question
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| exp
stringlengths 1
22.5k
⌀ | cop
int64 1
4
| opa
stringlengths 1
287
| opb
stringlengths 1
287
| opc
stringlengths 1
286
| opd
stringlengths 1
301
| subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringlengths 3
135
⌀ | id
stringlengths 36
36
| choice_type
stringclasses 2
values |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The mechanism of learning and memory, include all except:
|
C i.e. Recruitment by multiplication of neurons
| 3 |
Changes in level of neurotransmitter at synapse
|
Increasing protein synthesis
|
Recruitment by multiplication of neurons
|
Spatial Reorganization of synapse
|
Physiology
| null |
9c832e6b-0056-4f00-a7b6-7ee818e4be14
|
multi
|
Intestinal polyps that have highest potential to grow into cancer
|
Classification of intestinal polypsInflammatory Inflammatory polyps (pseudopolyps in UC)Metaplastic Metaplastic or hyperplastic polypsHamaomatous Peutz-Jeghers polypJuvenile polypNeoplastic AdenomaTubularTubulovillousVillousAdenocarcinomaCarcinoid tumourRef: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 1259
| 2 |
Inflammatory polyp
|
Adenomatous polyp
|
Hyperplastic polyp
|
Hamaomatous polyp
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
db2a20ce-0d79-46e3-bc34-2dd30640d80e
|
single
|
Which of the following factors will not influence the rate at which a meal will leave the stomach?
|
Fat in the intestine, low pH, and increased osmolarity of intestinal contents will reduce gastric emptying. This reflex is mediated through neuronal and endocrine factors comprising the enterogastric reflex. Saline in the intestine will not affect gastric emptying.
| 3 |
Acidification of the duodenum.
|
Increasing the tonicity of the intestine.
|
Saline in the duodenum.
|
Lipid in the intestine.
|
Physiology
| null |
cb5c47ae-5665-4d47-9c1b-bcdc8faf165b
|
single
|
A 33-year-old patient is suffering from a sudden occlusion at the origin of the descending (thoracic) aoa. This condition would most likely decrease blood flow in which of the following intercostal aeries?
|
The first two posterior intercostal aeries are branches of the highest (superior) intercostal aery of the costocervical trunk; the remaining nine branches are from the thoracic aoa. The internal thoracic aery gives off the upper six anterior intercostal aeries and is divided into the superior epigastric and musculophrenic aeries, which gives off anterior intercostal aeries in the 7th, 8th, and 9th intercostal spaces and ends in the 10th intercostal space where it anastomoses with the deep circumflex iliac aery. So answer to this question is Lower six posterior because they are arising from lower aoa directly.
| 4 |
Upper six anterior
|
All of the posterior
|
Upper two posterior
|
Lower six posterior
|
Anatomy
|
Thorax: Aerial supply
|
d1ce7f7f-83ac-4cb5-903c-a7a46ee97a6a
|
multi
|
Nifedipine and beta-blocker are given together -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., To overcome increased sympathetic activity of Nifedipine b-Blocker is given along with Nifedipine because a) Reflex tachycardia (Increased sympathetic activity) caused due to Nifedipine, is prevented by b-blocker. b) b-blockers cause dilatation of coronary aeries by unopposed a-mediated vasoconstriction. Nifedipine causes coronary vasodilatation and opposes the spasm caused by b-blockers. The tendency of b-blocker to cause ventricular dilatation is counteracted by Nifedipine.
| 2 |
To decrease pedal edema due to nifedipine
|
To overcome increased sympathetic activity of nifedipine
|
Anti CHF action of propranolol
|
Antiarrhythmic effect of nifedipine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
0d3c6af4-e81f-4630-b9d0-9af28748b290
|
single
|
Marfan's syndrome associated with?
|
Ectopia lentis REF: Khurana 4th ed p. 422, Pediatric ophthalmology: A clinical guide by Pamela Gallin Table 8-7 "Marfan's syndrome is the most common cause of subluxated lens of childhood" Differential diagnosis of dislocated/subluxated lens: Trauma Ectopia lentis et pupillae Aniridia Syphilis Megalocornea (X linked recessive) Marfan's syndrome Homocystinuria Hyperlysinemia Sulfite oxidase deficiency Weill- Marchesani
| 3 |
Retinal detachment
|
Vitreous hemorrhage
|
Ectopia lentis
|
Roth spots
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
bcd58e07-684b-485a-bd3e-475b0c6963ae
|
single
|
True regarding the contractive of graft is
|
Thicker the graft more the primary contracture. Thinner the graft more the secondary contracture.
| 4 |
Thicker the graft more the secondary contracture
|
Thinner the graft more the primary contracture
|
Thicker the graft more is primary and secondary contracture
|
Thinner the graft more the secondary contracture
|
Surgery
| null |
54a4b352-50e2-4765-b890-0b3af5eb6ab8
|
multi
|
Sleep spindles and K complexes occur in which phase of the sleep cycle
|
Sleep spindles are sudden bursts of oscillatory brain activity generated during stage 2 of NREM sleep.K complexes are large waves that react to external stimuli while sleeping also seen during stage 2 of NREM sleep.
| 3 |
REM
|
Stage I
|
Stage II
|
Stage III
|
Physiology
|
Nervous system
|
a9a8b996-bc80-44c0-96b9-b613dcab1cf1
|
single
|
In a patient with wide-complex tachycardia, the presence of all of the following in the ECG indicates ventricular tachycardia except
|
Answer is C (Typical right bundle branch block) Wide complex tachycardia due to ventricular tachycardia (VT) is characterized by bizzare QRS pattern that does not mimic typical RBBB or LBBB QRS complexes The presence of wide QRS complex tachycardia with typical RBBB or LBBB suggests supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant conduction. Wide complex tachycardia (QRS duration >deg12 seconds) Wide complex tachycardia is defined as tachyarrhythmia with a QRS duration greater than 0.12 seconds with a hea rate > 100/min Wide complex tachycardia may occurs as a result either from a ventricular (VT) or supraventricular mechanism (SVT with aberrancy) 80% of cases " align="left" height="66" width="237">Distinguishing Features between Broad complex tachycardia due to VT and SVT with aberrancy Differentiating features Ventricular Tachycardia Supraventricular Tachycardia with Abaerrancy * QRS duration Broad complex Tachycardia with QRS duration usually greater that 0.14 seconds QRS 0.14 sec Broad complex tachycardia with QRS duration usually between 0.12 sec to 0.14 seconds QRS 0.14 sec. * Fusion Beats Characteristic of VT Absent * Capture Beats Characteristic of VT Unusual * AV dissociation Characteristic of VT Absent * Independent P waves May be seen Independent P waves when present are characteristic of VT and indicate AV dissociation Independent P work's are not seen P wave and QRS complex are linked to suggest that ventricular activation depends on atrial discharge * QRS pattern QRS pattern does not resemble /mimic typical LBBB or RBBB QRS pattern often resembles /mimics typical LBBB or RBBB * Axis (Frontal plane QRS) Left axis detion (< - 30deg) Normal or Right ward * QRS morphology in V1 Monophasic or Biphasic Triphasic * R/S Ratio in V6 <1 > I * Vagal manuvre.s. No effect Slowing or termination of tachycardia by vagal manuvres
| 3 |
Atrioventricular dissociation
|
Fusion beats
|
Typical right bundle branch block
|
Capture beats
|
Medicine
| null |
fafc2d78-48bd-4ad5-ac8b-7cd0864379f4
|
multi
|
Best test for lung fibrosis-
|
Chest X ray may be normal in individuals with early or limited disease.HRCT typically demonstrates a patchy,predominantly peripheral,subpleural and basal reticular pattern, and,in more advanced disease,the presence of honeycombing cysts and traction bronchiectasis.When these features are present,HRCT has a high positive predictive value for the diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis and recourse to biopsy is seldom needed.HRCT appearances may also be sufficiently characteristic to suggest an alternative diagnosis such as hypersensitivity pneumonitis or sarcoidosis or asbestosis. Reference:Davidson's Medicine-22nd edition,page no:708
| 3 |
Chest xray
|
MRI
|
HRCT
|
Biopsy
|
Medicine
|
Respiratory system
|
d783f6e8-4d20-40a3-8e47-e79437415e0c
|
single
|
Structure not passing through the esophageal hiatus -
|
Oesophageal opening
- Level- T10
- At muscular portion derived from right crus
- Structures transmitted
Oesophagus
Oesophageal branch of the left gastric artery
Vagus nerve
| 1 |
Left phrenic nerve
|
Right vagus nerve
|
Left vagus nerve
|
Left gastric artery
|
Anatomy
| null |
e328deb7-d07a-452c-80bb-fcc090927276
|
single
|
Atropine is added to pyridostigmine in treatment of myasthenia gravis due to:
|
Ans. B. To decrease the muscarinic side effectsTreatment of myasthenia gravisa. Anticholinesterase - Pyridostigmine, an intermediate-acting agent, is preferred in clinical use to the shorter-acting neostigmine bromide and the longer-acting Ambenonium chloride. Dosing is every 6 hours for pyridostigmine and every 4 hours for neostigmine.b. Atropine is sometimes added to neostigmine in treatment of myasthenia gravis due to decrease muscarinic side effectsc. Thymectomy is an important treatment option for MG, especially if a thymoma is presentd. Immunosuppressive therapy E.g. steroids, Methotrexate, Azathioprine, Cyclosporine. Used in moderate or severe cases that do not respond adequately to AChE inhibitors and thymectomy.e. Plasmapheresisf. IVIg is used for Moderate or severe MG worsening into crisis
| 2 |
To prevent the central excitation
|
To decrease the muscarinic side effects
|
To prolong the effect of neostigmine
|
To delay the progression of disease
|
Pharmacology
|
A.N.S.
