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A 16 years boy is accused of rape to a 12 years old girl. By which of the following, the boy can prove that he is innocent -a) No abrasion in body & genitaliab) Absence of blood & semen in cloth & genitaliac) Absence of saliva in cheekd) Age of the boy 16 yearse) Presence of smegma in penis & corpora granulosus
The absence of signs of struggle (injuries to body and vagina) and absence of exchange (blood and semen in cloth and genitalia) may be used as evidence in defences, as their presence is suggestive of rape. Presence of smegma under prepuce is inconsistent with recent intercourse as it may be rubbed during intercourse and it takes 24 hours to accumulate. In India, the law does not presume any age limit below which a boy is considered physically incapable of committing rape.
2
abc
abe
cde
acd
Forensic Medicine
null
9aaeadc7-9acb-4a07-94bd-7c7257c71c75
single
After 8 weeks of visit to female sex worker male patient develops painless ulcer over penis that bleeds on touch without any lymphadenopathy, diagnosis is?
Donovanosis (Granuloma Inguinale ) Chronic, progressively destructive bacterial infection of the genital region caused by K. granulomatis. Intracellular, gram-negative, pleomorphic, encapsulated bacterium. Genital ulcers: Single Base is beefy red, bleeds easily and painless. Indurated and elevated margins
4
Primary Syphilis
Chanchroid
Herpes simplex virus
Donovanosis
Dental
Sexually Transmitted Infections
bc302924-c9e8-43b7-9460-9ea24ebed0ab
single
Ear ossicles are
Ear ossicles are malleus, incus, and stapes
4
Malleus
Incus
Stapes
All the above
Anatomy
General anatomy
b2a37726-2c37-443d-9085-3082741354db
multi
Which one of the following is not a feature of Phenylketonuria?
Ans. is `b' i.e., Reduced tendon reflexesReflexes are hyperactive.
2
Severe mental retardation
Reduced tendon reflexes
Enamel hypoplasia
Vomiting in early infancy
Pediatrics
null
60a7dca3-d192-4bbb-9bb4-d0119a6fcbd0
single
Which of the following is least likely to cause constrictive pericarditis?
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1575 When pericarditis occurs in the absence of any obvious underlying disorder, the diagnosis of SLE may be suggested by a rise in the titer of antinuclear antibodies. Acute pericarditis is an occasional complication of rheumatoid ahritis, scleroderma, and polyaeritis nodosa, and other evidence of these diseases is usually obvious.
4
Tuberculous pericardial effusion
Staphylococcal effusion
Post cardiac surgery
Acute rheumatic fever
Medicine
C.V.S
c3de5d75-a399-417f-b329-6537de1bbc8f
single
During the treatment of septic shock, a 28-year-old male remains hypotensive despite adequate volume replacement; PA occlusion pressure is 18 mm Hg. When dopamine is staed , ventricular tachycardia develops and this is unresponsive to lidocaine. The V-tach conves back to sinus rhythm once the dopamine is stopped. At this point, which of the following treatments are most appropriate for this hypotensive patient?
Dopamine activates b1-receptors and this was probably the reason for the arrhythmia. Amrinone will inhibit phosphodiesterase and result in an increased cyclic AMP level, producing the same result as b-receptor stimulation. Dobutamine and epinephrine also stimulate the b- receptors. The only choice which stimulates only a-adrenergic receptors is phenylephrine. Intraaoic balloon pump is invasive, therefore, less appropriate as a choice.
4
Amrinone
Dobutamine
Epinephrine
Phenylephrine
Surgery
Shock
f7dc75ac-54b4-49e8-b90c-1e1b67940764
multi
A 12-year-old boy presents with hematemesis, melena and mild splenomegaly. There is no obvious jaundice or ascites. The most likely diagnosis is:
Most likely diagnosis is Extrahepatic Poal Vein Obstruction Differences b/w EHPVO and NCPF EHPVO - Extra hepatic poal venous obstruction- usually seen in 1st to 2nd decade; splenomegaly is less common & if its present, It is only mild/moderate NCPF - Non-Cirrhotic poal fibrosis - in 2nd -4th decade; Splenomegaly is M/C & If present, it is moderate to severe ;hematemesis present , no obvious jaundice & ascites .
1
Extrahepatic poal venous obstruction
Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis
Cirrhosis
Hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction
Surgery
Poal Hypeension
e1ad736c-429e-4f81-b9df-2f2199d6939f
single
Gluten free diet is beneficial in –
null
3
Psoriasis
Exfoliative dermatitis
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Pemphigoid
Dental
null
6d9bca45-86fd-48be-9827-eb90f6e4f0f0
single
All are features of mania, except: MP 07; Maharashtra 11; PGI 14
Ans. Low self-esteem
3
Flight of ideas
Psychomotor agitation
Low self-esteem
Pressure to talk
Forensic Medicine
null
5d128465-73c5-4bf2-a1eb-d8c6b5ad5e78
multi
Leishmania is cultured in ..... ...media?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., N.N.N. . L. donovani can be cultured in N.N.N. (Novy, Macneal and Nicolle) medium. . In N.N.N. medium amastigote form changes into promastigote form.
2
Chocolate agar
NNN
Tellurite
Sabourauds
Microbiology
null
31d93260-3a3e-4626-a69c-d24005a5719f
single
Brush burn is: AP 09
Ans. Graze abrasion
1
Graze abrasion
Imprint abrasion
Electric burn
Arborescent burn
Forensic Medicine
null
884b09f5-46eb-4da0-9f96-ff626e39f3e1
single
Anaesthesia contraindicated in volvulus of gut is :
null
2
Halothane
Nitrous oxide
Ketamine
Pancuronium
Pharmacology
null
a7e1c37f-5761-4446-9b04-a3f9a5e77b47
single
According to the WHO , what is the minimum bacteriological standard for drinking water -
Must not detect E. coli or thermotolerant bacteria in any 100 ml sample. Total coliform bacteria should be nil in any 100 ml sample Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 782
1
All the samples should not contain coliform organisms
3 consecutive samples of water should not contain any coliforms
3 coliforms in a 100 ml water
1 coliform in a 100 ml water
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
70518288-11d8-4309-8dab-b78394ea4faa
multi
This technetium-99m sulfur colloid scan was performed after the patient presented with abdominal pain. Howell-Jolly bodies were present on a peripheral-blood smear. What is the diagnosis?
Answer D. Pelvic spleenAbdominal imaging after injection of technetium-99m revealed a normal liver and a pelvic spleen. Pelvic spleen can be complicated by torsion of the pedicle. Howell-Jolly bodies suggest functional asplenia.
4
Hemochromatosis
Hydatidiform mole
Multiple myeloma
Pelvic spleen
Medicine
Oncology
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single
Tap water scotochromogen is
M.gordonae often found in tap water (hence called 'the tap water scotochromogen'), is a common contaminant in clinical specimens and a rare cause of pulmonary disease. It differs from scrofulaceum in failing to hydrolyse urea, nicotinamide and pyrazinamide. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 367
4
Mycobacterium chelonae
Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium kanasaii
Mycobacterium gordonae
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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single
Most common tumor of pineal gland is:
Ans: B (Germinomas) Ref: Robbia's Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th ed, Pg: 1163Explanation:PINEAL GLANDThe rarity of clinically significant lesions (virtually only tumors) justifies brevity in the consideration of the pineal gland.It is a minute, pinecone-shaped organ , weighing 100 to 180 mg and lying between the superior colliculi at the base of the brain.It is composed of a loose, neuroglial stroma enclosing nests of epithelialappearing pineocytes, cells with photosensory and neuroendocrine functions (hence the designation of the pineal gland as the "third eye").Silver impregnation stains reveal that these cells have long, slender processes reminiscent of primitive neuronal precursors intermixed with the processes of astrocytic cells.The principal secretory product of the pineal gland is melatonin, which is involved in the control of circadian rhythms, including the sleep-wake cycle; hence the poputar use of melatonin for the treatment of jet lag.All tumors involving the pineal are rareMost (50% to 7(1 %) arise from sequestered embryonic germ cells.They most commonly take the form of so-called germinomas. resembling testicular seminoma or ovarian dysgerminoma.Other lines of germ cell differentiation include embryonal carcinomas, choriocarcinomas, mixtures of germinoma. embryonal carcinoma, and choriocarcinoma, typical teratomas (usually benign).Whether to characterize these germ cell neoplasms as pinealomas is still a subject of debate, but most "pinealophiles" favor restricting the term pinealoma to neoplasms arising from the pineocytes.
