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Branches of coeliac axis are all except:
|
D. i.e. Inferior Phrenic aery
| 4 |
Splenic aery
|
Left gastric aery
|
Hepatic aery
|
Inferior phrenic aery
|
Anatomy
| null |
deed20e5-f47a-4ab0-836c-003232c65802
|
multi
|
Day light factor in living rooms should be:
|
8%
| 2 |
6%
|
8%
|
10%
|
12%
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
b9b9def6-0b1b-4a50-a738-0d37b209feb2
|
single
|
which one of the following is not a component of THORACOSORE ?
|
Thoraco score is a score used to predict the in hospital moality in a patient require thoracic surgery REF : BAILEY AND LOVE 27TH ED
| 2 |
Performance status
|
complication of surgery
|
ASAgrading
|
Priority of surgery
|
Surgery
|
All India exam
|
4cb2119c-7dae-40e2-a5bc-a15086f866c6
|
single
|
Endometrial implants are deficient in which enzyme
|
17 β - hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2,which inactivates estrogen is absent in endometrial implants.
| 2 |
Aromatase
|
17 β - hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2
|
17 β - hydroxysteroid dehydrogenose type 1
|
17 α - hydroxylase
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
cae060b7-393a-40fc-9707-6299ae91c6e4
|
single
|
Which of the following is true about anesthesia machine
|
A i.e. Desflurane vapourizer is heated to 39degC Rotameter is constant pressure, variable orifice (area) flow meter for gases and liquid bothQ. - Halothane vaporizes at 50.2degC (ie boiling point) -O2 sensor can be attached both on expiratory and inspiratory limb of circle system's breathing circuit but not into the fresh gas line of machineQ. Desflurane's vaporizer are externally heated to 39degC to compensate for significant heat loss a/w desflurane vaporization. It also increases the vapour pressure (to 1300 mmHg), preventing the possibility of boiling in warm rooms. Tech 6 vaporizer is used only with desflurane. Desflurane is heated to 39degC (102degF)Q, which is well above its boiling point (22.8degC), by two heaters in the base. An external heating is needed, because the potency of desflurane requires that large amount be vaporized. And also because the boiling point of desflurane is near room temperature and depending on ambient temperature would make the output unpredictable. These factors make thermo compensation using the usual mechanical devices impossible.
| 1 |
Desflurane vapourizer is heated to 39degC
|
Halothane vaporizers at 39degC
|
Rotameter is a variable pressure flow meter & variable orifice device for gases only
|
O2 sensor is attached to inspiratory limb at the machine end.
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
31d51cfa-7bd9-4bf5-acc5-c4059ff4c554
|
multi
|
Which of the following play most important role in memory
|
Ans. (a) Synaptic network(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.284)Memory information is stored across diffuse network of neurons in brainSynapses across those neuronal network is strengthened by repetition of what is learned
| 1 |
Synaptic network
|
Electric conduction network
|
Conductivity circuit
|
Conductivity network
|
Physiology
|
Nervous System
|
1bba6d3e-13d4-40dd-91d5-e243f4f984c8
|
single
|
A 10-year-old boy presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain. There is a past history of bronchitis but no history of pneumonia. On examination, there has been no significant increase in weight over the past 3 years, with flattening of the growth curve. Trace digital clubbing is noted. Most appropriate test to be ordered at this time is?
|
Sweat test. The most common cause of digital clubbing in children, other than cyanotic congenital hea disease, is cystic fibrosis. The history of bronchitis and of abdominal pain (probably secondary to malabsorption) is compatible with this diagnosis. Therefore, a sweat test is the best test to order. Pulmonary function tests are not diagnostic but may suggest obstructive pulmonary disease; a chest x-ray may show chronic changes; an abdominal x-ray may show dilated loops of filled bowel; and an IgE level may demonstrate allergies as the etiology of the bronchitis. Only the sweat test is diagnostic
| 2 |
Pulmonary function tests
|
Sweat test
|
Chest x-ray
|
Abdominal x-ray
|
Surgery
| null |
e27d0e2f-6706-47ce-9c1f-ed8863cbc62a
|
single
|
A 25 year old young male with abdominal pain after sustaining blunt trauma to his abdomen during a road traffic accident has brought to emergency depament. His BP is 120/80 and pulse rate is 72bpm. The next best step in management of this patient is?
|
* Initial Investigation in a patient with abdominal trauma is USG to detect hemoperitoneum * Investigation of choice to know the source of hemoperitoneum in a stable patient is CECT-Abdomen. Radiological evaluation of abdominal trauma in emergency: Order of FAST Views : 1.Subxiphoid View to detect pericardial collections 2.Right Flank View 3.Left Flank View 4.Pelvic View Figure showing normal right upper quandrant on USG. Figure showing 'Right upper quadrant (RUQ) FAST POSITIVE'.
| 2 |
Diagnostic Peritoneal Tap
|
Ultrasound
|
NCCT-Abdomen
|
CECT
|
Radiology
|
Radiology Q Bank
|
b9a7a32d-cfaf-4eaf-83d7-7408c652f1f5
|
multi
|
What is the total number of goals in the Millennium Development Goals?
|
The Millennium Development Goals were adopted in 2000. There are 8 goals, of which 3 are directly related to health. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 11.
| 3 |
20
|
10
|
8
|
6
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
9e271006-75a7-454e-ab20-6f22a29746ea
|
single
|
Which of the following immunoglobulins is rich in serum and body secretions?
|
IgA is the second most abundant immunoglobulin constituting 10-13% of the total. It is the predominant immunoglobulin in seromucous secretions such as saliva, tears, colostrum, breast milk and tracheobronchial and genitourinary secretions. In human sera more than 80% of IgA occurs as monomer containing 2H and L chains but in seromucous secretions it occurs as a dimer cing 4H and 4L chains and is known as secretory IgA.
| 2 |
Ig G
|
IgA
|
Ig M
|
IgD
|
Microbiology
| null |
950030d0-c2d5-4480-9440-1643c729e3b7
|
single
|
Emesis is not contraindicated in
|
Emesis should be used only if there is difficulty in obtaining gastric lavage. Vomiting can be produced if the medullary centers are still responsive. Due to danger of aspiration of gastric contents, vomiting should only be induced in a conscious patient. Contraindications: Severe hea and lung diseases. Advanced pregnancy. Kerosene poisoning In cases of CNS depression, seizures or rapidly acting CNS poisons (camphor, cyanide, tricyclicantidepressants, propoxyphene and strychnine).
| 4 |
Kerosene poisoning
|
Nux vomica poisoning
|
Oxalic acid poisoning
|
arsenic poisoning
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Toxicology - 2
|
c660c96c-ddeb-4e11-8949-7655831b6fea
|
single
|
An elderly hypertensive has diabetes mellitus and bilateral renal artery stenosis. The best management is:
| null | 3 |
Enalapril
|
Verapamil
|
Beta blockers
|
Thiazides
|
Pharmacology
| null |
314d6718-ea4b-4ec9-b718-fcbb52bf1a12
|
single
|
The thickest nerve of the body is:
|
Sciatic nerve (L4-S3) is the largest peripheral nerve in the body.It is the longest and widest single nerve in the human body, going from the top of the leg to the foot on the posterior aspect The sciatic nerve is comprised of the tibial and common peroneal nerve and exits the pelvis inferior to the piriformis muscle, between the ischial tuberosity and the greater trochanter of the femur. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 12. Pelvis and Perineum. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture:
| 3 |
Radial
|
Median
|
Sciatic
|
Axillary
|
Anatomy
| null |
eabe0b46-d876-4147-92b0-f70a5d5df4a7
|
single
|
Anti-thyroid drug of choice for thyroid storm is:-
|
Thyroid storm is an extreme form of thyrotoxicosis. The drugs used in thyroid storm are: Propanolol to control severe cardiovascular manifestations. It is life saving drug in thyroid storm and is DOC. CCBs like Diltiazem are used, if beta-blockers are C/I (as in asthmatics). Propylthiouracil is used to reduce the synthesis of thyroid hormones. It is anti thyroid DOC for thyroid storm. Hydrocoisone is used to protect the patient against shock.
| 2 |
Thiocyanates
|
Propylthiouracil
|
Propanolol
|
Radioactive iodine
|
Pharmacology
|
Pituitary-Hypothalmic System and Thyroid
|
58598992-6505-4369-829b-6c60e0e5859a
|
single
|
Hemiplegia is most commonly caused by thrombosis of
| null | 2 |
Anterior cerebral artery
|
Middle cerebral artery
|
Posterior cerebral artery
|
Basilar artery
|
Medicine
| null |
91ce8964-7944-452e-a957-abf67e70f0a9
|
single
|
Drug used in hepatitis B infection is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Entecavir o Entecavir is the DOC for chronic hepatitis B infection.
