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GLUT-5 is tra nsporter for -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fructose o GLUT-5 is a transporter for fructose. FunctionMajor sites of expressionSecondary active transport(Na+-glucose cotransport) o SGLT1Absorption of glucoseSmall intestine, renal tubuleso SGLT 2QAbsorption of glucoseRenal tubules QFacilitated diffusionoGLUT1Basal glucose uptakePlacenta, Blood-brain barrier, brain. RBC,Kidney, colono GLUT 2 B-cell glucose sensor Q,Transport out of intestinal and renal epithelial cellsB cells of islets, liver, epithelial cells of small intestine & Kidneyo GLUT 3Basal glucose uptakeBrain, Placenta, Kidneyo GLLT4 QInsulin-stimulating glucose uptake QSkeletal and cardiac muscle Q,Adipose tissueo GLUT 5 QFructose transport QJejunum, spermo GLUT6NonePseudogeneoGLUT7G-6-P transporter in ERLiver
2
Glucose
Fructose
Mannose
Galactose
Biochemistry
Chemistry of Carbohydrates, Amino sugars, and Mucopolysaccharides
ff07ae5b-c4aa-4894-a0c0-e0fa73d473ff
single
Which of the following statements about the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances ACT (NDPS ) is true:
B i.e. Recommends treatment/ rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers Alcohol is not included in NDPS Act, which regulates and prohibits all activities (from cultivation to consumption) of narcotic drugs & psychotropic substances except for medicinal & scientific purpose. An amendment has diluted & made the punishment less severe for drug offendersQ. It provides identification, treatment & rehabilitation of drug addicts.
2
Provides severe punishment for drug users and drug peddlers alike
Recommends treatment / rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers
Recommends treatment / rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers
Farmers growing opium are permitted to grow and consume unlimited amounts of opium
Forensic Medicine
null
ff9f0fb7-ff7a-4c45-9cf2-ded152c42369
multi
Which of the following is the donor of ADP-ribose for ADP-ribosylation reactions?
ADP-ribosylation One of the histone post-translational modifications. NAD+ acts as the source of ADP-ribose. Eg : Mechanism of action of cholera toxin, diphtheria toxin and ricin
3
Adenosine triphosphate
Adenosine monophosphate
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Flavin mononucleotide
Biochemistry
Translation
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single
Natural killer cell is:
Ans. c. Null cells
3
MHC restricted
Antibody dependent
Null cells
B-lymphocytes
Microbiology
null
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single
Hypersplenism is associated with-
null
1
Pancytopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia
Polycythemia
Surgery
null
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What is the effect of 1-2 MAC dose of volatile anaesthetic agents on EEG waveforms-
EEGs recorded on the scalp can be processed to quantify the amount of activity in each of four frequency bands: Delta (o to 3hz), Theta (4 to 7 Hz) alpha (8 to 13 Hz), Beta (> 13 Hz) Between 1-2 MAC shift is towards decreased frequency. b-a-th-S
1
b-a-th-S
S-th-a-b
b -th-S- a
a - th-S- b
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
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single
Claustrophobia means
Claustrophobia refers to irrational fear of closed spaces.
3
Fear of heights
Fear of lizards
Fear of closed spaces
Fear of open spaces
Psychiatry
null
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single
Which of the following is not an injectable molded ceramic:
Dicor is castable ceramic.
3
IPS Empress.
IPS Empress 2.
Dicor.
None.
Dental
null
2c0b52d5-b74a-4e8d-9c7f-5d9634adf7c2
multi
Which of the following actions are caused by 2-4-diinitrophenol?
2,4-dinitrophenol and valinomycin are two uncouplers which inhibit oxidative phosphorylation. 2,4-dinitrophenol is a potent uncoupler even in low concentrations by dissolving itself in the bi-lipid core of the inner cell membrane. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th/107; Biochemistry 3E By S C Rastogi, 2010, Page 224.
3
Inhibition of ATP synthase
Inhibition of electron transpo
Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation
Accumulation of ATP
Biochemistry
null
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single
Most common delusions seen in schizophrenia are
Delusions of persecution are most common delusions in schizophrenia Bizarre delusions may also be seen in schizophrenia Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 398
2
Delusions of erotomania
Delusions of persecution
Delusions of grandiosity
Delusions of infidelity
Psychiatry
Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders
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single
A women consumes several tablets of amitryptiline leading to poisoning. All of the following can be done except
D i.e. Atropine as antidote
4
Sodium bicarbonate infusion
Gastric lavage
Diazepam to control seizure
Atropine as antidote
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
In Jorgensen technique on IV sedation for dental procedure drugs used are
null
4
Pentobarbital
Mepiridine
Scopalamine
All the above
Surgery
null
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multi
What is true about antemortem wound?
Hemorrhage in the antemortem wound is arterial. Stain remains after wash (staining cannot be washed) in the antemortem wound. Gaping is seen and blood is clotted in the antemortem wound.
4
No staining left after washing
No gaping
Uncoagulated blood
Arterial bleed
Forensic Medicine
null
60b94a07-2d2a-4c34-9ff4-7e36a2afee5f
multi
In noise induced hearing loss , audiogram shows a Boiler's notch at ?
Noise induced hearing loss Boiler notch at 4000 HZ Max seen at 3000 - 6000 HZ Sterocilia of outer hair cells are 1st to be affected . Carha's notch - dip is present at 2000 HZ .(seen in otosclerosis)
4
1000 Hz
2000 Hz
3000 Hz
4000 Hz
ENT
Otosclerosis
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Chemoattractant is -
- the transmigration of leucocytes after crossing several barriers to reach the interstitial tissue is a chemotactic factor mediated process called chemotaxis. - C5a and C3a are anaphylatoxins and powerful chemoattractant. Reference : Harsh mohan text book of pathology, 7 th edition,Pg no:120 <\p>
1
C5a
C1
C3
C2
Microbiology
Immunology
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All of the following are increased in infants of hea disease patient except
Fetal effects in Cardiac disease complicating pregnancy Overall Perinatal moality is not greater than general population accounts for 45% Fetal Growth Restriction Preterm labor If mother has congenital hea disease fetus is at risk 50% have same anomaly as mother Reference: William's Obstetrics; 24th edition; chapter 49
4
Prematurity
IUGR
Increased incidence of cardiac disease
Neural tube defect
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
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Which premolar would be the most likely to have a single pulp horn?
Mandibular first premolar is most likely to have a single pulp horn
2
Maxillary first.
Mandibular first.
Mandibular second.
Maxillary second.
Dental
null
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single
A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. The prenatal course was significant for a positive group B Streptococcus culture performed at 35 weeks. Antenatal testing over the past 2 weeks has been unremarkable. The patient is staed on lactated Ringer's IV solution. Sterile vaginal examination shows that the patient's cervix is long, thick, and closeD. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed into the vagina, and electronic fetal hea rate monitoring is continueD. In approximately 60 minutes, the fetal hea rate falls to the 90s, as the tocodynamometer shows the uterus to be contracting every 1 minute with essentially no rest in between contractions. Which of the following was most likely the cause of the uterine hyper stimulation?
Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is widely used for labor induction. In simple terms, it is used "to soften" an unorable cervix, to make the cervix more orable for induction. It has been shown to lead to an improvement in the Bishop's score, a shoer duration of labor, and deliveries. PGE2 gel can also cause uterine contractions. One of the major side effects with PGE2 gel is uterine hyper stimulation. This occurs when uterine contractions come one right after the other, or when there is a tetanic contraction. In this setting, the fetus can become hypoxic with a resultant bradycardia. This patient had the gel placed and 60 minutes later had uterine hyperstimulation. Infection has not been shown to cause uterine hyperstimulation. This patient's group B Streptococcus colonization is likely noncontributory. IV fluids do not cause uterine hyperstimulation. Postdates pregnancy is the reason for this patient's induction and not likely the direct cause of her uterine hyperstimulation. Vaginal examination with a cervical examination can be used for fetal scalp stimulation-rubbing the baby's head to provoke an acceleration of the fetal hea rate. However, this does not usually provoke uterine hyperstimulation.
4
Infection
IV fluids
Postdates pregnancy
Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Basanti 23 years old pregnant woman (First trimester) presents with features of dilated cardiomyopathy. Which of the following drugs you will NOT give to treat her:
ACE inhibitors CONTRAINDICATION OF ACE INHIBITORS Bilateral renal aery stenosis, Single kidney, Pregnancy , Hyperkalemia
2
Digoxin
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics
Vasodilators
Surgery
null
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single
ABO blood groups inheritance is an example of -
. Co-dominance
4
Mitochondrial inheritance
Allelic exclusion
Sex-linked inheritance
Co-dominance
Pathology
null
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multi
A child presents with white lesion (depigmented macule ) of 2x 2 cm with irregular margin over forehead and glabella. There is white forelock over forehead since birth. Diagnosis is:
Ans. a. PiebaldismWhite forelocks are also seen associated with warden burg syndrome
1
Piebaldism
Dermatitis
Vitiligo
Nevus of Ito
Skin
Skin Lesions And Disorders Of Pigmentation
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Deformity associated with ulnar nerve injury is:
Ans:C.)Claw Hand. An ulnar claw, also known as claw hand, or 'Spinster's Claw' is an abnormal hand position that develops due to a problem with the ulnar nerve. A hand in ulnar claw position will have the 4th and 5th fingers extended at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed at the interphalangeal joints. The patients with this condition can make a full fist but when they extend their fingers, the hand posture is referred to as claw hand. The ring- and little finger can usually not fully extend at the PIP joint. This can be commonly confused with the "Hand of benediction", which is caused by high (at elbow level) median nerve damage.
3
Wrist drop
Simon hand
Claw hand
Ape thumb deformity
Anatomy
null
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single
All of the following may lead to corneal opacity in newborn except –
Causes of congenital opacities of cornea (STUMPED classification) :- Sclerocornea; Tear in descmet's membrane (Congenital glaucoma, birth trauma); ulcer (HSV, bacteria); metabolic (Mucopolysaccharidosis, mucolipidosis, Tyrosinosis); Posterior corneal defect (Peter's anomaly, posterior keratoconus, staphyloma); Endothelial dystrophy (congenital hereditary, posterior polymorphous, stromal).
4
Endothelial dystrophy
Sclerocornea
Mucopolysaccharidosis
Droplet keratopathy
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
For assessing new disease with no etiological hypothesis which is the best study
null
4
Cohort study
Case control study
Randomised control trial
Descriptive epidemiology
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
True positive cases are detected by
Ans. b (Sensitivity). (Ref. Park, PSM, 17th/pg. 112)TERMDEFINATIONSensitivityThe probability that a person who actually has the disease of interest will have a positive (abnormal) test result. In clinical practice sensitivity is inversely proportional to specificity.SpecificityThe probability that a person who actually does not have the disease of interest will have a negative (normal) test result.PrevalenceThe proportion of persons in a given population who have a particular disease at a point or interval of time.False-positiveA test result that is normal (positive) despite the true absence of the disease of interest or a study result that incorrectly suggests an effect, when in truth, the purported effect does not exist (see also Type 1 error).True-negativeA test result that is normal (negative) when the disease of interest is actually absent.True-positiveA test result that is abnormal (positive) when the disease of interest is actually present.False-negativeA test result that is normal (negative) despite the true presence of a particular disease or a study result that incorrectly fails to identify a true effect (see also Type II error). Does not have the disease of interest.Positive predictive valueThe probability that a person with a positive (abnormal) test result actually has the disease of interestNegative predictive valueThe probability that a person with a negative (normal) test result actually. Screening test resultsDiagnosis diseasedNot diseasedTotalPositivea(true positive)b(false positive)a + bNegativecffalse neg.)d(true neg.)C+dTotala+cb+da+b+c+da) Sensitivity = a/(a+c) x 100b) Specificity = d/(b+d) x 100c) Predictive value of a positive test = a/(a+b) x 100d) Predictive value of a neg. test = d/(c+d) x 100e) Percentage of false neg. = c/(a+c) x 100f) Percentage of false positive = b/(b+d) x 100
2
Specificity
Sensitivity
Positive predictive value
Negative predictive value
Social & Preventive Medicine
Screening for Disease
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multi
In a chalazion with multiple recurrences at the same site the incision and currettage should be:
Ans. Replaced by excision biopsy
4
Followed by cauterisation with carbolic acid
Preceded by cryotherapy
Preceded by intralesional injection of triamcinolone
Replaced by excision biopsy
Ophthalmology
null
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In HLA system, the cluster of genes are located in
(Chromosome 6) (133-A)* Major histocompatibility complexes (MHC) also known as the HLA system (after human leucocyte antigen)This is a cluster of gene on chromosomes 6 that is responsible for immunological specificity* The proteins for which they code are attached to cell surfaces and act as "chaperones" for foreign antigens which have to be accompanied by HLA before they are recognized and engaged by the body's T-cells
1
Chromosome 6
Chromosome 21
X-Chromosome
Y-chromosome
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
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single
Which of the following ligament help in the transmission of the weight of the upper limb to the axial skeleton?
Coracoclavicular ligament extends from the coracoid process to the undersurface of the clavicle. It is comprised of anterior trapezoid ligament and posterior conoid ligament. It is responsible for suspending the weight of the scapula and the upper limb from the clavicle. It maintains position of the clavicle on the acromion.
1
Coracoclavicular ligament
Coracoacromial ligament
Costoclavicular ligament
Coracohumeral ligament
Anatomy
null
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single
Frozen pelvis is usually associated with which of the following conditions?
In tuberculous salpingitis sometimes the tubercles may not be obvious on the peritoneal surface. This type of lesions with intestinal adhesions to such a degree that a surgeon is not able to reach the uterus or adnexa is named frozen pelvis. Any attempt to separate the adhesions may result in intestinal trauma and fistula formation. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th Edition, Page 116.
