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A 52-year-old man complains of pain in his back and fatigue for 6 months. He admits to polyuria and polydipsia. An X-ray film of the upper torso reveals numerous lytic lesions in the lumbar vertebral bodies. Laboratory studies show hypoalbuminemia and mild anemia and thrombocytopenia. A monoclonal immunoglobulin peak is demonstrated by serum electrophoresis, and a bone marrow aspiration demonstrates numerous atypical plasma cells. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria. A renal biopsy in this patient would most likely show deposits of which of the following amyloid precursor proteins?
|
AL amyloid usually consists of the variable region of immunoglobulin light chains and can be derived from either the kappa (k) or lambda (l) moieties. Since the light chains produced by the neoplastic cells in plasma cell dyscrasias are unique to each patient, AL amyloid isolated from different persons differs in its amino acid sequence. AL protein is common to primary amyloidosis and amyloidosis associated with multiple myeloma, B-cell lymphomas, or other plasma cell dyscrasias. Multiple myeloma is accompanied by amyloidosis in 10% to 15% of cases. The other choices do not involve immunoglobulins.Diagnosis: Multiple myeloma
| 4 |
Amylin
|
Apo serum amyloid A
|
Fibrinogen
|
Immunoglobulin light chain
|
Pathology
|
Immunity
|
ecfe3e9b-1d7c-41ec-b6e7-f7ac176275b4
|
single
|
Which of the following inhalation anaesthetics should be avoided in middle ear surgery when tympanic grafts are used:
|
Nitrous oxide
| 2 |
Halothane
|
Nitrous oxide
|
Ether
|
Isoflurane
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
fd18874e-fb9f-4522-a0f4-9d80c4b532c9
|
single
|
Which of the following antiglaucoma drugs can result in this adverse effect?
|
Ans. (B) LatanoprostThe image shows overgrowth of eyelashes, It is also known as hyper trichosis. It is an adverse effect of PFG2a analogs like latanoprost.
| 2 |
Apraclonidine
|
Latanoprost
|
Pilocarpine
|
Dipivefrine
|
Pharmacology
|
A.N.S.
|
31baad9a-7070-4246-be7d-0a4d218abb03
|
single
|
Which is the commonest childhood tumor -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., ALL
| 1 |
ALL
|
CLL
|
AML
|
CML
|
Pediatrics
| null |
e2e01699-b4b3-48fc-9d27-9cc2ddc50b0e
|
multi
|
Incremental lines of Salter are found closer in:
| null | 3 |
Cellular cementum.
|
Mixed fibers cementum.
|
Acellular cementum.
|
All of the above.
|
Dental
| null |
f5f7c813-6c37-4749-8bc3-45630e30c7da
|
multi
|
All of the following are good prognostic factors for childhood. All except -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pre B-Cell ALL o Pre B cell ALL has poor prognosis.
| 3 |
Hyperdiploidy
|
Female sex
|
Pre B cell ALL
|
All
|
Pediatrics
| null |
c3e57964-2260-4784-8434-b58ea636b9ce
|
multi
|
X-ray sign of pneumoperitoneum is
|
Rigler's sign - bowel wall outlined by intraluminal and free peritoneal gas.
| 3 |
Seagull sign
|
Prehn sign
|
Rigler's sign
|
Golden 'S' sign
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
b1c30d64-2f57-4d8a-a4f4-396c3a501363
|
single
|
According to federation dental lower left canine is designated as-
|
According to FDI, left lower canine is designated as 33. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology ,29 th edition Chapter4.page no -60
| 2 |
32
|
33
|
42
|
43
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Identification
|
48f1f19d-fcd2-4304-9223-64d395ccb7d6
|
single
|
A 48-year-old woman develops constipation postoperatively and self-medicates with milk of magnesia. She presents to clinic, at which time her serum electrolytes are checked, and she is noted to have an elevated serum magnesium level. Which of the following represents the earliest clinical indication of hypermagnesemia?
|
The earliest clinical indication of hypermagnesemia is loss of deep tendon reflexes. States of magnesium excess are characterized by generalized neuromuscular depression. Clinically, severe hypermagnesemia is rarely seen except in those patients with advanced renal failure treated with magnesium-containing antacids. However, hypermagnesemia is produced intentionally by obstetricians who use parenteral magnesium sulfate (MgSO4 ) to treat preeclampsia. MgSO4 is administered until depression of the deep tendon reflexes is observed, a deficit that occurs with modest hypermagnesemia (over 4 mEq/L). Greater elevations of magnesium produce progressive weakness, which culminates in flaccid quadriplegia and in some cases respiratory arrest due to paralysis of the chest bellows mechanism. Hypotension may occur because of the direct aeriolar relaxing effect of magnesium. Changes in mental status occur in the late stages of the syndrome and are characterized by somnolence that progresses to coma.
| 1 |
Loss of deep tendon reflexes
|
Flaccid paralysis
|
Respiratory arrest
|
Hypotension
|
Anaesthesia
|
Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia
|
343f2883-d638-44b3-9d93-d755766d9a72
|
single
|
A 45-years-old lady complains of contact bleeding. She has positive pap smear. The next line of management is:
|
Ans. is a, i.e. Colposcopy directed biopsyThere are 2 situations in questionWherever a female comes with post coital bleeding(This is a specific complain for Ca cervix)|Do a per speculum examination|||Growth is visibleNothing visible||Punch biopsyColposcopy(ii) When a female comes to you with abnormal pap smear.In LSIL: Endocervical curettage is optionalIn HSIL = Endocervical curettage is mandatory.
| 1 |
Colposcopy directed biopsy
|
Cone biopsy
|
Repeat pap smear
|
Hysterectomy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Carcinoma Cervix
|
d9bed2c7-d1d1-4d4f-ac88-37257cea57fb
|
single
|
Conventional dental amalgam alloy contains:
| null | 1 |
Silver, tin, copper and zinc
|
Silver, mercury, copper and zinc
|
Silver, tin, palladium and zinc
|
Silver, copper, iridium and mercury
|
Dental
| null |
47de57f5-e687-4af9-ba8d-4f56e14d966a
|
multi
|
Nerve supply of Trapezius
|
TRAPEZIUS: Origin: medial 1/3 rd of superior nuchal line., ligamentum nuchae, external occipital protuberance and spines of C7-T12 veebrae. Inseion:-lateral 1/3rd of clavicle., medial margin of acromion,superior margin of spine of scapula. Nerve supply: spinal accessory( motor),C3,C4 spinal nerves ( proprioceptive). Action:- upper fibres elevate scapula,'middle fibres retract ,and lower fibres depress scapula. {Reference: vishram singh, pg no. 72}
| 1 |
Spinal accessory nerve
|
Hypoglossal nerve
|
Trochlear nerve
|
Trigeminal nerve
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb
|
080b8b82-9b28-4b6a-9e53-54dc0151ba88
|
single
|
In a patient with massive thromboembolism with hypotension after a fluid bolus of 1 L, the patient’s blood pressure remains low at 88/50 mmHg.Echocardiogram demonstrates hypokinesis of the right ventricle.What is the next best step in management of this patient?
|
This patient is presenting with massive pulmonary embolus with ongoing hypotension, right ventricular dysfunction, and profound hypoxemia requiring 100% oxygen.
In this setting, continuing with anticoagulation alone is inadequate, and the patient should receive circulatory support with fibrinolysis, if there are no contraindications to therapy.
The major contraindications to fibrinolysis include hypertension >180/110 mmHg, known intracranial disease or prior hemorrhagic stroke, recent surgery, or trauma.
The recommended fibrinolytic regimen is recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rTPA), 100 mg IV over 2 h.
Heparin should be continued with the fibrinolytic to prevent a rebound hypercoagulable state with dissolution of the clot.
There is a 10% risk of major bleeding with fibrinolytic therapy with a 1–3% risk of intracranial hemorrhage. The only indication for fibrinolysis in pulmonary embolus (PE) is for massive PE presenting with life-threatening hypotension, right ventricular dysfunction, and refractory hypoxemia.
In submassive PE presenting with preserved blood pressure and evidence of right ventricular dysfunction on echocardiogram, the decision to pursue fibrinolysis is made on a case-by-case situation. In addition to fibrinolysis, the patient should also receive circulatory support with vasopressors.
Dopamine and dobutamine are the vasopressors of choice for the treatment of shock in PE. Caution should be taken with ongoing high-volume fluid administration as a poorly functioning right ventricle may be poorly tolerant of additional fluids.
Ongoing fluids may worsen right ventricular ischemia and further dilate the right ventricle, displacing the interventricular septum to the left to worsen cardiac output and hypotension. If the patient had contraindications to fibrinolysis and was unable to be stabilized with vasopressor support, referral for surgical embolectomy should be considered.
Referral for inferior vena cava filter placement is not indicated at this time. The patient should be stabilized hemodynamically as a first priority.
