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Timolol can produce which of the following effect in an asthmatic patient?
|
Timolol is a non-selective Beta blocker (1st generation) It is used for treatement of primary open angle glaucoma. It can cause bronchoconstriction (by blocking beta 2 receptors) paicularly in asthmatics.
| 2 |
Bronchodilation
|
Bronchospasm
|
Decreased bronchial secretions
|
Increased bronchial secretions
|
Pharmacology
|
Sympathetic System
|
201f452f-6837-420c-b795-b34676bd8461
|
single
|
Which of the following is ideal as overdenture abutments in maxillary arch?
|
Central incisors have the ideal location that provides the protection of the premaxilla.
| 1 |
Central incisors
|
Lateral incisors
|
Canines
|
Second premolars
|
Dental
| null |
95dc7211-1aa5-4b0d-a85f-84d1acbc12a5
|
single
|
Which one of the following is not used to treat leishmaniasis ?
|
Pentamidine inhibits growth of protozoa by interacting with trypanosomal kinetoplast DNA and interferes with polyamine synthesis by a decrease in the activity of ornithine decarboxylase. Miltefosine has antiproliferative activity against leishmaniasis as well as against other trypanosome parasites.Mechanism is likely due to inhibition of phospholipid and sterol biosynthesis interference with cell signal transduction pathways. Dapsone is used for cutaneous leishmaniasis. Cyclosporine is an immune suppressant and is not used to treat leishmaniasis.
| 4 |
Pentamidine
|
Miltefosine
|
Dapsone
|
Cyclosporine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
9e7486e0-51bb-4d97-86c2-1c0740d52e51
|
single
|
2 years old child can do -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Climb up and downstairs with one each step time o A child can ride a tricycle by 3 years. o A child can walk up and downstairs with one step at a time by 2 years. o A child knows his sex and age by 3 years. o A child can feed himself with spoon without spilling its contents by 15 months. o A child can tell a story by 4 years.
| 2 |
Can ride tricycles
|
Climb up and downstairs with one step each time
|
Knows sex and age
|
Handles spoon well
|
Pediatrics
| null |
309cb7a3-7750-4980-a95b-632615b8b01b
|
multi
|
Prognosis of lymphoma depends on all of the following except: March 2011
|
Ans. D: Associated symptoms
| 4 |
Number of lymph node sites
|
Tumour size
|
Tumour stage
|
Associated symptoms
|
Medicine
| null |
0ba94cca-e174-4a2a-82b1-7a08d3e067de
|
multi
|
Contraction of uterine pain is carried by
|
In the early stages of labour pains are mainly uterine in origin because of painful uterine contractions It is distributed along the cutaneous nerve distribution of T10 - L 1. In the later stages pain is due to cervical dilatation This pain is referred to back through sacral plexus. Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 112.
| 3 |
L 1,2,3
|
T 12, L 1,2,3
|
T 10,11,12 L 1
|
L 3,4,5 S 1,2
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
General obstetrics
|
d9e62e26-8c12-416d-b2f9-4d991774a03c
|
single
|
Ribonuclease-P is
|
Ribonuclease P (EC 3.1.26.5, RNase P) is a type of ribonuclease which cleaves RNA. RNase P is unique from other RNases in that it is a ribozyme - a ribonucleic acid that acts as a catalyst in the same way that a protein-based enzyme would. Its function is to cleave off an extra, or precursor, sequence of RNA on tRNA molecules. Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p403
| 3 |
Ligase
|
Lyase
|
Ribozyme
|
Hydrolase
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of nucleic acids
|
c57847e5-99a3-4acb-9335-92a468d5fc75
|
single
|
Total lung capacity depends upon
|
TLC = (IRV + TV + ERV + RV) When a person inspires maximally, the lungs are at TLC. This total volume of inspired air (3000 + 500) would depend on the distensibility of the lungs. Greater the compliance, more is the distensibility and greater the amount that can be inspired. Conversely, if the compliance is reduced (as in fibrosis), the lungs cannot be distended to a great extent and TLC will be less. TLC is greater in emphysema,Due to incomplete expiration and air trapping beyond compressed airways, residual volume is increased. It may contribute to increase in TLC. However, TLC does not depend on residual volume
| 4 |
Size of airway
|
Closing volume
|
Residual volume
|
Lung compliance
|
Physiology
|
Respiratory System Pa 1
|
a4937438-b2ae-4ed0-bf60-e91addd57c36
|
single
|
The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is -
| null | 3 |
Absence of brachiocephalic trunk
|
Left vertebral artery arising from the arch
|
Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk
|
Presence of retroesophageal subclavian artery
|
Anatomy
| null |
19facc33-a371-401f-afe3-779913b05261
|
single
|
Which of the following type of odontoid fracture is considered unstable?
|
Odontoid fractures usually result from flexion forces. Odontoid fractures are classified as type I, II, or III. Type I fracture involves the tip only. Type II fracture passes through the base of the odontoid process. Type III fracture passes through the body of C2. Types II and III are considered unstable and should be externally immobilized by a halo vest or fused surgically. Surgery often is undeaken for widely displaced fractures (poor chance of fusing) and for those that fail external immobilization. Type I fractures usually fuse with external immobilization only. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 42.
| 3 |
II
|
III
|
Both of the above
|
None of the above
|
Surgery
| null |
bdd6d99f-f5c6-434e-947b-38640e27a6ff
|
multi
|
Acidosis is commonly seen in severely uncontrolled diabetes mellitus due to excessive production of
| null | 4 |
Acetoacetic acid
|
Carbonic acid
|
Beta hydroxybutyric acid
|
Both 1 and 3
|
Biochemistry
| null |
a82ba945-660f-4ec6-9138-a4dd3f30f3bf
|
multi
|
Glasgow coma scale in death is:
|
(D) 3 > Note that a motor response in any limb is acceptable.> The scale is composed of three tests: eye, verbal and motor responses.> The three values separately as well as their sum are considered.> The lowest possible GCS (the sum) is 3 (deep coma or death), while the highest is 15 (fully awake person).GLASGOW COMA SCALE 123456EyeDoes not open eyesOpens eyes in response to painful stimuliOpens eyes in response to voiceOpens eyes spontaneouslyN/AN/AVerbalMakes no soundsIncomprehensible soundsUtters incoherent wordsConfused, disorientedOriented, converses normallyN/AMotorMakes no movementsExtension to painful stimuli (decerebrate response)Abnormal flexion to painful stimuli (decorticate response)Flexion / Withdrawal to painful stimuliLocalizes painful stimuliObeys commands
| 4 |
0
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
Surgery
|
Miscellaneous
|
33e7f938-6a96-40af-91c7-021dd8f93d53
|
single
|
Which one of these is NOT associated with decrease in Residual Volume?
|
(A) Emphysema# RESIDUAL VOLUME is the amount of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal exhalation.> Residual Volume is important because it prevents the lungs from collapsing.> Even after we have expelled as much air as possible (expiratory reserve volume) gaseous exchange is still occurring by residual volume in the lungs. It also prevents the inner surfaces of the lungs sticking together.# In Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema:> Increase in Residual volume> Peak Expiratory flow rate usually reduced.> VA/Q i.e., ventilation perfusion ratio is a poor indicator of the severity of the disease.TypeExamplesDescriptionFEV1/FVCRestrictiveLungDiseases Pulmonary fibrosis, Infant Respiratory Distress syndrome, Weak respiratory muscles, PneumothoraxVolumes are decreasedOften in a normal range (0.8 to 1.0)ObstructiveLungDiseases Asthma or COPD or EmphysemaVolumes are essentially normal but flow rates are impededOften low (Asthma can reduce the ratio to 0.6, Emphysema can reduce the ratio to 0.78 to 0.45)
| 1 |
Emphysema
|
Bacterial pneumonia
|
Interstitial lung disease
|
Lung abscess
|
Medicine
|
Miscellaneous
|
ac305a7e-5696-40df-bd89-2c68a22cc8de
|
single
|
Blood born spread is a feature of?
