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A 53-year-old woman who is being treated for metastatic breast cancer is noted to have some lethargy, fatigue, and an elevated serum calcium level. She is brought into the ER for near comatose state, thought to be caused by the hypercalcemia. After addressing the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation), wof is the best therapy for this patient
Hypercalcaemia of malignancy:- Severe hypercalcaemia, a common complication of malignancy, is a medical emergency with altered consciousness. Treatment:- Pamidronate or zoledronate are the most effective drugs, but take 24-48 hours to act. They may be supplemented by i.m. calcitonin 6-12 hourly for 2 days to achieve rapid action. Vigorous i.v. hydration is instituted first. After volume repletion, furosemide is added to enhance Ca2+ excretion and to prevent volume overload. This is followed by BPN infusion. This therapy reduces serum calcium within few hours and corrects the attending dehydration. Oral BPNs are not useful. Coicosteroids also lower plasma Ca2+, but are slow to act, take 1-2 weeks. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-344
3
Bisphosphonates
IV estrogen therapy
Saline infusion and furosemide
Vitamin D
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
d293b701-c3b4-41c6-aaa1-df01ed50c010
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True statement among the following
Other high yielding pointsI127 is stable iodine isotopeI-131 Has half-life of 8 daysThe gamma-emitting isotopes iodine-123 (half-life 13 hours) used as nuclear imaging tracers to evaluate the anatomic and physiologic function of the thyroid. Iodine-125 is commonly used by radiation oncologists in low dose rate brachytherapy in the treatment of cancer at sites other than the thyroid, especially in prostate cancer. When I-125 is used therapeutically, it is encapsulated in titanium seeds and implanted in the area of a tumour, where it remains. The low energy of the gamma spectrum, in this case, limits radiation damage to tissues far from the implanted capsule. Iodine-125, due to its suitable longer half-life and less penetrating gamma spectrum, is also often preferred for laboratory tests that rely on iodine as a tracer that is counted by a gamma counter, such as in radioimmunoassaying
1
Half life of I125 is 60 days
Half life of I131 is 12 days
I131 is used in RIA for thyroid hormones
I125 is preferred over 123 for thyroid scan
Microbiology
All India exam
30fa6dd8-3d15-4273-afb4-a2558813d23c
multi
About Head's paradoxical reflex, which of the following fact is TRUE?
Head's paradoxical reflex: Inflation of lungs, under ceain conditions, enhances inspiratory activity. Since inflation induces fuher inflation of lungs, the reflex is considered paradoxical. The vagal fibers mediating Head's paradoxical reflex carry information originating in receptors present in lungs. This reflex has a role in initiation of respiration at bih. Ref: Understanding Medical Physiology By R.L. Bijlani, M.D., RL Bijlani MD SM DSc (Hon Causa) FAMS, S. Manjunatha, M.D., 2010, Page 245.
1
It plays an impoant role in normal respiration
It is mediated by tracheobronchial-stretch receptors
It is stimulated by hyperinflation of lungs
It inhibits respiration
Physiology
null
7aff6d14-e114-43b0-8599-5ae1210d56c3
multi
Nevirapine is -
Ans is 'b' i.e., NNRTI o Nevirapine is NNRTIThese drugs inhibit reverse transcriptase by acting at a site (allosteric site) different from NRTIs.These are selective for HIV-1 and have no activity against HIV-2.Resistance to these drugs develops very rapidly.o NNRI drug groupEfavirenz, nevirapine, etravirtue and delavirdine,o Mechanism of action :These are nucleotide unrelated compounds which directly inhibit HIV reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular phosphory-lation.Adverse effectsRashes (Steven Johnson Syndrome & Toxic epidermal necrolysis)NauseaHeadach, FeverRise in live enzyme (hepatotoxic)o Nevirapine is used in pregnancy to prevent vertical transmission.o It decrease transmission to 13% as compared to 21.5% by zidovudine.o NNRTI donot cause lipodystrophy like NRTIs and RTIs# Nevirapine and efavirenz are enzyme inducers and delaviridine is enzyme inhibitor.
2
NRTI
NNRTI
E-TI
FI
Pharmacology
Anti-Viral
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single
Not true about viral envelop?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Propagates in next generation Envelope is lipoprotein in nature, lipid is derived from host cell, while protein is virus coded. Enveloped viruses are susceptible to the action of lipid solvents like ether, chloroform and bile salts. Envelop is not propagated in next generation. Rather progeny virions synthesize new envelop (by self protein and host lipid).
4
Lipid is derived from host cells
Protein is derived from virus itself
Dissolves in solvent
Propagates in next generation
Microbiology
null
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multi
Incompletly descended testis is commonest on?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Right side
1
Right side
Left side
Both side
Right sided only
Surgery
null
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multi
Vein of Galen drains into
The vein of Galen,also known as the great cerebral vein or great vein of Galen is a single median vein.It is formed by union of the two internal cerebral veins.It terminates in the straight sinus.Its tributaries include the basal veins,and veins from the pineal body,the colliculi,the cerebellum,and the adjoining pa of the occipital lobes of the cerebrum. REF.B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy,Vol 3,Fifth edition,Pg 448
3
Internal jugular vein
External jugular vein
Straight sinus
Superior sagittal sinus
Anatomy
Brain
4de0b7ea-e294-4b8d-9707-d7dd530df7b0
single
As per immunisation schdule, Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended at:
2 years
2
1 year
2 years
5 years
10 years
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ba2d3a4d-b94d-4cae-857e-aa61dc702b1c
single
Which of the following agents do not act via GABAA-cl – channel complex receptors
null
4
Zopiclone.
Benzodiazepines.
Thiopentone.
Promethazine.
Pharmacology
null
074ec9cc-0b69-4e7e-8a61-861bac073b5d
single
Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy ?
Captopril
3
Methyldopa
Hydralazine
Captopril
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
7ac471df-52bd-4e71-a9e3-e8ca486edef3
multi
All of the following statements about penicillin-binding proteins are true EXCEPT :
Beta-lactam antibiotics act by inhibiting the cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains in the bacterial cell wall. This action is carried out by transpeptidase enzyme. Transpeptidases and similar enzymes involved in cross-linking are called penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs). All beta-lactam antibiotics bind to PBPs and inhibit cell wall synthesis. The drugs in p-lactam category are: Penicillin Cephalosporins Carbapenems e.g imipenem Monobactam e.g. aztreonam Mutation in PBPs is an important cause of methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus. Vancomycin does not bind to PBPs but acts by inhibiting transglycosylase.
3
Present on cell surface
Mutation in PBPs gives rise to resistance
These are target site of vancomycin
These are targeted by imipenem
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Antiepileptic drug not associated with enzyme induction or inhibition propey is ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ethosuximide
4
Phenytoin
Valproate
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Pharmacology
null
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single
Mobile eye care services are not done at which level
null
2
Primary care level
Tertiary care
Secondary care
District hospitals
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
7a59dd15-c44a-40d0-a322-f273ac6ef426
single
All are true about anthropometric measurements except:-
Standing height is about 0.7 cm less than recumbent length. If a child < 2 years old, measure recumbent length- Infantometer If >= 2-year age and able to stand, measure standing height- Stadiometer
4
Bih weight triples by 1 year
Skinfold thickness is measured in sub scapular region
Weight is measured to the nearest 100 gram
Standing height is about 2.5 cm more than recumbent length
Pediatrics
Growth
5720b369-815c-4deb-83ba-e5a2e79ff192
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With which of the following of viral hepatitis infection in pegnancy, the maternal moality is highest ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hepatitis E A unique feature of Hepatitis E is the clinical severity and high case fatality rate (20-40%) when it affects pregnant women, especially in last trimester.
