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Antisera is obtained from
Antisera (Antitoxins): Materials prepared in animals; non-human sources like horses
2
Guinea pig
Horse
Rat
Rabbit
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
5d2fb436-836b-4b97-bc95-a25f2d88c742
single
Antigen processing cells are all of the following, except:
Antigen presenting cells include:Macrophages: APC of bloodModified macrophages:Dendritic reticulum cells in follicles of lymph nodesInterdigitating reticulum cells in the paracoical zone of lymph nodesLangerhans cells: APC of skinAstrocytes do not function as APC(ref: Robbin's 8/e p192)
1
Astrocytes
Dendritic cells in lymphoid follicles
Reticulum cells of lymph nodes
Langerhan's cells
Medicine
All India exam
9d053dd4-021b-44aa-8387-0e604524a33c
multi
Endemic typhus cause and vector is
Endemic Typhus Is also known as 'Flea borne typhus' or 'Murine Typhus' Causative agent : Rickettsia typhi (R.mooseri) Reservoir: Rats Mode of Transmission : Rat Flea (Xenopsylla cheopsis) - But not Through bite, rather through feces innoculation on skin or inhalation of dried infective faeces Incubation period : 1-2 weeks Weil-Felix reaction: Becomes positive with proteus OX-19 in 2nd week Drug of choice : Tetracycline Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 316
2
R. prowazki and louse
R. typhi and Rats
R. conori and tick
R. akari and mite
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
289b2337-8c21-45e7-b667-f40b43a6c7c4
single
Node of Rouviere is
Ref: Various articles & internet sources Node of Rouviere is the most superior of the lateral group of the retropharyngeal lymph nodes. It is found at the base of the skull. They represent one of the first echelon lymphnodes typically involved in nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC).
1
Retropharyngeal
Pharyngeal
Nasopharyngeal
Retromolar trigone
Anatomy
null
325b4a30-8749-4d45-a26b-0c3d2207eb44
single
Differentiation between N.gonorrheae and N.meningitidis can be done by:
null
3
Glucose fermentation
VP reaction
Maltose fermentation
Indole test
Microbiology
null
319748b1-6bc3-4b03-9c1b-7d159271b216
single
Secondary detion of the eye is based on the following law:
Ans. Hering's
1
Hering's
Listing's
Donder's
Sherrington's
Ophthalmology
null
080780ba-a681-4975-b1bf-e5b0cac68a42
single
False about fibrous dysplasia
Mazabraud syndrome- Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with intramuscular myxomas.
4
Associated with McCune-Albright syndrome
Associated with mazabraud syndrome
Shepherd Crook deformity of femur
Biopsy is contra-indicated
Orthopaedics
null
35ea0f89-5606-4a0f-8a19-6d55030dc5d2
multi
What is not true about valid consent-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Use technical jargon Legally valid consent for medical examination and treatment is one :-o Given by person himself, if above 12 years, conscious and mentally sound (sane),o Or given by parent, guardian, or friend, if patient is less than 12 years or is unconscious or is insane,o Is written informed consent, i.e. is given in w riting after knowing the nature of condition of procedure, its alternatives and its complications. All disclosures/ true information should be given freely in a language that the patient best understand. Non-medical persons usually do not understand the medical technical jargon, so the consent should be taken in simple language, which the patient can understand and not a technical jargon.o Given in presence of two witnesses,o Given before the actual doing of procedure.o Given freely, voluntarily and directly; without fear, force or fraud.o Signed by doctor, patient (or guardian) and witnesses.
2
Obtained in presence of two witnesses
Use technical jargon
Should not be obtained with force,, fear or fraud
True information to be given freely
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
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multi
Earliest suture to close among the following -
Premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures, either major/ minor is called as CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS. SEQUENCE OF CLOSURE OF SUTURES - METOPIC ( 2 months) - SAGGITAL - CORONAL - LAMBDOID (22-26 months)f/b frontonasal - frontozygomatic (68-72 months) Mc type of craniosynostosis is scaphocephaly/ Dolichocephaly d/t premature fusion of saggital suture
4
Lambdoid
Saggital
Coronal
Metopic
Pediatrics
Congenital CNS malformations
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Wickehm's stria seen in –
The surface of lesion of lichen planus has white streaks when examined under magnifying lens → Wickham's stria.
4
Lichen niditus
Lichenoid eruption
Lichen striates
Lichen planus
Dental
null
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single
In lypoxygenase pathway of the arachidonic acid metabolism, which of the following products help to promote the platelets aggregation and vaso constriction
ref Robbins 9/e p84 Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is a type of thromboxane that is produced by activated platelets during hemostasis and has prothrombotic propeies: it stimulates activation of new platelets as well as increases platelet aggregation
2
C5a
Thromboxane A2
Leukotriene B4
C1 activators
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Commonest site of lytic lesion, in multiple myeloma is
Answer is A (Veebral column) The commonest site of involvement in multiple myeloma is veebral column. Although any bone may be involved, the following order of involvement is most often seen. Veebral column (66%) > Ribs (44%) > Skull(41%)> pelvis (28%)>frinur (24%) > clavicle(10%) > scapula(10%)
1
Veebral column
Femur
Clavicle
Pelvis
Medicine
null
5f48c8be-83e1-4ac3-a55f-09c08f92bd66
single
The increase in the threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are applied in succession is called
Accommodation - Slow rising subthreshold stimulus failing to produce action potential even when the normal threshold levels are reached. This occurs because of inactivation of voltage-gated Na+ channels. Adaptation- Persistent application of suprathreshold stimulus fails to generate repetitive firing.
2
Adaptation
Accomodation
Initiation
Resistance
Physiology
null
879b3a36-2ef2-4d69-b019-69f64be7bb12
multi
Inferior wall MI -
null
1
Post interventricular artery
Ant interventricular artey
Atrial branch
Nodal branch
Pathology
null
5bbdd38f-a94b-43eb-89ea-f068abb8b433
multi
A patient with discharge per vagina was evaluated and on endocervical biopsy Chlamydia was found. Treatment to be given in this case is:
Ans. is a, i.e. Azithromycin and contact tracingRef: Harrison 18th/ed, pl426; William's Gynae 1st/ed, p66; Current diagnosis and treatment of sexually transmitted diseases p 81Management of ChlamydiaUncomplicated chlamydia can be treated with Tetracycline (500mg 4 times daily), Doxycycline (1000mg twice daily), Erythromycin (500mg 4 times daily), Fluoroquinolone -ofloxacin 300mg twice daily, or Azithromycin -single dose - 1gDrug of choice is Azithromycin lg single dose.Advantages of Azithromycin are* Single dose regimen - 1g stat dose (It is as effective as 7 days of doxycycline treatment).* Better patient compliance.* Fewer gastrointestinal side effects.Disadvantage:* High cost of azithromycin.Contact tracing:* Patients with asymptomatic infection and their sex partners form a major burden of chlamydial infection so, contact tracing should always be done (wherever possible).Alternative to azithromycin is doxycycline 100mg orally twice a day for 7 days.
1
Azithromycin and contact tracing
Metronidazole only
Doxycycline and metronidazole
Azithromycin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Sexually Transmitted Disease in the Female
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Familial polysosis coli is associated with
.HNCC (hereditary nonpolyposis colonic cancer) * No polyps. Autosomal dominant* Three members of the family have colonic cancers * Lynch syndrome I is site specific - commonly right sided, occurs in early age group, 40% are metachronous * Lynch syndrome II has other malignancy in, stomach, breast, ovary, endometrium and urinary bladder. It is cancer family syndrome * Microsatellite instability (MSI) at DNA level occurs in HNCC * Accounts for 3-5% of colonic cancers * Amsterdam criteria I (1990); Amsterdam criteria II (1999) and revised Bethesda guidelines (2002) are used to diagnose HNCC ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 835
3
Intussusception
Toxic magacolon
Cancer
Ulcerative colitis
Surgery
G.I.T
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Urinary bladder develops from ?