The indications for inferior vena cava filter placement are active bleeding, precluding anticoagulation, and recurrent deep venous thrombosis on adequate anticoagulation.
| 1 |
Treat with dopamine and recombinant tissue plasminogen activator, 100 mg IV
|
Continue IV fluids at 500 mL/hr for a total of 4 L of fluid resuscitation.
|
Refer for inferior vena cava filter placement and continue current management.
|
Refer for surgical embolectomy.
|
Unknown
| null |
574658f2-c4b0-4caa-93f5-27a62b5db445
|
multi
|
Fracture treatment can be described as:
a. Reduction
b. Retention
c. Rehabilitation
d. Reunion.
|
Fracture treatment can be best described as Reduction, Retention, Rehabilitation.
| 1 |
A, B, C
|
A, C, D
|
A, B, D
|
B, C, D
|
Surgery
| null |
1a6d5cce-9a6d-43cc-927f-f8f0064de127
|
single
|
A normal child develops the ability to use 10 words with meaning at the age of
|
<p>. Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 months:Remain on forearm suppo if put in prone position, lifting the upper pa of the body off the bed. 5 months: Rolls over. 6 months:sit in tripod fashion. 8 months: sits without suppo., crawling 9 months: Takes a few steps with one hand held. Pulls to standing and cruises holding on to furniture by 10 months. 10 months: creeps 12 months:creeps well, walk but falls, stand without suppo. 15 months: walks well, walks backward/ sideways pulling a toy. May crawl upstairs. 18 months: Runs, walks upstair with one hand held. Explores drawers 2 years: walk up and downstairs, jumps. 3 years : rides tricycle, alternate feet going upstairs. 4 years: hops on one foot, alternate feet going downstairs. 5 years:skips FINE MOTOR DEVELOPMENT:- 2 months- eyes follow objects to 180 deg. 3 months-Grasp reflex disappears and hand is open most of the time. 4 months- Bidextrous approach( reaching out for objects with both hands). 6 months- Unidextrous approach( Reach for an object with one hand). 8 months- radial grasp sta to develop. Turns to sound above the level of ear. 9 months- immature pincer grasp, probes with forefinger. 12 months-Unassisted pincer grasp. Releases object on request.Uses objects predominantly for playing, not for mouthing. Holds block on each hand and bang them together. 15 months- imitate scribbling , tower of two blocks 18 months- scribbles, tower of 3 blocks.turn pages of a book, 2-3 at a time. 2 years- tower of 6 blocks, veical and circular stroke. 3 years-Tower of 9 blocks, dressing and undressing with some help, can do buttoning. 4 years- copies cross, bridge with blocks 5 years- copies triangle, gate with blocks. SOCIAL AND ADAPTIVE MILESTONES: 2 months: social smile(smile after being talked to).watches mother when spoken to and may smile. 3 months:Recognizes mother, anticipates feeds. 4 months: Holds rattle when placed in hand and regards it . Laughs aloud. Excited at the sight of food. 6 months:recognizes strangers, stranger anxiety . Enjoy watching own image in mirror, shows displeasure when toy pulled off. 9 months:waves bye bye 12 months:comes when called, plays simple ball game.kisses the parent on request. Makes postural adjustments for dressing. 15 months:jargon, stas imitating mother. 18 months: copies parents in tasking, dry by day, calls mother when he wants potty, points to three pas of body on request. 2 years: ask for food, drink, toilet, pulls people to show toys. 3 years:shares toys, know fullname and gender, dry by night. 4 years:Plays cooperatively in a group, goes to toilet alone, washes face, brushes teeth. Role play . 5 years:helps in household task , dresses and undresses. LANGUAGE MILESTONES: 1 month: Ales to sound. 2 month:respond to sound by stale or quitening to a smooth voice. 3 months: babbles when spoken to. Makes sounds (ahh,coos, ) laughs. 4 months: laughs aloud. 6 months: monosyllables 9 months: understands spoken words, bisyllables. 12 months: 1-2 words with meaning. 18 months: vocabulary of 10 words. Can name one pa of body. 2 years: 3 word simple sentences 3 years:asks questions, knows full name and gender. 4 years: says songs or poem, tells story, knows three colours. 5 years: ask meaning of words. {Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, eighth edition}
| 3 |
12 months
|
15 months
|
18 months
|
24 months
|
Pediatrics
|
Growth and development
|
75b19c75-01aa-48c2-9ad1-88e773e69ecd
|
single
|
Which of the following is seen in high altitude climbersa) Hyperventilationb) Decreased PaCO2c) Pulmonary edemad) Hypertensione) Bradycardia
|
At high altitude, there can be acute changes and changes due to acclimatization.
- Acute mountain sickness
Dyspnoea, dizziness, tiredness, tachycardia, palpitation, nausea, vomiting etc.
At higher altitudes- pulmonary oedema and cerebral oedema may occur.
- Acclimatization changes
Hyperventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis
Increased 2,3DPG- Hb-O2 dissociation curve shifts to right.
Increased erythropoietin leading to absolute polycythemia with increased red cell mass.
Increased renal excretion of bicarbonate
Increased tissue vascularity
Increased oxidative metabolism
Increased diffusion capacity of the lung
Increased myoglobin
| 2 |
ab
|
abc
|
acd
|
bcd
|
Physiology
| null |
f1ae73c5-b6ec-49a0-82ae-d6b57674d80d
|
single
|
Most important amino acid which acts as methyl group donor-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Methionineo Methionine is activated into S-adenosylmethionine, which then transfers its methyl group to an acceptor. Thus methionine acts as methyl donor in transmethylation reactions.o Some of the important transmethylation reactions are-i) Norepinephrine - Epinephrineii) Phosphatidylethanolamine - Phosphatidylcholineiii) Gunaidoacetate - Creatineiv) Ethanolamine - Cholinev) Acetyl serotonin - Serotoninvi) Nucleotides - methylated nucleotides
| 2 |
Cysteine
|
Methionine
|
Tyrosine
|
Tryptophan
|
Biochemistry
|
Amino Acids Basics
|
386889d1-1830-4ec5-aebd-e6ef35150dbb
|
single
|
All of the following associated with extraocular muscles weakness except
|
In thyrotoxicosis, there is fibrosis of muscle. I. E restrictive myopathy Refer khurana 6/e p 420
| 4 |
Fisher syndrome
|
Myasthenia gravis
|
Eaton Lambe syndrome
|
Thyrotoxicosis
|
Ophthalmology
|
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
|
7f52abec-4bdf-41bc-9b20-6673b3518ae3
|
multi
|
Most common nerve injured during thyroidectomy
|
MC injured nerve - External branch of superior laryngeal nerve (aka External laryngeal nerve)
| 1 |
External laryngeal nerve
|
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
|
Vagus nerve
|
Facial nerve
|
Surgery
|
Thyroid
|
d27b71e0-8917-4bab-8cfb-b3d76fea6e2b
|
single
|
The main sites for oxidative deamination are:
|
Only liver mitochondria contain glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH) which deaminates glutamate to alpha keto glutarate plus ammonia.
The hydrolysis of glutamine also yields NH3 but this occurs mainly in the kidney where the NH4+ excretion is required for acid-base regulation.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 202
| 1 |
Liver and kidney
|
Skin and pancreas
|
Intestine and mammary gland
|
Lung and spleen
|
Biochemistry
| null |
005bdeb0-9bef-49f4-b1eb-9d148d65519a
|
single
|
Best management of vault prolapse is:
|
Vault Prolapse:
It is a long complication of hysterectomy and refers to prolapse of the vaginal stump left behind after performing hysterectomy.
Management
Patient is fit for abdominal surgery
↓
Trans abdominal sacral colpopexy
(Mesh is attached to the vault and sacral promontory).
It is the gold standard surgery for vault prolapse
Management
In obese, elderly patients, not fit for abdominal surgery
↓
Transvaginal sacrospinous ligament fixation/colpopexy can be done.
| 1 |
Sacral colpopexy
|
Sacrospinous ligament fixation
|
Le forts repair
|
Anterior colporapphy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
1c040831-5303-457c-937d-f5b9d1245031
|
single
|
b -blockers are used in all except?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Variant angina We all know that attacks of variant angina occur due to coronary vasospasm. So, the drugs which relieve coronary vasospasms will be used in variant angina (C.C.B.'s, Nitrates) b blockers are contraindicated in these patients because 13 blockers, instead of dilating the coronary aeries constrict the coronary aeries (due to unopposed a mediated constriction). Remember, blockers are useful in classical angina. (They cause ourable redistribution of blood)
| 3 |
Hypeension
|
Thyrotoxicosis
|
Variant angina
|
All of the above
|
Pharmacology
| null |
8f6c2f07-29bc-4888-8573-8645cd250cee
|
multi
|
All are features of pagets disease except -
|
Answer- B. Common in femalesPaget's disease is stightly more common in males and is seen after 40 years of age,The pelvic and tibia being the commonest sites, and femur, skull, spine (veebtae) anil clavicle the next common.Deafness and osteosarcoma (rarely) are complications of Paget's disease.\\Primary defect is in osteoclasts
| 2 |
Defect in osteoclasts
|
Common in females
|
Can cause deafness
|
Can cause osteosarcoma
|
Surgery
| null |
16b04a63-23f5-4b4c-96f5-a93fa4f044d7
|
multi
|
Which stain is used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae ?