4
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Microbiology
null
6e813485-a6bc-4339-a1cf-900fcb4d0aca
single
DOC for primary open angle glaucoma is
Latanoprost-pgf2 alpha is the DOC for primary open angle glaucoma while acetazolamide is the DOC for acute congestive glaucoma Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 139-140
4
Beta-blockers
CA inhibitors
Miotics
PG analogues
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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single
The post-operative quality of life (QOL) scores of 200 prostate cancer patients has a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 10. How many patients are expected to have a QOL score between 40 and 80?
The values enclosed in a normal distribution curve are:
1
190
136
120
140
Unknown
null
aa47507a-ca29-44bb-b111-d6ac5a88232b
single
All of the following structures are normally palpable upon vaginal examination Except the:
Normally, the sacral promontory is too distant to be palpable on vaginal examination. If the sacral promontory is palpable, this indicates that the conjugate diameter of the pelvis is smaller than normal, and a normal vaginal delivery may not be possible. The ischial spines are palpable. This landmark is used for administering a pudendal nerve block. The pudendal nerve wraps around the ischial spine and sacrospinous ligament. The rectouterine pouch is palpable through the wall of the posterior fornix of the vagina. The ovary and uterine tubes are palpable in the broad ligament.
4
Uterine tubes
Ovary
Rectouterine pouch
Sacral promontory
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
389b8866-8626-43e2-bd1e-e74afbc52a19
multi
A 65 years old man presenting with complaints of chest pain, fever, cough with sputum. O/E of sputum, pus cells with gram positive cocci present. Blood agar showed positive result. How will you differentiate this from other gram positive cocci?a) Bacitracinb) Optochin sensitivityc) Bile solubilityd) Coagulase positivity
null
2
a
bc
ac
ad
Microbiology
null
96a9a968-a34c-4592-891b-8b419bc3bd6e
single
A 32-year-old woman with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus delivers a healthy boy at 38 weeks of gestation. As a result of maternal hyperglycemia during pregnancy, pancreatic islets in the neonate would be expected to show which of the following morphologic responses to injury?
Hyperplasia Infants of diabetic mothers show a 5% to 10% incidence of major developmental abnormalities, including anomalies of the hea and great vessels and neural tube defects. During fetal development, the islet cells of the pancreas have the proliferative capacity and respond to increased demand for insulin by undergoing physiologic hyperplasia. Fetus may develop hyperplasia of the pancreatic b cells, which may secrete insulin autonomously and cause hypoglycemia at bih. -Metaplasia (choice D) is defined as the conversion of one differentiated cell pathway to another. Diagnosis: Diabetes mellitus
3
Atrophy
Dysplasia
Hyperplasia
Metaplasia
Pathology
Basic Concepts
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Which of the following is not given in acute severe digitalis toxicity?
Ref-KDT 6/e p499 Hypokalemia precipitates digtals toxicity but in acute severe digtalis toxicity, there Is already hyperkalenia.
1
Potassium
Digibind
Lignocaine
None of these
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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multi
Which of the following is transfused in a patient who has severe burn injuries?
null
2
Blood
Plasma
Platelets
Erythrocytes
Surgery
null
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Black gun powder composition -
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ; 28th edition ; Pg.no. 125 Fine grains travel 60cm or more ,one gram of powder produces 3,000-4,500c.c of gas
3
Carcoal 60% + Potassium nitrate 20% + sulphur 20%
Charcoal 25% + Potassium nitrate 70% + sulphur 05%
Charcoal 15% + Potassium nitrate 75% + sulphur 10%
Charcoal 65% + Potassium nitrate 20% + sulphur 15%
Forensic Medicine
Mechanical injuries
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single
The best example of a proto-oncogene activated by point mutation is -
null
1
Ras
N-myc
L-myc
Abl
Pathology
null
f4a629a1-acb2-4efc-a2db-6f9a267f9c8d
single
Metalloproteins help in jaundice by the following mechanism :
B i.e. Inhibit heme oxygenaseTin & Zn porphyrins and mesoporphyrins inhibits the activity of heme oxygenase Q and decrease formation of bilirubin Best method for Estimation of .Hb come in blood is - Cyanmethhemoglobin methodQ
2
Increased glucoronyl transferase activity
Inhibit heme oxygenase
Decrease RBC lysis
Increase Y and Z receptors
Physiology
null
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Features of trigeminal neuralgia do not include
Trigeminal neuralgia is an archetype of orofacial neuralgias that follows the anatomic distribution of fifth nerve that exhibits a trigger zone, stimulation of which initiates a paroxysm of pain. It is characterised by paroxysmal, excruciating pain in trigeminal dermatornes. Latency (refers to the short time period between stimulation of a trigger area and pain onset) and refractory period (occurs following an attack and during this time pain may not be initiated) are other 2 attack related phenomena related to TN.
1
Paresthesia
Paroxysmal pain
Refractory period
Presence of trigger zone
Pathology
null
6a2a08ac-58cf-4094-ad80-bfa82551317d
single
Middle cerebellar peduncle transmits fibres of
A. i.e. Pontocerebellar pathway
1
Ponto cerebellar pathway
Tectospinal pathway
Spinocerebellar pathway
Olivo cerebellar pathway
Anatomy
null
e31d24f7-a3dd-4dc2-a296-db8ecd38256c
single
BPF (Brazilian purpuric fever) is caused by:
H. aegyptius: → Identical to non-capsulated H.influenza, now named as H.influenza biotype aegyptius. → Causes highly contagious form of conjunctivitis (PINK EYE) and Brazilian purpuric fever.  → BPF (Brazilian purpuric fever): Conjunctivitis proceeding to fulminant septicemia in infants and children with high fatality.
1
H.influenzae biotype aegyptius
V. cholerae
Salmonella
None of the above
Microbiology
null
4e34c637-7ad0-40c3-baed-d16d28c5a2da
multi
Structures preserved in functional radical dissection of the neck, except
null
3
Internal jugular vein
Sternomastoid
Lymph nodes
Accessory nerve
Surgery
null
51417339-3dfd-4b92-b317-b4b5719003b0
multi
The proximal pa of the aoa is derived from which of the following?
Proximal pa / arch of aoa is fromed by: 1. Left horn of aoic sac 2. Left 4th phyrangeal arch aery 3. Left dorsal aoa - Neural crest cells migrate to truncus aeriousus and forms AP septum (spiral septum) which divides Truncus into anterior Aoa and posterior Pulmonary trunk. Thus the proximal pa of the aoa is derived from the truncus aeriosus. - From truncus aeriosus develops aoic sac with left and right horns . - Truncus aeriosus forms the outflow tract and blood is pumped by hea into phrangeal arch aeries and dorsal aoa
1
Truncus aeriosus
Bulbus cordis
Primitive ventricle
Primitive atrium
Anatomy
Bronchopulmonary Segments, Embryonic veins
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single
Elements of primary heath care are the following except-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cost effictiveness
3
Health education
Intersectoral coordination
Cost effectiveness
Provision of essential drugs
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
bb66faee-977a-4cc4-b204-702019f83896
multi
Primary sinusoidal dilatation of liver is also known as
Peliosis hepatis is an uncommon vascular condition characterised by multiple, randomly distributed, blood-filled cavities throughout the liver. The size of the cavities usually ranges between a few millimetres and 3 cm in diameter. In the past, it was a mere histological curiosity occasionally found at autopsies, but has been increasingly recognised with wide-ranging conditions from AIDS to the use of anabolic steroids. It also occasionally affects spleen, lymph nodes, lungs, kidneys, adrenal glands, bone marrow, and other pas of gastrointestinal tract.