|
d12a32d4-035f-47c9-a81b-a1312746c2ef
|
single
|
In a case of undifferentiated arthritis, presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti CCP) indicates strong possibility of which of the following?
|
Anticitrullinated peptide antibody test (Anti ccp) test is more specific than rheumatoid factor for diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. It may be positive very early in the course of the disease.
| 1 |
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
Systemic lupus erythematosis
|
Mixed connective tissue disorder
|
Reactive arthritis
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
07743d5a-8055-40a3-93b0-77f8cfdce033
|
single
|
True about polio vaccination is all EXCEPT:
|
Follow up of AFP every 30 days REF: Park 20thedition page 180-184 AFP surveillance is done every 60 days to check for residual paralysis Salk contains all three types of polio virus inactivated by formalin, contains 20,2 & 4D antigen of types 1,2 and 3 The doses of OPV given during pulse polio immunization are extra and supplemental, and do not replace the doses given during routine immunization. OPV induces both humoral and cell mediated immunity
| 1 |
Follow up of AFP every 30 days
|
Salk contains three types of polio virus
|
Pulse polio doses are extra and supplemental
|
Oral polio vaccine provides intestinal immunity also
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
8c72d5b4-052c-4889-b273-1fda0f9c5237
|
multi
|
Maximum audible tolerance is? (As per factory Act)
|
ANSWER: (B) 90 db for 8 hoursREF: Dhingras 3rd ed page 46According to ministry of labour government of IndiaA noise of 90 db, 8 hrs a day for 5 days per week is maximum safe limit.No exposure in excess of 115 db is permittedNo impulse noise of intensity greater than 140 db is permitted.Persons working in area where noise exceeds 85 db should have pre employment and annual audiogramsEar plugs offer protection upto 35 db and to be used where noise exceeds 85 db
| 2 |
90 db for 6 hours
|
90 db for 8 hours
|
85 db for 6 hours
|
85 db for 8 hours
|
ENT
|
Physiology of Ear
|
fb326aab-b325-4f7f-a1cc-00f2e1d19eae
|
single
|
Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an Infant incubator?
|
Infants lose heat from the skin to the environment by the following methods: Convection :This is the loss of heat from the infant&;s skin to the surrounding air. Infants lose a lot of heat by convection when exposed to cold air or draughts. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
| 3 |
Radiation
|
Evaporation
|
Convection
|
Conduction
|
Pediatrics
|
New born infants
|
d5afbe4c-6ad4-4dfe-a90a-9ee4381b294b
|
single
|
Complication of acute anterior uveitis are all EXCEPT
|
C i.e. Retinal detachment
| 3 |
Secondary glaucoma
|
Cataract
|
Retinal detachment
|
Macular oedema
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
ccd13a69-f98d-4570-afb0-352249608047
|
multi
|
Lymphatics from the upper limb drain into which group of axillary nodes?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral groupLateral group:Lie along the upper pa of the humerus, medial to the axillary vein.Receive lymph from upper limb.
| 2 |
Anterior group
|
Lateral group
|
Central group
|
Posterior group
|
Anatomy
| null |
15b40e83-aa2e-4955-82ba-bfe1cdcf2a75
|
single
|
Beta adrenergic blocker having cardioselectivity, intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and membrane stabilizing propey is:
|
Acebutolol is cardioselective Beta blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and membrane stabilizing propey * Cardioselective Beta blockers : Metoprolol, Atenolol , Acebutolol , Bisoprolol , Nebivolol These drugs are more potent in blocking cardiac (Beta 1) than bronchial (Beta 2) receptors. However, selectivity is only relative and is lost at high doses. * Beta blockers with membrane stabilizing activity : Propranolol , Oxprenolol , Acebutolol contribute to the antiarrhythmic action
| 3 |
Carvedilol
|
Atenolol
|
Acebutolol
|
Metoprolol
|
Pharmacology
|
ANS
|
7d9cae75-8068-4952-9a9d-3febf97ebe2d
|
single
|
Hypokalemia is associated frequently with
|
Insulin, b2-adrenergic activity, thyroid hormone, and alkalosis promote Na+/K+-ATPase-mediated cellular uptake of K+, leading to hypokalemia. Causes of Hypokalemia I. Decreased intake A. Starvation B. Clay ingestion II. Redistribution into cells A. Acid-base 1. Metabolic alkalosis B. Hormonal 1. Insulin 2. Increased b2-adrenergic sympathetic activity: post-myocardial infarction, head injury 3. b2-Adrenergic agonists - bronchodilators, tocolytics 4. a-Adrenergic antagonists 5. Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis 6. Downstream stimulation of Na+/K+-ATPase: theophylline, caffeine C. Anabolic state 1. Vitamin B12 or folic acid administration (red blood cell production) 2. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (white blood cell production) 3. Total parenteral nutrition D. Other 1. Pseudohyperkalemia 2. Hypothermia 3. Familial hypokalemic periodic paralysis 4. Barium toxicity: systemic inhibition of "leak" K+ channels III. Increased loss A. Nonrenal 1. Gastrointestinal loss (diarrhea) 2. Integumentary loss (sweat) B. Renal 1. Increased distal flow and distal Na+ delivery: diuretics, osmotic diuresis, salt-wasting nephropathies 2. Increased secretion of potassium a. Mineralocoicoid excess b. Apparent mineralocoicoid excess c. Distal delivery of nonreabsorbed anions 3. Magnesium deficiency Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 305
| 2 |
Metabolic acidosis
|
Metabolic alkalosis
|
Respiratory acidosis
|
Respiratory alkalosis
|
Medicine
|
Fluid and electrolytes
|
9e95a4b0-841a-44c3-90ec-6a918b91e10e
|
single
|
Which pa of the renal system produces and secretes renin?
|
The renin is produced by the juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells). These epitheloid cells are located in the media of the afferent aerioles as they enter the glomeruli. Renin is also found in agranular lacis cells that are located in the junction between the afferent and efferent aerioles. This enzyme acts in conce with angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) to form angiotensin II. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 38. Regulation of Extracellular Fluid Composition & Volume. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
| 1 |
JG cells
|
Macula densa
|
Tubular cells
|
All of the above
|
Physiology
| null |
ae984c48-f819-4358-8fac-4b97ec00fccd
|
multi
|
Lucid interval may be seen in ?
|
Ans. is `e' i.e., Insanity Lucid interval is seen in insanity and epidural haemorrhage. Lucid interval is a state of consciousness between two episodes of unconsciousness in subacute/chronic epidural haemorrhage. It is significant that during this period (lucid interval), the person can : (i) Make a valid will, (ii) Can give valid evidence, and (iii) Is legally responsible for act done (civil/criminal). Lucid interval is also seen in insanity, i.e. the period of sanity between two phases of insanity.
| 3 |
Intracerebral hemorrhage
|
Alcohol intake
|
Insanity
|
Subdural hemorrhage
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
6892a2af-eb5d-41b4-a465-0c3b14d035b6
|
single
|
In presence of Halden effect, CO2 uptake is 2 ml/ 100 ml of blood in aeries, what will be CO2 uptake in absence of Haldone effect in veins ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4 ml/100 ml of blood
| 2 |
2 ml/100 ml of blood
|
4 ml/100 ml of blood
|
6 ml/100 ml of blood
|
8 ml/100 ml of blood
|
Physiology
| null |
d9350a2c-98e4-4be1-be5c-f24cf6293662
|
single
|
Contents of broad ligament are all except
|
Internal pudendal artery is not content of broad ligament.
| 4 |
Round ligament
|
Uterine vessels
|
Infundibulopelvic Ligament
|
Internal pudendal artery
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
eba3c443-abeb-4e38-99d7-74b07d197dc0
|
multi
|
A healthy 75-year-old man bleeds from a duodenal ulcer. Medical management and endoscopic measures fail to stop the bleeding. What is the next step in management?
|
In general, surgery for peptic ulcer bleeding is indicated at an earlier stage in an older patient because vessels are atherosclerotic and less likely to stop bleeding spontaneously. In addition, diminished perfusion of the heart, brain, and kidneys is less well tolerated in elderly patients. At surgery, the gastroduodenal artery is oversewn, and a vagotomy and drainage procedure is performed.
| 4 |
Continued transfusion of 8 U of blood
|
Administration of norepinephrine
|
Oversewing of the bleeding point
|
Oversewing of the bleeding point, vagotomy. and pyloroplasty
|
Surgery
|
Stomach & Duodenum
|
cce1aa51-930b-493d-a449-8c3297fefe7b
|
multi
|
After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:-
|
Nerve Muscle Movement long thoracic nerve serratus anterior overhead abduction. spinal accessory nerve trapezius Shrugging of shoulder Lateral and medial pectoral nerves Pectoralis major touching the opposite shoulder.
| 2 |
Shrug the shoulders
|
Raise the arm above the head on the affected side
|
Touch the opposite shoulder
|
Lift a heavy object from the ground
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb bones and muscles (proximal region) & Scapular movements
|
66eccde8-14d9-4deb-82ea-cd6fbccb9667
|
multi
|
Which of the following is not true about tryptophan?
|
Tryptophan is an essential aminoacid. It is used in the synthesis of Melatonin, serotonin and niacin.
| 4 |
Involved in niacin synthesis
|
Involved in serotonin synthesis
|
Involved in melatonin synthesis
|
It is a non essential amino acid.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
039a2b9b-bf96-42e4-967e-2fbbe839b96f
|
multi
|
25 year old patient presented with mass in rt iliac fossa. Which after laparotomy was found to be carcinoid of 2.5 cm. in diameter. What will be next step in management -
| null | 3 |
Segmental resection
|
Appendicetomy
|
Rt. hemicolectomy
|
Do yearly 5 HIAA assay.
