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Intetion tremor, druken gait and scanning speech together point towards involvement of
Answer- A. CerebellumClinical features of Cerebellar lesions:Incordination of rapid alternating movements - dysdiadokokinesiaInaccuracy of purposeful movements - dysmetriaIrregular variations in the volume and rhythm ofspeech - scanning speechBroad based reeling gait - like a drunken sailorQuasirhythmical rocking of the head and trunk - titubationHypotoniaNystagmus
1
Cerebellum
Coex
Medulla
Micihreio
Medicine
null
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single
Not a carcinogen for bladder cancer -
Ceain industrial chemicals have been linked with bladder cancer. Chemicals called aromatic amines, such as benzidine and beta-naphthylamine, which are sometimes used in the dye industry, can causebladder cancer. ... Cigarette smoking and workplace exposures can act together to cause bladder cancer. The most common risk factor is cigarette smoking, although smoking cigars and pipes can also raise the risk of developingbladder cancer. Smokers are 4 to 7 times more likely to develop bladder cancer than nonsmokers. Learn more about tobacco's link to cancer and how to quit smoking. Age.
2
Benzidine
Isoprospyl alcohol
Acrolein
Phenacetin
Pathology
Urinary tract
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single
Headaches typically affecting young to middle aged men, unilateral, oculo temporal, excruciating and associated with lacrimation, rhinorrhoea is called
Cluster headache Unilateral, periorbital, frontal or temporal headache with ipsilateral epiphora, rhinorrhoea, sweating,nasal stuffiness and ptosis. Lasts minutes to hours, recurs once or twice daily for several weeks followed by symptom-free intervals of months to years. Affects men (90%) and may be precipitated by alcohol or nitroglycerink room. Migraine- Migraine is characterized by recurrent headaches widely variable in intensity, duration and frequency. Migrainous headache is commonly unilateral, associated with nausea and vomiting and may be preceded by, or associated with, neurological and mood disturbances. Trigeminal neuralgia - Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by brief attacks of severe pain that sta in the distribution of one of the divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is paroxysmal and sharp, usually occurring in multiple bursts in rapid succession lasting a few seconds. Attacks can be triggered either by cutaneous stimulation such as shaving or by motor activity such as chewing. Tension headache Affects females more than males. Generalized nondescript band-like discomfo present continuously A major difference from cluster headache, SUNCT syndrome and paroxysmal hemicrania is that autonomic features are sparse or absent.
3
Migraine
Trigeminal neuralgia
Cluster headache
Tension headache
Ophthalmology
Neuro Ophthalmology
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multi
Sonographic finding of spina bifida – a) Ventriculomegalyb) Obliteration of cisterna magnac) Small BPDd) Abnormal curvature of cerebellume) Club foot
Sonographic findings of spina bifida Most common site is lumbosacral region. Ventriculomegaly with hydrocephalus. Banana sign - cerebellum is stretched around the brain stem with effacement of cisterna magna. Lemon sign - Flattening of frontal bones on transverse image. Bony defect in spine: - V shaped profile due to outward flaring of two posterior ossification centres. Presence of intact sac on posterior aspect of spine. Sac filled with fluid or solid tissue in meningocele or myelomeningocele.
4
acd
bcd
abc
abd
Radiology
null
225113b3-f52e-4705-aaeb-715ac26db721
multi
A patient with Pancoast's tumour develops hoarseness of voice after radiation, it is due to:
(c) Irradiation to vocal cordsPancoast's tumour is an apical (superior pulmonary sulcus) malignant neoplasm of the lung. The symptoms of this tumour are because of compression of adjacent structures, e.g. sympathetic nerves (Horner's syndrome) and brachial plexus (involvement of C8, T1 and T2; leading to shoulder/ arm pain and weakness and atrophy of hand muscles). Uncommonly the tumour can also compress the recurrent laryngeal nerve leading to hoarse voice and bovine cough.But since the patient has developed hoarseness after radiation, the right answer here is irradiation to vocalcords. Radiation to or near the voice box can lead to edema of vocal cords leading to hoarseness. This radiation injury might heal with time after radiation is completed.Vocal cord infiltration with secondaries is not seen in Pancoast's or superior sulcus tumour. Similarly laryngeal stenosis has not been described after radiation; moreover laryngeal stenosis will lead to stridor.
3
Vocal cord infiltration with secondaries
Involvement of recurrent laryngeal nerve
Irradiation to vocal cords
Radiation stenosis of larynx
ENT
Larynx
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single
Which of the drug is not comonly used in PPH?
Atonicity is the most common cause of PPH. Any drug which increases the tone of uterus or the force of contraction is used to control PPH and is called oxytocic. Commonly used oxytocics in the management of PPH are: Oxytocin Methergin Syntometrine – oxytocin + methergin 15 methyl PGF2a (carboprost) Misoprostol (PGE1)
1
Mifepristone
Misoprostol
Oxytocin
Ergotamine
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A 30-year-old pregnant woman and her 2-year-old child are residing in high altitude area. The child is sho in stature, has a potbelly and enlarged protruding tongue, and is developmentally delayed. Iodine is prescribed for mother and child, with the hope of preventing mental retardation in the developing fetus. All are true about oxidation of iodide except
Conversion of iodide ions to an oxidized form of iodine, either nascent iodine (I0) or I3-, which is then capable of combining directly with the amino acid tyrosine. This oxidation of iodine is promoted by the enzyme peroxidase and its accompanying hydrogen peroxide, which provide a potent system capable of oxidizing iodides. Iodide exit from the thyrocyte across the apical membrane to access the colloid is mediated by a Cl-/I- exchanger known as pendrin. The mechanism of action of propylthiouracil is paly to block the peroxidase enzyme that is required for iodination of tyrosine and paly to block the coupling of two iodinated tyrosines to form thyroxine or triiodothyronine. Reference: Guyton; 13th edition; Page no: 953, 960Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 25th edition; Page no: 339
3
Conversion of iodide to iodine
Promoted by enzyme peroxidase
Iodide transpoed to follicular lumen by Na-I sympoer
Propylthiouracil blocks this step
Physiology
Nervous system
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Cephalhematoma usually disappears within -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 5-7 weeks o Cepholhematoma is a subperiosteal hemorrhage usually involving parietal and temporal bones. o It is more common in forceps delivery, vaccum extraction and prolonged labor. o It is soft and fluctuant swelling with well defined margins. o A cepholhematoma crossing the midline indicates underlying fracture of the skull fracture is linear not depressed. o It disappears between 2 week to 3 months.
4
3-5 months
2-5 weeks
3-5 weeks
5 -7 weeks
Pediatrics
null
4fcb09bf-c7a7-4170-af1c-78d053801e7a
multi
All of the following are true about diphtheria except:
Diphtheria: Causative agent – Corynebacterium diphtheriae (Gram +ve bacillus) Incubation period: 2 - 6 days. Depending on site present as: – Nasal diphtheria - Mildest, toxemia is minimal. – Faucial diphtheria (most common) = Nasopharyngeal diphtheria - More severe than nasal diphtheria. – Laryngotracheal diphtheria - Most severe, maximum obstructive symptom, tracheostomy may be essential. Complications : – Myocarditis - Occurs towards the end of 1st or begining of 2nd week. – Peripheral neuropathy of descending type. – Renal failure. Remember : Cardiac damage is permanent, while recovery of nerve damage is rule.
1
Faucial diphtheria is more dangerous than laryngeal diptheria
Laryngeal diphtheria mandates tracheostomy
Child is infectious with faucial diphtheria
Myocarditis may be a complication
Microbiology
null
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multi
Time interval betw een inoculation of infection to maximum infectivity is -
Ans. is 'c' he., Generation time o Generation time - Period from receipt of infection to maximal infectivity.o Serial interval - Gap between onset of primary case and secondary case.
3
Lead time
Median incubation period
Generation time
Serialinverval
Social & Preventive Medicine
Infectious Disease Epidemiology
a4ac3866-3e2a-4a27-96d8-77de6559da93
single
Manubriosternal joint -
C i.e. Symphysis
3
Saddle type
Ball & Socket
Symphysis
Syndesmosis
Anatomy
null
6b917d29-9e9a-4177-a821-e31646126b79
multi
A village has a total of 100 under-five children. The coverage with measles vaccine in this age group is 60%. Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside, twenty six children developed measles. The secondary attack rate ofmeasles is -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 65 %
4
25%
40%
50%
65%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
61a60da3-7543-40d8-b510-3f8a42da160b
single
Which of following pregnancy complications is associated with polycythemia vera
Polycythemia vera → Increased blood viscosity → Thrombotic complications and fetal loss.
