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Burst abdomen most commonly occurs on the
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7"' day
3
2nd day
3rd day
7th day
9th day
Surgery
null
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single
The following hand deformity is seen in?
This is a case of complete claw hand (clawing of all fingers). It is seen in:1. Median plus ulnar nerve injury2. Klumpke's palsy as it involves root value of ulnar nerve & medial root of median nerve- T1 & C8.
4
Ulnar nerve injury
Median nerve injury
Klumpke's paralysis
All of the above
Anatomy
null
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multi
Parasympathetic postganglionic fibres are carried by the
Long ciliary nerves are mixed sensory and sympathetic. Greater petrosal nerves carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the facial nerve to the pterygopalatine ganglion. The deep petrosal nerve carries mainly sympathetic fibres from the superior cervical ganglion and internal carotid plexus.
3
Long ciliary nerves
Greater petrosal nerves
Auriculotemporal nerve
Deep petrosal nerve
Anatomy
null
98d12a39-9c30-4486-81ae-e9fafcc0acaa
single
According to European laryngeal Society classification, subligamental endoscopic cordectomy is which of the following types?
Classification of endoscopic cordectomy: Type I : Subepithelial cordectomy Type II : Subligamental cordectomy Type III: Transmural cordectomy Type IV: Total cordectomy Type V : Extended cordectomy Type VI : Anterior commisurectomy with bilateral anterior cordectomy
2
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
ENT
null
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Root value of tendocalcaneus reflex?
ANSWER: (C) S1, S2REF: Harrison's 18th ed ch: 367Repeat (**)Root value of some important deep tendon reflex: (Major contribution m bold;Jaw jerkBoth the sensory and motor aspects of this reflex are through CN V (Trigeminal nerve)Biceps(C5, C6),Brachioradialis(C5, C6)Triceps(C7, C8)Patellar or quadriceps: knee jerk(L3, L4)Achilles: ankle, tendocalcaneal jerk(SI, S2)Deep tendon Reflexes may be enhanced by asking the patient to voluntarily contract other, distant muscle groups (Jendrassik maneuver). For example, upper limb reflexes may be reinforced by voluntary teeth-clenching, and the Achilles reflex by hooking the flexed fingers of the two hands together and attempting to pull them apart.GRADING OF REFLEXES0Absent1present but diminished2Normoactive3Exaggerated4Clonus
3
L1,L2
L3, L4
S1, S2
S3, S4
Anatomy
Nerves of Lower Extremity
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Restrinction Endonucleas function --> true about:
A i.e. Cut both strands of ds DNA; B i.e. Cut ends produced are sticky; C i.e. Cut end produced are blunt
4
Cut both the strands of ds DNA
The cut ends produced are sticky
The cut ends produced are blunt
All
Medicine
null
ca62709a-4e22-4800-b58c-2aa256643fc2
multi
Substitution of which one of the following amino acids in place of alanine would increase the absorbance of proteins at 280 mm:
The only amino acids that may absorb light are Aromatic amino acids i.e. Tryptophan, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine & Histidine- Most a.a do not absorb visible light & are thus colourless- Aromatic aminoacids absorb ultraviolet light (250- 290 nm).- Tryptophan makes major contribution to ability of most proteins to absorb light in the region of 280 nm.
3
Leucine
Arginine
Tryptophan
Protein
Biochemistry
null
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Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to
Nitrogen has anesthetic effect on body The precise mechanism is not well understood, but it appears to be the direct effect of gas dissolving into nerve membranes and causing temporary disruption in nerve transmissions. While the effect was first observed with air, other gases including argon, krypton and hydrogen cause very similar effects at higher than atmospheric pressure. Some of these effects may be due to antagonism at NMDAreceptors and potentiation of GABAA receptors,similar to the mechanism of nonpolar anesthetics such diethyl ether or ethylene. However, their reproduction by the very chemically inactive gas argon makes them unlikely to be a strictly chemical bonding to receptors in the usual sense of a chemical bond. An indirect physical effect - such as a change in membrane volume - would therefore be needed to affect the ligand-gated ion channels of nerve cells.Trudell et al. have suggested non-chemical binding due to the attractive van der Waals force between proteins and ine gases. Similar to the mechanism of ethanol's effect, the increase of gas dissolved in nerve cell membranes may cause altered ion permeability propeies of the neural cells' lipid bilayers. The paial pressure of a gas required to cause a measured degree of impairment correlates well with the lipid solubility of the gas: the greater the solubility, the less paial pressure is needed. An early theory, the Meyer-Oveon hypothesis, suggested that narcosis happens when the gas penetrates the lipids of the brain's nerve cells, causing direct mechanical interference with the transmission of signals from one nerve cell to another. More recently, specific types of chemically gated receptors in nerve cells have been identified as being involved with anesthesia and narcosis. However, the basic and most general underlying idea, that nerve transmission is altered in many diffuse areas of the brain as a result of gas molecules dissolved in the nerve cells' fatty membranes, remains largely unchallenged Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e p1036
3
Nitrogen inhibits dismutase enzyme
Increase production of nitrous oxide
Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane
Decrease in oxygen free radicals
Physiology
General physiology
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single
On the ribosome, mRNA binds
During initiation, the small ribosomal subunit binds to the start of the mRNA sequence. Then a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule carrying the amino acid methionine binds to what is called the start codon of the mRNA sequence.
3
between the subunits
to the large subunit
to the small subunit
none of these
Biochemistry
null
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True about ACELLULAR PERTUSSIS VACCINE include the following EXCEPT
Ans. b (Ref. OP Ghai 6th/pg.l94; Nelson paeds 17th /pg.908)PERTUSSISPreventionUniversal immunization of children <7 yr of age with pertussis vaccine, beginning in infancy, is central to the control ofpertussis. Current goals of immunization are protection of the individual from a significant coughing illness and controlof endemic and epidemic disease.ACELLULAR VACCINE# Multiple diphtheria and tetanus toxoids combined with acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccines currently are preferred over those containing whole-cell pertussis (DTP) vaccines because of fewer adverse reactions.# Recommendations for use of DTaP are similar to recommendations for use of DTP, which continues to be given to infants and children in many other countries. Acellular pertussis vaccines all contain inactivated PT and may contain one or more other bacterial components (FHA, Pn, Fim 2 and 3).# Mild local and systemic adverse events as well as more serious events occur significantly less frequently among infants who receive DTaP compared with DTP vaccine.# DTaP containing vaccines can be administered simultaneously with any other vaccines used in standard schedules for children. Combination of vaccines that include DTaP in place of DTP can affect immunogenicity of products. Local reactions increase in rate and severity with successive doses of DTaP.# The same special considerations, precautions, contraindications, and reporting requirements for serious adverse events that exist for DTP vaccination apply to DTaP as well. Acellular pertussis vaccines are now licensed for use only among children through 6 yr of age.# Live virus vaccines should be avoided in immunocompromised patients. For patients without chronic GVHD, diphtheria and tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis (in children <7 yr of age), inactivated polio, hepatitis B, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Streptococcus pneumoniae immunizations may be given 12 mo after transplant, and measles- mumps-rubella immunizations after 24 mo. Influenza vaccines should be given every fall.# Currently available combinations are PRP-OMP combined with hepatitis B vaccine (Comvax) and a DtaP vaccine that can be combined with PRP-T for the fourth dose only.
2
It is a toxoid
Superior to wP (whole cell pertussis vaccine)
Acellular component has same immunity as cellular one
Can be given as both primary and booster immunization
Pediatrics
Immunization
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A patient who underwent surgery for stage IA grade 3 Ca endometrium was brought to you for postoperative adjuvant therapy. What is the preferred mode of treatment in the above mentioned case?
The postoperative adjuvant therapy for different stages of Ca endometrium is given below Stages Adjuvant therapy Stage IA, G1, G2 Observation Stage IA, G3 Vaginal brachytherapy Stage IB, G1, G2, G3 & Stage II, Stage III A ,B, C1, G1, G2, G3 External pelvic radiation + vaginal brachytherapy Stage III ,C2, G1, G2, G3 Extended field radiation + Vaginal brachytherapy Stage IV Whole abdominal radiation + pelvic radiation + Vaginal brachytherapy Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 414.