|
Surgery
| null |
8f007e2d-bb43-4fc0-9990-19af15c96939
|
multi
|
Which is not a metastatic complication of gonococci -
| null | 3 |
Endocarditis
|
Meningitis
|
Nephritis
|
Arthritis
|
Microbiology
| null |
578847df-3ec3-4fde-8ea0-3ab69f279392
|
single
|
Regarding International Classification of Diseases untrue is
|
Ans. b (10th revision has 15 major chapters) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/ 47)INTERNATIONAL CLASSIFICATION OF DISEASES (ICD)# It is conducted by the WHO every 10 years and accepted for national and international use.# Since its inception, ICD has been revised about once every 10 years; the latest revision, the 10th revision, came into effect on January 1, 1993.# Earlier, the scope of ICD was expanded in the sixth revision in 1948 to dentistry, oncology, and ophthalmology.# As in previous revisions, the ICD-10 is arranged in 21 major chapters.# It is a base for use in other health fields.International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems 10th Revision; Version for 2007 (ICD Code 10)ChapterTitleICertain infectious and parasitic diseasesIINeoplasmsIIIDiseases of the blood and blood-forming organs and certain disorders involving the immune mechanismIVEndocrine, nutritional and metabolic diseasesVMental and behavioural disordersVIDiseases of the nervous systemVIIDiseases of the eye and adnexaVIIIDiseases of the ear and mastoid processIXDiseases of the circulatory systemXDiseases of the respiratory systemXIDiseases of the digestive systemXIIDiseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissueXIIIDiseases of the musculoskeletal system and connective tissueXIVDiseases of the genitourinary systemXVPregnancy, childbirth and the puerperiumXVICertain conditions originating in the perinatal periodXVIICongenital malformations, deformations and chromosomal abnormalitiesXVIIISymptoms, signs and abnormal clinical and laboratory findings, not elsewhere classifiedXIXInjury, poisoning and certain other consequences of external causesXXExternal causes of morbidity and mortalityXXIFactors influencing health status and contact with health servicesXXIICodes for special purposes
| 2 |
Revised every 10 years
|
10th revision has 15 major chapters
|
Is base for use in other health fields
|
Coding system in 10th revision is alpha numerical
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Miscellaneous
|
5d4514a4-98e5-4045-8bf5-4261c4f98e57
|
multi
|
False regarding calcium homeostasis in pregnancy is?
|
Ans. B. Serum ionized calcium levels fallTotal serum calcium levels, (which include both ionized and non-ionized calcium), decline during pregnancy, reduction follows lowered plasma albumin concentrations and, a consequent decrease in the amount of circulating protein- bound non ionized calcium. Serum ionized calcium levels remain unchanged. The fetal skeleton accretes approximately 30g of calcium by term, 80 percent of which is deposited during the third trimester. This demand is largely met by a doubling of maternal intestinal calcium absorption mediated, in part, by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 . Dietary intake of sufficient calcium is necessary to prevent excess depletion from the mother.
| 2 |
Serum non ionized calcium levels fall
|
Serum ionized calcium levels fall
|
Intestinal absorption of calcium increased
|
Levels of 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D are increased
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Physiological changes during Pregnancy
|
e0dac310-7fb0-45bf-8eba-c777131574bb
|
multi
|
The ‘a’ wave in venous waveform is absent in case of
| null | 2 |
AV dissociation
|
Atrial fibrillation
|
Tricuspid incompetency
|
All of the above
|
Medicine
| null |
9f97a5b7-7b68-4c7f-b4e1-be64d218a591
|
multi
|
Commonest form of anthrax is -
| null | 3 |
Wool sorters disease
|
Alimentary type
|
Cutaneous type
|
None of the above
|
Surgery
| null |
6eefba3d-9f28-47d7-9cb3-a58d1c451cdf
|
multi
|
Anencephaly causes all except :
|
None
| 4 |
Prematurity
|
Face presentation
|
Hydramnios
|
None
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
bb9a81c7-106b-4db9-a007-98e11d8ddea1
|
multi
|
A 30-year-old restrained driver was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. He is hemodynamically stable and has a large seat belt sign on the abdomen. His abdomen is tender to palpation. In this patient one should be most concerned about:
|
While all the injuries listed are potential problems in this patient, the most severe is blunt hollow viscus injury. A delay in diagnosis beyond 12 hours is associated with increased morbidity and mortality. There may be very few physical signs of a viscus perforation and CT findings may be subtle and not definitive. A seat belt sign across the abdomen should raise suspicion of this injury and prompt an aggressive pursuit of diagnosis by serial examination and a consideration of a peritoneal lavage or repeat CT scan.
| 4 |
Liver and spleen injury
|
Transection of the head of the pancreas
|
Renal pedicle avulsion
|
Hollow-viscus injuries
|
Surgery
|
Trauma
|
1e6b146b-fa7f-446e-af5a-98ede9b2b469
|
multi
|
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hepatitis E virus(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, 550 and 8th/e, p. 546)* Fulminant hepatitis may occur rarely in 1 - 2% of cases, except for the pregnant women who are particularly at higher risk (20%) of developing fulminant hepatitis.
| 3 |
Hepatitis B virus
|
Hepatitis C virus
|
Hepatitis E virus
|
Hepatitis A virus
|
Microbiology
|
Hepatitis Viruses
|
2bed1804-06c2-48ab-b82e-1cfa9eb2a97f
|
single
|
Vogt&;s triad is indicative of
|
Vogt&;s triad of clinical signs of past acute angle closure glaucoma includes sector iris atrophy, pigment dispersion on corneal endothelium and anterior subcapsular cataractous changes called Glaukomflecken. Ref:- Parsons diseases of eye; pg num:-298
| 4 |
Past attack of herpes zoster ophthalmicus
|
Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
|
Past attack of acute iridocyclitis
|
Past attack of acute-angle closure glaucoma
|
Ophthalmology
|
Glaucoma
|
a800c4bc-4106-4d3e-9340-f18bcb2606f2
|
single
|
Retienloeyte level in newborn's ?
|
Reticulocyte count is the percentage of reticulocytes in total red blood cells.
| 3 |
0.2–1.5%
|
1–1.6%
|
2.5–6%
|
6–10.2%
|
Pediatrics
| null |
80a35d62-c1b3-4984-af9c-fca9628e3c44
|
single
|
"Kayser - Fleischer rings" seen in
|
(Wilson's disease) (648 - HM) (656- Basic pathology 8th)* Greenish brown pigmented rings in the periphery of the cornea (Kayer - Fleischer rings) seen in Wilson's disease* In wilson disease, deposition of copper occurs
| 1 |
Wilson's disease
|
a -1 Antitrypsin deficiency
|
Haemochromatosis
|
Primary biliary cirrhosis
|
Pathology
|
Liver & Biliary Tract
|
4301eb46-fe67-4d68-a9d4-9347b53b7a58
|
single
|
Which of these is true of fetal haemoglobin?
|
Hb F binds less avidly to 2,3 DPG than HbA and thus has higher affinity for oxygen than HbA Almost 65 to 90% of haemoglobin at bih is HbF. After bih HbF gamma gene is switched off and HbA beta gene is switched on so more and more HbA is formed. Sickle cell patients have relatively high amounts of fetal Hb. HbA first appears in fetal blood at 11 weeks when bone marrow stas hematopoesis Remember: The fetal hemoglobin stas appearing at 11 weeks, but the 'Switch - Over' from Fetal hemoglobin's utilisation for oxygen transpo to Adult haemoglobin for oxygen transpo happens at 30-32 weeks...
| 3 |
HbF binds more avidly to to 2,3 DPG
|
HbF is completely replaced by HbA at the time of bih
|
HbA first appears in fetal blood at 11 weeks when bone marrow stas hematopoiesis
|
With Sickle cell anemia very low amounts of HbF is produced
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Fetal circulation
|
68bb4b63-ef08-48c7-bd71-8b7d1ceb2646
|
multi
|
Dawn phenomenon refers to -
|
The dawn phenomenon, also called the dawn effect, is the term used to describe an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar (glucose) -- usually between 2 and 8 a.m. -- in people with diabetes. It arises through a combination of the normal circadian rhythm and release of counter-regulatory hormones (growth hormone, coisol, glucagon and epinephrine) during the later pa of the night which increases insulin resistance, causing blood sugar to rise, as well as diminishing levels of overnight insulin. Steps that may help include eating dinner earlier in the evening, avoiding carbohydrate intake at bedtime, doing something active after dinner (such as going for a walk), moving the long-acting insulin from before the evening meal to bedtime, switch to a different medication, use an insulin pump to administer extra insulin during early-morning hours. Reference : page 825 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition and page 2412 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition
| 1 |
Early morning hyperglycemia
|
Early morning hypoglycemia
|
Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
|
High insulin levels
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
d992e46e-da23-4d39-97a1-2df7c3a14767
|
single
|
Bisphosphonates are useful in all EXCEPT:
|
ANSWER: (B) Vitamin D excessREF: KDT 6th ed page 333, Lippincot 6th ed page 758, Year Book of Endocrinology 2013 - Page 179See details of Bisphosphonates in Pharmacology 2013 Session 2
| 2 |
Hypercalcemia of malignancy
|
Vitamin D excess
|
Postmenopausal osteoporosis
|
Paget disease
|
Pharmacology
|
Endocrinology
|
4bdae011-b965-4677-9603-3c18a2d8f27e
|
multi
|
Galactorrhoea due to ectopic prolactin is seen in a) Malignant thymoma b) Bronchogenic carcinoma c) Medullary carcinoma thyroid d) Hypemephroma
| null | 2 |
abc
|
bd
|
bcd
|
cd
|
Medicine
| null |
03466028-c851-4195-9180-af8923114028
|
single
|
True about Anorexia nervosa
|
Is associated with constipation more commonly than diarrhoea T3 is more o en low with an apparently normal T4. Diarrhoea may occur with laxative abuse but constipation is commonest with inherent hypomotility of the gut.