3
Coagulopathy
Placental abruption
Stillbirth
Placenta previa
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Seton used in fistula in anosurgery is draining seton and -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cutting seton Types of setonsCutting setonSilk/prolene/monofilament nylon.Invented by hippocretes.Aka 'tight seton'Gradually/slowly cuts through the sphincter muscle - which is replaced by fibrosis.Draining setonAka loose setonUsually a rubber sling.Purpose is drainage of collected pus.
1
Cutting seton
Dissolvingseton
Dissectingseton
Fibrosing seton
Surgery
Anal Fissures
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single
A person had an oblique fracture of olecranon which was displaced proximally. The treatment is:
- Fracture of the olecranon in adults, when the fragments are separated, open reduction and internal fixation are necessary by Tension Band Wiring. - Tension band wiring is also done in case of fracture of patella and medial malleolus.
2
Excision and resuturing
Tension band wiring
Elbow is immobilized by cast
Open reduction and external fixation
Orthopaedics
Upper Limb Traumatology
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The following combination of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgeries –
Amongst the given options, option a is best. However, isoflurane has now been replaced by desflurane and sevoflurane. Drugs used in day care surgery :- Propofol, Desflurane, Sevoflurane, Mivacurium, Alfantanil, Sufentanil, Remifentanil, Fentanyl.
1
Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane
Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane
Ketamine, pethidine, halothane
Propofol, morphine, halothane
Anaesthesia
null
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single
The tip of the nose is supplied by -
Tip of nose and lower part of dorsum of nose are supplied by external nasal branch of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve.
3
Maxillary N.
Mandibular N.
Ophthalmic N.
Facial N.
Anatomy
null
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single
Colie's fracture which of the following tendons likely to rupture:
Ans. (c) Extensor policis longusRef: Apley's 9th edJ 772-74# Colles fracture is a fracture of distal radius at corticocancellous junction with dorsal displacement of distal segment.# Mechanism of injury: Fall on outstretched hand with wrist in hyperextension.Complication of Colle's* Joint stiffness- most common* Malunion- 2nd most common* Sudecks osteodystrophy* Rupture of extensor pollicis longus tendon: Less common complication, usually seen after 4th week of injury.
3
Flexor pollicis longus
Flexor policis brevis
Extensor policis longus
Extensor policis brevis
Orthopaedics
Injuries of the Forearm
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single
Urinary anion gap is an indication of excretion of which of the following?
Urinary anion gap is calculated using the equation, urinary anion gap = ( Na+ + K+) - (Cl-). It reflects the ability of the kidney to excrete NH4Cl. During metabolic acidosis, kidneys normally eliminate NH4+Cl- to enhance the removal of excess H+ion. In response to acidosis, daily urinary excretion of NH4Cl can be increased from 30 mEq to 200 mEq. Ref: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 368 ; Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment 2012, Chapter 21
2
Ketoacids
NH4+
H+ ion
K+ ion
Medicine
null
d51cbe3e-78d7-4757-8237-1a251d25a5c1
single
Which of the following anti–arrhythmic agents does not belong to class Ic ?
null
1
Tocainide
Encainide
Flecainide
Propafenone
Pharmacology
null
b7eb879c-3f7c-4777-b147-317d00866c34
multi
True about stomach carcinoma -a) Weightloss is commonest featureb) Secondaries are most commonly seen in peritoneum & omentumc) Lymphatic & hematogenous spread are rared) Barium meal is diagnostice) Radioresistant
null
2
a
ae
ab
ad
Surgery
null
af23efb5-804f-489d-9013-230aa66d8824
multi
The best site to obtain a swab in asymptomatic gonorrhea is
The specimen in gonococcal infection is collected using a urethral swab or endocervical swab. The most common site of gonococcal infection in women is the endocervix (80%-90%), followed by the urethra (80%), rectum (40%), and pharynx (10%-20%). If symptoms develop, they often manifest within 10 days of infection. Major symptoms include vaginal discharge, dysuria, intermenstrual bleeding, dyspareunia (painful intercourse), and mild lower abdominal pain. When gonococcal cervicitis is either asymptomatic or unrecognized, the patient may progress to PID, often in proximity to a menstrual period. PID may also be asymptomatic or silent and occurs in 10-20% of infected women. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Pg:236
1
Endocervix
Urethra
Lateral vaginal wall
Posterior fornix
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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Bilateral symmetrical maculopapular rash on palms and soles is a feature of -
In secondary syphilis the lesions are symmetrical and numerous initially. In teiary syphilis nodular and noduloulcerative gummata are seen. In congenital syphilis any type of lesion can be seen including Bullous type. In primary syphilis chancre is the typical lesion. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 321,322
2
Primary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
Teiary syphilis
Congenital syphilis
Dental
Sexually transmitted diseases
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single
Sunburst appearance found in -a) Osteosarcomab) Ewings sarcomac) Osteoclastomad) Osteoid osteomae) Chondrosarcoma
Sun-ray (sunburst) appearance and Codman's triangle : - Typical features of osteosarcoma. May also be seen in Ewing's sarcoma, osteomyelitis. Onion-peel appearance Typical feature of Ewing's sarcoma. May also be seen in osteosarcoma, and osteomyelitis
4
ac
a
ad
ab
Orthopaedics
null
43bdae5c-9cc5-41d3-bdf1-7ca1fcc61a64
single
Most common cause of hemobilia
Hemobilia Bleeding into the biliary tract from an abnormal aerial source to intrahepatic biliary tract fistula Poal venous bleeding into the biliary tree is rare, minor and selflimited Aerial hemobilia is the most common source Etiology Trauma : Iatrogenic (PTC) is the most common cause, blunt trauma is more common cause than penetrating trauma Gallstones Vascular pathology : Aneurysm, angiodysplasia, Parasitic infestation, liver abscess, cholangitis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1472-1474
2
Trauma
Iatrogenic
Parasites
Tumors
Anatomy
G.I.T
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single
Sterilization of culture media containing serum is by-
Sterilization of culture media The constituents of culture media must be carefully sterilized. Two methods are commonly used to sterilize culture media - 1) Autoclaving - Constituents like water, salts and supplements like peptone, tryptose etc., which are heat stable, are autoclaved. - Generally autoclaving is carried out at 121°C and at a pressure of 15 psi. The time required for sterilization depends upon the volume of medium in the vessel- For small volumes of liquids (100 ml or less), the time required for autoclaving is 15-20min. For large quantities (2-4 liter) 30-40 min is required. 2) Membrane filtration - Constituents like serum, trypsin, growth factors, proteins, amino acids, vitamins, hormones, carbohydrates and plant extracts are thermolabile and may decompose during autoclaving. - These must be sterilized by filtration. The porosity of the filter membrane should be no longer than 0.2 microns (U m). - Empty glassware that is to hold media must be sterilized in an autoclave before filter sterilization. These two (autoclaving and membrane filtration) are the most commonly used methods for sterilization of culture media. But when these are not available other methods can be used; e.g.- - For media containing sugar or gelatin, an exposure of 100°C for 20 minutes on three successive days may be used. This is known as Tyndallization. Some media containing serum or egg fluid can be sterilized by heating to 80-85°C for 2-4 hours.
2
Autoclaving
Micropore filter
Gamma radiation
Centrifugation
Microbiology
null
9d9a9057-adc0-4bd0-bbe8-2f9731b066a3
single
26-year-old woman complains of the abrupt onset of her chest pounding. She is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. Which of the following is the most effective agent for conveing paroxysmal atrial tachycardia to normal sinus rhythm
DRUGS FOR PSVT An attack of PSVT can be terminated by reflex vagal stimulation through Valsalva maneuver, splashing ice cold water on face, hyperflexion (head between knees), etc. Alternatively, or if it does not work, the drug of choice is adenosine (i.v.). Other alternatives are i.v. injection of verapamil/diltiazem/esmolol. Advantages of adenosine for termina-tion of PSVT are: * Efficacy equivalent to or better than verapamil. * Action lasts < 1 min; adverse effects (even cardiac arrest, if it occurs) are transient. * No haemodynamic deterioration; can be given to patients with hypotension, CHF or those receiving b blockers. Verapamil is contra-indicated in these situations. * Safe in wide QRS tachycardia (verapamil is unsafe). * Effective in patients not responding to verapamil. Adverse effects:- Transient dyspnoea, chest pain, fall in BP and flushing, ventricular standstill for few sec or VF occurs in some patients. Bronchospasm may be precipitated in asthmatics; verapamil is the drug of choice for such patients. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-536
4
Digoxin
Lidocaine
Atropine
Adenosine
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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single
Which of the following are stable cells:
Glandular organs of the body such as liver, kidney, pancreas, mesenchymal cells such as fibroblasts and smooth muscle and vascular endothelial cells are examples stable cells.