2
Hepar lobatum
Peliosis hepatic
Von-Meyerburg complex
Caroli's disease
Anatomy
G.I.T
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True about helicobacter pylori are all except ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., It provides life long immunity . There is no effective immunity against H. pylori infection. The immune response to H. pylon includes both the production of antibody (local and systemic) and a cell-mediated response but is ineffective in clearing the bacterium. . H. Pylori has a protective role against gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and adenocarcinoma of the esophagus and gastric cardia. . Antral predominant gastritis is most closely linked with duodenal ulceration, whereas pangastritis is linked with gastric ulceration and adenocarcinoma. Antral gastritis --> duodenal ulcer Pangastritis --> Gastric ulcer Gastric adenocarcinoma . IL - 1 fi is the major proinflammatory cytokine in peptic ulcer disease. About other options . Urea breath test is the most consistently accurate test. . H. pylori is a gram negative, flagellate bacillus which is motile by lophotrichous flagella.
4
Urea breath test is diagnostic
Gram negative, flagellate bacilli
Risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma of stomach
It provides life long immunity
Microbiology
null
214e6d48-2c2a-41f5-8516-bbd0d8ef53fd
multi
Necrosis of PCT is caused by
Action of phenol phenol has both local and systemic action. Locally city acts as a corrosive and after absorption it possesses necrotic effects. Phenol is protoplasmic poison. It combines with proteins and denatures it. It deeply penetrates the tissues and produces necrosis. After absorption it causes capillary damage and clotting in superficial vessels. It also acts on the CNS, hea and kidney. It affects the proximal convoluted tubules and causes renal failure. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 413
2
Arsenic
Phenol
Alcohol
Amantia
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
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single
In spinal anaesthesia, the needle is piereced upto –
In spinal anesthesia LA is injected into subarachnoid space (space between pia matter and arachnoid matter).
4
Subdural space
Extradural space
Epidural space
Subarachnoid space
Anaesthesia
null
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single
A third gravida is admitted with complaint of sudden onset right sided lower abdominal pain after a period of 5-week amenorrhea. Her PR is 130 and BP is 80/50 mmHg. TVS reveals large amount of free fluid in the pelvis and empty uterine cavity. What is the next step?
Ans. C. Perform urgent laparotomyAmenorrhea and lower abdominal pain with empty uterine cavity on USG raise the suspicion of ectopic pregnancy. The clinical presentation of shock and large amounts of free fluid in the pelvis point to hemodynamic instability associated with ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, this patient is managed with an urgent laparotomy.
3
Perform laparoscopy
Treat with IM methotrexate
Perform urgent laparotomy
Do serum Beta HCG to confirm diagnosis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ecotopic Pregnancy
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True about lecithin - sphingomyelin ratio is
Concentration of lecithin relative to sphingomyelin begins to rise at 32 - 34 weeks. L / S ratio < 2 suggests high risk of RDS.
1
Concentration of Lecithin and sphingomyelin before 34 weeks in amniotic fluid is equal
Concentration of Lecithin is more than sphingomyelin in amniotic fluid before 34 weeks.
After 32 to 34 weeks, concentration of sphingomyelin relative to Lecithin begins to rise
There is increased risk of Respiratory distress syndrome if L/S ratio is > 2
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Lipoprotein A shows homology with:
(Refer: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th edition) Lipoprotein A, Lp (a) Lp (a) is a lipoprotein similar to LDL in lipid and protein composition, but it contains an additional protein called apolipoprotein(a) Apo (a) is synthesized in the liver and attached to apoB-100 by a disulfide linkage. The major site of clearance of Lp(a) is the liver, but the uptake pathway is not known. Lp (a) causes fibrin complex deposition. Lp (a) has structural similarity with Plasminogen. Inhibits the tissue plasminogen action. Inhibits the solubilization of fibrin by the action of plasmin. Oxidized Lp (a) taken up by macrophages. Lp (a) as a risk factor for atherosclerotic diseases such as coronary heart disease and stroke.
1
Plasminogen
Albumin
Prothrombin
Plasmin
Unknown
null
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single
Most common site of brain Hemorrhage is?
Ans. (a) PutamenRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 2582* Most common site of brain hemorrhage is Putamen.* Intra-parenychmal hemorrhage is most lethal and has mortality rate of 40%.* The IOC is NCCT. For management BP must be controlled which is to maintain a target BP of 160/90.
1
Putamen
Internal capsule
Ventral pons
Cerebellum
Medicine
Cerebrovascular
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single
All of the following are intravenous anesthetic induction agents except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bupivacaine
4
Thiopentone sodium
Ketamine
Etomidate
Bupivacaine
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
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multi
A premature infant is born with a patent ductus aeriosus. Its closure can be stimulated by administration of
Before 2 weeks of gestation indomethacin 0.2mg/kg dose orally every 12-24 hr for 3 doses. Ref : Ghai essential pediatrics,eighth edition P.no: 419
4
Prostaglandin analogue
Estrogen
Anti-estrogen compounds
Prostaglandin inhibitors
Pediatrics
C.V.S
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single
Not true about Intracapsular neck fracture
null
4
< 1 inch shortening
< 45 degree of external rotation
Trivial trauma can cause fracture
Severe pain around hip
Orthopaedics
null
21c72ae9-b897-44e4-932f-77e52915c7a1
multi
Which of the following is acid fast:
Ans: a (Oocyst of Cryptosporidium) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 1250Oocyst of Cryptosporidium is acid fastAcid fast organisms include1. Nocardia2. Legionella micoadie3. Bacterial spores4. Rhodococcus5. Isospora6. Mycobacterium7. Spermatic head8. Cryptococcus cyst
1
Oocyst of Cryptosporidium
Cyst of entamoeba
Hydatid disease cyst
Cysticercus cyst
Microbiology
Parasitology
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single
Zenker diveiculum occurs at:
Diveicula of the esophagus are mainly located above the LES (epiphrenic diveiculum) or the UES (pharyngoesophageal--or Zenker--diveiculum). They are both caused by abnormalities involving the LES or the UES, which result in protrusion of the mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layers
1
Upper esophageal spinchter
Lower esophageal sphincter
Both of the above
None of the above
Unknown
null
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multi
All the following are exceptions to Koch's postulates except?
M leprae & T pallidum – Cannot be grown invitro however can be maintained in animals. N gonorrhoea – There is no animal model, however bacteria can be grown in vitro.
4
Mycobacterium Leprae
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Vibrio cholerae
Microbiology
null
833c72a4-0713-4949-81b3-d1c85c5012a2
multi
Study of disease in a traveller from one part to another
null
3
Eugenics
Ergonomics
Emporiatrics
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3a9d2e7d-99c2-42f6-a824-836cf9c4898d
multi
In pediatric advanced life suppo, intraosseous access for drug/fluid administration is recommended for
** Intraosseous (IO) access was initially thought to be less applicable in patients older than 6 years, now there is growing suppo for consideration of IO techniques in patients of any age as rapid and equally effective alternatives to intravenous (IV) peripheral lines. Intraosseous infusion (IO) is the process of injecting directly into the marrow of a bone to provide a non-collapsible entry point into the systemic venous system.This technique is used in emergency situations to provide fluids and medication when intravenous access is not available or not feasible. A comparison of intravenous (IV), intramuscular (IM), and intraosseous (IO) routes of administration concluded that the intraosseous route is demonstrably superior to intramuscularand comparable to intravenous administration (in delivering paediatric anaesthetic drugs).Due to the rapid advance and adoption of superior intraosseous access technology, IO access has now become the preferred method of establishing vascular access for patients in whom traditional access is difficult or impossible.