Postallantoic pa of hind gut is the dilated endodermal cloaca, which is separated from the surface by cloacal mambrane.Urorectal septum divides endodermal cloacae into :-i) Anterior pa, known as primitive urogenital sinus, which develops into urinary bladder and urethra.ii) Posterior pa, known as primitive rectum, which gives rise to lower pa of rectum and upper pa of anal canal.
3
Preallantoic hind gut
Proctodeum
Cloaca
None
Anatomy
null
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multi
In giant cell tumor of the bone.,the cell of origin is
The Neoplastic cells of giant cell tumor are primitive osteoblast precursors but they represent only a minority of the tumor cells.The bulk of the tumor consists of non Neoplastic osteoclast and their precursors Ref Robbins page no 1203
3
Fibroblst cells
Osteoclast and precursors
Osteoblast and precursors
Sinusoidal cells
Anatomy
Musculoskeletal system
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single
Cornification index or eosinophilic index in the diagnosis of atrophic vaginitis indicates:
The degree of maturation of exfoliated vaginal epithelial cells, as revealed by stained vaginal smears, is an index of estrogenic activity. Among the various methods of assessing the smears, the following are most commonly used: the maturation index consists of a differential count of 3 types of squamous cells--parabasal cells, intermediate cells, and superficial cells, in that order--expressed as percentages (eg, 10/85/5); a greater percentage of parabasal cells reflects a greater degree of atrophy. The cornification count is the percentage of pre cornified and cornified cells among total squamous cells counted. This is actually a simplified maturation index, because this percentage is essentially the same as that of the superficial cells. Ref: Nathan L. (2013). Chapter 59. Menopause & Postmenopause. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
2
Progesterone effect
Estrogenic effect
Effect of LH
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Ureter develops from
null
4
Pronephros
Metanephros
Mesonephros
Mesonephric duct
Anatomy
Development of GU system and Neuro-vascular supply of pelvis & perineum
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single
Which of the following enzymes is the most impoant enzyme for regulating lipogenesis:
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase Rate limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis. Activated by citrate Inhibited by Palmitoyl CoA. Conves Acetyl CoA to Malonyl CoA, Also uses Biotin as coenzyme and ATP. As ATP is used, name of enzyme is also Malonyl CoA Synthetase.
2
Hydratase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Enoyl reductase
Acetyl transacetylase
Biochemistry
Fatty acid and synthesis
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All of the following are seen in MEN 2b except ?
MEN 2B syndrome includes medullary carcinoma thyroid, pheochromocytoma along with phenotypic changes including marfanoid habitus, skeletal abnormalities, abnormal dental enamel, multiple mucosal neuromas. MEN 2A includes Primary hyperparathyroidism, Medullary carcinoma of thyroid and Pheochromocytoma. Pituitary tumours are a pa of MEN 1 (Wermer's )syndrome along with Primary hyperparathyroidism and Pancreatic neuro-endocrine tumours (insulinomas, gastrinomas). Reference : page 795 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition and page 829 Textbook of pathology Harshmohan 6th edition .
1
Hyperparathyroidism
Neuromas
Medullary carcinoma thyroid
Pheochromocytoma
Medicine
Endocrinology
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multi
Role of P-selectin in inflammation?
Rolling: It is the process of transient adhesion of leukocytes with the endothelial cells The weak and transient interactions involved in rolling are mediated by the selectin family of adhesion molecules Selectins are receptors expressed on leukocytes and endothelium that contain an extracellular domain that binds sugars. Three members of this family are:- E-selectin (also called CD62E), expressed on Endothelial cells and interact with sialyl lewis x receptor on leukocyte. P-selectin (CD62P), present on Platelets and endothelium and interact with sialyl lewis x receptor on leukocyte. L-selectin (CD62L), on the surface of most Leukocytes interacts with glycoprotein adhesion molecules (GlyCAM-1), Mad CAM-1 and CD34 on endothelial cells. Endothelial Molecule Leukocyte Molecule Major Role Selectins and selectin Ligands P-selectin sialyl-lewis X-modified proteins Rolling E-selectin sialyl-lewis X-modified proteins Rolling and adhesion GlyCam-I,CD34 L-selectin Rolling(neutrophils,monocytes) Adhesion: It is firm attachment of the leukocytes to the endothelial cells. Firm adhesion is mediated by a family of heterodimeric leukocyte surface proteins called integrins Endothelial molecule Leukocyte molecule Major role Integrins and integrin ligands ICAM-1 CD 11/CD 18 (Integrins) Adhesion, arrest, transmigration VCAM-1 VLA 4, LPAM-1 adhesion Transmigration/diapedesis: The step in the process of the migration of the leukocytes through the endothelium Endothelial Molecule Leukocyte Molecule Major role CD 31(PECAM) CD 31(homotypic interaction) transmigration reference:- Robbins and coltran pathological basis of disease, 9th edition, page 76
1
Rolling
Adhesion
Homing
Transmigration
Pathology
General pathology
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Diagonal conjugateis defined as the distance between :
· The diagonal conjugate is clinically estimated by measuring the distance from the sacral promontory to the lower margin of the symphysis pubis
2
Upper border of symphysis pubis and the sacral promontory
Lower border of symphysis pubis and the sacral promontory
Lower border of symphysis pubis and the third piece of sacrum
Lower border of symphysis pubis and tip of sacrum
Unknown
null
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For karyotyping, the dividing cells are arrested by the addition of colchicine in which of the following mitotic phase?
Chromosomes are examined after arresting dividing cells in metaphase with mitotic spindle inhibitors (e.g., N-diacetyl N-methylcolchicine), followed by staining.
2
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Pediatrics
Types of Genetic Disorders
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Brill Zinsser disease is caused by
DiseaseEtiologyDescriptionGroup Affected/Epidemiologic FactorsClinical SyndromeEpidemic typhusRickettsia prowazekiiMaculopapular eruption appearing inaxillae, spreading to trunk and later toextremities; usually spares face, palms, soles;evolves from blanchable macules to confluent eruption with petechiae; rash evanescentin recrudescent typhus (Brill-Zinsserdisease)Exposure to body lice;occurrence of recrudescenttyphus as relapseafter 30-50 yearsHeadache, myalgias;moality rates 10-40% ifuntreated; milder clinicalpresentation in recrudescentformRef: Harrison; 19th edition; Page no: 128
4
C. burnetti
R. typhi
R. slovaca
R. prowazekii
Medicine
C.V.S
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The lens is derived from -
null
1
Surface Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Neuroectoderm
Ophthalmology
null
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True about the Tongue is
(B) Taste fibres from anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by facial nerve # Chorda tympani is the nerve of taste (and therefore taste papillae) for anterior 2/3rd of tongue except circumvallate papillae.> Glossopharyngeal nerve is for both general sensation and taste from posterior l/3rd of tongue including circumvallate papillae.> The sense of taste is mediated through the facial, glossopharyngeal and vagal nerves.> Taste buds are located in: The foliate papillae along the lateral margin of tongue. In the fungiform papillae throughout the dorsum of tongue. In the circumvallate papillae at junction of dorsum and base of tongue. Taste buds are also located in the palate, epiglottis, larynx and esophagus.> Taste sensation are carried by: From Ant 2/3rd of tongue-- through chorda tympani branch of facial nerve. Post 1/3rd of tongue--lingual branch of 10th nerve. Afferents from palate travel with the GSPN to the geniculate ganglion and thence via the facial nerve to brain stem. From larynx, epiglottis and esophagus -- Through internal branch of Sup. Laryngeal nerve of vagus.