| 1 |
Entecavir
|
Astacavir
|
Zanamivir
|
Abacavir
|
Pharmacology
| null |
edbc9caf-1624-49fa-b34c-a2b520d7e0f9
|
single
|
Salivary amylase is activated by: March 2007
|
Ans. B: Chlorine IonSalivary Amylase break large, insoluble starch molecules into soluble starches (amythrodextrin, achrodestrin and ultimately maltose.Ptyalin acts on linear alpha (1,4) glycosidic linkages.Optimum conditions for ptyalinOptimum pH - 5.6 -6.9Human body temperature-37 degrees CelsiusPresence of ceain anions and activators:- Chlorine and bromine - most effective- Iodine - less effective- Sulfate and phosphate- least effective
| 2 |
Sodium Ion
|
Chlorine Ion
|
Potassium Ion
|
Bicarbonate Ion
|
Physiology
| null |
dab92aeb-f24c-47f0-8e05-66f2d44ff664
|
single
|
Blood agar is an example of ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enriched media
| 1 |
Enriched media
|
Indicator media
|
Enrichment media
|
Selective media
|
Microbiology
| null |
0ae26ed7-b9cb-4fff-bec2-987137db4457
|
single
|
Which of the following drug is not used topicallyfor open angle glaucoma?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acetazolamide Topical antiglaucoma drugs Pilocarpine Q%) -> 4ttmes a day Beta-blockers - a iimotot (0,25-0.5%) eye drops + 1-2 times a day a Timolot gel -+ Once a dny Betaxalol (0.5%) + twice daily c Levobunolol (0.25-0.5%) -+ l-2 times a day Caeolol (l -2%) -+ l-2 time a day u Metipranolot (0. 1-0.6%) -+ I -2 times a day Adrenergic Adreniline (l -2%\\+ twice dailY a Brimonidine (0.2%o) -+ twice daily Apraclonidine (0.59/o, I %) + twice daily Carbonic-anhydrase inhibitors a Dorzolamiie (2%) -+ 2-3 times a day Brinzolamide (1%) + 3 times a daY PG analoques a LatanoProst (0.005%) + once a daY a TravoProst (0.004%) -+ once a daY BimatoProst (0.03%) -+ once a daY Ans.
| 3 |
Latanoprost
|
Brimonidin
|
Acetazolamide
|
Dorzolamide
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
9976fbb7-e902-4d21-9fd1-4090ef7d4075
|
multi
|
A 42- year old man is undergoing chemotherapy after resection of a cecal adenocarcinoma with positive lymph nodes. Which of the following potentially operable complications is a common occurrence among patients receiving systemic chemotherapy?
|
A surgeon is frequently asked to evaluate patients who are receiving systemic chemotherapy Most complications of chemotherapy do not require surgical therapy. Perirectal abscesses are more common in these immunosuppressed patients. 'Gastrointestinal bleeding occurs secondary to mucosal irritation and thrombocytopenia, Pancreatitis is uncommon, but is associated with L-asparaginase use. Up to 20% of patients treated with floxuridine by continuous hepatic artery infusion develop some degree of inflammation and obstruction of the bile duct. Systemic chemotherapy does not increase the likelihood of acute cholecystitis. appendicitis, incarcerated femoral hernia, or diverticulitis.
| 2 |
Acute cholecystitis
|
Perirectal abscess
|
Appendicitis
|
Diverticulitis
|
Unknown
| null |
0008b2db-f713-4a2c-bc57-6f40469d533f
|
multi
|
Which of following structures pass with aorta through the aortic orifice of the diaphragm
| null | 3 |
Azygos vein and phrenic nerve
|
Thoracic duct And vagus nerve
|
Azygos vein and thoracic duct
|
Vagus and phrenic nerves
|
Anatomy
| null |
069afa2a-f74d-4f1a-baa7-3593fca0f288
|
single
|
A female presented with the severe headache of sudden onset. On CT scan a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage is made. The most common site of subarachnoid haemorrhage is -
|
Excluding head trauma the most common cause of SAH is rupture of a saccular aneurysm (Berry aneurysm or congenital aneurysm)." Ref : Harrison, 17/e p1726
| 2 |
Middle meningeal aery
|
Berry aneurysm rupture
|
Basilar aery
|
Subdural venous sinuses
|
Surgery
|
Head and neck
|
e0872cb2-3532-49a6-9530-8d0287b84b97
|
single
|
Which of the following drugs cannot cross the blood placental barrier
|
Refer kDT 7/e p116 Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary ammonium compound and is this water soluble and unable to penetrate blood brain barrier
| 2 |
Atropine
|
Glycopyrolate
|
Physostigmine
|
Hyoscine hydro bromide
|
Pharmacology
|
Autonomic nervous system
|
c44d6c44-3b9c-42e4-a714-614fb14156ce
|
single
|
Non-pathogenic Ebola virus:-
|
Ebola virus is a deadly human disease most commonly affecting people and non human primates(monkeys and gorillas). Ebola Virus belongs to family Filoviridae. Cause haemorrhagic fever. Out of many subtypes only 4 i.e Ebola,Sudan,Tai and Bundibugyovirus causes disease in people whereas Reston virus is known to cause disease in nonhuman primates and pigs but not in people.
| 2 |
Zaire
|
Reston
|
Cote dlvoire
|
Bundibugyo
|
Microbiology
|
Virology (RNA Virus Pa-1,2 & Miscellaneous Viruses)
|
c52cc09b-c2bc-4c14-9aff-99d066b45c19
|
single
|
First commissure to develop ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anterior commissure
| 2 |
Corpus callosum
|
Anterior commissure
|
Hippocampus
|
None of the above
|
Anatomy
| null |
4d66cfba-0a51-4cb6-9634-3e8c8264bfe6
|
multi
|
Among the following statements, true about DCIS breast is:
|
Ductal Carcinoma in Situ (DCIS) DCIS is a malignant clonal proliferation of epithelial cells limited to ducts and lobules by the basement membrane DCIS can spread throughout the ductal system and produce extensive lesions involving an entire sector of a breast. DCIS is almost always detected by mammography. Histologically:-DCIS can be divided into two major architectural subtypes: Comedo It is defined by two features: Tumor cells with pleomorphic, highgrade nuclei and Areas of central necrosis Noncomedo Lacks either high-grade nuclei or central necrosis Calcifications may also be seen in noncomedo forms of DCIS in association with focal necrosis or intraluminal secretions.
| 4 |
DCIS is a benign proliferation of epithelial cells
|
DCIS involves only specific sectors of breast
|
DCIS is almost always detected histologically
|
Rarely, DCIS can produce nipple discharge
|
Pathology
|
Breast
|
420a31ae-c44e-4b98-839d-53286edb26dc
|
multi
|
All of the following drugs cause hemolysis in G-6PD deficiency except:-
|
* G6PD protects RBC from free radical injury * Impoant drugs causing hemolysis in G6PD deficiency are - Primaquine - Nitrofurantoin - Sulfonamides - Furazolidone
| 4 |
Primaquine
|
Nitrofurantoin
|
Sulfonamides
|
Erythromycin
|
Pharmacology
|
Pharmacodynamics
|
b5feb3c4-4def-4cc4-ba61-a93e0bdb980e
|
multi
|
30 years old primipara in labour with transverse lie.Treatment of choice is:
|
Patients in labour with transverse lie can be managed by external cephalic version followed by surgical rupture of the membrane.
But it is important to note that the patient is a primigravida with age 30 years, i.e. elderly primi, so ECV is contraindicated.
This patient requires an emergency cesarean section.
Guidelines for the management of transverse lie
Antenatal
↓
External cephalic version in all cases beyond 35 weeks
↓
If version fails or is contraindicated
↓
Cesarean section at 38 weeks
During labour
| 2 |
Internal cephalic version
|
Emergency cesarean section
|
Wait and watch
|
External cephalic version
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
286bb7cc-6e4d-47df-96d1-a09d65f16244
|
single
|
A 20 years female has hepatosplemegaly, fever, pallor and generalized lymphadenopathy. Lab test useful for diagnosis is/are -
|
General symptoms of leukemia==bleeding,bruising problems,increased risk of infections,(assume===fever,tiredness,)---generally due to lack of normal blood cells===so blood tests help to Dx or assess.Acute leukemias generally are more common in children.So based on age in Question, we can clinically rule out leukemia. Chronic leukemia==Generally common in older age groups. (just a general rule,), so based on age on Question,chronic leukemia can be ruled out. But confusing aspect in Question which is common to both leukemias is possible hepatosplenomegaly,fever,pallor,generalized lymphadenopathy.Becoz these signs and symptoms are common to both leukemias with few exceptions.----Generally B cell symptoms) Lymphomas===Generally primary presentation in lymphoma is lymphadenopathy,B cell symptoms.Definitive diagnosis--lymph node biopsy,but blood tests would also help.Burkitt lymphoma common in children.Diffuse large-B cell lymphoma is the most common non-hodgkins lympoma and occur in adult age group,where as multiple myeloma is most common in older age groups.Generally,lymphomas are common in older adults and older age group with few exceptions and these exceptions are obvious. Leishmaniasis is considered one of the classic causes of markedly enlarged spleen and liver,and present with fever,pallor(anemia),lymphadenopathy.Dx--aspirates from infected skin,liver,spleen,lymphnode.