|
Sarcoma REF: Robbins 7 ed page 270 "Hematogenous spread is typical of sarcomas and Lymphatic spread is typical of carcinomas" However the above is not a rule and there are sarcomas that spread through lymphatics. The sarcomas that spread through lymplatics are: Mnemonic: SAME CoLouR (CLR) S- Synol cell sarcoma A- Angiosarcoma M- Malignant fibrous Histocytoma E- Epithelial sarcoma C- Clear cell sarcoma L- Lymphosarcoma R- Rhabdomyosarcoma
| 2 |
Carcinoma
|
Sarcoma
|
Dysplasia
|
Metaplasia
|
Surgery
| null |
43c32556-ffe0-4a69-926b-82f6c2cb02e7
|
single
|
Treatment of mucinous carcinoma of Gallbladder confined to the lamina propria
|
Ans. (a) Simple CholecystectomyRef: Sabiston 20th edition Page 1512-1514* T1 a is confined to lamina propria- Just simple cholecystectomy is enough.
| 1 |
Simple cholecystectomy
|
Extended cholecystectomy
|
Cholecystectomy with wedge resection of liver
|
Chemotherapy only
|
Surgery
|
Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts
|
11860869-14c1-4be3-9c45-75e9dc926fb2
|
multi
|
Ipratropium bromide used in bronchial asthma is:
|
CLASSIFICATION of asthma drugs1.Bronchodilators - a)Sympathomimetics: Salbutamol, Terbutaline, Bambuterol, Salmeterol, Formoterol, Ephedrine. b)Methylxanthines: Theophylline (anhydrous), Aminophylline, Choline theophylline, Hydroxyethyl theophylline, Theophylline ethanolate of piperazine, Doxophylline. c)Anticholinergics: Ipratropium bromide, Tiotropium bromide. 2.Leukotriene antagonists: Montelukast, Zafirlukast. 3.Mast cell stabilizers: Sodium cromoglycate, Ketotifen. 4.Coicosteroids - a)Systemic: Hydrocoisone, Prednisolone and others. b)Inhalational: Beclomethasone dipropionate, Budesonide, Fluticasone propionate, Flunisolide, Ciclesonide. 5.Anti-lgE antibody :Omalizumab ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY 7TH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PAGE NO:222
| 3 |
Beta Sympothomimetics
|
Methylxanthines
|
Anticholinergic
|
Mast cell stabilizers
|
Pharmacology
|
Respiratory system
|
6cd3e296-cf0c-4055-822a-f4948a420aa2
|
single
|
A Down syndrome child is mentally retarded. All cytogenetic abnormalities may occur except?
|
a. Deleted chromosome 21(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 610-615, Ghai 8/e p 637-639)An extra copy of chr 21 is required to cause trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), so deletion of chr 21 will not cause it.
| 1 |
Deleted chromosome 21
|
Trisomy 21
|
Robertsonian translocation
|
Mosaic
|
Pediatrics
|
Genetics And Genetic Disorders
|
510cfc37-09f2-45a7-880c-93100b6546f7
|
multi
|
Feature of NF 1 are-
|
*Common autosomal dominant disease caused by loss of function mutation in NF1 gene located at 17q11.2. multiple neurofibromas in combination with 6 or more CALM measuring >1.5cm,axillary freckling and multiple Lisch nodules are seen in NF1. It is associated with variety of tumours malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor,gliomas of optic nerve,o ther hilal tumours and hamaomatous lesions and pheochromocytomas. Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is a complex multi-system human disorder caused by the mutation of a gene on chromosome 17 that is responsible for production of a protein called neurofibromin which is needed for normal function in many human cell types Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2376
| 4 |
Axillary freckle
|
Optic glioma
|
Family history
|
All
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
f1567edc-4e71-4c28-9c4c-5b6a8c306a82
|
multi
|
During extraction of a maxillary molar a root tip is left in the maxillary sinus. The treatment of choice is:
| null | 1 |
Perform Caldwell-Luc to remove the tip
|
Perform hemi maxillectomy
|
Enlarge opening in the socket area
|
No treatment indicated
|
Surgery
| null |
c1d3b97a-3170-4215-b67a-53ab698dd560
|
single
|
Which of the following anesthetic agent is not painful on intravenous administration?
|
Ketamine: Sho acting, non barbiturate anaesthetic induces a dissociated state in which the patient is unconcious and does not feel pain. This dissociative anaesthesia provide sedation, amnesia and immobility. Not painful on IV administration Propofol: potent anaesthetic but a weak analgesic . Maximum pain on injection. Etomidate:- Hypnotic agent used to induce anaesthetic but lacks analgesic activity. Usually only used for patient with coronary aery diseases or cardiovascular dysfunction. Methohexital:- Barbiturate derivative, sho acting and has rapid onset of action.
| 1 |
Ketamine
|
Propofol
|
Etomidate
|
Methohexital
|
Pharmacology
|
NEET 2019
|
ce46f53e-2a96-42b1-86f7-3b404f0c4170
|
single
|
Yuzpe and lance regimen should be administered within maximum -------
|
Yuzpe and Lance Method : Combined Oral pills are generally accepted as the preparation of choice for post coital (emergency) contraception, as it is less likely to cause adverse side effects. Regimens. Current recommendation (pills with 30mcg oestrogen) : 4 pills immediately followed by 4 pills 12 hours later. Standard method : (pills with 50 mcg oestrogen) : 2 pills immediately followed hy 2 pills 12 hours later Pills with 200 mcg oestrogen : 1 pill immediately followed by 1 pill 12 hours later Regimens should be completed within 72 hours of coitus The sooner staed, the more effective it is and the effectiveness more than 72 hours after sexual intercourse is greatly reduced Method is not guaranteed to prevent pregnancy A test should be carried out if the period is >3 days late The regimen does not protect against STD Phrase 'morning after pill' is figurative : Combined OCP's can be used for upto 72 hours after sexual intercourse MC side effect repoed by users of emergency contraceptive pills :Nausea Ref : Park 25th edition Pgno : 535
| 4 |
3 hours
|
12 hours
|
24 hours
|
72 hours
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Demography and family planning
|
ba22f848-0e6e-4f7e-ad47-e5c230cef4e3
|
single
|
A 49-year-old man suffering from carcinoma of the prostate was x -rayed. He showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in x-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was through -
|
Prostatic cancer spreads to the bones through blood vessels; first into Batson's periprostatic venous plexus and then into the internal vertebral plexus of veins.
This metastasis is possible because of valveless communication between the periprostatic and vertebral plexus of veins.
| 3 |
Sacral canal
|
Lymphatic vessels
|
Internal vertebral plexus of veins
|
Superior rectal vein
|
Surgery
| null |
a4b858e2-f627-4375-8b1f-c1b1464bf409
|
multi
|
a1 -antitrypsin deficiency chromosome is located at:
|
B i.e. 14Robbins Pathology, 9th edition, page 850Explanation:Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency:a1-Antitrypsin deficiency is an autosomal recessive disorder of protein folding marked by very low levels ofcirculating a1-Antitrypsin (a1AT).a1AT deficiency leads to the development of pulmonary emphysema, because the activity of destructive proteases is not inhibited.It also causes chronic liver disease as a consequence of hepatocellular accumulation of the misfolded protein.Cutaneous necrotizing panniculitis also occurs in a minor subset of patients.The gene, located on chromosome 14.The most common clinically significant mutation is PiZZ; homozygotes for the PiZZ protein have circulating a1AT levels that are only 10% of normal.a1AT deficiency is characterized by the presence of round-to-oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes, which on routine hematoxylin and eosin stains are acidophilic, but are strongly periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive and diastase-resistant.
| 2 |
10
|
14
|
17
|
11
|
Pathology
|
Genetics
|
4b0796d9-b6a6-4514-b812-ff17318370ea
|
single
|
The μ opioid receptor is responsible for the following effects:
| null | 1 |
Miosis
|
Bradycardia
|
Hypothermia
|
Bronchodilation
|
Pharmacology
| null |
68b3c2e8-cf7e-4235-ba04-c8f2378907f4
|
single
|
Name the instrument shown here:
|
Ans. (c) Proctoscope* The scope used to examine anus and distal rectum is proctoscope.* We cannot examine proximal rectum with this - hence it is a misnomer to name it as proctoscope.
