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Which of following measures cannot reduce incidence of head injuries?
(A) Setting up of neurological centers# MAJOR CAUSE OF TRAUMATIC BRAIN INJURIES (TBI) are vehicle accidents, their prevention or the amelioration of their consequences can both reduce the incidence and gravity of TBI.> In accidents, damage can be reduced by use of seat belts, child safety seats and motorcycle helmets, and presence of roll bars and air bags.> Education programs exist to lower the number of crashes.> In addition, changes to public policy and safety laws can be made; these include speed limits, seat belt and helmet laws, and road engineering practices.> Prevention of Head Injuries: Preventative measures include safer roads, barriers to prevent falls, and gun control legislation. In addition, bicycle and motorcycle helmets, seat belts, airbase, and soft surfaces on playgrounds are effective. 25-30% of head injuries in infants are the result of an abuse - healthcare professionals need to be trained in safeguarding and to raise concerns without delay.
1
Setting up of neurological centers
Education about safety
Strict safety rules
Wearing Helmets
Surgery
Nervous System
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single
After death, Livor mois is caused because of: March 2008
Ans. C: Discolouration as a result of capillo-venous distension in the dependent pas of the body Postmoem lividity/hypostasis/livor mois is a settling of the blood in the lower (dependent) poion of the body, causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin: when the hea is no longer agitating the blood, heavy red blood cells sink through the serum by action of gravity. This discoloration does not occur in the areas of the body that are in contact with the ground or another object, as the capillaries are compressed. Livor mois is usually well developed within 4 hours after death and maximum lividity occurs within 6-12 hours.
3
Muscle of the body began to relax
Muscle of the body began to stiffen
Discolouration as a result of capillo-venous distension in the dependent pas of the body
Putrefaction of the body tissues
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Invasive molar tissue is most commonly found in
Invasive molar tissue (locally invasive) invades the myometrium, while metastatic molar tissue (highly metastatic)is a different type which metastasizes to the lung, liver.
1
Myometrium
Vaginal wall
Ovary
Liver
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Twin Pregnancy, Molar Pregnancy, Gestational Trophoblastic disease and contraception in special situations (Sour Grapes!)
6931c467-0cf6-4ddf-bcfc-b0e875f2d031
multi
Obstacles in concomitant squint type is:
CONCOMITANT SQUINT - type of manifest squint in which the amount of detion in the squinting eye remains constant in all directions of gaze, no limitation of ocular movements.. Any obstacles to the development of these processes result in concomitant squint . (1) Sensory obstacles -hinder the formation of a clear image in one eye. E.g. *Refractive errors*Prolonged use of incorrect spectacles*Anisometropia*Media opacities - Corneal/Lenticular opacities (2) motor obstacles - hinder the maintenance of eyes in the correct positional relationship in primary gaze or during ocular movements . E.g. - Congenital abnormalities of shape/size of the orbit*Abnormalities of extraocular muscles (3) central obstacles -*Deficient development of fusion faculty*Abnormalities of coical control of ocular movements as occurs in mental Trauma and hyperexcitability of CNS during teething.
4
Motor obstacles
Sensory obstacles
Central obstacles
All of the above
Ophthalmology
FMGE 2018
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multi
Statutory rape is: TN 10
Ans. Rape of < 18 years old girl
4
Rape of an insane woman
Rape of another person's wife
Rape in police custody
Rape of < 18 years old girl
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Otomycosis is caused by
null
1
Aspergillus niger
Histoplasma capsulatum
Rhinosporidium seeberi
Cryptococcus neoformans
Medicine
null
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single
In Apoptosis , cytochrome C acts through
ref, Robbins 8/e p29,9/e p55
1
Apaf1
Bcl-2
FADD
TNF
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
All of the following statements are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except ?
Pudendal nerve leaves the pelvis, to enter the gluteal region, by passing through the lower pa of the greater sciatic foramen. Pudendal nerve leaves the gluteal region by passing through the lesser sciatic foramen and enters the pudendal canal, and by means of its branches supplies the external anal sphincter and muscles and skin of the perineum.
3
It is both sensory and motor
It is derived from S2,3,4
It leaves the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
It leaves through lesser sciatic foramen and enter pudendal canal
Anatomy
null
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A hypothetical gene contains coding strand of 5&;-TGGAATTGTATG-3. What would be the sequence of the resultant mRNA following transcription?
DNA contains Adenine , Guanine , Cytosine and Thymine. RNA contains same as DNA but Uracil replaces the Thymine. REF : DM.VASUDEVAN.TEXTBOOK ; SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO : 560.
3
3'-ACCTTAACATAC-5'
5'-ACCUUTTAACAUAC-3'
5'-UGGAAUUGUAUG-3'
3'-UCCTTUUCAUAC-5'
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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A 59 year old man complains of recurrent attacks of pain in the region of left shoulder radiating to sternum and the pit of stomach. The attacks of pain came at lengthy intervals until the last two days when it became continuous. The physician diagnosed it as an angina pectoris. In this case the pain pathway from the heart is carried by -
null
3
Superior cervical cardiac nerve
Middle and inferior cervical cardiac nerve
Thoracic splanchnic nerve
Vagus
Anatomy
null
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Which Glycogen Storage Disease doesn&;t affect muscles ?
Glycogen storage disease type 1 is an inherited disorder caused by the buildup of a complex sugar called glycogen in the body&;s cells . The accumulation of glycogen in ceain organs and tissues , especially the liver, kidneys, and small intestines, impairs their ability to function normally. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
1
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Pediatrics
Metabolic disorders
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single
Which bone is not useful for sex determination?
Important bones used for sex determination are skull, mandible, pelvis, vertebra, femur
3
Pelvis
Skull
Clavicle
Femur
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
False about congenital rubella syndrome
null
1
High risk if infected after 16 weeks
Most commonly associated with CVS anomalies, cataract and hearing loss
IgG is diagnostic
IgM antibodies may be seen shortly after birth
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Chance of developing T.B. is high when mantoux test positive in patients with -
null
1
Taking adrenal steroid
HIV
DM
All the above
Medicine
null
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Slit lamp examination helps in examination of?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Posterior capsule Slit-lamp bimicroscopy is very useful in the diagnosis of eye diseases. o It should routinely be performed in almost all diseases of the eye. o Following structures are examined ? Eyelids and lashes Conjunctiva Cornea Anterior chamber Iris Lens : Anterior capsule, coex, nucleus, posterior capsular Anterior vitreous
4
Anterior 2/3rd of choroid
Anterior 1/3rd of choroid
Posterior 1/3rd of choroid
Posterior capsule
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Which Of the following statements is True?