2
Extrinsic & intrinsic muscles of tongue supplied by lingual nerve
Taste fibres from anterior 2/3 of the tongue is suppliedby facial nerve
Posterior 1/3 of the tongue drain into Submandibular lymph nodes
Posterior 1/3 of the tongue is supplied by vagus nerve
Anatomy
Misc.
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All except in brown sequard syndrome
. *Ipsilateral dorsal column features are affected because they do not cross to opposite side until they reach medulla. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2667
2
Ipsilateral pyramidal tract features
C/L dorsal column
C/L spinothalmic
Insilateral Dianter extensor
Medicine
C.N.S
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multi
Heparin therapy should be monitored with intermittent estimation of:
aPTT is maintained 1.5 - 2 times the normal mean aPTT value. Clotting time is maintained at 1.8 - 2.5 times the normal mean aPTT value. From medical pharmacology padmaja 4th edition Page no 335
2
Bleeding time
aPTT
Prothrombin time
All of the above
Pharmacology
Hematology
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Radiological sign in case of Pehe's disease -
Pehes disease is divided into 5 distinct radiographic stages : *cessation of growth of capital femoral epiphysis - occurs after initial ischaemic episode & last for 6-12 months . *subchondral fracture - causes collapse of head &ischemia ,visible on radiograph for an average of three months *resorption - necrotic epiphyseal bone beneath the subchondral fracture is gradually & irregularly resorbed & takes 6-12 months *re- ossification- ossification of vascular fibrous tissue takes place .the capital femoral epiphysis regains its normal strength ,takes 6-24 months * healing or residual stage - femoral head is healed with or without residual deformity. REF:textbook of ohopaedics ,John ebnezer, 4th edition , pg.no.412
3
Epiphyseal calcification
Organized calcification
Lateral subluxation femur head
Restriction of abduction
Orthopaedics
Pediatric orthopedics
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Burns and hematemesis -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Curling's ulcer o Curling's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer (stress ulcer) of the duodenum described in 1842 by Curling as a complication of bums. According to Robb in's Curling ulcers are associated with severe burns or trauma,o Cushing's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of stomach, duodenum and esophagus seen in intracranial injury, operations or tumor. Cushing ulcers cany a high incidence of perforation.
2
Cushing ulcer
Curlings ulcer
Malgagnie's ulcer
Intracranial tumor
Surgery
Benign Gastric Disease
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Which type of cells are NOT found in stomach?
Goblet cells are interspersed between the absorptive cells. They are less abundant in the duodenum and more numerous in the ileum. These cells produce glycoprotein mucins that are hydrated and cross-linked to form mucus, whose main function is to protect and lubricate the lining of the intestine. The cells of the gastric glands are parietal (oxyntic) cells, chief (zymogenic) cells, mucous cells, enterochromaffin cells secreting a variety of hormones mainly serotonin.
4
Chief cells
Parietal cells
Enterochromaffin cells
Goblet cells
Anatomy
null
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All of the following are true about Obsessive compulsive disorder EXCEPT
(D) Insight is absent # Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder:> An obsession is defined as an idea, impulse or image which intrudes into conscious awareness repeatedly. It is recognized as one's own idea, impulse or image but is ego-alien (foreign to one's personality). It is recognized as irrational and absurd (insight is present) Patient tries to resist against it but is unable to Failure to resist leads to marked distress.> Differentiation has to be made from delusion and thought insertion.> A delusion is recognized as one's own idea but is not recognized as ego-alien. It is strongly believed, hence it is never thought to be irrational and is never resisted.> Thought insertion is not thought of as one's own idea, but somebody else's thought being forcibly inserted into one's mind.> An obsession is usually associated with a compulsion carcinoma form of behaviour which usually follows obsessions.
4
Washers
Checkers
Thought insertion causes distress
Insight is absent
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
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Which of the following is not an indication for a class II activator:
Class-II and III malocclusions, class-I open bite and deep bite malocclusions, children with lack of vertical development in lower facial height, and upright mandibular incisors are indications of activators. Activators may produce moderate mandibular rotation (anteriorly down words), so they are contraindicated in vertical growers.
3
Mandibular retrusion
Horizontal/anterior type of mandibular growth
Crowding lower anteriors
Upright lower anteriors
Dental
null
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Hea failure cells are
Rising pressure in the pulmonary veins is ultimately transmitted back to the capillaries and aeries of the lungs, resulting in congestion and edema as well as pleural effusion due to an increase in hydrostatic pressure in the venules of the visceral pleura. The lungs are heavy and boggy, and microscopically show perivascular and interstitial transudates, alveolar septal edema, and accumulation of edema fluid in the alveolar spaces. In addition, variable numbers of red cells extravasate from the leaky capillaries into alveolar spaces, where they are phagocytosed by macrophages The subsequent breakdown of red cells and hemoglobin leads to the appearance of hemosiderin-laden alveolar macrophages-- so-called hea failure cells--that reflect previous episodes of pulmonary edema. (Robbins Basic pathology,9th edition.pg no.367)
2
Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
Pigmented alveolar macrophages
Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
Pigment cells seen in liver
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
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Which of the following is true upper esophageal sphincter?
Upper oesophageal sphincter(UES) is a true sphincter. It has pressure of 35-200mmHg. It is formed by cricopharyngeal muscle which is a striated muscle. It is under Neurochemical control.The only neurotransmitter of UES opening or closing muscles found to mediate contraction is acetylcholine acting through nicotinic cholinergic receptors. Ref: Medical Physiology, Indu Khurana
1
Its physiological not anatomical
It has pressure of 10 to 20 mmHg
It is under hormonal control
It is formed by striated muscles
Physiology
G.I.T
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multi
Which of following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and Gene expression?
Ans. D. Microarray(Ref: Robbins 9/e page177,178)DNA microarray can be used to detect DNA sequence variationsRNA Microarray can detect Gene expression.
4
Northern blot
Southern blot
Western blot
Microarray
Biochemistry
Molecular Biology Techniques
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single
In combination birth control pills, the contraceptive effect of the estrogenic component is primarily related to
The two estrogenic compounds used in oral contraceptives are ethinyl estradiol and its 3-methyl ether, mestranol. To become biologically effective, mestranol must be demethylated to ethinyl estradiol, because mestranol does not bind to the estrogenic cytosol receptor. The degree of conversion of mestranol to ethinyl estradiol varies among individuals; however, it is estimated that ethinyl estradiol is about 1.7 times as potent as the same weight of mestranol. The estrogenic component of birth control pills was originally added to control irregular endometrial desquamation resulting in undesirable vaginal bleeding.
4
Conversion of ethinyl estradiol to mestranol
Suppression of cervical mucus secretion
Suppression of luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion
Suppression of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion
Unknown
null
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single
All of the following are unilateral landmarks except:
null
3
Basion
Pogonion
Ptm
Gnathion
Dental
null
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multi
Koch's triangle has blood supply from
Koch&;s triangle has blood supply from Right coronary
1
Right coronary
Left circumflex
Left anterior descending
Anterior aoic sinus
Anatomy
Thorax
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single
Hypoglycemia in late infant and child occurs if blood glucose level is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 40 mg/dl Hypoglycemia in neonate is defined as blood glucose of less than 40 mg/dl, irrespective of gestational age.