2
The lining mucosa of the glands
Mesenchymal cells
Nerve cells
Stratified squamous epithelium of the oral cavity
Pathology
null
4414bea5-36d3-4150-b708-7c0330586d30
single
A middle aged old female presents to surgical OPD with thyroid swelling. She has been treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following thyroid malignancy is most likely to be suspected in this patient?
Given history of treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma most likely raises a suspicion of Papillary carcinoma of thyroid because of the radiotherapy used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid: MC among thyroid malignancy Commonly seen in iodine sufficient areas Low dose radiation exposure during childhood increases the risk Thyroglossal cyst and Hashimoto's thyroiditis also increases the risk
1
Papillary thyroid cancer
Medullary thyroid cancer
Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Thyroid lymphoma
Surgery
Thyroid
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single
All are true about acetaminophen except:
At therapeutic doses, about 95% of acetaminophen undergoes detoxification in the liver by phase II enzymes and is excreted in the urine as glucuronate or sulfate conjugates The injury produced by NAPQI (N-acetyl-benzoquinoneimine) involves two mechanisms: Covalent binding to hepatic proteins-Damage to cellular membranes and mitochondrial dysfunction, Depletion of glutathione, making hepatocytes more susceptible to reactive oxygen species-induced injury
2
It is the most commonly used analgesic
About 95% of acetaminophen undergoes detoxification by CYP2E1
In severe doses liver failure may occur
Injury to liver is produced by NAPQI
Pathology
Cirrhosis
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multi
Aspirin in very low doses inhibits the formation of:-
Aspirin inhibits COX enzyme irreversibly and thus results in decreased synthesis of TXA2 as well as PGI2. TXA2 is produced by platelets and as platelets do not contain nuclei, TXA2 is not synthesized till there is production of fresh platelets, whereas vessel wall contains nucleus and thus can resume the synthesis of enzymes required for the formation of prostacyclins. The net effect is inhibition of TXA2 synthesis leading to anti-aggregatory effects.
2
Prostaglandin F2
Thromboxane A2
Prostaglandin I2
All of the above
Pharmacology
Hematology
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multi
Which of the following is an atavistic epiphysis?
ANSWER: (C) Coracoid processREF: Human osteology by BDC 1st e p. 5, 6EpiphysisDefinition/ FunctionExamplePressure epiphysesTakes part in transmission of weightHead of femur, condyles of tibia, lower end of radiusTraction epiphysesProvide attachment to more than 1 tendonTrochanter of femur, tubercles of humerus, mastoid process.Atavistic epiphysesPhylogenetically an independent bone which in man becomes fused to another boneCoracoid process of scapula, posterior tubercle of talus, os trigonum.Aberrant epiphysesNot always presentHead of metacarpal, base of other metacarpal
3
Condyles of femur
Tubercle of humerus
Coracoid process
Lower end of radius
Anatomy
Joints
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single
Which of the following shows progresion of events against time -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Line diagram* Line diagram (Line graph) is used to show the trend of events with passage of time.
4
Barchart
Pie chart
Histogram
Line diagram
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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single
Following are causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, except:
Answer is C (Rotor syndrome) Rotor's syndrome is an Autosomal recessive inherited disorder characterized by a deject in biliary excretion leading to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia: Indirect hyperbilirubinemia Direct hyperbilirubinemia A. Hemolytic disorders A. Inherited conditions 1. Inherited 1. Dubin-Johnson syndrome a. Sperocyteosis, elliptocytosis 2. Rotor's syndrome Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase and pyruvate kinase deficiencies b. Sickle cell anemia 2. Acquired _ a. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemias b. Paraoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. Immune hemolysis B. Ineffective erythropoesis 1. Cobalamin, folate, thalassemia, and severe iron deficiencies C. Drugs 1. Rifampicin, probenbecid, ribavirin D. Inherited conditions 1. Crigler-Najjar types I and II 2. Glibe's syndrome
3
Hemolytic anemia
Large hematoma
Rotor syndrome
Megaloblastic anemia
Medicine
null
a8275a55-eb29-421a-a653-f1562cc3676e
multi
A 58 year old male with history of Ipsilateral facial paralysis and contralateral hemiplegia. Plain CT scan head is given below. The diagnosis is
(A) MCA stroke # Stroke syndromes:> Middle cerebral artery syndrome is a condition whereby the blood supply from the middle cerebral artery (MCA) is restricted, leading to a reduction of the function of the portions of the brain supplied by that vessel: the lateral aspects of frontal, temporal and parietal lobes, the corona radiata, globus pallidus, caudate and putamen.> The MCA is the most common site for the occurrence of ischemic stroke.> Middle Cerebral Artery Pneumonic: "CHANGes" Contralateral paresis and sensory loss in the face and the arm Homonymous Hemianopsia Aphasia Neglect Gaze preference toward the size of the lesion# Signs and Symptoms:> Hemiparesis or hemiplegia of the lower half of the contralateral face> Hemiparesis or hemiplegia of the contralateral upper and lower extremities> Sensory loss of the contralateral face, arm and leg> Ataxia of contralateral extremities> Speech impairments/aphasia: Broca's, Wernicke's or Global aphasia as a result of a dominant hemisphere lesion (usually the left brain)> Perceptual deficits: hemispatial neglect, anosognosia, apraxia, and spatial disorganization as a result of a non-dominant hemi- sphere lesion (usually the right brain)> Visual disorders: deviation conjuguee, a gaze preference towards the side of the lesion; contralateral homonymous hemianopsia> Radiographic features:> Generally the features are those of cerebral infarction, similar to those seen in any other territory.> There are however certain features specific to middle cerebral artery infarct, and these are discussed below. For both CT and MRI it is worth dividing the features according to time course.> It should also be noted that middle cerebral artery infarcts are often incomplete affecting only perforator branches or one or more distal branches. As such in many cases only parts of the middle cerebral artery territory is affected.> CT: The earliest finding of middle cerebral artery occlusion is: Hyperdense middle cerebral artery sign 3 seen immediately and represents direct visualisation of the thromboembolism. Presence of calcification is important as it is a contraindication to angioplasty> Early parenchymal signs include subtle blurring, decreased attenuation and swelling of the grey-white matter junction of affected regions. It should be noted that deep grey matter structures are affected before the cortex due to lenticulostriate arteries being end arteries, and cytotoxic oedema (intracellular fluid accumulation) occurring earlier 2,4: lentiform nucleus; caudate nucleus as early as 1 hour after occlusion 4 visible in 75% of patients at 3 hours 4 insular ribbon although cortical it is the furthest cortex from collateral circulation and is therefore also affected early 4 the insular ribbon sign describes loss of normal grey-white differentiation surface cortex (including peri-rolandic cortex) collateral flow retards development of CT signs with only 20% of cases demonstrating changes at 3 hours 4> With time the hypo-attenuation and swelling become more marked, and in patients with the majority of the MCA territory affected the mass effect is often dramatic and life threatening, sometimes requiring a decompressive craniectomy.> As time passes the infarct undergoes gradual reduction in swelling and mass effect (see cerebral infarction).> Treatment and prognosis. Treatment of middle cerebral artery infarcts is the same as infarcts anywhere else (see cerebral infarction) except that due to the size of the involved territory the degree of mass effect resulting form infarction can be marked and life threatening. As such decompressive craniectomy is advocated by many as a life saving procedure.