Inverse Square Law states that Radiation Dose is inversely propoional to the square of distance from the Source of Radiation
3
Intensity of Radiation decreases as a function of the distance from source of radiation
Intensity Of Radiation Increases as a function of distance from source of radiation
Intensity of Radiation decreases as a function of square of distance from source of Radiation
Intensity Of Radiation increases as a function of square of distance from source of Radiation
Radiology
Radiotherapy Pa 2
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The type of inhibition seen in cerebellum is
(D) Feed forward inhibition> Feed forward inhibition--Seen in cerebellum. Stimulation of basket cells produces IPSP (inhibitory post-synaptic potential) in Purkinje cells.> However, both these cells are excited by the same excitatory inputs.> This arrangement is called feed forward inhibition, presumably limits the duration of excitation produced by any afferent volley.
4
Pre-synaptic inhibition
Post-synaptic inhibition
Renshaw-cell inhibition
Feed forward inhibition
Physiology
Nervous System
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Which of the following is the leading cause of GHRH mediated acromegaly?
The leading cause of GHRH mediated acromegaly is chest or abdominal carcinoid tumour. It will present with elevated GH levels and pituitary enlargement on MRI leading to high probability of misdiagnosis as pituitary adenoma. GHRH levels can be used to differentiate a pituitary vs extra pituitary aetiology.
3
Hypothalamic Hamaoma
Choristoma
Carcinoid tumour
Pluri-hormonal adenoma
Medicine
Disorders of pituitary gland
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the emergency depament complaining of nausea and vomiting. She states that she has been having significant nausea that has been worsening over the past 2 weeks. Over the past 2 days, she has had 2 episodes of vomiting. She also notes increased fatigue. She has no abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding. She has no other complaints. Her past medical history is significant for occasional migraine headaches. She has never had surgery. She takes acetaminophen as needed for headache, and has no known drug allergies. She works as a lawyer at a local firm and lives with her husband for three years. She has no family history of cancer or hea disease. Her vital signs are stable. Examination is significant for a bluish-appearing cervix on speculum examination. The remainder of the examination, including the abdominal examination, is benign. Laboratory evaluation shows: Urine hCG: positive Leukocytes: 9,000/mm3 Hematocrit: 41% Platelets: 250,000/mm3 Pelvic ultrasound demonstrates a gestational sac with yolk sac and fetal pole surrounded by myometrium. There is a hea rate of 154 beats per minute. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
This patient's presentation, exam findings, and studies are all consistent with a diagnosis of intrauterine pregnancy. First, her presenting complaints of nausea, vomiting, and fatigue are consistent with a first trimester pregnancy. Approximately 80% of pregnant women experience some nausea during the pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. This nausea is most commonly called "morning sickness" but it can occur at any time during the day. Fatigue is also a common first trimester complaint. On examination she has a bluish-appearing cervix. This is called "Chadwick's sign" and it is another clue that she is pregnant. Most definitively, though, she has a positive urine pregnancy test. With this positive test, the diagnosis is narrowed to intrauterine pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy, or spontaneous aboion, with mole also being a consideration. The ultrasound that demonstrates an intrauterine pregnancy fully establishes the diagnosis. Note: Appendicitis represents an infection of the appendix. Patients with appendicitis most commonly present with symptoms and signs of infection, including abdominal pain, fever and chills, abdominal tenderness, elevated temperature, and leukocytosis. A patient with a complete hydatidiform mole will not have an intrauterine pregnancy with a fetal hea rate visualized on ultrasound examination. A complete mole often appears as a "snowstorm" pattern on pelvic ultrasound. It is essential to "think ectopic!" whenever a woman of childbearing age presents for medical attention. In fact, this sign ("think ectopic!") and other such similar signs can be seen in many emergency rooms. However, patients with ectopic pregnancy usually complain of abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding. On examination, they will often have abdominal and adnexal tenderness. Pelvic ultrasound will show no intrauterine pregnancy. This patient, with a gestational sac, yolk sac, and fetus seen surrounded by myometrium (that is, within the uterus) can be diagnosed with an intrauterine pregnancy. Ref: Fritz D.A. (2011). Chapter 6. Emergency Bedside Ultrasound. In R.L. Humphries, C. Stone (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7e.
4
Appendicitis
Complete hydatidiform mole
Ectopic pregnancy
Intrauterine pregnancy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
All are the causes of myocarditis except ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2
Trichinosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Corenybacterium diphtheria
Systemic lupus erythromatosis
Pathology
null
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multi
Trimalleolar fracture is
null
2
Pott's fracture
Cotton's fracture
Tillaux fracture
Jone's fracture
Orthopaedics
null
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multi
Arrange the following drugs according to increasing volume of distribution. 1. Haloperidol 2. Gentamicin 3. Heparin 4. Chloroquine
* Chloroquine has highest volume of distribution. It is concentrated in liver and retina. * Heparin is high molecular weight compound and thus not able to cross most membranes. It has low Vd. * Gentamicin again cannot cross many membranes because of polar nature and thus has low Vd. * Haloperidol is a drug working in CNS. So, it must be able to cross other membranes also resulting in high Vd. Thus the sequence is Chloroquine > Haloperidol > Gentamicin > Heparin
2
3-2-4-1
3-2-1-4
2-3-4-1
2-1-3-4
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
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Voex vein invasion is a feature of
Malignant melanoma of choroid shows extraocular spread along the perivascular spaces of the voex veins or ciliary vessels. Extraocular extension also occurs due to progressive growth of the tumor that may burst through sclera, usually at the limbus Ref. Khurana page no.174
1
Malignant melanoma
Retinoblastoma
Medulloepithelioma
Optic nerve glioma
Ophthalmology
Tumors
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All are true about auger's except
Velpeau's hernia is prevascular hernia,seen infront of femoral vessels. Types of femoral hernia Laugier's hernia. Vclpeau's hernia. Seratinis hernia. Narath's hernia.
2
Is a type of femoral hernia
Seen in front of femoral vessels
Has high strangulation rate
Is hernia through lacunar ligament
Surgery
null
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A 28-year-old woman complains of chest pain for 1.5 months. Three months prior to the current visit, she developed cough with expectoration, worse in the early morning. There was no shoness of breath or hemoptysis About 2 months after the onset of the cough, she began to have intermittent pleuritic (worse with coughing or deep breathing) left sided chest pain, increasing fatigue and weight loss of 3kgs but no loss of appetite. On auscultation: fine crackles in the suprascapular areas bilaterally were present(L>>R). The left upper lobe was dull to percussion. All are contents of the classic medium used for the above disease except: -
The patient comes with a constellation of weight loss, productive cough, and cavitary pulmonary infiltrates, which is extremely characteristic of TB. The medium being asked is the Lowenstein-Jensen medium, an egg-based solid medium that suppos the growth of Mycobacterium species, including Mycobacterium tuberculosis. CXR shows well defined cavitary lesions in left upper lung zone and right lower lung zone. COMPOSITION OFLJ MEDIUM Ingredients Potato Flour (Potato Starch) L-Asparagine Monopotassium Phosphate Magnesium Citrate Malachite Green Magnesium Sulfate Glycerol Egg suspension Distilled Water
4
Egg suspension
Malachite green
Glycerol
L-glutamine
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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The normal growth of the human eye includes all except
The average corneal power at bih is 47.5 D which decreases gradually to adult value of 42.5 D . Thus the corneal power decreases in first 6 months. All other statements are correct.
