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Cystatin C is a novel marker of
null
4
Vitamin K Status
Cholestasis
Fatty liver
Glomerular filtration
Medicine
null
00aa0942-9737-49c0-9946-792a87e2af37
single
Commonly used route of administration for general anaesthesia is –
This question is a bit confusing one because of the following two facts :- "For the induction of anaesthesia, intravenous anaesthetics are used mostly". "For the maintenance of anaesthesia, inhalational agents are used most commonly". But following statement will clear the doubts. "Now a day, most of the minor surgical procedures like incision & drainage are done in total intravenous anaesthesia in which intravenous anaesthetics are used for both induction as well as maintenance of anaesthesia". So, For major surgical procedure → i) Induction by intravenous anaesthesia, and ii) Maintenance by inhalational anaesthesia. For minor surgical procedure → Induction and maintenance both by intravenous anaesthesia.
2
Inhalational
Intravenous
Intra-arterial
Subcutaneous
Anaesthesia
null
ced09271-454f-4fad-bdb2-a13f11b5936a
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All the following are features of Down's syndrome except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypeonicity Clinical features of Down's syndrome o Most striking feature in the neonate is hypotonia and although the diagnosis is usually evident at this time, it may some time be missed if the baby is very premature or his facial features are concealed by ventilatory apparetus. CLINICAL FEATURES IN DOWN SYNDROME General Neonatal hypotonia Mild-moderate mental retardation Sho stature Cranio-facial Brachycephaly Clinodactyly Epicanthic folds Protruding tongue Small cars Upward sloping palpebral fissures Strabismus and/or nystagmus Brushfield spots in iris Increased incidence of leukaemia (1%) Limbs Fifth finger clinodactyly Single palmar crease (simian crease) Wide gap between first and second toes Other Congenital hea disease (40%) e.g. common atrio-ventricular canal, ASD, PDA, VSD, Fallot tetralogy Anal atresia & Hirshsprung disease Duodenal atresia & annular pancreas Hypothyroidism & DM Delayed fontanel closure Three fontanel Obesity & obstructive sleep apnea
4
Brushfield's spots in iris
Simian crease
Mental retardation
Mental retardation
Pediatrics
null
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multi
All are features of hemolytic anemia, except -
Haptoglobin binds with Hb released from lysed RBCs and forms a complex and hence in hemolytic anemias there is increased formation of this complex and there is a decrease in serum haptoglobin level. Ref:Postgraduate Hematology by Victor Hoffbrand , under hemolytic anemias Ref Robbins 9/e pg 422
3
Hemoglobinuria
Jaundice
Increased haptoglobulin
Hemosiderinuria
Pathology
Haematology
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Haptaglobin levels are decreased in:
Answer is D (All of the above) Decreased haptaglobin levels may occur in all cases of hemolysis. Although decreased haptaglobin levels are more characteristic of intravascular hemolysis, decreased levels are also seen in cases of extravascular hemolvsis. Heptaglobin levels and hemolysis (Hematology for Student's by Mackinney (2003)/78, 79 Normal plasma contains haptoglobin, an a2- globulin that can bind free haemolglobin During intravascular hemolysis as levels of free haemoglobin rise significantly, the levels of serum haptoglobin are observed to be very low or absent Even in Extravascular hemolysis, enough haemoglobin levels leaks out of the macrophages to bind with and deplete haptaglobin Therefore A low serum haptaglobin concentration is a good test of hemolysis butt is not specific for intravascular hemolysis. Parameter Extravascular hemolysis Intravascular hemolysis Haptaglohin Low Very low/Absent
4
A mismatched transfusion reactions
Thalassemia
G 6PD deficiency
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
Malonate competetively inhibits
Succinate dehydrogenase
4
Fumarate dehydrogenase
Succinate thiokinase
Aconitase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
null
3866df61-91a8-4564-873a-39dc56915235
single
End product of purine metabolism is?
ANSWER: (B) Uric addREF: Biochemistry 3rd edition by S C Rastogi page 366,In humans and higher primates, uric acid is the final oxidation (breakdown) product of purine metabolism and is excreted in urine.AUantoin is a natural end product of purine metabolism in most mammals other than humans.
2
Alanine
Uric acid
Ammonia
Allantoin
Biochemistry
Metabolism of Purines and Pyrimidines
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World Health Day is observed every year on
null
2
11-Jan
April 7
5-Jun
1-Dec
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Branched septate hyphae found on cornmeal smear in a case of corneal ulcer is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aspergillus . Septate hyphae and involvement of the cornea ours the diagnosis of the Aspergillus . Aspergillus can cause Aspergillus keratitis after trauma to the cornea. The hyphae of Aspergillus are septate & branched. . Mucor : It can cause infection of eye but its hyphae are not septate. . Candida : Candida can also involve the eye (it usually involves retina). Its infectious form is yeast not hyphae. . Histoplasma : Histoplasma has septate hyphae but it does not involve the eye.
3
Candida
Mucor
Aspergillus
Histoplasma
Microbiology
null
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single
A newborn baby presented with profuse bleeding from umbilical stump after birth. Probable diagnosis is –
Bleeding from umbilical stump suggests Factor XIII deficiency. Neonates with a positive bleeding history, particularly with features such as delayed bleeding, umbilical stump bleeding or miscarriages and in whom the initial panel of screening test is negative should be tested for factor XIII deficiency. The normal screening tests such as PT and PTT are normal in factor XIII deficiency because factor XIII is needed to stabilize the clot after a fibrin clot has formed, so tests used for evaluating the extrinsic or intrinsic pathways are not affected. (Note, that factor XIII is used, once the clot has formed.) Test used for evaluation of factor XIII Test used in qualitative evaluation of factor XIII is evaluation of clot stability in 5M urea. Clots formed from normal individuals remain stable in 5M urea, while clots from factor XIII deficient patient dissolve in urea. This assay detects only the most severely affected patients with 1% to 2% factor XIII deficieincy or tests. A quantitative chromogenic assay has been developed but is not yet readily available. In addition to hemorrhages these patients may have poor wound healing a high incidence of infertility among males and abortion among affected females and a high incidence of intracerebral hemorrhage.
1
Factor XIII deficiency
VWF deficiency
Factor XII deficiency
Glanzmann thrombosthenia
Pediatrics
null
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Immunization is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Primary prevention Level of preventionExampleso Primordial preventiono Discouragement from adapting a harmful lifestyle, e.g. smokingo Primary preventiono Immunization (vaccination)o Chemoprophylaxiso Nutritional supplementation programmeso Chlorination of watero Using a mosquito neto Health educationo Secondary preventiono Screening testo Case finding programmeso Early diagnosis & treatmento Tertiary preventiono Disability limitation* Resting the affected limb in neutral position in PRPP to prevent deformityo Rehabilitation* Estabilishing schools for blind* Provision of aids for crippled* Reconstructive surgery in leprosy* Muscle re-education and graded exercise in neurological disorder like polio* Changing profession for a more suitable one
1
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Disability limitation
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of Health and Disease
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Marker for ovarian carcinoma in serum is
TABLE 8.14: Impoant Tumour Markers. CANCER ASSOCIATED PROTEINS: i. CA-125:-Ovary ii. CA 15-3 :-Breast iii. CA 19-9 :-Colon, pancreas, breast iv. CD30 :-Hodgkin's disease, anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL) v. CD25 :-Hairy cell leukaemia (HCL), adult T cell leukaemia lymphoma (ATLL) vi. Monoclonal immunoglobulins :-Multiple myeloma, other gammopathies vii. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) :-Prostate carcinoma HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 234
1
CA-125
Fibronectin
Acid Phosphatase
PSA
Pathology
miscellaneous
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The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's disease-
null
4
Neurofibrillary tangles
Senile (neuritic) plaques
Amyloid Angiopathy
lewy bodies
Medicine
null
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Which type of alkylating antineoplastic drug is Lomustine
ALKYLATING AGENTS 1)Nitrogen mustards:- Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamide, Chlorambucil, Melphalan 2)Ethylenimine :- Thio-TEPA 3)Alkyl sulfonate :- Busulfan 4)Nitrosoureas:- Carmustine (BCNU), Lomustine (CCNU) , 5)Triazine :-Dacarbazine (DTIC), Temozolomide 6)Methylhydrazine :-Procarbazine Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-858
2
Nitrogen musturds
Nitrosoureas
Alkyl sulfonate
Triazine
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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The ability of T cells to recognize antigen is dependent on association of the antigen with either class I or class II MHC proteins. MHC restriction is a pa of all, EXCEPT:
The phenomenon by which T cells recognize foreign antigens in the context of specific MHC alleles is termed MHC restriction, and the specific MHC molecule is termed the restriction element. The most common source of foreign peptides presented by class I molecules is viral infection, in the course of which peptides from viral proteins enter the class I pathway. Other examples of intracellularly generated peptides that can be presented by class I molecules in an immunogenic manner include peptides derived from nonviral intracellular infectious agents (e.g., Listeria, Plasmodium), tumor antigens, minor histocompatibility antigens, and ceain autoantigens. Ref: Nepom G.T. (2012). Chapter 315. The Major Histocompatibility Complex. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
4
Antiviral cytotoxic T cell
Antibacterial helper T cell/cytotoxic cells
Allograft rejection
Autoimmune disorder
Pathology
null
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Maximum first pass metaboilsm is seen by which route -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oral o First pass elimination is seen with oral and rectal routes. o Maximum first pass effect is seen with oral route.