1
40 mg/dl
60 mg/dl
10 mg/dl
20 mg/dl
Pediatrics
null
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A 30-year-old man who was recenlty started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased WBC count, increased creatinine phophokinase. This is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of infection. The most likely diagnosis is:
Ans is 'b' i.e. neuroleptic malignant syndrome It is a case of neuroleptic malignant syndrome due to intake of high dose of haloperidol (The usual dose of haloperidol is 2-20 mg/day)The syndrome may develop in upto 1% of patient using antipsychotic and is more common in high doses, the elderly and those with organic brain disease, hyperthyroidismClinical features includeFeverconfusion or fluctuating consciousness Muscular rigidityAutonomic unstability manifested by labile pulse, blood pressure and respiratory rate.Urinary incontinence or retentionLaboratory diagnosisRaised plasma creatine kinase concentration and sometimes myoglobinema with potential nephrotoxicity LeucocytosisTreatmentCessation of antipsychotic therapyAside from cessation of antipsychotic treatment and supportive care specific t/t is unsatisfactory Dopaminergic agonists bromocriptine or dantrolene are beneficial in some cases.Patient is actively rehydratedEven when recognized and treated the condition carries a mortality of 12-15%, through cardiac arrhythmias rhabdomyolysis or respiratory failure.The condition usually lasts for 5-7 days after the antipsychotic is stopped but may continue longer when a depot preparation has been used.
2
Drug overdose
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Drug induced Parkinsonism
Tardive dyskinesia
Psychiatry
Drugs & Other Biological Methods of Treatment
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single
Which of the following is based on ionic charge -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Electrophoresis Property of protein usedMethodMolecular charge (Ionic charge)o Ion exchange chromatographyo High performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)o Electrophoresis (simple on cellulose acetate starch gel)o Isoelectric focusing (a variant of electrophoresis)Protein solubility''Salting out' or salt extraction (precipitation of protein by ammonium sulfateQ)Molecular size0o Gel filtration chromatographyQ (molecular-sieve chromatography or size exclusion chromatography)o Ultracentrifugationo SDS-PAGE (Sodium dodecvl sulphate-polyacry lamide gel electrophoresis)Qo DialysisQMolecular charge (Ionic charge)o Ion exchange chromatographyo High performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)o Electrophoresis (simple on cellulose acetate starch gel)o Isoelectric focusing (a variant of electrophoresis)Molecular charge and molecular weightPAGE : polyacrylamide gel electrophoresisAffinity bindingAffinity chromatographyHydrophobicityHydrophobic interaction chromatography
3
Filtration
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Ultracentrifugation
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Structure & Function of Proteins)
fcdd32c0-5433-406c-b6db-26d6c854398d
single
Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation
Isograft is the graft of tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical i:e, monozygotic twins. Transplant rejection between two such individuals viually never occurs. As monozygotic twins have the same histocompatibility complex, there is very rare chance of rejection of transplanted tissue by the adaptive immune system. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition
4
Allograft
Autograft
Xenograft
Isograft
Microbiology
general microbiology
6278435e-5ef0-4cf6-94a8-e8896f1f8fdb
multi
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functions of the cell
null
3
wall
nucleus
membrane
capsule
Microbiology
null
df0ba864-d124-4ee5-b38f-03b806b23d0f
multi
Which one of the following is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
(C) Zidovudine # RTIs come in 3 forms:> Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NARTIs or NRTIs)> Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NtARTIs or NtRTIs)> Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)> Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NARTIs or NRTIs): compose the first class of antiretroviral drugs developed. In order to be incorporated into the viral DNA, NRTIs must be activated in the cell by the addition of three phosphate groups to their deoxyribose moiety, to form NRTI triphosphates. This phosphorylation step is carried out by cellular kinase enzymes. Zidovudine, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abacavir, Emtricitabine> Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NtARTIs or NtRTIs): Normally, nucleoside analogs are converted into nucleotide analogs by the body. Taking nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NtARTIs or NtRTIs) directly allows conversion steps to be skipped, causing less toxicity. Tenofovir, Adefovir> Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs): NNRTIs are the third class of antiretroviral drugs that were developed. This class of drugs was first described at the Rega Institute for Medical Research (Belgium): Efavirenz, Nevirapine, Delavirdine, protease inhibitors (sequinavir, Indinavir, Ritonavir, Nelfinavir etc.,)> Research have designed molecules which dually inhibit both reverse transcriptase (RT) and integrase (IN). These drugs have been termed "Portmanteau inhibitors".
3
Efavirenz
Nevirapine
Zidovudine
Saquinavir
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
5a91b50c-b1ff-48b1-a6ea-58e5de5e5093
single
Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by which of the following viruses?
Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by Coxsackie A vims which usually affects children. Ulcers are seen on the tongue, palate and anterior part of oral cavity. Vesiculopapular lesions are seen on the palms and soles also.Cytomegalovirus causes large ulcers in oral cavity and exudative pharyngotonsillitis.Herpes simplex presents in two forms:(i). Gingivostomatitis(ii). Herpes labialisEbstein-Barr vims causes infectious mononucleosis, nasopharyngeal cancer (non-keratinising type), Burkitt's lymphoma, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and hairy leukoplakia. In fact Ebstein-Barr vims infection is limited to epithelial cells of the pharynx and B-lymphocytes to cause above ailments in nasopharynx and lymphomas.
3
Cytomegalovirus
HIV infection
Coxsackie A virus
Herpes simplex virus
ENT
Oral Cavity
2a3218f7-c767-4372-9086-badaf103eb1b
single
According to WHO, exclusive breast milk is given upto-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 6 months Exclusive breast feeding : The baby should be given only breast milk and nothing else (not even water) for first 6 months of life. Weaning should be started by 6 months of age with semisolid food, in addition to continuing breast feeding.o The WHO recommends exclusive breast feeding for the first six months of life and then breast feeding up to two years or more. ______InternetComplementary feeding means giving the child other nutritious foods in addition to breast milk. Breast feeding is sufficient food for first 6 months. Thereafter, concentrated energy' dense complementary' foods are essential in order to maintain an adequate velocity of growth for the infant.
1
6 months
4 months
8 months
10 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
Pediatrics
0811ba79-30fd-4576-ab39-8b1d78c5f5da
single
Rate limiting enzyme in testosterone synthesis
Cholesterol is first acted upon by desmolase and a 6-carbon unit is cleaved off, forming 21 carbon steroid, pregnenolone It is the common precursor for all the steroid hormonesRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 664
2
17,20 lyase
20,22-desmolase
3-bHSD
17-hydroxylase
Biochemistry
Endocrinology
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single
Not seen in alpha helix
a-Helix: A peptide chain forms regular helical coils called a-helix. These coils are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between carbonyl O of 1st amino and amide N of 4th amino acid residues. Thus in a-helix intrachain hydrogen bonding is present. The a-helices can be either right handed or left handed. Left-handed a-helix is less stable than right-handed a-helix because of the steric interference between the C = O and the side chains. Only the right-handed a-helix has been found in protein structure. Each amino acid residue advances by 0.15 nm along the helix, and 3.6 amino acid residues are present in one complete turn. The distance between two equivalent points on turn is 0.54 nm and is called a pitch. Small or uncharged amino acid residues such as alanine, leucine, and phenylalanine are often found in a-helix. More polar residues such as arginine, glutamate, and serine may repel and destabilize a-helix. Proline is never found in a aa aa-helix. The proteins of hair, nail, skin contain a group of proteins called keratins rich in a aa aa-helical structureRef: Textbook of medical biochemistry, MN Chatterji, 8th edition, page no: 89
3
Alanine
Leucine
Proline
Isoleucine
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
4cf54361-20f0-48cc-aa15-37769f099be7
single
Medical certificate is -
Medical certificate is the simplest type of written/documentary evidence.