2
Hemangioma
Germinomas
Teratoma
Embryonal Carcinoma
Pathology
Tumors
5df25ae0-9e4d-4ac3-9a4e-01a32a9e6df2
single
Otitis and osteomyelitis is seen in
The most serious complication of BCG vaccination is disseminated BCG infection.The most frequent disseminated infection is BCG osteomyelitis (0.01-43 cases per million doses of vaccine administered) which usually occurs 4 months to 2 years after vaccination.Fatal disseminated BCG infection has occurred at a rate of 0.06-1.56 cases per million doses; these deaths occurred primarily among immunocompromised persons.BCG otitis - A form of acute otitis media occasionally observed in infants after oral administration of BCG tuberculosis vaccine.In pus and granulation of the ear in a number of patients detected acid-bacteria vaccine strain BCG. Typically imperceptible onset at normal temperature, the growth of granulation tissue, for lingering, long-term, but beneficial.
2
Hepatitis B vaccine
BCG
Measles vaccine
IPV
Microbiology
All India exam
2248666b-6d1e-48a8-989e-333864177498
single
What is the limit of eccentricity of an air rotor bur, beyond which it stops working
null
2
0.01
0.02
0.03
0.04
Dental
null
0baafbde-92d9-4f08-9cf8-81cd62cb028f
single
Felon is
(C) Terminal pulp space Infection # Infection of the terminal pulp space (syn. Felon) Pulp-space infection is the second most frequent infection of the hand (about 25 per cent of all cases ).> Index finger and the thumb are affected most often.> Origin of the infection is usually a prick.> Many hand infections will settle if conservative treatment is initiated (elevation of hand, splinting and antibiotics) within 24-48 hours.> But if pus appears I & D should be done (at point of maximum tenderness)> Antibiotics changed> Splinting is done in Edinburgh position.
3
Ulnar bursa infection
Mid palmar space infection
Terminal pulp space infection
Infection of ulnar bursa
Surgery
Miscellaneous
44d2e43a-67cb-464c-90d5-94a657867d74
single
All are grass root worker's except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Health assistants Gross root level workers are health workers at the lowest level, i.e., at village level. Health assistant work at subscentre and PHC levels. Primary health care in India Primary health care can he divided into followin2 levels ? 1. Village level (Grass root level) To implement policy at village level, the following schemes are in operation. a) Village health guides scheme b) Training of local Dais c) ICDS scheme A ngann.udi worker. d) ASHA scheme Sub-centre level Primary health centre level Community health centres level.
4
Anganwadi workers
Traditional bih attendants
Village health guide
Health assitants
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
fa8d1d60-0b13-47a5-aa75-d2dd5187a7a4
multi
The staging system for thymoma was developed by:
The staging system for thymoma was developed by Masaoka The stage is increased on the basis of the degree of invasiveness. The 5-year survival in stage I, 96%; stage II, 86%; stage III, 69%; stage IV, 50%. The French Study Group on Thymic Tumors (GETT) has modified the Masaoka scheme based on the degree of surgical removal. Ref: Harrison, E-18, chapter e-20.
1
Masaoka
Yokohama
Todani
Kluive
Medicine
null
33b0bb3e-9ec8-43b0-a581-b3b8fb4d6d19
single
Hemodialysis associated amyloid is deposited in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Knee joint Hemodialysis associated amyloid is deposited in synovium, Joints and tendon sheath.
1
Knee joint
Tongue
Liver
Tongue
Pathology
null
35ddc464-1957-4c75-94cb-8ce2eb612ef6
single
Most common lymph node involved in Hodgkin's lymphoma is?
Ans. (b) CervicalRef: Wintrobe's clinical hematology 12/e, chapter 96, Table 96.3, William's hematology 8/e, ch 99
2
Inguinal
Cervical
Axillary
Subclavian
Medicine
Lymphoma
c4b64dd2-895d-42bc-988c-39da7eb63704
single
In which TNM staging of glottis carcinoma, cancer limited to larynx w ith vocal cord fixation? (D. REPEAT 2012)
Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat by Dhingra, 5th edition. Chapter on Cancer LarynxExplanation:TNM STAGING OF CANCER GLOTTIS ( AMERICAN JOINT COMMITTEE ON CANCER,GlottisTl: Tumour confined to vocal cords with normal mobilityConfined to one vocal cord.Extending to both vocal cords.T2: Supraglottic or subglottic extension of tumour with normal cord mobility.T3: Tumour confined to lary nx w ith vocal cord fixation.T4: Massive tumour with thyroid cartilage destruction and/or extension to confines of larynx.Regional Lymph Nodes (N)NX:Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed (e.g. Previously removed).N0: No regional lymph node metastasis.N1: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node. 3 cm or less.N2: Metastasis in a single ipsilateral lymph node, more than 3-6 cm.N3: Metastasis in a lymph node more than 6 cm. Distant Metastasis (M)MX: Distant metastasis cannot be assessed.M0: No distant metastasis.M1: Distant metastasis.
3
T1
T2
T3
T4
ENT
Tomour of Larynx
8ca5cf29-4cef-4534-9227-8336afffe97c
single
Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Buspirone
4
Ethanol
Alphaxolone
Zolpidem
Buspirone
Pharmacology
null
fc8c76b9-faf4-4426-9a9e-9dd3de0e4ba6
single
Women undergoing infertility treatment are advised to avoid NSAIDs in preovulatory period because
Prostaglandin stimulates smooth muscle contraction in ovary, contributing to ovulation.  prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors if taken in pre ovulatory period can cause luteinized unruptured follicle syndrome (LUFS).
1
Prostaglandins contribute to ovulation
NSAIDs inhibit LH surge
NSAIDs cause premature rupture of follicle
NSAIDs like aspirin cause endometrial shedding.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
244adc66-622f-47c1-9f4d-4f328199edb5
single
The opioid contraindicated in patients on MAO inhibitor is
Some opioid analgesics are associated with a risk of serotonin syndrome in combinations with MAOIs due to their serotonergic propeies. 1. Dextromethorphan, 2. methadone, 3. pethidine, 4. tramadol or 5. fentanyl should be avoided in patients on MAO inhibitor.
3
codeine
Morphine
Fentanyl
Buprenorphine
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
b01fa96b-7976-4a71-a709-10429d551a02
single
Piezo electric scaler has a wavelength of:
null
4
6000-9000 Hz
9000-12000 Hz
2000-30000 Hz
20000-45000 Hz
Dental
null
77deaf85-52b0-454c-9161-152ccc45388d
single
Mallet finger is due to -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Avulsion of extensor tendon from base of distal phalynx Mallet finger (Base ball finger)* Sudden passive flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint (as by a ball striking the tip of the finger) may rupture the extensor tendon at the point of its insertion into the base of distal phalanx.* Sometimes, a fragment of bone is avulsed from the phalanx.* Clinically, distal phalanx is in slight flexion and patient is unable to extend DIP joint fully.* Treatment is by immobilizing the DIP joint in hyperextension with the help of an aluminium splint (finger extension splint) or plaster cast.
1
Avulsion of extensor tendon from base of distal phalynx
Avulsion of flexor tendon from base of distal phalynx
Avulsion of extensor tendon from base of proximal phalynx
Avulsion of flexor tendon from base of proximal phalynx
Orthopaedics
Hand Injuries
597d58e5-8f2e-4cf4-8534-b3745f02531c
multi
Which of the following is the most common extra-renal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
Hepatic cysts are the most common extrarenal manifestations of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease.
2
Mitral valve prolapsed
Hepatic cysts
Splenic cysts
Colonic diveiculosis
Medicine
Polycystic Kidneys
c54a68e0-9059-4f19-a57e-6a3034593bb7
single
Which of the following drug is useful in the treatment of Malathion Poisoning:
Pralidoxime is cholinesterase reactivator which is useful for the treatment of organophosphate poisoning.