4
Intravenous
Interaaerial
Rectal
Oral
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is not a feature of cluster headache ?
Cluster headache occur three times more common in men than in women. Cluster headache is likely a disorder involving central pacemaker neurons in the region of the posterior hypothalamus. It is associated with symptoms such as conjunctival injection or lacrimation, rhinorrhea or nasal congestion, or cranial sympathetic dysfunction such as ptosis. These defects occur due to parasympathetic activation which occur as a result of injury to ascending sympathetic fibers surrounding a dilated carotid aery as it passes into the cranial cavity. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 14
2
Headache is predominantly unilateral
Affects predominantly females
Onset typically occur in 20-50 years of life
Associated with conjunctival congestion
Medicine
null
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In bursting of skull due to firearm injury, a large poion of the brain may be thrown out of the bursting skull and found relatively intact. This is called as
During bursting of skull due to firearm injury, a large poion of the brain may be thrown out of the bursting skull and found relatively intact. This is called as kronlein shot. - is a very rare injury of the skull caused by a high-velocity bullet in close range. There is bursting of the skull and laceration of the dura mater with complete evisceration of the brain. The brain will get shattered. Back spatter: Once the bullet is fired, spattering of blood back into the barrel. 'Billiard Ball' Ricochet Effect: It occurs after the shotgun pallets strike an intermediate object like doors, etc. When a mass of shotgun pellets enters tissue, the first pellets which penetrate are slowed and struck from behind by the following pellets which can cause them to scatter through the tissue much like a cluster of billiard balls struck by the cue ball. On X ray, the dispersal of pellets may suggest a distant shot,but actually the weapon was fired from close range.
1
Kronlein shot
Back spatter
Billiard ball effect
Balling of shot
Forensic Medicine
Ballistics
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Most common type of delusion is?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Delusion of persecution Persecutory delusions (paranoid)* This is the most common type of delusion. The patient feels that he is being persecuted against.* There is false belief that one is being harmed, threatened, cheated, poisoned, harassed or spied on or is a victim of conspiracy to damage his reputation.* The supposed persecutor of the patient may be people in the environment (e.g., members of family, neighbors, former friend) or may be political or religious groups.* These delusions occur in schizophrenia (especially paranoid, severe affective disorders (sever mania or severe depression), and organic brain syndrome.* Delusion of persecution may occur in the context of primary delusional experiences, auditory hallucinations, bodily hallucinations or experiences of passivity.
3
Delusion of grandiose
Delusion of love
Delusion of persecution
Delusion of infidelity
Psychiatry
Schizophrenia
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Examination of a 3-day-old male infant reveals protrusion of his spinal cord and meninges from a defect in the lower back. Which of the following describes this congenital anomaly?
Because the meninges and spinal cord are included in the protrusion, the patient's condition is a classic presentation of spina bifida with meningomyelocele. If the protrusion contains only meninges but no CNS tissue, it is known as spina bifida with meningocele. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges caused by bacteria, viral, or numerous other irritants. It does not cause deformation of vertebrae or result in protrusion of spinal cord contents. Spina bifida occulta is a normally asymptomatic condition in which the vertebral lamina fail to fuse completely during embryologic development. A tuft of hair is commonly seen growing over the affected region (usually lumbar in position).
4
Avulsion of meninges
Meningitis
Spina bifida occulta
Spina bifida with meningomyelocele
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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Retinoblastoma arises from:
Ans. Any nucleated retinal layer
4
Layer of rods and cones
Layer of bipolar cells
Ganglion cells layers
Any nucleated retinal layer
Ophthalmology
null
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Molecular studies on an abdominal lymph node containing lymphoma demonstrate t(2;8)(p12;q24) translocation. This is most compatible with which of the following diseases?
Burkitt's lymphoma is actually associated with three translocations. The common variant t(8;14)(q24;q32), involving the oncogene myc on chromosome 8, and the heavy immunoglobulin chain on chromosome 14. The other two variants are: t(8;22)(q24;q11), involving myc and the lambda light chain immunoglobulin site, and t(2;8)(p12;q24), involving the kappa light chain and myc. Mantle cell lymphoma, multiple myeloma, and small (not cleaved) cell lymphoma are associated with the t(11;14)(q13;q32) translocation involving bcl -1 and the heavy chain site. Ref: Friedberg J.W., Perkins A.S. (2010). Chapter 104. Burkitt Lymphoma. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e.
1
Burkitt's lymphoma
Mantle cell lymphoma
Multiple myeloma
Small cell lymphoma
Pathology
null
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Granulomatous appearance of lung with air bronchogram in neonates represents -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hyaline membrane disease (HMD)
2
Aspiration pneumonia
Hyaline membrane disease
Staph pneumonia
ARDS
Pediatrics
null
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. Spirochetes among following are -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Syphilis; 'b' i.e., Leptospira; 'c' i.e., Borrelia
4
Syphilis
Leptospira
Borrelia
All
Microbiology
null
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All are the contraindications for vaginal bih after previous caesarean except
Previous classical incision and previous inveed T shaped incision is absolutely contraindicated in vaginal bih after caesarean section. It is again contraindicated if facilities to do an emergency caesarean section is unavailable. But previous lower segment caesarean section can undergo VBAC but should not be forced. (Sheila TB of obstetrics 2nd edtn pg 339,340)
2
Previous classical uterine incision
Previous lower segment transverse caesarean
Presence of inveed T shaped uterine incision
Where facilities for emergency caesareans are not available
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abnormal labor
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A cricketer holds a catch and then presents with pain at the base of the right thumb. He should be examined to specifically rule out damage to which of the following structure :
This is a case of skier's thumb i.e. acute injury to ulnar collateral ligament which occurs when there is abrupt abduction of the thumb. Injury is common in ball handling athletes. Patient presents with pain, tenderness and swelling at the base of thumb.
4
Extensor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis longus
Volar plate
Ulnar collateral ligament
Orthopaedics
null
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A chronic alcoholic patient is brought to the emergency department by his wife. The person has not consumed alcohol for the past two days due to religious reasons. The person complained of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. On the second day. he developed seizures, that progressed to generalized tonic clonic seizures (GTCS). Which of the following would be best medication to manage the seizure of the patient?