| 3 |
Sigmoidoscope
|
Colonoscope
|
Proctoscope
|
Rhinoscope
|
Surgery
|
Rectum
|
86843abb-e805-4f8a-a176-ca16dc3fb8e7
|
single
|
Chikungunya is transmitted by -
|
Vector Diseases transmitted Culex Bancroftian filariasis JE West Nile Fever Anopheles Malaria Filaria (outside India) Aedes Yellow fever Dengue Chikungunya Rift Valley Fever Mansonia Brugian filariasis and Chikungunya REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 832
| 1 |
Aedes
|
Culex
|
Mansonia
|
Anopheles
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Environment and health
|
7af7cc63-5de7-428e-8678-44e413b842ed
|
single
|
A term baby girl has two episodes of bile-stained emesis at 24 hours after bih. There is a history of excessive amniotic fluid volume. The most appropriate diagnostic test is? NOT RELATED - MEDICINE
|
.
| 2 |
Blood culture
|
Barium swallow and Gastrointestinal X rays
|
CT scan of head
|
Neurosonogram
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
7c1a0fd9-39b3-4fc7-963b-032a4c12b3bf
|
multi
|
According to WHO clinical staging of HIV in children oral hairy leukoplakia belongs to which clinical stages?
|
Oral hairy leukoplakia belongs to Clinical stage 3.
| 3 |
Clinical stage 1
|
Clinical stage 2
|
Clinical stage 3
|
Clinical stage 4
|
Pediatrics
| null |
ea05b0b8-8e88-40d3-858a-811e3c85cfb9
|
single
|
Commonest cause of hea failure in infancy is -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Congenital hea disease Congestive hea failure o Congestive hea failure is state in which the hea cannot produce the cardiac out required to sustain the metabolic needs of the body, without evoking ceain compensatory mechanism. o The most common cause of CHF in infants --> Congenital hea disease. o The most common cause of CHF in the older children --> Rheumatic fever & rheumatic hea disease.
| 4 |
Myocarditis
|
Rheumatic fever
|
Cardiomyopathy
|
Congenital hea disease
|
Pediatrics
| null |
e71a33df-1954-417d-a77a-22035b102248
|
single
|
Which of these is not a marker of active replicative phase of chronic hepatitis B?
|
Ans. (c) Anti-HBC Anti-HBC has no relation with viral replication HBV DNA, HBV DNA polymerase represent active viral replication Level of HBV DNA correlates well with the degree of liver injury as suggested by raised AST, ALT It is not compulsory in chronic active hepatitis that HBeAg is positive. Infact HBeAg negative chronic hepatitis B is more dangerous.
| 3 |
HBV DNA
|
HBV DNA polymerase
|
Anti-HBC
|
AST and ALT
|
Microbiology
| null |
dcd55e20-6887-494f-ab9a-11a399716a14
|
single
|
Trochlear and abducent nerve pass through
|
Optic nerve runs backwards and medially, and passes through the optic canal to enter the middle cranial fossaInferior orbital fissure transmits maxillary nerve, the zygomatic nerve etc.Infraorbital foramen transmits the infraorbital nerve and vessels
| 2 |
Optic canal
|
Superior orbital fissure
|
Inferior orbital fissure
|
Infraorbital foramen
|
Anatomy
| null |
a1caf740-3a36-47ae-b768-f683d98ab19c
|
single
|
A female of 40 years presenting with intolerance to cold, constipation and hoarseness of voice was found to have cardiomegaly on chest roentgenogram. Which of the following investigations is the best to determine the cause of her careliomegaly?
| null | 4 |
Coronary angiography
|
Left ventricular angiography
|
Right ventricular angiography
|
Echocardiography
|
Medicine
| null |
41152272-860b-45d3-a9e0-21aa896e6093
|
single
|
Upper limb counterpa of dorsal spinocerebellar tract is:
|
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract carries - touch, pressure & unconscious proprioception from the lower body. Cuneo- cerebellar tract is considered as the upper limb equivalent of the dorsal spinocerebellar tract Ventral spinocerebellar tract - composite pathway carrying proprioception. Vestibulo cerebellar tract - carries fibers from the vestibular nuclei to regulate equilibrium & balance
| 3 |
Tecto-cerebellar tract
|
Vestibulo-cerebellar tract
|
Cuneo-cerebellar tract
|
Ventral spinocerebellar tract
|
Anatomy
|
Spinal cord, its lesions and ANS
|
54f3e13e-2a70-43e5-b282-a2983e8d6329
|
single
|
Which among the following is not an autoimmune disease?
|
Ans. (d) Sickle cell diseaseRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /211-15, 635* Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition which is characterized by mutation in beta globin chain of hemoglobin (glutamic acid is replaced with valine in the 6th position of beta chain).* Other given choices like SLE, Graves and MG are all autoimmune conditions.
| 4 |
Myasthenia gravis
|
Systemic lupus erythematosus
|
Graves disease
|
Sickle cell disease
|
Pathology
|
Autoimmune Diseases
|
501da08f-d6aa-4948-9742-c56f910b7b6b
|
single
|
The requirement of potassium in a child is –
|
The recommended daily dietary intake of potassium in a child is 1- 2 meg/kg
`Dietary consumption varies considerable even though 1- 2 meg/kg is the recommended intake'
| 1 |
1–2 mEq/kg
|
4–7 mEq/kg
|
10–12 mEq/kg
|
13–14 mEq/k g
|
Pediatrics
| null |
d2b8eab6-05a6-444f-b39b-7a3c2299e70d
|
single
|
All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood transfusion, except -
| null | 2 |
Parvo B-19
|
Dengue virus
|
Cytomegalo virus
|
Hepatitis G virus
|
Medicine
| null |
a44fa2b7-9bae-4081-9679-01c3d2767fd4
|
multi
|
The chosen method for measurement of obesity is -
|
Chosen method for measurements of obesity 1. A large propoion of total body fat is located just under the skin. Since it is the most accessible, the method most used is the measurement of skinfold thickness. It is a rapid and non invasive method for assessing body fat. Ref- Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition. .
| 1 |
Skinfold thickness
|
Body electrolyte count
|
Height - weight - sex chas
|
Basal oxygen consumption
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Non communicable diseases
|
0aff9748-8c52-4e29-ad4e-9f6a4230d5db
|
single
|
A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is-(
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bacillus anthracis . Mc Fadyean's reaction is used for the presumptive diagnosis of anthrax. . History of skinning a dead animal, development of pustule, the presence of gram (+)ve bacilli in long chains with positive Mc Fadyean's reaction are suggestive of "anthrax" caused by Bacillus anthracis.
| 3 |
Clostridium tetani
|
Li steria monocytogenes
|
Bacillus anthracis
|
Actinomyces sp
|
Microbiology
| null |
9c9f016a-b488-4a79-9ac8-c8520ceaf165
|
single
|
Hind milk is richer in:
|
c. Fat(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 286-290, Ghai 8/e p 150-161)CharacteristicsFore milkHind milkWhat is it?Milk released at beginning of feedMilk released towards the end of feedRicher inWater, vitamins, minerals, proteinsFatSatisfiesThirst of babyHunger of baby
| 3 |
Carbohydrate
|
Protein
|
Fat
|
Minerals
|
Pediatrics
|
Nutrition
|
f9c759a1-f1ff-4fc8-922c-f28130f61467
|
single
|
True about kala-azar-
|
Kala-azar There are varity of animal reservoirs, eg., dogs, jackals, foxes, rodents, and other mammals. Males are affected twice as often as females. In India, Kala-azar is endemic in 52 districts. Incubation period, generally 1 to 4 months ; range is 10 days to 2 yrs. Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition page: 305
| 3 |
More common in female than male
|
Eliminated from India
|
Non-human reservoirs are present
|
Incubation period is 1-3 months
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
30896e90-c295-49f3-9a35-8e5bba7155d4
|
multi
|
Which of the following is least likely to cause constrictive pericarditis
|
Causes of constrictive pericarditis include: Tuberculosis Incomplete drainage of purulent pericarditis Fungal and parasitic infections Chronic pericarditis Postviral pericarditis Postsurgical, streptococcal effusion Following MI, post-myocardial infarction In association with pulmonary asbestos Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1456 Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 463
| 4 |
Tuberculous pericardial effusion
|
Staphylococcal effusion
|
Post cardiac surgery
|
Acute rheumatic fever
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
ec256b47-a2dd-477a-92fb-e9cb96602ee0
|
single
|
Sinus of highmore is?