| 4 |
ESR
|
Electrophoresis
|
ELISA
|
Routine haemogram
|
Microbiology
|
parasitology
|
0493881c-678c-4a30-9e1c-3d422ef9206d
|
multi
|
Complement is a series of impoant host proteins which provide protection from invasion by foreign microorganisms. Which one of the following statements best describes complement?
|
Both IgG and IgM activate complement by the classic pathway, while IgA activates it by the alternative pathway. Neither IgD nor IgE can activate complement. Complement is a system of several proteins that is activated by either an immune or a nonimmune pathway. Both of these pathways result in the production of many biologically active components that cause cell lysis and death. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
| 4 |
Complement inhibits phagocytosis
|
Microorganisms agglutinate in the presence of complement but do not lyse
|
Complement plays a minor role in the inflammatory response
|
Complement protects the host from pneumococcal and Haemophilus infection through complement components C1, C2, and C4
|
Microbiology
|
Immunology
|
db701698-c4ca-4a6e-af4e-5f47817782e7
|
multi
|
Fordyce spots are seen on-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lips Fordyce spots (Fordyce granules or Fordyce disease)* Fordyce's spot represents ectopic sebaceous glands on lips (most common site) and oral mucosa. They may also appear on vulva and penis, where they are called Tyson's gland, i.e., ectopic sebaceous gland at penis (prepuce) and vulva is called tyson's gland. These glands have histopathology similar to normal sebaceous glands, despite their ectopic location.* They are regarded as hamartomas as they are not associated with hair follicles (In contrast to normal sebaceous glands which have their ducts in hair follicles). Fordyce's spot is totally benign condition which occurs in normal people. It is characterized by discrete, pin-head sized superficial, light or yellow milium-like, maculo-papular lesions in mucous membrane of lips (especially vermilion portion), and sometimes buccal mucosa.* The condition usually appears at puberty and is more common in males. Fordyce's spots are often confused with koplik's spot of measles - There is erythmatous halo around the Koplik's spot which is not there in Fordyce's spot* As the condition is asymptomatic, no treatment is required, other than reassurance. Oral isotretinoin can be used for large disfiguring spots.
| 1 |
Lips
|
Tongue
|
Fingers
|
Nails
|
Skin
|
Anatomy of Skin
|
682dddb8-051a-4538-a1b8-e5823ed742ea
|
single
|
The cerebral peduncle consists of all the following pas except
|
Each half of the midbrain anterior to the aqueduct is called the cerebral peduncle. Each cerebral peduncle is subdivided into (a) The crus cerebri, anteriorly; (b) the substantia nigra, in the middle; and (c) the tegmentum, posteriorlyRef: BD Chaurasia; Volume 3; 6th edition; Brain; Page no: 328
| 4 |
Crus cerebri
|
Substantia nigra
|
Tegmentum
|
Tectum
|
Anatomy
|
Brain
|
f718af99-204e-4c64-ac08-4f67ae3f7e3e
|
multi
|
Treatment for stage T3N1 of carcinoma maxilla is:-
|
Treatment for stage T3N1 of carcinoma maxilla is combination of radiotherapy and surgery. CARCINOMA OF MAXILLARY SINUS Common in 40-60 years of age, more common in malesQ Systemic metastasis are rare, may be seen in lungs (MC)Qand occasionally in bone. CLINICAL FEATURES Nasal stuffiness, blood stained discharge, facial paraesthesia, or pain and epiphoraQ. Nodal metastasis is uncommon and occurs only in the late stage of disease. Maxillary tumors mainly spread to mandibular nodesQ. DIAGNOSIS:CT scan: Best non-invasive method to find the extent of disease. TREATMENT For SCC, combination of radiotherapy and surgeryQgives better results than either alone. Radiotherapy can be given before or after surgery.
| 3 |
Radiation therapy only
|
Chemotherapy only
|
Surgery and radiation
|
Chemotherapy and radiation
|
Surgery
|
Oral cavity
|
3d91d500-2c70-4564-8fe3-535c72692855
|
single
|
True about Choledochal cyst is
|
Option A: it can be both intrahepatic and extrahepatic Option B: Treatment of choice is Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy Option D: Drainage is not done Option C: Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy Is the treatment of choice. So Excision of Choledochal cyst is the right answer Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1512-1514
| 3 |
Always extrahepatic
|
Treatment is cystojejunostomy
|
Excision is ideal treatment
|
Drainage is treatment of choice
|
Anatomy
|
G.I.T
|
5e0291ca-312c-4403-9786-dfac7df580ae
|
multi
|
A 72-year-old man with a significant smoking history presents to the emergency room with complaints of dyspnea and truncal, arm, and facial swelling for one week. Physical examination is remarkable for facial erythema and facial, truncal, and arm edema with prominence of thoracic and neck veins. On chest x-ray, there is a mass in the right mediastinum with adenopathy. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
|
Superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome is characterized by obstruction of venous return from the head, neck, and upper extremities. Over 85% of cases of SVC syndrome are related to malignancy. Bronchogenic carcinomas (most commonly small cell cancer and squamous cell cancer) account for over 80% of these cases. Among bronchogenic carcinomas, the most common causes of SVC syndrome (in order of frequency) are small-cell carcinoma, epidermoid carcinoma, adenocarcinoma (choice A), and large-cell carcinoma (choice C). Lymphomas such as Hodgkin's disease (choice B) and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma are uncommon causes of SVC syndrome. Rare tumors associated with SVC syndrome include primary leiomyosarcomas and plasmacytomas. Infectious etiologies include tuberculosis, syphilis, and histoplasmosis. SVC syndrome can also occur as a result of an enlarged goiter, and from thrombus formation caused by indwelling intravenous lines or pacemaker wires.
| 4 |
Adenocarcinoma
|
Hodgkin's lymphoma
|
Large cell carcinoma
|
Small cell carcinoma
|
Pathology
| null |
1741ac1d-8016-48fc-962b-b97016b60bb1
|
multi
|
Most common serotype causing meningococcus epidemics is
|
Meningococal Meningitis Causative agent : N.meningitidis,a gran negative diplococci Serotypes A, B, C, D, 29E,W135,X,Y World wide Group A is the MC cause of Meningococcal Epidemics (except in America), especially in Sub saharan African belt Recently Group B, W-135, Y cases have staed increasing in World Epidemics caused by : A, C > B> W-135, Y Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 166
| 1 |
A
|
W - 135
|
C
|
Y
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
d7023366-eabb-43cd-88b0-c6705d8e301e
|
single
|
Lepra cell is a –
|
Virchow's lepra cells or foamy cells are undifferentiated histiocytes.
| 4 |
Plasma cell
|
Neutrophil
|
Lymphocyte
|
Histiocyte
|
Dental
| null |
fbd363bf-f354-4ecb-ba19-31efd4c0a703
|
single
|
As opposed to lobar pneumonia broncho pneumonia is characterised grossly and microscopically by
| null | 1 |
patchy inflammatory distribution
|
organisation of alveolar exudate
|
A diffuse inflammatory distribution
|
Inflammation of bronchus
|
Medicine
| null |
7b2c560f-2b7e-49cd-a676-63801f39d0e6
|
multi
|
In assessing the nutritional status of community the following are used except
| null | 2 |
Mortality in 1-4 years age group
|
Percentage of pregnant lady with less than 11.5% Hb
|
Weight/height index in preschool children
|
Low birth weight
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
006472ff-edf1-4404-97ae-060bbe3ee294
|
multi
|
On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditary glaucoma.
|
The first gene found for open angle glaucoma was, GLC1A or myocilin (MYOC). The second gene discovered was optineurin. WDR 36 gene is also involved.
| 1 |
Optineurin
|
Ephrins
|
RBA8
|
Huntingtin
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
b28fa7bb-6c56-4b2c-99e3-2866fd60ee9f
|
single
|
Lipschutz bodies are seen in
|
Lipschutz bodies are inclusion bodies seen in herpes simplex.