|
Ans. is b' i.e., AlbeThe diphtheria bacillus was first observed and described by Klebs (1883) but was first cultivated by Loeffler (1884).Therefore, it is known as Klebs - Loeffler bacillus (KLB).Corynebacterium diphtheria is gram positive slender rod (bacilli) which is noncapsulated and non-motile.The bacilli are arranged in a characteristic fashion in smears, being at various angles to each other, resembling the letter V or L Chinese letter or .nneiform arrangement. There is chracteristic 'Clubbed appearance'.Characteristic feature is irregular staining due to presence of granules, called Babes Ernest or volutin granules. These granules are also called metachromatic granules or polar bodies.
| 2 |
Geimsa
|
Albe
|
PAS
|
India ink
|
Microbiology
| null |
4596c72b-6caf-4146-a15b-065a144fbac4
|
single
|
Cells charcteristic of Hodgkin's disease are-
|
<p>The classical diagnostic feature of Hodgkin's disease is the presence of Reed -Sternberg cell.Classic RS cell is characterised by
bilobed nucleus appearing as mirror image of each other, each nucleus contains a prominent , eosinophilic, inclusion like nucleolus with a clear halo around it,
giving it an owleye appearance .
| 2 |
Lacunar cells
|
Reed - Sternberg cells
|
Giantcells
|
Eosiphils
|
Pathology
| null |
7b5d89f9-f8de-46f8-aafe-c10e81eb28c3
|
single
|
Anorchia best diagnosed by:
|
Ans. Laparoscopy
| 4 |
USG
|
SPECT
|
CT
|
Laparoscopy
|
Radiology
| null |
cb3d0d81-8970-4255-9093-8820ad2e2413
|
single
|
Potassium Channel Openers are following except
|
Ans, d (Amiodarone) (Ref. KDT 6th/534)Drugs acting on potassium channelPotassium channel openersPotassium channel blockersAmiodarone (blocks myocardial delayed rectifier K+channels)OldNovel MinoxidilNicorandilQ DiazoxidePinacidil0Cromakalim Antiarrhythmics-- K+ channel blockers (class III) - Amiodarone. Ibutilide, Dofetilide, Sotalol.# MECHANISM: | AP duration,| ERP. Used when other antiarrhythmics fail.| QT interval.# C1INICA1 uSE: Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter; ventricular tachycardia (amiodarone, sotalol).# TOXICITY: Sotalol--torsades de pointes, excessive a blockade. Ibutilide--torsades de pointes. Amiodarone--pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hypothyroidism/ hyperthyroidism (amiodarone is 40% iodine by weight), corneal deposits, skin deposits (blue/gray) resulting in photodermatitis, neurologic effects, constipation, cardiovascular effects (bradycardia, heart block, CHF).Certain drugs modulate opening and closing of the channels, e.g.# Quinidineblocks myocardial Na+ channels.# Dofetilide & amiodaroneblock myocardial delayed rectifier K+ channel.# Nifedipineblocks L-type of voltage sensitive Ca2+channel.# Nicorandilopens ATP-sensitive K+ channels.# Sulfonylureasinhibit pancreatic ATP-sensitive K+ channels.# Amilorideinhibits renal epithelial Na+ channels.# Phenytoinmodulates (prolongs the inacti vated state of) voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel.# Ethosuximideinhibits T-type of Ca2* channels in thalamic neurones
| 4 |
Pinacidil
|
Diazoxide
|
Nicorandil
|
Amiodarone
|
Pharmacology
|
C.V.S
|
4117af7f-1491-48e1-8446-9d33b2fc252d
|
multi
|
SSPE is a complication of:
|
SSPE (Sub sclerosing panencephalitis) is a late complication of measles (10 -15 yrs ) of infection. Measles - family - Paramyxoviridae. Characteristic features: Koplik spots | Present opposite lower second molar SAR- 85% (secondary attack rate) Infectivity period of measles: | 4 days before-Rash-5days after Isolation period of measles. | Prodromal stage features ------(upto)----- 3rd day of rash Incubation period of measles -10-14 days Fever - Koplik spot - Rash (Occur on 10th day) (12th day) (14th day) Note:- Measles is also known as Rubeola. Vaccine of measles is given by subcutaneous route & diluent used is distilled water.
| 1 |
Measles
|
Mumps
|
Rubella
|
Rabies
|
Microbiology
|
Virology (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
|
d44f6268-dbe4-4bd6-8ba1-bcd62e86d01e
|
single
|
Transpulmonary pressure is the difference between:
|
Transpulmonary pressure is the pressure difference between alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure. Before the sta of inspiration or at the end of expiration it is about +5cm H2O. Positive transpulmonary pressure keeps the alveoli open. Intrapleural pressure is the pressure between two layers of pleura. It is about -5cm H2O before the sta of inspiration or at the end of expiration. Alveolar pressure is the pressure within the terminal air spaces. It is the sum of pleural pressure and elastic recoil pressure of the lung. It is atmospheric before the sta of inspiration or at the end of expiration. Transthoracic pressure is the pressure difference between alveolar pressure and pressure at the body surface. Ref: Guyton 12th Ed.
| 2 |
The bronchus and atmospheric pressure
|
Pressure in alveoli and intrapleural pressure
|
Atmosphere and intrapleural pressure
|
Atmosphere and intraalveolar pressure
|
Physiology
|
All India exam
|
080c9200-a78f-4a95-b421-85462738d4f9
|
single
|
NK cells have which CD marker ?-
|
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *NK cells comprises about 10 to 60 % of circulating lymphocytes. These lymphocytes do not have B or T cell marker.NK cell carries surface molecule of CD2, CD16, CD56 but negative for T cell marker CD3
| 2 |
CD 3
|
CD 56
|
CD 19
|
CD 13
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
eee79434-1b9d-431f-9903-4b9bb5f26b79
|
single
|
Group of 4-8 expes talking in front of a large group of audience is known as: September 2011
|
Ans. D: Panel Discussion In a panel discussion, 4-8 persons who are qualified to talk about the topic sit and discuss a given problem, or the topic, in front of a large group of audience Panel Discussion A panel consists of a small group of four or eight persons, who carry on a guided and informal discussion before an audience as if the panel were meeting alone. The proceedings of the panel should be the same as those described for informal discussion: volunteering of facts, asking questions, stating opinions-all expressed with geniality, with respect for the contributions of other members, without speech making, and without making invidious personal references. This primary function should occupy approximately two-thirds of the allotted time-say foy minutes of an hour's meeting. The secondary function of the panel is to answer questions from the audience. This discussion method is suitable for use when a relatively large audience is anticipated. The disadvantage of the method is that it confines most of the discussion to the panel itself. The audience listens and is given a chance to ask questions, but for the most pa is passive and receptive. Panel discussions, if well conducted, are usually more interesting to the audience than is the single-speaker forum. They provide sufficiently varied clash of opinion and presentation of facts to give even the quiet members of the audience a feeling of vicarious paicipation. Quality and tasks of leadership in panel discussion are similar to those described for informal discussion. The leader must in addition take special care to select panel members who can think and speak effectively. He must also be sure that they prepare themselves to discuss the subject. During the discussion by the panel the leader has substantially the same duties as in informal discussion except that he should keep himself more in the background as chairman of the panel. He can do so because each member of the panel is in reality an assistant to the leader and is responsible for specific contributions to the proceedings. When the subject is thrown open to the house, it is the leader's job to recognize appropriate questions and to reject those not bearing on the subject or involving personalities. Some questions he may answer himself, but usually he should repeat the question and call upon one of the panel to answer it. By preliminary announcement the leader may also tell the audience that they may direct questions at paicular members of the panel if they choose. In any case, during the question period the leader needs to maintain strict control.On many occasions this may be the toughest pa of his assignment to carry off efficiently and with good humor. While it is customary to confine audience questions to a specific period, some leaders permit questions from the floor at any time. Unless very carefully limited by the leader, this practice may interfere with effective discussion by the panel. Arranging the panel properly will lend effectiveness to this form of discussion.The members should face the audience.It is impoant that each panel member adjust his chair so that he can see every other member without effo the chairman will also find that the best places for his readiest speakers are at the extreme ends of the table.He should keep the more reticent members close to, him so that he can readily draw them out with direct questions. If the quieter ones sit on the fringes of the panel, the more voluble members are quite likely to monopolize the discussion.
| 4 |
Symposium
|
Workshop
|
Seminar
|
Panel discussion
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
a47a3015-0cbc-483f-a7f1-96ba927f04b4
|
single
|
A 35-year-old man developed a brown pigmentation on the face after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for fever, joint pain and malaise. What is the diagnosis?
|
ANS. C* The image shows a hyperpigmented lesion, and with the history of drug intake, the diagnosis is fixed drug eruption.Close differentials of hyperpigmented lesions in faceMelasma (brown pigmentation in face)
| 3 |
Dengue fever
|
Chikungunya
|
Fixed drug eruption
|
Melasma
|
Skin
|
Autoimmune Skin Disorders
|
93c9458d-0f66-414c-ba60-544bf77370fb
|
single
|
Clearance-
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Clearance of a drug is the theoretical volume of plasma from which the drug is completely removed in unit time,o It refers to efficacy of elimination of a drug:Clearance =Rate of eliminationPlasma concentrationo As drug is to be removed from plasma in unit time, clearance can not be greater than blood flow to an organ.o Steady state plasma concentration is determined by t 1/2 . t 1/2 is dependent on clearance :154=0-693 xVCLSo, clearance determines the steady state plasma concentration.
| 4 |
Refers to the efficacy of elimination of a drug by an organ or whole body
|
Cannot be greater than blood flow to an organ
|
Determines the steady of the drug concentration
|
All the above
|
Pharmacology
|
Pharmacokinetics
|
911ce36e-46d0-44bc-a41b-301cfe272830
|
multi
|
Which of the following fracture needs a force?
|
"Fractures of first two or three ribs and of the clavicle indicate a violent trauma since they are thicker and well protected by the thoracic muscle".................................. Essentials of orthopedics
Fracture neck femur, IT fracture and colle's fracture are more common in old age and with trivial injury.