3
A 4 mm increase in axial length in first 6 months of life
A corneal diameter of 10.5 mm at bih, 12mm by age 2
An increase in corneal power in first 6 months
Dramatic decrease in lens power in first one year
Ophthalmology
Ocular Embryology& Anatomy
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multi
CMV belongs to which family of DNA viruses ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Herpesviridae
2
Poxviridae
Herpesviridae
Papovaviridae
Paravoviridae
Microbiology
null
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Corticosteroids cause all EXCEPT:
null
1
Muscular hypertrophy
Peptic ulceration
Psychosis
Suppression of pituitary-adrenal axis
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Which of the following condition gives the characteristic radiological finding "bone within a bone" appearance?
Radiologic examination of osteopetrosis shows increased bone density and transverse bands in the shafts, clubbing of ends, and veical striations of long bones. Thickening about the cranial foramina is present, and heterotopic calcification of soft tissues is possible. Other characteristic findings include a miniature bone inset within each veebral body (bone-within-a bone appearance) and increased density at the end plates (sandwich veebrae). Ref: Clinical Imaging: An Atlas of Differential Diagnosis By Ronald L. Eisenberg, 2012, Page 1088.
2
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteopetrosis
Scurvy
Rickets
Radiology
null
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After returning from a bihday pay, within 6-8 hours a group of 7 friends began to develop non bloody diarrhoea which was associated with cramping abdominal pain and fever.They were admitted in emergency depament and the stool samples were sent and repos showed the presence of Salmonella enteritidis. All are true statements except :-
Salmonella enteritidis Gram negative, facultative anaerobe Causes nontyphoidal salmonellosis (NTS) but Enteric fever is caused by S.typhi/S.paratyphi Causes non-bloody diarrhoea which may be copious In healthy adults, disease is usually self-limiting and as the antibiotic therapy doesn't change the disease course it is not recommended Antibiotic therapy is advised in neonates and elderly people, who have more chances of developing bacteremia. Bacteremia occurs in < 10% cases Metastatic infections can occur in bones and joints No vaccination for Non Typhoidal Salmonellosis (NTS)
2
There is no vaccine available for this illness
They causes typhoid fever
Antibiotic therapy is not indicated.
Bacteraemia occurs in < 10% of cases.
Medicine
Bacterial infection
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multi
Adrenalin increases all of the following blood pressures significantly except
Adrenaline given by slow infusion causes a rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP, peripheral resistance sometimes may decrease because vascular beta 2 receptors are more sensitive than alpha receptors. beta 2 receptors produce vasodilatation causing fall in diastolic at times Mean BP generally rises. Pulse pressure is increased. From essential of medical pharmacology K D Tripati 7th edition Page no 131
2
Systolic
Diastolic
Mean BP
Pulse pressure
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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A young man, home on leave from the military, went camping in the woods to detect deer movement for future hunting. Ten days later, he developed fever, malaise, and myalgia. Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia were observed, as well as several tick bites. Which of the following statements best describes human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME)?
HME, caused by the bite of the tick Amblyomma americanum infected with E. chaffeensis, causes an illness not unlike RMSF, except a rash usually does not occur. Diagnosis is usually made serologically, and treatment of choice is tetracycline. Symptoms include high fever, severe headache, and myalgias. EM is the characteristic skin lesion seen in Lyme disease. HME is transmitted by a tick vector, as mentioned previously, and not by a dog bite. Vomiting and paralysis are not usual symptoms seen in HME cases. Cultures can be isolated using tissue culture cell lines, but not artificial media (agar, broth, etc.).
2
Clinical diagnosis is based on the presence of erythema migrans (EM)
Diagnosis is usually made serologically but morulae may be seen in the cytoplasm of monocytes
It is a fatal disease transmitted by the bite of a dog
Symptoms include vomiting and paralysis
Microbiology
Bacteria
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FDG-PET negative tumor is:
* 18 FDG negative tumors - Have low mitotic & low metabolic activity (M-TB) - Mucinous Ca- Typical carcinoids- Bronchoalveolar Ca
2
Atypical carcinoid
Typical carcinoid
Small cell carcinoma
Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma
Radiology
Nuclear medicine
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Inspiratory stridor is due to lesions of:
STRIDOR 1. Inspiratory stridor - obstructive lesion of supraglottis of pharynx. 2. Expiratory stridor - lesion of thoracic trachea, primary and secondary bronchi 3. Biphasic stridor - lesion of glottis sub glottis and cervical trachea.
1
Supraglottis
Subglottis
Trachea
Bronchi
ENT
NEET 2019
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Grape - like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in 4 - year old girl is characteristic of
sarcoma botryoides : It is a variant of embryonal from of rhabdomyosarcoma. Here tumour project into body cavity like a bunch of grapes.
4
Fibrosarcoma
Leiomyosarcoma
Inflammatory polyp
Sarcoma botryoides
Pediatrics
null
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Early adolescent age is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 10-13 years WHO/UN definitions* Adolescent-10-19 years# Early adotescent-10-13 years# Middle adotescent-14-15 years# Late adolescent-16-19 years* Youth-15-24 years* Young people-10-24 years
2
8-11 years
10-13 years
14 - 15 years
16 - 19 years
Pediatrics
Adolescence
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Nucleotide includes -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Base + sugar + phosphate group o Nucleotides are monomeric units of nucleic acids. They are required for synthesis of nucleic acid. Each nucleotide is made up of: (i) A nitrogenous base, (ii) A sugar (pentose sugar) and (iii) A phosphate group (phosphoric acid). Nitrogenous base combines with a sugar to form nucleosides. The nucleoside combines with phosphoric acid to form a nucleotide.Nucleoside = Nitrogenous base (purine or pyrimidine)Q-+ Pentose sugar Q (ribose or deoxyribose)Nucleotide = Nucleoside + phosphate group (phosphoric acid)or= Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate group
3
Base + sugar
Base + phosphate group
Base + sugar + phosphate group
None
Biochemistry
Chemistry of Nucleotides
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All of the following conditions have autosomal dominant inheritance except -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fabry's disease Autosomal dominant disorders o Normally a gene pair has two alleles. o When one allele becomes abnormal due to mutation it is called heterozygous state. o When both the alleles become abnormal due to mutation it is called homozygous state. o Autosomal dominant disorders are manifested in heterozygous state, i.e. only if one allel is abnormal the disease will be manifested.