2
Tuberculous endosalpingitis
Tuberculous salpingitis
Interstitial tuberculous salpingitis
Subserous myoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Incidence of Down's syndrome is directly proportional to
Ans. c (Maternal age). (Ref. Harrison, Internal Medicine, 16th ed., 383)The incidence of Down ys syndrome is highly correlated to maternal age.QUADRUPLE TEST FOR DOWN'S SYNDROME# AFP |# beta-HCG |# Unconjugated estriol |# Human placental lactogen/placental protein A |
3
Parity
Consanguinity
Maternal age
Mutations
Medicine
Genetics
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single
Equilibrium potential for chlorine:
Equilibrium potential is also called isoelectric At this potential there is no movement of ions Equilibrium potential for chlorine in -70
1
-70
60
Both
None
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
All are malignant tumors, except:
* Fibromatosis are a group of fibroblastic proliferations. *They are locally aggressive, they do not metastasize.
2
Chloroma
Fibromatosis
Askin's tumor
Liposarcoma
Pathology
General Concepts
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multi
Concentration of urea on one side (side A) of permeable membrane is 20 and on other side (side B) is 40. If concentration on side A is increased to 40, what will happen to rate of diffusion?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., It will be zero [Ref: Principles of medical physiology p. 71)This question, the concentration gradient is zero as both sides (A & B) have same concentration (40) of urea.Thus there is no diffusion + Rate of diffusion is zero.
3
It will become double
It will become four times
It will be zero
It will be reduced four times
Physiology
null
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single
Dose limiting toxicity of amphotericin B is:
Renal tubular acidosis is the dose limiting toxicity of amphotericin B. Amphotericin B can also cause: Infusion related reactions (not dose related) Hypokalemia Hypomagnesemia
2
Infusion related reaction
Renal tubular acidosis
Myelosuppression
Hypotension
Pharmacology
Anti-Fungal Drugs
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when the patient repeate the same answer even when the question is changed is called as
* Neologism= they will introduce new words that are not present in one's dictionary , seen in SCHIZOPHRENIA perseveration, === here the same answer will be repeated even when the question is changed, a feature of ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME clang, ====subsequent words will have rhyming seen in MANIA puns,=== double meaning words echolalia=== unconscious repletion of words said by the examiner, seen in catatonia Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, Pg. no .195
1
perseveration
puns
clang assosiation
neologism
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
Thanatology deals with:
Ans: b (death in all aspects) Ref: Reddy, 27th ed,p. 121Thanatology deals with death in all aspects.Types of death1) Somatic death-Complete, irreversible stoppage of circulation breathing and brain function2) Brain death-Characterized by deep unconsciousness with no response to external stimuli, no breathing, no cardiac function, no reflexes (except spinal),fixed dilated pupil and flat EEG for atleast 24 hrs with body temperate more than 32degC in the absence of metabolic and endocrine dysfunction.3) Molecular death-Death of cells or tissues individually.
2
Exhumation
Death in all aspects
Unnatu ral sex offences
Body of offence
Forensic Medicine
Death and Medicolegal Aspects
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Infection of CNS spread in inner ear is through:
Cochlear aqueduct (Aqueduct of Cochlea) is a connection between scala tympani (containing perilymph) and the subarachnoid space (containing CSF). On occassions, paicularly in young children, the Cochlear aqueduct is large and open.Infection can spread to the inner ear from the infected CSF or vice versa, the cochlear aqueduct resulting in severe profound hearing loss (meningitic labyrinthitis).
1
Cochlear aqueduct
Endolymphatic sac
Vestibular aqueduct
Hyl fissure
ENT
null
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Ideal time to start exhumation -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Early morning Exumationo Exumation is lawful digging out of a burried body from the grave for the purpose of identification or determination of cause of death.o Only a magistrate (executive magistrate) can order for exhumation,o In india, there is no time limit for exhumation, i.e. can be done at any time after death.o It is done under supervision of medical officer and Magistrate in presence of a police officer who provides witnesses to identify grave, coffin and dead body, whenever possible, Magistrate should inform the relatives and allow them not to remain present at the time of enquiry,o The whole procedure should be conducted and completed in natural day light.o Therefore, it is usually started early in morning.
4
Mid night
Late evening
Afternoon in proper light
Early morning
Forensic Medicine
Medicolegal Autopsy
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Distance between undersurface of hygienic pontic and gingiva is
null
3
1 mm
1.5 mm
2 mm
2.5 mm
Dental
null
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A 20 years old boy with known history of mental illness was brought to emergency room with aggressive behaviour and tendency to attack others physically. After psychiatric evaluation, he was prescribed some new drugs and dose of previous drugs changed. After 3 days, he presents to emergency room again with fever (1050C), stiff limbs, altered sensorium and elevated serum CPK levels. What is the immediate management for this condition?
(Refer: Kaplan & Sadock's CTP, 10th Ed Chap 34.17  P.7849) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome A rare but extremely serious complication of neuroleptic treatment especially with high potency compounds. Evolve over 24-72 hours untreated last for 10 to 14 days , even fatal Clinical features Hyperthermia Muscular rigidity – Increased muscle tone, dysphagia, dysponea Autonomic disturbance – Elevated BP, HR, salivation, incontinence of urine Raised WBC and creatinine phosphokinase Management Discontinuation of all medications Hyperventilate with 100% oxygen Administer sodium bicarbonate 1 – 2 mEq/kg IV and dantrolene sodium 2.5 mg/kg IV Administer inotropes, anti-arrhythmic agents Monitor urinary output, K+, Ca2+, blood gases, end tidal carbon dioxide Consider invasive monitoring of arterial blood pressure and central venous pressure Correction of acidosis and control of temperature.
2
Succinyl choline
Dantrolene
Edrophonium
Neostigmine
Unknown
null
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multi
Which of the following is responsible for phagocytosis?
The process of phagocytosis is fuher enhanced when microorganisms are coated with specific proteins, opsonins from the serum. Opsonins establish a bond between bacteria and bacteria and the membrane of the phagocytic cell. C3b is opsonin generated by activation of cothe complement pathway. Reference: Harsh Mohan textbook pathology, 7th edition, pg no:121 <\p>
3
C5a
C3a
C3b
TNF-a
Microbiology
Immunology
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All of the following statements about silicosis are true except
With long-term, less intense exposure, small rounded opacities in the upper lobes may appear on the chest radiograph after 15-20 years of exposure, usually without associated impairment of lung function (simple silicosis). Calcification of hilar nodes may occur in as many as 20% of cases and produces a characteristic "eggshell" pattern. Because silica is cytotoxic to alveolar macrophages, patients with silicosis are at greater risk of acquiring lung infections that involve these cells as a primary defense (Mycobacterium tuberculosis, atypical mycobacteria and fungi). Because of the increased risk of active tuber-culosis, the recommended treatment of latent tuberculosis in these patients is longer. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1690
1
Pleural plaques
Prediliction for upper lobes
Calcific hilar lymphadenopathy
Associated with tuberculosis
Anatomy
Respiratory system
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multi
Orally active hormone is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thyroxine
2
TSH
Thyroxine
GH
Prolacin
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Most common benign tumours during infancy is
An infantile hemangioma is one of the most common benign tumors of infancy and occurs in approximately 5-10% of infants.They occur more frequently in females,premature and low bih weight infants. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
2
Lymphangioma
Hemangioma
Cystic hygroma
Lipoma
Pediatrics
Childhood tumors
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single
Which one of the statements is false regarding adefovir dipivoxil?