3
External pelvic radiation
External field radiation
Vaginal brachytherapy
Observation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Drug which clears trypanosomes from blood and lymph nodes and is active in late CNS stages of African sleeping sickness
Melarsoprol in cns stage, suramin in heamolymphaticstage, chagas disease nifuimox.Ref: Katzung 10/e p863
2
Emetine
Melarsoprol
Nifuumix
Suramin
Pharmacology
All India exam
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The WHO announced, immunisation is a primary responsibility of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., States
1
States
International community
Voluntary agencies
An individual
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which of these is not associated with Loeffler’s syndrome?
Loeffler’s syndrome causes are as follows: • Ascaris • Ancylostoma sp. • Toxocara sp. • Strongyloides stercoralis • W bancrqfti or W malayi • Trichomoniasis • Clonorchiasis • Visceral larva migrans, etc.
4
Toxocara
Strongyloides stercoralis
L. tryptophan
Giardiasis
Unknown
null
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Chocolate Brown postmoem staining is seen in -
In poisoning by nitrites, potassium chlorate, nitrobenzene, potassium bicarbonate and aniline the colour of postmoem hypostasis is chocolate brown due to methhemoglobinemia. Dr.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 27th edition pg. 76.
1
KCI Poisoning
Opium Poisoning
H S Poisoning
Cyanide poisoning
Forensic Medicine
Death and postmortem changes
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single
The graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation and duration of labour is :
Cervicograph
2
Paogram
Cervicograph
Growth curve
Dilatation cha
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Streak gonads are seen in
Most patients have primary amenorrhea, and morphologic examination reveals transformation of the ovaries into white streaks of fibrous stroma devoid of follicles.the ovaries are reduced to atrophic fibrous strands, devoid of ova and follicles (streak ovaries).It is the defective development of the gonads in an embryo, with reproductive tissue replaced with functionless, fibrous tissue, termed streak gonads. ref : Robbins Basic Pathology, 9E,page-240
1
Turner syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Pathology
Breast
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Depressors of Mandible -
Depressors of the mandible are:- Muscle of mastication: Lateral pterygoid (major depressor). Suprahyoid muscles: Digastric, mylohyoid, geniohyoid. Elevators of the mandible are:- Muscles of mastication: Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid.
3
Median pterygoid
Masseter
Lateral pterygoid
Temporalis
Anatomy
null
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Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy: September 2005, 2010 March 2007
Ans. D: Microaneurysm Diabetic retinopathy is an ocular manifestation of systemic disease which affects up to 80% of all patients who have had diabetes for 10 years or more. Diabetic retinopathy often has no early warning signs. As new blood vessels form at the back of the eye as a pa of proliferative diabetic retinopathy, they can bleed (hemorrhage) and blur vision. On fundoscopic exam, one can see cotton-wool spots, flame hemorrhages, and dot-blot hemorrhages. Diabetic retinopathy is the result of microvascular retinal changes. Hyperglycemia-induced pericyte death and thickening of the basement membrane lead to incompetence of the vascular walls. The initial loss of pericytes leads to the formation of the dilatations of the vessels seen as microaneurysms and breakdown of the blood-retinal barrier making the retinal blood vessels more permeable. Small blood vessels in the eye are especially vulnerable to poor blood sugar control. An over accumulation of glucose and/or fructose damages the tiny blood vessels in the retina. During the initial stage, called nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), most people do not notice any change in their vision. Some people develop macular edema. It occurs when the damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the pa of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision. As the disease progresses, severe nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy enters an advanced, or proliferative, stage. The lack of oxygen in the retina causes fragile, new, blood vessels to grow along the retina and in the clear, gel-like vitreous humour that fills the inside of the eye. Without timely treatment, these new blood vessels can bleed, cloud vision, and destroy the retina. Fibrovascular proliferation can also cause tractional retinal detachment. The new blood vessels can also grow into the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye and cause neovascular glaucoma. Nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy shows up as cotton wool spots, or microvascular abnormalities or as superficial retinal hemorrhages. Diabetic retinopathy is detected during an eye examination that includes: Visual acuity test: Ophthalmoscopy: Note that hand-held ophthalmoscopy is insufficient to rule out significant and treatable diabetic retinopathy. Ocular Coherence Tomography or OCT: This is a scan similar to an ultrasound which is used to measure the thickness of the retina. Digital Retinal Screening Programs: This involves digital image capture and transmission of the images to a digital reading center for evaluation and treatment referral. Slit Lamp Biomicroscopy Retinal Screening Programs: Systematic programs for the early detection of diabetic retinopathy using slit-lamp biomicroscopy. Early signs of the disease (over retina): Leaking blood vessels, Retinal swelling, such as macular edema, Pale, fatty deposits on the retina (exudates) - signs of leaking blood vessels, Damaged nerve tissue (neuropathy), and Any changes in the blood vessels. Panretinal photocoagulation, or PRP (also called scatter laser treatment), is used to treat proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR).Rather than focus the light on a single spot, hundreds of small laser burns are made away from the center of the retina, a procedure called scatter laser treatment or panretinal photocoagulation. The treatment shrinks the abnormal blood vessels.
4
Hard exudate
Soft exudate
Ambylopia
Microaneurysm
Ophthalmology
null
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Most common cause of acute polyneuropathy is
(B) Guillian Barre syndrome # Myocarditis & Polyneuropathy are the prominent toxic manifestations of diphtheria. The risk of each is proportional to the severity of local disease.> Polyneuropathy typically begins 3 to 5 weeks after onset of diphtheria and has a slow course. It appears earliest in patients who experience the most severe and prolonged neurologic abnormalities. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) sometimes called Landry's paralysis, is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP), a disorder affecting the peripheral nervous system. Ascending paralysis, weakness beginning in the feet and hands and migrating towards the trunk, is the most typical symptom. It can cause life-threatening complications, particularly if the breathing muscles are affected or if there is dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system. The disease is usually triggered by an acute infection. Guillain-Barre syndrome is a form of peripheral neuropathy. Rarely in Sarcoidosis, multiple lesions occur that mimic multiple sclerosis, spinal cord abnormalities, and peripheral neuropathy. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 1, also known as hereditary motor sensory neuropathy type 1, is an uncommon autosomal dominant disease that causes destruction of peripheral nerves with a varied clinical course, but often leads to muscle weakness. If the peroneal muscle is involved, the patient may develop a characteristic slapping gait.
2
Diphteria
Guillian Barre syndrome
Sarcoidosis
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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Better prognostic factor for operation of biliary duct obstruction in newborn are -
Answer (b) Size of ductule > 200 micron Surgical treatment of biliary atresia Pooenterostomy or Kasai's operation is the surgery of choice. The purpose of this procedure is to facilitate the flow of bile into the intestine. It is based on the observation that the fibrous tissue at the pa hepatitis invests microscopically patent biliary ductules that in turn communicates with the intrahepatic ductal system. Transecting this fibrous tissue, opens these channels and establishes bile flow into a surgically constructed intestinal conduit, using a Roux-en-Y limb of jejunum. Liver transplantation is done in those, who fail to respond to Pooenterostomy. About prognostic factors for successful outcome of the Kasai operation, we have consulted many books including books on Pediatric Surgery. The maximum information we could get was from CSDT, Maingot's and Schwaz. The prognostic factors are: a) Age of operation - a better prognosis is achieved with age less than 60 days (8 weeks given in 8th edition of Schwaz). b) Absence of cirrhosis - checked by bridging liver fibrosis on biopsy. c) Diameter of bile ductules at the poal plate - ductules greater than 150 gm in diameter are associated with good chances of bile drainage (- Maingot 10/e, p 2123) d) Establishment of adequate bile flow e) Cholangitic episodes - postoperative cholangitic episodes are associated with bad prognosis.
2
No passage of bile
Size of ductule > 200 micron
Weight of baby > 3 kg
Preterm baby
Surgery
null
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Parotitis and orchitis are common manifestations of:
d. Mumps(Ref: Nelsons' 20/e p 1552-1553, Chai 8/e p 217-218)Mumps is characterized by fever, bilateral or unilateral parotid swelling and tenderness, and the frequent occurrence of meningoencephalitis and orchitis.