1
MCA stroke
ACA stroke
PCA stroke
PICA stroke
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
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single
Normal therapeutic level of Lithium level is
Blood Lithium Levels (in treatment of bipolar disorder)* Therapeutic levels = 0.6-1.2 mEq/L (For the treatment of acute mania)* Prophylactic levels = 0.6-1.0 mEq/L (For relapse prevention in bipolar disorder)* Toxic lithium levels > 2.0 mEq/L Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.190
2
0.5 to 0.7 mEq/litre
0.7 to 1.1 mEq/litre
0.1 to 0.3 mEq/litre
1.5 to 2 mEq/litre
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
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single
A survey was conducted and it was found that out of 7,000 drivers using mobile, 700 met with accident. And in the same period out of 3,000 drivers without using mobile, only 30 met with accident. Calculate the relative risk: March 2013 (a, b, d, e, f)
Ans. B i.e. 10 Relative risk: Incidence of disease (or death) among exposed/Incidence of disease (or death) among non-exposed Mobile users while driving Accident No Accident Total Yes 700 (a) 6300 (b) 7000 (a + b) OM. No 30 (c) 2970 (d) 3000 (c + d) Incidence rates: Among mobile users: 700/7000 = 100 per 1000 Among non-mobile users: 30/3000 = 10 per 1000 So RR of accidents = 10/ 1 = 10
2
5
10
3.99
8.339
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
72e311e8-81a0-4bb6-bfb6-de5cee40d007
single
Registration of bihs and death act was passed in:
Registration of bihs and deaths act was passed in 1969. Everyone has to register bihs and deaths within 21 days of the event. Ref: National Health Programmes in India, J.Kishore, 10th edition pg: 751
2
1955
1969
1970
1972
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Teratomas may arise from the aberrant migration of
Epiblast cells form the primordial germ cells, which migrate from the region of primitive streak to the region of future gonads to form the gametes like sperm & oocyte.Abnormal remnants of epiblast/primordial germ cells at the primitive streak or their aberrant migration lead to forma on of teratomas.
1
Epiblast
Hypoblast
Cytotrophoblast
Syncy otrophoblast
Anatomy
All India exam
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single
Electron microscopic feature of minimal change disease is?
Ans. b (Loss of foot process of podocytes). (Robbin, Pathology, 8th ed., 543)Minimal-Change Disease (Lipoid Nephrosis)# This relatively benign disorder is the most frequent cause of the nephrotic syndrome in children.# It is characterized by glomeruli that have a normal appearance by light microscopy but show diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes when viewed with the electron microscope.# Although it may develop at any age, this condition is most common between ages 1 and 7 years.# When the changes in the podocytes reverse (e.g., in response to corticosteroids), the proteinuria remits.
2
No change seen
Loss of foot process of podocytes
Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
Thickened basement membrane
Pathology
Kidney
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single
All of the following statements about the methotrexate are true except
Ref-KDT 6/e p823 Folic acid is used to reverse the adverse effect of methotrexate. Folic acid is ineffective. All of the statements are true as discussed earlier
4
It is a cell cycle specific and kills in the S phase
It's toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structure
Folic acid reverses it's toxic effects
It is a drug of choice for choriocarcinoma
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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multi
All are associated with Wilm's tumor except: one:
Answer is C (Ahogryposis multiplex congenita): Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita is not associated with Wilm's tumor.
3
Anirida
Male pseudohermaphrodite
Ahogryposis multiplex congenital
Hemihyperophy
Medicine
null
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multi
All are mesodermal origin, except:
A. i.e. Sphincter pupillae
1
Sphincter pupillae
Cilary muscle
Iris
Ovarian tissue
Anatomy
null
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multi
In PCOD which of the following drug is used for ovulation induction in infeility :
Clomiphene citrate: Used for induction of ovulation; can be 50 mg/day increased to 150mg/day; Staing from day 2 to day 6 of the cycle for 5 days Tamoxifen 10 mg daily for 6 months has been effective in treating male infeility Testosterone 25 -50 mg daily orally improves testicular functions Spironolactone is an antiandrogen; used for treating Hirsutism Ref: SHAWS TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,15 TH edition, Pg no:206, 217
1
Spironolactone
Tamoxifen
Clomiphene
Testosterone
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
PCOD, hirsutism and galactorrhea
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single
Which condition is not associated with cataract?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Refsum disease Causes of CataractSystemic diseasesDermatological diseasesAge related & Physical agentsToxic agentsOtherso Hypoparathyroidismo Hypocalcemiao Diabetes (Hyperglycemia)o Hypoglycemiao Dystrophia myotoniao Galactosae- miao Alport syndromeo Lowe syndromeo Stickler syndromeo Down syndromeo Wilson's diseaseo Hypothyroidismo Galactokinase deficiencyo Neurofibromatosis type IIo Hypertensiono Ichthyosiso Atopic dermatitiso Werner syndromeo Rothmud's syndromeo Senile cataracto Corticosteroidso Maternal infections# CMV# Toxoplasmosis# Rubellao Sunlight & UV rays o Chlorpromazineo Traumao Busulfano Ionizing radiation# X-ray, y-rays# Neutronso Anticholinesteraseo Obesityo Chloroquineo Severe diarrheao Amiodarone o Nonionizing radiation# Infrared# Microwaveo Cigratte smokingo Coppero Irono Goldo Diureticso Electric shock (electric cataract)o Vitamin A, C & E deficiencyo Heat (Infrared cataract)
4
Diabetes Mellitus
Galactosemia
Myotonic Dystrophy
Refsum disease
Ophthalmology
Acquired Cataract
eaf1f6c5-e07d-4514-8904-21c9344cc6b0
single
In case of burns which graft is better?
Thiersch graft is split thickness graft used for burns.
1
Thiersch graft
Wolfe graft
Pedicle graft
Patch graft
Surgery
null
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single
A five year old girl is brought to a pediatrician because she is developing breasts. Physical examination shows large hyperpigmented macules with irregular margins on one side of her back. Which of the following bony abnormalities would most be likely associated with these symptoms?
McCune-Albright syndrome is the combination of precocious sexual development, irregularly shaped ("coast of Maine") pigmented skin macules, and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. The latter condition is characterized by local bony defects containing unmineralised whorls of connective tissue. Renal osteodystrophy refers to a constellation of bony changes occurring in the context of chronic renal failure. Features may include those of osteitis fibrosa cystica (marrow fibrosis, bony resorption and cyst formation within the marrow cavity) and osteomalacia. Osteomalacia results from vitamin D deficiency in adults, and is characterized by a generalized thinning of bony spicules. Osteopetrosis is characterized by excessive bony deposition that can obliterate marrow , causing anemia. Ref: Bauman D. (2013). Chapter 37. Pediatric & Adolescent Gynecology. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
4
A combination of osteitis fibrosa cystica and osteomalacia
A generalized thinning of bony spicules
Excessive bony deposition with obliteration of marrow
Multiple localized whorls of connective tissue
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis is
Voriconazoleis the drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis, Posaconazole is the only azole active against mucormycosis. Liposomal AMB is the drug of choice or co drug of choice for most systemic fungal infections. It can be used intrathecally in fungal meningitis and locally for corneal ulcers and keratitis. Caspofungin is approved for invasive aspergillosis not responding to AMB or voriconazole. It is quite nontoxic and causes only infusion related reaction.
2
Posaconazole
Voriconazole
Liposomal AMB
Caspofungin
Pharmacology
NEET Jan 2020
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single
Pin-point pupils are seen in: Kerala 09; Punjab 09; UP 10
Ans. Opium poisoning
2
OPC poisoning
Opium poisoning
Alphos poisoning
Dhatura poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
68634705-3915-464a-b1ee-eb8d9df9460b
single
Ultrasound examination of a developing fetus demonstrates a fluid-filled sac at the base of the fetus' spine that connects to the spinal canal and apparently contains pa of the spinal cord. A dietary deficiency of which of the following is most strongly associated with this type of lesion?
The lesion is a neural tube defect, probably a meningomyelocele, in which both meninges and spinal cord herniate through a bony veebral defect. These defects most commonly occur in the lumbosacral region, typically resulting in motor and sensory deficits in the lower extremities, and bowel and bladder dysfunction. This condition is now known to be associated with low maternal folate during the first three to four weeks of pregnancy, a time when many women may be unaware of their pregnancy. It is now recommended that all women of childbearing age consume at least 400 mg of folic acid daily. Calcium deficiency can cause osteoporosis and osteopenia. Iron deficiency can cause iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 13. Prenatal Diagnosis and Fetal Therapy. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
2
Calcium
Folate
Iron
Vitamin C
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
6ea49288-94c9-4eb3-ae5f-ef804470ebb6
single
In the test given below to estimate blood glucose, which of the following is true:
Ans. B. Glucose oxidase is highly specific for beta anomer of GlucoseThe reaction in glucometer isGlucose+H2 O+O2 -GODGluconicacid+H2 O2 2H2 O2 +4aminoantipyrine+PHBS-PODQuinoneiminedye+H2 O* This reaction is specific for beta anomer of glucose* Here the first carbon atom is oxidised* This is an example of enzymatic method (Glucose Oxidase Peroxidase method)
2
Glucose is converted to glucuronic acid
Glucose oxidase is highly specific for beta anomer of Glucose
The terminal Carbon is oxidised.