Nonselective antiviral drugs: Ribavirin, Lamivudine, Adefovir dipivoxil, Interferon alpha. Adefovir dipivoxil It is the diester prodrug of AMP analogue adefovir which is active against hepatitis B virus (HBV) and some other DNA viruses. Esterases in the intestine and liver release the active drug during absorption to attain oral bioavailability of -60% in terms of adefovir, which is then distributed in whole body water. On entering cells, adefovir (a monophosphate) is phosphorylated to the diphosphate which has high affinity for HBV DNA polymerase. This enzyme is inhibited and adefovir itself gets incorporated in the viral DNA resulting in termination of the DNA chain. While plasma half life of adefovir is -7 hours (due to renal excretion), intracellular half life of the diphosphate is upto 18 hours. Adefovir is indicated in chronic hepatitis B, including lamivudine-resistant cases and those having concurrent HlV infection. There is no cross resistance between adefovir and lamivudine. Clinical, biochemical (liver function tests), histological, serological and virological response occurs in nearly 50% patients within 1 year. More cases respond with continued treatment. The optimum duration of treatment is unceain at present. At 10 mg/ day dose adefovir is well tolerated. Side effects are sore throat, headache, weakness, abdominal pain and flu syndrome. Nephrotoxicity occurs at higher doses and in those with preexisting renal insufficiency. Lactic acidosis is a risk in patients receiving anti-HIV drugs ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:778
3
Acyclic nucleotide analogue
Well tolerated orally
Used in chronic hepatitis B infection
Used in anti-retroviral therapy
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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Which of the following are lymphomas is associated with HTLV-I virus infection?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adult T cell leukemia and lymphoma VirusAssociated diseaseHTLV -1 virusAdult T cell lymphoma / leukemia (ATL)Tropical spastic paraparesis (HTLV associated myelopathy or HAM)HTLV - II virus- T cell variant of hairy cell leukemia (not yet conclusively established)
3
Burkitt's lymphoma
B-cell lymphoma
Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma
Hodgkin's disease
Medicine
Lymphoma
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single
Which of the component of respiratory chain reacts directly with molecular oxygen ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cyt aa3
4
Cyt b
CoQ
Cyt C
Cyt aa3
Biochemistry
null
2380304a-404f-41b1-841b-5b5cd3250699
single
Treatment for brown tumor is
null
4
Curettage
Surgical enucleation
Intralesional steroids
Parathyroidectomy
Surgery
null
f1fb4bf9-ee5c-4adb-a66d-a1dd2881be56
single
Cut off limit for deoxygenated hemoglobin for appearance of cyanosis is?
Ans. B >5gm%Ref: Ganong, 25th ed. pg. 642Cyanosis appears whenever the magnitude of reduced hemoglobin level of blood in capillaries is >5 gm%.
2
>4 gm%
>5 gm%
< 2 gm%
<4 gm%
Physiology
Respiratory System
0d28a58f-5a74-4070-8b14-72baf7d2544e
single
The primary defects in CTEV are the following EXCEPT
Ans. c (Calcaneus) (Ref. Nelson Paediatrics 17th ed., 2256 and Maheshwari orthopedics 3rd ed., 199)Examination of the infant with CTEV (clubfoot) demonstrates:# Hindfoot equinus,# Hindfoot and midfoot varus,# Forefoot adduction.These findings are secondary to the medial dislocation of the talonavicular joint.CONGENITAL TALIPES EQUINOVARUS (CLUBFOOT/CTEV)# The cause is unknown; considered to have multifactorial inheritance with major influence from a single autosomal dominant gene.# Seen approximately 1 in 1,000 births. Occurs more commonly in males (2:1) and is bilateral in 50% of cases.# The navicular bone (primary site of deformity), does not ossify until 3 yr in the female and 4 yr in male.# Treatment of CTEV:< 3 years ageSoft tissue release4-8 yearsEvan's operation8-11 yearsWedge tarsectomy> 12 yearsTriple arthrodesis
3
Equinus
Adduction
Calcaneus
Varus
Orthopaedics
Congenital Talips Eqino Varvs (C.T.E.V.)
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multi
Best time to do USG in pregnancy, if it is to be done once in entire pregnancy, would be: March 2011
Ans. C: 18-22 weeks Routine USG at 18-22 weeks gestation has the following effects 1) reduces the incidence of post-term pregnancy (39%) and rates of induction of labour for post-term pregnancy, 2) increases early detection of multiple pregnancy (92%), 3) increases early detection of major fetal anomalies when termination is possible, 4) no significant differences in the clinical outcomes such as perinatal moality and 5) reduces neonatal admission to special care baby unit (14%)
3
6-8 weeks
10-12 weeks
18-22 weeks
34-36 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
74cb04af-3259-4353-a254-4e5e2b1cff06
single
Multiple liver secondaries are most common in the following cancers
Carcinoma gallbladder leads to multiple secondaries to liver in advanced stage, and is the most common cause among the given option Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1464-1465
3
Head of pancreas
Stomach
Gall bladder
Periampullary
Anatomy
G.I.T
7ac4fc4e-2775-4cd5-be90-1ad93ba061bb
multi
Muscle Relaxant excreted exclusively by Kidney
A i.e. Gallamine
1
Gallamine
Atracurium
Atracurium
Sch
Anaesthesia
null
ca273d45-49a2-4a05-b897-74e421748e27
multi
Glucose in renal tubules reabsorbed and is transpoed through the following mechanism:
Glucose reabsorption in the kidneys is similar to glucose reabsorption in the intestine. Glucose and Na+ bind to the sodium-dependent glucose transpoer (SGLT) 2 in the apical membrane, and glucose is carried into the cell as Na+ moves down its electrical and chemical gradient. The Na+ is then pumped out of the cell into the interstitium, and the glucose exits by facilitated diffusion glucose transpoer (GLUT) 2 into the interstitial fluid. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 37. Renal Function & Micturition. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
2
Na antepo
Na cotranspo
K antepo
K sympo
Physiology
null
cbe48013-15ed-459c-9be2-00378730191e
single
Matrix band is difficult to place on -- teeth
null
4
MO 25
DO 37
DO 24
MO 24
Dental
null
ce0ffcf0-e825-4f9e-ad6c-3a42816a7d42
single
Which of the following statement is false about erythema marginatum?