|
ANSWER: (B) Maxillary sinusREF: Dhingra 4th ed page 178See APPENDIX-49 "PARANASAL SINUSES" APPENDIX - 49Paranasal Sinuses:Paranasalsinus(PNS)Status at birth1stRadiologicalEvidenceBestradiologicalviewAdult sizeDrains intoCommentsMaxillaryPresent4-5 monthsWaters'view/Ocdpitomental/nose-chinposition15 yearsMiddle meatusLargest PNS, capacity of 15 ml in an adult, Antrum of HighmoreEthmoidPresent1 yearCaldwellviewSizeincreases until teensAnterior & middle Etbmoid= middle meatus, Posterior Ethmoid= Superior meatusNumber varies from 3 to 18FrontalAbsent6 yearsCaldwellview7 years,Middle meatus6-7 ml capacitySphenoidAbsent4 yearsWater's view with open mouthBetween 15 years to adult ageSphenoethmoidalrecess2.2 cm x 2 cm x 2.2 cm.Also know:Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism implicated to acute sinusitis in both adults and childrenIn children with cystic fibrosis, most common organism implicated to sinusitis is staphylococcus aureus.Chronic sinusitis is most commonly associated with s. aureus and <2 hemolytic streptococciAspergillus mucormycosis is the most common organism implicated to fungal sinusitis with maxillary sinus most frequently involvedWagner's granulomatosis is the most common granulomatous sinusitis with maxillary sinus most commonly involved.Acute sinusitis almost always involves single sinus, with ethmoid sinus being most common in children and maxillary in adults.Maxillary sinus is the most common location of chromic sinusitis in both children and adults closely followed by ethmoid sinus.(Note: To he more particular "Anterior ethmoid cells'' are most common site of chronic sinusitis in children but comparing sinuses as a whole maxillary becomes more common than ethmoid)Mucous retention cyst (different from mucocele) is most commonly found at maxillary sinus.Most common site of mucocele is frontal sinus (60%), least common at sphenoid sinus.Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of sinuses with maxillary sinus most commonly involved (80%)Most common site of adenocarcinoma of sinus is ethmoid sinus.Brain abscess is the most common intracranial complication of sinusitis (as a whole)Meningitis is the most common intracranial complication of acute sinusitis.Orbital complication is the most common extracranial an overall complication of sinusitis
| 2 |
Frontal sinus
|
Maxillary sinus
|
Ethmoid sinus
|
Sphenoid sinus
|
ENT
|
Nose and PNS
|
965b8bc3-1b14-4a19-a7d3-9121445e1687
|
single
|
A patient Parul gives you the history that she has missed a single dose of her combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following will you advise her?
|
* If a woman misses one pill of OCP, she should take 2 pills next day and then continue one pill a day as usual. * If the pills have been missed for 2-3 days, then the course should be stopped-->mechanical barriers (like condom) should be used and the next course should sta from next menstrual cycle.
| 2 |
Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose
|
Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course
|
Take 2 pills everyday for the remaining pa of the course
|
Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception
|
Pharmacology
|
Osteoporosis, Sex Hormones and OCPs
|
460b9446-4ad5-4bce-a51b-ef9afb7369bb
|
single
|
Hypoglycemia is caused by:
| null | 1 |
Alcohol intoxication
|
Thiazide
|
Diazoxide
|
Metoclopramide
|
Pharmacology
| null |
575500ec-aec4-49e9-a939-cb1f932479e2
|
single
|
A 3 year old child with cystic fibrosis presents with weight loss, irritability, and a chronic productive cough. On physical exam, he is febrile and lung exam reveals intercostal retractions, wheezing, rhonchi, and rales. Chest x-ray demonstrates patchy infiltrates and atelectasis and Gram's stain of the sputum reveals slightly curved, motile gram-negative rods that grow aerobically. The microorganism responsible for this child's pneumonia is also the most common cause of which of the following diseases?
| null | 4 |
Croup
|
Epiglottitis
|
Meningitis
|
Otitis externa
|
ENT
| null |
459e5cc4-7ad5-4385-a3cb-29275c51624c
|
multi
|
The critical angle of cornea-air interface is
|
Critical angle refers to the angle of incidence in the denser medium, corresponding to which angle of refraction in the rare medium is 90deg. At the tear-air interface, the critical angle is approximately 46deg. Made use of in construction of gonio lenses where this interface is changed and as a result critical angle becomes larger allowing for the reflected light to escape the eye and get reflected on the gonio mirrors which helps the examiner visualize the angle of the eye
| 2 |
36 degree
|
46 degree
|
56 degree
|
66 degree
|
Ophthalmology
|
Cornea
|
f9a00e0b-f777-4107-aade-709fb791cfaa
|
single
|
Activation of which of the following receptor cause vasoconstriction?
|
Ans: d (ETa receptor) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 600ET receptors:ETa - specific for endothelin 1 - G coupled- vasoconstrictionETb- Responds to all 3 endothelins - G1 coupled - vasodilatationM3 receptors cause vasodilatation by release of NO & visceral smooth muscle contraction.Nm - They are present in skeletal muscle & cause constriction but not vasoconstriction.Na - They are present on ganglionic cells not on vascular smooth muscle. M,m2m3SITEAutonomic ganglia,Gastric glandsCVSVisceral smooth muscleExocrine glandsVascular endothelium (vasodilator)AGONISTOxotremorineMethacholineBethanecholANTAGONISTPirenzepine,TelenzepineMethoctramineTripitamineHexahydrosiladifendiolDarifenacin (All India) NmNnSITESkeletal muscleAutonomic gangliaAdrenal medullaAGONISTPTMANicotineDMPPNicotineANTAGONISTTubocurarinea bungarotoxinHexamethoniumTrimethophan
| 4 |
Nm receptor
|
M3 receptor
|
Nn receptor
|
ETa receptor
|
Physiology
|
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
|
9fd6923d-da10-45cc-aecb-6fadb4ab3e09
|
single
|
Local anaesthetic agent which has antimuscarinic action on hea muscle receptors is
|
Cocaine is a sympathomimetic (and thus antimuscarinic) local anaesthetic and thus adrenaline should not be added to it.
| 2 |
Procaine
|
Cocaine
|
Chloroprocaine
|
None of the above
|
Pharmacology
|
All India exam
|
e1e1e8d3-9a40-4995-a177-df84d95fd3c5
|
multi
|
Histopathology of a lung cancer shows 'Clara cells' probable diagnosis is -
|
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
It is a histological type of adenocarcinoma.
It occurs in the pulmonary parenchyma in the terminal bronchioloalveolar pattern.
The tumor is almost always in the peripheral portion of the lung.
More often it occurs as multiple diffuse nodules that sometimes coalesce to produce a pneumonia-like consolidation.
The key feature of bronchioloalveolar carcinomas is their growth along preexisting structures without destruction of the alveolar architecture. This growth pattern has been termed "lepidic" an allusion to the neoplastic cells resembling butterflies sitting on a fence.
Stromal, vascular or pleural invasion is characteristically absent.
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma consists of mucin-secreting bronchiolar cells, Clara cells, or rarely type II pneumocytes.
These tend to have aerogenous spread and patient usually dies of suffocation (not by metastatic spread).