| 4 |
Hepatitis - B
|
Vaccinia
|
Variola
|
Herpes simplex
|
Microbiology
| null |
215f01e4-54ce-4dcd-ba9d-d86a463f1e03
|
single
|
Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by:
| null | 2 |
Hyperplasia
|
Hypertrophy
|
Calcification
|
Fatty infiltration
|
Medicine
| null |
068a0b7e-2567-40d2-94ac-1da3207d4977
|
single
|
Opportunistic lung infection in AIDS is due to-
| null | 1 |
Pneumocystis carini
|
Klebsiella
|
Mucormycosis
|
Mycoplasma
|
Medicine
| null |
4d7e0e03-7f64-4401-9299-458f8d734317
|
single
|
Dysdiadochokinesia
|
Dysdiadochokinesia: Inability to Perform Rapid Alternating Movements.Dysahria: Failure of Progression in Talking.Intention Tremor: When a person who has lost the cerebellum performs a voluntary act, the movements tend to oscillate, especially when they approach the intended mark, first overshooting the mark and then vibrating back and foh several times before settling on the mark. This reaction is called an intention tremor or an action tremor, and it results from cerebellar overshooting and failure of the cerebellar system to "damp" the motor movements.Cerebellar Nystagmus: Tremor of the Eyeballs.Ref: Guyton; 13th edition; Chapter 57; Contributions of the Cerebellum and Basal Ganglia to Overall Motor Control
| 1 |
Inability to Perform Rapid Alternating Movements.
|
Failure of Progression in Talking.
|
Intention Tremor
|
Tremor of the Eyeballs
|
Physiology
|
General physiology
|
f567c291-5b9b-46a5-99f4-2119fae45704
|
multi
|
Which of the following is not required for healing
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e.,Sodium Nutrient required for proper wound healing are :Minerals: Iron (divalent iron), Manganese, Magnesium, copper, calcium, zinc.Vitamins: Ascorbic acid (vitamin C), Retinol (vitamin A), and less impoantly riboflavin, pyridoxin, thiamine, tocopherol (vitamin E).Protein and amino acids : Methionine and cysteine are most impoant.
| 4 |
Vitamin C
|
Copper
|
Methionine
|
Sodium
|
Biochemistry
| null |
916d7bbf-0ab6-4f9f-8c88-bd3852acd6e3
|
single
|
a-Fetoprotein is increased in all the following except :
|
Increased maternal weight
| 1 |
Increased maternal weight
|
Multiple gestation
|
Maternal hepatoma
|
Abdominal wall defect
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
6d361c6c-0391-41c6-9475-438b85949985
|
multi
|
Gold standard IOC for female infeility is:September 2011
|
Ans. D: Laparoscopy and hysteroscopyLaparoscopy is combined with hysteroscopy as a comprehensive one-stop infeility work-up, to detect cause of infeility and treat the cause in one go
| 4 |
Laparoscopy
|
Transvaginal USG
|
Hysteroscopy
|
Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
d5fb428b-a47a-4ed0-aa90-733740f481f2
|
single
|
A 45 year old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?
|
Difficulty in walking and pain in both hips after 2 years of steroid intake is suggestive of avascular necrosis. Ref: Apley's System of Ohopedics and Fractures, 8th Edition, Pages 92-93; MR Imaging of the Body By Ernst J. Rummeny, Peter Reimer, Walter Heindel, 2009, Page 460
| 2 |
Primary Osteoahritis
|
Avascular necrosis
|
Tuberculosis
|
Aluminum toxicity
|
Surgery
| null |
67e116b2-ee71-4040-b1e2-adf75770469e
|
multi
|
a-oxidation occurs in
|
Alpha Oxidation It is a process by which fatty acids are oxidised by removing carbon atoms, one at a time, from the carboxyl end. The process is impoant in brain fatty acid does not need activation. Hydroxylation occurs at the alpha-carbon atom. It is then oxidized to alpha-keto acid. The keto acid then undergoes decarboxylation yielding a molecule of CO2 and a fatty acid with one carbon atom less. This process occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum, does not require CoA, but does not generate energy. Some fatty acids undergo alpha-hydroxylation in peroxisomes also. Alpha-oxidation is mainly used for fatty acids that have a methyl group at the beta-carbon, which blocks beta-oxidation. A major dietary methylated fatty acid is phytanic acid. It is derived from phytol present in chlorophyll, milk, and animalfatsRefsum&;s Disease It is a metabolic error due to lack of alpha-hydroxylase (phytanic acid oxidase) so that alpha-oxidation does not occur and phytanic acid accumulates in the tissues. The patient presents with severe neurological symptoms, polyneuropathy, retinitis pigmentosa, nerve deafness and cerebellar ataxia. Regressions of symptoms are observed with restricted dietary intake of phytanic acid. Milk is a good source of phytanic acid, which may be avoided.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 134-135
| 1 |
Mitochondria
|
Peroxisomes
|
Cytosol
|
Golgi apparatus
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of lipid
|
5d12724d-7c13-42b5-a877-838cfb85e097
|
single
|
Fungi of medical importance belongs to
|
Deuteromycota (Fungi imperfectii) - Sexual state is absent - most medically important fungi.
| 1 |
Deuteromycota
|
Basidiomycota
|
Ascomycota
|
Zygomycota
|
Microbiology
| null |
920493c4-8537-449b-9818-24c40a47117d
|
single
|
Hidradenitis suppurativa is infection of
|
Hidradenitis suppurativa is infection of sebaceous glands It is actually due to keratin blockage of apocrine glands but the inflammation extends to involve the eccrine and the sebaceous glands Hidradenitis suppurativaisalso called Acne inversa or ectopic acne It is a chronic recurrent follicular disease presenting after pubey in the apocrine gland-bearing areas such as axilla, groin, perineal and perianal regions, buttocks and infra and inter-mammary folds It has an association with obesity and smoking Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS), also known as acne inversa, is a long term skin disease characterized by the occurrence of inflamed and swollen lumps. These are typically painful and break open, releasing fluid or pus. The areas most commonly affected are the underarms, under the breasts, and groin. Scar tissue remains after healing Self-consciousness or depression may result. *The cause of HS remains unknown, and expes disagree over proposed causes. The condition probably results from a combination of genetic and environmental factors. *Lesions occur in any body areas with hair follicles, although areas such as the axilla, groin, and perianal region are more commonly involved. This theory includes most of the following potential indicators: Postpubescent individuals are more likely to exhibit HS.[ Plugged apocrine (sweat) gland or hair follicle Excessive sweating Androgen dysfunction Genetic disorders that alter cell structure Patients with more advanced cases may find exercise intolerably painful, which may increase the rate of obesity among sufferers. The historical understanding of the disease suggests dysfunctional apocrine glands[or dysfunctional hair follicles, possibly triggered by a blocked gland, create inflammation, pain, and a swollen lesion Treatment Medication: Antibiotics: taken by mouth, these are used for their anti-inflammatory propeies rather than to treat infection. Most effective is a combination of rifampicin and clindamycin given concurrently for 2-3 months. A few popular antibiotics include tetracycline, minocycline, and clindamycin.Topical clindamycin has been shown to have an effect in double-blind placebo controlled studies. Coicosteroid injections. Also known as intralesional steroids: can be paicularly useful for localized disease, if the drug can be prevented from escaping the sinuses. Antiandrogen therapy: hormonal therapy with antiandrogenic medications such as spironolactone, flutamide, cyproterone acetate, ethinylestradiol, finasteride, dutasteride, and metformin have been found to be effective in clinical studies.However, the quality of available evidence is low and does not presently allow for robust evidence-based recommendation Intravenous or subcutaneous infusion of anti-inflammatory (anti-TNF-alpha) drugs such as infliximab, and etanercept. This use of these drugs is not currently Food and Drug Administration approved and is somewhat controversial, so may not be covered by insurance. TNF inhibitor: Studies have suppoed that various TNF inhibitors have a positive effect on hidradenitis suppurativa lesions. Specifically adalimumab at weekly intervals is useful. Topical isotretinoin is usually ineffective in people with HS and is more commonly known as a medication for the treatment of acne vulgaris. Individuals affected by HS who responded to isotretinoin treatment tended to have milder cases of the condition Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1234
| 3 |
Subcutaneous tissue
|
Fat
|
Sebaceous gland
|
Skin
|
Dental
|
All India exam
|
7d88811c-6a41-4bef-ae12-4758ccf95ad4
|
single
|
In control of peussis, the drug of choice for cases?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythromycin Control of whooping cough o Control of whooping cough requires :? 1) Management of cases and contacts 2) Prevention by active immunization Cases: Erythromycin is the DOC. Alternatives are ampicillin, tetracyclin & septran. Contacts : Those who are exposed ---> 10 days erythromycin
| 1 |
Erythromycin
|
Ciprofloxacin
|
Tetracycline
|
Penicillin
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
f230f188-bd0d-4b55-bd25-64c7a1d944e2
|
single
|
Concerning the peripheral chemoreceptors, True is:
|
The peripheral chemoreceptors are responsive to the aerial PO2 , but during normoxia, the response is small. The other choices are incorrect. Peripheral chemoreceptors do respond to changes in blood pH, the response to changes in PCO2 is faster than is the case for central chemoreceptors, the central chemoreceptors are more impoant than the peripheral chemoreceptors in the ventilatory response to increased CO2, and peripheral chemoreceptors have a very high blood flow in relation to their mass.