ERYTHEMA MARGINATUM: Involves usually trunk or sometimes limb but never on face . Rash stas as pink papule , clears centrally and leave spreading edge behind . It generally occurs only in patients with carditis.
2
Begins as pink papule
Clears from periphery and leave rash behind
Classical rash of acute rheumatic fever
Occurs only in patients with carditis
Medicine
Rheumatic Hea disease & infective endocarditis
1c9dd66b-a26d-4c89-b5fd-2992367327a8
multi
Which of the following is an inhibitor of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes ?
RNA polymerase II enzyme is inhibited by a-amanitin in eukaryotes. a-amanitin is a potent toxin produced by the poisonous mushroom Amanita phalloides (sometimes called "death cap"). a-Amanitin forms a tight complex with the polymerase, thereby inhibiting mRNA synthesis and, ultimately, protein synthesis. Rifampicin inhibits the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition
1
Alpha-amanitin
Rifampicin
Both
None
Anatomy
General anatomy
69ffe30f-4987-4e1f-b634-4fcddfe5ae92
multi
1st evidence of calcification of Lower 2nd premolar is seen in
null
4
at birth
16 wk IU
1 year after birth
2 ¼ - 2 ¾ years after birth
Dental
null
3c12f6f6-a308-42ab-b15d-c1ea0b5f122e
single
A patient presents with malignant hypehermia and metabolic acidosis. Immediate treatment should be staed with:
Ref: Harrison 18th/147 The current treatment of choice for malignant hypehermia is the intravenous administration of dantrolene other impoant measures are: *Discontinuation of triggering agents *Suppeive therapy directed at correcting hypehermia, acidosis, and organ dysfunction.
1
Intravenous Dantrolene
Sodium bicarbonate
Intravenous fluids
Paracetamol
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
ffa5e33f-52e1-4bec-bd44-c097b5df6e5b
single
In Mallory Weiss syndrome the rupture commonly occurs at -
In Mallory-Weiss syndrome the majority (75-90%) of tear is located below the gastroesophageal junction, entirely within the gastric cardia. Only a few of the tears involve the gastro-esophageal junction.
1
Gastric cardia
Oesophagus mucosa
Gastro oesophageal junction
Gastroduodenal junction
Surgery
null
b34c4b11-0dd9-4b2e-9bd3-612879edc1aa
multi
Glomerulonephritis associated with AIDS is-
null
1
Focal segmental GN
PSGN
MPGN
Membranous GN
Pathology
null
2288120d-1713-4ff9-bf11-624cd8ded069
single
Chronotropic effect means:-
Effect Meaning Example Positive chronotropic Increase in hea rate Adrenaline Negative chronotropic Decrease in hea rate Acetylcholine Positive inotropic Increase in contractility Dobutamine Negative inotropic Decrease in contractility Verapamil Positive dromotropic Increase in AV conduction Dobutamine Negative dromotropic Decrease in AV conduction Vagal stimulation
2
Drugs affecting the contractility of hea
Drugs affecting hea rate
Drugs affecting the myocardial blood flow
Drugs affecting diastolic relaxation
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
2b31c9e6-0bc1-4e36-86c8-3df914ffff27
single
The drug used in absence seizures and having a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is :
null
2
Lamotrigine
Ethosuximide
Sodium valproate
Primidone
Pharmacology
null
da7e2e71-7904-4baa-ab0c-03e203dc5cc7
single
Empyema necessitans is defined as so when ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pleural empyema is showing extension to the subcutaneous tissue
4
Plural empyema is under pressure
Pleural empyema has ruptured into bronchus
Pleural empyema has ruptured into the pericardium
Pleural empyema is showing extension to the subcutaneous tissue
Surgery
null
10551eaa-4cb5-4e66-84f4-683ecb7a8a95
single
Which among the following is a sure sign of hea failure in an infant with congenital hea disease?
The most common symptom of hea failure is tachypnea with grunting, gasping breathing, or breathlessness with feeding. A respiratory rate consistently above 60 is seen. Poor weight gain from diminished intake and increased work of breathing is the rule. Cool, moist skin; a diminished and rapid aerial pulse; and hepatic enlargement are common accompanying signs. Ref: Brown D.W., Fulton D.R. (2011). Chapter 83. Congenital Hea Disease in Children and Adolescents. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e.
4
Basal crepitations
JVP
Pedal oedema
Liver enlargement
Pediatrics
null
6aa8151c-e20c-4493-853e-d43368d7654f
single
Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Median Nerve Entrapment neuropathiesi) Carpal tunnel:- Median nerve (carpal tunnel syndrome)ii) Cubital tunnel:- Ulnar nerve (cubital tunnel syndrome)iii) Guyon's canal:- Ulnar nerve (Guyan's canal syndrome)iv) Tarsal tunnel:- Posterior tibial nerve (Tarsal tunnel syndrome)v) Inguinal ligament:- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (meralgia paraesthetica).vi) Suprascapular notch:- Suprascapular nervevii) Neck of fibula:- Common peroneal nerveviii) Fascial tunnel of superficial peroneal nerve:- Superficial peroneal nerveix) Arcase of Frohse:- Posterior interosseous syndromex) Thoracicoutlet:- Lower trunk of brachial plexusxi) Compression in the foot:- Digital nerve (Morten's metatarsalgia)
4
Radial nerve
Anterior Interosseus nerve
Superficial palmar branch of radial nerve
Median Nerve
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
3558463c-30b7-4ed0-a34e-099879ea03cb
single
Ectopia cordis is associated with the following organ ?
Failure of fusion of the two sternal bars during embryonic development produces congenital sternal cleft, which may involve the upper, lower, or entire sternum. In its severe form, this defect is usually associated with ectopia cordis and congenital hea lesions. Ectopia cordis is location of the hea outside of the thoracic cavity, either lying on the outer surface or displaced superiorly to the neck or inferiorly to the abdomen.
3
Lens
Lungs
Hea
Liver
Anatomy
null
fec02924-af8c-4c3f-95f7-5cbd1804d46f
single
Fenestrated capillaries are found in all except :September 2009
Ans. D: MuscleContinuos capillariesLocation: muscle, lung, central nervous system and skin.Composition: endothelial cells contain numerous pinocytotic vesicles, pericytes are enclosed by a basement membrane.Fenestrated CapillariesLocation: endocrine glands, sites of fluid and metabolite absorption: renal corpuscles, intestinal tract, and gallbladder. Composition: endothelial cells contain fenestrations, 80-100 nm in diameter, those provide channels across the capillary wall, pericytes are enclosed by a basement membrane.Discontinuous capillaries (sinusoid)Location: liver, spleen, and bone marrow.Composition: endothelial cells with unusually wide gaps between them, paial or total absence of basement membrane.