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma has two subtypes -
i) Non-mucinous → Rare aerogenous spread and therefore amenable to surgical resection.
ii) Mucinous → Tend to spread aerogenously, forming satellite tumors.
| 2 |
Squamous cell cancer
|
Bronchio alveolar cancer
|
Large cell cancer
|
Papillary carcinoma
|
Pathology
| null |
878fd329-8593-4558-b8bc-ec1b1f85fbe4
|
single
|
A vaccine which requires stringent condition for storage is
|
(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24thedition, pg no: 222)
| 2 |
DPT
|
OPV
|
BCG
|
TT
|
Anatomy
|
All India exam
|
e14e95c8-0066-4152-a00d-558e23ea1c0d
|
single
|
Miltefosine is used in treatment of:
|
Miltefosine (hexadecylphosphocholine) is an oral drug that was originally studied as an antitumor agent. Subsequent to the serendipitous laboratory finding that miltefosine was active against Leishmania in vitro and, after oral administration in laboratory animals, the drug was developed in a public-private panership for the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar. Ref:
| 3 |
Malaria
|
Typhus fever
|
Kala azar
|
Chicken pox
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
8263ca20-ce80-46e4-8955-1a5786920d25
|
single
|
A 54-year-old man presents with 7 weeks of facial flushing and diarrhea. His symptoms began intermittently but are becoming more constant. A 24-hour urine collection reveals an elevated level of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA), a metabolite of serotonin. An abdominal CT scan shows a 2-cm mesenteric mass in the ileum and likely metastatic tumors in the liver. What is the likely diagnosis?
|
One of the main secretory products of carcinoid tumors involved in the carcinoid syndrome is serotonin , which is synthesized from tryptophan. Serotonin production is characteristic of gut carcinoid tumors. Serotonin is metabolized to 5-HIAA. Therefore, finding high levels of 5-HIAA in a 24-hour urine collection in a patient with flushing or other symptoms is highly suggestive of the diagnosis. Serotonin has numerous biologic effects, including stimulating intestinal secretion with inhibition of absorption, stimulating increases in intestinal motility, and stimulating fibrogenesis. In various studies 56-88% of all carcinoid tumors were associated with serotonin overproduction; however, 12-26% of the patients did not have the carcinoid syndrome. In one study platelet serotonin was elevated in 96% of patients with midgut carcinoids, 43% with foregut tumors, and 0% with hindgut tumors. In 90-100% of patients with the carcinoid syndrome there is evidence of serotonin overproduction. Serotonin is thought to be predominantly responsible for the diarrhea because of its effects on gut motility and intestinal secretion, primarily through 5-HT3 and, to a lesser degree, 5-HT4 receptors. Ref: Papadakis MA, McPhee SJ, "Carcinoid Syndrome, Malignant." Quick Medical Diagnosis & Treatment ; Jensen R.T. (2012). Chapter 350; Endocrine Tumors of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Pancreas. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
| 2 |
Serotonin syndrome
|
Malignant carcinoid syndrome
|
Cushing syndrome
|
Phaeochromocytoma
|
Surgery
| null |
52134794-586e-43f4-9fcb-75b6ae652e2d
|
single
|
Which is not diagnostic of antemoem drowning?
|
SIGNS OF ANTEMOEM DROWNING External findings: Cadaveric spasm holding grass, gravel and sand in hand Fine, white lathery froth in mouth & nose. Internal findings Presence of froth mixed with sand paicles in the trachea & bronchi (paicularly in the lower airways) Mud in the upper airway alone may be seen in post-moem drowning as well. Presence of water in stomach & small intestine Presence of water and hemorrhage in middle ear Non specific signs: Cutis anserina Washerwoman's hands
| 3 |
Water in the small intestine
|
Emphysema aquosum
|
Mud in the upper airways
|
Haemorrhage in the middle ear
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Drowning
|
f92fc9db-6f4c-424b-bc42-5e4730aa2fd0
|
multi
|
All of the following vitamins are antioxidants EXCEPT:
|
Ans. (b) Vitamin BRef: K. Park 23rded. 1626* Antioxidants are substances which are both nutrients and non-nutrients.* These anti-oxidants reduce the toxic effects of reactive oxygen species and nitrogen species which are generated during physiological or pathological conditions and result in oxidant damage* Vitamins which acts as antioxidants are remembered as ACE: vitamin A, C and E* Other vitamins which acts as anti-oxidants are: Selenium, Glutathione* Non-nutrient products that also act as anti-oxidants are: Plant phenols, Flavonoids, Coumarins, caffeic, benzyl isothiocyanates, gallic and ellagic acid.* Vitamin B is not an anti-oxidant.
| 2 |
Beta carotene
|
Vitamin B
|
Vitamin C
|
Vitamin E
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Vitamins
|
fbb7a262-7f59-4e34-b0f1-27e919c93ad2
|
multi
|
Gastric carcinoma involving the antrum with lymph node involvements. The pancreas, liver, peritoneal cavity are normal. Most appropriate surgery is ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above Most appropriate surgery is -3 Radical subtotal gastroectomy
| 4 |
Total radical gastrectomy
|
Palliative gastrectomy
|
Gastrojejunostomy
|
None of the above
|
Surgery
| null |
b63fbfa3-4dd3-41d3-9e9f-952477bde087
|
multi
|
Type I diabetes mellitus is associated with
| null | 3 |
insulin resistance
|
defect in mitochondrial DNA
|
islet cell autoantibodies
|
beta cell dysfunction
|
Medicine
| null |
b5a5cb7f-bd4c-4e5d-b4d2-8a58e83bbfea
|
single
|
Chlorine demand of water determined by -
|
Horrock &;s water testing apparatus is designed to find out the dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water Contents 6 white cups One black cup with a circular mark inside 2 metal spoons 7 glass stirring rods One special pipette Two droppers Starch-iodine indicator solution Instruction folder (refer pgno:729 park 23rd edition)
| 1 |
Horrocks apparatus
|
Chloronometre
|
Berkefield filter
|
Doble Pot
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Environment and health
|
18c530ab-4461-4569-b347-51b77336f178
|
single
|
Surface Immunoglobulin is found in which cell?'
|
Ans is 'b' i.e. B-cell o B cells recognize antigen via the B-cell antigen receptor complex. Ig M and Ig D, present on the surface of all naive B cells, constitute the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor complexo After antigenic stimulation, B cells form plasma cells that secret immunoglobulin.
| 2 |
T-cell
|
B-cell
|
NK cell
|
Plasma cells
|
Pathology
|
Cells and Tissues of Immune System
|
3ef5125e-8864-4e40-a3e0-a0c696b622f0
|
single
|
Estrogen dependent conditions are all except :
|
Ca. Cervix
| 4 |
Endometriosis
|
Endometrial carcinoma
|
Fibroids
|
Ca. Cervix
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
f4a718ed-b3ba-47b1-b803-d303f86d21db
|
multi
|
All of the following infections have a well recognized association with nephropathies; except:
|
Staphylococcus epidermidis is the commonest infection of ventriculo-atrial shunts; mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis (GN) may result. Salmonella typhi infection can be complicated by glomerulonephritis, which may be mesangial proliferative, diffuse proliferative, or IgA nephropathy. Chronic hepatitis B virus - Membranous GN Hepatitis C - Membrane-proliferative GN associated with mixed essential cryoglobulinemia Nephropathy with hepatitis A is rare. The nephropathy associated with Legionnaire's disease is interstitial nephritis or tubular necrosis.
| 1 |
Staphylococcus epidermidis
|
Salmonella typhi
|
Hepatitis A
|
Legionnaire's disease
|
Surgery
| null |
836e37e5-2326-4e2d-b813-dc539425c34f
|
multi
|
Causes of floaters in DM is: (PGI May 2010)
|
Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage) "Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to Vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by advanced Diabetic retinopathy"- Parson 20th/88Vitreous detachment also cause floaters (But as Q is specifically asked about cause in MD, so should not be marked as answer)Floaters20th/88-89& www.diife.com/diabetes/information//.../chous_ march06It occur when the vitreous, a gel-like substance that fills about 80 percent of the internal eye, slowly shrinks. As the vitreous shrinks, it becomes somewhat stringy, and the strands can cast tiny shadows on the retina.In most cases, floaters are part of the natural aging process and simply an annoyance. Over time, they tend to settle to the bottom of the eye, becoming less bothersomeFloaters are more likely to develop as we age and are more common in people who are very nearsighted, have diabetes, or who have had previous eye surgeryQ.There are other, more serious causes of floaters, including infection, inflammation (uveitis), hemorrhaging, retinal tears, and injury to the eye.People with diabetes tend to have more floaters because high blood glucose alters the chemical composition of the vitreous, causing it to shrink more rapidly. Also, people with diabetes are more likely to have bleeding inside the eyes as a result of diabetic retinopathy, and patients will sometimes visualize individual red blood cells floating around within their vitreous (sort of looks like hundreds of discrete, little peppercorns.)Patients with severe diabetic retinopathy (proliferative diabetic retinopathy) are especially at risk for a retinal detachment, as abnormal blood %ressels growing into the vitreous are more firmly attached to the retina, pulling it away as the vitreous shrinks (like wall paper being pulled off a wall). If left untreated, a retinal detachment can lead to permanent visual impairment or blindness within a few' days or even hours.Sometimes, a section of the vitreous pulls away (detaches) from the retina all at once, rather than gradually, causing many new floaters to appear suddenly. This is called a vitreous detachment, w'hich in most cases is not sight- threatening and requires only close observation, not treatment.However, a sudden increase in floaters, possibly accompanied by light flashes or peripheral (side) vision loss, could indicate a retinal detachmentFig.: illustration of a floater within the vireousposterior vitreous detachment (PVD) is a condition of the eye in which the vitreous humour separates from the retina
| 1 |
Vitreous hemorrahage
|
Vitreal detachment
|
Maculopathy
|
Infarction
|
Ophthalmology
|
Vascular Disorders
|
977622e2-d33e-4fdf-91d4-f01e96fc6048
|
single
|
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon sheath is also known as:
|
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon sheath, also known as trigger finger, is one of the most common upper limb problems to be encountered in hand surgery practice. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 44.