Important fractures caused by violent trauma are :- Clavicle, fracture shaft femur, subtrochanteric femur fracture, fracture shaft tibia, cervical and lumbar spine fractures.
| 3 |
Fracture Neck of femur
|
Intertrochanteric fracture
|
Clavicle fracture
|
Colles fracture
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
9803507d-6ebc-4f05-9487-f2d453ee71c3
|
single
|
In celiac disease A/E -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Associated with HLAB8
| 2 |
Gliadin is cause
|
Associated with HLA-B8
|
Decreased villi to crypt ratio
|
Increased brush border
|
Pediatrics
| null |
afba485b-fee8-4433-9d9f-fa57ce57393c
|
single
|
EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following, except :
|
Answer is B (Locked in state): `Normal a- activity on the EEG in a patient of coma ales the clinician to the locked in syndrome or to hysteria or catatonia.' - Harrison 16th/1629 All conditions other than the 'locked in state' present characteristic EEG patterns. EEG Characteristic; Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) Creutzfoldt Jackob disease (CJD) Hepatic encephalopathy Characteristic periodic pattern with bursts Characteristic stereotype periodic bursts of < 200 Characteristic Symmetric every 3 to 8 seconds of high voltage, sharp ms duration occurring every I to 2 sec. Makes the high voltage triphasic slow slow waves followed by periods of attenuated diagnosis of CJD very likely wave infrontal region (falt) background (Repetitive high voltage, triphasic and polyphasic sharp discharges are seen in most advanced cases) Locked in state : This represents a pseudocoma in which an awake patient has no means of producing speech or volitional movement in order to indicate that he awake Patient may signal with veical eye movement and lid elevation which remain unimpaired. It usually results from infarction or haemorrhage of the ventral pons which transects all descending coicospinal and coicobulbar pathways. EEG is normal
| 2 |
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
|
Locked - in state.
|
Creutzfoldt - Jackob disease
|
Hepatic encephalopathy
|
Medicine
| null |
9dd354bc-e91d-434c-8c63-53c048f6fc4d
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multi
|
Fall on outstretched hand leads to fracture of the following bones
|
Clavicle is commonly fractured by falling on the outstretched hand (indirect violence). The most common site of fracture is the junction between the two curvatures of the bone, which is the weakest point. The lateral fragment is displaced downwards by the weight of the limb as trapezius muscle alone is unable to suppo the weight of upper limb. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 8
| 1 |
Scaphoid bone, capitate and clavicle
|
Scaphoid, clavicle
|
Head of Ulna
|
Radial styloid process
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb
|
47dc2bda-10f8-4cd1-b1b1-43ef7af98154
|
multi
|
The intake of Iodine in to the Thyroid Gland is an example of which of the followings means of molecular transpo?
|
Secondary active transpo or co-transpo, uses energy to transpo molecules across a membrane against a concentration/electrochemical gradient.In contrast to primary active transpo, there is no direct coupling of ATP; instead, the electrochemical potential difference created by pumping ions out of the cell is used. Primary active transpo, also called direct active transpo, directly uses energy to transpo molecules across a membrane. Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transpo that allows substances to cross membranes with the assistance of special transpo proteins. Endocytosis is a process by which cells absorb molecules (such as proteins) by engulfing them.
| 2 |
Primary active transpo
|
Secondary active transpo
|
Facilitated diffusion
|
Endocytosis
|
Physiology
| null |
ba52b887-f4d0-445f-8135-228d7725a749
|
single
|
In a case of hypersplenism all are true, EXCEPT
|
(D) Splenomegaly absent # Hypersplenism: The complete blood count may reveal cytopenia of one or more blood cell types, which should suggest hypersplenism.> This condition is characterized by splenomegaly, cytopenia(s), normal or hyperplastic bone marrow & a response to splenectomy.
| 4 |
Cytopenia
|
Hyperplastic bone marrow
|
Normal bone marrow
|
Splenomegaly absent
|
Medicine
|
Miscellaneous
|
dff75675-ae2a-42d0-9195-bd6cdba0ada4
|
multi
|
Marfan syndrome is due to mutation of:
|
Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which encodes Fibrillin-1. Fibrillin normally binds to TGF-b (Transforming Growth Factor) Mutated fibrillin can't bind to TGF-b. Elevated levels of TGF-b contribute to the features of Ectopia lentis, arachnodactyly, and aoic dilatation.
| 3 |
Collagen
|
Elastin
|
Fibrillin
|
Fibronectin
|
Biochemistry
|
Miscellaneous
|
32dbdbb3-c54b-48d7-9554-2c4ed69f4c16
|
single
|
Which of the following statements best describes the sulcus limitans?
|
The sulcus limitans seperates the sensory alar from the motor basal plates. It is found in the developing spinal cord and on the surface of the adult rhomboid fossa of the fouh ventricle. The bulbopontine sulcus (inferior pontine sulcus) seperates the medulla from the pons. The hypothalamic sulcus seperates the thalamus from the hypothalamus. The rhinal sulcus seperates the neocoex from the allocoex. Ref: Lagman's Embryology 14th edition Pgno: 336
| 2 |
It is found in the interpeduncular fossa
|
It is located between the alar and basal plates
|
It seperates the medulla from the pons
|
It seperates the hypothalamus from the thalamus
|
Anatomy
|
Brain
|
74b5f2e5-0a67-4de1-a10b-014c30d3f4b1
|
multi
|
Adrenal arteries arises from all the following except
|
Ans) d (Coeliac axis) Ref: BD ChaurasiaAdrenal artery cannot arise from Coeliac axisArterial supply of adrenal glandSuperior suprarenal artery- a branch of inferior phrenic artery.Middle suprarenal artery- a branch of the abdominal aortaInferior suprarenal artery- branch of renal artery.
| 4 |
Renal artery
|
Aorta
|
Inferior phrenic artery
|
Coeliac axis
|
Surgery
|
Parathyroid & Adrenal Glands
|
3e7e1483-deec-4eb9-b778-e5753c4e9256
|
multi
|
An elderly man presented with a painful red eye, and on examination shows the pupil dilated and fixed, what is the next line of investigation?
|
(A) Tonometry# Acute painful red eye> Suspected condition is acute angle closure condition> Symptoms: Severely painful, halos around lights, may be systemically unwell (nausea, vomiting, headache). Usually > 50 years.> Decreased VA, hazy cornea, fixed, semi-dilated or oval pupil. Within 24 hours.> Keratitis Photophobia, foreign body sensation +- history of contact lens wear tprevious episodes (e.g. herpes simplex infection).> VA depends on exact nature of problem - peripheral lesions may cause little change but some decrease is expected.> Corneal defect on staining +- hypopyon (pus seen in anterior chamber).> Within 24 hours.> Acute anterior uveitis: Photophobia, blurred vision, headache, pain on accommodating. May have been unresponsive to previous treatment for conjunctivitis. VA may be reduced, redness more localised around corneal edge (ciliary injection), pupils may be constricted or irregular.> When severe, white cells precipitate on corneal endothelial surface (seen as white clumps - keratic precipitates). Within 24 hours.> Foreign body (FB) Pain depends on where this is lodged - worst if in the cornea when there may be decreased vision +- photophobia. VA depends on where the FB lies but this will be reduced if in the central visual axis. FB seen on examination, within 24 hours if large, in central visual axis. If there is suspicion of associated injury / deeper injury and if complete removal is not possible on initial assessment.
| 1 |
Tonometry
|
Visual evoked potential
|
Retinal angiogram
|
Slit lamp examination
|
Ophthalmology
|
Miscellaneous
|
19f2b245-ea87-4c04-a0c8-2af1b0eb907b
|
single
|
Under the registration act of 1969, bih should be registered within -
|
.
| 1 |
7 days
|
14 days
|
21 days
|
28 days
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Biostatistics
|
20f14673-fdc0-483d-b26f-ca81ccd7fd02
|
single
|
Under National Poliomyelitis Elimination Programme, Poliomyelitis is diagnosed by:-
|
Polio virus diagnosis in India: Is done by Viral culture and isolation from Stool Samples collected from cases of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Previously it was done through 'Antibody titre rise'. 2 stool samples b/w 24-48hrs each weighing 8gm is taken & sent it to lab through reverse cold chain.