1
Documentary evidence
Oral evidence
Hearsay evidence
Parole
Forensic Medicine
null
87036c22-39ee-4837-8ffc-8a016d4daba2
single
Most sensitive test for acute fetal distress :
Loss of beat to beat variation of hea beat
2
Fresh meconium on induction of labour
Loss of beat to beat variation of hea beat
Increased fetal movements
Type 1 dips in second stage
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
b3703695-b58c-4237-9214-5e2a9df3f962
single
The plateau phase of action potential is due to:
There are 5 phases of action potential. The plateau phase corresponds to phase 2 of action potential. Plateau phase is due to slow influx of calcium ions resulting from opening of sarcolemmal L type calcium channels and also due to closure of a distinct set of K+ channels called the inward rectifying K+ channels. Phase 0: Rapid depolarization: The initial rapid depolarization and the overshoot is due to the opening of voltage gated Na channels and rapid influx of Na ions. Phase 1: Initial rapid repolarization: It is due to closure of Na+ channels and opening of K+ channels resulting in transient outward current. Phase 2: Plateau: It is due to slow influx of calcium ions resulting from opening of sarcolemmal L type calcium channels and also due to closure of a distinct set of K+ channels called the inward rectifying K+ channels. Phase 3: Repolarization: It result from closing of Ca2+ channels and opening of two types of K+ channels. Phase 4: Resting potential: It is maintained by a resting K+ current, the largest contributor to which is the inward rectifying K+ current. Ref: Textbook Of Medical Physiology By Khurana page 248.
2
Influx of Na+
Influx of Ca 2+
Influx of K+
Closure of voltage gated K' channels
Physiology
null
5be85006-8f1e-4db8-9c8e-17268b71489e
single
Which drug is used in treatment of vertigo -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cinnarizine o Vertigo is due to labyrinthine disorder and the impulse utilizes cholinergic muscarinic and HI histamic receptors (similar to motion sickness).o So, the drugs used are antimuscarinic, phenothiazines (phenothiazines have anticholinergic property) and antihistaminics.o Cinnarizine (act by inhibiting influx of Ca+2 into endolymph) and betahistine. (a histamine) analogue improve blood circulation to the inner ear - can be used in Meniere's disease.
1
Cinnarizine
Metoclopramide
Cisapride
None
Pharmacology
Anti Histaminics
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multi
Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause
Many therapeutic drugs can cause cell or tissue injury in a susceptible patient or if used excessively or inappropriately.Radiation, cytotoxic anticancer drugs, extremes of temperature, and even hypoxia can damage DNA, either directly or through the production of free radicals. If repair mechanisms cannot cope with the injury, the cell triggers intrinsic mechanisms that induce apoptosis.Anoikis is a form of programmed cell death that occurs in anchorage-dependent cells when they detach from the surrounding extracellular matrix (ECM). Usually, cells stay close to the tissue to which they belong since the communication between proximal cells as well as between cells and ECM provide essential signals for growth or survival. When cells are detached from the ECM, there is a loss of normal cell-matrix interactions, and they may undergo anoikis. However, metastatic tumor cells may escape from anoikis and invade other organs.( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition,)
3
Only necrosis
Only apoptosis
Both necrosis and apoptosis
Anoikis
Pathology
General pathology
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multi
First step of treatment of a person with FAP family history is
Gene testing is performed first. If positive screening begins from 10 years of age.
3
colonoscopy
Total colectomy
Gene testing
Frozen section
Surgery
null
9bc61f48-f456-4ca8-be97-cb7c374388ee
multi
Which of the following is an activator of LCAT
Apo-Al  Apo A-I is an activator for lecithin : cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT).
4
Apo B 100
Apo B 48
Apo E
Apo AI
Biochemistry
null
404c45fb-a1b2-44fa-a893-71a3af2e162a
single
A patient diagnosed to have deep vein thrombosis is being treated with heparin. Which of the following test will you order to adjust its dosage ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Activated paial thromboplastin time o Lab control of heprin is done by monitoring aPTT.
4
Platelet count
Prothrombin time
Bleeding time
Activated paial thromboplastin time
Pharmacology
null
871f023a-a087-4d9b-a4d8-21ed389bba56
single
A 72-year-old man has had increasing dyspnea for the past year. Decreased breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the right side of the chest. A chest radiograph shows a large pleural mass that nearly encases the right lung. Exposure to which of the following metals is most likely to be associated with these findings?
Asbestos fibers can cause pulmonary interstitial fibrosis with restrictive lung disease, and there is an increased risk of malignancy. Individuals who have been exposed to asbestos and who smoke have a greatly increased incidence of bronchogenic carcinoma. Mesothelioma is uncommon, even in individuals with asbestos exposure, but virtually all occurrences of malignant mesothelioma are in individuals who have been exposed to asbestos. Arsenic exposure is a risk factor for skin cancer. Chronic beryllium exposure may lead to sarcoid like granuloma formation. Chromium exposure increases the risk of carcinomas of the upper respiratory tract and lung. Nickel exposure is associated with cancers of the respiratory tract.
2
Arsenic
Asbestos
Beryllium
Chromium
Pathology
Environment & Nutritional Pathology
971bff4b-0980-43b4-b41a-b022eba83233
single
Super antigen is produced by all the following except:
Enterococcus fecalis is not a super antigen.
4
Mycoplasma arthridis
Enterotoxin - A of food poisoning
Malassezia furfur
Enterococcus fecalis
Microbiology
null
7819da00-0b0f-4d42-8cf6-43a7094dcdc8
multi
Sphincter urethrae is present in-
Urethra -        Length o   Male- 20 cms o   Female- 4 cms -        Shortest part of the male urethra- Membranous part -        The longest part of the male urethra- Penile urethra -        Location of sphincter urethrae- Membranous part -        Prostatic urethra o   Widest part o   Most dilatable part o   Concave anteriorly. o   Route- downwards & forwards. Exit prostate slightly anterior to its apex. o   Crescentic on the cross section o    Structures on the posterior wall §  Urethral crest §  Colliculus seminalis (verumontanum) §  Opening of ejaculatory ducts §  Prostatic sinuses with the opening of prostate glands o   Lymphatics §  Membranous part- Internal iliac nodes §  Prostatic part- Internal iliac nodes §Penile urethra- Deep inguinal nodes.
3
Prostatic urethra
Spongy urethra
Membranous urethra
Penile urethra
Anatomy
null
9b2a0cbf-57af-471d-93cd-83f152fdc209
single
Organophosphorous compounds act by which of the following?
Ans. b (Inhibiting Acetyl choline esterase). (Ref. Parikh, Textbook of FMT, 5th/892)ORGANOPHOSPHOROUS COMPOUND POISONING# It produces cholinergic syndrome (muscarinic and nicotinic effects).# Muscarinic effects include:- bradycardia, bronchorrhoea, lacrimation, sweating, hyperperistalsis, wheezing, salivation, incontinence and miosis (pin point pupils).- Hint:* Salivation* Lacrimation* Urinary incontinence* Decreased heart rate* GI symptoms* Excessive sweating and elation# Nicotinic effects include:- initial hypertension,- tachycardia,- fasciculations,- muscle weakness,- agitation and anxiety.# 'Red tears' is also its feature.