1
Fabry disease
Marfan's syndrome
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ehlers Danlos syndrome
Pediatrics
null
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Prologned treatment with INH leads to deficiency of:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyridoxine o Peripheral neuritis associated with isoniaide probably relates to interference with pyridoxine ( vitamin B6).
3
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
Pharmacology
null
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single
True about juvenile respiratory papillomatosis:
Juvenile respiratory papillomatosis: Affects children commonly, Lower respiratory tract can be involved - though larynx is the M/C site affected - Mouth, pharynx, tracheobronchial tree and oesophagus can all be affected May resolve spontaneously Micro laryngoscopic surgery is the Treatment of choice CO, laser surgery, which is a form of microlaryngoscopic surgery is the Treatment of choice
4
Affects children commonly
Lower respiratroy tract can be involved
May resolve spontaneously
All
ENT
null
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Salt and pepper dyschromatosis is seen in: September 2009
Ans. B: Scleroderma Skin changes in scleroderma: Skin pigmentary changes include a salt-and-pepper appearance, with areas of hyperpigmentation alternating with hypopigmentation, or an overall appearance of tanned skin that persists long after sun exposure Telangiectasias are dilated vessels located just beneath the dermis on any skin area, but they are most obvious in the face (perioral area), hands, and anterior chest. The skin of the hands may be edematous or swollen early in the disease, and the patient may initially repo this as puffy changes. This edematous stage precedes the indurated sclerotic stage; longer time to progression to the sclerotic phase indicates a better prognosis. In the sclerotic phase, the skin may appear tight and shiny, with a characteristic loss of hair, decreased sweating, and loss of the ability to make a skin fold. Calcinosis may develop on the fingers and extremities, usually the extensor side of the forearms and the prepatellar areas
2
Dermatofibrositis
Scleroderma
SLE
Psoriasis
Skin
null
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Breathing seen in barbiturate poisoning: CMC (Vellore) 14
Ans. Rapid and shallow
4
Rapid and deep
Slow and shallow
Normal breathing
Rapid and shallow
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Biological indicator for Autoclave is
Autoclave  - Geobacillus stearothermophilus Hot air oven - CL tetani or bacillus subtilis Ionizing radiation - Bacillus pumilus.
4
CL tetani
Bacillus subtilis
Bacillus pumilis
Geo bacillus stearothermophilus
Microbiology
null
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True about gap junctions are all, except ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intercellular space 1000 nm Gap junctions are intercellular connections consist of a pair of hemichannels (connexons) inseed into the membrane of adjacent cells. Each connexone is made of six identical protein subunits called connexins which enclose a central channel. When the corresponding connexons of adjacent cell link up end-to-end, they form a continuous channel that permits substances to pass through from cell to cell. At gap junctions, the intercellular space narrows down to 3nm, thereby helping in binding the cells together. o However, their real physiological significance lies in allowing ions to flow through them, i.e. they conduct ionic current. This enables electrical excitation to spread from cell to cell, as in smooth and cardiac muscles. The pore size of gap junctions decreases when intracellular Ca' is high or pH is low, both of which are commonly associated with cell damage. Closure of gap junctions in response to these stimuli isolates damaged cells so that the Ca+2 and 1-1+ do not spread from the damaged to normal cells.
3
Transmit electric signals
Allow ions to pass
Intercellular space 1000 nm
Seen in cardiac muscle
Physiology
null
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multi
Which of the following is associated with highest risk of anaphylaxis
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 629 intravenous iron dextran, anaphylaxis is a con- cern. Anaphylaxis is much rarer with the newer preparations. The factors that have correlated with an anaphylactic-like reaction include a history of multiple allergies or a prior allergic reaction to dextran (in the case of iron dextran)
1
Iron dextran
Iron sucrose
Ferumoxytol
Iron gluconate
Anatomy
Haematology
9bf6c7a0-8905-4615-ac00-100df07b2f31
single
The cribriform hymen is seen –
The hymen is a thin fold of connective tissue, covered by mucous membranes, about 1 mm in overall thickness, situated at the vaginal orifice. They are of different types. Cribriform is one of them, characterized by many small holes. As a result of sexual intercourse, the hymen is usually torn from posteriorly, with unilateral or bilateral tears extending to the point of its attachment to the vaginal wall. So the presence of hymen most probably indicates virginity.
1
Virgin
Septate hymen
Sieve hymen
Post partum
Forensic Medicine
null
3b5a7d54-55b7-41f7-a541-d4cd09552758
single
Localised idiopathic fibrosis following except?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hyperophic scar
2
Riedel's struma
Hyperophic scar
Sclerosing cholangitis
Panniculitis
Surgery
null
495ff32b-c595-44b9-b399-db3ae2f5bfdf
multi
Vhich of the following metabolic pathways does not generate :
D i.e. HMP - Shunt
4
Glycolysis
TCA Cycle
Fatty Acid Oxidation
HMP Pathway
Biochemistry
null
a3caa80d-cb47-4015-aa50-7fe15ad914c6
single
Role of atropine in iridocyclitis includes all of the following except:
Ans. It lowers the intraocular pressure increasing aqueous outflow facility
4
It dilates the pupil, prevents the formation of synechiae and may break the already formed synechiae
Gives comfo and rest to the eye by relieving ciliary muscle spasm
It reduces exudation by decreasing hyperaemia
It lowers the intraocular pressure increasing aqueous outflow facility
Ophthalmology
null
554c76d5-16c0-4803-8a8a-f25878d1528b
multi
Which is a prerequisite for shade selection for composites?
Shade of the tooth is determined before teeth are subjected to drying because dehydrated tooth becomes lighter in colour as a result of decrease in translucency. Thus shade is selected on a wet tooth. Reference- Sturdevant 6th ed Pg-483
3
Tooth should not be dry as drying increases translucency
Tooth should not be wet as moisture increases translucency
Tooth should not be dry as drying decreases translucency
Tooth should not be wet as it decreases translucency
Dental
null
943d896b-bffe-419a-a7f0-650e302dd913
single
Indication for surgical compartment release in compartment Syndrome in any compartment is absolute pressure greater than?
ANSWER: (C) 30 mm HgREF: With text"Setting the threshold for fasciotomy at a perfusion pressure of 30 mmHg can be considered safe, but still may lead to overtreatment if used routinely" REF: Evidence-based Orthopedics - Mohit Bhandari Page 634Different authors consider surgical intervention if: (REF: Tiwari A, Haq A I, Myint F, Hamilton G. Acute compartment syndromes. BrJSurg 2002; 89: 397-412.)Absolute ICP greater than 30 mmHgDifference between diastolic pressure and ICP greater than 30 mmHg3. Difference between mean arterial pressure and ICP greater than 40 mmHg"Intracompartmental pressure may be measured by the wick catheter in patients suspected to have compartment syndrome. By such method a pressure of 30 mm Hg or more sustained for 6-8 hours or more is a likely indication for decompressive fasciotomy" REF: Skeletal injury in the child by John Anthony Ogden Page 317IntracompartmentalpressureComments<15 mm HgNorma! compartment pressure of lower limbs>25 mm HgVenous drainage from dosed myofascial spaces is impaired.>30 mm HgComplete venous collapse>60 mm HgNeuromuscular ischemiaREF: Mastery of vascular and endovascular surgery - Gerald B. Zelenock, Thomas S. Huber, Louis M. Messina Page 507
3
15 mm Hg
20 mm Hg
30 mm Hg
Varies from compartment to compartment
Orthopaedics
Deformities and the Management
87b93513-c4db-4a7a-b1f3-fd26ec4b55ae
single
Most common manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis
Most common - Chorioretinitis In adults - Cervical lymphadenopathy.