2
<1yr
<6 yrs
<12yrs
Any age
Pediatrics
Fluid and electrolytes
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Not true about vaccines ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., In vaccine l monitor if the color of inner square is same as outer background, vaccine is good for use Vaccine Vial monitor An impoant improvement in PPI during 1998 has been the use of vaccine l monitor. Colour monitors or labels are put on vaccine bottles. Each label has a circle of deep blue colour. Inside it is a white square which changes colour and gradually becomes blue, if vaccine bottle is exposed to higher temprature. When the colour of the white square becomes blue like that of surrounding circle, the vaccine should be considered ineffective. Thereby, the health worker can easily asceain that the vaccine being given is effective or not.
3
Two live vaccines can be given at same time at different sites
Two live vaccines at same site should be given at least 3 weeks apa
In vaccine l monitor if the color of inner square is same as outer background, vaccine is good for use
Live and killed vaccines can be given together
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
4f6babcf-83b1-4af9-ba6f-1788822702a4
multi
Which finding on electron microscopy indicates irreversible cell injury ?
. Flocculent densities in the mitochondria
3
Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum
Dissociation of ribosomes from rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Flocculent densities in the mitochondria
Myelin figures.
Pathology
null
fa555b6d-cb51-41d9-9c22-68c3e59dbccc
single
Tests for detection of heavy metal:
A i.e. Harrison Gilroy test; B i.e. Atomic absorption Spectroscopy; C i.e. Neutron activation analysis
4
Harrison's Gilroy test.
Atomic absorption spectroscopy
Neutron activation analysis
All
Forensic Medicine
null
ddf0d559-9f75-4c46-af70-9eb9e80211b5
multi
Antitschkow cells in acute rheumatic fever are derived from -
Ans, is 'c' i.e., Macrophages Antitschkow cellso Antitschkow cells are modified macrophages with abundant cytoplasm and central round to ovoid nuclei in which the chromatin is disposed in the central, slender wavy ribbon like pattern-caterpillar cells.
3
Lymphocytes
Histiocytes
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Pathology
Rheumatic Fever
323f2f85-ef0d-47bf-af74-7188bad088d8
single
All are motile, EXCEPT:
C perfringens is a large, Gram-positive, nonmotile rod with square ends. Hemolysis and gas production are characteristic. In broth containing fermentable carbohydrate, growth of C perfringens is accompanied by the production of large amounts of hydrogen and carbon dioxide gas, which can also be produced in necrotic tissues; hence the term gas gangrene. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 29. Clostridium, Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides, and Other Anaerobes. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
3
Cl.histolyticum
Cl.tetanosporum
Cl.perfringens
Cl.septicum
Microbiology
null
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multi
Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria in children?
CHLOROQUINE It is a rapidly acting erythrocytic schizontocide against all species of plasmodia; controls most clinical attacks in 1-2 days with disappearance of parasites from peripheral blood in 1-3 days. Therapeutic plasma concentrations are in the range of 15-30 ng/ml. However, it has no effect on pre- and exo-erythrocytic phases of the parasite-does not prevent relapses in vivax and ovale malaria. Resistance in P. falciparum is associated with a decreased ability of the parasite to accumulate chloroquine. Veraparnil, a Ca2+ channel blocker, has been found to restore both the chloroquine concentrating ability as well as sensitivity to this drug. For pediatric patients, the treatment options are the same as for adults except the drug dose is adjusted by patient weight. The pediatric dose should never exceed the recommended adult dose. Pediatric dosing may be difficult due to unavailability of non-capsule forms of quinine. If unable to provide pediatric doses of quinine, consider one of the other three options. If using a quinine-based regimen for children less than eight years old, doxycycline and tetracycline are generally not indicated; therefore, quinine can be given alone for a full 7 days regardless of where the infection was acquired or given in combination with clindamycin as recommended above. In rare instances, doxycycline or tetracycline can be used in combination with quinine in children less than 8 years old if other treatment options are not available or are not tolerated, and the benefit of adding doxycycline or tetracycline is judged to outweigh the risk. If infections initially attributed to "species not identified" are subsequently diagnosed as being due to P. vivax or P. ovale, additional treatment with primaquine should be administered. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY, www.cdc.gov/malaria/diagnosis_treatment K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:785
4
Chloroquine
Doxycycline
Tetracycline
Clindamycin
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
Schiller duval bodies are seen in:
Ref: Dutta Textbook of Gynecology 5th edition pg.368 Explanation: Schiller duval bodies are characteristic histological feature of endodermal sinus tumour. They are tuft of vascular tissue inside cystic spaces lined by flattened epithelium. ENDODERMAL SINUS TUMOUR aka Yolk Sac Tumour Originate from multipotential embryonal tissue as a result of selective differentiation of yolk sac structures Peak - 15 to 20 years of age Second most common malignant germ cell tumour of ovary Unilateral, solid, >10 cms diameter Micro-schiller duval bodies, eosinophilic hyaline bodies containing alphaprotein Associated with dysgerminoma Treatment- surgical staging and unilateral salpingo oopherectomy Combination chemotherapy - POMB-ACE regimen (cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, bleomycin, actinomycin D, cisplatin, etoposide) VAC regimen, VBP regimen Tumor marker- alphafetoprotein >20 microgm/ml. Elevated alpha 1 antitrypsin Respond well to chemotherapy and good survival rate
1
Endodermal sinus tumour
Embryonal carcinoma
Dermoid cyst
Brenner tumour
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Pathology (Carcinoma Ovary)
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single
All of the following are findings of patients with schizophrenia except
Studies using CT have consistently shown that the brains of patients with schizophrenia have lateral and third ventricular enlargement and some degree of reduction in coical volume. Disorders of smooth visual pursuit and the disinhibition of saccadic eye movements are commonly seen in patients with schizophrenia. Electroencephalographic studies of patients with schizophrenia indicate that a high number have abnormal records, increased sensitivity to activation procedures, decreased a-activity, and increased 7- and 8-activity. No studies have shown impaired cerebellar functioning.
4
Lateral and third ventricle enlargement
Deficits in smooth-pursuit eye movements
Increased incidence of abnormally slow electroencephalogram tracings
Cerebellar dysfunction
Psychiatry
null
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multi
A dead body with suspected poisoning is having hypostasis of red-brown or deep blue in color. It is suggestive of poisoning due to -
Reddish brown or chocolate colored or deep blue hypostasis is suggestive of poisoning due to nitrates, nitrites, nitrobenzene, due to the formation of methemoglobin.
1
Nitrates
Carbon monoxide
Cyanides
Barbiturates
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
A Doctor is taking history from a Diabetes patient and decides to make a cha to assess joint involvement/ which cha should
A tree diagram is simply a way of representing a sequence of events along with their probabilities In the given question, Branches can indicate different joints involvement in the case of Diabetes: Fuher branches can indicate if test conducted was positive or not It can fuher help in Decision making for treatment joint wise and overall
4
Pie cha
Venn diagram
Histogram
Tree diagram
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostats
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single
A 2-day-old newborn male is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit with cyanosis and tachypnea. Cardiac ultrasound and MRI examinations reveal totally anomalous pulmonary connections. Which of the following embryologic events is responsible for this malformation?