| 2 |
Antibodies titre rise in blood
|
Viral isolation in stool
|
Viral microscopy in stool
|
Clinical examination
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
NPEP, NHM
|
927c146e-57c8-485f-94b7-e4e4170fae63
|
single
|
Adverse effects that limit the use of adrenoceptor blockers include:
| null | 2 |
Bronchoconstriction from α blocking agents
|
Heart failure exacerbation from β blockers
|
Impaired blood sugar response with α blockers
|
Increased intraocular pressure with β blockers
|
Pharmacology
| null |
13ab47c9-d53f-4207-bdba-ad85458c04e7
|
single
|
Purkinje cells from cerebellum end in
|
Purkinje cells from cerebellum and in in deep cerebellar nuclei Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:780,781,782
| 4 |
Cranial nerve nuclei
|
Extra pyramidal system
|
Cerebral coex
|
Cerebellar nuclei
|
Physiology
|
Nervous system
|
66d84534-ca10-4550-9d34-3cd58bc59c28
|
single
|
A 32 week preterm infant, weighing 1400 gm, vitals stable, admitted in NICU, What is the best feeding procedure ?
|
32 - 34 weeks : sta feed by spoon or paladai ( Total enteral nutrition ) Ref : Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 159
| 1 |
Total enteral nutrition
|
Sta IV fluids; introduce feeding from second day
|
Total parenteral nutrition
|
IV fluid only
|
Pediatrics
|
New born infants
|
d8a086bf-ad72-440a-a2d3-c65ee044a441
|
single
|
A 6 month old infant presented with multiple erythematous papules & exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother has H/o itchy lesions. The most likely diag is:
|
A ie Scabies The diagnosis is scabies, which is characterized by severe itching and diffusely scattered papular and papulo-vesicular lesions which may appear on all pas of body except the face. It is common to find other individuals especially children staying in same house also showing similar features. In infants, eczematization is very common and it leads to exudation and crusting especially on the wrist and ankle. Secondary infection leads to pustule, crust fever and lymphadenopathy. Involvement of palm & soles, duration of < 6 weeks (2 weeks) and presence of same lesions in mother, our the diagnosis of scabies. Scabies Intense itching even in presence of minor physical signs The physical sign are essentially those of eczema & effects of scratching. Vesicles are seen but excoriations and prurigo-like papules are more common. Pathognomic lesion is burrow or run (in stratum corneum); which is a tiny, raised, linear or serpiginous white mark. The best sites to find burrows are palms & interdigital areas of fingers, flexural creases and over the elbows. Other common sites of involvement are - anterior axillary fold, buttock fold, areola of breast, lower abdomen, genitalia, knees, ankle and soles. Head and neck is involved in infants only. Same type of lesion may also present in family members. Positive family or social history Finding of mite or egg by pin or by examining skin scrapings or a skin surface biopsy taken with cynoacrylate glue, confirms diagnosis. Atopic Dermatitis/Infantile Extremely itchy Q, erythematous papular or papulo-vesicular lesions mostly on face and flexures (popliteal fossa, antecubital fossae & wrist) of infant, children, adolescent & young adult * Itching made worse by change in temperature, sundry (rainy season) etc. * Perpetual rubbing & scratiching I/ t excoriation, lichenification, hyperlinear palms & Denny morgan fold (crease lines just below eyes) . * Personal or family h/O of atopy (eg asthama, hay fever, rhinitis, uicariaQ) present Clinical course lasting longer than 6 weeksQ Course marked by exacerbation & remission May be associated with alopecia areate & susceptibility to skin infection Seborrheic Dermatitis Infantile S.D. may be evident within first few weeks of life (usually < 3 months)Q. It involves scalp (cradle cap), face or groin. It is rarely seen in children beyond infancy but becomes evident again during adult life. Lesions are characterized by greasy scales overlying erythematous patches or plaques Reddened itchy patches may become either scaly or crusted & exudative. The most common location is scalp where it may be recognized as severe dandruff Other sites are eyebrows, eyelids, glabella, and nasolabial folds. Scaling of external auditory canal is common & mistaken as fungal infection. Retroauricular areas often become macerated & tender. May be associated with Parkinson's disease, cerbro-vascular accident & HIV infection. Rarely groin, axilla central chest, sub mammary folds & gluteal cleft may also be involved. Impetigo contagiosa Contagious superficial skin infection caused by staph. aureus (mostly) Red, sore areas, which may blister, appear on exposed skin Yellowish gold curst surmounts the lesion It is mostly a disorder of prepubeal children May be associated with glomeruloneprhitis,
| 1 |
Scabies
|
Infantile exzema (atopic dermatitis)
|
Infantile sebornheic dermatitis
|
Impetigo contagiosa
|
Skin
| null |
0b2287db-53e6-42e2-9d28-23060f032e24
|
single
|
A 13 year girl with fatigue and weakness was found to be having reduced hemoglobin. Her MCV 70FC, MCH22pg and RDW 28. What is her likely diagnosis
|
Decreased heamoglobin with the clinical features of fatigue and weakness is diagnostic of anemia.
MCV is 70% Ft, So, microcytosis is present (normal MCV is 80-96ft)
MCH is 22pg, so, decreased MCH is suggestive of hypochromic anermia (normal MCH is 27 - 33 pg)
Red Cell distribution with (RDW) is the co efficient of variation of size of RBC's normal value is 11.5 - 14.5 it is an indicator of anisocytosis which may present in IDA as well as heamolytic anemia.
In early iron deficiency anemia, RDW increased along with low MCV white in beta thalassemia trait RDW is normal with low MCV, thus distingguishing from each other.
| 1 |
Iron deficiency anemia
|
Thalassemia major
|
Sideroblastic anemia
|
Thalassemia minor
|
Pathology
| null |
9178a07e-3cb8-4397-830d-97a75ae98557
|
single
|
Tense and painful thyroiditis is
|
Answer- A. Dequern's thyroiditisDequervain thyroidits (granulomatous thyoiditis) - Most common cause of thyroid pain.
| 1 |
Dequern's thyroiditis
|
Riedel thyroiditis
|
Hashimoto thyroiditis
|
Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis
|
Pathology
| null |
05cbe274-1b12-47bd-a16f-72a29fb32621
|
single
|
Which of the following is given to treat thrombocytopenia secondary to anticancer therapy and is known to stimulate progenitor megakaryocytes?
|
Oprelvekin (IL-11) is used to prevent and treat thrombocytopenia.
| 2 |
Filgrastim
|
Oprelvekin
|
Erythropoietin
|
Iron dextran
|
Pharmacology
| null |
2f65c6c0-294b-4b72-880a-b3d0d91850ad
|
single
|
Exostosis due to repetitive exposure to cold water is common in which pa of the temporal bone
|
Exostoses are multiple and bilateral, often presenting as smooth, sessile, bony swellings in the deeper pa of the meatus near the tympanic membrane. Outer 1/3rd pa of the external auditory meatus is formed by cailage and inner 2/3rd pa is formed by the temporal bone. It is often seen in persons exposed to the entry of cold water in the meatus as in divers and swimmers. (Ref: Diseases of ear, nose and throat, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 118, 119)
| 2 |
Squamous pa
|
Tympanic pa
|
Petrous pa
|
Mastoid pa
|
ENT
|
Ear
|
144ccbf9-2ae0-4041-b501-4c67e3b45e2b
|
single
|
Which of the following is recommended as a dual-active drug targeting both HBV and HIV?
|
Tenofovir is a recommended dual-active drug with sufficient activity in targetting both HBV and HIV. Among the Antiretroviral Drugs, Tenofovir (TDF/TAF), Laminvudine (3TC) and Emtricitabine (FTC) have sufficient activity against HBV. Entecavir is an HBV nucleoside analog that only weak/paial HIV activity and is not preferred for use against HIV as it can induce HIV resistance. Designated drugs that have sufficient dual-activity against both HIV and HBV, and hence should be used in HBV-HIV-Co-Infected persons to provide effective treatment also against HIV: Emtrictrabine(FTC) Lamivudine(3TC) Tenofovir (Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate (TDF) and Tenofovir Alfenamide (TAF) Entecavir (+/-) TAF is a Tenofovir prodrug with HBV activity and potentially less renal and bone toxicities than TDF. Entecavir: Entecavir is a guanosine analogue that is highly potent against HBV and has weak/paial activity against HIV. It is typically not preferred for use against HIV as it can induce HIV Resistance. When Entecavir is used to treat HBV in patients with HBV/HIV coinfection who are not on A, the drug may select for the M184V mutation that confers HIV resistance to 3TC and FTC. Therefore, Entecavir should only be used in HBV/HIV coinfected patient in addition to (and should not replace components of) fully suppressive A. It should be used as an add-on-drug to also treat HBV in cases only where the other drugs used in A have insufficient HBV activity. Ref: Goodman and Gilman 13th edition
| 3 |
Entecavir
|
Adefovir
|
Tenofovir
|
Zidovudine
|
Pharmacology
|
Antibiotics
|
0dbfb765-f8d1-4b6e-86bc-5c4f5551a563
|
multi
|
Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all of the following except: March 2007
|
Ans. D: Acromegaly Basal ganglia calcification is seen in: Endocrine-Hypoparathyroidism, hypothyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, secondary hyperparathyroidism Normal Metabolic-Mitochondrial disorders Toxic-Hypoxia, carbon monoxide, lead Chemotherapy/radiation-mineralizing angiopathy most prominent in the basal ganglia.
| 4 |
Hypoparathyroidism
|
Hypothyroidism
|
Hyperpahyroidism
|
Acromegaly
|
Radiology
| null |
8ebf662b-1e5b-429c-b756-7fa88c6a5eb5
|
multi
|
Development of attraction in young girls towards their father:
| null | 2 |
Oedipus complex.