Ans. c. Diazepam (Ref: Niraj Ahuja 6/e p39-40; Kaplan and Sadock's 9/e p1278, 1284-1285)The seizures in this patient, is due to alcohol withdrawal. Diazepam would be best medication to manage the seizure of the patient.Symptoms of Alcohol withdrawal:Hang over (MC)QHallucinationsQ (usually auditory) and illusionsQInsomniaQSeizures (Alcoholic seizures/Rum fits)QDelirium tremens;Occurs within 5 daysQ of complete or significant abstinenceQ from from heavy alcohol drinking Recovery occurs within 7 daysCharacteristic features are clouding of consciousnessQ, disorientationQ, hallucinations (mostly visual and auditory)Q, illusionQ, autonomic disturbancesQ, agitationQ and insomniaQ.Long acting benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide and diazepam or short acting such as Iorazepam can he used to treat mild-moderate uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal.''Chlordiazepoxide is preferred over diazepam for treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.'Management ofAlcohol IntoxicationAlcohol WithdrawalDelirium TremensDrugs used are:* Lorazepam (can worsen the vitals due to CNS depression)* Haloperidol (can lower seizure threshold) Other drugs which may be used:* Ziprasidone* Olanzapine* All patients should be given multiple oral vitamin B1 including 50-100 mg of thiamine daily for a week.* Replace alcohol (CNS depressant) with any other CNS depressant.* Benzodiazepines are commonly used.* Chlordiazepoxide is drug of choice because of its long half- life.* High dose benzodiazepines or antipsychotics arerecommended.* Anticonvulsants are not given to control seizures seen in delirium tremens. Withdrawal SyndromesSubstanceFeaturesOpioid* YawningQ, Insomnia. Dysphoric mood* Water loss from different orificesQ (LacrimationQ, sweatingQ, diarrheaQ, vomiting, rhinorrheaQ)* Increased vitalsQ (BP, Pulse, RR, Temperature)Q* Pupilary dilation, piloerectionQAlcohol(Hls delirium)* Hang over (MC)Q* HallucinationsQ (usually auditory) and illusionsQ* InsomniaQ* Seizures (Alcoholic seizures/Rum fits)Q* Delirium tremens:- Occurs within 5 daysQ of complete or significant abstinenceQ from from heavy alcohol drinking- Recovery occurs within 7 days- Characteristic features are clouding of consciousnessQ, disorientationQ, hallucinations (mostly visual and auditory)Q, illusionQ, autonomic disturbancesQ, agitationQ and insomniaQ.Cocaine* Increased or decreased- Sleep (hypersomniaQ or insomnia)- Psychomotor activity* Vivid unpleasant dreamsQ* Increased apetite and fatigueRemember:Drug of choice in withdrawal syndromeOpium* Methadone (1st choice)* Clonidine (2nd choice)Alcohol* Chlordiazepoxide (1st choice)* Diazepam (2nd) choice)Treatment of Alcohol DependenceAversion therapy: ApomorphineQ, sub-threshold electric shockPsychotherapyGroup therapyDeterrent agents: (Alcohol sensitizing drugs)QDisulfiramQCitrated calcium carbimide (CCC)MetronidazoleQ, NitrafezoleQMethyltetrazolethiolSulfonylureas (specially ChlorpropamideQ)Cephalosporins (cefoperazoneQ, moxalactamQ, cefamandoleQ)Anticraving agents: (FAN)FluoxetineQAcamprosateQNaltrexoneQ
3
Sodium valproate
Phenytoin
Diazepam
Carbamazepine
Psychiatry
Alcohol-Related Disorders
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Which does not cause hypoglycemia -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Acarbose Nateglinide, Glimepiride * Glimepiride and Nateglinide are an insulin secretagogue and it is a well-known fact that insulin secretagogues are associated with hypoglycemia.All the insulin secretagogues increase insulin secretion from the pancreas through the same mechanism i.e., by interfering with potassium channel.All the insulin secretagogues have the potential to cause profound and persistent hypoglycemia especially in elderly individuals.Hypoglycemia is usually related to delayed meals, increased physical activity, alcohol intake or renal insufficiency. Individuals who ingest an overdose of some agents develop prolong and serious hypoglycemia and should be monitored closely in the hospital.Thiazolidinediones (Pioglitazone)Thiazolidinediones are considered "euglycemic" and are efficacious in about 70% new users.Combination therapy of thiazolidinediones with sulfonylureas or insulin can lead to hypoglycemia and may require dose adjustment.Biguanides (Metformin Phenformin)Biguanides lower glucose among patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus largely by decreasing hepatic glucose output.It is also thought to increase glucose uptake by skeletal muscles.Because insulin secretion is unaltered hypoglycemia is not a side effect of metformin used as monotherapy.Alpha Glucosidase inhibitors (Acarbose)Lowers glucose by inhibiting intestinal enzymes that digest carbohydrate there by reducing carbohydrate digestion.Because of its mechanism of action, acarbose, when administered alone does not cause hypoglucemia in the fasting or postprandial states.Acarbose only produces hypoglycemia when used along with other oral hypoglycemics.
4
Insulin
Glimipiride
Nateglinide
Acarbose
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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TH1 is involved in w hich type of hypersensitivity?
* Delayed type of hypersensitivity is mediated by T cell dependant effector mechanisms involving both CD4+ TH1 cells and CD8 Cytotoxic T cells.* Antibodies do not play a role in type IV hypersensitivity reactions. The activated TH1 cells release Cytokines that will cause accumulation and activation of macrophages which will cause local damage.* TH 2 cells release IL-4 and are involved in Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction.
4
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Pathology
Immunity
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The electromyogram (EMG) is least useful for the diagnosis of -
null
1
Cerebral palsy
Spinal muscular atrophy
Charcot - Marie - Tooth disease
Myasthenia gravis
Medicine
null
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In close angle glaucoma all are TRUE, EXCEPT
C i.e. Non-systemic manifestations In angle closure glaucoma systemic manifestations like nausea, vomiting, headache, abdominal pain are present Q Laser iridotomy (1st) or surgical iridectomy (2nd) is treatment of choice for PACG. Q Pilocarpine is the drug of choice Q used to gain time till the surgery is performed. Atropine (Mydriatic) is contraindicated as it precipitates glaucoma.
3
Iridectomy is done
Pilocarpine is used
Nonsystemic manifestations
Atropine is not used
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Volkmann's ischaemic contracture is commonly due to
C i.e. Both
3
Tight palster
Tight splint
Both
None
Surgery
null
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Most common site of nosebleed in a child is
Sites of Epistaxis 1) Little's area - 90% 2) Above the level of middle turbinate- From anterior and posterior ethmoidal vessels 3) Below the level of middle turbinate-From sphenopalatine aery 4) Posterior pa of nasal cavity 5) Nasopharynx 6) Diffuse -Both from septum and lateral nasal wall; Seen in general systemic disorders and blood dyscrasias Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 198.
3
Woodruff area
Brown area
Little's area
None
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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Which is not a feature of Netheon Syndrome?
This autosomal recessive disorder is characterized by ichthyosis (usually ichthyosis linearis circumflexa but occasionally the lamellar or congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma types), trichorrhexis invaginata and other hair shaft anomalies, and atopic diathesis. Mutations in the gene SPINK 5, which encodes a serine protease inhibitor, have been identified in patients with Netheon syndrome.
1
Autosomal dominant
Ichthyosis
Very sho hair
Erythroderma
Physiology
All India exam
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Most common mutation in pancreatic adenocarcinoma:-
Ca-Pancreas MC genetic mutation in Ca pancreas/ Cholangiocarcinoma - K-RAS > p-16 MC genetic mutation in Ca- GB - P53 > K-RAS MC genetic mutation in Ca stomach - P53 > COX - II
1
K-ras
p16
p53
BRAF
Surgery
Pancreas
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"Onion skin" fibrosis of bile duct is seen in -
Ans (b) Primary sclerosing cholangitisRef: Robbings pathology 9th ed. I860PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS* Leads to obstructive jaundice leading to elevation of serum transaminases, gamma glutamyl transferase and alkaline phosphatase* Typical onion skin fibrosis of bile ducts* Per-cutaneous transhepatic cholangiography demonstrates irregularity and beading of the hepatic and common bile ducts in three patients.# Onion skin appearance in kidney seen in hyperplastic arteriosclerosis# Onion skin like lesions due to arteritis seen in Lymes and SLE# Onion skin fibrosis around bile ducts seen in PSC# Onion skin pattern of deposition of reactive bone in ewing s sarcoma# Onion bulb appearance in sural nerves seen in CIDP due to recurrent demyelination and remyelination
2
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Extrahepatic biliary fibrosis
Congenital hepatic fibrosis
Pathology
Disorders of Gallbladder and Extrahepatic Biliary Tract
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A 52-year-old woman with a history of systemic hypeension and chronic renal failure undergoes kidney transplantation, but the graft fails to produce urine. A renal biopsy is diagnosed as "hyperacute transplant rejection." Graft rejection in this patient is caused primarily by which of the following mediators of immunity and inflammation?