| 4 |
Is more common than bulimia
|
Can have a low T4 in the presence of a normal T3
|
May have a hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis
|
Is associated with constipation more commonly than diarrhea
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
4ce09107-6530-44db-9646-987f19e6f592
|
multi
|
The following name is associated with psychodynamic theory
|
Contributor: Freud, Sigmund (1856-1939) Coined the Term: Free association, Psychoanalysis, Psychodynamics, Oedipus complex, Electra complex, Penis envy, Primal scene, Ego defence mechanisms, Repression, Psychological determinism, Pleasure principle, Reality principle Special Mention: Founder of psychoanalysis; some of the significant contributions include interpretation of dreams, theory of infantile sexuality, structural and topographical model of mind, theory of instincts, psychopathology of everyday life and stages of psychosexual development Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.243.
| 2 |
Carl Jung
|
Sigmund Freud
|
Emil Kraeplin
|
Eugen Bleuler
|
Psychiatry
|
Cognitive development and defence mechanism
|
32becfae-96b7-412a-9c12-e597716834dc
|
single
|
A primigravida with full term pregnancy in labor for 1 day is brought to casualty after dia handing. On examination she is dehydrated, slightly pale, bulse 100/min, BP120 / 80 mm Hg. abdominal examination reveals a fundal height of 36 weeks, cephalic presentation, foetal hea absent, mild uterine contractions present. On PN examination, cervix is fully dialted, head is at +1 station, caput with moulding present, pelvis adequate. Diy, infected discharge is present. What would be the best management option after initial work-up ?
|
Ventouse delivery
| 3 |
Cesarean section
|
Oxytocin drip
|
Ventouse delivery
|
Craniotomy and vaginal delivery
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
27c89b71-0f36-493d-8477-3b0b5bf9303a
|
multi
|
A laboratory experiment is performed to evaluate the chemotactic potential of a group of potential mediators. Which of the following substances most likely has the greatest affinity for neutrophils?
|
Several substances have chemotactic potential for neutrophils. C5a is a prominent example Chemotactic Factors Factor Description Chemotactic For Formylated peptides Bacterial products of Escherichia coli Neutrophils C5a Activated complement component Neutrophils HETE, LTB Leukotrienes Neutrophils Kallikrein Product of factor XIIa - mediated conversion, and other cells Neutrophils PAF AGEPC; from basophils, mast cells, and other cells Eosinophils PDGF From platelets, monocytes - macrophages, smooth muscle cells and endothelial cells Neutrophils and macrophages TGF-b From platelets, neutrophils, macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts Macrophages and fibroblasts
| 1 |
C5a
|
Fucosyl transferase
|
P-selectin
|
TNF-a
|
Pathology
|
Chemical mediators in plasma: Kinin system
|
46ba59c5-72e2-4f18-bb87-bf297a2f73f7
|
single
|
Antihelminthic which acts by flaccid paralysis of worms is-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Piperazine Piperazine o It causes hyperpolarization of ascaris muscle by a GABA agonistic action opening Cl-channels --> flaccid paralysis. o Piperazine safe and well tolerated drug, it is also safe in pregnancy. Remember o Drugs causing flaccid paralysis Ivermectin, piperazine. o Drugs causing spastic paralysis --> Pyrantel pamoate, levamisole.
| 1 |
Piperazine
|
Bephenium
|
Pyrantel
|
None
|
Pharmacology
| null |
260d533f-b646-42ef-ab09-dfb6b13c362d
|
multi
|
Pseudoaerial aneurysm in drug abuser&;s seen in
|
Pseudoaneurysm is a rare condition arising from disruption in aerial wall with blood dissecting into the tissues around the damaged aery creating a perfused sac that communicates with the aerial lumen. Its incidence is on rise due to increase in endovascular procedures, hemodialysis and intravenous drug abuse. Here we repo an young male who was found by a NGO worker, lying on roadside near a Mandir with a pulsatile inguinal swelling and blood oozing out from it. He was taken immediately to emergency depament of LN Hospital. He was a rickshaw puller and known drug addict. The swelling was diagnosed as pseudo-aneurysm of common femoral aery on clinical examination and by Doppler ultrasonogrphy. He was referred to CTVS depament and admitted there for surgery. In the meanwhile, he collapsed in the hospital toilet and died due to hemorrhagic shock consequent upon rupture of pseudo- aneurysm of femoral aery. Ref: Rutherford vascular surgery 6th edition pvolume II Pgno : 248-249
| 3 |
Radial
|
Brachial
|
Femoral
|
Carotid
|
Surgery
|
Vascular surgery
|
44be9240-fd1d-4e32-81a8-1dbc2a368850
|
single
|
Commonest mass in the middle mediastinum is –
|
"Lymphadenopathy is by for the most common middle mediastinal mass".
"The most common middle mediastinal mass is adenopathy".
"Lymphadenopathy is the most common middle mediastinum mass".
You should keep in mind that, though, the most common middle mediastinal mass is lymph nodes enlargement, duplication congenital cysts (Bronchogenic cysts, esophageal duplication cysts) are the most common middle mediastinal masses in children.
Most common anterior mediastinal mass → Thymoma
Most common middle mediastinal mass → Lymphadenopathy
Most common middle mediastinal mass in children → Congenital duplication cysts
Most common posterior mediastinal mass → Neurogenic tumors
Overall most common mediastinal mass → Neurogenic tumors
Note - Neurogenic tumors constitute 20% and thymomas constitute 19% of all the mediastinal masses.
| 3 |
Lipoma
|
Aneurysm
|
Lymph node mass
|
Congenital cysts
|
Radiology
| null |
d321bbde-5e9d-4356-8aa0-4878af745ce8
|
single
|
All of the following are true of Neurocvsticercosis EXCEPT
|
(B) More common in vegetarians # Neurocysticercosis is caused by infection with the pork tapeworm Taenia solium, and undergoes specific clinical and imaging changes at it progresses through four stages of infection.1. Vesicular - viable parasite with intact membrane and therefore no host reaction. Cyst is CSF density / intensity, and a hyperintense scolex on T1WI can sometimes be seen. No enhancement is typical, although very faint enhancement of the wall and enhancement of the scolex may be seen.2. Colloidal vesicular- parasite dies and the cyst fluid becomes turbid (hyperdense and hyper- intense on T1WI). As the membrane becomes leaky oedema surrounds the cyst and the wall becomes thickened and brightly enhances - scolex can often still be seen as an eccentric focus of enhancement.3. Granular nodal - Oedema decreases as the cyst retracts further. Enhancement persists.4. Nodular calcified - end stage quiescent calcified cyst remnant. No oedema.# Cysticercus is the larval form of the cestode, Taenia solium (pork tapeworm).> Humans acquire infection that lead to intestinal tapeworms by ingesting under cooked pork containing cysticerci.> Cysticerci in the brain parenchyma cause rice-grain calcifications.> Humans are the only definitive hosts for Taenia solium, pigs are the usual intermediate hosts.> Albendazole or praziquantel may be used in neurocysticercosis.
| 2 |
Albendazole is the drug of choice
|
More common in vegetarians
|
Produces intracerebral calcification
|
Man is the definitive host
|
Medicine
|
Miscellaneous
|
506a01cd-d738-4bcb-a7fc-39afdb6b2028
|
multi
|
Magaldrate is converted by gastric acid to -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide Magaldrate:o Magaldrateis a common antaciddrug that is used for the treatment of duodenal and gastric ulcers, esophagitis from gastroesophageal reflux.o Magaldrate is a hydroxymagnesium aluminate complex that is converted rapidly in gastric acid to Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3, wrhich are absorbed poorly and thus provide a sustained antacid effect.
| 3 |
Magnesium hydroxide
|
Magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate
|
Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide
|
Calcium carbonate and aluminium hydroxide
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti-Ulcer
|
33585926-8ebc-4a20-9e33-32110aad28bd
|
single
|
All the following show miliary shadows on chest X-ray except:
|
Ans. Staphylococcal pneumonia
| 4 |
Pneumoconiosis
|
Mitral stenosis
|
Sarcoidosis
|
Staphylococcal pneumonia
|
Radiology
| null |
c522061a-3377-4b16-b74c-40ca139dd140
|
multi
|
Most important feature of delirium -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Clouding of consciousness o The most conspicuous feature is a clouding of consciousness which ranges from mild dulling to deep coma.Deliriumo Delirium is defined by the acute onset of fluctuating cognitive impairment and a disturbance of consciousness. It is also referred to as acute confusional state or acute organic brain syndrome Clinical features of delirium -1) Altered consciousness (clouding of consciousness to coma)2) Cognitive impairment Impaired attention, poor concentration, disorientation or confusion, altered sensorium, and memory disturbances (Impairment of immediate and recent memory).3. Perceptual anomalies Illusion, Hallucinations.4. Emotional disturbances fear & anxiety'.5. Language disturbances and psychomotor disturbances (hypoactivity or hyperactivity).6. Disturbance of sleep-wake cycle.7. Autonomic disturbances Tachycardia, sweating, tremors.8. Neurological disturbances Tremor, seizure, choreiform movements.