4
Diphtheria
Measles
Rubella
Mumps
Pediatrics
General Considerations - Infectious Diseases
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Acute vascular ischemia mainfests as
Peripheral aery occlusion Clinical features of peripheral aerial occlusion are classically remembered by 5 P's : pain, pallor, pulselessness, paralysis and paraesthesia Some add 6th P: Poililothermia or perishing cold Most common presenting symptom of acute aerial occlusion : Pain Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1756
1
Pulselessness
Syncope
Flushing
Oedema
Surgery
Vascular surgery
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Incudomalleolar joint is a;
The incudomalleolar joint is a saddle joint while the incudostapedial is a ball and socket joint. Both of them are synol joints covered by capsular ligament.
1
Saddle joint
Pivot joint
Gliding joint
Hinge joint
ENT
null
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multi
All of the following are the adverse effects of tacrolimus except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hirsutism
3
Nephrotoxicity
Neurotoxicity
Hirsutism
Hyperglycemia
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Maximum carbohydrate concentration in strict vegetarian diet present is
(Glycogen) (21- U.Satyanarayan 3rd)GLYCOGEN - is the carbohydrate reserve in animals, hence often referred to as animal starch*** It is present in high concentration in liver, followed by muscle, brain* The enzyme hyaluronidase of semen degrades the gel (contains hyaluronic acid) around the ovum. This allows effective penetration of sperm into the ovum* Streptomycin is a glycoside employed in the treatment of T, B
4
Amylase
Maltose
Fructose
Glycogen
Biochemistry
Carbohydrates
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single
True about incontinenta pigmenti include the following except aEUR'
Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% cases and is typically unilateral Incontinentia pigmenti Incontinentia Pigmenti (IP), also referred to as Bloch- Sulzberger syndrome is an unusual inherited disorder of skin pigmentation that is associated with abnormalties of :- i) Skin --) (100% of affected people) ii) Teeth --)(80-90% of affected people) iii) Bones --) (30-40% of affected individuals) iv) CNS i.e., brain & spinal cord (30-40% of affected individuals) v) Eyes --) (25-35% of affected individuals) Incontinentia pignzenti is an X- linked dominant disorder - Usually occurs in .females as dominant disease is lethal in males. (have only one 'X' chromosome). Dermatological manifestations There is characteristic neonatal rash along the line of Blaschko which passes through four stages:- i) Vesicular stage --f Present at bih ii) Verrucous stage --> Between the age of 2-8 weeks. iii) Hyperpigmented stage --> Between the age of 12-40 weeks. iv) Hypopigmented stage --> From infancy through adulthood Hair Scarring alopecia Nails -->Onychodystrophy or nail dysplasia, subungual keratotic tumor. Teeth & Jaw -Delayed eruption, - Paial anodontia, - Microdontia, - Conical or pegged teeth. - Micrognathia, prognathia. Bone - Hemiveebrae, - Scoliosis, - Spinabifieda, - Syndactyly, - Acheiria (Congenital absence of hands), extra ribs. CNS - Microcephaly, - Mental retardation, - Spasticity, - Seizures, - Ataxia, - Encephalopathy, - Hyperactivity Eves (20-35%) case - Involvement is assymetrical. - The two pathognomic chages are :? - Retinal pigmentary changes with mottled diffuse hypopigmentation. - Abnormal peripheral retinal vessels with areas of nonperfusion (avascularity of peripheral retina) - Other changes of eye are - Microphthalmia, - Retrolental mass (psedoglioma or retinoblastoma with intraocular calcification), - Cataract, - Leukocoria, - Band Keratopathy, - Strabismus, - Congenital glaucoma, - Blue sclera, Exudative retinal detachement
4
X-linked dominant
Primary skin abnormality
Avascularity of peripheral retina
Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% cases and is typically unilateral
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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A diabetic female at 40 wks of gestation delivered a baby by elective cesarean section. Soon after birth, the baby developed respiratory distress. The diagnosis is -
Ans. is 'a' Transient tachypnea of the newborn (Ref. Nelson, 16th/e, p. 505; Ghai O.P., 5th/e, p. 145).lam going against the majority in this question. Most of the students believe that the answer is a Hyaline membrane.Now read carefully what Nelson has to say about HMD." Hyaline membrane disease occurs primarily in premature infants, the incidence is inversely proportional to the gestational age and birth weight. It occurs in 60-80% of infants less than 28 wks of gestational age, in 15-30% of those between 32 and 36 wks in about 5% beyond 37 wk and rarely at term*".So it must be clear to you that hyaline membrane disease is rare in a term infant and the infant in question is a term infant (40 wks).About transient tachy apnea, It's written that "it usually follows uneventful normal preterm or term vaginal delivery or Cesarian delivery. "SOHyaline membrane disease is an important cause of respiratory distress in preterm infants and rarely in term infants whereas transient tachy apnea of the newborn causes respiratory distress in term infants.Now the only confusion left us about diabetes (it increases the incidence of hyaline membrane disease in infants.1 thinks the history of diabetes is given to confuse us.Remember that prematurity is the most important factor for HMD.Well, It's just my way of interpretation of the facts, I may be wrong on this one.
1
Transient tachypnea of the new bom
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Tracheo oesophageal fistula
Hyaline membrane disease
Unknown
null
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single
Which of the following is an SGLT 2 inhibitor approved for treatment of type 2 diabetes Mellitus
Canagliflozin, empagliflozin, dapagliflozin, remogliflozin are sglt 2 inhibitors approved for treatment of type 2 diabetes Ref Harrison 20th edi page no 2866, table 397-5
3
Dulaglutide
Pramilintide
Canagliflozin
Nateglinide
Medicine
Endocrinology
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single
Sympathetic stimulation causes all, except
null
4
Increase in heart rate
Increase in BP
Increases in total peripheral resistance
Increases in venous capacitance
Physiology
null
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multi
Cause of vaginal bleeding in an ectopic pregnancy is shedding of the endometrium. This endometrium is known as:
Decidua directly beneath blastocyst implantation becomes the deciduas basalis. The decidua capsularis overlies the enlarging blastocyst and initially separates the conceptus from the rest of the uterine cavity. The remainder of the uterus is lined by deciduas parietalis. By 14 to 16 weeks' gestation, the expanding sac has enlarged to completely fill the uterine cavity. The resulting apposition of the decidua capsularis and parietalis creates the decidua vera, and the uterine cavity is functionally obliterated.
2
Decidua vera
Decidua basalis
Decidua capsularis
Decidua rubra
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ectopic Pregnancy (Hello ! Where are you ?)
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Capillary refill time in a child with shock is
Capillary refill is a simple test that assesses how quickly blood returns to the skin after pressure is applied. It is carried out by applying pressure to the pink pa of the nail bed of the thumb or big toe in a child and over the sternum or forehead in a young infant for 3 seconds. The capillary refill time is the time from release of pressure to complete return of the pink color. It should be less than 3 seconds. If it is more than 3 seconds the child may be in shock. Lift the limb slightly above hea level to assess aeriolar capillary refill and not venous stasis. This sign is reliable except when the room temperature is low, as the cold environment can cause a delayed capillary refill. In such a situation check the pulses and decide about shock
3
> 1 second
> 2 seconds
> 3 seconds
> 4 seconds
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Contraindication of rota virus vaccine is
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above
4
SCID
Intussusception
Severe allergic raction
All of above
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Hyperprolactinemia results in
null
2
Chronic anovulation
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Adenylate cyclase conves
Adenylate cyclase (calmodulin-sensitive) trimer, Bacillus anthracis Epinephrine binds its receptor, that associates with a heterotrimeric G protein. The G protein associates with adenylyl cyclase, which conves ATP to cAMP, spreading the signs
3
ATP to ADP
ADP to ATP
ATP to cAMP
AMP to ADP
Biochemistry
Enzymes
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single
Hypochloremic alkalosis is a complication of -a) Congenital pyloric stenosisb) Vomitingc) Haematemesisd) Aspirin intoxication
null
2
ad
ab
bd
cd
Surgery
null
497adc36-be3c-4b70-97ed-9670a472f6de
single
Pulsatile proptosis is a feature of ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Coico-cavernous fistula Proptosis Proptosis is bulging of the eyeball (forward bulging) beyond the orbital margins. Though the word exophthalmos is synonymous with proptosis; some source define xophthalmos as a protrusion of globe greater than 18mm and proptosis as a protrusion equal to or less than 18 mm. Proptosis may be classified as follows : ? Unilateral Proptosis Proptosis of one eye. Inflammatory lesions :- Orbital cellulitis, abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, etc. Vascular disturbances :- Haemorrhage, varicose orbital veins, haemangioma, etc. Cysts and tumour :- Dermoid cyst, osteoma, lymphoma, lymphosarcoma, glioma, meningioma of optic nerve, retinoblastoma and metastatic deposits in orbit Neuroblastoma, breast, prostate, lung, GIT, Kidney, Ewing's tumor, melanoma, wilms tumor (Nephroblastoma)]. Systemic diseases - Leukemias and endocrine disturbances such as Graves' disease and thyrotropic exophthalmos in initial stages. Paralysis of extraocular muscles as in complete ophthalmoplegia. Mucocele of PNS' - Frontal (most common), ethmoid, maxillary. Bilateral Proptosis Proptosis of both eyes. evelopmental anomalies of the skull- Oxycephaly (tower skull). Endocrine exophthalmos, both thyrotoxic and thyrotropic. Inflammatory lesions - Cavernous sinus thrombosis. Tumours - lymphosarcoma, lymphoma, pseudotumour, nephroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma. Systemic disease - Histocytosis (Hand - schuller christon disease), amyloidosis, wegner's granulomatosis. Intermittent proptosis Proptosis developing intermittently and rapidly in one eye when venous stasis is induced by forward bending or lowering the head, turning the head forcibly, hyperextension of the neck, coughing, forced expiration with or without compression of the nostrils, or pressure on jugular veins. The most impoant casue is orbital varix (varicocele). Pulsatile proptosis : - Pulsatile proptosis is seen in caroticocovernous fistula; saccular aneurysm of ophthalmic aery; and due to transmitted cerebral pulsation as seen in meningocele, neurofibromatosis and traumatic or operative hiatus.