Hyperacute rejection Occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. Manifested clinically as a sudden cessation of urine output, along with fever and pain in the area of the graft site. This immediate rejection is mediated by preformed antibodies and complement activation products. -Lymphocytes and macrophages (choices A, B, and C) are associated with acute and chronic graft rejection.
4
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Mononuclear phagocytes
Preformed antibodies
Pathology
Organ Transplant / Graft
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Which of the following drugs can cause Torsades'de pointes ?
null
1
Quinidine
Lignocaine
Esmolol
Flecainide
Pharmacology
null
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single
An emerging viral pathogen causing pyelonephritis in kidney allograft recipients is
*Causes of viral lesions in renal transplantation : Polyomavirus, cytomegalovirus, adenovirus, Ebstein Barr virus and by far the most common infection involving kidney transplants are polyoma virusPolyoma virus nephropathy:*Polyoma virus are double stranded, non encapsulated DNA virus*Types of polyoma virus are BK virus and JC virus and BK virus is the common cause of polyoma virus nephropathy in renal transplants*BK virus affects and thereby causes intra nuclear inclusions in collecting ducts of medulla, parietal epithelium of glomerulus, transitional cell in renal pelvis, ureters and urinary bladder.*Note that not all those who are infected by Bk virus develops disease. *Infection of polyoma virus/BK virus is seen in -almost all humans*Disease caused by polyoma virus/BK virus is seen only in - renal transplant recipients.(Ref: Hepinstall pathology of the kidney 6/e p1441)
2
Marburg virus
Polyoma virus
JC virus
Ebola virus
Pathology
Urinary tract
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multi
Commonest type of organic hallucinosis is
The IPSS estimated that 70% ofschizophrenia patients experienced hallucinations. The most common hallucinations in schizophrenia are auditory, followed by visual Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e p157
2
Auditory
Visual
Gustatory
Tactile
Physiology
All India exam
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multi
Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) according to the WHO criteria is:
Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) according to the WHO criteria is Weight for height less than median minus -3SD. Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) in children of ages 6 to 59 months is defined by the WHO as any of the following: Weight-for-length (or height) below -3SD of the WHO child growth standards. Presence of bipedal edema Mid-Upper arm circumference <11.5cm Ref: Ghai Essential Pediatrics 9th edition PGno: 97
4
Weight for age less than median plus -2SD
Weight for height less than median plus 2SD
Weight for age less than median plus 3SD
Weight for height less than median minus -3SD
Pediatrics
Nutrition
cdb1814b-167c-46ee-b7a2-56fbd4734bc8
single
A patient presenting with painful Myositis Ossificans around Elbow. What should be the preferred treatment option in this case?
Ans. D. Immobilization* Treatment of myositis ossificans (MO): when MO is active, immobilization is the best treatment & any attempt at removal of the mass is hazardous.* When silent and ALP/ESR levels are normal, it can safely be removed (generally after 1.5 years) if causing block in movements.* Indomethacin/low dose radiation/bisphosphonates can be given prophylactically in high risk patients to prevent MO formation.
4
Active mobilization
Passive mobilization
Infra-Red Therapy
Immobilization
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
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multi
Not associated with diabetes mellitus
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypothyroidism
3
Cushing syndrome
Acromegaly
Hypothyroidism
Pheochromocytoma
Medicine
null
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single
Growth hormone does not cause ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., HypothyroidismPhysiological effects of Growth hormone Growth hormone has two major action, i.e., (1) Stimulation of skeletal growth, and (2) Regulation of metabolism. 3) Stimulation of skeletal growthThe effect of GH on skeletal growth is mediated by somatomedins (Insulin-like growth factors : IGF). They are synthesized mainly in the liver. The growth promoting action of somatomedins is helped by their insulin like actions. GH, through somatomedin (IGF-1), stimulates proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes resulting in increased deposition of chondroitin sulfate in catilage and increased ossification of the newly formed cailage.GH deficiency in early life causes dwarfism (small height). GH excess in early life leads to gigantism, whereas growth hormone excess in adulthood results in acromegaly.2) Regulation of metabolismProtein metabolism : - GH has predominantly anabolic effects on skeletal and cardiac muscle where it promotes amino acid transpo into cells and increase protein synthesis.Carbohydrate and fat metabolism : - The effects of GH on carbohydrate and fat metabolism are complicated by the fact that GH has anti-insulin effects, whereas somatomedins it produces have insulin like effects:-i) Anti-insulin effects due to direct effect of GH include decreased peripheral utilization of glucose, increased gluconeogenesis, hyperglycemia, and lipolysis. Due to its anti-insulin effects GH excess can cause insulin resistant diabetes mellitus.ii) Insulin like effects due to somatomedins (IGF) include antilipolytic activity, and other insulin like effects.
4
Gigantism
Acromegaly
Diabetes mellitus
Hypothyroidism
Physiology
null
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single
All is true About venous drainage of esophagus EXCEPT
Abdominal pa of esophagus Here, the veins drain paly into poal & paly into systemic circulation . Veins accompanying left gastric vein drain into poal vein. Others drain into hemiazygos, in thoracic cavity, & continue into vena azygous & superior vena cava. venous drainage of pa of esophagus Cervical pa - Drain into submucosal plexus then to inferior thyroid vein & then to brachiocephalic veins Thoracic pa - Azygous veins Abdominal pa - Drains into left gastric vein & vena azygous hemiazygous vein.
2
Esophageal veins drain into a submucosal plexus
Cervical esophagus drains directly into brachiocephalic veins
Thoracic esophagus drains into the azygous vein
Lower esophageal veins anastomose with the left gastric vein
Anatomy
Stomach and aerial supply of abdomen
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Which of the following is seen encysted in skeletal muscle of human
T. spiralis reprograms terminally differentiated skeletal muscle cells causing them to de-differentiate and re-enter the cell cycle, a process that cannot occur naturally in mammalianskeletal muscle cells, but one that holds great therapeutic potential. Ref ananthnarayana and panikers microbiology textbook 8/e
1
T spiralis
E histolytica
leishmania
T gondii
Microbiology
parasitology
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single
Which of the following is not a function of angiotensin 2:
Angiotensin 2 Action: Increases thirst. Increases ADH secretion. Increases aldosterone. It is the most potent vasoconstrictor.
4
Increases thirst.
Increases ADH secretion.
Increases aldosterone.
Increase anger.