2
Hydrocephalus
Chorioretinitis
Calcification
Convulsions
Microbiology
null
39e1d8ed-c363-4a3c-9dd6-cfd5916a24a0
single
Index of potency of general anesthesia ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Minimum alveolar concentration Minimal alveolar concentration It is the lowest concentration of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individuals. It is the measure of potency of inhalation GAs
1
Minimum alveolar concentration
Diffusion coefficient
Dead space concentration
Alveolar blood concentration
Anaesthesia
null
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single
Post head injury, the patient had conductive deafness and on examination, tympanic membrane was normal and mobile. Likely diagnosis is -
In post head injury, the conductive deanfess may occur due to: Fracture temporal bone (more commonly longitudinal) extending to external canal: tympanic membrane is frequently torn and inner ear is spared. Blood or CSF in external and middle ear. Damage to ossicle (most frequent being incudo-stapedial joint) resulting in more severe and permanent conductive deafness. Aseptic necrosis of long process of incus can lead to late conductive deafness. In the Question it is given: Tympanic membrane is normal and mobile: In hemotympanum - tympanic membrane will appear red/blue (due to presence of blood pigments) so it is ruled out. Otosclerosis and EAC sclerosis do not occur in case of head injury and hence they are ruled out. ALSO KNOW Causes of SNHL in case of head injury: Labyrinthine concussion Vestibular damage.
1
Distortion of ossicular chain
Haemotympanum
EAC sclerosis
Otosclerosis
ENT
null
2b3cb646-f19f-458b-88bf-aeeeab892b10
single
In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except?
Isthmus, thyroid ima aery and inferior thyroid veins are midline structures and thus can be injured during tracheostomy, more so during emergency tracheostomy. Inferior thyroid aery, a branch of the thyrocervical trunk of the subclan aery lies laterally away from midline, thus can escape injury. In emergency tracheostomy following structures can be damaged: - Isthmus - Inferior thyroid veins - Thyroid ima aery - Left brachio-cephalic vein, jugular venous arch - Pleura (especially infants) - Thymus - Esophagus (the trachea is small, mobile, and soft in infants damage the esophagus)
2
Isthmus of the thyroid
Inferior thyroid aery
Thyroid ima
Inferior thyroid vein
Anatomy
null
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multi
Indication for Induction of labor is
Induction is indicated when the benefits to either mother or fetus outweigh those of pregnancy continuation. The more common indications include Membrane rupture without labor, Gestational hypeension, Oligohydramnios, Nonreassuring fetal status, Postterm pregnancy, and Various maternal medical conditions such as chronic hypeension and diabetesRef: William&;s; 25th edition
2
Placenta pre
Postterm pregnancy
Preterm labor
Breech
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
e7b9e977-33d7-4dba-80b7-7dbc3dcfcd9b
single
Cricothyroid joint is a
Cricothyroid joint is a synol joint. Each is formed by inferior cornu of thyroid cailage with a facet on cricoid cailage. Cricoid cailage rotates at these joints on a transverse axis which passes transversely through these joints.
4
Hinge joint
Hyaline joint
Atavistic joint
Synol joint
ENT
Anatomy of Larynx
4ce5b6e8-62eb-4185-84b2-fdf961c097e5
single
Commonest organism causing acute epiglotitis is
null
1
H. influenza
Clostridium
S. pneumonia
RSV
Medicine
null
001145a9-4f28-423d-8d76-1b6c7ebf03e2
single
In forensic medicine, the parameter Cephalic index is used in the determination of:
"Race of a dead remains can be determined by Cephalic index, Height index and Nasal index" Cephalic index also known as Breadth index is obtained by multiplying maximum transverse breadth by 100 and dividing it by maximum length of the skull. The breadth is the greatest diameter across the skull above the mastoid process. The length is measured between the glabella and the external occipital protuberance.
2
Sex
Race
Height
Stature
Forensic Medicine
null
392b9584-8199-4efc-a91f-e9e9740589b1
single
Structures resembling sample that is:
null
3
week old
Two week old
Three week old
Four week old
Dental
null
10db60d6-12a7-4040-b015-63b0df3b6615
single
The term MHC restriction refers to which of the following statements?
MHC class I- or class II-restriction means that T cells recognize antigen peptide fragments only when they are presented in the antigen-recognition site of a class I (for CD8+ T cells) or class II MHC molecule(for CD4+ T cells), respectively.
2
Inheritance of MHC molecules
Need for antigen to be recognized in association with MHC molecules
Need for MHC genes to control complement activity
Need for MHC molecules in order to reject grafts
Microbiology
null
8f04c40b-2890-48f4-b514-05d6020e3b0f
multi
A 70 year old male has a pathologic fracture of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from fracture site is most likely to show which of the following?
Malignant cells forming osteoid bone
2
Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia
Sheets of atypical plasma cells
Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma
Malignant cells forming osteoid bone
Pathology
null
38b2b950-d6e4-4e5d-be55-fe7cfe875396
single
An immunocompromised person presents to PGI with history of seizures had an MRI that revealed a temporal lobe lesion. Brain biopsy results showed multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. The most probable cause of the lesion is:
The most probable cause of the lesion is Herpes simplex virus. It causes primary and recurrent disease. Encephalitis, which usually involves the temporal lobe, has a high moality rate. Severe neurologic sequelae are seen in surviving patients. Giant multinucleated cells are typically found at the base of the Herpes virus lesion.
2
Hepatitis C virus
Herpes simplex virus
Listeria monocytogenes
Coxsackievirus
Microbiology
Virology (General Propeies, DNA Viruses)
a556fe9b-7342-4efd-859a-96f23cf5cf2d
single
Motor aphasia refers to defect in
In nonfluent aphasia, the lesion is in Broca area. Speech is slow, and words are hard to come by. Patients with severe damage to this area are limited to two or three words with which to express the whole range of meaning and emotion. Sometimes the words retained are those that were being spoken at the time of the injury or vascular accident that caused the aphasia.