| 1 |
Trigger finger
|
Tennis elbow
|
Carpal tunnel syndrome
|
Dupuytren'scontracture
|
Surgery
| null |
301da8d1-5689-42f6-bbb0-7807f4281d88
|
single
|
Highly selective proteinuria is seen in
|
Loss of glomerular basement membrane (GBM) polyanion has been proposed as a cause of the selective proteinuria in minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS).The exact role of charge selectivity in the pathogenesis of nephrotic proteinuria remains controversial Proteinuria that is more than 85% albumin is selective proteinuria. Nonselective proteinuria, being a glomerular leakage of all plasma proteins, would not involve changes in glomerular net charge but rather a generalized defect in permeability Ref Harrison20th edition pg 287
| 1 |
Minimal change
|
Mesangial proliferative nephritis
|
Membranous glomerulonephritis
|
Focal glomerulosclerosis
|
Medicine
|
Kidney
|
129da013-c4fd-45d7-be76-5a09e3861176
|
single
|
Witness interested in concealing the truth or the part of truth is Known as:
|
Ans. b (Hostile witness) (Ref. Reddy FMT 23rd/pg. 10, 11)TYPE OF WITNESSHostile witness# As per sec. 191 IPC, the one who is supposed to have some interest or motive for concealing th? truth or the part of truth, or for giving completely false evidence. Both expert and common witnesses may turn out hostile.Expert witness# Person who has been trained or is skilled in technical and scientific subjects, and capable of draw\ng opinions and conclusions from the facts observed by himself, or noticed by others, e.g., doctor, fireexperts, fingerprint experts, handwriting experts etc (S 45 IEA)Common witness (witness of fact, occurrence witness)# Person who gives evidence about the facts observed or perceived by him.# He must show that he was capable of perceiving the fact by one of his own senses, and he actually observed this fact.# This is known as the "firsthand knowledge" rule, which may be used to establish the exact circumstance of the case for the court.Also know:As per Sec. 191 and 192 IPC and 344 CrPC a witness will be charged for perjury when he/she gives deliberate false/ fabricated evidence or fails to tell what he knows or believes to be true under oath.
| 2 |
Expert witness
|
Hostile witness
|
Occurrence witness
|
Medical witness
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
|
892169ad-716b-441a-a5ad-08d67d40ac7c
|
single
|
Crown completion of Maxillary 1st molar occur
| null | 3 |
At birth
|
1 ½ year
|
2 ½ to 3 year
|
6 months after birth
|
Dental
| null |
dddc840e-3615-4932-af87-122c55efc70d
|
single
|
Food dependent Cushing's syndrome is a result of the aberrant expression of:
|
Glucose dependent insulinotropic polypeptide-Gastric inhibitory peptide ( GIP) In adipocytes - augments triglyceride storage It play role in obesity and insulin resistance GIP receptors aberrantly expressed in adrenal coex result in food dependent cushing syndrome. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, Edition-9, Page-8
| 1 |
Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
|
Somatostatin
|
Substance P
|
Tachykinins
|
Physiology
| null |
138d9028-97e3-4f7d-835b-3030cc83e6c4
|
single
|
Monro-kellie doctrine is related to injury of -
|
Ans. (a) Head(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.603)Monro - Kellie doctrine states that the skull comprises of three components namely blood, CSF and cerebral parenchyma.If any of the component increases, it is always at the cost of others.For example, if there is obstruction to CSF flow, then CSF pressure rises and it automatically compress brain parenchyma and blood flow
| 1 |
Head
|
Abdomen
|
Chest
|
Leg
|
Physiology
|
Nervous System
|
a1f98bee-017d-4ec8-8a9d-d65fc34549e2
|
single
|
The main reason for replacing premature loss of primary anterior teeth
| null | 2 |
Form and function
|
Speech and esthetics
|
Space maintenance
|
None of the above
|
Dental
| null |
72f0e995-823a-4136-8d49-08a13e97d31e
|
multi
|
Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain Uronic acid residue is:
|
Ans. D. Keratan SulphateGAG with no Uronic Acid: Keratan SulphateGAG with no Sulfate group: Hyaluronic AcidGAG not covalently linked to Protein: Hyaluronic Acid
| 4 |
Heparan Sulphate
|
Heparin
|
Chondroitin Sulphate
|
Keratan Sulphate
|
Biochemistry
|
Carbohydrates
|
fdf09e92-a71b-414e-a3b6-a72eea6f8322
|
single
|
Which of the following is not seen in WV involvement of CNS -
|
Inclusion bodies [Ref : Bobbin's Thie p. 13751 Involvement of C.N.S. is a common and impoant manifestation of AIDS. In addition to the lymphoid system the nervous system is a major target of HIV infection. Macrophages and microglia cells in the central nervous system that belongs to the monocyte and macrophages lineages are the predominant types in the brain that are infected with HIV. It is widely believed that HIV is carried into the brain by infected monocytes. Ninety percent of patients demonstrate some form of neurological involvement at autopsy. C.N.S. involvement in AIDS usually produces AIDS dementia complex. The pathology associated with AIDS related congnitive motor complex sometimes called subacute encephalitis is located mainly in subcoical areas with relative sparing of cerebral coex. Between 10 and 20% of I-UV-infected patients present with neurologic signs as their first clinical manifestation of infection. In some, no other signs of AIDS develop. Between 50 and 70% of all AIDS patients eventually develop some features of what is called AIDS dementia or the AIDS related cognitive-motor complex. -This term is used to describe the characteristic pattern of cognitive, motor, and behavioral dysfunction, including mood disturbances, seen in AIDS patients. At autopsy, between 60 and 90% of AIDS patients brains show some .form of pathology. Pathologic changes directly due to HIV infection (subacute encephalitis) The pathology associated with the AIDS-related cognitive-motor complex, sometimes called subacute encephalitis, is located mainly in subcoical areas, with relative sparing of cerebral coex. Microscopic changes include : - Diffuse white matter pallor - Perivascular infiltrates of lymphocytes and macrophages - Foci of necrosis, gliosis, and/or demyelination Microglial nodules, macrophages and multinucleated cells Remember, Vasculitis is characteristically absent in CNS involvement in AIDS. The virus enters the brain, probably primarily by way of nacrophages, as HIV has been localized in CNS, mainly in macrophages, microglia and multinucleated giant cells. The virus is able to reproduce in the brain. Vacuolar myelopathy - Is sometimes seen in the spinal cord. This change consists of white matter vacuolation in posterior and lateral columns, and is mainly due to swelling within mhyelin sheaths. Peripheral nervous system pathology - PNS damage is seen in some HIV-infected patients. Inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy is the primary PNS pathology.
| 4 |
Perivascular giant cell
|
Vacuolar degeneration of post column
|
Microglial nodule formation
|
Inclusion bodies
|
Pathology
| null |
63f92788-0580-4f45-a107-f58a0edd08c2
|
single
|
Daily salivary secretion is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1000-1500 ml Daily secretion of intestinal juicesDaily volume (ml)pHSaliva10006.0-7.0Gastric secretion15001.0-3.5Pancreatic secretion10008.0-8.3Bile10007.8Small intestine secretion18007.5-8.0Brunner's gland secretion2008.0-8.9Large intestinal secretion2007.5-8.0Total6700
| 2 |
250-500 m!