This is an example of Reducometric method
Biochemistry
Carbohydrates
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multi
Rinne's positive means
Ans: C (Normal hearing) Ref: Diseases of the Ear Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra. 5th edn .2010 page 26Explanation:Rinne's TestIt is a tuning fork test and is used to assess hearing status in a patientIn Rinne's test air conduction (AC) is compared with bone conduction (BC)Rinne's positive is AC>BC and is seen in normal hearing and SNHLRinne's negative is AC < BC and is seen in conductive hearing loss
3
Conductive hearing loss in ipsilateral ear
Conductive hearing loss in opposite ear
Normal hearing
AC < BC
ENT
Ear
beebf41d-9955-4ce2-aa3e-9f0e3ee23421
single
Most common site of Morgagni hernia :
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Right anterior Morgagni hernia is a rare form of cong. diaphragmatic hernia occurring through foramen of Morgagni or space of Larrey i.e. space between the sternal and costal origins of the diaphragm)It is more common on right side.Usually it is asymptomaticMost common viscera to herniate through space of Morgagni is transverse colon (Bailey & Love, 24/e, p 873)Also knowSuperior epigastric vessels pass through foramen of Morgagni
1
Right anterior
Right posterior
Left anterior
Left posterior
Surgery
Unusual Hernias
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single
All of the following are the contraindications for the use of progesterone-only pills except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diabetes mellitus o Contraindications for the use of progesterone-only pills are as follows:PregnancyUnexplained vaginal bleedingRecent breast cancerArterial diseaseThromboembolic disease
4
Pregnancy
Patient suffering from breast cancer
Peripheral vascular disease
Diabetes mellitus
Unknown
null
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multi
Chance of affected child to Autosomal recessive carrier parents is?
In autosomal recessive condition the risk of having an affected child when both parents are carriers is 25%, and the chance of having a child who is a carrier is 50%. GENETIC RISK ASSESSMENT IN AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE INHERITANCE: The genetic risk associated with Autosomal recessive disorder is as follows Affected mother, normal father
3
10%
15%
25%
50%
Pathology
null
fd2aeffa-68e4-4e15-89ad-128e944f347c
single
EB virus is associated with all except:
Complications with EBV infection Meningitis and encephalitis, cranial nerve palsies (cranial nerve VII), Guillain-Barre syndrome, acute transverse myelitis, and peripheral neuritis. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, pancytopenia The spleen ruptures in <0.5% of cases. Hyperophy of lymphoid tissue in the tonsils or adenoids Other rare complications- hepatitis (which can be fulminant), myocarditis or pericarditis, pneumonia with pleural effusion, interstitial nephritis, genital ulcerations, and vasculitis. Laennec's cirrhosis- associated with alcoholism
4
Bells palsy
Hepatitis
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Laennec's cirrhosis
Medicine
viral infection
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multi
Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects the mean blood glucose level of previous
HBA1c :There should be an estimation of glycosylated haemoglobin at half yearly intervals. This test provides a long-term index of glucose control. This test provides a long-term index of glucose control. This test is based on the following rationale: glucose in the blood is complexed to a ceain fraction of haemoglobin to an extent propoional to the blood glucose concentration. The percentage of such glycosylated haemoglobin reflects the mean blood glucose levels during the red cell lifetime ( about the previous 2-3months ).Ref: Park; 23rd ed; Pg 396
3
15days
1 month
3 months
6 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
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single
All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, except:
Nitrofurantoin acts by generation of highly reactive intermediates which damage DNA. It does not inhibit cell wall synthesis. Ref: Essentials of Pharmacology by K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 628, 667; Antibiotic Manual: A Guide to Commonly Used Antimicrobials By David Schlossberg, Rafik Samuel, M.D., 2011, Page 310.
4
Carbapenems
Monobactams
Cephamycins
Nitrofurantation
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Median atlantoaxial joint is a type of
Median atlantoaxial joint is a type of pivot joint. Atlantooccipital joint is an Ellipsoid joint.
3
Coadylar joint
Ellipsoid joint
Pivot joint
Ball and Socket joint
Anatomy
null
656a2dad-9eaa-42aa-ae04-fea1bb6e47fa
multi
Most common cause of osteoblastic bone metastais
Prostate carcinoma-M/c osteoblastic.
2
Renal cell carcinoma
Prostaic carcinoma
Wilm's tumor
Neuroblastoma
Radiology
null
2799595d-5201-466e-bb91-24f4c55f37f7
single
A female with recurrent aboion and isolated prolonged APTT is most likely associated with
Lupus anticoagulant They have asked about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Antiphospholipid antibodies account for 3% to 5% of patients with repetitive pregnancy losses. The frequency of fetal death and recurrent aboion in untreated patients with antiphospholipid antibodies is greater than 90%. There are several antiphospholipid antibodies. The most relevant to obstetricians are: - The lupus anticoagulant (LAC), - The anticardiolipin antibody and - The antibody that cause false positive syphilis test (BFP-ST). The name lupus anticoagulant was derived from the fact that this antibody was found first in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus and acted as an anticoagulant by prolonging the paial thromboplastin time (PTT). This name was a poor choice because soon it was found that lupus anticoagulant was present in many patients who did not have lupus and that in majority of patients the antibody was responsible for episodes of thrombosis, rather than anticoagulation. In the laboratory, LAC is not measured directly. - It is assessed by its effect on PTT and the kaolin clotting time. - Typically patients with lupus anticoagulant have a prolonged PTT and a normal PT. - Unfounately, a normal PTT does not exclude the possibility of LAC, and if the clinical suspicion is strong and the PIT is normal a kaolin clotting time or a dilute Russel viper venom time should be performed. - It has also been found that some patients with LAC and recurrent aboions have elevated values of serum 1gM. Other antiphospholipid antibodies The anticardiolipin antibody is the antiphospholipid antibody, most commonly found in patients with repetitive early pregnancy losses. Anlicardiolipin antibody is found in 90% of patients with L.A.C. but the majority of patients with positive anticardiolipin antibody do not have L.A.C. - Anticardiolipin antibody is measured in the laboratory by the ELISA test. BFP-ST - It is the less common antiphospholipid antibody. - Both BFP-ST and Anticardiolipin antibody, measure the antibody against cardiolipin but they are not the same. Clinical features of antiphospholipid antibodies. The presence of any or several of the three antiphospholipid antibodies is associated with - Recurrent early pregnancy losses. - Episodes of venous and aerial thrombosis - Severe preeclampsia - Chorea gravidarum - Pilo ischemic strokes, transient ischemic episodes, migraine headaches. - Postpaum complications such as pulmonary infiltrates, fever, and cardiac symptoms. Aboions in antiphospholipid antibody syndrome - Typically these patients give a history of a live fetus documented by ultrasound or by Doppler before demise or aboion occurs. The majority of the pregnancy losses occur between 14 and 18 weeks. Fetal death is these patients is caused by extensive thrombosis of the placental vessels and the placenta is usually smaller than expected for the gestational age.
1
>Lupus anticoagulant
>DIC
>Von wilebrand disease
>Hemophilia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
bbc3579f-7cd2-444d-b952-cf30f454e5c6
single
True regarding conversion of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin is
When O2 binds to Hb, then the H+ is released. One mole of 2,3 DPG binds to one mole of deoxyhemoglobin. O2 carrying capacity of Hb is affected by the change in pH. When O2 is bound to hemoglobin, 2,3 DPG does not bind to Hb.
1
Binding of O2 causes release of H+
One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds two moles of 2,3 DPG
pH of blood has no affect on the binding of O2
Binding of O2 causes increased binding 2.3,DPG
Physiology
null
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multi
All are true about Net protein utilization (NPU) except:
NPU Nitrogen retained by the body/ Nitrogen intake x100 NPU = / 100 It gives a more complete expression of Protein quality. Egg has the highest NPU value of 96 (100). 1 gram of Nitrogen is equivalent to : 6.25 grams of protein. NPU of Indian diet : 50-80.