The right horn of the sinus venosus has two divisions: One develops into the sinus venarum, the smooth interior aspect of the right atrial wall; the other half develops into the pulmonary veins. Abnormal septation of the sinus venosus can lead to inappropriate pulmonary connections. Abnormal development of the left sinus horn would present with abnormalities in the coronary sinus, whereas incorrect development of the septum secundum can result in an atrial septal defect but would not be involved with anomalous pulmonary veins. The left sinual horn develops into the coronary sinus, and the right sinual horn is incorporated into the right atrial wall.
1
Abnormal septation of the sinus venosus
Abnormal development of the septum secundum
Abnormal development of the left sinus horn
Abnormal development of the coronary sinus
Anatomy
Thorax
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Energy expenditure in resting state depends on
Both basal metabolic rate and resting metabolic rate are usually expressed in terms of daily rates of energy expenditure. The early work of the scientists J. Ahur Harris and Francis G. Benedict showed that approximate values could be derived using body surface area (computed from height and weight), age, and sex, along with the oxygen and carbon dioxide measures taken from calorimetry. Studies also showed that by eliminating the sex differences that occur with the accumulation of adipose tissue by expressing metabolic rate per unit of "fat-free" or lean body mass, the values between sexes for basal metabolism are essentially the same. The Katch-McArdle Formula (BMR) , where LBM is the lean body mass in kg. The Cunningham Formula (RMR): , where LBM is the lean body mass in kgRef: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-489
1
Lean body mass
Adipose tissue
Resting hea rate
Exercise
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
Which of the following generated heat by disconnecting electron transport from phosphorylation?
Dinitrophenol is an uncoupling agent, that disconnects electron transport from phosphorylation and generates lot of heat at the cost of ATP. Other options are inhibitors of electron transport chain.
3
Pericidin A
Rotenone
Dinitrophenol
Dimercaprol
Biochemistry
null
ec78bda3-6a66-49ca-b53b-cea3770c98a0
multi
Normal pressure Hydrocephalus is characterized by all except:
Answer is A (Aphasia): Ataxia, Urinary incontinence & Dementia constitute the characteristic triad of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus.
1
Aphasia
Dementia
Ataxia
Urinary incontinence
Medicine
null
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multi
Earliest fetal anomaly that can be diagnosed with USG: September 2009
Ans. D: Anencephaly Many structural abnormalities in the fetus can be reliably diagnosed by an ultrasound scan, and these can usually be made before 20 weeks. Common examples include hydrocephalus, anencephaly, myelomeningocoele, achondroplasia and other dwarfism, spina bifida, exomphalos, Gastroschisis, duodenal atresia and fetal hydrops. First trimester ultrasonic 'soft' markers for chromosomal abnormalities such as the absence of fetal nasal bone, an increased fetal nuchal translucency (the area at the back of the neck) are now in common use to enable detection of Down syndrome fetuses. Ultrasound can also assist in other diagnostic procedures in prenatal diagnosis such as amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, cordocentesis (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling) and in fetal therapy.
4
Duodenal atresia
Fetal hydrops
Down's syndrome
Anencephaly
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Resistance to acyclovir is most commonly due to mutation in a viral gene that encodes a protein that :
null
2
Converts viral RNA into DNA
Phosphorylates acyclovir
Transports acyclovir into the cell
Transports acyclovir out of the cell
Pharmacology
null
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single
Blow out fracture of orbit commonly involves:-
Blow out fracture of orbit Floor is involved first M.C fracture of orbit Force of blow cause a rise in intraorbital pressure with resultant fracture at the weakest point of orbital wall which is floor. THOUGH medial wall is thinnest but it is suppoed by ethmoid air cells which absorb pressure , thus it is not the most commonly fractured wall. Entrapment of inferior rectus in inferior wall fracture = not able to look up Features 1. Enophthalmous 2. Diplopia 3. Infra orbital nerve anesthesia
1
Floor is involved first
Medial wall is involved first as it is the thinnest
The patient is not able to look up due to superior rectus palsy
Roof is involved first as it bears the maximum impact
Ophthalmology
Trauma
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multi
What is caused by Candida albicans
Candidiasis:- * C. albicans common inhabitant of skin, GU and GI tract * Oppounistic organism, can become pathogen in skin, nails and mucous membranes Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:- 233 * Frequently infects interiginous areas.
4
Moniliasis
Perleche
Paronychia
All of the above
Dental
Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis
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multi
Gottron papules' seen in dermatomyositis all are true except
Gottrons papules are violaceous papules on bony prominences of hands , elbows, knees and feet. present in 1/3of patients. gottrons sign presence of symmetric violaceous or erythematous macules in same distribution as that of gottrons papules. IADVL textbook of dermatology page 1248
3
seen on knuckles
Violaceous papules
Bullous lesions
Seen in 1/3 of patients
Dental
Autoimmune skin disorders
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multi
Site of absorption of Vitamin B12:
Ans. A. Ileum(Ref: Harper 31/e page 533-540)Site of absorption of Iron--Proximal DuodenumSite of absorption of Folic acid--Proximal jejunumSite of absorption of Cobalamin--Ileum
1
Ileum
Jejunum
Duodenum
Stomach
Biochemistry
Nutrition & Digestion
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single
Persistant vomiting most likely causes-
Metabolic alkalosis occurs as a result of loss of nonvolatile acid HCl while vomiting( from the extracellular fluid.
2
Hyperkalemia
Acidic urine excretion
Hypochloraemia
Hyperventilation.
Medicine
Fluid and electrolytes
91d4bc94-b0b1-4908-81da-3e6575e884a1
single
Hangover following alcohol consumption can be treated with -
Ans. is 4b' i.e., Thiamine o Thiamine helps prevent the buildup of glutarate in the brain, which may be associated with part of the headache associated with hangover.
2
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
Psychiatry
Alcohol-Related Disorders
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single
Graft from sister to brother is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Allograft
2
Isograft
Allograft
Autograft
Heterograft
Surgery
null
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multi
The maximum number of death in children occur in following age group -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., First 7 days
3
2-5 years
1-2 years
first 7 days
6 months - 12 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
dc57adaf-656f-4940-85ac-291db92bf34b
single
The following statements regarding halothane are true except:
Halothane is a volatile, non-irritant and non-inflammable liquid. It has relatively low blood-gas partition coefficient hence induction is rapid and pleasant. It has myocardial depressant action that reduces the cardiac output. It also blunts the baroreceptor reflexes. Hence it produces hypotension. It does not cause laryngospasm, bronchospasm, coughing, but may produce bronchodilation due to a direct action on the bronchial smooth muscles hence is preferred in patients with bronchial asthma. It can increase cerebral blood flow and CSF pressure hence is contraindicated in patients with intracranial lesions.
4
It is contraindicated in patients with intracranial lesions.
It can cause hyportension.
It allows smooth and rapid loss of unconsciousness.
It is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma.