2
Peripheral speech apparatus
Verbal expression
Auditory comprehension
Verbal comprehension
Physiology
Nervous system
45f371c8-e83d-4416-a6a1-da353d2fa092
single
Anti CD20 is
anti cd20 mabs: KD Tripathi 8th ed
4
Alemtuzumab
Bevacizumab
Gemtuzumab
Tositumomab
Pharmacology
Immunomodulators
371197bc-fb61-4bcf-9f93-0dc953dedfbb
single
What is the treatment of choice for myoclonic epilepsy in children -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sodium valporate DOC for myoclonic epilepsy is valproic acid.
3
Phenytoin
Phenobarbitone
Sodium valproate
Ethosuximide
Pharmacology
null
df8b23a7-68c2-4681-a9b6-0e81c5dd6f5d
single
Timolol is contraindicated in:
Ans. (C) COPD(Ref: KDT 8th/e p160-161)Timolol is a non-selective b -blocker. It can prevent b2 mediated bronchodilation and thus worsen the condition in patients of bronchial asthma and COPD.
3
Hypertension
Glaucoma
COPD
Aphakia
Pharmacology
Adrenergic System
bcf38b14-8ac2-48ad-bf6c-98c7edbc2911
single
Choose the appropriate lettered site or structure in the following radiograph of the wrist and hand. If the floor of the anatomic snuffbox and origin of the abductor pollicis brevis are damaged, which of the following bones is most likely to be involved?
(b) The scaphoid forms the floor of the anatomic snuffbox and provides a site for origin of the abductor pollicis brevis.
2
A
B
C
D
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
0d7ba3d6-d2bc-4f52-b094-f69c7d5c19fe
single
Chandu, a one year old child should be admitted in hospital for following complains except –
A sick child is classified as having Very severe Respiratory Disease U. he shows any of the following signs : ( 2 months to 5 years) : Not able to drink Convulsion Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake Stridor in a calm child. Severe malnutrition Also, the most important signs to consider if a child has pneumonia are  : Child's Respiratory Rate :          - Fast breathing is present when the R.R. is - 60 breaths/min or more in a child less than 2 months of age 50 breaths / min or more in a child aged 2 months to 12 months 40 breaths / min or more in a child aged 12 months to 15 years 2. Chest In-drawing : A child with very severe disease or with severe pneumonia needs to be referred urgently to the hospital. In the question above, child is 1 year of age, and hence, fever is not used as a criteria for classifying the disease as severe (which is used as a criteria in infants < 2 months of age) Also, respiratory rate of 50 here is significant in accordance with the age (for a child < 12 months old, it would have been normal).
3
Refusal of feed
Respiratory rate of 50 per minute with chest retraction
Fever 39°C
Difficulty in waking
Pediatrics
null
afc93a6c-ea2a-42a4-b410-5669d0c15ea5
multi
True about carotid body tumour is
null
4
Arises from Schwann cell
Causes hypertension
Arises from endothelial cell
None of the above
Surgery
null
e7186f78-ba44-42b3-93ba-579ba761b330
multi
Which pattern of enamel etching results in formation of honey comb appearance?
3 types of patten given in Sturdevant   Type 1 - dissolution of prism core-HONEY COMB APPEARANCE.   Type II – dissolution of prism periphery COBBLESTONE APPEARANCE.  Type III - less distinct pattern, mixture of 1 and 2.  Silverstone gave 5 types.  Type IV - pitted enamel as well as structures that look like unfinished puzzle,maps or network.  Type V - flat smooth surface.
1
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Dental
null
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single
Fatty acid oxidation occurs in:
null
3
Cytoplasm
Microsomes
Mitochondria
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
32bd0d34-5539-407c-b81a-93cfae961fc5
multi
All of the following are associated with increased aging, except
Cellular aging is the result of a progressive decline in the lifespan and functional capacity of cells. Several mechanisms are thought to be responsible for cellular aging areDNA damage. A variety of metabolic insults that accumulate over time may result in damage to nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.Decreased cellular replication.Defective protein homeostasis( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 26 )
2
Decreased cellular replication
Increased superoxide dismutase
Increased accumulation of free radicals
Accumulated mutation in somatic cells
Pathology
General pathology
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multi
Object permanence milestone develop at?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 9 month
2
6 months
9 months
12 months
15 months
Pediatrics
null
3b0f8f8f-99ca-4016-a08d-26264eb3daba
single
Depth of AC is:
Anterior chamber(AC) - space between the posterior surface of cornea & the Anterior surface of iris. Depth of anterior chamber is measure from center of cornea to center of pupil average 2.5mm shallow AC- in elderly women, hypermetropes deep AC in young males, myopes volume -0.25 to 0.3 ml BOTH AC AND PC CONTAINS AQEOUS HUMOUR Posterior chamber(PC) - space betwee the posterior suface of iris and anterior surface of lens. Anterior Segment - All structures anterior to Lens (Ant segment = AC +PC) Posterior Segment - all structures posterior to lens
1
2-3 mm
3-4 mm
4-5 mm
6-8 mm
Ophthalmology
Ocular Embryology& Anatomy
aa5a75c4-f31c-44cb-ae7c-0bef5850f6be
single
All of the following are causes of sudden painless loss of vision except:
Ans. Optic atrophy
2
Central retinal aery occlusion
Optic atrophy
Optic neuritis
Retinal detachment
Ophthalmology
null
44d02444-73e8-45f3-b6e0-6c7ce5b6ad11
multi
Which does not handle free radicals inside lens-
Emzymatic antioxidant mechanisms :- Reduced glutathioe (most impoant), glutathione peroxidase, superioxide dismutase, catalase. Non-enzymatic defence mechanisms :- Vitamin C, Vitamin E, and possibly carotenoids. Ref: Various textbooks.
1
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Catalase
Ophthalmology
Lens
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single
Tibial and common peroneal nerve supplies the muscle (FMGE Dec 2018)
Biceps femoris - hybrid muscle - have two nerves supply - Present in posterior compament (lateral) of thigh It has two heads Long head: 1. Originates from inferomedial pa of upper area of ischial tuberosity. 2. Innervated by sciatic nerve - common fibular division. Sho head: 1. Arise from lateral lip of Linea aspera on shaft of femur. 2. innervated by sciatic nerve - common fibular division. It flexes & laterally rotates leg at knee joint; Extends & laterally rotates thigh at hip joint Long head is a pa of hamstrings while sho head is not - gracilis, adductor longus, adductor magnus - belong to medial compament of thigh Muscle Origin Inseion Innervation Function * Gracilis A line on external surface of body of pubis, the inferior pubic ramus & ramus of ischium Medial surface of proximal shaft of tibia. Obturator nerve (L2, L3) Adducts thigh at hip joint & flexes leg at knee joint. * Adductor longus External surface of body of pubis (triangular depression inferior to pubic crest & lateral to pubic symphysis) Linea aspera on middle 1/3rd of shaft of femur Obturator nerve (anterior division L2, L3, L4) Adducts & medially rotates thigh at hip joint * Adductor magnus Ischiopubic ramus Ischial tuberosity Adductor pa - Posterior surface of proximal femur, Linea aspera, medial supracondylar line Hamstring pa - Adductor tubercle, medial supracondylar line Obturator N (L2, L3, L4) Sciatic N (tibial division) (L2, L3, L4) Adducts & medially rotates thigh at hip joint Extends thigh at hip joint.