4
Renal glomeruli
Intestinal villi
Pancreas
Muscle
Anatomy
null
99cac344-a8af-49fb-b3b5-1ce44b66712c
multi
White polished rice causes deficiency of -
Ans. is 'a > c > d' i.e., Thiamine > Riboflavin > Protein o Rice is the most common staple food. Rice proteins are richer in lysine than other cereal proteins, and for this reason, rice protein is considered to be a better quality. Rice contains 6.8 gm of protein per 100 gm.o Milling process deprives rice grain of its nutritive elements, especially thiamine (75%), riboflavin (60%) and protein (15%). People subsisting mainly on white or polished rice are prone to beri-beri, the best known deficiency disease in rice eaters. To avoid this parboiling is recommendedo Parboiling (partial cooking in steam) is technique of preserving the nutritive value of rice. In parboiling, greater parts of vitamins and minerals present in outer layer of the rice grain are driven into the deepar layers. With subsequent milling the nutrient are not removed.o Genetically engineered 'Golden rice' is rich in b-Carotene and iron.
1
Thiamine
Tryptophan
Riboflavin
Protein
Social & Preventive Medicine
Vitamins
7aa37a05-1c61-473f-aae5-3ea00b058822
single
Sialogram of a normal salivary gland appears as:
null
2
Leafy tree
Leafless tree
Sialolithiasis
Sialgectasia
Radiology
null
c4a0b6d0-0a39-4dc2-8c44-fbe416638712
single
In chronic Hepatitis B infection, which one of the following markers is indicative of active viral replication and the corresponding risk of disease transmission ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., HBe antigen
1
HBe antigen
HBs antigen
Anti - HBe
Anti - HBs
Microbiology
null
fe07aa6f-ce14-4370-a1a2-e881cc95f1f2
single
Multiple cystic lesions seen in muscle and brain of 16 year old boy died of Status epilepticus. The diagnosis is
(D) Neurocysticercosis# Neurocysticercosis (NCC) is caused by CNS infection with the pork tapeworm Taenia solium.> Demographics & clinical presentation: The disease is endemic in Central and South America, Asia and Africa. There is a variable time interval between point of infection and the onset of symptoms (ranging from 1-30 years).> Clinical presentation includes: Seizures: most common cause of seizures in young adults in endemic areas; headaches; hydrocephalus; altered mental status and neurological deficits> CSF serology may be helpful with the initial diagnosis especially in cases of intraventricular/subarachnoid infection.> Pathology: Infection which leads to extra-intestinal disease (including neurocysticercosis) usually occurs as a result of eating food or drinking water contaminated by human feces containing T. solium eggs. This is distinct from the 'normal' life cycle in which the undercooked pork is eaten and the larval cysts contained within mature into adult intestinal tape worm.> Extra-intestinal infection undergoes specific clinical and imaging changes at it progresses through four stages of infection.> Stages: There are four main stages (also known as Escobar's pathological stages):1. Vesicular: viable parasite with intact membrane and therefore no host reaction.2. Colloidal vesicular: parasite dies within 4-5 years 1 untreated, or earlier with treatment and the cyst fluid becomes turbid. As the membrane becomes leaky oedema surrounds the cyst. This is the most symptomatic stage.3. Granular nodular: oedema decreases as the cyst retracts further; enhancement persists.4. Nodular calcified: end-stage quiescent calcified cyst remnant; no oedema.# Location: Infection can be both intra and extra axial. Commonest location is the subarachnoid space over the cerebral hemispheres.> Other locations in order of decreasing frequency are: subarachnoid space over the cerebral hemispheres - may be large basal cisterns - may be "grape like" (racemose): most lack an indentifiable scolex; parenchyma ventricles - usually solitary cysts; 4th ventricle most frequent> Typically the parenchymal cysts are small (1cm) whereas the subarachnoid ones can be much bigger (up to 9cm): differential therefore being arachnoid cyst. It is the most common cause of epilepsy in endemic areas (South-east Asia, South America) with progression through the 4 stages taking anywhere between 1 to 9 years.> Radiographic features: Imaging findings depend on location and stage of infection.> Subarachnoid-intraventricular: When in the subarachnoid space/intraventricular, the the cysts typically do not have a visible scolex. In the basal cisterns they can be grape-like (racemose). The cysts are typically 1-2 cm in diameter 2. Usually the cysts are similar in signal intensity to CSF, although occasionally cyst fluid may somewhat differ.> In the ventricles there is often (79%) 2 associated ventriculitis often leading to aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephalus.> Parenchymal: Parenchymal cysts usually involve the grey white matter junction.> Vesicular: cyst with dot sign; CSF density/intensity; hyperintense scolex on T1 can sometimes be seen; no enhancement is typical, although very faint enhancement of the wall and enhancement of the scolex may be seen> Colloidal vesicular: cyst fluid becomes turbid CT: hyperdense to CSF; MRI T1: hyperintense to CSF; surrounding oedema; cyst and the wall becomes thickened and brightly enhances scolex can often still be seen as an eccentric focus of enhancement> Granular nodular: oedema decreases; cyst retracts; enhancement persists but is less marked>Nodular calcified: Endstage quiescent calcified cyst remnant, no oedema; no enhancement on CT; signal drop out on T2 and T2* sequences; some intrinsic high T1 signal may be present; long term enhancement may be evident on MRI, and may predict ongoing seizures.
4
Cerebral amebiasis
Neurosarcoidosis
CNS toxoplasmosis
Neurocysticercosis
Radiology
Nervous System
6153d6b8-b70a-4139-b731-f660eeacdb29
single
At which of the following levels the predominant regulation of gene expression of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes take place?
Expression of a functional gene product from genes is the gene expression. The functional product is not always proteins. Non-protein coding genes are also expressed as functional RNAs (tRNA, snRNA, miRNA etc.) Regulation of gene expression occurs at transcriptional level in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
2
DNA replication
Transcription
Translation
Post-translational
Biochemistry
Transcription
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multi
A 17-year-old boy presented with TLC of 138 x 109 /L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demosnstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient's blasts would most likely demonstrate:
Ans. is 'b' i.e. an immature T cell phenotype. Clues given in the question are -Increased leucocyte count with blasts constituting 80% of the cellsPresence of mediastinal mass on chest X-ray.Adolescent maleThese findings are suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukemia of the T cell lineage.Increased leucocyte count in the range of 138 x 109/L and on peripheral blood examination 80% of them constituting blast cells indicate acute leukemia.The age group (adolescent) and the mediastinal mass suggests that this leukemia is in all likelihood a T cell leukemia.Robbin's says "T cell ALL tends to present in adolescent males as lymphomas often with thymic involvement"So it is almost confirmed that the diagnosis is T cell ALL.Now, the immunophenotype required to diagnose T cell ALL.Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (Tdt)It is expressed by both Pre B and Pre T lymphoblasts in > 95% cases, so distinction between ALLs require staining for additional lineage specific markers.CD1, CD2, CDS, CD7It is positive in most cases of precursor T cells.CD3, CD4, CD8Early pre T cells are negative for these markers.Late pre T cells are positive for these markers.Immuno phenotypic classification of acute lymphoblastic leukemiaPre T cell ALLTdT, CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4, CD7, CD8Early pre BTdT, DR, CD 10, CD19, CD24Pre B cellTdT, DR, CD 10, CD19, CD20, CD24, CIgB CellDR, CD 19, CD20, CD24, SIg
2
No surface antigens (null phenotype)
An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)
Myeloid markers, such as CD13, CD33 and CD15
B cell markers, such as CD 19, CD20 and CD22
Pathology
Blood
dfda7452-0caa-4533-b2c4-58887473a22d
single
All are features of Trachoma stage III, except –
Stage III of trachoma is cicatrising or scarring stage. So, Herbert pits (are healed scars of Herbert follicles), scar on tarsal conjunctiva & necrosis in scar are all the features of stage III. Where as herbert follicles (IIa), papillary hyperplasia (IIb), Pannus is found in stage II.