| 2 |
They respond to changes in the aerial PO2 but not pH
|
Under normoxic conditions, the response to changes in PO2 is very small
|
The response to changes in PCO2 is slower than for central chemoreceptors
|
They are the most impoant receptors causing an increased ventilation in response to a rise in PCO2.
|
Physiology
|
Respiratory System Pa 3
|
2be4b2be-ecaf-4726-bd43-23b476a91888
|
multi
|
All the following statements are true regarding cervicofacial actinomycosis, EXCEPT
| null | 1 |
10-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region.
|
The discharging pus contains visible 'sulphur granules'
|
Cultures on blood agar often produce a typical 'molar tooth' morphology
|
There is usually history of trauma such as tooth extraction or a blow to the jaw
|
Pathology
| null |
b5a91fc2-97c7-41b9-944e-6de290ac04d5
|
multi
|
Sclerotherapy failure is defined as
|
Failure of endoscopic treatment is declared when two sessions fail to control hemorrhage Ref: Sabiston 20th edition
| 1 |
Unresponsiveness to consecutive 2 energy sclerotherapies
|
Unresponsiveness to consecutive 3 energy sclerotherapies
|
Remnant bleeding even after sclerotherapy for successive 2 hospital admissions
|
Failure to heal after a single treatment
|
Anatomy
|
G.I.T
|
049c0cfa-6736-4963-b9a7-d97790493bd0
|
single
|
How is the Human povey index - 2 (HPI -2) different from Human povey Index - 1 (HPI - 1, as described in UNDP?
|
Human povey index for developing countries (HPI-1) The following three dimensions are taken into account: Deprivation of longevity, measured as a percentage of the individuals with a life expectancy lower than 40 years (P1). Deprivation of knowledge, expressed as a percentage of illiterate adults (P2). Deprivation of decent living standards (P3) HPI-2 also considers a fouh dimension, social exclusion, measured with the long-term unemployment rate (P4), that is the percentage of those unemployed for 12 months or over compared to the total work force (the sum of those working and those seeking a job). Ref : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition
| 2 |
It also captures the financial inclusion
|
It also captures the social exclusive
|
It also captures the geriatric empowerment
|
It also captures the occupational health
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Concept of health and disease
|
b3c9f503-441b-40bf-b591-5da2ffe1cdf6
|
single
|
Rejuvenation of gutta-percha can be changed from a to b form at
| null | 2 |
55 - 59° F
|
55 - 59° C
|
20 - 25° C
|
20 - 25° F
|
Dental
| null |
df43876a-0398-490b-a44a-690413eab2a2
|
single
|
Other than keratoacanthoma, lesion which shows pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia:
|
All these lesions shows pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia:
Keratoacanthoma
Granular cell tumor of tongue
Papillary hyperplasia of tongue & palate
Blastomycosis
Sporotrichosis
Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
Granuloma inguinale.
| 4 |
Blastomycosis
|
Sporotrichosis
|
Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
|
All of the above
|
Pathology
| null |
07bf7174-bf40-4ef2-a3ea-22dd0ef8feb3
|
multi
|
Measure of lnfectivity of a disease:
|
Ref: Park 'Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine', 22nd edition, Pg: 58, 55, 96Explanation:Incidence rateNumber of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period in timePrevalence rateIt includes old and new cases, it depends on Incidence and duration of disease Prevalence = incidence X durationSecondary attack rateIndicates communicability or infec- tivrtyNo. of contacts d eve lo Dina disease in one maximum IP X 100 Total no. susceptible contactsCase fatality rateSeverity of the disease, killing power of the diseaseIndicators of severity of disease1. Case fatality rate2. Disability rate
| 3 |
Incidence rate
|
Prevalance rate
|
Secondary attack rate
|
Case Fatality rate
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Infectious Disease Epidemiology
|
542a5a62-278a-4f27-9024-9a7edce115d2
|
single
|
A child comes with hematuria following respiratory tract infection. He gives similar history about 5-10 months back also. All are true, except -
|
Hematuria is defined as the presence of red blood cells in the urine originating from the kidney or the urinary tract Underlying conditions producing hematuria, like diabetes, can be associated with progressive decline in kidney function in the setting of CKD Ref Harrison20th edition pg 278
| 3 |
C3 complement level normal
|
Progressive renal failure with each attack
|
Biopsy shows focal and diffuse proliferative change in 50% of patient
|
Anti streptococcal antibody titre may not rise after each attack
|
Medicine
|
Kidney
|
b6d5543a-1349-4ac3-82b2-ceb14961a238
|
multi
|
Lithium most commonly used in:
|
Ans. (a) Bipolar disorderRef.: Harrison 19th ed. / 2717* DOC for prophylaxis of bipolar disorder- Lithium* DOC for acute mania: Lithium* Lithium can also be used in treatment of neutropenia and cluster headache and major depression episodes.* Therapeutic level of lithium: 0.8 - 1.2 mEq/L* Toxicity seen after >1.5 mEq/L* Most common side effect of lithium: Tremor* Lithium is contraindicated in 1st trimester of pregnancy. It can cause congenital heart defect- Ebstein anomaly.
| 1 |
Bipolar disorder
|
Depressive disorder
|
Personality disorder
|
Headache
|
Psychiatry
|
Personality Disorders
|
6001e8e7-c33d-4067-895e-8e41117ec19f
|
single
|
Long bone fracture fixation done with -a) Intramedullary nailb) Compression platec) External fixationd) Screwe) Tension band wiring
|
There are so many options in fracture management and it is useless to explain them here. I am giving only brief description.
Management of fracture
The principles in fracture management are : -
1)Reduction
In displaced fractures, fracture site is reduced to proper alignment first.
Reduction may be : -
A) Closed : - Without opening the fracture site. This can be done by : -
Closed manipulation of fracture site.
Continuous traction to counteract the forces which prevent reduction.
B) Open : - Fracture site is opened and then the fracture is reduced.
2) Immobilization of fractured bone
After reduction, immobilization is necessary to maintain the bones in reduced position.
This may be dony by : -
Plaster of paris (cast or slab)
Using implant : -
i) For long Bones
Intramedullary nailing eg K nail, interlocking nail, Rush nail, reconstruction nail etc.
Plating eg. DCP
External fixator
Dynamic hip screw (DHS) & Dynamic condylar screw CDCS
Plaster cast
ii) For short bones
Screws
K-wire
Tension band wiring
Here I would like to explain one fact, which may otherwise cause confusion : -
Closed reduction does not mean that treatment is always non-operative (conservative).
Closed reduction may be : -
Conservative : - When reduction is done without opening of fracture site and the fracture site is immobilized without fixing by implant but by plaster or splints.
Surgical : - When reduction is done without opening of fracture site and the fracture site is fixed by implants, e.g., by percutaneous K-wire or screw.
Open reduction is always surgical; no confusion about that.
| 1 |
abc
|
bc
|
acd
|
bcd
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
0323548b-acc8-4c3b-b32f-51ee01006f97
|
single
|
The drug which acts by inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in helminths?
|
Niclosamide is a chlorinated salicylamide for most cestode infections acts by, inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation. But post drug purging is required for niclosamide, unlike praziquantel and albendazole.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 805.