2
Stimulating Acetyl choline esterase
Inhibiting Acetyl choline esterase
Blocking Acetyl choline receptors
None
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
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multi
The most retentive type of amalgam pin is:
The most frequently used pin type is the small self-threading pin. Friction-locked and cemented pins, although still available, are rarely used.  The diameter of the prepared pinhole is 0.0015 inch to 0.004 inch smaller than the diameter of the pin. The threads engage the dentin as it is inserted, retaining the pin. The elasticity (resiliency) of the dentin permits insertion of a threaded pin into a hole of smaller diameter. Although the threads of self threading pins do not engage the dentin for their entire width, the self-threading pin is the most retentive of the three types of pins ,being three to six times more retentive than the cemented pin. Reference: Sturdevant operative dentistry. 7th EDITION page no.269
1
Self threading pins
Cemented pins
Friction locked pins
All have same retentive capability
Dental
null
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multi
Power of chief judicial magistrate is imprisonment upto -
Chief Judicial Magistrate: Imprisonment up to 7 years and unlimited fine. REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 4.
1
7 Years
5 years
3 years
Death sentence
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
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single
Leaf like helminths are also called:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Flat leaf like worms* Cylindrical helminthes - Nematodes (roundworms)* Flat, segmented helminthes - Cestodes (tapeworms)* Flat, leaf like helminthes - Trematodes (flukes)
1
Flukes
Roundworms
Tapeworms
Cestodes
Microbiology
Parasitology
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multi
Characteristics of blood flow in capillaries
null
4
High velocity high stress
High velocity low stress
Low velocity and pulsatile
Low velocity and high shear stress
Physiology
null
078ddeec-9d8b-4c06-ae36-e3612687574a
single
False sense of perception without any external object or stimulus is known as:
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Hallucination Hallucination - A perception that occurs in the absence of a stimulusIllusions - A misinterpretation of stimuli arising from external objects.Phobia - An irrational fear of an object, situation or activityImpulse - A sudden often unreasoning determination to perform some act.
3
Illusions
Impulse
Hallucination
Phobia
Psychiatry
Symptoms & Signs
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multi
Duschene muscular dystrophy true ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Universal increase in creatine kinase Duchenne and Becker's muscular dystrophy are X-like recessive. So expression of gene is essentially confirmed in males. Females are affected only if X-chromosome carrying the normal allele is lost or inactivated Becker is milder form with late onset and slow progression. In duchenni, onset is early with deloyed misection. Pseudohyperophy of calf muscle, glutei, deltiod, Gower sign may positive at age of 3 year. Cardiac involvement staed at 10 year of age. Histopathology shows diffuse degeneration & regeneration of muscle fibre. Serum CPX are markedly high
3
Autosomal dominant
Onset at second decade of life
Universal increase in creatine kinase
Normal cardiac muscle fibre
Pediatrics
null
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multi
45-year-old man is placed on an antifungal agent for systemic infection. He is noted to have decreased serum leukocyte and platelet counts. Bone marrow suppression is a common adverse effect of which of the following drugs
ANTIMETABOLITE Flucytosine (5-FC) Mech of action:- It is a pyrimidine antimetabolite which is inactive as such. After uptake into fungal cells, it is conveed into 5-fluorouracil and then to 5-fluorodeoxyuridylic acid which is an inhibitor of thymidylate synthesis. Thymidylic acid is a component of DNA. 5-FC is a narrow spectrum fungistatic, active against Cryptococcus neoformans, Torula, Chromoblastomyces; and a few strains of Candida. Adverse effects:- Toxicity of 5-FC consists of dose-dependent bone marrow depression and gastrointestinal disturbances, paicularly enteritis and diarrhoea. Liver dysfunction is mild and reversible. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-791
4
Griseofulvin
Terbinafine
Fluconazole
Flucytosine
Pharmacology
Antibiotics
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single
Cofactor for dopamine hydroxylase ?
Dopamine 8-hydroxylase is a 'copper' containing monooxygenase that requires ascorbic acid and molecular oxygen.It catalyzes the formation of norepinephrine.
4
Fe
Mg
Mn
Cu
Biochemistry
null
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single
Eating disorder with normal weight is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Bulimia nervosa Bulimia nervosao Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of uncontrollable excessive eating (binges) followed by vigrous weight-reducing measures like self-induced vomiting, purgative abuse, diuretics, or abuse of emetics; and less commonly severe dieting and stemous exercise.o Episodes of binge eating occur relatively frequently (twice a week or more) for at least 3 months.o As in anorexia nervosa, there is extreme preoccupation with the shape and weight of the body. However, bulimiia nervosa differs from anorexia nervosa : -i) Patients of bulimia are slightly older than those with anorexia i.e., Late adolescence.ii) Most of the patients with bulimia nervosa have a weight within their normal weight range.iii) Amenorrhea is usually not present and most are sexually active, compared with anorexia nervosa patients.iv) Peculiar behavior about the food of anorexia nerv osa is absent.v) Depressive symptoms are more common - Post-binge anquish.o Patient with bulimia nervosa may have dental caries/tooth decay, Sore throat, Swollen Salivary gland (parotitis), and internal bleeding due to vomiting.
2
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa
Binge eating disorder
None of the above
Psychiatry
Sleep Disorders
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multi
Punctuate yellow exudates in colon, found on endoscopic examiantion are indicative of
null
3
Balantidium coli
Ulceratice colitis
Antibiotic colitis
Gluten induced enteropathy
Medicine
null
41de8e3a-84f4-4036-ab44-20dbddf14cc4
single
A multipara with previous LSCS comes at 38 weeks pregnancy in shock. Differential diagnosis includes:
Shock in Obstetrics: Causes of shock during pregnancy
4
Placenta previa
Abruptio placenta
Rupture uterus
All of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
aa50126a-8e32-4afd-a646-98ad01051a7f
multi
A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS PAGE electrophoresis. The SDS PAGE electrophoresis pattern shows two widely separated bands of 20kD after addition of Mercaptoethanol. The true statement regarding this will be
D. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE) It has a high molecular sieving effect and so separation is very efficient. In agar gel electrophoresis, serum components are separated into 5 fractions; while in PAGE serum will show more than 20 different bands. The amount of cross linking and thereby the pore size can be controlled. Another common variant is the SDS-PAGE electrophoresis. Here proteins are boiled for 1-2 minutes with a denaturing agent, sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS) (Fig. 54.2). The negative charges of SDS will cover the protein molecules, making them strongly negative. Then the separation of molecules will depend mainly on their molecular size. SDS-PAGE is therefore commonly used for molecular weight determination as well as for assessing the purity of proteins.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 600
3
The protein has undergone complete lysis
The protein is a monomer of 20kD and 30kD protein
The protein is a dimer of two 20kD proteins
The protein is a tetramer of 20kd and 30kD proteins
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
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multi
Organelle where H202 is produced and destroyed is?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Peroxisome Peroxisome is a membrane bound organellel found in all eukaryotic cells. "Peroxisomes contain a group of enzymes that oxidize a variety of substrates and thereby form hydrogen peroxide. The H202 thus formed is efficiently decomposed within the organelle by catalase which is present in high concentration". Lysosomes can only form H,02 - They cannot degrade H202. Remember H202 is produced as well as destroyed in mitochondria and cytosol. It is produced from superoxide by enzyme SOD. It is destroyed by glutathione peroxidase.
1
Peroxisome
Lysosome
Golgi body
Ribosome
Pathology
null
6432026a-c906-4666-bb81-aebb18c83f56
single
A middle-aged female present with lytic lesion in lower 1/3 of femur. Biopsy showed grooved nuclei and giant cells. No periosteal reaction seen. What is the confirmatory investigation for this case:-
Ans. (C) Cd1a and Langerin IHC(Ref: Apley's system of Orthopedics and Fracture 9th Ed; Page no-198 and 204)The possible diagnosis in the given scenario is Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LHC).Femur can be involved in LCH.LANGERHANS cells have a single large nucleus with characteristic folded or grooved nucleus (Coffee-Bean appearance) with small inconspicuous nucleoli.Visualization of the CD 1a surface marker is now considered sufficient to establish the diagnosis of LCH.