1
Pralidoxime.
Rivastigmine.
Atropine.
d-Tubicuranine.
Pharmacology
null
48cd464a-719e-44b5-be88-16c23ebdbcda
single
Most sensitive test among the following:
null
1
Heat
Cold
EPT
None.
Dental
null
42c0afff-46b9-4276-855b-f751fb5d4cc5
multi
A patient presented with Tongue deviation on right side with ipsilateral atrophy. Which cranial nerve is damaged?
(A) Ipsilateral XII # CN XII Hypoglossal Nerve:> Origin: Medulla> Innervation: Muscles of the tongue except Palatoglossus> Function: Movement of the tongue> Dysfunction: Unilateral lesions can cause paresis, atrophy, furrowing, fibrillation and fasciculation on the affected half.> On protrusion tongue deviates towards the affected side due to unopposed action of the Contralateral Genioglossus> Flaccid Paralysis: Dysphagia Dysarthria Dyspnea Difficulty chewing food# XII Cranial nerve controls all tongue movements.> Nuclear or intranuclear lesions produce paralysis, atrophy, and fasciculations of the tongue on involved side.> Supranuclear lesions produce mild to moderate contralateral weakness that may be transient.> Bilateral supranuclear lesions, seen in pseudobulbar palsy, produce moderate to severe inability of the tongue to function> The transient nature is usually the clue> Nuclear lesions produce atrophy, weakness, or paralysis and fasciculations. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and polio are two causes.> Syringobulbia, infarction, and intraspinal tumors are other etiologies.> Nuclear lesions are often bilateral because of the closeness of the two nuclei in the medulla.> Hypoglossal nerve involvement after the individual fibers exit from the medulla is seen with many of the lesions that affect the spinal accessory nerve.> Tumors can compress the nerve in the hypoglossal canal and in the jugular foramen.> Basilar meningitis, due to granulomatous infection or carcinoma, can produce hypoglossal lesions.> Unilateral twelfth nerve palsy has been reported as one of the more common cranial mononeuropathies due to metastases
1
Ipsilateral XII
Contralateral XII
Ipsilateral X
Ipsilateral XI
Medicine
Miscellaneous
594bb33c-6ebe-4bd8-a1e1-8e0e34af9a2a
single
Helicobacter pylori is not associated with
null
3
Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Gastric cancer
Gastric leiomyoma
Peptic ulcer
Medicine
null
c158fb5c-1d1f-44ff-9046-506a96900c17
single
Which of the following is not seen in Secondary Adrenal insufficiency
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pigmentation Addison's disease The predominant manifestations in Addison's disease occur due to mineralocoicoid deficiency but the symptoms are also contributed by glucocoicoid deficiency and increased ACTH FEATURES OF :- Mineralocoicoid deficiency Lack of aldosterone secretion greatly decreases renal tubular sodium reabsorption and consequently allows sodium ions, chloride ions and water to be lost into urine in great profusion. The net result is greatly decreased extracellular fluid volume. Fuhermore, hyponatremia!, hyperkalemiae and mild acidosise develop because of failure of potassium and hydrogen ions to be secreted in exchange for sodium reabsorption Adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) Glucocoicoid deficiency Fatigue, lack of energy o Weight loss, anorexia o Myalgia, joint pain Fever Anemia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia Slightly increased TSH (due to loss of feedback inhibition of TSH release) Hypoglycemia (more frequent in children) Low blood pressure, postural hypotension oHyponatremia (due to loss of feedback inhibition of AVP release) Mineralocoicoid deficiency Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting Dizziness , postural hypotension Salt craving Low blood pressure, postural hypotension Increased serum creatinine (due to volume depletion) Hyponatremiayperkalemia deficiency Lack of energy Dry and itchy skin (in women) Loss of libido (in women) o Loss of axillary and pubic hair (in women) Symptoms Hyperpigmentation (primary Al only) oAlabaster-colored pale skin (secondary Al only) (due to deficiency of POMC-derived peptides) REMEMBER The clinical features and laboratory features described above are characteristically seen only in primary addison's disease because in primary addison's disease both aldosterone and glucocoicoid are deficient, whereas In secondary addison's disease only glucocoicoid deficiency is seen. ALSO KNOW The basis for acute adrenal deficiency or addisonian crisis During conditions of physical or mental stress, large amount of glucocoicoids are secreted to cope up with the situation. But in persons with addison:s. disease, the output of glucocoicoids does not increase during stress. Thus the deficiency of glucocoicoids, when a person actually has acute need for the excessive amount of glucocoicoids produces addisonian crisis. The manifestations are produced due to extracellular fluid dehydration and low blood volume leading to circulatory shock.
1
Pigmentation
Postural hypotension
Hypoglycemia
Lassitude
Medicine
null
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single
Somatic efferent does not include
Somatic efferent nerves, also called as general somatic efferent (GSE) nerves, supply skeletal muscle of somatic origin ( muscles of eye and tongue). Somatic efferent nerves include, Oculomotor nerve - 3rd nerve Trochlear nerve - 4th nerve Abducent nerve - 6th nerve Hypoglossal nerve - 12th nerve
1
Facial nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Abducent nerve
Trochlear nerve
Anatomy
null
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single
Granular casts in urine are?
On microscopic examination of urine, presence of granular cast ,RBC ,bacteria glucose, albumin, ketone bodies is abnormal granular cast are the hyaline casts embedded with RBC or WBC or these are degenerate glomerular cells or tubular epithelial cells in large number Their presence indicates renal destruction of glomerular tubular cells. Ref: page no 575 Textbook of physiology Volume 1 AK Jain 7th edition
2
Regarded as normal
Hyaline casts embedded with RBC
Made up of mucoprotein substances
Formed in the DCT
Physiology
Renal physiology
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single
The drug which is not suitable for patients with acute porphyria for intravenous induction is:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thiopentone sodium It has been repeated so many times that barbiturates can induce fatal attacks of porphyria in patients with acute intermittent or variegate porphyria and are contraindicated in such patients.Also know
1
Thiopentone sodium
Propofol
Midazolam
Etomidate
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
fb192706-e608-4bcf-962c-4bcd4edef314
single
Endaeritis obliterans is seen in
Ref Davidsons 23e p1125
3
Marfan's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
Neurosyphilis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Medicine
Immune system
e5acdfd7-4467-4ad9-bc81-1e0a9eb646f9
single
"Multibacillary" is a spectrum of disease seen in -
Operational classification of Leprosy (According to skin smear positivity) to serve as a basis for chemotherapy Paucibacillary Leprosy (PBL) Multibacillary Leprosy (MBL) BI <2 BI >= 2 Included types Indeterminate Polar tuberculoid (TT) Border Tuberculoid (BT) Polar lepromatous (LL) Borderline lepromatous (BL) Mid-borderline (BB) Multidrug therapy (MDT) in NLEP (Drugs) Rifampicin 600mg OAMS Dapsone 100mg daily Rifampicin 600mg OAMS Dapsone 100mg daily Clofazimine 300mg OAMS 5 mg daily Treatment duration 6 months 12 months Follow up (after treatment) Annually for 2 years Annually for 5 years BI: bacteriological index OAMS: Once a month supervised Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 332-347
1
Leprosy
TB
Tetanus
Trachoma
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
1fc0628b-0add-4b72-860c-06ba8437cdbd
single
Eruption of Mandibular 1st premolar occur at
null
4
8-9 years
6 years
4 years
10-12 year
Dental
null
4660d939-6e6b-46da-91de-9abfec44b195
single
Most fatal amoebic encephalitis is caused by -
The parasite invades the cribriform plate and travels along the olfactory nerves to brain leading to a rapidly fatal infection known as primary amoebic meningoencephalitis.It occurs in young adults and children with a recent history of swimming in fresh water (refer pgno:25 baveja 3 rd edition)
2
E.histolytica
Naeglaria
E.dispar
Acanthamoeba
Microbiology
parasitology
fed10ff6-5993-4071-9efe-f314e91680f6
single
Functional residual capacity represents the volume of air remaining in lungs
Functional residual capacity * Functional residual capacity is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after expiration of a normal breath * Normal value - 2.5 L * (Residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume) Ref:- Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 25th ed; pg num:- 629
4
After forceful expiration
After forceful inspiration
After normal inspiration
After normal expiration
Physiology
Respiratory system
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single
A nurse is evaluating a client who is HIV positive who is prescribed with Pentamidine (Pentam) IV for the treatment of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which of the following assessment after the administration is the most important to relay to the physician?