| 1 |
Niclosamide
|
Piperazine
|
Praziquantel
|
Mebendazole
|
Pharmacology
|
Antibiotics
|
1dc686b2-343a-4b05-84fe-588a23a4e603
|
single
|
False about Pulse polio immunization is
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e. AFP surveillance is done in all children < 5 years of age AFP surveillance is carried out in all children below 15 years of age AFP SurveillanceAcute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillance is carried out to identify all remaining infected areas, monitor progress towards eradication and target supplementary immunization appropriately.The term AFP means paralysis of acute onset involving limbs leading to flaccidity. Poliomylelitis is most important etiology of AFP, other are - GBS (Guillain-Barre syndrome), transverse myelitis and traumatic neuritis.AFP surveillance aims at detecting cases of AFP and reporting them immediately to district immunization officer.Surveillance is carried out for all cases of AFP and not just for poliomyelitis. All cases of AFP are reported, regardless of the final diagnosis. As paralytic poliomyelitis is one cause of AFP, maintaining a high sensitivity of AFP reporting will ensure that all cases of paralytic poliomyelitis are detected, reported and investigated, resulting in preventive central measures to interrupt the transmission of disease.The aim of AFP surveillance is to detect polio virus transmission, and the earlier the stool is collected, the greater the chance of detecting polio virus.WHO recommends the immediate reporting and investigation of every case of AFP in children less than 15 yrs (As AFP in a person > 15 yrs is unlikely to be polio. Still, AFP surveillance must be flexible enough to report any case of AFP in an adult, if suspected to be due to poliomyelitis)Cases of AFP are classified as Polio if:Wild polio virus is isolated from any stool specimen.Cases of AFP without isolation of wild polio virus may be classified as 'polio compatible' if:Stool specimens were inadequate andResidual weakness was present 60 days after onset of paralysis or 60-day follow-up was not done (due to death or absence) and'Expert review' concludes that these cases could not be discarded as 'non-polio' based on available data.WHO recommends obtaining 2 stool samples from AFP cases within 14 days of paralysis onset and sent to WHO accredited laboratory using Reverse cold chain.AFP surveillance is evaluated by 2 key indicators :the sensitivity of reporting (target being non-polio AFP rate of at least 1 case per 100,000 children aged less than 15 years, this is the 'background' rate of AFP among children. Non-polio causes of AFP such as GBS, transverse myelitis, & traumatic neuritis account for this background rate.)the completeness of specimen collection (target being 2 adequate stool specimens from at least 80 per cent of all AFP cases).Mop-up ActivityMop-up activity is a house-to-house activity where two rounds of polio immunization, 4-6 weeks apart are conducted to limit the transmission of wild poliovirus.Under the mop-up activity, children below 5 years of age are covered in affected and neighbouring districts around every detected positive polio case.The basic strategy for eradicating polio consists of:High infant immunization coverage with four doses of oral polio vaccine in the first year of life;National Immunization Days during which every child below 5 years gets 2 additional doses of OPV on 2 days separated by 4 to 6 weeks.Surveillance of AFP to identify all reservoirs of wild polio virus transmission through reporting and laboratory testing of all cases of acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) among children under fifteen years of age;.Extensive house-to-house immunization mopping-up campaigns in the final stages where wild poliovirus transmission persists.
| 4 |
Mop up immunization is done in restricted geographical areas
|
It is carried out in all children less than 5 yrs of age
|
Mopping up is done in areas where wild polio virus is found
|
AFP surveillance is done in all children < 5 years of age
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable Diseases
|
a9252005-4a87-43d6-9576-d6c2a314fc03
|
multi
|
Which of the following does not effect the refraction of eye
|
Answer- C. Increase in depth of anterior chamberDepth of anterior chamber has no role in refractive system of eye.Removal of vitreous will change the refractionThickening of lens will change the refractionChange in axial length has a large effect on refractive power of eye.The main function of refractive system of eye is to focus the light rays on the retina.
| 3 |
Removal of vitreous
|
Thickening of lens
|
Increase in depth of anterior chamber
|
Change in axial length
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
6544a48c-a0d2-4cf3-8696-7ef156eadeab
|
single
|
Supine hypotension is characteristic of:
|
3rd trimester of pregnancy
| 3 |
First trimester
|
2nd trimester
|
3rd trimester of pregnancy
|
Twin pregnancy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
4e2b7ff4-8ebb-464f-b8ce-cf82e6b1a779
|
single
|
'Clue cells' are seen in:
|
Clue cells are epethelial cells covered with bacteria and are identified on microscopy. They are characteristic of Bacterial Vaginosis. Ref: Clinical Obstetrics and Gynaecology by Brian A. Magowan, Philip Owen, James Drife, Pages 125-134.
| 1 |
Bacterial vaginosis
|
Vaginal Candidiasis
|
Chlamydial vaginosis
|
Trichomoniasis
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
1161d849-cda0-4034-be05-81e50ca537fa
|
single
|
From the surgery done below, name the gold standard investigation used to diagnose this condition:
|
The specimen in the image is Appendix and the surgery performed is Appendectomy CECT done to confirm diagnose at a 5-6 ALVARADO Score as it is Equivocal. Gold standard for Dx of Acute Appendicitis-CECT. Features seen in CECT in case of acute appendicitis- Diy fat thickened mesoappendix Appendicular faecolith Arrowhead sign- Thickened caecum funneling contrast into orifice of appendix Gold standard for Dx of Acute Appendicitis in Children-ULTRASOUND
| 1 |
CECT
|
Ultrasound
|
MRI
|
Laparotomy
|
Surgery
|
Vermiform Appendix
|
51715cba-a697-41f5-81b3-d5e8d29593e2
|
single
|
Structure derived from first pharyngeal arch:
|
Answer D. Anterior belly of digastricMESODERMAL DERIVATIVES OF PHARYNGEAL ARCHESPharyngeal archMuscular contributionsSkeletal contributionsNerveAeryIst (also called "mandibular arch")MylohyoidMuscles of masticationAnterior belly of digastricTensor veli palatiniTensor tympaniMaxillaZygomatic bonepa of temporal and vomer, sphenoid, mandibleMeckel's cailage:- Malleus, incusAnterior ligament of malleussphenomandibular ligamentMandibular division of Trigeminal Nerve (V3).Maxillary aeryIInd (also called the "hyoid arch")StapediusStylohyoidPosterior belly of digastricFacial expression musclesReiche's cailage, stapes (except footplate)Styloid processStylohyoid ligamentSmaller cornu of hyoidSuperior pa of body of hyoidFacialStapedial aeryIIIrdStylopharyngeusGreater cornu of hyoidLower pa of body of hyoidGlossopharyngea Carotid (common carotid/ internal carotid)IVthPharyngeal musclesCricothyroidCailage of larynx except arytenoidssuperior parathyroids, epiglottic cailageSuperior laryngeal branch of VagusLeft-arch of Aoa Right-subclan aeryVIthIntrinsic muscles of larynx (except cricothyroid)Arytenoid cailages of larynxRecurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of vagus)Left-Left Pulmonary aery, ductus aeriosus Right- Right pulmonary aery
| 4 |
Levator palatini
|
Buccinator
|
Stylohyoid
|
Anterior belly of digastric
|
Anatomy
| null |
efafd6b1-3ffb-4d1a-9a01-466a1a6eb800
|
single
|
Most impoant extracellular buffer______
|
The most impoant extracellular buffer is bicarbonate. The source of bicarbonate is plasma by filtration. It is non inducible buffer. Proteins: Are the most abundant intracellular buffer. Phosphate: Minor buffer in kidney. The source is plasma by filtration. It is non inducible buffer. Ammonia is a minor buffer, locally produced by tubular cells. Its production increases in metabolic acidosis. It is the only inducible buffer. Principal Buffers in the Body Fluids Extracellular Buffers Intracellular Buffers HCO3 - Major Plasma proteins Phoshate - Minor NH3- minor Organic Phosphate (e.g., AMP, ADP, 2,3-diphosphologly (DPG)) Intracellular proteins Hemoglobin Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 410-414
| 1 |
Bicarbonates
|
Plasma Protein
|
Phosphates
|
Nitrates
|
Physiology
|
Renal physiology
|
66aabc38-0d9e-41e5-9ca2-08df7235cc3f
|
single
|
The layer responsible for the strength of an intestinal anastomosis is
|
Mechanical propeiesThe mechanical propeies of intact intestine in axial and transversal directions were different. The mechanical strength of the intact intestinal wall was conditioned by the submucosa and muscularis, while the serosa and mucosa showed no significant strength. Comparison of axial specimens&; mechanical propeies of the intact intestinal wall and intestinal wall with all layers sutured through determined that only the submucosa supplies mechanical strength to anastomosis.Other layers contribute no significant force to anastomotic strength. The strength applied to the thread during knot tying does not change the paicipation of the intestinal layers in supplying suture-holding capacity for 8 and 12 mm stitch depth. (Refer:
| 2 |
Mucosa
|
Submucosa
|
Muscularis propria
|
Serosa
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
afc689c2-3f13-4755-85db-2f8517baf55b
|
single
|
Catgut suture is derived from which pa of the sheep
|
Answer- C. MuscleCatgut suture is prepared from the submucosa of the first one-third of the small intestine of sheep or cow.Chromic catgut is made by treating catgut with cbromic acid salt.
| 3 |
Stomach
|
Intestine
|
Muscle
|
Ligaments
|
Surgery
| null |
8bc27000-7920-412d-bf24-f12cb6285a9c
|
single
|
Which of the following sensation are transmitted by the Dorsal tract/Posterior column?
|
Fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus occupy the posterior white funiculus of the spinal cord, and are, therefore, often referred to as the posterior column tracts. Functions: -components of sense of touch: Fine-touch Tactile touch Tactile localization Tactile discrimination Stereognosis. - proprioceptive impulses - sense of vibrations. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 691,692,693
| 1 |
Fine touch
|
Pain
|
Temperature
|
All of the above
|
Physiology
|
Nervous system
|
485177ed-ce12-4d7a-8627-30ff50bb62ab
|
multi
|
Which amino acid can protonate and deprotonate at neutral pH?
|
Ans. A. HistidineAmino acid which can protonate and deprotonate means those which can act as buffer.Amino acid whose pKa=pH of the medium has maximum buffering capacity.pKa of imidazole group of histidine is 6.5 - 7.4.At pH=7, Imidazole group of histidine can act as buffer.