Pharmacology
null
e7e2e3ae-24ab-41a3-8deb-385050365925
multi
All of the following statements regarding systemic sclerosis are TRUE, EXCEPT:
Patients with systemic sclerosis: Have increased serum antibodies to human cytomegalovirus (hCMV) Evidence of human parvovirus B19 infection is seen It is more in miners exposed to silica. It is more in polyvinyl chloride, epoxy resins, and aromatic hydrocarbons including toluene and trichloroethylene exposures. Bleomycin, pentazocine and cocaine are implicated with systemic sclerosis Women with silicone breast implants-more risk Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome (EMS) have marked eosinophilia, severe myalgia and scleroderma-like chronic skin lesions. It is linked to the consumption of L-tryptophan used as dietary supplements. It is not a subtype of systemic sclerosis. Similar features also seen with toxic oil syndrome. Ref: Harrison,E-18,P- 2758.
2
Increased serum antibodies to human cytomegalovirus are seen
Eosinophilia myalgia syndrome is a subtype of systemic sclerosis
The incidence of SSc is increased among miners exposed to silica
Bleomycin, pentazocine and cocaine may produce systemic sclerosis like illness
Medicine
null
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multi
Number of oocytes at bih ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2 million In humans, no new ova are formed after bih. During fetal development, the ovaries contain over 7 million primordial follicles. However,-many undergo atresia (involution) before bih and others are lost after bih. At the time of bih, there are 2 million ova, but 50% of these are atretic. The million that are normal undergo the first pa of the first meiotic division at about this time and enter a stage of arrest in prophase in which those that survive persist until adulthood. Atresia continues during development, and the number of ova in both of the ovaries at the time of pubey is less than 300,000.
1
2 million
6 million
5 million
10 million
Physiology
null
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single
Joint erosions are typically absent in:`
Ahritis seen in SLE is Non-erosive ahritis (without deformity).
2
Rheumatoid ahritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Psoriatic ahritis
Osteoahritis
Pediatrics
Primary Immunodeficiency
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multi
True about thermal burn injury:
Ans is D (Zone of stasis is associated with vascular damage) Pathophysiology of Burns Burn causes coagulative necrosis of the epidermis and underlying tissues, with the depth depending on the temperature to which the skin is exposed and the duration of exposure. The area of cutaneous injury has been divided into three zones: zone of coagulation, zone of stasis, and zone of hyperemia Zone of coagulation: The volume injured most severely, in the center of the wound, is the zone of coagulation. This is the area of necrosis where the cells have been disrupted. The tissue is irreversibly damaged at the time of injury. Zone of stasis: Outside the zone of coagulation is the zone of stasis. The zone of stasis is ischemic but potentially salvageable. Depending on the wound environment, can either survive or progress to coagulative necrosis. The zone of stasis is associated with vascular damage and vessel leakage.. Zone of hyperaemia: Beyond the zone of stasis lies the zone of hyperaemia This area is characterized by minimal cell injury but with vasodilatation due to neighboring inflammation-induced mediators. This region contains clearly ble tissue from which the healing process begins and is generally not at risk for fuher necrosis. In practice, attentive wound care and careful fluid resuscitation may salvage the zone of stasis and prevent a superficial injury from becoming full thickness
4
Zone of stasis is the innermost layer
Zone of hyperaemia is the middle layer
Zone of coagulation is the outermost layer
Zone of stasis is associated with vascular damage
Surgery
null
ff45abe5-609e-4792-82e2-1cb77d8edfb4
multi
35 yr old female with ptosis & proximal muscle weakness. Test to be done for diagnosis - (REPEATED)
Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17t edition. *Single fibre electromyography ,blocking and jitter ,with normal fiber density,confirmatory.
4
none
Muscle biopsy
CPK level
EMG
Medicine
C.N.S
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multi
Which among the following is false regarding the need of chest radiograph in a patient of the acute abdomen –
For the acute abdomen, chest X-ray is essential because:- For small pneumoperitoneum, chest x-ray in an upright position (erect) is best. A number of chest conditions may present as an acute abdominal pain (e.g. lower lobe pneumonia, MI). The acute abdominal condition may be complicated by chest pathology, e.g. pleural effusion frequently complicates acute pancreatitis. Even when chest radiograph is normal it acts as a valuable baseline.
1
Supine chest radiograph is the best radiograph for showing presence of a small pnetunoperitoneum
A number of chest conditions can present as acute abdominal condition
Acute abdominal condition may be complicated by the chest pathology
Even when the chest radiograph is normal it acts as a most valuable baseline
Radiology
null
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multi
Hepatitis E is mostly transmitted through:
Feco oral route
2
Skin
Feco oral route
Blood
Sexual route
Microbiology
null
fe7900d9-c811-49d1-b06b-c52de3a658db
single
Which of the following is false about dumping syndrome
Dumping syndrome patients come with cardiovascular and gastrointestinal symptoms like palpitation, sweating, weakness, abdominal bloating, cramps and vomiting Patient should be advised low carbohydrates and sugar and high fats and protein diet. Somatostatin analogues are used as treatment
4
Patients may have cardiovascular symptoms
Low carbohydrate and high protein diet must be taken
Fluids should be taken in between meals
Supplementation of pectin will increase symptoms
Surgery
null
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multi
Which of the following drug is used for mass prophylaxis for prevention of meningococcal meningitis
Rifampicin was used formerly but now Ciprofloxacin is the preferred drug for mass prophylaxis for prevention of meningococcal meningitis.
1
Ciprofloxacin
Rifampicin
Ceftriaxone
Minocycline
Pharmacology
null
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single
Overall optimum degree of taper of tooth preparation for maxillary anterior tooth is:
For anterior preparations, 10 degree taper is recommended. For cast preparations, 6 degree taper is optimum. Ref: Stephen Rosenstiel, Martin Land, and Junhei Fujimoto, Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics 5th Edition
2
6 degrees
10 degrees
14 degrees
19 degrees
Dental
null
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multi
Most accurate and safest method to diagnose viable pregnancy at 6 weeks:(AIIMS May 2015, Nov 2014, May 2013)
Ans. b. USG for fetal cardiac activity (Ref: Dutta 6/e p68)Most accurate and safest method to diagnose viable pregnancy at 6 weeks is USG for fetal cardiac activity.Doppler is most sensitive but not safe in early pregnancy.Earliest diagnosis of pregnancy can he established safely by ultrasound for the fetal cardiac activity."An intrauterine gestational sac is reliably visualized with transvaginal sonography by 5 weeks, and an embryo with cardiac activity by 6 weeks. The embryo should be visible transvaginally once the mean sac diameter has reached 20 mm-- otherwise the gestation is anembryonic. Cardiac motion is usually visible with transvaginal imaging when the embryo length has reached 5 mm. If an embryo less than 7 mm is not identified to have cardiac activity, a subsequent examination is recommended in 1 week (American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine, 2013a). "--Williams Obstetrics 24/e p196Most accurate and safest method to diagnose viable pregnancy at 6 weeks is USG for fetal cardiac activity.USG for fetal cardiac activity: At 6 weeks it is routine to detect fetal cardiac activity by ultrasound (and Doppler is not indicated).Doppler is most sensitive but not safe in early pregnancyDoppler examination of fetal vessels in early pregnancy should not be performed without a clinical indication- Ultrasound Obstet Gynecol 2011; 37:625-628Week 6 - Gestational Age (Fetal age 4 weeks)5 1/2 to 6 1/2 weeks is usually a very good time to detect either a fetal pole or even a fetal heart-beat by vaginal ultrasound.The fetal pole is the first visible sign of a developing embryo.The fetal pole now allows for crown to rump measurements (CRL) to be taken, so that pregnancy dating can be a bit more accurate.The fetal pole may be seen at a crown-rump length (CRL) of 2-4 mm, and the heartbeat may be seen as a regular flutter when the CRL has reached 5 mm.If a vaginal ultrasound is done and no fetal pole or cardiac activity is seen, another ultrasound scan should be done in 3-7 days.Human Chorionic GonadotrophinhCG is a glycoproteinIt consists of a hormone non-specific a and a hormone specific P subunitQ.It is chemically and functionally similar to pituitary luteinizing hormoneThe a subunit is biochemically similar to LH, FSH and TSH whereas B subunit is relatively unique to hCGHave highest carbohydrate content (30%) of any human hormoneFunctions of Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin* Rescue and maintenance of corpus luteum till 6 weeks of pregnancyQ* Stimulates both adrenal and placental steroidogenesisQ* Stimulates maternal thyroidQ because of its thyrotrophic activity* Immunosuppressive activityQ which may inhibit the matemal process of immunorejection of the fetus as the homograft* Stimulates Leydig cells of the male fetusQ to* produce testosterone in conjunction with fetal pituitary gonadotrophinsLevels of hCG:Production by syncytiotrophoblastQHalf life=24 hours. Doubling time=48 hours (2 days)QBy radio immunoassay detected in maternal serum or urine as early as 8-9 days following ovulationQ.Maximum blood and urine level 100-200 lU/ml between 60-70 days of pregnancyQDisappears from circulation within 2 weeks following deliveryQHigh levels of hCG is detected in* Multiple pregnancyQ* Hydatidiform mole or ChoriocarcinomaQ* Down's syndromeQ* Erythroblastosis fetalisQ resulting from maternal D-Ag isoimmunizationhCG is decreased in ectopic pregnancy and impending spontaneous abortion.