3
Serum PTH
Serum Calcitonin
Cd1a and Langerin IHC
MRI
Orthopaedics
Bone Tumour
7ee42740-dd29-434c-bf53-e641e89c5804
single
Which is not a PUFA?
POLYUNSATURATED FATTY ACIDS (PUFA)The impoant polyunsaturated fatty acids are:Linoleic acid (18 C, 2 double bonds)Linolenic acid (18 C, 3 double bonds)Arachidonic acid (20 C, 4 double bonds)They are present in good quantities in vegetable oils such as sunflower oil (Fig. 7.2, Table 7.4). They are used to esterify cholesterol, whereby the latter can be excreted. So, PUFA, in general, are anti-atherogenicOther PUFAs belonging to very long chain fatty acids (VLCFA) are timnodonic acid (20 C, 5 double bonds); clupanodonic acid (22 C, 5 double bonds) and cervonic acid (22 C, 6 double bonds). They are present in fish oils. They are impoant for development of the human brain.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 161
2
Linoleic acid
Palmitoleic acid
Linolenic acid
Arachidonic acid
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
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single
The most common side effect of IUD insertion is -
Most common side effect → Bleeding Most common side effect requiring removal of the device → Pain
1
Bleeding
Pain
Pelvic
Ectopic pregnancy
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ba76018f-02df-41f2-bc05-1ca44203231e
single
Neurological complications of meningitis include all of the following, except -
null
3
Seizures.
Increased intra-cranial pressure
Cerebral hamartoma
Subdural effusions.
Medicine
null
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multi
Most common site of metastasis in Ca colon is
One-third of patients will have liver metastases at the time of diagnosis and 50% will develop them at some point, accounting for the majority of deaths. The lung is the next most common site; metastasis to ovary, brain, kidney, and bone is less common.Ref: Bailey and love, page: 1262
1
Liver
Lung
Bone
Brain
Surgery
G.I.T
cf5ff80f-138e-433b-ac94-53a05531eaa8
single
Which of the following plaque is most harmful and causes spread of Inflammation to the connective tissue leading to bone destruction:
null
1
Subgingival epithelial attached
Subgingival unattached
Subgingival plaque
Supragingival plaque
Dental
null
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single
Neurofibromatosis true all, except aEUR'
Autosomal recessive Neurofibromatosis is an inherited disorder It is of two types: ? Neurofibromatosis - Neurofibromatois II Genetics of Neurofibromatosis Both the neurofibromas are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. The genes for them are located on different chromosome - NF-1--) Neurofibrin gene on chromosome 17 - NF-2 --) Merlin gene on chromosome 22 NEUROFIBROMATOSIS TYPE I ? Neurofibromatosis is a comparatively common hereditary disorder in which the skin, nevous system, bone, endocrine glands and sometimes other organs are at the sites of a variety of congenital abnormalities often taking the fonn of benign tumours. . The main feature of neurofibromatosis I is - (i) Spots of hyperpigmentation and (ii) Cutaneous and subcutaneous neurofibromatous tumours'. Hyperpigmentation in Neurofibromatosis I takes two forms :? a) Cafe - au - lait spots' . These are patches of pigmentation and they appear sholy after bih' and occur anywhere on the body. . They are light brown in colour (cafe - au - lait) and do not change in number as the patient ages but they increase in size during pubey. . Presence of more than six cafe - au - lait spots > 1.5 cm in size is considered diagnostic of Neurofibromatosis. b) Freckles' . Neurofibromatosis I is also characterized by the presence of Freckles like or diffuse pigmentation of the axillae and other interiginous areas (groin, under breast) and small round whitish spots. When coupled with cafe au lait patches they are viually pathogtzomonice of the disease. ii) Neurofibromas a) Cutaneous tumours . They are situated in the dermis and form discrete soft or, firm papules. . They are ,flesh coloured or violaceous and often topped with comedo. When pressed, the soft tumours tend to invaginate through a small opening in the skin giving the feeling of a seedless raisin or a scrotum without a testicle. This phenomenon is spoken of as "button holding". b) Subcutaneous tumours . They take two forms ? a) Firm discrete nodules attached to a nerve. b) Plexiform neuromase (overgrowth of subcutaneous tissue sometimes reaching enormous size and occur most often in the face, scalp, neck and chest and may cause hideous disfigurement). Lisch Nodule'? This is another unique .finding of neurofibromatosiso. . It is a small whitish spote present in the iris. Tumours associated with Neurofibromatosis I are 1) Tumours of the CNS a) Optic Nerve Gliomao b) Non-optic Gliomas (usually low grade astrocytomas) c) Nonneoplastic ' hamaomatous" lesion Osborn writes - "The common CNS tumor in NF-1 is optic nerve glioma occuring in 5 to 15% of casese" 2) Other tumours associated with NF-1 a) Pheochromocytoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma c) leukemia (myeloid leukemia) d) Wilms tumour e) Juvenile Xanthogranuloma
1
Autosomal recessive
Associated with cataract
Scoliosis
Multiple fibroma
Pathology
null
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multi
"3 by 5" initiative in AIDS control programme is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Providing 3 million people treatment by end of 2005 3 by 5 target o On lst December 2003, WHO and UN A IDS announced a detailed plan to reach the "3 by 5 target" of providing antiretroviral treatment (A) to three million people living with IIIIDS in the developing countries by the end of 2005. o Ultimate goal ()1 this strategy is to provide universal access to A to anyone who needs it. o It has five Pillars (focus areas of concerns) :? 1) Simptified standard tools to deliver A 2) A new service to ensure effective, reliable supply of medicines and diagnostics 3) Dissemination and application of new knowledge and successful strategy 4) Urgent, sustained suppo to countries 5) Global leadership. backed by strong panership
1
Providing 3 million people treatment by end of 2005
Providing treatment to 3 out of 5 patients
Reducing incidence of A I DS by 3% by 2005
All of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Yuzpe and Lance regimen for 'post -- coital' contraception :
100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours
1
100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours
Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours
Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months
200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
True about Polymerase Chain Reaction are all except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thermolab lie enzymes* Polymerase Chain Reaction is invitro amplification of a desired fragment of DNA* Specific amplification of a desired fragment of DNA is possible only because this process uses specific primers which are complementary to flanking sequences of the desired fragment.* It involves three steps in every cycle# Denaturation at 94 or 95degC# Annealing at (Tm - 5)degC# Elongation at 72degC* This way if Polymerase Chain Reaction is allowed to go through n number of cycles, by the end we get 2n products. Hence it is a sensitive technique.* Hence it involves DNA denaturation followed by annealing.* As the DNA polymerase that is used in this process should be capable of withstanding repeated cycles of 94 or 95degC, the enzyme should be thermostable. Hence the DNA polymerase used in Polymerase Chain Reaction is extracted from an organism which lives in hot springs. That organism being Thermus aquaticus and hence the DNA polymerase is Taq DNA polymerase* Optimum temperature required for this enzyme for elongation is 75degC. Hence elongation is carried out at 72degC
4
Thermostable enzyme
DNA denaturation, followed by annealing
Specific primers are required
Thermolabile enzymes
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
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multi
Conn's syndrome is characterised by all except -
null
4
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Weakness
Anasarca
Medicine
null
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multi
A 9 year old child disturbs other people, is destructive interferes when two people are talking, does not follow instructions and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from –
null
4
Emotional disorders
Behavioural problems
No disorder
Attention deficit hyperactive disroder
Pediatrics
null
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single
A child presented with intermittent episodes of left sided flank pain. Ultrasonography reveals large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and coical thinning with a normal ureter. Kidney differential function was observed to be 19% which of the following is the best management -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pyeloplasty Pelvi-ureteral junction (PUJ)/ureteropelvic (UPJ) o UPJ obstruction is the most common obstructive lesion in childhood and is the most common cause of hydronephrosis found on prenatal and early postnatal ultrasonography. o It is most commonly caused by intrinsic stenosis of a segment of ureter which is usually localized to the region of pelviureteric junction. Other causes include ureteric folds & extrinsic obstruction by crossing lower pole vessels. Presentation o Hydronephrois revealed by maternal USG (Dilated renal pelvis but normal ureter). o Palpable renal mass in new borns or infants. o Abdominal flank or back pain typically exacerbated by drinking large volumes of liquid. o UTI/Haematuria after minimal trauma. Epidemiology Left side more commonly involved than right (Bilateral = 10%). Male more commonly involved than females (M : F = 2 : 1). Initial Diagnosis by Ultrasonography o Hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis. Ureter i f visualized is of normal caliber (not dilated). Renal Differential function Nuclear Renography is used to determine Renal Differential function o A differential function of < 40% is considered significant and often an indication for surgical management. Management Management depends on the differential renal function and AP diameter of PUJ : - 1)Differential renal function > 40% especially when AP diameter of PUJ < 30 mm --> Conservative treatment. 2)Differential renal function < 40% especially when AP diameter of PUJ > 30 MM Surgical treatment is indicated. Pyeloplasty is the surgical procedure of choice. Other surgical procedures used are external drainage (nephrostomy), endopyelotomy and nephrectomy. o Differential function of < 10% is often considered as an arbitary cut off for nephrectomy.