2
Gracilis
Biceps femoris
Adductor longus
Adductor magnus
Anatomy
FMGE 2018
a2342190-0573-46b2-9a9a-1035d1070e8b
single
Which of following statements about extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs is FALSE?
(Ref: KDT 6/e p430, 431, 432) Extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotic drugs are due to blockade of dopamine receptors. These are less often seen with atypical anti-psychotics like clozapine and risperidone (and more often with classical drugs like haloperidol and chlorpromazine). These effects can be treated with central anticholinergic drugs like benztropine and trihexiphenidyl.
4
Caused by blockade of dopamine receptors
Less likely to be produced by clozapine than by chlorpromazine
Can be countered to some degree by antimuscarinic drugs
Haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal syndrome
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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multi
Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neck nodeo Presenting symptoms and sign of nasopharyngeal carcinoma in order of frequency are :-> Cervical lymphadenopathy (most common) (60-90%) > Hearing loss > Nasal obstruction > Epistaxis > Cranial nerve palsies. CN VI paralysis is the most common of theses > Headache > Earache > Neck pain > Weight loss,o Information in this question :i) Cervical adenopathy (Neck node) Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.ii) Type B tympanogram Indicates serous otitis media, which may be a complication of nasopharyngeal carcinoma due to eustachian tube blockade.o Thus, among the given options, nasopharyngeal carcinoma is the answer of choice.Clinical features of nasophary ngeal carcinomao Symptomatology of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is divided into five main groupsNasal symptomsNasal obstruction, nasal discharge, denasal speech (rhinolalia clausa), episiaxis.Otologic symptomsOtologic symptoms are due to obstruction of eustachian tube.This results in serous or suppurative otitis media. Which causes conductive deafness.Presence of unilateral serous otitis media in adult should raise the suspicion of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.Tinnitus and dizziness may occur.OphthalomoneuroLogical symptomsThese symptoms occur due to spread of tumor to the surrounding regions.Squint and diplopia due to involvement of VP cranial nerve.Ophthalmoplagia due to involvement of IIIrd. IVth &. VIth cranial nerve.Facial pain & reduced corneal sensations due to Vth nerve involvementExophthalmos and blindness due to direct extension into the orbit.Jugular foramen syndrome (IXth, Xth, XIth cranial nerve involvementj due to pressure by enlarged lateral retropharyngeal lymph nodes.Cranial nerve XIth involvement due to extension of growth to hypoglossal canal.Horner's syndrome due involvement of cervical sympathetic chain.Neckmass:-Itisthemnstcommonpresentation(60-90%)Due to cervical lymphadenopathy.Distant metastasisInvolve bone, lung, liver and other sites.
1
Neck node
Epistaxis
Hoarseness
Obstruction
ENT
Pharynx
35fba718-08e3-4547-a2a6-18dfd3dd1a9a
single
Evidence not used in rape-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Presence of smegma under prepuceExamination in a case of rapeA. Examination of victimo Victim cannot be examined without written informed consent. Informed written consent should be obtained if the age of victim is above 12 years. If she is less than 12 years of age or if she is mentally unsound, the written consent of parent'guardian should be taken (Sec. 90 IPC). Victim (female) should be examined by or under supervision of a female RMP (Sec. 53(2) CrPC).o Finding which are suggestive of rape are :- Signs of struggle on clothes (tear, blood, semen, mud etc}, body and genitals {abrasion, contusion, bites or nail marks etc).Presence of the semen in the vagina (proof of sexual intercourse).Presence of spermatozoa in the vagina.Locards principal of exchange states that whenever two bodies come in contact with each other, there is exchange of material between the two and so a criminal can be linked to crime. In case of rape, piece of cloth, button, hair, blood, saliva, semen or smegma from the accused may be found on the body of victim and conversly materials of victim may be found on the body of accused.Presence of smegma bacilli in vagina is suggestive of coitus.B. Examination of accusedo An accused can be examined even without his consent (Sec 53(A) CrPC). Findings may bePresence of torn frenulum is consistent with a recent intercourse.The presence of smegma under prepuce is inconsistent with recent intercoures as it gets rubbed off during sexual intercourse and may be deposited in vagina. It takes about 24 hours to accumulate. Thus, absence of smegma may indicate sexual intercourse, provided no bath is taken.Presence of vaginal epithelial cells on penis can be detected by lugol's iodine.
4
Semen in vagina
Semen on clothes
Presence of smega bacilli in vagina
Presence of smegma under prepuce
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
2a19aaff-e927-4542-a4a5-aa465c870ea8
single
Rectified spirit is NOT used as preservative in case of: WB 11; NEET 15
Ans. Phenol
1
Phenol
Cyanide
Insecticides
Alphos
Forensic Medicine
null
14b8649d-03e7-49fc-8e5b-d9e855abd07d
single
All of the following statements about injury to common peroneal nerve are true, except
COMMON PERONEAL NERVE:- Smaller terminal branch of sciatic nerve.Root value: dorsal division of ventral rami of L4,L5,S1,S2.Beginning: begins in back of thigh as a smaller subdivision of the sciatic nerve. Course: lies in upper lateral pa of popliteal fossa. It turns around the lateral surface of the fibula. Then it lies in the substance of peroneus longus muscle.Terminates by dividing into two terminal branches- superficial and deep peroneal. Commonest nerve to be paralyzed.Causes of injury:1. Fracture neck of fibula.2. Lathi injury on lateral side of knee joint.3. Due to plaster on leg.- nerve get compressed between hard plaster and neck of fibula. To prevent this cotton must be placed on the upper lateral side of the leg. Effects of injury:-1. Motor loss: dorsiflexors and eveors of foot affected. Results in foot drop. Foot is plantar flexed due to paralysis of muscle of anterior compament.2. Sensory loss: back of leg,lateral side of leg and dorsum of foot.3. Aicular loss: lateral side of knee joint. {Reference: BDC 6E pg no.176}
2
Commonly results from injury to the neck of fibula
Loss of sensations over sole of foot
Loss of toe dorsiflexion
Foot drop
Anatomy
Lower limb
ac594e96-055a-4bd2-81e2-2f629e591c94
multi
The structure connecting the posterior surface of lens to capsule is called-
Hyaloideocapsular ligament of Weiger or retrolental ligament is a strong adhesion between the lens and posterior capsule. It is a circular adhesion 8-9mm in diameter. This attachment is termed as Egger's Line. Within this circle is a potential space called as Space of Burger or Erggelet's space. Ref: Andres Bernal, Jean-Marie Parel, Fabrice Manns; Evidence for posterior zonular fiber attachment on the anterior hyaloid membrane; "Investigative Ophathal mology and Visual Science" 2006, 47, 4708-4713.