2
Doppler for fetal cardiac activity
USG for fetal cardiac activity
Urinary Beta-hCG determination
PV examination to check uterus size of 6 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
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single
Ratio of Sodium : Glucose in WHO Reduced Osmolarity ORS is
null
2
1:04
1:01
1:03
1:02
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3f9899f9-9355-4255-b78f-bdc79d7d98a2
single
A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be:
The clinical picture is suggestive of soft sore (chancroid) caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chocolate agar with IsoVitaleX is used for its culture. Other culture media: Thayer Main Medium - Gonococci Blood agar with X & V factors - Haemophilus influenzae Tellurite blood agar - Corynbacterium diphtheriae Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
3
Thayer Main Medium
Blood agar with X & V factors
Chocolate agar with IsoVitaleX
Teilurite blood agar
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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single
Anakinra is a ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-1 antagonist Anakinra is an IL-1 antagonist. It is used for some rare syndromes dependent on IL-1 production : Neonatal - onset inflammatory disease Muckle - Wells syndrome Familial cold uicaria Systemic juvenile - onset inflammatory ahritis RA
1
IL - 1 antagonist
IL - 2 antagonist
IL - 6 antagonist
IL - 10 antagonist
Pharmacology
null
c6768a86-a55f-449f-948f-2fd6090235bb
single
Which of the following is produced sexually?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ascospore(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 601)* Sexual spores: Oospore, Zygospore, Ascospore, Basidiospore (Memory Aid - BOZA).* Asexual spores (Conidia): Sporangiospore, Arthrospore, Blastospore, Chlamydospore (CABS).
1
Ascospore
Conidium
Blastoconidia
Yeast buds
Microbiology
Mycology
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multi
From ART drugs which acts through inhibition of integrase activity of virus -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Raltegravir New drugs in HIV infectiono Etravirine is recently approved NNRTI. This is second generation NNRTI and is effective against HIV resistant to first generation NNRTI (Efavirenz, Delaviridine. Nevirapine).Fusion inhibitors (Entry inhibitors)o Enfluvtritide binds to Gp41 subunit of HIV envelop protein and inhibits the fusion of viral and host cell membrane.o Maraviroc is a CCR5 Co-receptor antagonist and is only active against "CCR - 5 - tropic virus" which tends to predominate early in infection.Integrase inhibitorso Raltegravir and Elvitegravir act by inhibiting enzyme integrase.
1
Raltegravir
Tiprinavir
Enfuvirtide
Etravirine
Pharmacology
Anti-Viral
db58437b-393a-4435-959b-0946c7a9e597
single
What type of fracture of petrous temporal bone has got the highest chance of facial nerve paralysis?
B i.e. Transverse
2
Longitudinal
Transverse
Oblique
All have equal incidence
Surgery
null
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multi
A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows a large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anomaly is :
null
2
Dilaceration
Fusion
Gemination
Concrescence
Pathology
null
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single
A 71-year-old man is evaluated in the ER for a recent finding of high ESR in a routine blood test. He has history of hypertension, well controlled with metoprolol. His physical examination is completely normal. His laboratory workup reveals hemoglobin 12.6 gm/dL, leukocyte count 8500/mL, and platelet 265,000/mL. Total protein 6.2 g/dL, albumin 3.4 g/dL, BUN 16 mg/dL, creatinine 0.75 mg/dL, and calcium 9.2 mg/dL. Serum protein electrophoresis reveals a sharp, narrow spike, serum immunofixation reveals M-protein 1.2 gm/dL, bone marrow examination reveals less than 10% of monoclonal plasma cells. A skeletal survey is negative for any lytic lesions.
Multiple myeloma would best explain this patient's presentation. The onset of myeloma is often insidious. Pain caused by bone involvement, anemia, renal insufficiency, and bacterial pneumonia often follow. This patient presented with fatigue and bone pain, then developed bacterial pneumonia probably secondary to Streptococcus pneumoniae, an encapsulated organism for which antibody to the polysaccharide capsule is not adequately produced by the myeloma patient. There is also evidence for renal insufficiency. Hypercalcemia is frequently seen in patients with multiple myeloma and may be life-threatening. Definitive diagnosis of multiple myeloma is made by demonstrating greater than 30% plasma cells in the bone marrow. Seventy-five percent of patients with myeloma will have a monoclonal M spike on serum protein electrophoresis, but 25% will produce primarily Bence-Jones proteins, which, because of their small size, do not accumulate in the serum but are excreted in the urine. Urine protein electrophoresis will identify these patients. Approximately 1% of patients with myeloma will present with a non-secretory myeloma. Patients with non-secretory myeloma have no M-protein on serum/urine electrophoresis and immunofixation; the diagnosis can be made only with bone marrow biopsy. The bone scan in myeloma is usually negative. The radionuclide is taken up by osteoblasts, and myeloma is usually a purely osteolytic process. Renal biopsy might show monoclonal protein deposition in the kidney or intratubular casts but would not be the first diagnostic procedure. Rouleaux formation in peripheral smear is a characteristic finding of myeloma, although it is neither sensitive nor specific.Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia may cause hyper-viscosity syndrome with CNS manifestations including headache, blurring of vision, dizziness, nystagmus, ataxic gait, drowsiness, or even coma. Peripheral neuropathy, coagulopathy, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and nonspecific constitutional symptoms are often present. An unusual gap between serum total protein and albumin indicates hyperglobulinemia, and a monoclonal IgM spike on serum protein electrophoresis helps establish an initial diagnosis. Bone marrow biopsy revealing more than 10% of lymphoid and plasmacytoid cells confirms the diagnosis. Unlike multiple myeloma, bony lesions are uncommon in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, whereas lymphadenopathy and organomegaly are uncommon in myeloma.Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) is a premalignant plasma cell disorder which is often suspected and detected incidentally from routine blood workup. The patients are asymptomatic with no end-organ damage such as renal failure, hypercalcemia, anemia, or lytic bone lesion. The serum electrophoresis reveals an M spike but the amount of M-protein on immunofixation is usually less than 3 gm/dL and bone marrow contains less than 10% of monoclonal plasma cells. Monitoring of patients is important since MGUS can progress to multiple myeloma over a period of time. It is recommended to get the first evaluation 6 months after initial diagnosis followed by annual or biannual checkup.