| 4 |
Impaired attention
|
Anxiety
|
Hyperactivity
|
Clouding of consciousness
|
Psychiatry
|
Organic Mental Disorder
|
02fd89f7-c6a8-4f57-a149-57ffbacd890c
|
single
|
Which of the following is/are included in bipolar disease -a) Hypomaniab) Cyclothymiac) Paranoid disorderd) Hyperthymiae) Kleptomania
| null | 2 |
ac
|
ab
|
ad
|
bc
|
Psychiatry
| null |
db692adb-319f-4803-ae79-c450790664f1
|
single
|
Which of the micromineral is a constituent of vitamin B12 -
|
Ans. is 'c* i.e., Cobalt o Vitamin B12. is a corrinoid, i.e. cobalt-containing compound possessing the corrin ring.Microminerals or trace elementsChromiumPotentiate the effect of insulinImpaired glucose metabolismCobaltConstituent of vitamin B12QMacrocytic anemiaCopperConstituent of oxidase enzymes, e.g., tyrosinase, lysyl oxidase, superoxide dismutase, cytochrome oxidase, ferroxidase and ceruloplasmin, involved in iron absorption and mobilization'Microcytic hypochromic anemia, depigmentation of skin, hair. Excessive deposition in the liver in Wilson's disease, Menkes disease (''Kinky" or "steely" hair disease) due to copper- binding P-type ATPase gene mutationFluorideConstituent of bone and teeth strengthens bone and teethDental cariesIodineConstituent of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)Cretinism in children and goiter in adultsIronConstituent of heme and non-heme compounds and transport, storage of 02, cytochrome oxidase, xanthine oxidase, catalase, peroxidaseMicrocytic anemiaManganeseCofactor for a number of enzymes, e.g., arginase, carboxylase, kinase, enolase, glucosyltransferase, phosphoglucomutaseNot well definedMolybdenumConstituent of xanthine oxidase, sulfite oxidase, and aldehyde oxidaseXanthinuriaSeleniumAntioxidant, a cofactor for glutathione peroxidase, protects the cell against membrane lipid peroxidationCardiomyopathyZincCofactor for enzymes in DNA, RNA and protein synthesis, a constituent of insulin, carbonic anhydrase. carboxypeptidase, LDHQ alcohol dehydrogenase, alkaline phosphatase, glutamate dehydrogenase. Porphobilinogen synthase, superoxide dismutase.Growth failure, impaired wound healing, defects in taste and smell, loss of appetite
| 3 |
lodine
|
Zinc
|
Cobalt
|
Iron
|
Unknown
| null |
6b12325f-1c6e-4c2f-abc0-c86013a3b1fb
|
single
|
The Fc piece of which Immunoglobulin fixes C1 complements?
|
.
| 2 |
IgA
|
IgG
|
IgD
|
IgE
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
ba52876c-d68b-4496-8e7e-48a8ea36572e
|
single
|
A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalemia of 2.3 meq/1. K+ supplementation required:(AIIMS November 2013, Nov 2012)
|
Ans. d. 120-160 mEq over 24 hours (Ref: Cecil Textbook of Medicine by Goldmann/Ausiello Renal and Genitourinary Diseases 22/e p685)Except in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq.Potassium SupplementationA prudent protocol to follow is to add potassium chloride to IV solutions at a final concentration of 40-60 mEq/L and to administer no more than 10-20 mEq/L of potassium per hour.Except in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq.IV potassium replacement is indicated for patients with severe hypokalemia and for those who cannot take oral supplementation.For severe deficiency, potassium may be given through a peripheral IV line in a concentration that should not exceed 40 mEq/L, at the rates upto 40 mEq/L/Hour.Continuous ECG monitoring is indicated and the serum potassium levels should be checked every 3-6 hours.For the initial administration, avoid glucose containing fluid to prevent further shift of potassium into the cellsqQMagnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected at the same time, particularly in refractory hypokalemiaQ.
| 4 |
40 mEq over 24 hours
|
60 mEq over 24 hours
|
80 mEq over 24 hours
|
120-160 mEq over 24 hours
|
Medicine
|
Electrolyte
|
985b302f-1093-4209-891c-218c7a2dae34
|
single
|
Hormone therapy indicated in menopausal women:
|
Ans. a. Hot flashRef: Shaws Textbook of Gynecology 16th Ed; Page No-74HORMONE REPLACEMENTTHERAPYBenefits and RisksEstrogen therapy is the most effective FDA-approved method for relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes), it is also used in genitourinary atrophy and dyspareunia.Hot flashes:Excess amount of sweating and sensation of heat is felt by 75% of menopausal women.It is mediated through the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.Due to peripheral conversion of androgens to estrone in their peripheral adipose tissues; obese women are less commonly to undergo hot flashes.The Womens Health Initiative (WHI) study of the National Institutes of Health (NIH) studied 27,000 postmenopausal women with a mean age of 63 years. These included women with a uterus on hormone therapy (HT), both estrogen and progestin, and hysterectomized women on estrogen therapy (ET) only.CRITIQUE OF WOMEN'S HEALTH INITIATIVE STUDYExcludes patients with vasomotor symptomsPrimary indication for hormone replacementMean patient age was 63 yearsMissed the 10-year "window of opportunity"Same dose of hormone for all agesOlder women don't need as a high dose as do younger womenPatients were not all healthyHypertension (40%), t cholesterol (15%), diabetes mellitus (7%), myocardial infarction (3%)Benefits: Both HT and ET groups in WHI had decreased osteoporotic fractures and lower rates of colorectal cancer.Risks: Both HT and ET groups in WHI were found to have small increases in deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The HT group also had increased heart attacks and breast cancer, but these were not increased in the ET group.WHI-BENEFIT AND RISK (MEAN AGE OF 63 YEARS) Estrogen and progestinEstrogen onlyVaginal drynessBenefitBenefitHot flashesBenefitBenefitVasomotor symptomsBenefitBenefitOsteoporosisBenefitBenefitBreast cancerRiskNo changeHeart diseaseRiskNo changeStrokeRiskRiskCONTRAINDICATIONSPersonal history of an estrogen-sensitive cancer (breast or endometrium), active liver disease, active thrombosis, or unexplained vaginal bleedingMODALITIESThe route of Estrogen can be administered by oral, transdermal, vaginal, or parenteral routes.All routes will yield the benefits described. Estrogen is contraindicated in Women with uterus cancer.All women with uterus cancer should be treated with progestin therapy to prevent endometrial hyperplasia.The most common current regimen is oral estrogen and progestin given continuously.
| 1 |
Hot flash
|
Ca breast
|
Endometriosis
|
Uterine bleeding
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Physiology & Histology
|
ad053d8b-39b1-49b8-90ef-799e9cded1e0
|
single
|
Radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood is?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymphadenopathy Lymphadenopathy with or without parenchymal abnormality is the radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood.
| 3 |
Ghon's focus
|
Normal chest Xray
|
Lymphadenopathy
|
Pleural effusion
|
Radiology
| null |
d12d57f1-c338-4adf-a90a-e9e62f9ec7c2
|
multi
|
Causes of eosinophilia -a) Hodgkin's diseaseb) Filariasisc) MId) HIV infection
|
Conditions producing allergic reactions and resulting eosinophilia are:
Drugs: Iodides, Aspirin, Sulfonamides, Nitrofurantoin, Penicillins, Cephalosporins.
Disease conditions: Hay fever, Asthma, Eczema, Serum sickness, Allergic vasculitis, Pemphigus, All types of parasitic infections.
Collagen vascular diseases: RA, Eosinophilic fasciitis, Allergic angiitis, Polyarteritis nodosa.
Malignancy: Hodgkin’s disease, Mycosis fungoides, CML, Carcinoma of stomach, ovary, lung, Pancreas and uterus.
Other diseases: Job’s syndrome, Sarcoidosis, Skin disease.
Viral infection like HIV and human T-cell Iymphotropic virus (HTLV-l).
| 3 |
acd
|
bcd
|
abd
|
ab
|
Pathology
| null |
078579c4-6bd5-4418-87e0-e8de95addb69
|
single
|
Ante's law is followed in the construction of
| null | 2 |
Complete denture
|
Fixed partial denture
|
Removable partial denture
|
All of the above
|
Dental
| null |
1bcc0bd8-02e6-4387-a3fc-3ba35c75cc88
|
multi
|
Which of these rules is associated with the highlighted bone?
|
Ans. (C). Rule of AshleyREVISE IT NOW POINTSRule of Hasse - Gestational age from rigor mortisRule of Ashley - Sex determination from sternal length (> 149 cm - Male; < 149 cm - Female)Rule of 9 - Burns (Rule of Wallace)Rule of 12 - Rigor mortis.Rule of Nysten -Sequential development of rigor mortis.Rule of Half dozen (6)- Eruption of Temporary teethYoung's rule - Drug dosing in a childQuetlet's rule - Biological variation - Finger print.Puppe's rule - Sequencing of shots due to multiple gunshot injuries from skull fractures.Casper's dictum - rate of decomposition in air, water & soil.Mcnaughten's rule - Criminal responsibility of insane person
| 3 |
Rule of Hasse
|
Rule of half dozen
|
Rule of Ashley
|
Rule of Nysten
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Forensic Psychiatry
|
a1986cf1-644a-4451-9d79-719da9cc2532
|
single
|
All are true for Rapid sand filters except:
|
Comparison of Rapid and Slow Sand Filters: Rapid sand filter Slow sand filter aka Biological filter Space Occupies very little space Occupies large areas Rate of filtration 200 m.g.a.d 2-3 m.g.a.d Effective size of sand 0.4-0.7 mm 0.2-0.3 mm Preliminary treatment Chemical coagulation & sedimentation Plain sedimentation Washing By back washing By scraping sand bed Frequent washing Required Not required Mechanism of action Essential physical Both physical & mechanical Operation Highly skilled Less skilled Loss of head allowed 6-8 feet 4 feet Removal of turbidity Good Good Removal of color Good Fair Removal of bacteria 98-99 percent 99.9-99.99 percent Suitability For big cities For small towns
| 3 |
No preliminary storage of raw water is required
|
Operation requires highly skilled persons
|
Frequent washing is not required
|
Can be gravity type or pressure type
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Water
|
b3221deb-4b2f-4a83-99c8-7bece776d82b
|
multi
|
An epiphyseal bone lesion is -
|
Chondroblastoma also reffered to as codman tumours are rare benign cailaginous neoplasms that charecteristically arise in the epiphysis or apophysis of along bone in young patients. It has high occurence and high chance of metastasis. ref img
| 2 |
Osteogenic sarcoma
|
Chondroblastoma
|
Ewing's sarcoma
|
Chondromyxoid fibroma
|
Pathology
|
Breast
|
9dd669d6-024c-4792-938e-660ed66bdcc0
|
single
|
Which anti-epileptic drug will cause hirsutism in a 30 year old woman: March 2013
|
Ans. A i.e. Phenytoin Dermatologic side-effects of Phenytoin includes hyperichosis, rash, exfoliative dermatitis, pruritis, hirsutism, and coarsening of facial features.