Physiology
null
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Nails is formed in which week of IUL -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 10 - 12 week Age of fetus End of Ist month Impoant changes Length -1 cm, weight -21/2 gm Eyes are seen as two dark spots and mouth as a cleft Nucleated RBCs begin to form in placenta End of 2nd month Length -4 cm, weight - 10 gm First ossification center appears in clavicle (4-5 weeks) The anus is seen as dark spot End of 3rd month Length -9 cm, weight - 30 gm Nails appear and neck is formed End of 4th month Length -16 cm, weight - 120 gm Sex can be recognized Lanugo hair is seen Meconium is found in duodenum Convolution begins to develop in brain End op' month Length -25 cm, weight - 400 gm Nails are distinct and soft Meconium appears in beginning of large intestine Light hair appear on head Skin is covered with vernix caseosa End of 6th month Length -30 cm, weight - 700 gm Eyebrows and eyelashes appear Testes are seen close to kidney Meconium in transverse colon End of 7`" month Length -35 cm, weight - 900 to 1200 gm Meconium in entire large intestine Tests are found at external inguinal ring Eyelids open and pupillary membrane disappear End of 8th month Length -40 cm, weight - 1.5-2 kg Nails reach the tips of fingers Left testis is present in scrotum End of 9th month Length -45 cm, weight - 2.2-3.0 kg Scrotum contains both testes Meconium is seen at the end of large intestine End of Ir month Length -48-52 cm, weight - 2.5-5 kg (full tenn child) Six fontanels are present Surface of brain shows convolution and grey matter begins to form Lanugo is absent except on shoulders. Skin is pale and covered with vernix caseosa The nails project beyond the tip of fingers, but reach only the tip of the toes Cailages have formed in nose and ears.
2
0 - 6 week
10 - 12 week
14 -18 week
20 - 24 week
Pediatrics
null
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Venodilation in most of the tissue due to
(Decreases O2 tension): Ref: Mechanisms of clinical signs - Google Books Result books.google.co.in/books?isbn=072958075xMark Dennis, William Talbot Bowen, Lucy Cho - 2012 - MedicalLivedo Reticularis is essentially increased visibility of the venous plexus of the skin. Venodilatation of the vessels and deoxygenation of blood in the plexus are two main factors. In general venodilatation is caued by altered autonomic nervous system function; circulating factors that cause Venodilation; or in response to local hypoxia. Venodilation allows more venous blood to be present in engorged venules, making them larger and easier to see through the skin. Deoxygenation is principally caused by decreased cutaneous perfusion which can be as a result of decreased arteriolar inflow (may be due to vasopasm due to cold, ANS activity, arteriolar thrombosis or increased blood viscosity); or decreased venous outflow (may be due to venous thrombosis, increased blood viscosity)
1
Decrease O2 tension
Decrease K+ concentration
Acidic H+
Increased CO2 concentration
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
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single
1st meiotic division of oogenesis gets arrested at :
The germ cell reach gonadal ridge by the 6th week to form oogonia which multiply by mitosis By 12th week the oogonia are arranged in clusters and are covered by a layer of follicular cells to form the primordial follicle The oogonia enter into the1st meiotic division but are arrested in diplotene stage of prophase and doesn't enter into metaphase but rest until pubey Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics; Sheila balakrishnan; 2 nd edition; Page no: 49
2
Pachytene stage of prophase
Diplotene stage of prophase
Leptotene stage of prophase
Metaphase stage of prophase
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
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single
Humanized monoclonal antibody that binds IgE to prevent its binding to the high affinity IgE receptor and blocking IgE mediated allergic response and inflammation in Bronchial Asthma is:
An anti-IgE preparation, Omalizumab, is approved by the FDA for use as an add-on therapy in children >=12 yr who have moderate to severe allergic asthma that is difficult to control.
3
Palivizumab
Natalizumab
Omalizumab
Etilizumab
Pediatrics
Other Respiratory Disorders
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multi
A newborn 46 xx has external genitalia of male. All the following are the possible causes except:
Anti mullerian hormone defeciency causes persistance of mullerian ducts and are stimulated to form uterine tubes,uterus,cervix and upper vagina LANGMAN'S MEDICAL EMBYOLOGY,12 TH EDITION, Pg no:247
3
Placental aromatase deficiency
Maternal androgen adrenal tumor
Anti mullerian hormone deficiency
Wnt 4 mutation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Sexuality and intersexuality
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Which is false about adenocarcinoma of the lung?
NSCLC is divided fuher into adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), and large cell carcinoma histologies. Adenocarcinoma, arising from the bronchial mucosal glands, is the most frequent non-small cell lung cancer, representing 35-40% of all lung cancers. It usually occurs in a peripheral location within the lung. Adenocarcinoma is the most common histologic subtype, and may manifest as a "scar carcinoma". This is the subtype observed most commonly in persons who do not smoke. This type may manifest as multifocal tumors in a bronchoalveolar form.
4
32% of lung carcinomas
Same incidence in male and females
Peripheral in location
None of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
If a thiazide diuretic is administered for hypeension, the response that is seen within 24 hrs on excretion is
Thiazides- medium efficacy diuretics with primary site of action in the early DT (Site III). Here they inhibit Na+-Ct sympo at the luminal membrane. Under their action, an increased amount of Na is presented to the distal nephron, more of it is exchanges with K+, urinary K+ excretion increased in parallel to the natriuretic response. They decrease renal Ca excretion and increase Mg excretion by a direct distal tubular action. They also decrease urate excretion by the same mechanism as furosemide. They are used in idiopathic hypercalciuria REF Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6 th edition, page 564
3
sodium excretion increases, potassium decreases
Sodium increases, Potassium decreases, Calcium increases
Sodium increases, Potassium increases, Calcium excretion decreases
Sodium, Potassium, Calcium excretion increases
Pharmacology
Kidney
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single
Which is not a feature of MCA blockage?
Abulia is a feature of ACA territory stroke Features of entire MCA blockage at the origin: Acalculia, Agraphia, Finger agnosia, & Global aphasia is present due to the involvement of dominant lobe. Anosognosia, constructional apraxia, and neglect are found due to the involvement of non-dominant lobe. Contralateral hemiplegia Hemi-anesthesia Homonymous hemianopia Dysahria due to facial weakness.
4
Anosognosia
Apraxia
Dysahria
Abulia
Medicine
Stroke and TIA
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single
To test the association between risk factor and disease, which of the following is the weakest study design
Coho study proceeds forward from cause to effect Case-control study proceeds backward from effect to cause An ecological study is an observational study defined by the level at which data are analyzed, namely at the population or group level, rather than individual level.
2
Case - control study
Ecological study
Coho study
Cross sectional study
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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single
Which of the following is not a calcium channel blockers
Refer kDT 7/e p562 Calcium channel blockers are prescription medications that relax blood vessels and increase the supply of blood and oxygen to the hea while also reducing the hea's workload. Examples of calcium channel blockers include: Amlodipine (Norvasc)
1
Enalapril
Nifedipine
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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single
Nitroglycerine is effective when adminsted sublingually because it is
Nitroglycerin is effective when retained sublingually because it is non ionized and has very high lipid solubility.Thus,the drug is absorbed very rapidly. (Ref-Goodman Gillman12th/e p124,125)
1
non ionized and lipid soluble
ionized and lipid soluble
non ionized and water insoluble
ionized and water soluble
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
Breech presentation is a risk factor for the following condition ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., DDH Risk factors for DDH/CDH (Remember 4Fs 1H0) Females First borns Familial :- DDH is found in families Faulty intrauterine position (Breech presentation) Hormone induced laxity Oligohydramnion
3
CTEV
SCFE
DDH
Pehes disease
Surgery
null
5dcd4c3a-7487-465b-8276-53189c508aa5
single
Beta Oxidation which takes place in peroxisomes generate which of the following
Perxisomal β oxidation produces acetyl CoA and H2O2. It does not produce ATP unlike Mitochondrial beta oxidation.
3
NADPH
FADH2
H2O2
ATP
Biochemistry
null
74fa550a-4cf8-46c3-a738-d346b00089d2
single
Which of the following is related with 'Thanatology' in forensic medicine?
Thanatology deals with death in all its aspects. The word "death" denotes the death of a human being. S.46, I.P.C.: Death denotes death of a human being unless the contrary appears from the context. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 119.
3
Snakes
Poison
Death
Fingerprints
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
IL-2 is secreted by
IL-2 is a typical four a helix cytokine and is produced primarily by activated CD4+ T cells, although expression by naive CD8+ T cells, dendritic cells, and thymic cells has also been repoed (8, 9, 10, 11). In T cells, IL-2 synthesis is tightly regulated at the mRNA level by signals from the TCR and CD28 (12).