3
Orbital varix
Retinoblastoma
Coico-cavernous fistula
Covernous sinus thrombosis
Anaesthesia
null
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Ultra-structurally, endothelial cells contain:
Endothelial cells are the major source of plasma vWF, whereas most factor VIII is synthesized in the liver. vWF is found in the plasma (in association with factor VIII), in platelet granules, in endothelial cells within cytoplasmic vesicles called Weibel-Palade bodies, and in the subendothelium, where it binds to collagen. Reference-Robbins BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th edition pg-490
1
Weibel Palade bodies
Langerhan’s granules
Abundant glycogen
Kallikrein
Pathology
null
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multi
Not a feature of alcohol withdrawal is:
Hypersomnolence
3
Hallucination
Tremor
Hypersomnolence
Autonomic hyperactivity
Psychiatry
null
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Which of the following features is shared in common between lymphocyte-rich and lymphocyte-predominant types of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Ans. d (Prognosis is excellent) (Ref. Robbins 7th/689)Paragraph from Robbins Pathology 7th ed. p. 688, Table 14-6:Lymphocyte-rich:Lymphocyte predominance:# Frequent mononuclear & R-S cells0# Paucity of RS cells # 40% EBV+.Q# R-S cells CD20+, CD15-, C30-;# CD20 and CD 45-Q# EBV--Q.# Very good to excellent prognosis.# Excellent prognosis QPathological features of Types of NHLSubtypeMorphology and immunophenotypeTypical clinical featuresNodular sclerosis# Most common type (65-70%)# R-S cells CD15+, CD30+; CD 45-# Frequent mediastinal involvement, diagnostic R-S cells;# EBV-.# B and T cell markers-# Excellent prognosis# Stage 1 or 2 disease most common.# Frequent lacunar cells and occasional# F = M, most patients young adults# Background infiltrate composed of T-cells, eosinophils, macrophages and plasma cells with fibrous bands dividing cellular areas into nodules.Mixed cellularity# 20-25%# Diffuse effacement of nodes# Frequent mononuclear and RS cells# R-S cells CD15+, CD30+;# Background infiltrate rich in T lymphocytes, eosinophils, macrophages, plasma ceils;- 70% EBV+,# More than 50% present as stage 3 or 4 disease.# M > F.# Biphasic incidence, peaking in young adults and again in adults > 55 yrs.Lymphocyte-rich# Uncommon# Frequent mononuclear and diagnostic R-S cells;# Background infiltrate rich in T-cells# R-S cells CD15+, CD30+;# 40% EBV+.Q# CD20 and CD 45-Q# Very good to excellent prognosis.# Uncommon.# M > F.# Tends to be seen in older adults.Lymphocyte depletion# Least common (< 5%)# Reticular variant: Frequent diagnostic R-S cells and variants with a paucity of background reactive cells; diffuse fibrosis variant;# Hypocellular fibrillar background with scattered diagnostic R-S cells and variants and few reactive ceils.# R-S cells CD15+, CD30+;# Most EBV+.# Uncommon.# More common in older males.# HIV-infected individuals, and in developing countries.# More likely to present with advanced disease.# Less favourable outcome.Lymphocyte predominance# Uncommon (5%)# Frequent Lymphohistiocytic (popcorn cell) variants in a background of follicular dendritic cells and reactive B cells,# Paucity of RS cells# R-S cells CD20+, CD15-, C30-;# EBV-.# Excellent prognosis # Uncommon.# Young males with cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy. Mediastinal.
4
Paucity of diagnostic RS cells
EBV is associated in 40% of cases
RS cells are CD20 positive
Prognosis is excellent
Pathology
Blood
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The most common laser used in laryngeal surgery is
The LASER is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of RadiationDepending upon the lasing medium, various types of lasers with differing wavelength can be created. The lasing medium can be solid (ruby, Nd: YAG or potassium titanyl phosphate); gas (CO2 or Helium-Neon) or liquid (pumped inorganic dye in a glass tube).CO2 laser: Wavelength 10,400 nm, invisible, requires an aiming beam of a helium-neon laser, cannot pass through flexible optical fibers and requires aiculated arm with a series of reflective mirrors to direct the beam to the target area.Clinically it has been used in laryngeal surgery to excise vocal nodules, polyps, cysts, granulomas or juvenile laryngeal papillomas.It cuts precisely and a spot size of 0.3 mm can be achieved; lesion is first delineated and then dissected with microlaryngeal instruments. Microflaps can be raised to treat Reinke's edema. It is also used for leukoplakia, T1 lesion of vocal cord or localized lesions of supraepiglottis and infraepiglottis. Transverse cordotomy and endoscopic paial or complete arytenoidectomy can also be done in bilateral abductor paralysis.CO2 does not penetrate into the deep tissue, hence there is decreased risk of scarring.Ref: Dhingra; 6th edition; Chapter 71; Page no: 357
3
Argon laser
Nd YAG laser
CO2 laser
KTP laser
ENT
Ear
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Malignant melanoma of conjunctiva is usually of:
Ans. All of the above
4
Spindle A type
Spindle B type
Mixed cell type
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
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Upper segment to lower segment ratio at bih is ___________
The U/L ratio (upper body segment :lower body segment) at bih is about 1.7; at age 3 years it is 1.3; at greater than 7 years, it is 1.0 with the upper body segment and lower body segment being about equal. Of note, higher U/L ratios are noted in sho-limb dwarfism and other bone disorders such as rickets. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
4
1
1.3
1.5
1.7
Pediatrics
New born infants
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In which of the following, Koebner phenomenon is NOT seen –
null
4
Lichen planus
Lichen sclerosis
Erythema multiforme
Lichen simplex chronicus
Dental
null
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Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is: September 2005
Ans. B: Loss of limb reflex
2
Profouund sensory loss
Loss of limb reflex
Residual paralysis
Descending paralysis
Medicine
null
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Cretinism is _____________
Congenital iodine deficiency syndrome, previously known as cretinism, is a condition of severely stunted physical and mental growth owing to untreated congenital deficiency of thyroid hormone (congenital hypothyroidism) usually owing to maternal hypothyroidism. Results in Dispropoionate dwarfism Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
1
Dispropoionate dwarfism
Sho stature with long trunk
Sho stature with sho trunk
Long stature with long trunk
Pediatrics
Growth and development
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Buspirone as compared to benzodiazepines:
null
2
Is more potent anticonvulsant
Does not interfere with GABAergic transmission
More effective in severe anxiety with panic attacks
Produces significantly more sedation
Pharmacology
null
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In a young temale ot reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14lh day ot periods. When is the tirst polar body extruded ?