| 1 |
Phenytoin
|
Carbamazepine
|
Valproate
|
Ethosuximide
|
Pharmacology
| null |
dbfd48a1-9372-4267-8f6c-623f21208682
|
single
|
Test used to differentiate between chromosomal pattern of normal cell and cancer cell?
| null | 4 |
FISH
|
PCR
|
Karyotyping
|
Comparative genomic hybridization
|
Pathology
| null |
0757f085-a722-489a-a8e4-4d4f386fa619
|
single
|
All of the following statements about penicillin G are true EXCEPT :
|
Penicillin act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis via the inhibition of transpeptidation reaction.
Penicillin G is the drug of choice for:
- Gram +ve bacteria (like Streptococcus, Pneumococcus, non-beta-lactamase producing Staphylococcus, Clostridium and other gram-positive rods)
- Gram-negative bacteria (like Meningococci, Enterococci and non-β-lactamase producing gram-negative anaerobic bacteria)
- Actinomycetes and Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
Penicillin is rapidly excreted by the kidney. 90% excretion is by tubular secretion whereas 10% is by glomerular filtration. Probenecid competes with tubular secretion and prolongs the duration of action.
Penicillin G is less effective by oral route due to destruction by hydrochloric acid in the stomach. Penicillin V is acid stable and thus can be given orally. Mostly penicillin G is administered parenterally (i.m. or i.v.) but it can be administered orally for mild infections. Katzung Pg. 742, in preparations available, also shows the oral and parenteral preparations.
Thus "penicillin is never administered orally" is not a true statement because it can be used orally but commonly used parenterally.
| 2 |
It is actively secreted in tubules
|
It is never administered orally
|
It is effective, against gram positive as well as some gram negative bacteria
|
It acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis
|
Pharmacology
| null |
ae77f9e3-1c17-4bc7-839e-7269dbbe541b
|
multi
|
For a mobile tumour on vocal cord, treatment is:
|
According to Dhingra Radiotherpy is the treatment of choice for vocal cord cancer with normal mobility. Normal mobility of cord suggests that growth is only limited to the surface and belongs to either stage T1 or T2. TOC for stage T1 of glottic carcinoma - radiotherapy. TOC for stage T2 of glottic carcinoma - depends on mobility of the cord
| 3 |
Surgery
|
Chemotherapy
|
Radiotherapy
|
None of the above
|
ENT
| null |
7d0d3757-aa09-41ce-aa0d-47e13f0c3031
|
multi
|
Tubercles of Montgomery are present in:
|
Montgomery’s glands or Montgomery Tubercles are the large sebaceous and rudimentary milk glands present in the areola surrounding the nipple of the female breast.
| 4 |
Lung
|
Duodenum
|
Liver
|
Breast
|
Unknown
| null |
85ec6e0a-3546-468a-98fb-e0c458b8fd4e
|
single
|
Which of the following diuretic is used in the given condition?
|
Loop diuretics are 1st choice in hepatic cirrhosis associated edema along with aldosterone antagonist.Ref: Katzung 13thed.Pg 265
| 1 |
Furosemide
|
Thiazide
|
Acetazolamide
|
Neomycin
|
Pharmacology
|
Gastrointestinal tract
|
83d11f6f-924f-49d4-af78-9d92ad75b1af
|
single
|
The indicator used in autoclave is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bacillus stearothermophilus Steam sterilization is widely used as a terminal sterilization process for pharmaceutical drug products in glass ampoules, vials, syringes, and plastic containers.It is also used for sterilizing closures, filters, manufacturing equipment, cleaning equipment, and so forth. Biological indicatorsBiological indicators are "standardized" preparations of certain microorganisms with known characteristics (a defined population, purity and resistance).The microorganisms used to prepare biological indicators are those capable of forming endospores and the microorganism is used in the "spore state".The principal is that if these spores are destroyed it can be assumed that any contaminating microorganism in the sterilisation load would also have been killed.Different biological indicators are used for different sterilization processes. Biological indicators are designed for use with:Ethylene oxide gasHydrogen peroxide vapour (plasma)Dry heat sterilization (oven)Steam sterilization (autoclave)RadiationThe microorganism used will vary depending upon the means of sterilization which requires testing.Microorganisms are selected depending upon how resistant they are to the chosen method of sterilization.Different microorganisms are more resistant than others to different types of sterilization. With steam sterilization, for example, spore- bearing microorganisms are more resistant than non-spore bearing microorganisms.A microorganism like Staphylococcus (commonly carried on human skin) would have a typical D-value at 121oC for a 15- minute autoclave cycle of only 15 seconds, whereas an endospore forming thermophilic Bacillus would have one of at least 1.5 minutes.For steam sterilization, Geobacillus stearothermophilus (formerly described as Bacillus stearothermophilus) is most commonly used.This microorganism is used due to its theoretical resistance to particular types of sterilization, including heat and it is nonpathogenic.The most commonly used biological indicator in healthcare today contains endospores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus formerly called Bacillus stearothermophilus.The Geobacillus stearothermophilus bacterium is a nonpathogenic spore former that is able to with stand the high temperatures of steam sterilization when in its spore form.When compared to pathogenic species. G stearothermophilus survives much longer.This same organism is also used to monitor gas plasma sterilization, ozone sterilization and liquid sterilisation with peracetic acid because G. stearothermophilus is highly resistant to these sterilisation methods as well.The second organism used in healthcare facilities is Bacillus atrophaeus formerly called Bacillus subtilis var niger.This organism is resistant to ethylene oxide and dry heat sterilisation methods.The efficacy of the process has been established by demonstrating a sterility assurance level of at least 10'6 with Bacillus stearothermophilus.Both, the Bacillus stearothermophilus and B. subtilis provides high degree of resistance to any sterilisation process.Earlier there were discussions whether to use B. subtilis or B. stearothermophilus for plasma sterilization. This is no lower a topic of discussion because in February of 1999 a self-contained biological indicator using 10-6. Bacillus stearothermophilus became available internationally for the routine monitoring of plasma sterilization Steam cycles >Spores of geobacillus stearothermophilusEthylene oxide >Spores of bacillus atrophaeusPIasma sterlisation >Spores of geobacillus stearothermophilusDry heat >Spores of bacillus atrophaeusPeracetic acid >Spores of geobacillus stearothermophilusOzone cycles >Spores of geobacillus stearothermophilus
| 2 |
Clostridium tetani
|
Bacillus stereothermophilus
|
Bacillus pumilis
|
Bacillus subtilisvamiger
|
Microbiology
|
General
|
9e886826-9722-4be1-86d9-cf720e294fe4
|
single
|
Hyaline cartilage of respiratory tree extends up to:
|
Hyaline cartilage extends till the bronchi and are absent (or scatteredly present) distally in the bronchioles.
Goblet cells also extend till bronchus level; beyond that they are present scatteredly.
| 4 |
Tertiary bronchiole
|
Secondary bronchiole
|
Terminal bronchiole
|
Bronchi
|
Anatomy
| null |
4fc30947-1e18-46a4-b1ba-7dac54142704
|
single
|
The drug of choice for the treatment of Thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Propylthiouracil o Both carbimazole and propylthiourcil can be used during pregnancy, but propyl-thiouracil is the drug of choice because its greater protein binding allows low doses of propylthioracil to be transferred across the placenta and therefore less chance of hypothyroidism. o Historically, prophylthiouracil has been preferred over methimazole because transplacental passage was thought to be lower; However, according to recent studies, both propylthiouracil and methimazole cross the placenta equally and either may be used safety in the pregnant patient. Note : However, if you will have to choose one option, prophylthiouracil is still the best because all other books still mention prophylthiouracil as the DOC in pregnancy.
| 3 |
Carbimazole
|
Iodine therapy
|
Propylthiouracil
|
Metimazole
|
Pharmacology
| null |
27130e7c-8427-45a2-8423-7f670e1fa323
|
single
|
Which Anti-Fungal is safe in both Renal Failure and Hepatic Failure patients ?
|
ECHINOCANDINS: MOA: Inhibits 1,3-b-d-glucan synthesis. Three Echinocandins are approved for clinical use: Caspofungin, Anidulafungin,and Micafungin. Used against Candida and Aspergillus sp. Fungicidal activity against Candida species while Fungistatic against Aspergillus species. CAspofungin: Candida and Aspergillus sp. Micafungin Anidulafungin: It is not metabolized by liver instead it is cleared by slow chemical degradation from the body, hence safe in both renal and hepatic failure patients.
| 4 |
Amphotericin B
|
Caspofungin
|
Micafungin
|
Anidulafungin
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti-Fungal Drugs
|
65302436-4b9a-4c7d-94d1-ef5da90b193d
|
multi
|
Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves to the normal heart:
|
Ans. C. Decreases the duration of the QT intervalStimulation of the sympathetic nerves to the normal heart decreases the duration of the ventricular action potential and, therefore, decreases the QT interval. As heart rate increases, the duration of diastole and, therefore, the TP interval decreases. Increased conduction velocity in the AV node decreases the duration of the PR interval. Fewer P waves than QRS complexes are indicative of AV block. On the contrary, sympathetic stimulation may reverse AV block. The frequency of QRS complexes increases with the heart rate.
| 3 |
Increases duration of the TP interval
|
Increases the duration of the PR interval
|
Decreases the duration of the QT interval
|
Leads to fewer P waves than QRS complexes
|
Physiology
|
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
|
4ca0f5d3-5880-4bc0-8b5e-726d26f28b12
|
single
|
Progression of congenital scoliosis is least likely in which of the following vertebral anomalies -
|
Congenital vertebral anomalies causing scoliosis are :
Hemivertebrae
Wedge vertebra
Unsegmented bar
Block vertebra
Combination : unsegmented bar with hemivertebrae
Amongst these minimum chances of progression are with block vertebrae and maximum with the combination of unsegmented bar & hemivertebrae.