|
Electra complex
|
Attraction complex.
|
There are no such attractions exists.
|
Dental
| null |
37888d1a-18fb-4a25-9743-d5549a081b9b
|
single
|
A 60-year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaires' disease after the returns home from attending a convention. He could have acquired it -
| null | 3 |
From a person suffering from the infection while travelling in the aeroplane
|
From a chronic carrier in the convention center
|
From inhalation of the aerosol in the air conditioned room at convention center
|
By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention
|
Microbiology
| null |
b2c2833a-b418-4f2e-b7ad-5f32bf672199
|
single
|
In holiday hea syndrome, most common feature seen is: Odisha 09; DNB 10
|
Ans. Atrial fibrillation
| 1 |
Atrial fibrillation
|
Atrial flutter
|
Ventricular fibrillation
|
Ventricular flutter
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
5a14015c-b6c3-42cd-9752-173fa6cdeff1
|
single
|
Which of the following blood vessel is related to the paraduodenal fossa?
|
Paraduodenal fossa is also termed as fossa of Landzer. This fossa is seen only 2% cases, it is situated at some distance to the left of the ascending colon or fouh poion of the duodenum and is caused by the raising up of a peritoneal fold by the inferior mesenteric vein as it runs along the lateral side of the fossa and then above it. Thus, the blood vessel related to this fossa is inferior mesenteric vein.Ref: Dynamic Radiology of the Abdomen: Normal and Pathologic Anatomy By Moon A. Meyers, 5th Edition, Pages 712-3
| 3 |
Poal vein
|
Gonadal vein
|
Inferior mesentric vein
|
Superior mesentric aery
|
Anatomy
| null |
c643212e-29bb-45c0-9090-28626330d9d8
|
single
|
True statement is :
|
A i.e. Osteoblasts give rise to osteocyte
| 1 |
Osteoblasts gives rise to osteocytes
|
Growth of bone occurs at diaphysis
|
Epiphysis is present between metaphysis and diaphysis
|
Interphalangeal joint is a saddle joint
|
Anatomy
| null |
76ae842f-f141-4eb4-abc6-43e4ea87a231
|
multi
|
The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is-
|
"Penetrating injuries are the most common cause, but fistulas are sometimes seen after blunt trauma" - CSDT
| 4 |
Bacterial infection
|
Fungal infection
|
Blunt trauma
|
Penetrating trauma
|
Surgery
| null |
42880077-8186-449b-ac1f-bfb87f0b70d9
|
single
|
On otological examination, all of the following will have positive fistula test, EXCEPT:
|
In a positive fistula test, a pressure change in the external ear canal is transmitted to the labyrinth by an abnormal opening thereby producing nystagmus and veigo. It also implies that the labyrinth is still functioning, and is absent when labyrinth is dead. The abnormal opening caused by a cholesteatoma eroding into the horizontal semicircular canal, following fenestrating operations and rupture of round window membrane are associated with positive fistula test. Hypermobile stapes footplate is associated with false positive fistula test.
| 1 |
Dead ear
|
Labyrinthine fistula
|
Hypermobile stapes footplate
|
Following fenestration surgery
|
ENT
| null |
3669e839-f5bb-4fb0-841f-8da3c22e142b
|
multi
|
True about blood supply of scaphoid?
|
Major blood supply (70-80%) of scaphoid comes through dorsal surface dorsal branches of radial aery.These dorsal vessels enter the scaphoid at or just distal to waist area and supply the proximal pole in retrograde fashion.
| 3 |
Mainly through ulnar aery
|
Major supply from ventral surface
|
Major supply from dorsal surface
|
Proximal supply in antegrade fashion
|
Anatomy
| null |
5e178adb-96cd-4509-b085-93650e3c93d2
|
multi
|
Brock's Syndrome is
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Middle Lobe Bronchiectasis Brock's Syndrome Right middle lobe bronchiectasis occurring as a late sequel ofprimaiy tuberculosis is known as Brock's syndrome or middle lobe syndrome. Brock's syndrome is believed to be caused by pressure of lymph nodes in primary tuberculosis on the middle lobe bronchus. It has been described as a typical outcome of hilar node involvement by tuberculosis in childhood. This term is also applied to recurrent atelectasis of the right middle lobe in the absence of endobronchial obstruction. Bronchiectasis develops after recurrent episodes of atelectasis and fibrosis
| 2 |
Bronchiectasis Sicca
|
Middle Labe Bronchiectasis
|
Kaagener's Syndrome
|
Sarcoidosis
|
Medicine
| null |
77e4cf09-95d9-4ea5-b558-9aca2f13c776
|
single
|
Cervical spine fracture in A patient, what is the first thing to do
|
Since there are high chances of injury to cervical segments of spinal cord, immobilization of cervical spine is really impoant. Ref : SRB's 4thE At site of accident: Suspected cervical injury spine injury - one person hold the neck in traction by keeping the head pulled. In emergency depament: Two sand bags should be used on either side of neck in order to avoid any movement of neck. Definitive care: Aim To avoid any deterioration of the neurological status To achieve stability of spine by Conservative or operative methods To rehabilitate the paralysed patient to the best possible extent Ref: Maheshwari and Mhaskar essential ohopaedics. 6th edition Pg no:271
| 2 |
Intubation
|
Cervical spine immobiliation
|
X-ray spine
|
Trachoostomy
|
Surgery
|
Trauma
|
1ca31490-3179-4d30-bc9d-799638a70f86
|
single
|
Which of the following fat-soluble vitamin is cell membrane component and antioxidant?
|
Vitamin E Is the Major Lipid Soluble Antioxidant in Cell Membranes & Plasma Lipoproteins
| 1 |
Vitamin E
|
Vitamin C
|
Vitamin A
|
Vitamin K
|
Physiology
|
All India exam
|
5c8e640e-f9f7-4301-b159-647f4ceb7cb3
|
single
|
The inverse stretch reflex is due
|
Golgi tendon
| 2 |
Trail fibre ending
|
Golgi tendon
|
Tail fibre ending
|
Muscle spindle
|
Physiology
| null |
4bf242bb-d746-44f4-a9e2-37fe719e7664
|
single
|
A 20-year-old female presented with complaints of nausea, vomiting and pain in the legs. Her physical examination and lab investigations are normal. Still she persistently request for investigations and treatment despite repeated assurance by her doctor. What would be the most probable diagnosis: September 2012
|
Ans. C i.e. Somatisatic 7 disorder Somati3ation disorder Patient presents with multiple physical complaints (referable to different organ systems), Formal diagnostic criteria require the recording of at least 4 pains: - 2 gastrointestinal, - 1 sexual and - 1 pseudo-neurologic symptom
| 3 |
Generalized anxiety disorder
|
Conversion disorder
|
Somatiform pain disorder
|
Somatisation disorder
|
Psychiatry
| null |
806ef9e2-1026-46c8-9d05-bf0378225ef3
|
single
|
A PATIENT WITH DIABETES AND COPD DEVELOPED POST OPERATIVE URINARY RETENTION .WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED FOR SO TERM TREATMENT TO RELIVE SYMPTOMS ?
|
BETHANECOL : ITS A M3 RECEPPTOR ANTAGONIST ITS USES ARE : FOR CONSTIPATION., PARALYTIC ILEUS, POST OPERATIVE URINARY RETENTION . REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED
| 1 |
BETHANECOL
|
METHANICOL
|
TERAZOSIN
|
TAMSULOSIN
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
2b182e6f-9b6b-4efe-9d33-878da2a0ba14
|
single
|
Which of the following parenteral anticoagulants is a dual coagulation factor inhibitor?
|
ClavatadineXla inhibitorTifacoginVIIa inhibitorTanogitranDual IIa/Xa inhibitorFlovagatranIIa inhibitor
| 3 |
Clavatadine
|
Tifacogin
|
Tanogitran
|
Flovagatran
|
Microbiology
|
All India exam
|
dc34664f-e10d-48f8-b35e-60f5581c5775
|
single
|
Palatal abscess most commonly results from in infection of:
| null | 2 |
Maxillary centrals
|
Maxillary laterals
|
Maxillary canine
|
Maxillary premolars
|
Surgery
| null |
4fdcd37a-28fc-4d51-a394-585853cdd5ae
|
single
|
A female presented with loss of vision in both eyes and on examination has normal pupillary responses and normal fundus, Her visually evoked response (VER) examination shows extinguished responses.The most likely diagnosis is -
|
Lesions upto optic tract (i.e. retina, optic nerve, optic chiasma and optic tract) affect pupillary (light) reflex. In the question light reflex is normal, thus optic neuritis and retinal detachment can be ruled out.
Now we are left with hysteria and cortical blindness. This can be differentiated by VER which is normal in hysteria and shows abnormality in cortical lesions. So, answer is cortical blindness.
It is worth noting that VER will also be abnormal in retinal detachment and optic neuritis. However, they have been excluded on the basis of normal pupillary response. Here I am giving brief idea about VER.
We know when light falls on retina, a series of nerve impulses are generated and passed on to the visual cortex via the visual pathway.
The visual evoked response measures the electrical potential resulting from a visual stimulus.
Because it is measured by scalp electrodes placed over the occipital cortex, the entire visual pathway from retina to cortex must be intact in order to produce a normal electrical waveform reading.