Accompanied by ovulation Most of the standard text books say the first polar body is expelled just before or sholy before ovulation. -- Which does not mean that it is released 24 hrs before ovulation. "While still in the ovary the ovum is in the primary oocyte stage. Sholy before it is released from ovarian follicle (i.e. sholy before ovulation), its nucleus divides by meiosis and a first polar body is expelled from the nucleus of the oocyte. The primary oocyte then becomes the secondary oocyte. In this process each of the 23 unpaired of chromosomes loses one of its paners which become the first polar body that is expelled. This leaves 23 unpaired chromosomes in the secondary oocyte. It is at this time that the ovum, still in the secondary oocyte stage is ovulated into the abdominal cavity." first polar body is released at the time of ovulation i.e. Option : b Note : - The secondary oocyte immediately begins the second meiotic division, but this division stops at metaphase and is completed only when sperm penetrates the oocyte. At this time second polar body is cast off. So second polar body is cast off at the time of feilization. Extra Edge : Friends this is an often repeated question and those who find it difficult to remember this basic fact: I have a mnemonic : Mnemonic PP1 and M2F PP1 i.e. 1st meiotic division is arrested in Prophase and completed just prior to ovulation releasing the 1st polar body M2F : i.e. 2nd meiotic division is arrested in metaphase and completed at the time of feilisation releasing the 2nd polar body
2
24 hrs prior to ovulation
Accompanied by ovulation
48 hrs after the ovulation
At the time of feilization
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f3d867a8-d9b9-4378-b782-ca17bf29e28e
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On sonography a multigravida found to have oligohydramnios. Which among the following will be associated with this condition?
Congenital Anomalies Associated with Oligohydramnios: Amniotic band syndrome Cardiac: Fallot tetralogy, septal defects Central nervous system: holoprosencephaly, meningocoele, encephalocoele, microcephaly Chromosomal abnormalities: triploidy, trisomy 18, Turner syndrome Cloacal dysgenesis Cystic hygroma Diaphragmatic hernia Genitourinary: renal agenesis, renal dysplasia, urethral obstruction, bladder exstrophy, Meckel-Gruber syndrome, ureteropelvic junction obstruction, prune-belly syndrome Hypothyroidism Skeletal: sirenomelia, sacral agenesis, absent radius, facial clefting TRAP (twin reverse aerial perfusion) sequence Twin-twin transfusion VACTERL (veebral, anal, cardiac, tracheo-esophageal, renal, limb) association Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 21. Disorders of Amnionic Fluid Volume. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
4
Oesophageal atresia
Spina bifida
Cholangioma of placenta
Renal agenesis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Chromosome defective in cystic fibrosis is-
Cystic fibrosis or fibrocystic disease is a hereditary disorder characterized by viscid mucous secretions in all the exocrine glands of the body (mucoviscidosis) and associated with increased concentrations of electrolytes in the eccrine glands. The terms 'cystic fibrosis' and 'fibrocystic disease' is preferable over 'mucoviscidosis' in view of the main pathologic change of fibrosis produced as a result of obstruction of the passages by viscid mucous secretions.The disease is transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait with apparent clinical features in homozygotes only. The defect is a genetic mutation in the CFTR gene, an acronym for coding protein for cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator located on chromosome 7. It is quite common in the whites (1 per 2000 live bihs). The clinical manifestations may appear at bih or later in adolescence and peain to multiple organs and systems such as pancreatic insufficiency, intestinal obstruction, steatorrhoea, malnutrition, hepatic cirrhosis, and respiratory complications. HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 645
3
Chromosome 5
Chromosome X
Chromosome 7
Chromosome 1
Pathology
miscellaneous
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U shaped dose response curve is seen in
U shaped response curve is seen in vitamins Ref-Goodman and Gillman 12/e p74
1
Vitamins
Anti cancer drugs
Steroids
Chelators
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
True about Light microscopic changes in Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis is:
Answer is A (No abnormality) Light microscopy shows no abnormality in Minimal change Disease Investigation Light microscopy Q Electron microscopy Q Immunofluorescence Q Observation No abnormality hence the term minimal change Fusion offoot processes / Effacement offoot process Absence of immunoglobulin or complement
1
No abnormality
Fusion of foot process
Absence of Immunoglobulins
Absence of complement
Medicine
null
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Regan enzyme is an isoenzyme of ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alkaline phosphataseRegan enzyme (isoenzyme) is the isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase.It arises from placenta know as carcinoplacental enzyme.It is elevated in about 15% fo cases of carcinoma of lung, liver and gut.
4
LDH
Creatinine kinase
Acid phosphatase
Alkaline phosphatase
Biochemistry
null
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single
Long thoracic nerve arises from nerve roots -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., C5 C6 C7 o Root value of long thoracic nerve is C5C6 C7Supraclavicular branches of brachial plexuso Branches of brachial plexus which are above the clavicle are called supraclavicular branches.o These arise from roots and trunks.Supraclavicular branches of brachial plexusFrom roots1. Nerves to scaleni and longus colli2. Branch to phrenic nerve3. Dorsal scapular nerve4. Long thoracic nerveC5, 6, 7, 8C5C5C5, 6 (7)From trunks1. Nerve to subclavius2. Suprascapular nerveC5,6C5, 6Infraclavicular branches of brachial plexuso Branches of brachial plexus which are below the clavicle are called infraclavicular branches.o These arise from cords.Infra clavicular branches of brachial plexusLateral cordLateral pectoralC5, 6, 7MusculocutaneousC5, 6, 7Lateral root of medianC(5), 6, 7Medial cordMedial pectoralC8, T1Medial cutaneous of forearmC8, T1Medial cutaneous of armC8,T1Medial root of medianC8,T1UlnarC (7), 8, T1Posterior cordUpper subscapularC5, 6Lower subscapularC5, 6Thoracodorsal (Nerve to latissimus dorsi, middle subscapular nerve)C6, 7, 8AxillaiyC5,6RadialC5, 6, 7, 8, (Tl)
3
C6 C7 T1
C7 T1 T2
C5 C6 C7
C5 to T1
Anatomy
Nerves of Upper Extremity
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single
Causative agent for Farmers' Lung is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thermophiles actinomyces * Farmer's lung is a hypersensitivity (type III) pneumonitis induced by the inhalation of biologic dusts coming from hay dust or mold spores or any other agricultural products.* These types of immune response are most often initiated by exposure to thermophilic actinomycetes (most commonly Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula).
2
Thermoactinomyces sacchari
Thermophiles actinomyces
Cotton dust
Pigeon feather
Pathology
Respiration
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single
What are the minimum number bacilli for Sputum positive Tuberculosis?
Answer: D. 104. (Ref Park's Textbook of PSM 22nd/Pg.l71)Sputum smear microscopy for tubercle bacilli is positive when there are at least 10,000 organisms present per ml of sputum.For slide reporting :No. of BacilliResult reportedNo AFB/100 oil immersion fields01-9 AFB/100 oil immersion fieldsScanty ( or Number AFB seen)10-99 AFB/100 oil immersion fields+ 0+)1-10 AFB/oil immersion fields++ (2+)>10 AFB/oil immersion fields+++ (3+)
4
10
102
103
104
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
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single
Which among the following is the most common cause of stroke associated with moality?
Strokes are classified as either hemorrhagic or ischemic. Acute ischemic stroke refers to stroke caused by thrombosis or embolism and is more common than hemorrhagic stroke. Cardiogenic emboli are a common source of recurrent stroke. They may account for up to 20% of acute strokes and have been repoed to have the highest 1- month moality. Thrombotic strokes are caused by in situ occlusions on atherosclerotic lesions in the carotid, veebrobasilar, and cerebral aeries, typically proximal to major branches. Embolus from the hea is a usual cause of stroke in people with hea disease.