Unsegmented bar - with hemivertebra > unsegmented bar > hemivertebra > wedge vertebra > block vertebra
| 3 |
Fully segmented Hemivertebra
|
Wedge vertebra
|
Block vertebra
|
Unilateral unsegmented bar with Hemivertebra
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
b23af97c-cb40-4928-93dd-8d6b1579661c
|
single
|
The blood supply of Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) is primarily derived from:
|
The primary blood supply to the Anterior cruciate ligament comes from the middle genicular aery which pierces the posterior capsule and enters the intercondylar notch near the femoral attachment. Ref: Campbell's Operative Ohopaedics, 11th Edition, Page 2497;Operative Ahroscopy, 3rd Edition, Pages 67, 68; Current Concepts in ACL Reconstruction By Freddie Fu, 2008, Chapter 2, Page 28
| 3 |
Superior medial genicular aery
|
Descending genicular aery
|
Middle genicular aery
|
Circumflex fibular aery
|
Surgery
| null |
6da296b7-369f-473d-a74e-f695bcc70a9f
|
single
|
Which of the following diuretic causes impaired glucose tolerance?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiazides Drugs causing hyperglycemia* Asparaginase* Ethacrinic acid* HIV protease inhibitors* Pentamidine* Chlorthalidone* Frusemide* Niacin* Thiazides* Diazoxide* Glucocorticoids* OCP* b-adrenergic agonists* Encainide* Growth-hormone* Phenytoin* b-blockers (propranolol)* Thyroid hormones* Vacor* Clozapine* a-IFN* Glucagon* Cyclosporine* Tacrolimus* Protease inhibitors* L-Asparaginase
| 2 |
Spironolactone
|
Thiazides
|
Amiloride
|
Canrenone
|
Pharmacology
|
Diuretic
|
36f3627d-61a5-4cc6-baa6-8cc7acf90810
|
multi
|
Which of the following is not useful in measuring cardiac output?
|
Ans. B. Central venous catheter* Central venous catheter alone is not useful for measuring cardiac output.* Various methods to measure cardiac output are as follows:- Pulmonary artery flotation catheter (PAFC): Use dye dilution and thermodilution techniques (bolus and continuous thermodilution cardiac output monitoring)- Arterial waveform analysis- Thoracic electrical bioimpedance- Fick partial rebreathing method (uses CO2 )- Aortic Doppler (transesophageal and transcutaneous)- Point-of-care Echo (transthoracic as well as transesophageal)--LVOT is analyzed for cross-sectional area (CSA) and velocity time integral (VTI). Cardiac output (CO) is measured by the formula CO=CSAxVTIxHR- Lithium dilution (uses peripheral vein)- Combined lithium dilution and pulse contour analysis
| 2 |
Transthoracic echocardiogram
|
Central venous catheter
|
Thermodilution pulmonary catheter
|
Continuous cardiac output pulmonary catheter
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S.
|
d743d524-a66c-44b3-abb6-8d8c0a50dd76
|
single
|
Patients with bilateral CDH walk with the following gait?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Waddling Waddling gait It is also called as duck walk gait. It is a wide base gait with increased lumbar lordosis, the patient sways to the same side after putting weight on the limb. It is seen commonly in pregnancy, bilateral CDH, osteomalacia and myopathies.
| 1 |
Waddling
|
Stumbling
|
Knock knee
|
Antalgic
|
Surgery
| null |
49cc7dd6-8abb-4822-adea-edcdf350b486
|
single
|
Risk of HIV transmission is highest during
|
.
| 3 |
During Caesarian section
|
During antepaum period
|
During vaginal delivery
|
Breast feeding
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
All India exam
|
2e3df92f-1380-48ac-a0ad-bcf0e5e14c83
|
single
|
Cranial nerve related to apex of petrous temoporal bone
|
Cranial nerve 5 & 6 are related to apex of petrous bone.
Only 1st & 2nd cranial nerves do not arise from brain stem and so do not pass through posterior-cranial fossa. And all other C.N (i.e. 3rd to 12th) pass through posterior cranial fossa.
Trochlear (4th) nerve is the only cranial nerve to emerge dorsally from the brain stem & has longest infra cranial course and most slender cranial nerve (in terms of axons it contains)
| 3 |
VIII
|
VII
|
VI
|
IX
|
Anatomy
| null |
e6847ec1-57cd-4cc4-b390-5a8c242075ee
|
single
|
The middle cardiac vein is located at the -
|
In Coronary sulcus
- Great cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, coronary sinus, right coronary artery, left circumflex artery
In anterior interventricular sulcus
- Great cardiac vein, left anterior descending artery
In posterior interventricular sulcus
- Middle cardiac vein, posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
| 2 |
Anterior interventricular sulcus
|
Posterior interventricular sulcus
|
Posterior AV groove
|
Anterior AV groove
|
Anatomy
| null |
cac0b763-b547-49b9-a05c-4fa435235fa2
|
single
|
Protein not synthesized in liver:-
|
Immunoglobulins - are synthesized from plasma cell. Other all plasma protein are synthesized from liver They are glycoproteins Consist of two identical heavy (H) Chains and two identical light (L) chains Is a Y-shaped tetramer (H2L2) Humans have five classes of immunoglobulins-namely IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD and IgE-containing the heavy chains U, a, u, 6 and e, respectively.
| 2 |
Albumin
|
Immunoglobulins
|
Plasma enzymes
|
Acute phase proteins
|
Biochemistry
|
NEET 2019
|
8df7e22b-44b5-406a-aff3-80157a7c7958
|
single
|
Which among the following is true about Monitoring?
|
Monitoring is the performance and analysis of routine measurements aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status of the population. It is a narrow concept. No action and feedback done. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition - Page no. 44
| 2 |
Broader concept
|
Analysis of measurement for detecting changes in health status
|
Feedback is done
|
Detects missed out cases
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Concept of health and disease
|
bc24be02-f335-4a5e-9a49-ea2f14ec315b
|
multi
|
Foamy liver is seen in:
|
Ans. (A). PutrefactionHoney comb appearance or foamy liver is seen in putrefaction due to the presence of gas bubbles within the parenchyma.
| 1 |
Putrefaction
|
Adipocere
|
Mummification
|
Dry drowning.
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Injuries
|
406bc3d8-8e47-46f3-bd14-e3d4e7bda2d3
|
single
|
ER Positive cases of cancer breast - drug given is
|
Ans. (b) Tamoxifen(Ref. Sabiston 20th edition 853)* Tamoxifen - ER+ ve Tumors in Premenopausal and Postmenopausal* Aromatose Inhibitors - ER +ve in Postmenopausal women only
| 2 |
Bevacizumab
|
Tamoxifen
|
Cyclophosphamide
|
Adalimumab
|
Surgery
|
Breast
|
14aebfa4-f65c-460e-90a0-9884725698aa
|
single
|
All are used in treating spasmodic dysmenorrhoea except :
|
Ans. is a i.e. Bromocriptine
| 1 |
Bromocriptine
|
Ibuprofen
|
Mefenamic acid
|
Norethisterone and ethinyl estradiol
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
64880356-22b2-446c-9d1a-d01bdb3a49a4
|
multi
|
Most common presentation of Wilm's tumour?