1
Hyaloideocapsular ligament of Weiger
Vitreous Base
Cloquets's Canal
Collagen fibres.
Ophthalmology
Lens
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multi
Fibrous ankylosis is caused by which of the following: March 2005
Ans. B: TB Ahritis
2
Septic ahritis
TB ahritis
Bechet's disease
Psoriatic ahritis
Surgery
null
19c66e9a-72ac-4a75-bed7-f3b6fb25d0bb
single
A 65-year-old male presented to the OPD with progressive dyspnea on exeion for 3 months. Patient records told that he had an episode of necrotizing pancreatitis along with ARDS in the past for which he was mechanically ventilated for a long time. Patient is a chronic smoker. On examination, low pitched inspiratory and expiratory wheeze is heard over mid-chest area. PFTs revealed, FEV1 is 78% of predicted. FEV1/FVC ratio is 60%. Flow volume curve is given. What is the most likely diagnosis in the above case: -
Subacute dyspnea, stridor and airway obstruction - consistent with diagnosis of subglottic stenosis - related to his prior prolonged mechanical ventilation. Flow volume curve loop is suggestive of fixed airflow obstruction.
2
COPD
Subglottic stenosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Unilateral vocal cord paralysis
Unknown
Integrated QBank
2a137fd1-d839-4a95-bdec-cd30f4943529
multi
Longest acting loop diuretic is :
Torsemide is the longest acting loop diuretic.
2
Furosemide
Torsemide
Bumetanide
Ethacrynic acid
Pharmacology
null
aa1274e7-52fa-439a-88a2-21f19e4298ff
single
When scaling and root planning, the primary objective of the procedure is to
null
4
Cause shrinkage of gingival tissue
Create glass - like root surfaces
Remove all cementum
Restore the gingival tissue to health
Dental
null
47aae229-e982-44b2-baea-aae8c9da88f4
multi
Which of the following is not a crime:
Ans. (c) Incest * Incest is Sexual intercourse with close relative. It is not considered as crime in India. * Other acts like rape and indecent actions are considered as crime in India and are punished as and according to law. # Rape: punished under IPC 376 # Adultery: under IPC 497 - now not a Crime in India # Sodomy or any other un-natural sexual activity: punished under IPC 377- now not a Crime in India # Grievous hurt or Indecent assault: punished under IPC 320.
3
Rape
Child Abuse
Incest
Indecent Assault
Unknown
null
fa04418c-ea25-4d8d-ace6-89eb6522082c
single
The most common cause of epistaxis in a 3 years old child -
Friends – I know some of you must be thinking foreign body as the answer but it is not the most common cause. M/C cause of epistaxis in children is idiopathic. 2nd M/C cause of epistaxis in children is
3
Nasal polyp
Foreign body
Upper respiratory catarrh
Atrophic rhinitis
ENT
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single
Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of Ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to-
*Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerve and involvement of Ophthalmic division of 5th nerve -> cavernous sinus thrombosis. *Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerve, Ophthalmic division of 5th nerve plus optic nerve signs -> orbital apex syndrome. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.428
1
Cavernous sinus
Apex of orbit
Brainstem
Base of skull
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
1c0d64de-c0b0-4719-908b-9d6b19b835b7
single
Investigation of choice for evaluation of upper abdominal trauma
Initial investigation in abdominal trauma is FAST (USG) IOC in Abdominal Trauma - CECT
2
USG
CT
SCINTIGRAPHY
MRI
Radiology
Gastrointestinal Radiology
721cba3b-6106-49b1-9787-f32caf2941ef
single
Transpulmonary pressure is difference between?
ANSWER: (B) pressure in alveoli and intrapleural pressureREF: Ganong 22nd ed p. 648Transpulmonary pressure is a term used to describe the difference between the alveolar pressure and the intrapleural pressure in the lungs. During human ventilation, air flows because of pressure gradient
2
The bronchus and atmospheric pressure
Pressure in alveoli and intrapleural pressure
Atmosphere and intrapleural pressure
Atmosphere and intraalveolar pressure
Physiology
Functional Anatomy - Respiratory System
621d4a9c-d855-444e-9ff9-408550e920c8
single
Which of the following is a subcutaneous muscle?
Palmaris brevisREF: Gray's anatomy 39th edition p. 919Subcutaneous muscles of body are:1. Platysma 2. Palmaris brevis 3. Daos muscle 4. Facial muscles
4
Sternocleidomastoid
Mylohyoid
Palmaris longus
Palmaris brevis
Anatomy
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single
Coxsackie A virus does not cause -
null
3
Herpangina
Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFM)
Laryngotracheobronchitis
Aseptic meningitis
Microbiology
null
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single
Cause of death in Acute rheumatic fever is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Endocarditis
3
Pericarditis
Myocarditis
Endocarditis
Streptococcal sepsis
Pediatrics
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1b155ed1-5ed7-4d83-9b0f-c0a965274192
single
The source of endogenous radiation is
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Potassium o Radiation is pa of man's environment.
2
Radon
Potassium
Thorium
Uranium
Social & Preventive Medicine
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single
Lens used in Astigmatism:
Ans. (b) CylindricalRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 142-423* Astigmatism is a common eye condition that's easily corrected by eyeglasses, contact lenses, or surgery.* It is caused by an eye that is not completely round. It is a type of refractive error.* Cause: Astigmatism is a natural and commonly occurring cause of blurred or distorted vision. The exact cause in not known.* Symptom: Blurring of vision which can be associated with fatigue and eyestrain.*The cylindrical lens is used for the management of astigmatism.Also, Know* Myopics are said to be short-sighted. Concave lenses are used in myopics* A convex lens is used in hypermetropic.
2
Convex lens
Cylindrical
Concave lens
Contact lens
Unknown
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single
Triple surgery in glaucoma includes all of the following except -
Answer- C. Inseion of drainage deviceTRABECULECTOMYECCEPCIOL INSEION
3
Trabaculectomy
PCIOL implantation
Inseion of drainage device
Extra capsular cataract extraction
Ophthalmology
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8f4d5193-a8fa-46bd-b27d-a805d90ef868
multi
Laser welding
Laser welding of titanium has facilitated repair of titanium frameworks because of the low thermal conductivity of titanium and localized heating during laser welding. Laser welding in an argon gas atmosphere is a method of choice for joining titanium components of dental prostheses, because the coherent, high-intensity laser pulse of light can be focused in a small region and melt the substrate without extensive microstructural damage to the surrounding areas. Ref: Phillip’s 12th edition page 386, 392
2
Involves high heat generation
Can be done with pure Titanium
Is not used in dentistry
Can be done with pure gold
Dental
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