Visual evoked response is the only clinically objective technique available to assess the functional state of the visual system beyond the retinal ganglion cells.
Interruption of neuronal conduction by any lesion in this pathway will result in reduced amplitude of the VER.
In the question extinguished visual response suggests any abnormality some where, in the visual conducting system.
This abnormality in the VER can be easily attributed to cortical blindness because normal pupillary response and normal fundus rule out any chance of optic neuritis and retinal detachment.
| 2 |
Hysteria
|
Cortical blindness
|
Optic neuritis
|
Retinal detachment
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
47c0359c-faf5-4e2b-b746-f8a67b0f04a9
|
multi
|
All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except –
| null | 1 |
Iron
|
Vitamin A
|
Niacin
|
Energy
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
d2d54f1a-65c0-484d-b9d0-ebae2776ae7b
|
multi
|
A 65-yr-old man with H/O back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. On examination marked stiffness and mild restriction of chest movements is found. On x-ray, syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae. Diagnosis is -
|
The clinical profile of the given case fits into Ankylosing spondylitis (A.S.) except for the age.
A.S. is usually seen in 2nd or 3rd decades of age with a median age of 23. However "in 5% ofpatients, symptoms begin after 40" - Harrison
All other features, i.e. raised ESR, marked stiffness, restriction of chest movements & syndesmophytes are seen in A.S.
| 1 |
Ankylosing spondylitis
|
Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
|
Ankylosing hyperosteosis
|
Lumbar canal stenosis
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
44aeba06-dc1f-4857-9415-714a65326bfa
|
single
|
38 weeks primi in early labour with transverse presentation, TOC is :
|
Ans. is c i.e. LSCS
| 3 |
Allow for cervical dilatation
|
Internal podalic version
|
LSCS
|
Forceps
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
4fa4398c-4b8a-40e5-8eef-22ac7511360e
|
multi
|
The amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools, is -
| null | 1 |
50 gm/lit
|
75 gm/lit
|
90 gm/lit
|
100 gm/lit
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
6f63fc2f-9c92-452f-ad81-d59252a67755
|
single
|
Kupffers cells in liver are
|
A. i.e. (Macrophages) (54- Basic pathology 8th)Kupffer cells belonging to the reticuloendothelial systemsMarophages the dominant cells of chronic inflammation, are tissue cells derived from circulating blood monocytes, macrophages also found in(i) Liver - Kupffer cells(ii) Spleen and lymph node - Sinus histiocytes(iii) CNS - Microglial cells(iv) Lungs - Alveolar macrophages* The half life of circulating monocytes is about 1 day* Mean life of RBC's in transfused blood is - 80 days*** Langerhans cels are antigen presenting in nature*** Epitheloid cells and granular giant cells are formed by Monocyte - macrophages*** Antigen presenting cells are - Langerhan's cells Dendritic cells, B. cells, Macrophages
| 1 |
Macrophages
|
Lymphocytic
|
Complimentary proteins
|
Coagulation proteins
|
Pathology
|
Liver & Biliary Tract
|
77c4228f-92d5-43da-96e0-50fb638f6725
|
single
|
Which of the following antifungal drug have a broad antifungal spectrum: March 2011
|
Ans. A: Posaconazole Posaconazole is the broadest spectrum anti fungal azole, and the only one with consistent activity against the Mucorales.
| 1 |
Posaconazole
|
Miconazole
|
Ketoconazole
|
Clotrimazole
|
Skin
| null |
bc743a75-4822-42ae-b849-9b9336f81703
|
single
|
Posterior relation of poal vein
|
The poal vein usually measures approximately 8 cm in adults. It originates behind the neck of the pancreas and is classically formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg282 , researchgate.net
| 4 |
1st pa of duodenum
|
Hepatic aery
|
Bile duct
|
IVC
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
c71bc934-3ce1-412c-a895-64e521207711
|
single
|
“Aschoff bodies” are seen in:
|
Rheumatic fever (RF)
Morphology
During acute RF, focal inflammatory lesions are found in various tissues.
Distinctive lesions occur in the heart, called Aschoff bodies, which consist of foci of lymphocytes (primarily T cells), occasional plasma cells, and plump activated macrophages called Anitschkow cells (Pathognomonic for RF).
These macrophages have abundant cytoplasm and central round-to ovoid nuclei in which the chromatin is disposed in a central, slender, wavy ribbon (hence the designation "caterpillar cells"), and may become multinucleated.
During acute RF, diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of the heart, causing pericarditis, myocarditis, or endocarditis (pancarditis).
Inflammation of the endocardium and the left sided valves typically results in fibrinoid necrosis within the cusps or along the tendinous cords.
Overlying these necrotic foci are small (1 - to 2- mm) vegetations, called verrucae, along the lines of closure.
Subendocardial lesions, perhaps exacerbated by regurgitant jets, may induce irregular thickenings called MacCallum plaques, usually in the left atrium.
Chronic Rheumatic Heart Disease
The changes of the mitral valve in are:
Leaflet thickening
Commissural fusion
Shortening, thickening and fusion of the tendinous cords
In chronic disease, the mitral valve is virtually always involved
The mitral valve is affected alone in 65% to 70% of cases, and along with the aortic valve in another 25% of cases.
Fibrous bridging across the valvular commissures and calcification create "fish mouth" or “buttonhole” stenoses.
| 2 |
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
Rheumatic fever
|
Bacterial endocarditis
|
Marantic endocarditis
|
Pathology
| null |
dc8418e4-0961-48fd-bc14-5755bb78f205
|
single
|
Which gene is involved in pathogenesis of Type 1 Diabetes mellitus?
|
Polymorphism in promoter region of insulin gene, CTLA-4 contributes to susceptibility to type 1 Diabetes mellitus. The most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus is autoimmunity. Most patients have DR3 and/ or DR4 haplotype.
| 1 |
CTLA-4
|
ABCD1
|
HNF-1 Alpha
|
HNF-4 Alpha
|
Medicine
|
Diabetes Mellitus
|
1764a502-e249-492c-966d-bf2dfce4d839
|
single
|
Shortest acting competitive neuromuscular blocker?
|
Ans. a (Mivacurium) (Ref. Anaesthesia by Ajay Yadav, 3rd ed., p 93)# MIVACURIUM is Shortest acting nondepolarising muscle relaxant is (10 min).MIVACURIUM# Among all nondepolarising muscle relaxants it has shortest duration of action,# Is an ideal M-relaxant for day care anesthesia.# Usually no reversal required.# Mivacurium is indicated as an adjunct to anesthesia to facilitate endotracheal intubation and to induce skeletal muscle relaxation in the surgical field.# Metabolised by Pseudocholinesterase enzyme (similar to succinylcholine).Properties of nondepolarizing muscle relaxantsRelaxantEd95* (Mg/ Kg)Intubating Dose (Mg/ Kg)Onset After IntubatingDuration (Minutes)Short-acting# Mivacurium0.080.21-1.515-20# Rocuronium0.30.62-330Intermediate-acting# Rocuronium0.31.21.060# Vecuronium0.050.15-0.21.560# Atracurium0.230.751-1.545-60# Cisatracurium0.050.2260-90Long-acting# Pancuronium0.070.08-0.124-590# Pipecuronium0.050.07-0.853-580-90# Doxacurium0.0250.05-0.083-590-120Educational points:DRUGS METABOLIZED BY PSEUDOCHOLINESTERASE# Propandid# Remifentanyl# Esmolol (Mnemonic: PREM SE)# Mivacuronium# Scoline# Ester linked LA (except cocaine)Rocuronium & Mivacurium can be used in Rapid sequence induction as muscle relaxants...
| 1 |
Mivacurium
|
Pancuronium
|
Atracurium
|
Doxocurium
|
Anaesthesia
|
Muscle Relaxant
|
68207102-4562-4569-97e4-1f6624c36d07
|
single
|
All are features of cleidocranial dysostosis except
|
They usually have long 2nd metacarpal
Autosomal dominant condition
| 3 |
Short stature
|
Wide foramen magnum
|
Short Metacarpals
|
Absent clavicle
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
0e24833a-af54-4513-a1fa-003444a99210
|
multi
|
Height in cms by cube root of body weight is known as:
|
Ponderal index
| 3 |
Quetlet index
|
Brocas index
|
Ponderal index
|
Corpulence index
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
dd5f2b26-cceb-4c01-b30c-6f3202700697
|
single
|
Which of the following is the most reliable bacteriological indicator of water pollution: September 2010, March 2012, March 2013 (a, b, f)
|
Ans. C: Escherichia coli Coliforms: Gram-negative, non spore-forming, oxidase-negative, rod-shaped facultative anaerobic bacteria that ferment lactose to acid and gas within 24-48h at 36+-2degC. Not specific indicators of fecal pollution. Thermotolerant coliforms: Coliforms that produce acid and gas from lactose at 44.5+-0.2degC within 24+-2h, also known as fecal coliforms due to their role as fecal indicators. Escherichia coli (E. coli): Thermophilic coliforms that produce indole from tryptophan. Most appropriate group of coliforms to indicate fecal pollution from warm-blooded animals. Fecal streptococci (FS): Gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci from selective media (e.g. azide dextrose broth or m Enterococcus agar) that grow on bile aesculin agar and at 45degC, belonging to the genera Enterococcus and Streptococcus possessing the Lancefield group D antigen. Enterococci: All fecal streptococci that grow at pH 9.6, 10deg and 45degC and in 6.5% NaC1. Nearly all are members of the genus Enterococcus, and also fulfil the following criteria: resistance to 60degC for 30 min and ability to reduce 0.1% methylene blue. The enterococci are a subset of fecal streptococci that grow under the conditions outlined above. Sulphite-reducing clostridia (SRC): Gram-positive, spore-forming, non-motile, strictly anaerobic rods that reduce sulphite to H2S. Clostridium perfringens: As for SRC, but also ferment lactose, sucrose and inositol with the production of gas, produce a stormy clot fermentation with milk, reduce nitrate, hydrolyse gelatin and produce lecithinase and acid phosphatase.