2
Herbert's pits
Pannus
Necrosis in scar
Scar on tarsal conjunctiva
Ophthalmology
null
a7e733f7-3204-485a-bca9-699daf7641b4
multi
The following structure is involved in Dupuytren's contracture -
Dupuytren&;s contracture is characterised by a flexion deformity of one or more fingers due to thickening and shoening of palmar aponeurosis.Normally palmar aponeurosis is thin but tough membrane lying Immediately beneath the skin of the palm. Proximally it is in continuation with palmaris longus tendon. Distally it divides into slips one for each finger. The slip bends with the fibrous flexor sheaths covering the flexor tendon of the finger , and extends upto the middle phalanx. In Dupuytren&;s contracture aponeurosis or a pa of it becomes thickened and slowly contracts, drawing the fingers into flexion at the metacarpo-phalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. Reference- Essential ohopaedics- Maheshwari- 5th edn- pg no 302
1
Thickening of the palmar fascia
Thickening of the dorsal fascia
Contracture of the flexor tendons
Post burns contracture
Orthopaedics
Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection
5988228a-d472-4b56-bd9b-2d08503818a2
single
Drug of choice for psychosis in Parkinson's disease is:
If a patient with Parkinson's disease develops psychotic symptoms, the treatment becomes complicated as most of the anti psychotics cause drug induced Parkinsonism. Since clozapine has minimal extrapyramidal side effects such as parkinsonian side effects, it is preferred.
1
Clozapine
Haloperidol
Lithium
Risperidone
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
2d744bcb-7ac4-44a3-a1a9-f7839da19e63
single
Painless discharge from ear and multiple tympanic membrane perforations are characteristic of ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tubercular otitis media
1
Tuberculous otitis media
Fungal otitis media
Serous otitis media
Viral otitis media
ENT
null
04b93e1a-ca9b-4ce9-a718-3f382fb6bd55
single
Jaipur foot was invented by ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., P. K. Sethi P. K. Sethi. Pramod Karan Sethi (28 November 1927 - 6 January 2008) was an Indian ohopaedic surgeon. With Ram Chandra Sharma, he co-invented the "Jaipur foot", an inexpensive and flexible aificial limb, in 1969.
1
P. K. Sethi
S. K. Verma
B. L. Sehgal
H. R. Gupta
Surgery
null
a3b6bf39-acbe-46c7-a5a5-f5a7ac1bd618
single
Reacts with soadaline
C i.e. Trilene
3
Methoxyfluene
Ketamine
Trilene
All
Anaesthesia
null
78af7423-9f79-49a1-b600-6de1a9e4cfad
multi
Ca prostate commonly metastasises to the veebrae:
Prostate cancer homing to the lumbar spine mediated by the connection of the Batson's periprostatic venous vessel to the veebral venous plexus. Ref: The Biology of Skeletal Metastases: Volume 118, 2004, Page 292; bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 23rd Edition, Page 1250; Clinical Surgery By S. Das, Page 196.
1
Because valveless communication exist with Batson's periprostatic plexus.
Via drainage to Sacral lymph node
Of direct Spread
None of the above
Surgery
null
c7c3adcb-29a0-4114-b1a2-5de7549ffa8e
multi
All of following inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 and T3 except -
Ans is 'b' i.e. Methimazole o Propylthiouracil, propranolal, amiodarone and glucocoicoids inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 and T3.
2
Propylthiouracil
Methimazole
Proparanolal
Amiodarone
Pharmacology
null
ca6a367a-772e-4fd0-aa31-7f14a2efa2b0
multi
The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasis versicolar:
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Ketoconazole T/T of Pityriasis versicolor -New t/t (Antifungal)Old t/tTopical|MiconazoleClotrimazoleEconazoleShampoo| 1. KetoconazoleOral| 1. ItraconazoleWhitfield's ointment (3% salicylic acid and 6% Benzoic acid)Selenium disulfide shampooSodium thiosulphate solution
1
Ketoconazole.
Metronidazole.
Griseofulvin.
Chloroquine.
Unknown
null
a50ad786-a7f6-40fe-98f2-e684bd56839b
single
All are relevant in compament syndrome except:
D i.e. Excercise Excercise may increase intra compamental pressure & muscle edema, so it is avoided in cases of acute compamental syndromeQ.
4
Fasciotomy
Splitting of tight pop cast
Reexploration
Exercise
Surgery
null
38bd8016-eca6-49c1-94ff-0390746e510a
multi
Cigar bodies are seen in?
In sporotrichosis, direct microscopic examination of KOH mounts of necrotic materials or histopathological examination of tissue section stained by methamine silver stain may yield a diagnosis. The characteristics feature is the asteroid body or cigar body: a rounded or oval, basophilic,yeast-like, cigar-shaped body 3-5micron in diameter, with rays of an eosinophilic substance radiating from the yeast cell. Ref:Anantha Narayan and Panickers Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition, page no.602
1
Sporotrichosis
Chromoblastomycosis
Mycetoma
Basidiomycosis
Pathology
dermatology and infectious disease
83061723-d262-4816-98bb-5a8d364171ad
single
Cancers associated with excess fat intake are/is ?
Answer is 'a' i.e. Breast; 'b' i.e. Colon; 'c' i.e. prostate
4
Breast
Colon
Prostate
All
Surgery
null
4ddfbcd8-4f7c-48ff-bf1f-fab1104407b9
multi
Morphine causes vomiting by acting on-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., C.T.Z
1
C.T.Z
Gastric mucosa
Both of the above
None of the above
Pharmacology
null
64e7f588-39c0-43bc-bed1-7638132866be
multi
Blood smear is best seen at pH of -
null
2
7.2
6.8
6.6
7
Pathology
null
99cb38d9-0c57-4d30-b9b6-863200a406b2
single
Thumb sign in lateral X-ray of neck seen in:
In epiglottis: A plain lateral soft tissue radiograph of neck shows the following specific features Thickening of the epiglottis--the thumb sign Absence of a deep well-defined vallecula--the vallecula sign Steeple sign i.e. Narrowing of subglottic region is seen in chest X-ray of patients of laryngotracheobronchitis (i.e. croup).