4
Defined as Nitrogen retained / Nitrogen consumed X 100
Good for estimating protein quality
Egg has the highest NPU value
1 gram protein is equivalent to 1 gram Nitrogen
Social & Preventive Medicine
Proteins, Fats, Rich Sources
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multi
Residual auditory defect is a common complication in meningitis caused by –
null
4
Staphylococcus
Meningococcus
Escherichia coli
Hemophilus influenza
Pediatrics
null
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single
Most common cause of thoracic aortic aneurysm is
(A) AtherosclerosisDISEASES OF THE AORTA: ETIOLOGY & ASSOCIATED FACTORSAortic aneurysmAortic occlusion* Atherosclerosis* Atherosclerosis* Cystic medial necrosis* Thromboembolism* Tuberculosis* Aortitis* Syphilitic infection* Syphilitic aortitis* Mycotic infection* Rheumatic aortitis* Rheumatic aortitis* Takayasu's arteritis* Trauma* Giant cell arteritis* Aortic dissection * Cystic medial necrosis * Systemic hypertension * Atherosclerosis * Takayasu's arteritis * Giant cell arteritis
1
Atherosclerosis
Tuberculosis
Cystic degeneration
Syphilitic
Surgery
Miscellaneous
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single
Y.V plasty procedure is used for
null
3
Vestibuloplasty
Ridge augmentation
Frenectomy
Mucogingival surgery
Surgery
null
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single
What is Incidence Rate: September 2010
Ans. B: It represents the number of new cases in the Incidence propoion (also known as cumulative incidence) is the number of new cases within a specified time period divided by the size of the population initially at risk. For example, if a population initially contains 1,000 non-diseased persons and 28 develop a condition over two years of observation, the incidence propoion is 28 cases per 1,000 persons, i.e. 2.8%
2
It represents the number of old cases in the community
It represents the number of new cases in the community
It represents the number of total cases in the community
It represents the number of cured cases in the community
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
'Hand and Foot' syndrome can be caused by :
5-FU, capecitabine and liposomal doxorubicin can cause hand and foot syndrome. Generally, this disease affects infants and children. Adults with immunodeficiency can also be affected.
3
Cisplatin
Vincristine
Capecitabine
Mitomycin-C
Pharmacology
null
a3b980de-f2fc-46e8-86f2-a2dda5e5e8c0
single
Structure passing through foramen Rotundum?
Maxillary nerve
2
Maxillary aery
Maxillary nerve
Middle meningeal aery
Spinal accessory nerve
Anatomy
null
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single
Which is 21st amino acid?
Selenocysteine is recently introduced as 21st amino acid. Selenocysteine occurs at the "active site" of several enzymes. Examples include * Thioredoxin reductase * Glutathione peroxidase which scavenges peroxides, * De-iodinase that conves thyroxine to triiodothyronine * Glycine reductase * Selenoprotein P, a glycoprotein containing 10 selenocysteine residues, found in mammalian blood. It has an antioxidant function and its concentration falls in selenium deficiency.Ref: Textbook of medical biochemistry, MN Chatterji, 8th edition, page no: 80
4
Alanine
Cystine
Arginine
Seleno cysteine
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
447c92d0-bbb8-464e-a822-35a4fe186741
single
A thyroid biopsy obtained from a 29-year-old woman complains of nervousness and muscle weakness of 6 months in duration. She is intolerant of heat and sweats excessively. She has lost 9 kg (20 lb) pounds over past 6 months, despite increased caloric intake. She frequently finds her hea racing and can feel it pounding in her chest. She also states that she has missed several menstrual periods over the past few months. Physical examination reveals warm and moist skin and bulging eyes (exophthalmos). Which of the following best describes the pathologic findings?
- Clinical features given suggests the diagnosis of Graves disease - Microscopic findings: Follicular hyperophy & hyperplasia resulting in crowding. Crowding results in papillae formation with no fibrovascular core Colloid is pink & scalloped at periphery adjacent to follicular cells. - Diffuse increase in size of gland is seen - Lymphoid infiltrates consisting predominantly of T cells, with fewer B cells & mature plasma cells are present throughout interstitium.
3
Atrophy and fibrosis
Dense lymphoid infiltrate with germinal centers
Follicular hyperplasia with scalloping of colloid
Necrotizing parenchymal granulomas
Pathology
Hypehyroidism and Goitre
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multi
Antrum of Highmore is another name for:
Maxillary sinus is also called as antrum of highmore and is the first to develop in human fetus.It is the largest paranasal sinus (15 ml capacity in adults).
1
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Frontal
ENT
null
ea6c9442-68f3-45a4-bf82-af16ccaeb375
single
Which is not a feature of tropical eosinophilia ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Microfilariae in blood Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (weingaen's syndrome) . A distinct syndrome that develops in some individuals infected with lymphatic filarial species. . Clinical manifestations - Nocturnal paroxysmal cough and wheezing - Weight loss - Low grade fever - Lymphadenopathy - Pronounced blood eosinophilia (> 3000 /ML) - Hepatomegaly Some times - Splenomegaly . In TPE there is rapid clearance of microfilariae from the blood stream (microfilariae are absent in blood) by the lung. . There is trapping of microfilariae in the lungs and some times in RE system of spleen, liver and lymph nodes. . Chest x-ray Increased bronchovascular marking; diffuse miliary lesions or mottled opacities in middle and lower lung fields.
3
Eosinophila more than 3000/mm3
Microfilariae in tissues
Microfilariae in blood
Lymphadenopathy
Microbiology
null
81da8d02-17c5-4783-ab4f-606d70fbfe46
single
Which among the following is the structure of hemoglobin?
Hemoglobins are tetramers composed of pairs of two different polypeptide subunits. Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 54
4
Monomer
Homodimer
Heterodimer
Tetramer
Biochemistry
null
e4afb388-c138-49dc-9c3f-405675d73fce
single
Which of the following features is not shared between 'T cells' and 'B cells' ?
Ans. a. Positive selection during development (Ref: Lippincott's Immunology (Illustrated Reviews) 2007/1 13; The Immune Response; Basic and clinical principles by Sounders (2005)/346; 'Elements of Immunology' by Fahim Halim Khan (Pearson Education) 2009/206)During development, T cells undergo both positive selection and negative selection, while B cells undergo only negative selection.Class I MHC is expressed in on both T cells and B cellsClass I MHC molecules are expressed on nearly all nucleated cells.Since both T cells and B cells are nucleated, both of them express class I MHC molecules.Antigen receptors are found in both T cells and B cellsThe interaction of lymphocytes with antigens takes place through binding to specialized antigen specific receptors working as recognition units.Surface markersT cellsB cellsCD-3 receptor+Q-Surface lg-+QThymus specific+Q-Ag+Q-Ag receptor-+QFc receptor-+QComplement receptorSRBC or E rosetteEAC rosetteQRosettes(CD-2; measles receptor)(C3 receptor; CR-2; EBV receptor)During development, T cells undergo both positive selection and negative selection, while B cells undergo only negative selectionDuring development. T cells undergo both positive selection and negative selection, while B cells undergo only negative selection - Elements of ImmunologyDevelopment of LymphocytesB-cell Development (Negative selection)T-cell Development (Positive selection followed by negative selection)* Immature B cells expressing membrane IgM do not proliferate and differentiate in response to antigens.* Their encounter with antigens (which are usually 'self as only' self antigens are present at that time) in the bone marrow leads to death (apoptosis) or functional irresponsiveness This property is called negative selectionQ.* B cell negative selection occurs in the bone marrow.* T cells are selected for survival much more rigorously since they should be able to recognize 'self' MHC molecules, but should not recognize 'self' peptides.* Initially immature T cells that recognize MHC molecules are selected and saved from programmed cell death. This is called positive selection and ensures that T cells only recognize antigens in association with MHC (This is important since T cells need to identify and react with infected host cells).* Next amongst positively selected immature T cells, those T cells that react strongly with 'self-peptides' on MHC molecules undergo negative selectionQ and apoptotic death leading to elimination of immature T cells specific for self antigens. This second step is called negative selection.* T cells positive and negative selection occurs in thymusQ. Central T cell tolerance is established by positive and negative selection in the thymus while central B cells tolerance is established by negative selection in the bone marrowQ.
1
Positive selection during development
Class I MHC Expression
Antigen Specific Receptors
All of the above
Microbiology
Immunology
da3e2619-1048-4905-9b67-b8cf2d67277c
multi
The process of diffusion of culture on contact between persons is known as:
Acculturation means "culture contact." When there is contact between two people with different types of culture, there is diffusion of culture both ways. There are various ways by which culture contact takes place trade and commerce, industrialization, propagation of religion, education, and conquest. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 622. Chapter: Medicine and social sciences.