Pentamidine can cause fatal hypoglycemia, so symptoms such as sudden sweating and hunger are indicative of a low blood sugar indicates a need for change in the treatment. Option A: A low blood pressure may indicate the need of a slower infusion. Option B: Redness and Pain is a sign for the nurse to establish a new IV line. Option D: Dryness and unusual taste may happen at the start but do not need for an immediate notification of the physician
3
Blood pressure of 100/62 mm/Hg.
Redness and pain at the site of the infusion.
Sudden sweating and hunger.
Unusual taste or dryness in the mouth.
Medicine
null
e79c2287-24d4-4d26-997c-1925c8e60530
single
Apical constriction is otherwise known as
null
1
Minor diameter
Major diameter
Radiographic apex
Tooth apex
Dental
null
bd68de5f-2120-4910-bc8a-5769f10beac6
single
Long term fluctuation is seen with
null
1
secular trends
epidemics
cyclic trends
seasonal trends
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3b1ffd98-0cde-4f2e-936e-ce48d487897f
single
The following are features of polycythemia rubra vera, except -
<p>In PV, the major pathogenetic mechanism is a tyrosine kinase JAK2 mutation which removes the autoinhibitory control & activates the kinases.</p><p>Due to erythrocytosis, red cell mass will be increased .Splenomegaly produces abdominal fullness.But in PV, oxygen saturation will be high.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 359.</p>
2
Increased red cell mass
Low aerial oxygen saturation
Presence of JAK2 mutation
Splenomegaly
Medicine
Haematology
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multi
A 5-year-old unimmunized child presented with high fever, sore throat, dysphagia & voice change. Throat swab from a whitish lesion showed the following diagnosis.
a. DiphtheriaOn Albert staining, C. diphtheriae appears green colored rod shaped bacteria with bluish black metachromatic granules at the poles
1
Diphtheria
Mumps
Pertussis
Streptococcal pharyngitis
Pediatrics
General Considerations - Infectious Diseases
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single
Myocardial abscess is most common in acute endocarditis caused by-
Ans. is `d' i.e., Staphylococcus aureus
4
Streptococcus viridans
Enterococci
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Pathology
null
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single
Heat stiffening occurs when body is exposed to: AIIMS 12
Ans. > 60degC
4
30degC
40degC
50degC
> 60degC
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
All of the following are true about Krukenberg's tumor except :
Ans. is a i.e. Has a rough surface Krukenberg tumour : Krukenberg tumour by definition represent carcinoma of stomach metastasised to ovary. But the eponym is commonly used to denote any gastric carier metastatic to ovary Tumour arise by retrograde lymphatic spreaddeg i.e. carcinoma cells pass from the stomach to the superior gastric lymphnode which also receive lymphatics from ovary. Characteristics of Krukenberg Tumour : Always bilateraldeg Have smooth surfacedeg No tendency to form adhesions Freely mobile No infilteration through the capsule. Histologically tumour has signet ring cells in the background of myxomatous stroma. They retain the shape of normal ovary.deg Have waxy consistency.deg First Type They are metastatic tumors from Intestine, Gall bladder, pancreas, corpus, and cervix. They are most commonly bilateral. They have irregular surface The method of ovarian infiltration is by surface implantation or retrograde implantation Second Type (Krukenberg Tumour) They are metastatic tumors from stomach (70%), large bowel (15%) and breast (6%). They are always bilateral.deg They have a smooth surface which may be slightly bossed. Always arise by retrograde lymphatic spread. Extra edge : Immunochemistry can help to distinguish between a primary mucinous ovarian and a metastatic colon Ovarian tumour is expected to stain positive for cytokeratin 7(CK7) and negative for CK 20. In contrast a metastasis lesion from a primary mucinous adenocarcinoma of colon is likely to show reverse pattern.
1
Has a rough surface
Shape of ovary is maintained
Usually bilateral
Arises usually form stomach carcinom
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
ee6a6d5f-2475-4d71-8243-74d8644bb058
multi
Which one of the following is used as an irrigation solution during transurethral resection of the prostate-
null
1
1.5% glycine
Physiological saline
Ringer's lactate
5% dextrose
Surgery
null
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single
A 30-year-old man is evaluated for persistent cough, night sweats, low-grade fever, and general malaise. A chest X-ray reveals findings "consistent with a Ghon complex." Sputum cultures grow acid-fast bacilli. Examination of hilar lymph nodes in this patient would most likely demonstrate which of the following pathologic changes?
The answer is A: Caseous necrosis. Grossly, necrosis in tuberculosis has a granular, cheesy appearance and is therefore called caseous necrosis. Microscopically, this necrotic material appears as amorphous, structureless, eosinophilic, granular debris, with complete loss of cellular details (as opposed to coagulative necrosis, in which cell outlines are preserved). Fibrinoid necrosis (choice D) is seen in patients with necrotizing vasculitis.
1
Caseous necrosis
Coagulative necrosis
Fat necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis
Pathology
Irreversible cell Injury/Necrosis
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Most common ligament injured in ankle sprain?
Ans. A. Anterior talofibular. (Ref. Maheshwari orthopaedics 3rd/pg. 140)Maheshwari orthopaedics 3rd/pg. 140:"Commonly the lateral collateral ligament is sprained, mostly so anterior talo-fibular component".SPRAINED ANKLEDefinition:# Term used for ligamnet injuries of the ankle.# Commonly the lateral collateral ligament is sprained, mostly so anterior talo-fibular component.# Sometimes a eversion force may result in a sprain of the medial collateral ligement of the ankle.Grade of sprainRxGrade IBelow knee cast for 2 weeks followed by mobilization.Grade IIBelow knee cast for 4 weeks followed by mobilization.Grade IIIBelow knee cast for 6 weeks followed by mobilization.Diagnosis:If a torn ligament is subjected to stress by respective manoeuver's treatmnet, the patinet expiriences severe pain:Inversion of a planter-flexed footfor anterior talo-fibular ligament sprain.Inversion in a neutral positionfor complete lateral collateral ligament sprain.Eversion in a neutral positionfor medial collateral ligament sprain.Radiological examination:# x-rays of ankle are usually normal. However, a tilt of the talus > 20deg on forced inversion or eversion indicates a complete tear of the lateral or medial collateral ligement respectively.# MRI is best tool to detect and evaluate ligament injuries.0Rx:However, tresnt today to Rx ligament injuries in general is by 4functional9 method i.e. without immobilation.The Rx consist of RICE:R I C E = Rest, Ice-packs, Compression and Elevation for first 2-3 days.
1
Anterior talofibular
Posterior talofibular
Deltoid
Calcaneofibular
Orthopaedics
Injuries to the Leg, Ankle & Foot
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Keshan disease in due to deficiency of
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Selenium Keshan disease Cardiomyopathy associated with selenium deficiency. Wilson disease Autosomal recessive. Defective metabolism of copper leads to copper toxicity. Deficiency of ceruloplasmin. Presence of KF ring in cornea. Acrodermatitis enteropathica Deficiency of zinc. Dermatitis of extremities & around orifices.