1
Epiglottitis
Internal hemorrhage
Saccular cyst
Ca epiglottis
ENT
null
387b5eba-6d6b-4c56-8e99-f398a4fffe39
single
A 56 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statements regarding this drug is true?
US Brand Name Herceptin Descriptions Trastuzumab is used to treat new cases of breast cancer or disease that has spread to other pas of the body. It may prevent the growth of some breast tumors that produce extra amounts of a ceain substance known as the HER2 protein. Trastuzumab should only be used in patients whose breast tumors have been shown to produce extra amounts of this protein. It can be used alone or with other cancer medicines (chemotherapy) such as doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel, docetaxel, and carboplatin. Trastuzumab is also used in combination with cisplatin and capecitabine or 5-fluorouracil to treat malignant tumor of the stomach and esophagogastric (esophagus and stomach) cancer, metastatic, HER2 overexpression. Trastuzumab is a monoclonal antibody. It interferes with the growth of cancer cells, which are eventually destroyed by the body. Since the growth of normal body cells may also be affected by trastuzumab, other effects will also occur. Some of these may be serious and must be repoed to your doctor. Other effects, such as a skin rash, may not be serious but may cause concern. Some effects do not occur until months or years after the medicine is used. Before you begin treatment with trastuzumab, you and your doctor should talk about the benefits this medicine will do as well as the risks of using it. This medicine is to be administered only by or under the immediate supervision of your doctor. Once a medicine has been approved for marketing for a ceain use, experience may show that it is also useful for other medical problems. Although these uses are not included in product labeling, Trastuzumab is used in ceain patients with the following medical conditions: Breast cancer, HER2-overexpressing disease, primary treatment in combination with chemotherapy, before surgery. This product is available in the following dosage forms: Powder for Solution REFERENCE: www.mayoclinic.org
2
It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse contraining no human component
It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen
It is a polyclonal antibody
It is a monoclonal antibody containing only human component
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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Light reflex absent but accommodation reflex present is seen in:
B i.e. Argyl Robeson pupil
2
Hutchison's pupil
Argyl Robeson pupil
Adie pupil
Homer's syndrome
Ophthalmology
null
83898956-9662-4bde-bee2-e29ded485c04
single
Genital tubercle forms which of the following pa in females?
* The genital tubercle is situated in the midline between the urogenital membrane and the lower pa of the anterior abdominal wall. The genital tubercle becomes cylindrical and forms the clitoris. It has to be noted that in fetuses about 3-4 months old, the genital tubercle is equally developed in both the male and female. Ultrasound examination at this stage can be misleading as the clitoris can be mistaken for a penis. Ref: Inderbir Singh's Human Embryology, eleventh edition, pg. no., 275, 278.
3
Labia majora
Labia minora
Clitoris
None
Anatomy
General anatomy
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During antenatal visit 24 year old primi is discovered to be positive for Hepatitis - B . How will you manage her newborn
If mother is seropositive for hepatitis B surface antigen, then neonate should be passively immunized with immunoglobulins along with routine immunization with hepatitis B-vaccine.
3
Give Hepatitis - B immunoglobulin immediately after delivery
Test for neonatal hepatitis - B antigen status
Give Hepatitis B immunoglobulin and immunize against Hepatitis B (vaccine)
None of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Cryosurgery is effective in all except
Indications of cryosurgery Cervical ectopy Benign cervical lesions CIN Condyloma accuminata Leukoplakia VIN < 2cms size VAIN Vault granulation tissue Palliative measure to arrest bleeding in CA cervix or large fungating recurrent vulval carcinoma Ref: D.C.DUTTAS TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY; 6th edition; Pg no:591
4
Chronic cervicitis
Squamous intraepithelial lesion
Condyloma accuminata
Cases with severe dysplasia or CIS lesion
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological diagnosis and operative surgery
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What is the mechanism of action of glucagon?
ANSWER: (D) c AMP pathwayREF: Guyton 12th ed pg 948Glucagon causes glycogenolysis in the liver and this in turn increases the blood glucose levels by the following mechanismGlucagon activates adenylyl cyclase in the hepatic cell membraneThis causes formation of cAMPActivation of protein kinase regulator proteinActivation of protein kinaseActivation of phosphorylase b kinaseConversion of phosphorylase b to phosphorylase aDegradation of glycogen to glucose 1 phosphateDephosporylation and release of glucose
4
Inositol Pathway
Arachidonic Acid Pathway
c-GMP Pathway
c-AMP Pathway
Physiology
Pancreas
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single
Ochsner- Sherren regime is used in management of:
MANAGEMENT OF APPENDICULAR MASS If an appendix mass is present and the condition of the patient is satisfactory, the standard treatment is the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen. Surgery done during appendicular lump formation can lead to increased risk of injury of cecum. To know whether the lump is appendicular lump -CECT has to be done. Sta IV antibiotics in all the patients If abscess present drain the abscess. Monitor pulse rate and temperature every 4 hourly Within 24-28 hours - most patients improve Continue the conservative management Perform Interval appendectomy (Not recommended in all patients) = only for patients experiencing Recurrent appendicitis
3
Appendicular abscess
Chronic appendicitis
Appendicular mass
Acute appendicitis
Surgery
Vermiform Appendix
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First stage of labour is up to :
Full dilatation of cervix
3
Rupture of membranes
3/5 dilatation of cervix
Full dilatation of cervix
Crowing of head
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
d8e3ccae-945b-422b-9f95-c6ead1aba6a7
single
Celiac plexus block all the following is true except-
Ohostatic hypotension occur more often with the retrocrural approach Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery relive pain from gastric malignancy
4
Relieved pain from gastric malignancy
cause hypotention
Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery
Can be given only by retrocrural {classic}. approach
Anaesthesia
Regional anaesthesia
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multi
Most common mutation in haemophilia is:
Genetic abnormalities in haemophilia : Inversions: Intron 22 inversion, Intron 1 inversion Point mutations: Missense mutation, nonsense mutation, frameshift mutation Deletion of pa or whole of gene Inseion of repetitive sequences Splicing errors affecting production of mRNA Hemophilia A(factor 8 deficiency) -x linked recessive trait, affects mainly males and homozygous females Hemophilia B - x linked disorder caused by mutations in coagulation Factor 9
2
Intron 1 inversion
Intron 22
619 bp deletion
3.7 bp deletion
Pathology
Blood disorder
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Trotter's triad includes all except -
Nasopharyngeal can cause conductive deafness (eustachian tube blockage) ipsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia (involvement of CN V) and palatal paralysis (CN X) collectively called Trotters triad. Ref. Dhingra 6/e, p 251
2
Sensory disturbance over distribution of 5th cranial nerve
Diplopia
Conductive deafness
Palatal palsy
ENT
null
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