1
Acculturation
Culture shock
Culture exchange
Sericulture
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
93ccefc7-0e21-47aa-a07b-85c0db956f50
single
Persistent belief in something which is not a fact is -
A delusion is false, firm (unshakable) belief which are not in keeping with patient's socio-cultural and educational background.
3
Illusion
Hallucination
Delusion
Delirium
Psychiatry
null
e3f371fd-9523-4385-80a4-7c064ecca2ec
multi
Which of the following worm infestation is associated with cysticercosis?
The pork tapeworm Taenia solium can cause two distinct forms of infection in humans: adult tapeworms in the intestine or larval forms in the tissues (cysticercosis). Humans are the only definitive hosts for T. solium; pigs are the usual intermediate hosts, although other animals may harbor the larval forms. Neurocysticercosis manifests an average of 5 years after exposure, but may cause symptoms in the first year of life. Ref: White, A.C., Weller P.F. (2012). Chapter 220. Cestode Infections. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds),Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
1
Taenia solium
Taenia saginata
Echinococcus granulosus
None of the above
Microbiology
null
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multi
River blindness is caused by?
Ans. A. Onchocerca volvulus. (Ref. Harrison 18th/Table. E16-2).Tissue nematodes:Onchocerca volvulusFemale blackfly bileHyper pigmented skin and river blindness (black flies, black skin nodules, "black sight"); allergic reaction to microfilaria possibleIvermectin (ivermectin for river blindness)LoahaDeer fly, horse fly, mango flySwelling in skin, worm in conjunctivaDiethylcarbamazinewucnerena ooncrowFemale mosquitoBlocks lymphatic vessels: elephantiasis; takes 9 mo-1 yr after bite to become symptomaticDiethylcarbamazineTaxocara cantsFecal-oralVisceral larva migransAlbendazole or mebendazole ROUNDWORM INFECTIOUS Life-Cyde Hosts Diagnosis Geographic DistributionIntermediate (Transmission) Parasite StageBody Fluid or TissueSerologic Tests ParasiteDefinitiveOtterIntestinal RoundwormsEnterobius vermicularis (pinworm)Temperate and tropical zonesFecal-oralHumansOvaPerianal skin "Cellophane tape"Trichuris trichiura(whipworm)Temperate and tropical zonesSoil, fecal-oralHumansOvaFeces--Rectal prolapseAscoris lumbricoids (roundworm of humans)Temperate and tropical zonesSolfocaForaiHumansOvaFeces--Sx of pulmonary migrationAncylostoma duodenale (Old World hookworm)Eurasia, Africa, PacificSoil-SkinHumansOva/larvaeFeces--Sx of pulmonary migration, anemiaNecator americanus (New World hookworm)US, Africa. worldwideSoil-SkinHumansOva/larvaeFeces--Sx of pulmonary migration, anemiagration. anemiaStrangyloids stercoralis (strongyloidiasis)Moist tropics and subtropicsSoil-SkinHumansLarvaeFeces, sputum duodenal FluidEIADissemination in immunodeficiencyCapillaria philippinensisSoutheast Asia Taiwan. EgyptRaw fishBirds Ova, larvae, adultsFeces--Malabsorption/ autoinfection, biopsyTissue Roundworms Trichinella spiralis (trichinellosis)WorldwideSwine/ humansSwine/ humansLarvaeMuscleEIAMuscle biopsyWuchereris bancrafti (Filariasis)Coastal areas in tropics and subtropics MosquitoesHumansMicrofilariaeBlood lymph nodesEIA RAPIDNocturnal periodicityBrugia malayl (filariasis)Asia, Indian SubcontinentMosquitoesHumansMicrofilariaeBloodEIA RAPIDNocturnalLoa loa (African eye worm)West and Central AfricaMango flies (Chrysops)HumansMicrofilariaeBlood--May be visible in eye diurnalOnchocerca volvulus (river blindness)Africa, Mexico, Central and South AmericaBlackfliesHumansAdults/ larvaeSkin/eye--Examine nodules or skin snipsDracunculus medinensis (gulnea wormAfricaCyciopsHumansAdultys/ larvaeSkin--May be visible in lesionAnglostrongylus contonensisSoutheast asia, Pacific CaribbeanSnils/ slugs, shrimp/ fishRatsLarvaeCSF rarely found)--Eosinophilic meningitisLarva Migrans Syndromes Ancylostoma braziliense (creeping eruption}Tropical and temperate zonesSoil-SkinDcgs/ cats. humansLarvaeSkin--Dog and cat hookwormToxocara canis and cot) (Visceral larva migrans)Tropical and temperate zonesSoil, fecal-oralDogs/ cats, humanslarvaeViscera, CNS, eyeEIAAlso caused by roundworms of other speciesAlso know: ManifestationsCausative parasite1"Visceral larva migrans"Toxocara canis2"Larva currens" Strongyloides stercoralis3"Cutaneous larva migrans"- Strongyloides larva- Hookworm larvae (E.g. A. braziliense and A. caninum),- Spiruroid larva (Gnathostoma spinigerum), and- Migrating flying maggot, Gasterophilus.4Pruritus aniEnterobius vermicularis5Rectal prolaspseTrichuris trichura6MyocarditisTrichinella spiralis7Tropical Pulmonary eosinophiliaWuchereria bancrofti8Calabar swellingLoa-loa9River blindnessOnchocercus volvulus10Black water feverPlasmodium falciparum11Painless hematuriaSchistosoma japonicum12"Ground itch" (Ancylostome dermatitis)Ancylostoma duodenale
1
Onchocerca volvulus
Loa loa
Wurcheria bancrofti
All of the above
Microbiology
Parasitology
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multi
Non Halophilic vibrio is
Except for V. cholera and V. mimicus all vibrios are halophilic.
1
V. cholerae
V. parahaemolyticus
V. alginolyticus
V. fluvialis
Microbiology
null
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single
Pick the true statement about major criteria of Jones in acute rheumatic fever.
Major criteria (Jones criteria for Acute Rheumatic fever) Carditis Clinical and/or subclinical Ahritis Polyahritis only Monoahritis or polyahritis or polyahralgia in moderate to high-risk populations Chorea Erythema marginatum Subcutaneous nodules There is a latent period of ~3 weeks (1-5 weeks) between the precipitating group A streptococcal infection and the appearance of the clinical features of ARF. The exceptions are chorea and indolent carditis, which may follow prolonged latent periods lasting up to 6 months. Syndenham's Chorea - commonly occurs in the absence of other manifestations, follows a prolonged latent period after group A streptococcal infection, and is found mainly in females. ARF almost always affects the large joints--most commonly the knees, ankles, hips, and elbows--and is asymmetric Subcutaneous nodules occur as painless, small (0.5-2 cm), mobile lumps beneath the skin overlying bony prominences (extensor surfaces).
2
Carditis is the earliest clinical manifestation seen in acute rheumatic fever
Sydenham chorea is a late manifestation
Involvement of small joints is a characteristic feature
Subcutaneous nodule are seen on flexor aspects of the limbs
Pathology
Rheumatic Fever
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Precancerous lesions of GB are all except
Risk factors for Carcinoma Gallbladder Gallstones >3cm Procelain gallbladder Anomalous pancreaticobiliary junction (APBDJ) Choledochal cysts Adenomatous polyps Primary sclerosing cholangitis Obesity Salmonella typhi infection Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1510
4
Procelain GB
Typhoid carrier
ABPDJ
Biliary ascariasis
Anatomy
G.I.T
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Which of the following is barrier contraception?
Ans: c (Spermicidal jelly) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 393The aim of barrier method is to prevent live sperm from meeting the ovum. It includes:Physical methods:a) Condomb) Female condomc) Diaphragmd) Vaginal spongeChemical methods: (Spermicidal)Foams, creams, jellies, suppositories, soluble filmsCombined methods:Condom is the most widely used barrier device by the males around the world. It can be highly effective method of contraception if used correctly. An important advantage is that it protects against STDs also.Sterilization is the permanent method of contraception.
3
Male sterilization
Female sterilization
Spermicidal jelly
Natural
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and Family Planning
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Menadione (Vitamin K3)
Menadione is fat-soluble synthetic vitamin K3. It can cause hemolysis in G-6-PD deficient individuals. In severe hepatic disease, large doses of menadione can further depress liver function. Menadione is not used to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn as it can cause kernicterus, instead phytonadione is used. Phytonadione is also the drug of choice to overcome the toxic effects of warfarin as it acts rapidly.