| 3 |
Fecal streptococci
|
Salmonella typhi
|
Escherichia coli
|
Clostridium tetani
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
4b8699a1-6a5a-4a84-b909-8d6ffdee03ca
|
single
|
A new drug is found to be highly lipid soluble. It is metabolized at a slower rate of 10% per hour. On intravenous injection, it produces general anaesthesia that lasts only for 15 min. This short duration of anaesthesia is due to:
|
- Highly lipid soluble drugs get initially distributed to organs with high blood flow (Brain, heart, kidney etc). Later to less vascular tissues (muscle, fat). The plasma concentration falls and the drug is withdrawn from these sites. If the site of action was in one of the highly perfused organs, redistribution results in termination of drug action. Greater the lipid solubility of the drug, faster is its redistribution. This is seen in Thiopentone.
| 4 |
Metabolism of the drug in liver
|
High plasma protein binding of the drug
|
Excretion of drug by kidney
|
Redistribution
|
Pharmacology
| null |
f972da4d-5263-4c63-8932-c00265502f4f
|
single
|
Investigation of choice for diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis:
|
Ans. CT scan with contrast
| 3 |
USG
|
Plain CT scan
|
CT scan with contrast
|
MRI Scan
|
Radiology
| null |
002baae2-e2cc-4da2-bed3-f5d052500586
|
single
|
Spontaneous abortion in 1st trimester is caused by:a) Trisomy 21b) Monosomy c) Traumad) Rh-incompatibility
|
Common causes of abortion
| 4 |
ab
|
bc
|
acd
|
abc
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
4187cd1d-7894-44cc-9f11-4b7bc2aa6ccf
|
single
|
The smoky stool is seen in which poisoning?
|
Ans. is 'A' i.e., Phosphorus Acute poisoning of phosphorus* Breath smells of garlic.* Vomitus and stools may be luminous in the dark.* Smoky stool syndrome Faint fumes may emanate from the stools.* Manifestations of liver damage - tender hepatomegaly, jaundice which may progress to an olive green hue, flapping tremor of hands (asterixis), mousy odour to the breath (foetor hepaticus).
| 1 |
Phosphorus
|
Arsenic
|
Lead
|
Zinc
|
Unknown
| null |
924af1dc-15db-4ac5-b7aa-b7772b72c0ef
|
single
|
Antagonism between acetylcholine and atropine:
| null | 1 |
Competitive antagonism
|
Physiological antagonism
|
Noncompetitive antagonism
|
None
|
Pharmacology
| null |
d2f60c4b-b1e8-43c7-9224-a86ab75ef332
|
multi
|
A 24 years old primigravida wt = 57 kg, Hb 11,0 gm% visits an antenatal clinic during 2nd trimester of pregnancy seeking advice on dietary intake. She should be advised -
|
Ans. is 'None' o Females have increased energy requirments during vulnerable periods such as lactation & pregnancy.
| 4 |
Additional intake of 300 K.cal
|
Additional intake of 500 K.cal
|
Additional intake of 650 K.cal
|
None
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
4462827c-2854-4700-88db-4ef53c5e05b7
|
multi
|
The following instrument is used to measure
|
Sling Psychrometer is used to measure both the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures at the time. These temperatures are a measure of humidity content in the air.kata thermometer consisting principally of an alcohol thermometer used to measure air cooling.
| 3 |
Pressure
|
Direction of wind
|
Humidity
|
Air cooling
|
Microbiology
|
All India exam
|
d9d177c1-4686-4d2e-8763-12bdba6d8fdd
|
single
|
Which vessel causes Wallenburgs syndrome is:
|
Posterior inferior cerebellar aery
| 3 |
Pontine
|
Posterior Cerebral
|
Posterior inferior cerebellar aery
|
Veebral aery
|
Anatomy
| null |
b09bff81-f66c-4b06-8957-d3ba0dc681d6
|
multi
|
False about tibia-fibula is ?
|
Common peroneal nerve is related to neck of fibula (not tibia). Nutrient aery of tibia is a branch of posterior tibial aery. Nutrient aery of fibula is a branch of peroneal aery. Tibia is the commonest site of osteomyelitis.
| 3 |
Nutrient aery of tibia is from posterior tibial aery
|
Nutrient aery of fibula is from peroneal aery
|
Proximal end of tibia is related to common peroneal nerve
|
Tibia is the most common site of osteomyelitis
|
Anatomy
| null |
d23a81a9-ea5d-4b26-9c23-94809e3e7b63
|
multi
|
Which of the following is used for the treatment of Myopia –
|
Most commonly used procedures in refractive surgery are performed with an excimer laser.
| 2 |
Nd–YAG LASER
|
Excimer Laser
|
Carbamazepine
|
SSRI
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
4981ae0f-8693-47d9-81ff-a0551dfd97e9
|
single
|
All of the following are histopathologic features of sympathetic ophthalmia except:
|
Necrosis Necrosis is not generally seen in sympathetic ophthalmia. Lymphocytes, giant cells, and eosinophils are seen within the choroid. Some have stated that eosinophils may be seen in early disease, before granulomatous inflammation is present, although this is not, diagnostic.
| 1 |
Necrosis
|
Giant cells located within the choroid
|
T lymphocytes
|
Eosinophils
|
Surgery
| null |
17d7f688-97e7-4a2f-85d5-c62bbbbf3ca3
|
multi
|
Alcoholics may develop fatal lactic acidosis due to inhibition of which of the following enzyme?
|
Pyruvate is decarboxylated by the pyruvate dehydrogenase component of the enzyme complex to a hydroxyethyl derivative of the thiazole ring of enzyme-bound thiamin diphosphate. Arsenite and mercuric ions react with the 'SH groups of lipoic acid and inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase, as does a dietary deficiency of thiamin allowingpyruvate to accumulate. Many alcoholics are thiamin deficient (both because of a poor diet and also because alcohol inhibits thiamin absorption), and may develop potentially fatal pyruvic and lactic acidosis.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 17; Glycolysis & the Oxidation of Pyruvate
| 1 |
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
|
Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
|
Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
|
Phosphoglycerate kinase
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
5a890826-917a-4326-a56b-34a04cf87da2
|
single
|
A 16 year old athlete boy was diagnosed with an isolated avulsion fracture of the lesser tubercle of the humerus. It is caused by the forceful contraction of which of the following muscles ?
|
The subscapularis muscle is inseed on the lesser tubercle of the humerus. Forceful contraction of subscapularis muscle to resist the abduction and external rotation of the shoulder may cause an isolated avulsion fracture of lesser trochanter. Ref : Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41e pg 806.
| 2 |
Teres minor
|
Subscapularis
|
Supraspinatus
|
Infraspinatus
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb
|
9d62a812-e42e-4c83-a2ac-c46daf83b9c8
|
single
|
Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme of bile acid synthesis?
|
microsomal 7-a hydroxylaseis rate-limiting enzyme of bile acid synthesis The first intermediate in the synthesis of bile acids is 7a-hydroxycholesterol It is catalyzed by the enzyme 7a-hydroxylase, a microsomal CYP450 enzyme, which requires NADPH, oxygen, and vitamin C as co-factors.
| 1 |
microsomal 7-a hydroxylase
|
mitochondrial 7-a hydroxylase
|
microsomal 17-a hydroxylase
|
mitochondrial 17-a hydroxylase
|
Biochemistry
|
Cholesterol synthesis and bile acids
|
260f1665-0e0e-4477-b063-38c597e72fdb
|
single
|
Inconclusive autopsy is known as?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., No cause of death is found on gross as well as histopathological examination Types of autopsy1) Normal autopsy - cause is apparent from gross examination2) Defective autopsy - cause was ascertainable, but was not ascertained due to constrains on the part of doctor, hospital, facilities etc3) Obscure autopsy - gross findings are minimal, indecisive or obscure, as in adrenal insufficiency, anesthetic overdose, myxedema, rare plant poisons, thyrotoxicosis etc. subsequent examination like histology, microbiology, toxicology or serology reveal the cause.4) Negative autopsy / inconclusive autopsy - Cause is not clear from gross as well as subsequent examinations.
| 1 |
No cause of death is found on gross as well as histopathological examination
|
Cause is apparent on gross examination but not on histopathological examination
|
Gross finding are minimal
|
Cause is apparent on gross examination but not found because of constrains on the part of doctor
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Death and Investigations
|
c1781abc-8e33-41e2-b407-c49cfb918bb6
|
single
|
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