|
1000-1500 ml
|
2000-2500 ml
|
3000 ml
|
Physiology
|
Secretory Functions of the Alimentary Tract
|
a2ddf95e-a3ea-4b15-92ed-686b827da264
|
single
|
Lateral internal sphincterotomy is the treatment of choice for
|
ANAL FISSURE Definition An anal fissure (synonym: fissure-in-ano) is a longitudinal split in the anoderm of the distal anal canal, which extends from the anal verge proximally towards, but not beyond, the dentate line. Operative measures Historically, under regional or general anaesthesia, forceful manual (four- or eight-digit) sphincter dilatation was used to reduce sphincter tone; however, this was achieved in an uncontrolled fashion with potential disruption at multiple sites of the internal (and even external) sphincter. The risk of incontinence following this procedure has now made it unpopular, although more conservative controlled stretching is still practised in young men with very high sphincter tone. Fissure healing can also be achieved by a posterior division of the exposed fibres of the internal sphincter in the fissure base, but this is associated with prolonged healing, as well as passive anal leakage thought mainly to be due to the resulting keyhole gutter deformity; however, it may be indicated if there is an associated intersphincteric fistula. Lateral anal sphincterotomy In this operation, the internal sphincter is divided away from the fissure itself - usually either in the right or the left lateral positions (Notaras). The procedure can be carried out using an open or a closed method, under local, regional or general anaesthesia, and with the patient in the lithotomy or prone jack-knife position. The distal internal sphincter is palpated with a bivalved speculum at the intersphincteric groove. In the closed method, a small longitudinal incision is made over this, and the submucosal and intersphincteric planes are carefully developed to allow precise division of the internal sphincter with a knife or scissors to the level of the apex of the fissure; the wound is then closed with absorbable sutures. Alternatively, either plane can be entered using a scalpel , with the blade advanced parallel to the sphincter and then rotated such that the sharp edge faces the internal sphincter, which can then be divided along its distal third. Pressure should be applied to the wound for a few minutes to prevent haematoma formation. In the open technique, the anoderm overlying the distal internal sphincter is divided longitudinally to expose the sphincter, which is divided, and the wound is closed with absorbable sutures. Although the fissure needs no specific attention, problematic papillae and external tags can be excised concomitantly. Early complications of sphincterotomy include haemorrhage, haematoma, bruising, perianal abscess and fistula. Despite low recurrence rates, the most impoant complication is incontinence of a variable nature and severity, which may affect up to 30% of patients, paicularly women, who have weaker, shoer sphincter complexes and in whom there may already have been cove sphincter compromise incurred by childbih. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1352
| 3 |
Haemorrhoids
|
Fistula in ano
|
Fissure in ano
|
Anal cancer
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
1df639b7-2d2c-4200-be19-8fa6cba6013b
|
single
|
In case of female commonest hernia is ?
|
Ans is 'b' ie Indirect Inguinal hernia
| 2 |
Direct inguinal hernia
|
Indirect inguinal hernia
|
Femoral Hernia
|
Incisional hernia
|
Surgery
| null |
57ecb82e-0557-4f1f-a7fe-fccdaf5e3a37
|
single
|
For a screening test, 90% specificity means that 90% of non diseased persons will give a -
|
a 90% specificity means that 90%of the non diseased persons will give "true negative result",10% of non diseased people screened by the test will be wrongly classified as &;;diseased" when they are not. ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22nd edition,pg no 131
| 1 |
True negative result
|
True positive result
|
False negative result
|
False positive result
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Screening
|
b7bfa7b0-93dc-47df-b67c-bad4824a9e59
|
multi
|
The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes
|
In severe kyphoscoliosis RV is normal TLC decreased FRC decreased/normal FVC decreases
| 1 |
Normal RV and decreasd TLC
|
Reduced FEV1/ FVC
|
Reduced FEV 25-75
|
Increased FRC
|
Medicine
|
Respiratory system
|
30330faa-6558-4900-9f18-cf14fafe3f28
|
single
|
All the following statements about atrial myxomas are true, except
|
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1577:289e-1 In contrast to sporadic tumors, familial or syndromic tumors tend to occur in younger individuals, are often multiple, may be ventricular in location, and are more likely to recur after initial resection.
| 4 |
Most common site is left atrium
|
Most common in young individuals
|
Distance metastasis are rare
|
Most myxomas are familial
|
Anatomy
|
General anatomy
|
eaee85c4-7cc4-46ce-8875-413036d34b08
|
multi
|
Use of tamoxifen for breast cancer can cause all ofthe following adverse effects, exceptaEUR'
|
Carcinoma in contralateral breast [Ref. KDT 6/e p. 304; Goodman & 10/e p. 1440,14411 Tamoxifen is associated with reduced risk of cancer in the contra- lateral breast. - It helps in preventing the recurrence and also helps to prevent the development of new cancers in the other breast. When used as an adjuvant chemotherapy it is usually taken for 5 years. When taken for 5 years it reduces the chance of original breast cancer coming back in the same breast or elsewhere. It also reduces the risk of developing secondary primary cancer. Tamoxifen may lead to endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer -Tamoxifen is an SERM i.e. it has selective action on estrogen receptors. It will stimulate estrogen receptors in some organs while it will antagonize the estrogen receptors in other organs. - While tamoxifen blocks estrogen receptors on the breast, it stimulates these receptors in the uterus (because tamoxifen is a paial against of ER) Stimulation of estrogen receptors in the uterus may predispose the patients to endometrial hyperplasia and for endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen usage may lead to cataracts (occasional) 'Tamoxifen causes retinal deposites, decreased visual acuity and cataracts in occasional patients' - Goodman Gillman 117h/e p. 1557 Tamoxifen usage may lead to thromboembolism Tamoxffen increases the risk of thromboembolic events' - Goodman Gillman 1
| 3 |
>Thromboembolism
|
Endometrial carcinoma
|
>Carcinoma in contralateral breast
|
>Cataract
|
Pharmacology
| null |
1c222a5b-27e6-40cd-9038-fb70bbfd5a7a
|
multi
|
Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage is punishable by
|
Section 314 in The Indian Penal Code: Death caused by act done with intent to cause miscarriage. Whoever, with intent to cause the miscarriage of a woman with child, does any act which causes the death of such woman, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine. If the act was done without woman's consent, shall be punished either with or with the punishment above mentioned. Ref - Krishnan Vij 5th edition , <a href="
| 3 |
309 IPC
|
312 IPC
|
314 IPC
|
316 IPC
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Medical Jurisprudence
|
06005e64-ed2e-44f4-b430-500ddc09664f
|
single
|
What is the ideal method to remove a retained Foley's catheter if its balloon does not deflate?
|
The ideal method to remove a retained Foley's catheter if its balloon does not deflate is by USG guided rupture of balloon after inflating it with 20ml water. It should be followed by a cystoscopic examination to rule out any fragments which can lead to bladder stones.
| 4 |
Over-distend the balloon with water till it bursts
|
Dissolve the balloon by injecting ether
|
CT-guided rupture of balloon
|
USG guided rupture of balloon
|
Surgery
|
Miscellaneous
|
e43ef522-af4f-4592-a4b6-bdc3091d5c41
|
multi
|
CD 4 is not impoant for which of the following -
|
Opsonisation
| 2 |
Antibody production
|
Cytotoxic of T cells
|
Memory B Cells
|
Opsonisation
|
Pathology
| null |
bc5a6888-d757-4d30-963d-becefb92a6cc
|
single
|
Which of the following families of glycoproteins plays the most impoant role in regulating the migration and differentiation of leukocytes and connective tissue cells during wound healing in a 34-year-old woman who has a benign nevus removed from her back under local anesthesia ?