1
Embolic
Thrombotic
Hemorrhagic
Absess
Medicine
null
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single
Brittle bone disease is -
Osteogenesis imperfecta is also known as Fragilitas ossium or Vrolick&;s disease which is characterised by tendency for frequent fractures because of weak and brittle bones. It results from defective collagen synthesis and thus affects other collagen containing soft tissues like skin, sclera, teeth, ligaments etc. as well. Disease commonly inherited as autosomal dominant disorder but a severe variant known to occur where the inheritance is autosomal recessive. REF:Reference- Essential ohopaedics- Maheshwari-5th edn-pg no316
1
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteopetrosis
Pagets disease
Osteoporosis
Orthopaedics
Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection
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In a completely and adequately immunized child against Diphtheria, the throat swab was collected. It showed the presence of Corynebacterium diphtheriae like organisms on Albe staining. These organisms can have one of the following propeies on fuher laboratory processing
Smears stained with methylene blue or one of the special stains(Neisser's or Albe's )will show the bacilli with metachromatic granules. Albes stain may show delicate green bacilli with purple-blue metachromatic granules. For culture, the swabs are inoculated on Loeffler's serum slope, tellurite blood agar and a plate of ordinary blood agar, the last for differentiating streptococcal or staphylococcal pharyngitis, which may stimulate diphtheria. Tellurite medium is impoant in the isolation of diphtheria bacilli from convalescents, contacts and carriers as in these cases they may be outnumbered by other bacteria Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 242
1
It can grow on Potassium tellurite medium
Positive Elek's gel precipitation test
It can be pathogenic to experimental guinea pigs
It can produce cytotoxicity in tissue cultures
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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single
Which is the most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria?
The most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria is antitoxin. Option 1 1. Treatment of diphtheria: Treatment should be staed immediately on clinical suspicion of diphtheria. 2. Anti-diphtheritic horse serum or ADS (antitoxin): It is the treatment of choice as it neutralizes the toxin. Serum antitoxin concentration of 0.01 IU/mL is usually accepted as the minimum protective level, and 0.1 IU/mL provides a definitely protective level. NOTE- Antitoxin appears to be of no value in treatment of cutaneous diphtheria. Option 2, 3, 4 1. Antibiotics: Penicillin or erythromycin is the drug of choice. Antibiotic plays a minor role as it is of no use once the toxin is secreted. However, antibiotics are useful: - If given early (< 6 hrs of infection), before the toxin release. - Prevent fuher release of toxin by killing the bacilli. - Treatment for cutaneous diphtheria. 2. Treatment of carriers: Drug of choice is erythromycin.
1
Antitoxin
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)
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single
All of the following are signs of inadequate breast milk intake in a neonate, EXCEPT:
In a neonate with inadequate breast milk intake the weight loss is more than 8-10%. Other signs of inadequate breast milk intake are: Less than six noticeably wet diapers per 24 h by day 3-4 Less than four stools per day by day 3-4 Nursing less than eight times per 24 h Breast milk jaundice: refers to presence of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia lasting until 2-3 months of age. This diagnosis is strongly suspected in the presence of moderate unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia lasting for 6-12 weeks in a thriving breast-fed infant without evidence of hemolysis, hypothyroidism, or other disease. Ref: Thilo E.H., Rosenberg A.A. (2012). Chapter 2. The Newborn Infant. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.
1
Weight loss of 5% from bih
Less than six noticeably wet diapers per 24 h by day 3-4
Less than four stools per day by day 3-4
Nursing less than eight times per 24 h
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Abatacept, a new drug inhibiting co-stimulation is used for-
Ref Davidsons 23e p1007
3
SLE
Scleroderma
Rheumatoid ahritis
Sjogren syndrome
Medicine
Immune system
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single
All true about classical Rapid sequence induction except
Rapid Sequence induction /intubation Indication - emergency surgery, full stomach patient (Pregnancy is considered afull stomach,whererapid sequence induction is indicated if taken under general anesthesia) Aim - to prevent aspiration Steps 1. Preoxygenation 2. Cricoid pressure application 3. Intravenous thiopentone and intravenous succinylcholine 4. Positive pressure ventilation by bag and mask contraindicated 5. Laryngoscopy and intubation.
3
Preoxygenation is mandatory
Cricoid pressure is applied
Positive pressure ventilation by bag and mask with small tidal volume
The neuromuscular blocker used is succinylcholine
Anaesthesia
Neuromuscular Blocker
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multi
Fibrin is degraded by ?
Coagulation must be balanced with fibrinolysis to limit the hemostatic plug to the site of injury. Injured vascular endothelium secret plasminogen activator that conves inactive plasminogen to active plasmin. Plasmin breaks down fibrin resulting in production of fibrin degradation products. Fibrinolytic system is regulated by plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAIs) that are secreted by endothelium.
3
Thrombin
Fibrin
Plasmin
None
Anatomy
null
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Hypehyroid state is characterized by
People with hypothyroidism often have no or only mild symptoms. Numerous symptoms and signs are associated with hypothyroidism, and can be related to the underlying cause, or a direct effect of having not enough thyroid hormones. Hashimoto's thyroiditis may present with the mass effect of a goiter (enlarged thyroid gland). Symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism Symptoms Signs Fatigue Dry, coarse skin Feeling cold Cool extremities Poor memory and concentration Myxedema (mucopolysaccharide deposits in the skin) Constipation, dyspepsia Hair loss Weight gain with poor appetite Slow pulse rate Shoness of breath Swelling of the limbs Hoarse voice Delayed relaxation of tendon reflexes In females, heavy menstrual periods (and later light periods) Carpal tunnel syndrome Abnormal sensation Pleural effusion, ascites, pericardial effusion Poor hearing Delayed relaxation after testing the ankle jerk reflex is a characteristic sign of hypothyroidism and is associated with the severity of the hormone deficit Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:567,568,569
3
Increased protein synthesis
Decreased glycolysis
Lipolysis
Increased cholestrol
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
All are false about tigecycline, except:-
Tigecycline Belongs to glycylcycline Group. Is active against most bacteria that have developed resistance to the classical tetracyclines. Acts by inhibiting protein translation in bacteria by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit. It blocks entry of amino-acyl tRNA molecules into the A site of the ribosome. Active against MRSA, VRE, Multi-drug resistant streptococci. Excreted in bileno dose adjustment in renal failure. It is a broad spectrum antibiotic but most of the pseudomonas are resistant to tigecycline. It is bacteriostatic drug.
4
Dose reduction is require in renal failure
90% pseudomonas strains are sensitive
It is bactericidal drug
It is a broad spectrum antimicrobial
Pharmacology
NEET 2018
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multi
Bennet's fracture involves which metacarpal bone?
Ans. a (1st metacarpal). (Ref. Maheshwari, Orthopaedics, 2nd/pg.98)RENNET'S FRACTURE# Bennet's fracture is an oblique intra-articular fracture of the base of 1st metacarpal with subluxation or dislocation of the metacarpal.# Rx by accurate reduction & restoration of the smooth joint surface is important as any abnormality in congruity of the articular surface will lead to osteoarthritis. Following methods are used for treatment:# (1). Closed manipulation & plaster cast.# (2). Closed reduction & percutaneous fixation under X-ray control.# (3). Open reduction & internal fixation with K-wire/screw may be necessary in some cases.Bennett's fractureAn oblique fracture at the base of the first metacarpal that involves the first carpometacarpal joint space. Such a fracture is often unstable, as the distal fragment is distracted by the unopposed abductor pollicis longus muscle, and may require surgical intervention.Rolando's fractureA fracture similar to Bennett's fracture with comminution of the metacarpal. This injury is actually less prone to displacement of the distal fragment due to the comminution of the thumb base and is less likely to require surgical fixation than is a Bennett's fracture.Game keeper's (skier's) thumbForced abduction of the thumb can result in disruption of the ulnar collateral ligament of the metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP) of the thumb, a major stabilizer of the thumb.Boxer's fractureFractures of the fourth and fifth metacarpals are common and are usually the result of punching a hard object. The fracture may involve the midshaft or distal end of the bone, and is usually dorsally angulated.
1
1st metacarpal
2nd metacarpal
3rd metacarpal
4th metacarpal
Orthopaedics
Injuries Around the Fore Arm & Wrist
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single
Best test for GFR is with:
A i.e. Inulin (Measurement of GFRGFR can be measured by measuring the excretion & plasma level of a substance that is freely filtered through glomeruli and neither secreted not reabsorbed by the tubulesQ.Requirement of substances used to measure GFR- Substances used- Filtered freely- Inulin (standard)Q- Neither reabsorbed, nor secreted by tubules- Creatinine- Nontoxic - Not metabolized by body.