| 1 |
Histidine
|
Leucine
|
Glycine
|
Arginine
|
Biochemistry
|
Proteins and Amino Acids
|
b54073b8-0cc2-42c9-82bb-07d18bf517fc
|
single
|
All are included in triple therapy for peptic ulcer EXCEPT: September 2012
|
Ans. C i.e. Ciprofloxacin H. pylori Its eradication drastically reduces ulcer recurrence in patients with duodenal or gastric ulcers. 7-day triple therapies with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) + two antibiotics given BID are currently recommended first-line for H. pylori eradication e.g. lansoprazole (or alternate PPI) + clarithromycin + either metronidazole or amoxicillin A dose of clarithromycin 250mg p.o. BID is preferred when using in combination with a PPI and metronidazole; however, the 500mg p.o. BID dose is recommended in combination with a PPI + amoxicillin. Maintenance acid suppression therapy is not necessary following H. pylori eradication except in high-risk patients (e.g. severe GI bleed; refractory ulcer disease). Ranitidine Bismuth Citrate or RBC is a new agent useful in H. pylori eradication regimens.
| 3 |
Clarithyromycin
|
Amoxycillin
|
Ciprofloxacin
|
Proton pump inhibitor
|
Pharmacology
| null |
e4afbe57-6290-4071-abca-9c278e09a2bd
|
multi
|
A patient develops hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy following sexual contact, 3 weeks back. The best test to rule out HIV infection is
|
the p24 antigen is the earliest marker for HIV infections.
Acute HIV syndrome develops 3-6 weeks after the infection.
The acute HIV syndrome represents the initial or primary response of an immunocompetent adult to the HIV infection.
It is characterized by a high level of virus production, viremia and widespread seeding of the lymphoid tissue.
During this phase, the virus can be rapidly isolated from the blood and there are high levels of HIV p.24 Ag in the serum.
Thus, this phase of HIV infection is detected by demonstrating p24 Ag of the HIV virus.
The HIV antibody-based test such as ELISA and western blot cannot be used for diagnosing this phase of infection because the immune response has not yet developed.
Soon, however, a virus-specific immune response develops evidenced by seroconversion (development of antibody).
The seroconversion usually occurs within 3-7 weeks of presumed exposure.
Once the antibody develops, the antibody-based tests ELISA and western blot are used in the diagnosis.
| 3 |
ELISA
|
Western blot
|
p24 Ag
|
Lymph node biopsy
|
Medicine
| null |
e1370e0c-0662-424d-840f-14902e16b71b
|
single
|
Semi essential amino acids are – a) Arginineb) Lysinec) Leucined) Histidine
|
Semi essential amino acids
Semi essential amino acids are ones that can sometimes be made internally if conditions are right.
Arginine and histidine are such amino acids that can be converted from other amino acids.
Also know
Conditionally essential amino acids
Non-essential amino acids become essential if their precursors are deficient.
Examples → Tyrosine (derived from pheylalanine) and cysteine (derived from methionine).
| 4 |
b
|
c
|
ac
|
ad
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
7fce036c-a72a-41ff-b16e-15f02fa45e48
|
single
|
Glibenclamide reduces blood glucose in all of the following EXCEPT:
|
(Ref: KDT 6/e p266) Sulfonylureas decrease blood glucose in diabetics as well as non-diabetics. It requires at least 30% of functional beta cells for their action. Insulin is the only treatment for type 1 doanetes.
| 2 |
Non diabetics
|
Type 1 diabetics
|
Type 2 diabetics
|
Obese diabetics
|
Anatomy
|
Other topics and Adverse effects
|
af596a64-c4e7-4cb4-b1cc-e203617885bf
|
multi
|
Chalky white deposits in teeth are seen with which acid?
|
High yield points: Chalky white teeth-sulphuric acid Black tongue- sulphuric acid Yellow teeth- picric acid Green urine- phenol Golden hair- copper
| 4 |
Carbolic acid
|
Oxalic acid
|
Nitric acid
|
Sulphuric acid
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Toxicology - 2
|
e28bcc85-1808-489a-b2bd-3e5a59cfbc23
|
single
|
Wide pulse pressure is seen in-
|
The aerial pulse pressure is widened as a result of both systolic hypeension and a lowering of the diastolic pressure. The measurement of aerial diastolic pressure with a sphygmomanometer may be complicated by the fact that systolic sounds are frequently heard with the cuff completely deflated. As the disease progresses and the LV end-diastolic pressure rises, the aerial diastolic pressure may actually rise as well, because the aoic diastolic pressure cannot fall below the LV end-diastolic pressure. For the same reason, acute severe AR may also be accompanied by only a slight widening of the pulse pressure. Such patients are invariably tachycardic as the hea rate increases in an attempt to preserve the CO ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no.1944 )
| 1 |
Aoic regurgitation
|
PDA
|
MR
|
AS
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
72041608-3eda-48ce-b26a-6800ebe3ac46
|
single
|
The inverse stretch reflex is due to
|
The receptor for the inverse stretch reflux is in the Golgi tendon organ.(Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology 23rd edition page no.162)
| 2 |
Trail fibre ending
|
Golgi tendon
|
Tail fiber ending
|
Muscle spindle
|
Physiology
|
General physiology
|
d05b82eb-2944-402d-b447-f1ea84af1e08
|
single
|
Sperm maturation takes place in
|
Sperm maturation takes place in epididymis. The seminiferous tubules of the testis are the staing point of the process, where spermatogonial stem cells adjacent to the inner tubule wall divide in a centripetal direction- beginning at the walls and proceeding into the innermost pa or lumen to produce immature sperm. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg226
| 3 |
Vas deferens
|
Seminiferous tubules
|
Epididymis
|
Female genital tract
|
Anatomy
|
Abdomen and pelvis
|
c34305e2-252f-4e20-94fb-7cd9fe80c26f
|
single
|
A young male with gallbladder stones shows the following test results; serum bilirubin 2.5, Hb 6; urine test positive for urobilinogen; diagnosis is:
|
Answer is A (Haemolytic jaundice) All findings in the question corroborate with a haemolytic picture. Presence of Urobilinogen in urine rules out an obstructive cause for jaundice. Decrease in haemoglobin and elevated bilirubin levels are consistent with a haemolytic cause. Gall stones can be explained by precipitation of bilirubin (Bilirubinate crystals) Distinguishing features between various forms of Jaundice : Parameter Hemolytic Hepatocellular Obstructive Blood Blood Blood Blood Haemoglobin (12-18 g/dI) Unconjugated bilirubin (0.2 to 0.7 mg/dl) Conjugated bilirubin (0.1 to 0.3 mg/dl) Alkaline phosphatase (3-13 KAU) (30 to 120 IU/L) Aminotransferases . Cholesterol Decreased || N N N N N. N or | | N or | || N N. N | || N | Stool Stool Stool Stool Colour of stool N N Pale Urine Urine Urine Urine Bilirubin Urobilinogen 0 | | | | | Note : Gilbes Syndrome and Criggler Najjar syndrome: are enzyme disorders characterized by defective conjugation. They thus present with a picture similar to Hemolytic with the following exceptions: a. Hb is not decreased b.Urobilinogen is not increased (N or Rotor's syndrome and Dubin Johnson syndrome are characterized by defective excretion. They thus present with a picture similar to obstructive with the following exceptions: Alkaline phosphatase is not raised.
| 1 |
Hemolytic jaundice
|
Obstructive jaundice
|
Hepatocellular jaundice
|
Protoporphyria
|
Medicine
| null |
196e2b31-7af5-44c2-8b05-f3c89b90863e
|
multi
|
What tissue from the implanting embryo directly interfaces with the endometrial connective tissue?
| null | 4 |
Inner cell mass
|
Extra embryonic mesoderm
|
Epiblast
|
Syncytiotrophoblast
|
Anatomy
| null |
1d7c0619-85cb-43a0-bcc7-1d880f9478ad
|
single
|
A 49-year-old man has a pulmonary embolism that completely blocks blood flow to his left lung. As a result, which of the following will occur?
|
Alveolar PO2 in the left lung will equal the PO2 in inspired air-No blood flow to the left lung- No gas exchange between the alveolar air and the pulmonary capillary blood-Consequently, O2 is not added to the capillary blood. The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio in the left lung will be infinite (not zero or lower than that in the normal right lung) because Q (the denominator) is zero. Systemic aerial PO2 will, of course, be decreased because the left lung has no gas exchange. Alveolar PO2 in the right lung is unaffected.
| 4 |
Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio in the left lung will be zero
|
Systemic aerial PO2 will be elevated
|
V/Q ratio in the left lung will be lower than in the right lung
|
Alveolar PO2 in the left lung will be approximately equal to the PO2 in inspired air
|
Physiology
|
Respiratory System Pa 1
|
4b774530-b29a-437f-80b2-1f312e830ce3
|
single
|
Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following except:
| null | 4 |
Myelopathy
|
Optic atrophy
|
Peirpheral neuropathy
|
Myopathy
|
Medicine
| null |
30d7c8ed-c17c-4328-8c39-9ba856672eab
|
multi
|
Radiation therapy to hypoxic tissues may be potentiated by the treatment with –
| null | 2 |
Mycostatin
|
Metronidazole
|
Methotrexate
|
Melphalan
|
Radiology
| null |
2ca2ab72-b2df-4e27-8874-322fdbe5310e
|
single
|
Which of the following has the same principle as that used in Brinell test?
|
The Vickers hardness test employs the same principle of hardness testing that is used in the Brinell test. However, instead of a steel ball, a square-based pyramid is used. Although the impression is square instead of round, the method for calculating the Vickers hardness number (usually abbreviated as HV or VHN) is the same as that for the BHN in that the load is divided by the projected area of indentation.