1
CD4 lymphocytes
CD8 cells
Macrophages
Neutrophils
Physiology
Immunology
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single
Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of the area of distribution of the:
Answer is B (Middle cerebral aery): The sensory motor coex is located on the lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere and is supplied by middle cerebral aery. Occlusion of the middle cerebral aery thus produces contrahtteral hemiplegia and contralateral hemisensory loss.
2
Anterior cerebral aery
Middle cerebral aery
Posterior cerebral aery
Anterior communicating aery
Medicine
null
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single
Which leukotriene is the adhesion factor for the neutrophil on the cell surface to attach endothelium?
Ans: A (B4) Ref: Ammthanarayan R. Paniker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology, 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press: 2009. Pg. 165Explanation:LeukotrienesA substance originally demonstrated in lungs, producing slow, sustained contraction of smooth muscles, and therefore termed slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A), has since been identified as a family of leukotrienes (LTB4, C4, D4, E4).LTB4 is a potent mediator of leukocyte movement both in vitro and in vivo. It mediates interaction of neutrophils (PMNs) w ith vascular endothelial cells.
1
B4
C4
D4
E4
Microbiology
Immunity
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single
Congenital long QT syndrome is associated with neonatal -
Many people with long QT syndrome have no signs or symptoms. Symptoms that do occur are generally caused by abnormal hea rhythms or arrhythmias, most commonly a form of ventricular tachycardia called Torsades de pointes. If the arrhythmia reves to a normal rhythm by itself then the affected person may experience a faint known as syncope, which may be associated with seizures and sinus bradycardia. However, if the arrhythmia continues, the affected person may experience a cardiac arrest leading to sudden death. The arrhythmias that lead to faints and sudden death are more likely to occur in response to specific circumstances, in pa determined by which genetic variant is responsible for the condition. While arrhythmias can occur at any time, in some forms of LQTS arrhythmias are more commonly seen in response to exercise or mental stress (LQT1), in other forms following a sudden loud noise (LQT2) , and in some forms during sleep or immediately upon waking (LQT3). Some rare forms of long QT syndrome are associated with symptoms affecting other pas of the body. These include deafness in the Jervell and Lange-Nielsen form of the condition, and periodic paralysis in the Andersen-Tawil (LQT7) form Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1443
1
Sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia
Supra ventricular tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
Sine wave in ECG is seen in?
a. Hyperkalemia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 357-360)Hyperkalemia produces a sequence of changes in ECG:1st ECG finding: Narrowing and peaking (tenting) of the T wavesQFurther elevation of K+ leads to AV conduction disturbances, | P-wave amplitude & widening of QRS intervalSevere hyperkalemia eventually causes with a slow sinusoidal "sine-wave" pattern followed by asystole.
1
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypercalcemia
Hypocalcemia
Pediatrics
Fluid and Electrolyte Treatment of Specific Disorders
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In DNA, adenine always pairs with
Chargaff observed that in DNA molecules the concentration of deoxyadenosine (A) nucleotides equals that of thymidine (T) nucleotides (A = T), while the concentration of deoxyguanosine (G) nucleotides equals that of deoxycytidine (C) nucleotides (G = C), led Watson, Crick, and Wilkins to propose in the early 1950s a model of a double-stranded DNA molecule. The model they proposed is depicted in Figure 34-2. The two strands of this double-stranded helix are held in register by both hydrogen bonds between the purine and pyrimidine bases of the respective linear molecules and by van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions between the stacked adjacent base pairs. The pairings between the purine and pyrimidine nucleotides on the opposite strands are very specific and are dependent upon hydrogen bonding of A with T and G with CRef: Harpers Illustrated Biochemistry, 30th edition, page no: 360
1
Guanine
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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The most commonly repeated factor among this is
(C) Mode> The Median: The median is an average of a different kind, which does not depend upon the total and number of items. To obtain the median, the data is first arranged in an ascending or descending order of magnitude, and then the value of the middle observation is located, which is called the median.> The Mode": The mode is the commonly occurring value in a distribution of data. It is the most frequent item or the most "fashionable" value in a series of observations.> The Standard Deviation: The standard deviation is the most frequently used measure of deviation. In simple terms, it is defined as "Root - Means - Square - Deviation." It is denoted by the Greek letter sigma c; or by the initials S.D.> The Mean: The arithmetic mean is widely used in statistical calculation. It is sometimes simply called Mean. To obtain the mean, the individual observations are first added together, and then divided by the number of observations.
3
Mean
Median
Mode
Standard deviation
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the:
The inguinal canal is an oblique passage through the lower pa of the anterior abdominal wall.The canal is about 1.5 in. (4 cm) long in the adult and extends from the deep inguinal ring, a hole in the fascia transversalis, downward and medially to the superficial inguinal ring, a hole in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. In the males, it allows structures to pass to and from the testis to the abdomen.In females it allows the round ligament of the uterus to pass from the uterus to the labium majus.
2
Internal oblique aponeurosis
External oblique aponeurosis
Transverse abdominis aponeurosis
Internal oblique muscle
Anatomy
null
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single
A 12-year-old boy presents with hematemesis, malaena and mild splenomegaly. There is no obvious jaundice or ascites. The most likely diagnosis is:
The given history is suggestive of poal hypeension Extrahepatic poal vein obstruction is an impoant cause of poal hypeension in childhood.
1
EHPVO
NCPF
Cirrhosis
Malaria with DIC
Pediatrics
Liver disorders
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single
Krukenberg&;s spindle seen in patients with pigmentary glaucoma refers to deposition of pigment on
PIGMENTARY GLAUCOMA It is a type of secondary open-angle glaucoma where in clogging up of the trabecular meshwork occurs by the pigment paicles. About 50% of patients with the pigment dispersion syndrome develop glaucoma . Clinical features: The condition typically occurs in young myopic males. Characteristic glaucomatous features are similar to primary open angle glaucoma (POAG), associated with deposition of pigment granules in the anterior segment structures such as iris, posterior surface of the cornea (Krukenberg's spindle), trabecular meshwork, ciliary zonules and the crystalline lens. Gonioscopy shows pigment accumulation along the Schwalbe's line especially inferiorly (Sampaolesi's line). Iris transillumination shows radial slit-like transillumination defects in the mid periphery (pathognomonic feature). Treatment: It is exactly on the lines of primary open angle glaucoma. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:- 234
2
Trabecular meshwork
Back of cornea
Anterior surface of the lens
None of the above
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
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Daily additional requirement of protein in lactation is -
For women during lactation 74g per day is required for 0-6months,68g per day for next 6-12months.REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 25TH EDITION. PAGE NO - 693
1
25 gm
15 gm
35 gm
50 gm
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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single
The drug which releases NO
Ans.is'a'i.e.,HydralazineRef:GoodmanGilmanlTthlep'863, 249, 825NO donors, which release NO are used to elicit smooth muscle relaxation.Eg: Organic nitrates (nitroglycerine), Organic nitrites (Isoamylnitrite), Sodium nitroprusside, Nebivolol & Hydralazine
1
Hydralazine
Aminophylline
Amrinone
Sildenaphil
Pharmacology
null
d78edcd1-a48e-458c-99cb-e6388146efdf
multi
Most common cause of osteomyelitis below 4 years of age?