1
Inulin
Hippuric acid
Creatinine
PAH
Physiology
null
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single
The most frequent site of branchial cyst is at
The branchial cyst is common in the second decade of life but can occur at any age with equal frequency in both sexes. Cyst presents as a swelling in the upper pa of the neck anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Mass is smooth, round, fluctuant, non-tender and not transilluminate. A painful increase in size at the time of upper respiratory infection can occur. Anomalies of the second branchial arch are the most common. A brachial cyst maybe associated with sinus or fistula. A second arch brachial sinus has an external opening at junction of lower and middle of the anterior border of sternomastoid and may exude mucoid discharge. It may have an internal opening in the tonsillar fossa. Treatment involves surgical excision along with its tract of the present. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 446,447)
2
Upper third of posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
Upper third of anteromedial border of sternocleidomastoid
Supraclavicular fossa
Lower third of anterior border of sternocleidomastoid
ENT
Miscellaneous ENT
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single
Which type of adenoma has the highest propensity to undergo dystrophic calcification?
Lactotroph adenomas have a propensity to undergo dystrophic calcification, ranging from isolated psammoma bodies to extensive calcification of viually the entire tumor mass ("pituitary stone").
3
Somatotroph adenoma
Coicotroph adenoma
Lactotroph adenoma
Thyrotroph adenoma
Pathology
CNS Tumors
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single
A widely used drug that suppresses cellular immunity inhibits prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis and increases the catabolism of IgG antibody is :
Glucocorticoids are powerful immunosuppressants. These inhibit both cellular and humoral immunity by: Decreasing the recruitment of immune cells. Catabolism of immunoglobulins. Inhibiting the enzyme phospholipase A2 resulting in decreased production of PGs, LTs and TXs.
2
Cyclophosphamide
Prednisone
Cyclosporine
Infliximab
Pharmacology
null
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single
Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs can cause vitamin B12 deficiency?
Ans. (C) Metformin(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12/e p1259, KDT 8/e 299)Lactic acidosis (more with phenformin) and megaloblastic anemia (more with metformin) due to vitamin B12 deficiency are the major adverse effects of these drugs. Lactic acidosis is more likely to occur in the presence of hepatic and renal impairment or alcohol ingestion.
3
Glipizide
Acarbose
Metformin
Pioglitazone
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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single
Treatment of malignant Hyperthermia includes – a) Dantroleneb) Coolingc) Deepening plane of inhalational anaesthesiad) Discontinue inhalational anaesthesiae) Give O2 therapy with 100% O2.
Treatment of malignant hyperthermia includes dantrolene, hyperventilation with 100% O2 discontinuation of all anaesthetics immediately, cooling of body, correction of acidosis and hyperkalemia.
4
abcd
bcde
acde
abde
Anaesthesia
null
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single
A patient presents with acute anterior wall infarction and hypotension. Which will be the immediate treatment modality for this patient?
Within the first 12 hours of MI, immediate coronary angiography and primary percutaneous intervention is the treatment of choice for patients presenting with ST elevated MI. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1453 & 1460; 17th Edition, Page 1537; Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 20th Edition, Chapter 18, Page 594.
4
Intra aoic balloon counter pulsation
Anticoagulation
Thrombolytic therapy
Angiography and Primary angioplasty
Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following is false about hemochromatosis
In hemochromatosis iron deposits are seen in pituitary gland, skin , pancreas and heart.
3
HFE gene mutation
Autosomal recessive
Iron deposits in the testis
Secondary hemochromatosis is due to thalassemias.
Medicine
null
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multi
Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by -a) Antegrade amnesiab) Retrograde amnesiac) Both with confabulationd) Patchy impairment of personal memories
Dissociative amnesia is characterized by retrograde amnesia. There is inability to recall personal events during circumscribed period which creates gaps in the individuals personal memory (Patchy memory loss).
3
c
d
bd
ac
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Type of anemia in pregnancy is: September 2007
Ans. B: Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia in pregnancy is that of iron deficiency anemia and shows microcytic hypochromic pattern. Change in lab values in iron deficiency anemia Decrease- ferritin, hemoglobin, MCV Increase- TIBC, transferrin
2
Megaloblastic
Microcytic hypochromic
Microcytic normochromic
Normochromic normocytic
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Avascular necrosis of hip, investigation of choice -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., MRI o The first X-ray signs probably appear only 6-9 months after the occurrence of bone deatho MRI shows characteristic changes in the marrow long before the appearance of X-ray signs,o Therefore MRI is the most reliable way of diagnosing marrow changes and bone ischaemia (Avascular necrosis) at a comparatively early stage,o Investigation of choice for P1D at any level is MRI.Investigations in musculoskeletal systemo Investigation of choice for AVN Hip - MRIo Best initial test for osteomyelitis - Plain x-rayo Best second line test for osteomyelitis (if there is high clinical suspician and x-ray is negative) - MRIo Most accurate diagnostic test for osteomyelitis - Bone biopsy and culture,o Best view for scaphoid fracture - Oblique (scaphoid) view of wristo Best view forCl-C2 vertebrae & junction -Open mouth odontoid (Pegs) view ,o Investigation of choice for ACL & PCL injury- -MRIo Investigation of choice to detect calcification - CT scano Investigation of choice for prolapsed intervertebral disc - MRIo Investigation of choice for spinal tuberculosis - MRIo Investigation of choice for traumatic paraplagia - MRIo Gold standard and investigation of choice for osteoporosis - Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA).
1
MRI
USG
CT
XRAY
Orthopaedics
Avascular Necrosis
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single
Deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the mother is via:
13Ans. (a) Umbilical arteryRef: D. C Dutta 8th ed./ 36* Deoxygenated blood from fetus to mother is via umbilical artery.* Oxygenated blood is via umbilical vein.
1
Umbilical artery
Umbilical veins
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Growth of the Fetus During Pregnancy
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single
Enzyme inhibited by insulin is
3. Hypoglycemic Effect of INSULINE - i. Insulin lowers the blood glucose level by promoting utilization and storage. ii. Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by insulin by repressing the key enzymes, pyruvate carboxylase (PC) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) and glucose-6- phosphatase. iii. Insulin inhibits glycogenolysis by oring the inactivation of glycogen phosphorylase and inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase. The net effect of all these three mechanisms, blood glucose level is lowered. REF: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, EIGHTH EDITION,PG.NO.,167.
3
Glucokinase
PFK-1
Glycogen phosphorylase
Glycogen synthase
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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single
Which of the following contains long spaced collagen?
Ans. (b) CorneaRef: Cornea by Mannis, 4/e, p. 897Seen in a number of corneal pathologies like Fuch dystrophy, PPMD, Scheie syndrome, etc.
2
Diaphragm
Cornea
Basement membrane
Tympanic membrane
Ophthalmology
Cornea
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single
Vi antigen found in -a) Salmonella paratyphi 'A'b) Salmonella paratyphi 'C'c) Salmonella dublind) Kiebsiella pneumoniaee) Citrobacter fregalis
Vi Antigen is possessed by S Typhi and S. Paratyphi C, S. Dublin, Citrobacter (Ballerup-Bethesda group).
3
bcde
abcd
abce
abde
Microbiology
null
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single
The most common late CNS complication of HIV is
CNS involvement in AIDS Involvement of the CNS is a common and important manifestation of AIDS. In addition to the lymphoid system, the nervous system is a major target of HIV infection. Macrophages and microglial cells in the central nervous system that belong to the monocyte and macrophage lineage are predominant to the types in the brain that are infected with HIV. It is widely believed that HIV is carried into the brain by infected monocytes. Ninety per cent of patients demonstrate some form of neurological involvement at autopsy. In addition to opportunistic infection and neoplasm, several virally determined neuropathological changes occur. These include A self limited meningioencephalitis. Aseptic meningitis Vascular myelopathy Peripheral neuropathies and Most commonly a progressive encephalopathy designated clinically as the AIDS dementia complex. AIDS dementia complex It is the commonest neurological complication in subacute or chronic HIV encephalitis. Earlier it was called AIDS encephalopathy or encephalitis. It present as slowly or rapidly progressive dementia accompanied by abnormalities of motor function.