1
Selenium
Copper
Zinc
Iron
Pediatrics
null
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single
Neural ectoderm derivatives are:
B i.e. Cilliary epithelium; E i.e. Sphincter and dilator pupillae musclesNeural crest cells form the mesenchyme of head & neck and contribute to most of the eye including endothelium of cornea & trabecular meshworkQ stroma of cornea, iris, ciliary body and choroid; melanocytes of conjunctiva & uvea; ciliary muscle ganglion & nerves (Schwann cells); Orbital bones & connective tissue; connective sheath & muscle layer of orbital blood vessels; meningeal sheath of optic nerve, sclera & pa of vitreous.All Epithelia (except that of iris & ciliary body), the lens and the Lacrimal & Tarsal glands are derived from the surface ectodermQ. Iris and ciliary body epitheliumsQ are derived from neural ectoderm.Structures derived from neural ectoderm include Iris & Ciliary body Epithelium, Smooth muscles of iris (constrictor & dilator pupilae), Retina (REE & 9 sensory layers), Vitreous pas, Optic Nerve, Cup and Vesicle. Mn: "ICE (I see) smooth (constricted & Dilated) Retinal vital pas of Optic NCV (nerve conduction velocity)"Melanocytes present in iris stroma develop from neural crest.Sclera is of neural crest and mesodermal originQLacrimal & tarsal glands, epithelium of cornea & conjunctiva, and crystalline lens develops from surface epitheliumQ; whereas sclera is mesodermalQ in origin.Usually the epithelium develop from ectoderm; & muscles from paraxial mesoderm. But the unique feature of iris is that it's epithelium and musculature (constrictor & dilator pupillae) develop from Neuroectoderm.Q
2
Corneal stroma
Cilliary epithelium
Iris stroma
Corneal epithelium
Anatomy
null
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single
Cantrell pentology include all except –
Pentalogy of Cantrell is named after James R. Cantrell, a pediatric surgeon . The pentalogy of Cantrell is an extremely rare phenomenon with an incidence estimated at around 6 per million live births. It encompasses the following 5 main features. Pericardial or distal sternal cleft Supraumbilical omphalocele Diaphragmatic hernia Defect in apical pericardium causing ectopia cordia (Abnormal location of heart). Congenital intracardiac defects (VSD, ASD, Tetralogy of fallot, Left ventricular diverticulum).
4
VSD
ASD
TOF
Trisomy 21
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Pus discharge (crviitis/urethritis) in a female caused by
(Chlamydia): (144-45- Dutta Gynae 6th edition; 123. 160 161 -Dutta Gynae 6th)CHLAMYDIAL INFECTIONS - The infection is mostly localized in the urethra, Bartholins gland and cervix* Mucopurulent cervical discharge, cervical oedema, cervical ectopy cervical friabilityComplication - Urethritis and bartholinitis are manifested by dysuria and purulent discharge, chlamydial cervicitis spreads upwards to produce endometritis and salpingitis.Gardnella (Bacterial) Vaginosis - Polymicrobial infectionCaused by Gard nerella vaginalis (Haermophilus vaginalis). The present concept is that long with G. vaginalis anaerobic organism such as Bacterioids species. Peptococcus species, mobiluncus and Mycoplasma hominis act synergistically to cause vaginal infection* Characterized by white milky (creamy) non viscous discharge adherent to vaginal wall* Fishy odour when mixed with 10% KOH* Presence of Clue cells - the epithelial cells have Puzzy border due to adherence of bacteriaAcute cervicitis - responsible organism are ryogenicAerobic(i) Gram positive organisms are. Staphylococcus(ii) Gram negative are - E.coli, pseudomonas, Klebsiella, N.gonnorhoeaeAnaerobes(i) Gram positive are - Streptococucus. Cl.welchii Cl.tetani(ii) Gram negative are mainly bacteroides group of which Bacteroides fragilisOther common pathogens are: Gonococcus, Chlamydia trachomatis, trichomona, bacterial vaginosis, mycoplasma and HP V. The first one being less common nowdaysClinical Features - Cervix is tender on touch or movements oedematous and congested. Mucopurulent discharge is seen escaping out through the external osChronic cervicitis - potential reservoir for N-gonorrhoea, Chlamydia. HPV, mycoplasma and bacterial vaginosisMucopurulent is the predominant symptomsCandida Vaginitis (Moniliasis) caused by Candida albicans* Pruritis is out of proportion to the discharge* Discharge is thick, curdy white and in flakes (cottage cheese type) often adherent to the vaginal wall
2
Papilloma
Chlamydia
Candida
Bacterial Vaginosis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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All of the following are diagnostic features of illeocecal tuberculosis on barium follow through, except:
Apple core sign is a feature of carcinoma of colon, not ileocecal tuberculosis. Pulled up contracted angle, widening of ileocecal angle and strictures involving the terminal ileum are all signs of ileocecal tuberculosis. Ref: Clinical Medicine a Practical Manual for Students and Practice By Agarwal, Page 244; Journal of Indian Academy of Clinical Medicine, Volume 2 No 3, July-September, 2001, Page 171
1
Apple-core sign
Pulled up contracted angle
Widening of ileocecal angle
Strictures involving the terminal ileum
Radiology
null
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multi
Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
A i.e. Pain
1
Pain
Vibration
Touch
Pressure
Physiology
null
4f1345e6-e2c8-4bba-9544-460ba91ddd14
single
Functional cast bracing not used in fracture of ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thoracolumbar spine Functional cast bracing is used for the fracture of :- Humerus Femur Ulna Tibia
4
Humerus
Tibia
Ulna
Thoracolumbar spine
Surgery
null
6387eb9c-de1f-4782-835b-d98cb7980d74
single
A child with pellagra like symptoms, amino acids in urine, family history of one siblings affected and three normal. Parents are normal. What is the diagnosis?
Diagnosis is Hanup's disease. autosomal recessive (normal carrier parents with 25% of their children are affected) There is failure to reabsorb tryptophan from urine.So, tryptophan comes in urine (Aminoaciduria) . Patient has Pellagra like symptoms (as Tryptophan forms Niacin - Vitamin B3 in body). Fig:-NORMAL AND ABNORMAL ROUTES OF TRYPTOPHAN Treatment: 1. Niacin 2. High protein diet
4
Phenylketonuria
Alkaptonuria
Maple syrup urine disease
Hanup's disease
Biochemistry
Tryptophan metabolism detail
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Vaccine for post splenectomy infection is given against all except :
Splenectomy : Most serious sequela is overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI), with meningitis, pneumonia, or bacteraemia OPSI is typically caused by polysaccharide-encapsulated organisms, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis & Hemophilus influenzae When elective splenectomy us planned, vaccination against encapsulated bacteria should be given atleast 2 weeks before surgery If spleen is removed in emergency, vaccination should be given as soon as possible Vaccines should be given for Streptococcus pneumoniae, Hemophilus influenza type B & Meningococcus In addition to above given 3 vaccines, annual influenza immunization is also advised as influenza has been implicated as a risk factor for secondary bacterial infections Booster injections of pneumococcal vaccine should be given every 5-6 years Harrison says "Routine Chemoprophylaxis with oral penicillin can result in the emergence of drug-resistant strains and is not recommended" Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1564
4
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilia influenza
Neisseria meningitides
E.coli
Surgery
G.I.T
e7c3b25e-60dc-4c98-af9f-dde175b580c4
multi
Postmenopausal hormone that shows an increase is
In postmenopause fsh levels increase Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:636,637,638
3
Progesterone
Estrogen
FSH
Androgen
Physiology
Endocrinology
01149a63-70cc-41f8-ae04-e67940b4a9b4
single
Chief artery of the lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere -
Ans-B
3
Anterior cerebral artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Unknown
null
7ba04505-3938-47ab-852e-d4113b1ba1f2
single
A radiolucent lesion in the posterior part of the mandible, anterior to the angle, has radiographic features of a cyst. After surgical intervention, the histology reports shows submaxillary salivary gland tissue, one may conclude the lesion is likely
A Stafne bone cyst (Stafne defect, static bone defect) is not a true cyst. It represents a developmental defect in which the submandibular gland causes a depression on the lingual aspect of the mandible. This depression either contains a portion of submandibular salivary gland tissue or fibrous tissue and muscle. These lesions classically present as an asymptomatic radiolucency near the angle of the mandible and below the level of the mandibular canal. Literature states that 80% to 90% of Stafne lesions occur in male patients and, once recognized, require no treatment.
3
Residual cyst
Traumatic bone cyst
Stafne's bone cyst
A lingual mandibular bone cavity
Radiology
null
b17ae7f6-cd30-4837-b999-439f3d4db15f
single
The lingual surface of the primary maxillary Central incisor closely resembles:
null
3
Mandibular central incisor.