Ans. d (H. influenzae) (Ref, Nelson pediatrics 18th/ 2843; Manual of orthopaedics by Marc, F. Swiontkowski p. 83)# S, aureus is the most common bacterial pathogen, followed by gram-negative rods, group A streptococcus, and H. influenzae (less likely now due to HIB vaccination).# Pseudomonas aeruginosa is most vital cause of osteomyelitis of foot, especially if there is a puncture wound.# Salmonella is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in patients with hemoglobinopathy.ACUTE OSTEOMYELITISOrganisms of the basis of patient age: a. Younger than 1 yearb. 1 to 4 year oldc. Older than 4 yearsd. Adolescenti. Staphylococcus aureusii. Group B streptococcusiii. Escherichia colii. S. aureusii. Haemophilus influenzaei. S.aureusi. S.aureusii. Neisseria gonorrhoeaeCommon organisms causing infections in a particular setting1.Most common clinical associationMicroorganism2.Frequent organism in any type of osteomyelitisS. aureus3.Most Frequent organism in acute osteomyelitis < 4 yrs ageS. aureus & H. influenzae4.Foreign body associated infectionCNS or Propionibacterium5.Common in nasocomial infectionEnterobacteriacea, P. aeruginosa, Candida6.Sickle cell diseaseSalmonella7.HIV infectionBartonella henselae8.Human or animal bitesPasturella multocidaRadiolgical investigations in acute osteomyelitisType of StudyCommentsPlain radiographs# Insensitive, especially in early osteomyelitis.# May show periosteal elevation after 10 days, lytic changes after 2-6 weeks.Three-phase bone scan (99mTc-MDP)# Characteristic finding in osteomyelitis: increased uptake in all three phases of scan.# Highly sensitive (~95%) in acute infection.67Ga-citrate, 111In-labeled WBCs scans# 111In-WBCs more specific than gallium but not always available.# Lack of consensus over role; often supplanted by MRI when the latter is available.MRI# As sensitive as 99mTc-MDP bone scan for acute osteomyelitis (~95%).# High specificity (~87%), with better anatomic detail than nuclear studies.
4
Pneumococcus
E. coli
Salmonella
H. influenzae
Orthopaedics
Infection of Bones & Joints
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single
Most common cause of sudden death is:
null
2
Cerebral haemorrhage
Arrhythmias
Ruptured aortic aneurysm
Cancer
Medicine
null
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single
Best uterine relaxation is seen with ?
Ans. 'd' i.e., Halothane Halogenated inhalational anaesthetic agents like halothane are powerful tocolytic agents. Halothane is anaesthetic of choice for internal version and manual removal of placenta.
4
Chloroform
Nitrous oxide
Ether
Halothane
Anaesthesia
null
fc522201-72bc-4ea5-adfd-951c4cbfbb1e
single
Prevalence of tuberculosis infection is determined by -
The tuberculin (Mantoux) test is the only means of estimating the prevalence of infection in a population . Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page 185
2
Sputum examination
Mantoux
Clinical examination
MMR
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
2407d0a4-bfda-4ec0-b959-c2d554184003
single
Oral anticoagulant which inhibit thrombin directly-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dabigatran Parentral direct thrombin inhibitors o Argatrobano Hirudino Bivalirudino Lepirudino Melagatran o Desirudin Oral direct thrombin inhibitors o Dabigatran (recent)o Ximelagatran (withdrawn)
1
Dabigatran
Dicumarol
Warfarin
Rivaroxaban
Pharmacology
Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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single
Prinzmetal angina has the following characteristics except -a) Pain at restb) ST elevation during the attackc) Normal ECG without paind) Represents transmural ischemiae) ST depression with pain
null
1
ce
b
ac
ae
Medicine
null
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An infectious disease shows iceberg phenomenon. That means it has ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., More subclinical cases Iceberg of disease Disease in a community may be compared with an iceberg. The floating tip of the iceberg represents what the physian sees in the community, i.e. clinical cases (Diagnosed case, symptomatic case or clinically apparent case). The vast submerged poion of the iceberg represents the hidden mass of disease, i.e. latent, inapparent, presymptomatic and undiagnosed cases and carriers in the community. The "waterline" represents the demarcation between apparent and inapparent disease. Epidemiologist is concerned with Hidden poion of iceberg whereas clinician is concerned with tip of iceberg. Screening is done for Hidden poion of iceberg whereas diagnosis is done for tip of iceberg. Iceberg phenomenon of disease is not shown by rabies, tetanus and measles. The clinician concerned only with the tip of iceberg, i.e symptomatic cases that are seen in clinical treatment, this can result in inaccurate view of the nature and causes of a disease results because the minority of the cases are studied (hidden cases :- submerged poion of ice berg is not studied) -3 Clinician's Fallacy. iseases with a great deal of subclinical infection (therefore have iceberg phenomenon) are :- Rubella Polio Japanese encephalitis Influenza Mumps Hepatitis A and B Diphtheria
3
More case fatality rate
More SAR
More subclinical cases
More complications
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Which of the trophoblast does not invade spiral arterioles:-
Ans. (d) InterstitialRef: Williams Obstetrics 25th Ed; Page No-88* After implantation; trophoblast giving rise to villous and extra villous trophoblasts.* Extra villous trophoblasts contact with various maternal cell types because it migrate into the decidua and myometrium and also penetrate maternal vasculature.* Extra villous trophoblasts are found outside the villus and it is further subdivided into endovascular and interstitial trophoblasts. * Interstitial trophoblasts invade the decidua and surround spiral arteries.* Endovascular trophoblasts invade and transform spiral arteries during pregnancy to create low-resistance blood flow that is characteristic of the placenta.
4
Extravillous
Endovascular
Tertiary villus
Interstitial
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetus Placenta & Fetal Membrane
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Mode of trauma in petrous bone fracture
(Longitudinal) (97-Dhingra 4th) (698- Bailey & Love 25th)* The otic capsule is the hardest bone in the body. If trauma to the head is severe. Temporal bone fractures may occur. These tends to be either longitudinal (80%) or Transverse (20%)* Transverse fracture usually involve the labyrinth and lead to a sensorineural hearing loss that is permanent* Fracture of temporal bone may be longitudinal, transverse or mixed* Facial palsy is seen in more often in transverse fracture (50%)
1
Longitudinal
Transverse
Mixed
Any complete fracture
ENT
Ear
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For emergency contraception IUD must be inserted
null
2
Immediately
Within 5 days of coitus
Within 7 days of coitus
IUD is not used as emergency contraception
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Postoperative ileus is most commonly seen in:
Ans. a. Colon (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1244; Schwartz 9/e p992-993; Bailey 26th/1197-1198, 25th/1261-1262: Shackelford 7/e p592-593)Post-operative ileus is most commonly seen in colon.Post-operative IleusFollowing most abdominal operations or injuries, the motility of the GI tract is transiently impaired.Proposed mechanisms responsible for this dysmotility are surgical stress-induced sympathetic reflexes, inflammatory response mediator release, and anesthetic/analgesic effectsQ; each of which can inhibit intestinal motility.Return of normal motility: Small intestineQ (within 24 hours) >Gastric (48 hours)Q > Colonic (3-5 days)Q.Post-operative ileus is most pronounced in colonQCharacteristic sequence of return of normal motility: Small intestinal motility returning to normal within the first 24 hours, gastric motility within 48 hours and colonic motility returning to normal 3 to 5 daysQ.Because small bowel motility is returned before colonic and gastric motility, listening for bowel sounds is not a reliable indicator that ileus has fully resolvedQ.
1
Colon
Ileum
Duodenum
Stomach
Surgery
Intestinal Obstruction
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All are true about adenoids except
The adenoids are a mass of soft tissue behind the nasal cavity. Like lymph nodes, adenoids are pa of the immune system and are made of the same type of tissue (lymphoid tissue). White blood cells circulate through the adenoids and other lymphoid tissue, reacting to foreign invaders in the body.
2
Physiological growth up to 6 years
Crypta magna present
Present in nasopharynx
Supplied by facial aery
Anatomy
Head and neck
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In which one of the following conditions the sialograph is contraindicated?