1
Dementia
Ataxia
Seizures
Deliruim
Medicine
null
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single
A 34-year-old power lifter visits the outpatient clinic because he has difficulty walking. During physical examination it is observed that the patient has a problem unlocking the knee joint to permit flexion of the leg. Which of the following muscles is most likely damaged?
When the popliteus contracts, it rotates the distal portion of the femur in a lateral direction. It also draws the lateral meniscus posteriorly, thereby protecting this cartilage as the distal femoral condyle glides and rolls backward, as the knee is flexed. This allows the knee to flex and therefore serves in unlocking the knee. The biceps femoris is a strong flexor of the leg and laterally rotates the knee when it is in a position of flexion. The gastrocnemius is a powerful plantar flexor of the foot. The semimembranous, similar to the biceps femoris, is a component of the hamstring muscles and is involved in extending the thigh and flexing the leg at the knee joint. The rectus femoris is the strongest quadriceps muscle in extending the leg at the knee.
3
Biceps femoris
Gastrocnemius
Popliteus
Semimembranosus
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
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single
Concussion injuries to the eye will cause all of the following except
Soft exudates are axoaxonal debris and seen mostly as a result of hypoxia in the retina Refer khurana 6/e
2
Sublaxation of lens
Soft exudates
Macular hole
Berlin's oedema
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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multi
The role of bradykinin in process of inflammation is
Ref Robbins 8/e p65- 66 ; 9/e p89 Bradykinin is a potent endothelium-dependent vasodilator and mild diuretic, which may cause a lowering of the blood pressure. It also causes contraction of non-vascular smooth muscle in the bronchus and gut, increases vascular permeability and is also involved in the mechanism of pain.
4
Vasoconstriction
Bronchiodilatation
Pain
Increase in vascular permeability
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?
null
2
Adenocarcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Basal cell adenoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Pathology
null
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single
Prophaylaxis for malaria not used-
null
2
Doxycycline
Artesunate
Chloroquine
Mefloquine
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1178bb85-12b2-4aaf-8423-b4a0431d7692
single
A nurse having vaccinated with hepatitis B (Not previous affect the hepatitis-B- infection).Which of the following found in blood examination.
(Anti HBs Ag) (570-71-CMDT-08) (1933-34-H17th)Anti HBs antibody - appears in most individuals after clearance ofHBsAg and after successful vaccination against hepatitis B - signal recovery from HBV infection, non infectivity and immunity* HBe Ag indicates viral replication and infectivity** HBs Ag indicates the first evidence of infection* HBV DNA is more sensitive and precise marker of viral replication and infectivity*** IgG Anti HBc also appears during acute hepatitis B- But persists indefinitely* IgM anti HBc appears shortly after HBs Ag is detectedCommon serologic pattern in Hepatitis - B virus infection and their interpretationHBsAgAnti HBsAnti HBcHBe AgAnti HBeInterpretation+-IgM+-Acute hepatitis - B+-IgG+-Chronic hepatitis-B with Acute viral replication+-IgG-+Chronic hepatitis- B with low viral replication++IgG+ or-+ or -Chronic hepatitis -B with heterotypic anti HBs (About 10% (cases)--IgM+ or --Acute hepatitis -B-+IgG-+ or -Recovery from hepatitis-B (Immunity)-+---Vaccination (Immunity)**--IgG--False positive,less commonly infection in remote past
2
HBsAg
Anti HBs Ag
AntiHBCAg
Anti HBs Ag Anti HBC, core antigen
Medicine
Infection
fa7d278b-f6cf-44c2-b15a-6143c9748dca
single
about test of significance between two large population, one of the following statements is true-
.
4
Null hypothesis states that 2 means are equal
Standard error of difference is the sum of the standard error of 2 means
Standard error of means are equal
Standard error of difference between populations calculated
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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multi
All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis,except -
Important drugs causing optic neuritis are quinine, chloroquine, ethambutal, isoniazid(INH), Streptomycin, Digoxin, Amiodarone, NSAIDs (aspirin, indomethacin, phenylbutazone, ibuprofen), vigabatrine, disulfiram.
1
Rifampicin
Digoxin
Chloroquine
Ethambutol
Ophthalmology
null
9aac18be-edf6-4253-8fbd-6f8cf34f4218
multi
Actions of angiotensin II include: a) Systemic vasoconstriction b) Systemic vasodilation c) Renal vasodilatation d) Re–absorption of Na+ in proximal renal tubule e) Retention of water
null
2
ad
ae
bc
bd
Pharmacology
null
26de3896-b743-421c-bc0f-28693cd50cf9
single
Chymotrypsin cleaves carbonyl terminal of
null
4
Phenylalanine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
All of these
Biochemistry
null
84325df2-cf71-4535-9030-305d00a2dc6a
multi
Which of the following is coding RNA
rRNA, Lnc RNA, sn RNA, mi RNA, tRNA are all non coding RNA. Only mRNA is coding RNA.
2
sn RNA
mRNA
Both sn RNA and mRNA
mi RNA
Biochemistry
null
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multi
The 1st product of tryptophan catabolism is?
Tryptophan is degraded to amphibolic intermediates via the kynurenine-anthranilate pathway. Tryptophan oxygenase (tryptophan pyrrolase) opens the indole ring, incorporates molecular oxygen, and forms N-formyl kynurenine. Hydrolytic removal of the formyl group of A T -formylkynurenine, catalyzed by kynurenine formylase, produces kynurenine. Since kynureninase requires pyridoxal phosphate, excretion of xanthurenate in response to a tryptophan load is diagnostic of vitamin B6. deficiency. Hartnup disease reflects impaired intestinal and renal transport of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids
1
Kynurenine
Bradykinin
PAF
Xanthurenate
Biochemistry
null
6aa0c399-900d-4a6f-82ad-27d80c55daeb
single
The differential diagnosis of the finding Reticulocyte Index=>2.5 is all, EXCEPT:
Reticulocyte count >2.5 is seen in: Hemolysis/ hemorrhage Blood loss Intravascular hemolysis Metabolic defect Membrane abnormality Hemoglobinopathy Immune destruction Fragmentation hemolysis Ref: Harrison, 18th Edition, Page 454
1
Macrocytic anaemia
Hemolysis
Hemoglobinopathy
Blood loss
Pathology
null
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multi
Ehrlich phenomenon seen in:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Corynebacterium(It is due to presence in toxin preparation of varying amounts of toxoid and antitoxin to combine in varying proportions and is called Ehrlich phenomenon).Ehrlich defined the minimum lethal dose (MLD) of the diphtheria toxin as the least amount of toxin required to kill a guinea pig weighing 250g within 96 hours after subcutaneous inoculation.
3
Proteus
Mycobacterium TB
Corynebacterium
Staphylococcus
Microbiology
Bacteria
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single
For the disposal of hospital refuse, the bag made with cadmium is not used because incineration of the bag causes poisonous toxic fumes evolution. The colour of the bag is -
Waste collection bags for waste type needing incineration shall not be made of chlorinated plastics. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 735
2
Black
Red
Blue
Yellow
Social & Preventive Medicine
Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health
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single
All of the following are having stimulatory action on glucagon secretion, EXCEPT:
Factors stimulate glucagon secretion: Amino acids (paicularly the glucogenic amino acids: alanine, serine, glycine, cysteine, and threonine) CCK, gastrin Coisol Exercise Infections Beta adrenergic stimulators Theophylline Acetylcholine Inhibitors of glucagon secretion: Glucose Somatostatin Secretin FFA Ketones Insulin Phenytoin Alpha adrenergic stimulators GABA Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 24. Endocrine Functions of the Pancreas & Regulation of Carbohydrate Metabolism. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
1
Secretin
Beta agonist
Exercise
Amino acids
Physiology
null
29dd68b1-44d0-42ba-a1c9-325cb7cba16a
multi
A patient of rheumatic heart disease with mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation is on oral warfarin. On one OPD visit, his INR is found to be 6. What is the action to be taken?
null
1
Stop warfarin, and review
Stop wairfarin, and administer fresh frozen plasma
Stop warfarin, and administer intramuscular vitamin K
Stop warfarin, and administer intramuscular vitamin K
Medicine
null
6740290e-b22f-4555-b6a9-a37984b923cf
single