Mandibular lateral incisor.
Maxillary lateral incisor.
All of the above.
Dental
null
9083b0b0-b033-4eb9-8000-cdee805c15de
multi
Drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:March, 2005, September 2009
Ans. D: FluoxetineThe two medications proven to be most effective in the treatment of OCD are tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).Serotonin is a chemical in the brain called a neurotransmitter that may be imbalanced in people with OCD.While both drugs are very effective, SSRIs have generally become the preferred medication for anxiety disorders including OCD.SSRIs have less side effects than other forms of antidepressants, less withdrawal symptoms, less danger in the event of an overdose and overall are considered safer that other types of drugs (TCAs and SSRIs are both very safe drugs, however). Common SSRIs include fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, seraline, paroxetine, citalopram, and escitalopram.
4
Seraline
Alprazolam
Chlorpromazine
Fluoxetine
Psychiatry
null
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single
Nimodipine is used in the management of?
MEDICAL MANAGEMENT OF SAH MAINTAIN ADEQUATE CEREBRAL PERFUSION PRESSSURE- If the patient is ale, it is reasonable to lower the systolic blood pressure to below 160 mmHg using nicardipine, labetalol, or esmolol. If the patient has a depressed level of consciousness, ICP should be measured and the cerebral perfusion pressure targeted to 60-70 mmHg. If headache or neck pain is severe, mild sedation and analgesia are prescribed. CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKER vasospasm remains the leading cause of morbidity and moality following aneurysmal SAH. Treatment with the calcium channel antagonist nimodipine (60 mg PO every 4 h) improves outcome, perhaps by preventing ischemic injury rather than reducing the risk of vasospasm. Nimodipine can cause significanthypotension in some patients, which may worsen cerebral ischemia in patients with vasospasm. TREATMENT OF SYMPTOMATIC CEREBRAL VASOSPASM Symptomatic cerebral vasospams treated by increasing the cerebral perfusion pressure by raising mean aerial pressure through plasma volume expansion and the judicious use of IV vasopressor agents, usually phenylephrine or norepinephrine
2
Subdural hemorrhage
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Extradural hemorrhage
Intraventricular hemorrhage
Medicine
Brain Hemorrhage
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single
Early diagnosis of active hepatitis B Infection is done by:
null
1
IgM HBcAg antibody
HBsAg
HBcAg
IgE HBsAg antibody
Medicine
null
346a2d0c-82b5-41cd-94fb-1dcab6782be0
single
Selenium is present in which enzyme -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Glutathione peroxidase * Selenium is a trace element that acts as a cofactor for the following enzymes1. Glutathione peroxidase# Glutathione is an antioxidant which is effective in detoxifying hydrogen peroxideH2O2 + 2GSH -> GS - SG + 2H2O# The hydrogen atoms from GSH get added to hydrogen peroxidase to form water. To start with, the source of two hydrogen atoms is selenol side chain of glutathione peroxidase2. Thioredoxinereductase# It generates reduced thioredoxin, a dithiol that serves as an electron source for peroxidases and also the important reducing enzyme ribonucleotidereductase that makes DNA precursors from RNA precursors3. Deiodinase# All three deiodinases Dl, D2, D3 need selenium as a cofactor. These deiodinases help in the conversion ofT4 to T3 or rT3.
2
Glutathione reductase
Glutathione peroxidase
Glutathione deiodinase
Thioredoxine peroxidase
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
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single
A 64 year old man, has had recurring nasal hemorrhages following surgery to remove nasal polyps. To control the bleeding, the surgeon is considering ligating the primary aerial supply to the nasal mucosa. This aery is a direct branch of which of the following aeries?
The major source of blood supply to the nasal mucosa is the sphenopalatine aery, which is the terminal branch of the maxillary aery. The sphenopalatine aery enters the nasal cavity from the pterygopalatine fossa by passing through the sphenopalatine foramen in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity.
2
Facial aery
Maxillary aery
Superficial temporal aery
Superior labial aery
Anatomy
null
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single
The following are live attenuated vaccine, except-
oral polio vaccines were first introduced by Sabin in 1957.it contains live attenuated strains of virus type 1,2, and 3.grown in primary monkey kidney or h7man diploid cell cultureref;parks tectbook,ed22,pg 187
1
Oral poilio
Yellow fever
Measles
Influenza
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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multi
Which of the following has Autosomal Recessive inheritance?
Sickle cell disease is a common hereditary hemoglobinopathy caused by point mutation resulting in replacement of Glutamic acid by Valine at 6th position of b-globin chain. Autosomal Recessive inheritance Autosomal Dominant (A Very DOMINANT Hereditary Family) Autosomal Recessive (ABCDEFGH'S) Achondroplasia/ADPKD Von Hippel Lindau disease Dystrophia myotonica Osteogenesis imperfecta Marfan Syndrome Intermittent porphyria NF 1(Von Recklinghausen disease) Achondroplasia NF 2 Tuberous Sclerosis Huntington Disease Familial hypercholesterolemia Albinism, Ataxia Telangiectasia, Alkaptonuria Beta thalassemia Cystic Fibrosis Dubin Johnson Emphysema (alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency) Friedreich Ataxia Galactosemia Hemochromatosis Sickle cell anemia
2
Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle cell anaemia
Osteogenesis imperfecta
VWD
Pathology
FMGE 2019
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single
All are involved in metabolism of vitamin D except-
Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Lungso This question is a repeat from AI -06.o Following organs are involved in calcium metabolism through vitamin D:-i) Skin- Synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol which is converted to cholecalceferol (vitamin D,) by sunlight.ii) Liver- Converts cholecalceferol to calcifediol by enzyme 25-hydroxylase.iii) Kidney- Converts calcifediol to calcitriol, active form of vitamin D.Vitamin Do Vitamin D is the major vitamin involved in the absorption of calcium.o Beside dietary' intake, cutaneous synthesis is the other and more important source of vitamin D (cholecalciferol) in the body. The keratinocytes of stratum corneum of the epidermis of skinr contain 7-dehydrocholesterol which is converted to Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) by the action of sunlight (UV light),o This vitamin D3 (Cholecalciferol) is converted to calcidiol (calcifediol or 25 hydroxy cholecalciferol or 25- hydroxy vitamin D3) by 25 hydroxylase in the liverr.o Calcidiol is the major circulating form of vitamin D3.o Calcidiol is then converted to Calcitriol (1-25 dihydroxy-cholecalciferol or 1-25 dihydroxy vitamin D3)by 1-a hydroxylation in kidneyro The final hydroxylation in kidney is rate limiting stepr.o Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin Dr.o Dietary- vitamin D is absorbed in ileum r and requires bile salts.o When Ca+2 level is high, little calcitriol is produced, and the kidney produce the relatively inactive metabolite 24,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol insteadr.
4
Liver
Kidney
Skin
Lungs
Physiology
Endocrinology metabolism
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multi
Lung head ratio is useful in diagnosis of:
A useful index of severity for patients with left Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia is the lung-to-head ratio (LHR), which is the product of the length and the width of the right lung at the level of the cardiac atria divided by the head circumference (all measurements in millimeters). It helps in predicting prognosis. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39.
1
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Sequestration
Ileal atresia
Esophageal atresia
Surgery
null
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single
A 54-year-old, previously healthy man has experienced minor fatigue on exertion for the past 9 months. On physical examination, there are no remarkable findings. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 11.7 g/dL, hematocrit of 34.8%, MCV of 73 mm3, platelet count of 315,000/ mm3, and WBC count of 8035/ mm3. Which of the following is the most sensitive and cost-effective test that the physician should order to help to determine the cause of these findings?