Note: The Rockwell hardness test is somewhat similar to the Brinell test in that a steel ball or a conical diamond point is used. However, Instead of measuring the diameter of the impression, the depth of penetration is measured.
| 2 |
Rockwell
|
Vickers
|
Knoop
|
None
|
Dental
| null |
e7c6c048-d08c-47ac-85c3-d4917e389520
|
multi
|
All are seen in Henoch Schonlein purpura except:
|
a. Thrombocytopenia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1216-1217Ghai 8/e p 632-633)Palpable purpura without thrombocytopenia is seen in Henoch Schonlein purpura (HSP)
| 1 |
Thrombocytopenia
|
Glomerulonephritis
|
Arthralgia
|
Abdominal pain
|
Pediatrics
|
New Born Infants
|
5dceaa68-c70f-4e8c-b6c7-09c0fff0098b
|
multi
|
Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis Binfection?
|
Answer is C (IgM anti-HBc): Hbs Ag is present in recent hepatitis B infection but it is not specific to acute infection (it may also be seen in carriers). IgM anti- HBc is specific for acute or recent hepatitis, and hence is the answer of choice.
| 3 |
HBsAg
|
IgG anti - HBs
|
IgM anti - HBc
|
IgM anti - Hbe
|
Medicine
| null |
aff0446d-cdaf-4548-9be7-559a63c0c752
|
single
|
Oblique and horizontal fracture of nasal septum is called as -
| null | 1 |
Jarjavay and chevallete fracture
|
Arnold fracture
|
Citteli fracture
|
Thudicum fracture
|
ENT
| null |
7536d8f8-e30b-4939-9af4-04f60ca2982e
|
multi
|
All are features of haemophilic knee joint, EXCEPT:
|
Ans. is 'a' ie juxta articular osteosclerosis Hemophilic arthropathy : is common in both A & B types of hemophilia. It is not common in other inherited disorder of coagulation, such as von Willebrand ds. or factor V deficiencyRadiographs of joints reflect the stage of diseaseIn early stages these is only capsule distention,Laterjuxtaarticular osteopenia*,marginal erosions*subchondral cysts*.joint space is narrowed* andthere is bone overgrowth.The changes are similar to those observed in osteoarthritis.Unique feature of hemophilic arthropathy arewidening of the femoral intercondylar notch*enlargement of proximal radius, andsquaring of the distal end of the painMC joint involved in hemophilic arthropathy - Knee*
| 1 |
Juxta articular osteosclerosis
|
Sub chondral cyst formation
|
Widening of intercondylar notch
|
Squaring of patella
|
Orthopaedics
|
Hemophilic Arthritis
|
23cccc6d-d227-4a6d-85db-20e3e928aa97
|
multi
|
HIV prevalence can be assessed bv-
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sentinel surveillance Surveillanceo Surveillance is defined as "the continous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease and other conditions of ill healtho S urveillance may be of following typesPassive surveillanceData is reported itself to health system, e.g. a patient (clinical case) is coming to a doctor.Most of the national health programmes in India rely on passive surveillance for data collection.Active surveillanceData is collected actively by health system, e.g. collection of blood slides every fortnight from house to house to control malaria.Active surveillance in India is done inNational leprosy elimination programme (modified leprosy elimination campaigns}.National vector Borne disease control programme (NVBDCP) e.g. malaria.Sentinel surveillanceSentinel surveillance helps in identifying missing cases and supplementing notified cases.Sentinel surveillance in India is done in national AIDS control programme.
| 1 |
Sentinel surveillance
|
Active
|
Passive
|
Register
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Concept of Health and Disease
|
23de7534-e8ac-479b-ba77-1e93dfd31d0c
|
single
|
In modified class III cavity restoration retention is obtained mainly by
| null | 1 |
Acid etching
|
Retentive groove/slot
|
Retentive point
|
Retentive pin
|
Dental
| null |
99b66b30-559c-4ef9-bd9f-c4b7fe2981df
|
single
|
Hyperinflation of lung in CXR is seen in -
|
Hypertranslucency due to hyperinflation may occur in congenital lobar emphysema.
| 2 |
CCF
|
Congenital lobar emphysema
|
Diaphragmatic hernia
|
Foreign body
|
Radiology
| null |
d4a2cf86-145c-4dec-abf0-5b0c5aaa7d66
|
single
|
Transfer of genetic material in between bacteria through pili is termed as:
|
(Refer: Anantha Narayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition, pg no: 59-61)
Methods of gene transfer
| 2 |
Transduction
|
Conjugation
|
Transformation
|
Transfection
|
Unknown
| null |
fa964d00-9059-467e-ae63-4a2d53adef6d
|
single
|
Furosemide mechanism of action in LVF is: September 2010
|
Ans. A: Inhibitor of Na-K-Cl ion sympo Like other loop diuretics, furosemide acts by inhibiting the Na-K-2C1 sympoer in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. The action on the distal tubules is independent of any inhibitory effect on carbonic anhydrase or aldosterone; it also abolishes the coicomedullary osmotic gradient and blocks negative as well as positive free water clearance.
| 1 |
Inhibitor of Na-K-Cl ion sympo
|
Aldosterone antagonist
|
Mercurial derivative
|
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
|
Pharmacology
| null |
010ef5f2-167c-4c72-b7ec-24c33f95f8f1
|
single
|
After how many days of pregnancy the peak levels of HCG in urine is seen normally?
|
The intact hCG molecule is detectable in plasma of pregnant women 7 to 9 days after the midcycle surge of LH that precedes ovulation. Thus, it is likely that hCG enters maternal blood at the time of blastocyst implantation. Plasma levels increase rapidly, doubling every 2 days, with maximal levels being attained at 8 to 10 weeks. Ref: Leveno K.J., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 3. Implantation, Embryogenesis, and Placental Development. In K.J. Leveno, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
| 3 |
30
|
45
|
70
|
90
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
b8e2f789-76af-449f-8a54-606e7670f6e1
|
multi
|
A patient on amphotericin emia of
|
Ans. d. 120-160 mEq over 24 hours Except in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq. Potassium Supplementation A prudent protocol to follow is to add potassium chloride to IV solutions at a final concentration of 40-60 mEq/L and to administer no more than 10-20 mEq/L of potassium per hour Except in unusual circumstances, the total amount of potassium administered daily should not exceed 200 mEq. IV potassium replacement is indicated for patients with severe hypokalemia and for those who can not take oral supplementation. For severe deficiency, potassium may be given through a peripheral IV line in a concentration that should exceed 40 mEq/L, at the rates upto 40 mEq/L/Hour. Continuous ECG monitoring is indicated and the serum potassium levels should be checked every 3-6 hours. For the initial administration, avoid glucose containing fluid to prevent fuher shift of potassium intothe cells. . Magnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected at the same time, paicularly in refractory hypokalemia
| 4 |
40 mEq over 24 hours
|
60 mEq over 24 hours
|
80 mEq over 24 hours
|
120-160 mEq over 24 hours
|
Medicine
| null |
30ed74ee-a7b9-4374-8560-ac74f6a1c5d6
|
single
|
Kidney receives about …………… % of cardiac output -
|
Total blood flow through various organs (whole organ)
Liver - 1500ml/min - 27.8% of cardiac output
Kidney - 1260ml/min - 23.3% of cardiac output
Skeletal muscle - 840ml/min - 15.6% of cardiac output
Brain - 750ml/min - 13.9% of cardiac output
Skin - 462ml/min - 8.6% of cardiac output
Heart - 250ml/min - 4.7% of cardiac output
Blood flow per unit mass in decreasing order –ml/100gm/min (Highest to lowest)
Kidney
Heart
Liver
Brain
Skin
Skeletal muscle
| 4 |
5%
|
10%
|
15%
|
20%
|
Physiology
| null |
c2f83ab0-3ca3-423f-882b-f83b9c2b1bd8
|
single
|
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