|
Ans. C. Abdominal mass. (Ref. Robin's Pathology 8th/pg. 271; Love and Bailey 26th/pg.l24; 1304).Nephroblastoma (Wilms' tumour)# Usually presents in the first five years of life# Typically presents with an abdominal mass# May cause haematuria, abdominal pain or fever# It extends into the renal vein and vena cava and metastasises to lymph nodes and lungs.# Treatment is with chemotherapy and surgery.Wilms' tumour (nephroblastoma) is a malignant renal tumour derived from embryonal cells; it typically affects children aged from 1 to 4 years. A mutation in the Wilms' tumour suppressor gene (WT1) is responsible for some cases. It usually presents as an abdominal mass. The tumour extends into the renal vein and vena cava and metastasises to lymph nodes and lungs. Treatment is with chemotherapy and surgery. Survival depends on tumour spread, completeness of surgical excision and histology but exceeds 70% even among patients with advanced tumours.Wilms' Tumor (nephroblastoma)# Most common primary tumor of the kidney in children.# malignant renal tumour derived from embryonal cells; it typically affects children aged from one to four years. Following are associated with an increased risk of developing Wilms' tumor:- WAGR syndrome: aniridia, genital abnormalities, and mental retardation, have a 33% chance of developing Wilms' tumor.- Denys-Drash syndrome (DDS):extremely high risk (?90%) of developing Wilms' tumor. Characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and renal abnormalities.- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (BWS): enlargement of individual body organs (e.g., tongue, kidneys, or liver) or entire body segments (hemihypertrophy); enlargement of adrenal cortical cells (adrenal cytomegaly) is a characteristic microscopic feature. BWS is an example of a disorder of genomic imprinting. The genetic locus that is involved in these patients is in band pi5.5 of chromosome 11 distal to the WT1 locus.- Microscopically, Wilms' tumors are characterized by recognizable attempts to recapitulate different stages of nephrogenesis. The classic triphasic combination of blastemal, stromal, and epithelial cell types is observed in most lesions. Sheets of small blue cells, with few distinctive features, characterize the blastemal component.- Nephrogenic rests are putative precursor lesions of Wilms' tumors.- The prognosis for Wilms' tumor is generally very good, and excellent results are obtained with a combination of nephrectomy and chemotherapy.- Anaplasia is a harbinger of adverse prognosis, but careful analyses by the National Wilms' T\imor Study group in the United States have shown that as long as the anaplasia is focal and confined within the resected nephrectomy specimen, the outcome is no different from tumors without evidence of anaplasia. In contrast, Wilms' tumor with diffuse anaplasia the prognosis is poor.Additional Educational points:Neuroblastoma is a malignancy of neuroblasts in the adrenal medulla or sympathetic ganglia and typically presents as an abdominal or paravertebral mass. It metastasises to lymph nodes, bones and liver and causes elevated urinary catechola- mines. Small-localised tumours are excised. More advanced tumours are treated by chemotherapy and surgery. Survival is related to tumour biology and stage (>90% for small localised tumours, < 50% for advanced tumours).Neuroblastoma is the most common abdominal tumor of infancy. It is much less common than the relatively common hydronephrosis. The most common abdominal mass in a newborn infant is hydronephrosis. It is a common finding in prenatal ultrasounds. It will usually resolve without therapy. Hepatomas and Wilms tumors are even rarer than neuroblastoma.
| 3 |
Fever
|
Hematuria
|
Abdominal mass
|
UTI
|
Surgery
|
Kidney & Ureturs
|
38efddad-99ee-4019-a745-909179acbeed
|
single
|
A full thickness wound that is not sutured heals by-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary Healing Primary Healingo Primary wound healing or healing by first intention occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents.Delayed Primary Healingo If the wound edges are not reapproximated immediately, delayed primary wound healing transpires. This type of healing may be desired in the case of contaminated woundsSecondary Healingo A third type of healing is known as secondary healing or healing by secondary intention. In this type of healing, a full-thickness wound is allowed to close and heal. Secondary healing results in an inflammatory response that is more intense than with primary wound healing. In addition, a larger quantity of granulomatous tissue is fabricated because of the need for wound closure. Secondary healing results in pronounced contraction of wounds.
| 2 |
Primary Healing
|
Secondary Healing
|
Delayed primary Healing
|
Reepithelization
|
Surgery
|
General Management of Wounds
|
b71f25a8-0f37-4d1b-8e57-fbcb153f74ee
|
single
|
Periodicity is a characteristic feature in which sinus infection:
|
Areas of High attenuation surrounded by a thin zone of low attenuation CT scan reveals pansinusitis and polyposis Pain of frontal sinusitis shows characteristic periodicity, i.e. comes upon waking, gradually increases and reaches its peak by midday and then stas subsiding. It is also called "office headache" as it is present only during office hours.
| 2 |
Maxillary sinus infection
|
Frontal sinus infection
|
Sphenoid sinus infection
|
Ethmoid sinus infection
|
ENT
| null |
fd50e958-71b2-47f2-8e28-87964bb88bb1
|
single
|
Antipsychotic with less extra pyramidal side effects -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Quetiapine o Quetiapine, clozapine, aripiprazole have no (o) extrapyramidal symptoms. o Risperidone may or may not (o/+) have extrapyramidal effect.
| 3 |
Loxapine
|
Pimozide
|
Quetiapine
|
Resperidone
|
Pharmacology
| null |
9bfc722b-df7a-4f3a-b466-880bffbebb97
|
single
|
In case of onlay cast restoration, what does “ shoeing” refer to?
|
Capping
It refers to the complete coverage of the cusp / cusps of a tooth with sufficient extension of the bevel onto the buccal and lingual surfaces of the tooth.
Shoeing
Refers to a veneer coverage of the cusp of a tooth with only slight finishing bevel on the crest of the cusp.
The bevel is established either at right angle to the long axis of the tooth or in a slight reverse direction.
MDS Prep Bytes (Cast Restoration – Onlay)
| 2 |
Complete coverage of cusps with slight finishing bevel on the crest of the cusp
|
Veneer coverage of cusp with slight finishing bevel on the crest of the cusp
|
Veneer coverage of cusp with extension of bevel onto facial surface
|
Complete coverage of cusps with extension of bevel onto facial surface
|
Dental
| null |
3dae741c-d2fc-4dbd-8813-e0010df5e118
|
single
|
Point angles in class II
| null | 2 |
4
|
6
|
5
|
3
|
Dental
| null |
c571153c-f67e-4a2c-9d71-9f13a46feb76
|
single
|
Hormone Replacement Therapy(H) in postmenopausal women is beneficial in all these Except
|
Hormone Replacement TherapyEstrogen is the most effective treatment available for relief of the menopausal symptoms that many women experience, including hot flashes, vaginal dryness, urinary symptoms, and emotional lability.Women&;s Health Initiative showed no cardiovascular benefit with unopposed estrogen and a smallincrease in risk with combined therapy.Estrogen is an option for the prevention of osteoporosis inperimenopausal women, estrogen-progesterone therapy reduces fracture risk at a cost of increase in the incidence of breast cancer, coronary hea disease, stroke and venous thromboembolism, or in the case unopposed estrogen, an increase in stroke and thromboembolism.Post-menopausal hormone therapy, either unopposed estrogen or combined estrogen-progestin therapy should not be initiated for prevention of CHD.Bisphosphonates or raloxifene are recommended as first-line drugs for prevention and bisphosphonates for treatment of established osteoporosis.(Refer: Novak's Textbook of Gynaecology, 14th edition, pg no- 1330-1333)
| 3 |
Vasomotor symptoms
|
Osteoporosis
|
Prevention of CAD
|
Vaginal atrophy
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
51358620-a7dc-4d09-a73f-7f8568e310ec
|
multi
|
AB trans retinoic acid is useful in the treatment of-
|
APL is unique among leukemias due to its sensitivity to all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA; tretinoin), the acid form of vitamin A.Treatment with ATRA dissociates the NCOR-HDACL complex from RAR and allows DNA transcription and differentiation of the immature leukemic promyelocytes into mature granulocytes by targeting the oncogenic transcription factor and its aberrant action. Unlike other chemotherapies, ATRA does not directly kill the malignant cells. ATRA induces the terminal differentiation of the leukemic promyelocytes, after which these differentiated malignant cells undergo spontaneous apoptosis on their own. ATRA alone is capable of inducing remission but it is sho-lived in the absence of concurrent "traditional" chemotherapy.As of 2013 the standard of treatment for concurrent chemotherapy has become arsenic trioxide, which combined with ATRA is referred to ATRA-ATO; before 2013 the standard of treatment was anthracycline (e.g. daunorubicin, doxorubicin, idarubicin or mitoxantrone)-based chemotherapy. Both chemotherapies result in a clinical remission in approximately 90% of patients with arsenic trioxide having a more orable side effect profile. ATRA therapy is associated with the unique side effect of retinoic acid syndrome. This is associated with the development of dyspnea, fever, weight gain, peripheral edema and is treated with dexamethasone. The etiology of retinoic acid syndrome has been attributed to capillary leak syndrome from cytokine release from the differentiating promyelocytes Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 922
| 2 |
Myelodysplastic leukemia
|
Promyelocytic leukemia
|
Myelomonocytic leukemia
|
Chronic myelocytic leukemia
|
Medicine
|
Haematology
|
95ac4716-a4d6-4e7d-8cfc-293876566fdb
|
single
|
Which of the following cranial nerve is MOST likely to be damaged in a patient with uncal herniation?
|
In a patient with ipsilateral expanding intracranial supratentorial mass, there is displacement of the hippocampal gyrus and uncal herniation across the tentorial edge, resulting in entrapment of the third nerve. This can result in hutchinson's pupil. Hutchinson's pupil occur in comatose patients with unilaterally dilated poorly reactive pupils. In the third nerve the pupillomotor fibers run peripherally and are subjected to early damage from compression. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology edited by Sunita Agarwal, page 305.
| 4 |
Facial
|
Trochlear
|
Abducens
|
Oculomotor
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
7c284ab8-cb2e-46ff-a6a2-cf00d1c3e3f1
|
single
|
CASPAR criteria is used in diagnosis of ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Psoriatic ahritis Classification criteria for psoriatic ahritis (CASPAR) is used for the diagnosis of psoriatic ahropathy. The CASPAR (classification Criteria for Psoriatic Ahritis) Criteria To meet the CASPAR criteria a patient must have inflammatory aicular disease (joint, spine, or entheseal) with 3 points from any of the following five categories : Evidence of current psoriasis, a personal history of psoriasis, or fa family history of psoriasis. Typical psoriatic nail dystrophy observed on current physical examination. A negative test result for rheumatoid factor. Either current dactylitis or a history of dactylitis recorded by a rheumatologist. Radiographic evidence of juxtaaicular new bone formation in the hand or foot.
| 1 |
Psoriatic ahritis
|
Rheumatoid ahritis
|
Ankyosing spondylitis
|
Reactive synnovitis
|
Surgery
| null |
660edffc-e4bb-4668-9358-5ee52309235d
|
single
|
Smoking predisposes to carcinoma of a) Bladder b) Ovary c) Buccal mucosa d) Breast e) Stomach
| null | 1 |
ace
|
acd
|
abd
|
ac
|
Medicine
| null |
1127b843-ffa7-4c91-b8aa-523aadf7b846
|
single
|
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.