1
Can cause hemolysis in a patient with G-6-PD deficiency
Is the preparation of choice to antagonize the effect of warfarin overdose
Is useful to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
Is given in large doses in patients with severe liver disease
Pharmacology
null
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A 55-year-old diabetic woman suddenly develops weakness of the left side of her face as well as of her right arm and leg. She also has diplopia on left lateral gaze. Where is the responsible lesion?
This patient has weakness of the left face and the contralateral (right) arm and leg, commonly called a crossed hemiplegia. Such crossed syndromes are characteristic of brainstem lesions. In this case, the lesion is an infarct localized to the left inferior pons caused by occlusion of a branch of the basilar artery. The infarct has damaged the left sixth and seventh cranial nerves or nuclei in the left pons with resultant diplopia on left lateral gaze and left facial weakness. Also damaged is the left descending corticospinal tract, proximal to its decussation in the medulla; this damage causes weakness in the right arm and leg. This classic presentation is called the Millard-Gubler syndrome. Hemispheric lesions cause motor and sensory loss all on the same side (contralateral to the lesion). A lesion in the median longitudinal fasciculus causes third and sixth cranial nerve dysfunction but not motor deficit of the face or body.
4
Right cerebral hemisphere
Left cerebral hemisphere
Right side of the brainstem
Left side of the brainstem
Medicine
C.N.S.
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Best marker for Cardiac events?
ANSWER: (A) hsCRPREF: Braunwald 8th ed chapter 39Although hsCRP is by far the best-characterized and most reliable inflammatory biomarker for clinical use, several other markers of inflammation have shown promise in terms of predicting coronary vascular risk.These includeCytokines such as interleukin-6soluble forms of certain cell adhesion molecules such as intercellular adhesion molecule (sICAM-1)P-selectinMediator CD40 ligandMarkers of leukocyte activation such as myeloperoxidase.Other inflammatory markers associated with lipid oxidation such as lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A;, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A have also shown promiseRelative risk of future cardiac events in Increasing order1) Lipoprotein(a)2) Homocysteine3) Interleukin-64) Total cholesterol5) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol6) Soluble intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (sICAM-1)7) Serum amyloid A8) Apolipoprotein B9) Ratio of total cholesterol to high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (TC:HDiq10) High-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP}11) Combination of hsCRP with the TOHDLC
1
hsCRP
Homocysteine levels
Interleukin-6
P-selectin
Medicine
C.V.S.
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Gradenigo's syndrome is characterised by -a) Retro orbital painb) Profuse discharge from the earc) VII nerve palsyd) Diplopia
null
1
abd
bcd
abc
ab
ENT
null
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single
Which of the following is true about 'Small for gestational age' baby?
A neonate whose weight falls between the 10th and 90th percentile is considered as appropriate for gestational age (AGA); if the weight falls below 10th percentile, the neonate is classified as small for gestational age (SGA); the neonate is classified as large for gestational age (LGA), if the weight falls at 90th percentile or above for gestational age. The SGA babies have grown suboptimally during intrauterine period (intrauterine growth restriction, IUGR). These babies have thin slender look, loose folds of wrinkled skin, and monkey like fades.
1
Bih weight is < 10th percentile of expected according to gestational age
Bih weight is < 2000 g
Length of the baby is < 50th percentile of expected
Length,weight and head circumference of the baby are < 50th percentile of expected
Pediatrics
IUGR and Feeding of Preterm Neonate
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multi
Epitheliod granuloma is characterstic of
A i.e. Sarcoidosis
1
Sarcoidosis
Eosinohilia
T.B.
Mycosis Fungoides
Skin
null
16903427-fdd3-45e6-91f8-88c099bd89d1
single
How does staph aureus become resistant to methicillin:
Ans. (c) TranspeptidaseRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. /197, 201-202Resistance develops due to alteration in transpeptidase (penicillin binding protein) on which all beta lactam antibiotics act- so MRSA is resistant to all b-lactam antibiotics.
3
Heat shock protein
Protein A
Transpeptidase
Protein C
Microbiology
Staphylococci
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Amount of fat is maximum in which milk:
Amount per 100 ml Cow's milk Human milk Buffalo milk Goat milk Fat 4.1 g 3.4 g 6.5 g 4.5 g Protein 3.3 g 1.1 g 4.3 g 3.3 g Lactose 4.4 g 7.4 g 5.1 g 4.6 g Ref: Park, 22nd edition pg: 584
2
Cow
Buffalo
Human
Goat
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
d0a12eb7-2998-4352-ac0b-da82e295fe79
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Epiphyseal origin tumour is
(Osteoclaustoma) (181 - Apley's 8th)* Ewing's sarcoma - is believed to arise from endothelial cells / Diaphysis* Osteogenic sarcoma - Metaphysis* Chondrosarcoma - Any where in the bone* Osteoclaustoma & Chondroblastoma - Epiphysis* Osteoblastoma - diaphysis or metaphysis* Giant cell tumour (oslcoclaustoma) is a lesion of uncertain origin* that appears in mature bone
1
Osteo claustoma
Osteogenic sarcoma
Ewing's sarcoma
Osteo blastoma
Orthopaedics
Bone Tumour
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single
Which of the following has highest protein content:
Soyabean
2
Mutton
Soyabean
Egg
Milk
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
00ace209-07d6-411d-9afd-3703654049c9
single
The most common mechanism of drug resistance in staphylococci ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Transduction . Production of b-lactamase is usually controlled by plasmids which are transmitted by transduction (most common) or conjugation (some times).
3
Conjugation
Plasmids
Transduction
Translation
Microbiology
null
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single
TTKG in hypokalemia is -
Answer- A. < 3-4A normal TTK in normal subjects on normal diet is 8-9Without other disease, hypokalemia should produce a TTKG <3
1
< 3-4
> 6-7
> 9-10
> 10-15
Medicine
null
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single
Cells are attached to their basal laminas by:
Hemidesmosomes are specialized junctional complexes, that contribute to the attachment of epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane. Macula adherens or desmosomes provide mechanical adhesion by linking the cytoskeleton of adjacent cells together. Zonula adherens or adhering junctions cause the epithelial cells to be organized into a properly polarized epithelium. Zonula occludens or tight junctions permit the passage of ions, solute and intracellular signaling molecules in between adjacent cells.
1
Hemidesmosomes
Macula adherens
Zonula adherens
Zonula occludens
Physiology
Cell Membrane and transpo protiens
146a4ac0-0f29-44d8-9a98-d027793b3d4a
single
Propranolol should not be given to a patient on treatment with which of the following drug ?
null
4
Nifedipine
Nitrates
ACE inhibitors
Verapamil
Pharmacology
null
327b5356-75d4-4919-a1eb-19e55b050dfd
single
The reduction of a physiological hernia occurs at
Physiological hernia appears by 6 wks and gets reduced by 10 wks . Ref - pubmed.com
4
6th week
7th week
9th week
10th week
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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False about informed consent document is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e.,Not need to be signed by doctor Legally valid consent for medical examination and treatment is one :?Given by person himself, if above 12 years, conscious and mentally sound (sane).Or given by parent, guardian, or friend, if patient is less than 12 years or is unconscious or is insane.Is written informed consent, i.e. is given in writting after knowing the nature of condition of procedure, its alternatives and its complications. All disclosures should be done in a language that the patient best understand.Given in presence of two witnesses.Given before the actual doing of procedure.Given freely, voluntarily and directly; without fear, force or fraud.Signed by doctor, patient (or guardian) and witnesses.
2
Obtained in presence of two witnesses
Not need to be signed by doctor
Obtained before the actual doing of procedure
Minimum age to give consent is 12 years
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Caseous necrosis is not found in- rpt Q33
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) ) is a genus of viruses in the order Herpesvirales, in the family Herpesviridae, in the subfamily Betaherpesvirinae. Humans and monkeys serve as natural hosts. There are currently eight species in this genus including the type species, human cytomegalovirus (HCMV, human herpesvirus 5, HHV-5), which is the species that infects humans. Diseases associated with HHV-5 include glandular fever, and pneumonia. In the medical literature, most mentions of CMV without fuher specification refer implicitly to human CMV. Human CMV is the most studied of all cytomegaloviruses. Ref Robbins 9/e p 56
3
TB
Histoplasmosis
CMV
Syphilis
Pathology
General pathology
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