Ans. (c) Acute parotitisRef Bailey 25/e p755Sialography:* Contrast Examination of Salivary glands and DuctsIndication:* Salivary gland stones and stricture* Chronic Sialadenitis* Tumors of salivary glands* Contraindication:* Allergy to contrast* Acute Sialadenitis
3
Ductal calculus
Chronic parotitis
Acute parotitis
Recurrent sialadenitis
Surgery
Salivary Gland
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A health care system which is appropriate to everyone whether the service is needed at all in relation to essential human needs, can be accessible to everyone, available to everyone as first level of health care and the cost can be affordable by everyone is:
Ans. (a) Primary health careRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 891-92* PHC is Primary Health Care outlined by Alma Ata in 1978.* It is defined as essential health care, which is characterized by 4 As# Acceptable (it should be acceptable by everyone)# Accessible (it should be accessible by everyone)# Available (it should be available to everyone)# Affordable (it should be affordable to everyone)8 Elements of PHC (Primary Health Care) (remembered as ELEMENTS)EEssential drugsLLocally endemic disease prevention and controlEEPI (Expanded program of immunization)MMCH (Maternal and child Health care including family planning)EEducationNNutritionTTreatment of common ailmentsSSafe water supply and sanitation* Equity of distribution is NOT an element of PHC, but it is one of the principles/pillars of the PHC.* 4 Principles/Pillars of Primary Health Care:# Equitable distribution# Community participation# Intersectoral coordination# Appropriate technology.
1
Primary health care
Secondary health care
Tertiary health care
Basic health care
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Planning and Management
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Which of the following embryologic structures give rise to the upper three fouh of vagina?
Upper three quaer of the vagina is developed from the fusion of the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct. Lower one fouh is developed by the canalisation of the sinovaginal bulbs which form by the proliferation of the urogenital sinus. Structures developing from mullerain duct are:Fallopian tubesUterus and cervixUpper three fouh of vagina
1
Mullerian duct
Urogenital sinus
Sinovaginal bulb
Wolfian duct
Anatomy
null
fa70c01a-b9c1-4a24-b70b-ab5d1e8fa341
single
An infant with history of diarrhoea 5 days back has urea 200 mg% and creatinine 5 mg%. The platelet count is 90000. Fragmented R.B.C s are found in the peripheral smear. The most possible diagnosis –
The clues in this question are - History of diarrhoea         Raised BUN and creatinine Thrombocytopenia  Fragmented RBCs in the peripheral smear   All these suggest the diagnosis of HUS.
1
HUS
TTP
ITP
Hemolytic anemia
Pediatrics
null
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single
CYP 3A4 enzymes are affected by:
carbamezepine is metabolised by cyp3a4 enzyme inducers will enhance the metabolism of other drugs eg for enzyme inducers- phenytoin, phenobarbitone, carbamazepine, chronic alcoholism, smoking, st johns wa Pg.no 23 KD TRIPATHI Seventh edition
3
Fexofenadine
Phenytoin
Carbamazapine
Azithromycin
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
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Surface hardness of gold foil during condensation
null
1
Always increases
Always decreases
Increased followed by a decrease
Not correlated
Dental
null
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single
A child with a constellation of finding including fever, disabling arthritis, rash, and blindness is MOST likely suffering form
A child with a constellation of findings including fever, disabling arthritis, rash, and blindness is most likely suffering from juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). JRA is characterized by a chronic synovial inflamma­tion of unknown origin; it most commonly affects the knees, but can also manifest in wrists, ankles, and the atlanto-axial joint in the neck. In general, JRA is more common in girls than boys, but this varies with the type of JRA, which can be divided into the following variant subsets: Still disease (20%), polyarticular (40%), and pauciarticular (40%). Still disease most closely resembles an infectious disease, with spiking fever, a centripetal rash, generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, transient arthralgias and ar­thritis, and effusions (pericardial and pleural). The polyarticular variant is associated with destructive ar­thritis, particularly if the patient tests positive for the rheumatoid factor. The pauciarticular variant features polyarthritis and inflammation of the anterior uveal tract 10%-50%), which predisposes the patient to visual loss and blindness. In most cases of JRA, with the exception of the polyarticular variant, the rheumatoid factor is negative. Anemia and leukocytosis are noted in acute attacks. Aspirin is the major anti-inflamma­tory agent that is used for treatment. Regarding the other choices in the question: rheumatic fever features polyarthritis, but it is not destructive Lyme disease displays many of these findings, but blindness is not a key feature Henoch-Schoenlein vasculitis has palpable purpura, non-disabling arthritis, but is not associated with blindness dermatomyositis does not usually involve the joints
3
Rheumatic fever
Lyme disease
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Henoch-Schoenlein vasculitis
Unknown
null
cb0d65e3-9f0b-41df-b2b0-822272e9c8d5
single
As absolute contraindication of MRI is:
Pacemaker
1
Pacemaker
Prosthetic cardiac valves
Insulin pump
Cochlear implants
Radiology
null
ad6a62ec-70fe-48df-8a1f-db2609d84e90
single
Caries associated with sealants is assessed by:
ICDAS—International Caries Detection and Assessment System CARS—Caries Adjacent to Restorations & Sealants CAMBRA—Caries Management by Risk Assessment (In USA) The ICDAS records caries in 2 stages:
1
ICDAS & CARS
ICDAS only
DMFT & DMFS
Transillumination
Dental
null
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single
Ramu, age 10 yr present with itching in his eye, foreign body sensation, & ropy discharge since several months. These symptoms are more prominent in summer. Most probable diagnosis is
A i.e. Vernal conjunctivitis
1
Vernal conjunctivitis
Fungal keratoconjunctivitis
Viral conjunctivitis
Trachoma
Ophthalmology
null
baca7969-360a-48b3-b125-b1e9f06a173f
single
Alvarado scoring in appendicitis includes all expect:
Alvarado (MANTRELS) scores Manifestation Score Symptoms Migratory RIF pain Anorexia Nausea and vomiting 1 1 1 Signs Tenderness (RIF) Rebound tenderness Elevated temperature 2 1 1 Laboratory Leuocytosis Shift to left 2 1 Total 10 Scores Prediction 9-10 Appendicitis is ceain 7-8 High likelihood of appendicitis 5-6 Equivocal 1-4 Appendicitis can be ruled out
4
Migratory right iliac fossa pain
Nausea
Elevated temperature
Leucopenia
Surgery
Vermiform Appendix
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Splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by -
• Portal hypertension due to isolated splenic vein thrombosis is known as left sided portal hypertension or sinistral hypertension. • Pressure in portal vein and SMV are normal • There is gastrosplenic venous hypertension leading to formation of gastric varices Causes • Pancreatitis (MC)  leading to splenic vein thrombosis • Neoplasm, Trauma Treatment • Splenectomy is the treatment of choice
1
Splenectomy
Porto-caval shunt
Spleno-renal shunt
Mesenterico-caval shunt
Surgery
null
ff1131b6-8447-4a01-85be-71c289a9c480
single
A patient has a miotic pupil, LOP = 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye. Diagnosis is:
A i.e. Acute Anterior uveitis Acute anterior uveitis presents with - usually normal intra-ocular pressure, deep anterior chamber with miotic sluggishly reacting pupil and hazy cornea due to K.P.'s.Q where as Acute congestive glaucoma present with markedly raised IOP, very shallow anterior chamber, oval dilated (mydriatic) non reacting pupil and hazy cornea due to oedema Q Now, the patient in Q has following findings in Diseased Eye Fellow Eye - Miotic pupil - Shallow anterior - IOP = 25 chamber - Normal anterior chamber - Hazy cornea As the fellow eye is normal; it means that the shallow anterior chamber is a normal depth of anterior chamber in this patient. And normal appearing anterior chamber in diseased eye is in fact deep. So the diagnosis is Ac. Anterior uveitis.
1
Acute anterior uveitis
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Acute open angle glaucoma
Senile cataract
Ophthalmology
null
eb3c64b1-2737-45fa-a5da-244bfe52ce9a
multi
A child presents with perioral rash and pigmentation of palmar area. What is the cause?
Option A: Selenium deficiency shows cardiomyopathy. Option B: Manganese deficiency presents with hypercholesterolemia and weight loss. Option C: Copper deficiency leads to neurological manifestations.
4
Selenium deficiency
Manganese deficiency
Copper deficiency
Zinc deficiency
Dental
null
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single
In pure tone audiogram the symbol X is used to mark-
null
2
Air conduction in right ear
Air conduction in left ear
Bone conduction in right ear
No change in air conduction in right ear
ENT
null
9a1d2244-c63a-4a74-8b7a-537dbb32e2a4
single