich untersucht anhand einer Mukositisskala , subjektiver visueller Analogskalen ( VAS ) fuer Schmerz und Befindlichkeitsparameter , einer deutschen Version des McGill Schmerzfragebogens ( MPQ einer mentalen Leistungstestbatterie sowie der Dokumentation ) , der verabreichten Morphinmenge . Die Testbatterie beinhaltete die einfache auditive Reaktionszeit und eine Wahlreaktionsaufgabe . 7 Patienten bearbeiteten zusaetzlich einen Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest , bei dem sie durch Ja ' - und " Nein'-Antworttasten " angeben mussten , ob visuell dargebotene Probenbuchstaben mit zuvor eingepraegten Testbuchstaben uebereinstimmten . Uebungs- und Kontrolldaten wurden in der ersten Woche vor KMT erhoben . Ergebnisse : Intensitaet und Dauer der Mukositis variierten zwischen den Patienten und bewirkten unterschiedliche Schmerzintensitaeten und MPQ-Skalenwerte . Die Verlaengerung der Wahlreaktionszeit , gemittelt ueber die Mukositis-Behandlungsperiode , korrelierte signifikant mit der Restschmerzintensitaet ( Spearman rs = 0,88 , p 0,01 ) , nicht aber mit der Morphindosierung ( rs = 0,35 , p = 0,33 ) . Im Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest hingegen resultierten hoehere Korrelationskoeffizienten zwischen Reaktionszeit und Morphindosis ( rs = 0,86 , p = 0,014 ) als zwischen Reaktionszeit und Restschmerzintensitaet ( rs = 0,61 , p = 0,15 ) . Befindlichkeitsparameter fuer Depressivitaet , Passivitaet und Muedigkeit korrelierten wiederum mit Schmerzintensitaet , nicht aber mit Morphinmenge . Schlussfolgerungen : Es wird gefolgert , dass sowohl Schmerz als auch Morphin die kognitive Leistungsfaehigkeit verschlechtern koennen . Allerdings scheinen sich beide mentalen Stressoren bezueglich qualitativer Merkmale zu unterscheiden . Waehrend Schmerz Reaktionszeiten moeglicherweise durch Ablenkung der Aufmerksamkeit vornehmlich in Aufgaben mit geringen mentalen Anforderungsmerkmalen verlangsamt , koennte Morphin mit spezifischeren kognitiven Prozessen interferieren , etwa Suchvorgaengen im Kurzzeitgedaechtnis , die bei komplexeren Aufgaben erforderlich sind .
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Zielsetzung : Eine kontinuierliche parenterale Opioidanalgesie ist in der Regel erforderlich , um aeusserst schmerzhafte Entzuendungen der Schleimhaeute ( Mukositis ) zu behandeln , die Patienten nach zytostatischer Konditionierung im Rahmen einer Knochenmarktransplantation ( KMT ) entwickeln . Kognitive und psychologische Beeintraechtigungen treten haeufig im Gefolge einer KMT auf und koennen Ausdruck von zerebralen Opioidnebenwirkungen sein . Das Ziel der Studie war die Bewertung der Effizienz und der Nebenwirkungen kontinuierlich verabreichten Morphins zur Behandlung der Mukositisschmerzen bei KMT-Patienten . Ein besonderes Augenmerk galt der Frage , ob Reaktionszeiten , die zur Abschaetzung von Vigilanzeffekten nach Opioidgaben bei Gesunden ueblicherweise herangezogen werden , bei Patienten mit Schmerzen massgeblich durch schmerzbedingte kognitive Leistungseinbussen beeinflusst werden . Methoden : Waehrend ihres stationaeren Aufenthaltes wurden 10 KMT-Patienten taeglich untersucht anhand einer Mukositisskala , subjektiver visueller Analogskalen ( VAS ) fuer Schmerz und Befindlichkeitsparameter , einer deutschen Version des McGill Schmerzfragebogens ( MPQ einer mentalen Leistungstestbatterie sowie der Dokumentation ) , der verabreichten Morphinmenge . Die Testbatterie beinhaltete die einfache auditive Reaktionszeit und eine Wahlreaktionsaufgabe . 7 Patienten bearbeiteten zusaetzlich einen Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest , bei dem sie durch Ja ' - und " Nein'-Antworttasten " angeben mussten , ob visuell dargebotene Probenbuchstaben mit zuvor eingepraegten Testbuchstaben uebereinstimmten . Uebungs- und Kontrolldaten wurden in der ersten Woche vor KMT erhoben . Ergebnisse : Intensitaet und Dauer der Mukositis variierten zwischen den Patienten und bewirkten unterschiedliche Schmerzintensitaeten und MPQ-Skalenwerte . Die Verlaengerung der Wahlreaktionszeit , gemittelt ueber die Mukositis-Behandlungsperiode , korrelierte signifikant mit der Restschmerzintensitaet ( Spearman rs = 0,88 , p 0,01 ) , nicht aber mit der Morphindosierung ( rs = 0,35 , p = 0,33 ) . Im Sternberg-Gedaechtnistest hingegen resultierten hoehere Korrelationskoeffizienten zwischen Reaktionszeit und Morphindosis ( rs = 0,86 , p = 0,014 ) als zwischen Reaktionszeit und Restschmerzintensitaet ( rs = 0,61 , p = 0,15 ) . Befindlichkeitsparameter fuer Depressivitaet , Passivitaet und Muedigkeit korrelierten wiederum mit Schmerzintensitaet , nicht aber mit Morphinmenge . Schlussfolgerungen : Es wird gefolgert , dass sowohl Schmerz als auch Morphin die kognitive Leistungsfaehigkeit verschlechtern koennen . Allerdings scheinen sich beide mentalen Stressoren bezueglich qualitativer Merkmale zu unterscheiden . Waehrend Schmerz Reaktionszeiten moeglicherweise durch Ablenkung der Aufmerksamkeit vornehmlich in Aufgaben mit geringen mentalen Anforderungsmerkmalen verlangsamt , koennte Morphin mit spezifischeren kognitiven Prozessen interferieren , etwa Suchvorgaengen im Kurzzeitgedaechtnis , die bei komplexeren Aufgaben erforderlich sind .
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
camazepam and temazepam is a Intervention_Pharmacological, placebo is a Intervention_Control, sleep parameters is a Outcome_Physical, percent duration of stage II is a Outcome_Physical, sleep efficiency is a Outcome_Other, Camazepam shows modification is a Outcome_Other
|
78284_task0
|
Sentence: Comparison between the central effects of camazepam and temazepam . Computerized analysis of sleep recordings . The effects of acute administration per os of 30 mg camazepam and the same dose of temazepam , were compared with placebo in 8 young male volunteers , fully adapted to the laboratory environment by 6 nights of adaptation . The study was double-blind , in a random order , 10 days separating each session . Spectral analysis was performed on the all-night records ( 1-min epochs ) , and the relative power of six frequency bands calculated . Concerning sleep parameters , temazepam induces a statistically significant reduction of : phase shifts ; number of awakenings ; percent duration of sleep stages I and IV . A significant increase of the percent duration of stage II and sleep efficiency was also found . Camazepam shows modification , with the same trend , but not reaching statistical significance . Concerning spectral analysis , temazepam induces a light increase of the relative power of the slowest frequencies , paralleled by an increase of the fast bands , while major effects are found on the characteristic periodicity of delta activities , which appear disrupted by the drug . These effects are not evident with camazepam , which does not seem to distort the normal sleep pattern .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Outcome_Other, Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Physical, Intervention_Control
|
[
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Intervention_Pharmacological",
"I-Intervention_Pharmacological",
"I-Intervention_Pharmacological",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Intervention_Control",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"B-Outcome_Physical",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Comparison between the central effects of camazepam and temazepam . Computerized analysis of sleep recordings . The effects of acute administration per os of 30 mg camazepam and the same dose of temazepam , were compared with placebo in 8 young male volunteers , fully adapted to the laboratory environment by 6 nights of adaptation . The study was double-blind , in a random order , 10 days separating each session . Spectral analysis was performed on the all-night records ( 1-min epochs ) , and the relative power of six frequency bands calculated . Concerning sleep parameters , temazepam induces a statistically significant reduction of : phase shifts ; number of awakenings ; percent duration of sleep stages I and IV . A significant increase of the percent duration of stage II and sleep efficiency was also found . Camazepam shows modification , with the same trend , but not reaching statistical significance . Concerning spectral analysis , temazepam induces a light increase of the relative power of the slowest frequencies , paralleled by an increase of the fast bands , while major effects are found on the characteristic periodicity of delta activities , which appear disrupted by the drug . These effects are not evident with camazepam , which does not seem to distort the normal sleep pattern .
|
[
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"."
] |
[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Outcome_Other",
"Intervention_Pharmacological",
"Intervention_Control"
] |
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