3
Multiple myeloma
Smoldering multiple myeloma
Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
Medicine
Oncology
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single
The measures to prevent veical transmission of HIV are all, EXCEPT:
For prevention of mother-to-child transmission of HIV infection, the following is advocated: 1) Antenatal antiretroviral therapy (HAA), to be staed once positive status is confirmed irrespective CD4 counts or clinical stage of disease 2) Nevirapine during labor (if the patient is not on HAA) 3) Minimal interventions, avoid ARM, instrumental delivery, repeated PV examinations 4) Avoiding breast feeding reduces incidence of veical transmission. Although in developed countries exclusive breast feeding is preferred. Second best option is Exclusive replacement feeding. But mixed feeding is absolutely contraindicated 5) Vitamin A supplementation to mother has been found to decrease the veical transmission in few studies 6) LSCS is to be done ONLY for obstetric indications. Although it is reasonable to perform an elective LSCS if viral copies is >1000/mL 7) Nevirapine prophylaxis to newborn irrespective of type of feeding
1
Vaginal delivery
Administration of vitamin A
Stop breast feeding
Treatment with zidovudine
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
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multi
A person 'X' hits another person 'y' with a wooden stick on provocation. This leads to formation of a bruise 3cm x 3 on the forearm. No other injuries are noted. Which of the following is true, regarding his punishment -
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology;Dr k.s narayan reddy; 28th edition; pg.no. 155 ; It is voluntary cause of hu ,so under S.323,I.P.C.imprisonment up to one year or with fine or both .
1
Imprisonment for one year and\/or fine of Rs. 1000
Imprisonment for two year and\/or fine of Rs. 5000
Imprisonment for 1 month and \/or fine of Rs. 500
Rigrous imprisonment for six months
Forensic Medicine
Mechanical injuries
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multi
The Prevalence of the following with its degree may correlate with Disease activity in SLE
(B) Lymphopenia # Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) It is characterized by elevated reticulocyte counts, low haptoglobin levels, increased indirect bilirubin concentration and a positive direct Coombs' test. It has been noted in up to 10% of patients with SLE. Presence of hemolytic anemia may associate with manifestations of severe disease such as renal disease, seizures and serositis. Presence of both immunoglobulin and complements on red blood cells is usually associated with some degree of hemolysis, while presence of complements alone (C3 and /or C4) is often not associated with hemolysis AIHA responds to steroids (1 mg/kg per day prednisone or its equivalent in divided doses) in 75 to 96% of patients. Once the hematocrit begins to rise and the reticulocyte count falls, steroids can be rapidly tapered.SLICC CLASSIFICATION CRITERIA FOR SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUSRequirements: > criteria (at least 1 clinical and 1 laboratory criteria. Or Biopsy-proven lupus nephritis with positive ANA or Anti-DNAClinical CriteriaImmunologic Criteria* Acute Cutaneous Lupus* ANA* Chronic cutaneous Lupus* Anti-DNA* Oral or nasal ulcers* Ant-Sm* Non-Scarring alopecia* Antiphospholipid Ab* Arthritis* Low complement (C3, C4, CH50)* Serositis* Direct Coomb's test* Renal * Neurologic* Hemolytic anemia* Leukopenia* Thrombocytopenia (<100,000/mm3)> Leucopenia It is a typical feature of SLE which may occur as a result of lymphopenia, neutropenia or a combination of both. Prevalence of lymphopenia in SLE ranges from 20 to 81% and its degree may correlate with disease activity. Both T and B lymphocytes are reduced, while natural killer cells are typically increased. Reduced surface expression of complement regulatory proteins CD55 and CD59 has been found in leucopenic patients with SLE. Deficiency of these proteins may make these cells susceptible to complement-mediated lysis. There is increasing evidence that endogenous production of type 1 interferons (IFNs) is implicated in the pathogenesis of neutropenia and lymphopenia in SLE. Elevated serum levels of IFN-a in SLE correlate inversely with leucocyte numbers# Neutropenia It is a common feature of SLE, with a prevalence rate of 47%, it may be mediated by anti-neutrophil antibodies. Increased levels of TNF-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL) in SLE and may contribute to Neutropenia (through excessive neutrophil apoptosis mediated neutropenia).# Thrombocytopenia It has a reported prevalence ranging from 7 to 30% in large series of patients with SLE. Increased peripheral destruction of platelets and presence of anti-platelet antibodies, is the most likely pathogenic mechanism. Thrombocytopenia is an independent risk factor for increased mortality in SLE.
2
Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
Lymphopenia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
Which one of the following is primary prevention:
Suppo
2
Active treatment
Suppo
Both of the above
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
f394557e-d443-4911-a3d2-d3aac893e980
multi
30 year male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with:
Answer is B (Anti-endomysial antibody): Presence of chronic diarrhea, anemia and elevated liver enzymes is consistent with a diagnosis of Coeliac disease. Antiendomysial antibodies are highly sensitive and specific for diagnosis of celiac disease and the single best answer of choice amongst the options provided.
2
Antimitochondrial antibody
Anti-endomysial antibody
Anti-smooth muscle antibody
Antinuclear antibody
Medicine
null
f82492fc-0ae8-464b-996c-8865af31cd75
single
All of the following lesions may be classified as odontogenic tumours EXCEPT
null
2
Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
Branchial cleft cyst
Myxoma
Simple ameloblastoma
Pathology
null
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multi
On voluntary admission, the maximum number of days a person can be admitted as per mental health care act is:
null
2
48 hours
30 days
60 days
90 days
Forensic Medicine
NEET Jan 2020
69e26b65-302a-43d5-a764-fe72bd7d8bc7
single
True about Ca vulva associated/predisposed by 7 True about Ca vulva associate
Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Paget's disease; Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia; and Bowen's disease Premalignant lesion of vulva : Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia VIN (most common. Paget's disease - Chronic vulvar dystrophies Condyloma accuminata. Bowen's disease is a type of VIN when among the ordinary atypical cells. large bloated cells called Bowen cells are also present.
4
Paget's disease
Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia
Bowen's disease
All
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
6f9c3027-6a25-433a-896e-a9b5333aaadc
multi
Bajaj committee in 1986 proposed
Bajaj Committee, 1986An "Expe Committee for Health Manpower Planning, Production and Management" was constituted in 1985 under Dr J.S. Bajaj, the then professor at AIIMS. Major recommendations are :Formulation of National Medical & Health Education Policy.Formulation of National Health Manpower Policy.Establishment of an Educational Commission for Health Sciences (ECHS) on the lines of UGC.Establishment of Health Science Universities in various states and union territories.Establishment of health manpower cells at centre and in the states.Vocationalisation of education at 10+2 levels as regards health-related fields with appropriate incentives, so that good quality paramedical personnel may be available in adequate numbers.Carrying out a realistic health manpower survey.
2
Multipurpose health worker
Manpower and planning
Rural health service
Integrated health services
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health education & planning
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single