With RBC microcytosis, iron deficiency anemia must be considered. It could be a nutritional deficiency in children and pregnant women, but more likely is due to chronic blood loss in adults. The ferritin concentration is a measure of storage iron because it is derived from the total body storage pool in the liver, spleen, and marrow. About 80% of functional body iron is contained in hemoglobin; the remainder is in muscle myoglobin. Individuals with severe liver disease can have an elevated serum ferritin level because of its release from liver stores. A bone marrow biopsy specimen provides a good indication of iron stores because the iron stain of the marrow shows hemosiderin in macrophages, but such a biopsy is an expensive procedure. Some patients with hemoglobinopathies, such as b-thalassemia, also can have microcytic anemia, but this is far less common than iron deficiency. The serum haptoglobin level is decreased with intravascular hemolysis, but the anemia is normocytic because the iron can be recycled. The serum iron concentration or transferrin level by itself gives no indication of iron stores because, in anemia of chronic disease, the patient's iron level can be normal to low, and the transferrin levels also can be normal to low, but iron stores are increased. Transferrin, a serum transport protein for iron, usually has about 33% iron saturation.
3
Bone marrow biopsy
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Serum ferritin
Serum haptoglobin
Pathology
Blood
38e4bc8a-8d41-4285-8cde-bc763e1baadc
single
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immoality of cancer cells :
C i.e. Telomerase
3
DNA reverse transciptase
RNA polymerase
Telomerase
DNA polymerase
Biochemistry
null
c3bbc34b-c821-4ba0-8a36-4869d7fab4bf
single
Which of the following parasite does not enter into the body by skin penetration -
Human becomes infected by drinking unfiltered water containing infective cyclops The third stage larvae is infective form and is present in the haemocoele of these infected cyclops. When infective cyclops are digested by gastric acidity and the larvae are released (refer pgno:175 baveja 3 rd edition)
1
Dracunculus
Necatar americanus
Ancylostoma duodenale
Stronglyoides
Microbiology
parasitology
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single
Florid duct lesions are diagnostic of
Ans. (c) Primary biliary cirrhosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 858; 8th/pg 867)In Primary biliary cirrhosis: Interlobular bile ducts are actively destroyed by lymphoplasmacytic inflammation with or without granulomas (the florid duct lesion)
3
Klatskin tumor
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Secondary biliary cirrhosis
Pathology
Liver & Biliary Tract
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single
Human development index includes all of the following, except:
Infant moality rate
4
Adult literacy rate
Life expectancy at bih
Income
Infant moality rate
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
278698c3-ec9f-4a22-9181-cfa40dcc531b
multi
A 6 year old presents with a swelling which seems to be fluid filled translucent mass in supraclavicular area. It most likely represents:
Cystic hygroma
3
Throglossal duct Cyst
Branchial cyst
Cystic hygroma
Lymphoma
Surgery
null
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single
Saliva is
Saliva has a pH normal range of 6.2-7.6 with 6.7 being the average pH. Resting pH of mouth does not fall below 6.3. In the oral cavity, the pH is maintained near neutrality (6.7-7.3) by saliva. The saliva contributes to maintenance of the pH by two mechanisms Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:400,401,402
2
Hypeonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
At first hypeonic, then isotonic
Physiology
G.I.T
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single
A patient in ICU was on invasive monitoring with intra aerial canulation through right radial aery for last 3 days. Later he developed swelling and discolouration of right hand. The next line of management is
A i.e. Stellate ganglion block The patient has developed vasospasm (reflex sympathetic dystrophy) as indicated by development of swelling & discolouration of hand Stellate (Cervicothoracic) Block in reality blocks upper thoracic and cervical ganglion. It is indicated in : - Reflex sympathetic dystrophyQ - Vasospastic disorder of upper extremityQ - Head, Neck, Arm & Upper chest pain
1
Stellate ganglion block
Brachial Block
Radial Nerve block
Celiac plexus block
Anaesthesia
null
58aefee3-847d-48da-8918-4ffbf02434c2
single
Most impoant prognostic factor for colorectal carcinoma is :
Answer is B (Stage of lesion) The most impoant prognostic factor of colorectal carcinoma is the 'stage of disease'.. The 'stage of disease' gives information related to depth of penetration into bowel wall and extent of regional lymph node spread, both of which are the two most impoant independent prognostic. factors. Most impoant prognostic factors 'Extent of Regional Lymph node spread' and 'Depth of tumor invasion' are the most impoant determinants of prognosis Single most impoant prognostic Stage of diseaseQ Stage of disease gives information on both the depth of tumor penetration into the bowel wall and the extent of regional lymph node involvement `Stage' of disease is a superior prognostic factor in comparison to Lymph node status alone Single most impoant independent prognostic factor is the Lymph nodal status or the number of positive nodes Single most impoant independent prognostic factor Lymph node statusdeg Pathologic. Molecular and Clinical Features that May Affect Prognosis in Patients with Colorectal Cancer: Feature of Marker Effect of prognosis Pathologic * Surgical-pathologic stage Depth of bowel wall penetration Increased penetration diminishes prognosis Number of regional nodes involved by tumor 1-4 nodes is better than > 4 nodes * Tumor morphology histology Degree of differentiation Well-differentiated is better than poorly differentiated Mucinous (colloid) or signet ring cell histology Diminishes prognosis Scirrhous histology Diminishes prognosis * Venous invasion Diminishes prognosis * Lymphatic invasion Diminishes prognosis .. * Perineural invasio Diminishes prognosis * Local inflammation and immunologic reaction Improved prognosis * Tumor morphology Polypoid/exophytic is better than ulcerating/infiltrating * Tumor DNA content Increased DNA content (aneuploidy) diminishes prognosis * Tumor size No effect in most studies Molecular * Loss of heterozygosity at chromosome 18q (DCC, DPC4) Diminishes prognosis * Loss of heterozygosity at chromosome 17q (p53) Diminishes prognosis * Loss of heterozygosity at chromosome 8p . Diminishes prognosis * Increased labeling index for p21WAFICIPI protein Improved prognosis * Microsatellite instability Improved prognosis * Mutation in BAX gene Diminishes prognosis Clinical * Diagnosis in asymptomatic patients Possibly improved prognosis * Duration of symptoms No demonstrated effect * Rectal bleeding as a presenting symptom Improved prognosis * Bowel obstruction Diminishes prognosis * Bowel perforation Diminishes prognosis * Tumor location May be better for colon than for rectum May be better for left colon than for right colon tumors * Age < 30 yr Diminished prognosis * Preoperative CEA Diminished prognosis with a high CEA level * Distant metastases Markedly diminished prognosis
2
Site of lesion
Stage of lesion
Age of patient
Lymph node status
Medicine
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single
Bronchial asthma is associated with raised levels of
Acute asthma attacks are often triggered by allergens or exercise. Inflammatory molecules called leukotrienes are one of several substances which are released by mast cells during an asthma attack, and it is leukotrienes which are primarily responsible for the bronchoconstriction Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 575
1
Leukotrienes
PGI2
PGE2
Thromboxane
Medicine
Respiratory system
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single
The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is –
According to sec. 82 IPC nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.
2
12 years
7 years
16 years
21 years
Forensic Medicine
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9c8c25d1-f777-4b6b-b33a-f669e561fd3c
single
Weight gain is seen in all except:
Answer is C (Pheochromocytoma): Pheochronsocytoma is associated with weight loss. Cushing's syndrome, Hypothyroidism and Insulinoma are all associated with weight gain
3
Cushings syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Pheochromocytoma
Insulinoma
Medicine
null
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multi
In cirrhosis in space of disse which type of collagen accumulates -
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. fibrosis in the liver mobiles may be poal- central, poal poal, or both. The mechanism of fibrosis is by increased synthesis of type1 and type3 collagen in the space of disse. There is proliferation of fat storing Ito, uderlyig the sinus epithelium, which are transformed into myofibroblast and fibro cells..