2
Nephrectomy
Pyeloplasty
External drainage
Endopylostomy
Pediatrics
null
df3235b7-e4d2-4a66-a1af-36b4a5d89ef8
single
Imaging investigation of choice to Diagnose Mullerian duct Abnormalities?
MRI is the investigation of choice for Mullerian Duct Anomalies Newer modality - 3D USG also has high sensitivity and specificity and accuracy comparable to MRI
3
USG
HSG
MRI
CT
Radiology
Women Imaging
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single
Neuroendocrine lesions of the lung are -
The normal lung contains neuroendocrine cells within the epithelium as single cells or as clusters, the neuroepithelial bodies. Neuroendocrine lesions of the lung may be of following types - A. Non-Neoplastic (i) Reactive neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia in response to inflammation or scarring. (ii) Idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia → a precursor lesion of tumorlets and carcinoids. B. Neoplastic (a) Benign (i) Tumorlets → Small, inconsequential hyperplastic neuroendocrine cells seen in areas of scarring or chronic inflammation. (b) Malignant (i) Carcinoid tumor (ii) Small cell carcinoma of the lung (iii) Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma of the lung.
1
Carcinoid tumor
Alveolar carcinoma
Hamartoma
Asthma
Pathology
null
837a7560-b65d-4dc2-9b61-7e55a61a7c4f
single
In designing a retainer on a noncarious mandibular first premolar abutment with short clinical crown which of the following restorations is most appropriate?
null
1
A full crown
A reverse 3/4 crown
MOD onlay
Inlay
Dental
null
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single
Impoant post operative managment of case of VVF is :
Continuous bladder drainage
1
Continuous bladder drainage
Antibiotics
Complete bed rest
Early ambulation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
b7a573b2-0bcf-42a3-8492-b81e17696156
single
Not true regarding optic chiasma:
Inferonasal fibres are related to anterior poion of chiasma. Optic Chiasma Lies over tuberculum. Tumor over chiasma can lead to visual field defects. Decussation of visual pathway takes place over chiasma for nasal fibres from retina. Inferonasal fibres are related to anterior poion of chiasma whereas superonasal fibres are related to posterior poion of chiasma.
4
Lies over tuberculum
Tumor over chiasma can lead to visual field defects
Decussation of visual pathway takes place over chiasma
Inferonasal fibres are related to posterior poion of chiasma
Ophthalmology
Neuro Ophthalmology
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multi
The limitation of movement of well persons or animals exposed to communicable diseases for a period usually not longer than the longest incubation period is known as:
Isolation: Separation for the period of communicability of infected persons in such places or under such conditions as prevent transmission of infectious agent to the susceptible. Quarantine: It is the limitation of movement of such well persons or animals exposed to communicable diseases for a period usually not longer than the longest incubation period of the disease to prevent effective contact with those not exposed. Segregation: It is the separation for special consideration, control of or observation of some pa of a group of persons from others to facilitate control of communicable disease. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 110-111.
1
Quarantine
Segregation
Modified quarantine
Isolation
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
A 56 year old Chronic smoker, mass in bronchus resected. Most useful immunohistochemical marker to make a proper diagnosis would be -
Mass in bronchus in an old chronic smoker suggest bronchogenic carcinoma. The marker of carcinoma, on immunohistochemistry, is cytokeratin. Other epithelial markers for carcinoma are :- Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA):- Breast, lung and Kidney's adenocarcinoma. Carcino-embryonic antigen: - Carcinomas of GIT, pancreas, lung, breast, uterus and ovary.
1
Cytokeratin
Vimentin
Epithelial membrane cadherin
Leucocyte common antigen
Pathology
null
ac635fb7-4b75-440b-94dc-4c86118e46b5
single
Radiation caries is caused by irradiation of:
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1
Salivary glands
Enamel
Enamel and dentin
Oral mucosa
Radiology
null
d0c72cce-f31c-4736-a6dd-a8db25b5b3b1
single
During foetal lite maximum growth is caused by :
Insulin
2
Growth harmone
Insulin
Coisol
Thyroxin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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88cdcfa0-b000-4726-a18c-217ad3e4329e
single
Enzymes concerned with the citric acid cycle are found in:
null
2
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Non-particulate cytoplasm
Biochemistry
null
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single
Most common malignancy in childhood is
(A) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukomia (ALL) # LEUKEMIA is a cancer of the blood cells. It is the most common childhood cancer, accounting for almost one-third of all childhood cancers.# Types of leukemia include:> Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL): Commonly referred to as "childhood leukemia", because it is the most common child- hood cancer. Almost 75% of children with leukemia have ALL, a cancer of the lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and the lymphoid organs of the body. They are involved in the body's immune system. Usually occurs between 2 and 8 years old.> Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML): AML (acute myeloid leukemia, acute nonlymphatic leukemia or ANLL) is cancer of the myeloid blood cells which are produced in the bone marrow and which help fight bacterial infections. Usually occurs in people over age 25, but sometimes affects teenagers and children. Wilm's tumour: also called Nephroblastoma, is a type of cancer that originates in the kidney. Wilm's tumour is the second most common type of all childhood solid tumours. Average age of diagnosis is between 2 and 3 years when the disease affects only one kidney, but often diagnosed at a younger age when both kidneys are involved.> Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma: affects the lymph nodes that are found deep within the body and is the third most common childhood cancer. There are many types of lymphoma, including Burkitt's, non-Burkitt's, and lymphoblastic lymphoma. Most often in children between 2 and 10. More common in boys than girls.# Osteosarcoma is the most common type of bone sarcomas in children and the sixth most common malignancy in children. These tumours often start at the end of the bone. (This was the type of cancer that Terry Fox had). Occurs between the ages of 10 and 25.# Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumour of the retina (a thin membrane in the back of the eye). It is the most common type of eye cancer found in children. The tumour may be in one eye only or both. Most common in children younger than 5.# Neuroblastoma is a cancer of the sympathetic nervous system and the most common tumour outside of the brain. Generally occurs in children under the age of 5.
1
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
Bone tumor
Wilm's tumor
Retinoblastoma
Pediatrics
Miscellaneous
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multi