2
Type I & Type II
Type I & III
Type IV
Type I & IV
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Which one of the following hepatic lesions can be diagnosed- with high accuracy by using nuclear imaging -
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3
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Hepatic Adenoma
Focal Nodular Hyperplasia
Cholangiocarcinoma
Surgery
null
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single
Bull's eye retinopathy is seen in:
1. Autosomal-dominant, benign, concentric annular macular dystrophy 2. Ceroid lipofuscinosis *3. Chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine retinopathy 4. Cone dystrophy 5. Hereditary ataxia 6. NARP syndrome 7. Spielmeyer-Vogt syndrome (Batten-Mayou syndrome) *8. Stargardt disease (or fundus flavimaculatus) 9. Trauma 10. Unknown CYBERSIGHT CONSULT
1
Chloroquine
Methanol
Ethambutol
Steroids
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
A patient with abdominal wall desmoids tumor should be screened for
Desmoid TumourTumour arising in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall, especially below the level of the umbilicus.It is a completely unencapsulated fibroma. Distribution: Extra-abdominal (60%), abdominal wall (25%), intra-abdominal (15%).Some cases recur repeatedly in spite of apparently adequate excision.About 80% of cases occur in women, many of whom have borne childrenOccurs occasionally in scars of old hernial or other abdominal operation woundsSurgical trauma: Impoant etiological factorEstrogens stimulate desmoid growthOccur in cases of FAPPathologyDiagnosisTreatmentTumour is composed of fibrous tissue containing multinucleated plasmodial masses resembling foreign body giant cells.Usually, of very slow growth, it tends to infiltrate muscle in the immediate areaEventually, it undergoes a myxomatous change and it then increases in size more rapidly.Metastasis does not occur, no sarcomatous changeMRI is the investigation of choice for extremity and abdominal wall desmoids.Wide local excision (with 2 cm margin) is the treatment of choice.Surgery + Radiotherapy: For recurrent desmoid tumors.(Refer: Sabiston's Textbook of Surgery, 19th edition, pg no: 1095)
3
Lung cancer
Breast cancer
Colonic Polyps
Pancreatic cancer
Pathology
All India exam
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multi
Which is most specific for Alcholic liver disease
AST: ALT ratio of  3:1 is highly specific Next is GGT
3
AST
ALT
GGT
ALP
Medicine
null
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single
Retroauricular incision is also known as?
ANSWER: (D) Wilde's incisionREF: Dhingra 4th ed page 356SURGICAL APPROACHES TO THE EAR AND INCISIONSTympanomeatal or Endomeatal or transcanal approachRosen's incision: It consists of two parts; (a) a small vertical incision at 12 o'clock position near the annulus & (b) a curvilinear incision starting at 6 o'clock position to meet the 1st incision in the postero superior region of the canals, 5-7 mm away from the annulusTo raise a tympanomeatal flap in order to expose the middle ear. Most commonly used for stapedectomy, also used commonly for exploratory tympanotomy to find cause for conductive hearing loss, inlay myringoplasty or ossicular reconstruction.EndauralapproachLempert's incision (Kessel Lempert):It consists of 2 parts:Lempert I-It is semicircular incision, made from 12 o'clock to 6 o'clock position in the posterior meatal wall at the bony-cartilaginous junction. Lempert II-Starts from the 1st incision at 12 o'clock & then passes upwards in a curvilinear fashion between tragus & the crus of helix. It passes through the incisura terminaiis and thus does not cut tfie cartilage. Both mastoid & external canal surgery can be done.(a) Excision of osteomas or exostosis of ear canal.(b) Large tympanic membrane perforations.(c) Attic cholesteatomas with limited extension into the antrum.(d) Modified radical mastoidectomy where disease is limited to attic, antrum, and part of mastoid.PostauralapproachWilde's incision (William Wilde):It starts at the highest attachment of the pinna, follows the curve of retroauricular groove, lying 1 cm behind it, & ends at the mastoid tip. In infants and children up to 2 years of age, the mastoid process is not developed and the facial nerve lies exposed near its exit, & the incision therefore is slanting posteriorly, avoiding lower part of the mastoid.(a) Cortical mastoidectomy.(b) Modified radical and radical mastoidectomy.(c) Tympanoplasty': when perforation extends anteriorto handle of malleus.(d) Exposure of CN VII in vertical segment.(e) Surgery of endolymphatic sac.
4
Rosens incision
Lempert's-I incision
Lemperts-II incision
Wilde's incision
ENT
Diagnostic & Operative ENT
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single
Laser used in LASIK?
Ans. A. Excimer. (Ref. Parsons' diseases of Eye 21st/ pg. 76)In LASIK, the Excimer laser beam LASIK with the excimer laser is the most popular and widely accepted Rx modality for myopia among all the choice available today. Surgical correction is only undertaken in individuals 21 years of age and above who have a stable refractive error, who have had unsatisfactory results with non- surgical Rx, and in whom corneal thinning disorders that lead to curvature myopia such as keratoconus have ruled out.Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) SurgeryRange of myopia possible complicationsAMethods to induce flattening of the central cornea1Radial keratotomy1 to 6 DPerforation, infection, surgically induced astigmatism, corneal scarring, late rupture with trivial trauma2Intracorneal rings or segments(ICR or INTACS)1 to 6 DUnpredictable results3Excimer laser photorefractive keratotomy (PRK)1 to 4 DDelayed visual recovery, faint corneal haze, glare and loss of contrast sensitivity4Excimer laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)2 to 12 DDry eye, infection, diffuse lamellar keratitis, interface debris and epithelial ingrowth, flap displacement, surgically induced astigmatism or aberrations, regression, iatrogenic thinning and ectasia, glare, difficulty with night driving and retinal detachment.5Excimer laser-assisted epithelial keratomileusis (LASEK)1 to 6 DSame as LASIK except there are no microtome-related complications6Femosecond laser-assisted LASIK2 to 12 DDiffuse lamellar keratitis, incomplete flap and interstitial corneal stromal haze are still potential problemsBMethods to reduce the overall refractory power of the eye1Clear lens extraction> 15 DRetinal detachment, endophthalmitis2Phakic intraocular lens5-22 DEndophthalmitis, cataract
1
Excimer
Argon
Holmium
Nd-Yag
Ophthalmology
Errors of Refraction
7640f38d-595a-48b3-989d-cc6507882a22
single
Norplant is :
Subcutaneous implant
1
Subcutaneous implant
Non steroidal PIU
Depot tablet
Intra uterine contraceptive device (IUCD)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a6db51df-3b1f-4aa4-9df1-ab757e6b43c0
single
Which of the following liver tumors always merit surgery?
Hepatic adenoma - As no characteristic radiological features to differentiate these lesions from malignant tumor. These tumors are thought to have malignant potential and resection is therefore the treatment of choice. Peliosis hepatis -Multiple small hemangiomas spread across the liver and is associated with immunosuppression .
2
Hemangioma
Hepatic adenoma
Focal nodular hyperplasia
Peliosis hepatis
Surgery
Liver
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single
Bronchogenic sequestration is seen in which lobe-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Left lower lobe o Bronchogenic sequestration refers to the presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system.o Intralobar sequestrations are found most frequently in the posterior basal segment of the left lower lobe,o Blood supply to the sequestered area arises not from the pulmonary arteries but from the aorta or its branches.o Extralobar sequestrations are external to the lung. Found most commonly in infants as abnormal mass lesions, they may be associated with other congenital anomalies.o Intralobar sequestrations are found within the lung substance and are usually associated with recurrent localized infection or bronchiectasis.
1
Left lower lobe
Right upper lobe
Left middle lobe
Left upper lobe
Pathology
Respiration
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single
Lesion of globus pallidus causes-
Ans is 'b' i.e., Athetosis Clinical syndromes which result from damage to Basal gangliao AthetosisQo Continuous writhing movement of the hand, arm, neck or face,o Occurs due to lesion in globus palliduso HemiballismusQo Sudden flailing movement of an entire limbo Occurs due to lesion in subthalamic nucleuso ChoreaQo Flicking movement in the hands face and other paris of the bodyo Lesion in caudate nucleusQ and putamenQo Parkinsons diseaseQo RigidityQ, BradykinesiaQ and tremoro Lesion in neurons of substantia nigraQ.
2
Chorea
Athetosis
Hemibalismus
Flexion dystonia
Medicine
Miscellaneous (C.N.S.)
33086ce5-d7aa-4358-947d-6e764fe22069
multi
The space maintainer which is contraindicated in a child suffering from sub acute bacterial endocarditis is
null
4
Removable
Crown and loop
Band and Loop
Distal shoe
Dental
null
4d71324f-948f-4889-b60d-8ba88585bf02
single