|
The locomotion of leukocytes is powered by membrane extensions called lamellipodia. Slower moving cells, such as fibroblasts, extend fingerlike membrane protrusions called filopodia. The leading edge of the cell membrane adheres to the extracellular matrix through transmembrane adhesion receptors termed integrins -Cadherins (choice A) are cell-cell adhesion molecules. -Fibrillins (choice B) are structural molecules that interact with elastic fibrils. -Laminins (choice D) are basement membrane glycoproteins. Diagnosis: Wound healing
| 3 |
Cadherins
|
Fibrillins
|
Integrins
|
Laminins
|
Pathology
|
Wound Healing
|
df32ae40-aff5-4e93-9dfa-937dbbbafc82
|
single
|
Rheumatoid factor is:
|
Answer is D (IgM): Rheumatoid factor is. an IgM antibody directed against the Fc fragment of IgG
| 4 |
IgG
|
IgM
|
IgD
|
IgM
|
Surgery
| null |
a77f5234-2bbf-46d9-a3a0-30399d269cfe
|
single
|
Which one of the following Lymphomas is associated with HTLV-virus infection?
|
(C) Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma # HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukemia / lymphoma> Tropism for CD4+T cells> Human infection by Sexual intercourse Blood products Breast-feeding> Leukemia develop in only 3% to 5% of the infected individuals after a long latent period of 40 to 60 years. HTLV-1 is also associated with a demyelinating neurological disorder: Tropical Spastic Paraparesis and some form of Uveitis Arthritis> HTLV-1 is associated with adult T-cell leukemia / lymphoma> Tropism for CD4+T cells> Human infection by Sexual intercourse Blood products Breast-feeding> Leukemia develop in only 3% to 5% of the infected individuals after a long latent period of 40 to 60 years. HTLV-1 is also associated with a demyelinating neurological disorder: Tropical Spastic Paraparesis and some form of Uveitis Arthritis.
| 3 |
Burkitt's lymphoma
|
B-cell lymphoma
|
Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma
|
Hodgkin's disease
|
Pathology
|
Misc.
|
ca87208c-0700-41a8-807a-3e23612dbcee
|
single
|
All of the following are features of thyrotoxicosis, except:
|
CVS FINDINGS IN THYROTOXICOSIS
Most common cardiovascular manifestation is sinus tachycardia, often associated with palpitations, occasionally caused by supraventricular tachycardia.
Exertional dyspnea.
Hyperactive precordium with loud first heart sound, an accentuated pulmonic component of the second heart sound, and a third heart sound.
Systolic ejection click.
The high cardiac output produces a bounding pulse, widened pulse pressure and an aortic systolic murmur and can lead to worsening of angina or heart failure in the elderly or those with preexisting heart disease.
Atrial fibrillation is more common in patients >50 years of age.
A systolic scratch, also known as Means-Lerman scratch, is occasionally heard in 2nd left intercoastal space during expiration.
Systolic hypertension.
| 1 |
Diastolic murmur
|
Soft non ejection systolic murmur
|
Irregularly, irregular pulse
|
Scratching sound in systole
|
Surgery
| null |
06b190d6-912b-40d5-8c76-ccdb03df91a0
|
multi
|
Which of the following drugs is used to prevent the mother-to-child transmission of HIV?
|
Ans. b. Nevirapine (Ref: Goodman and Gilman 12/e p1643; COGDT 10/p e692-693; Dutta 7/e p301-302; Williams 23/e p1248; Park 21/e p321; Nelson 18/e p1430-1431)Nevirapine is used to prevent the mother-to-chiid transmission of HIV."Single-dose nevirapine has been commonly used in pregnant, HIV-infected women to prevent mother-to-child transmission. A single oral intrapartum dose of 200 mg nevirapine followed by a single dose given to the newborn reduced neonatal infection by 13% compared with 21.5% infection with a more complicated zidovudine regimen, as studied by Sheran and co-workers in 2005. One important study in Uganda demonstrated that a single dose of nevirapine given to the mother at the onset of labour followed by a single dose to the new horn within 72 hours of birth decreased transmission by 50% compared with a regimen of zidovudine to the mother. The cost of this regimen is much cheaper than that of zidovudine and thus is being used increasingly in developing countries for prevention of mother to child transmission."- Goodman and Gilman 12/e p1643"Antiretrovirals used for preventing mother-to-child transmission of HIV-Zidovudine and Nevirapine."Mother to Child Transmission (MTCT) of HIVMTCT in developing countries (India): 30%QMTCT in developed countries: 20%TimingTransmission RateDuring Pregnancy5-10%QDuring labour and delivery10-15%QDuring breast feeding5-20%QOverall without breast feeding15-25%QOverall with breast feeding up to 6 months20-35%QOverall with breast feeding up to 18-24 months30-45%Q Prevention of MTCTModalityDose/ typeReduction in MTCT byPost-modality MTCT in IndiaZidovudineMother: 300 mg BD from 36 weeks POG + 300 mg 3h during deliveryChild: 2 mg /kg 6h X 6 weeks66%Q10%NevirapineSingle oral doseMother: 200 mg at labour onsetChild: 2 mg/ kgQ within 72 hours of birthQ50%Q15%QCaesarean sectionElective CS50%15%
| 2 |
Lamivudine
|
Nevirapine
|
Stavudine
|
Abacavir
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Sexually Transmitted Infections
|
fdd2ddb4-2928-40ee-bb41-fc747e06ac39
|
single
|
In patients who present with a penetrating chest injury, injury to the heart is most likely when the following physical sign(s) is/are present:
|
Hypotension, increased venous pressure (distended neck veins), and decreased heart sounds make up the classic Beck's triad associated with cardiac tamponade. If these three findings are present in a person who has a penetrating chest wound, intracardiac injury is almost certain and operative intervention is mandatory.
| 4 |
Hypotension
|
Distended neck veins.
|
Decreased heart sound.
|
Decreased venous pressure
|
Unknown
| null |
8bc4666f-60c1-475f-a898-f04408910e44
|
single
|
IPC 304B is for -
|
Ans is 'b' i.e. Dowry deatho 304-BIPC: Dowry death : 10 years of imprisonment which can extend to life.o 498-A IPC: Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives.Dowry deatho In some cases newly married girls are abused, harassed, cruelly treated and tortured by the husband, in-laws and their relatives for or in connection with any demand for dowry. In extreme cases, the woman is killed by burning or some other method. Law in relation to dowry death are:-Low prescribing punishment and definition (section 304 B IPC)o Husband or (his any) relative will be tried under section 304B, IPC and shall be deemed to have caused her death, if a woman dies due to bodily injury or bums or otherwise in suspicious circumstances with in 7 years of marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to harassment or cruelty by them, in connection with, any demand for dowry. Such death shall be called dowry death. Punishment includes imprisonment of not less than 10 years, but which may extend to life imprisonmentLow prescribing punishment for causing cruelty to a married women (Sec. 498A, IPC)o Husband or (his any) relative will be tried under section 498A, IPC for causing cruelty to a married woman. Cruelty is defined as any willful conduct which drives the woman to commit suicide or grave physical or mental injury to her or harassment of the women with a view to coerce (intimidate) her for dowry. Punishment includes imprisonment which may extend upto 3 years and fine.
| 2 |
Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives
|
Dowry death
|
Death caused by negligence
|
Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murder
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
|
064b2f7d-628b-4981-a8c8-22ea05f8509d
|
single
|
A 36 year old woman has noticed, absence of menses for the last 4 months. A pregnancy test is negative. Serum levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone are elevated and the serum estradiol levels is low. These findings suggest :
|
Premature menopause
| 3 |
Bilateral tubal obstruction
|
Polycystic ovarian disease
|
Premature menopause
|
Exogenous estrogen administration
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
f4d2f134-65a8-4bc4-9001-091330293e37
|
single
|
Acrodermatitis enteropathica is
| null | 1 |
Inherited disorder of impaired uptake of zinc from body
|
Inherited disorder of excessive excretion of zinc from body
|
Inherited disorder of excessive excretion of copper from body
|
Inherited disorder of impaired uptake of copper from body
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
d566e5bd-38af-4933-9e9b-72999b8ab598
|
single
|
Serotonin (5-HT) is one of several mediators of the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumor. When released from this neoplasm, most of the manifestations of 5-HT are the result of activation of the 5-HT2 receptor. These manifestations are therefore likely to include which of the following effects?
|
- 5-HT2 receptors mediate smooth muscle contraction and thus cause bronchospasm and diarrhea, not constipation.- Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are relatively insensitive to 5-HT.- Peptic ulceration is not mediated in pa by 5-HT; the autacoid actually reduces acid secretion.
| 1 |
Bronchospasm
|
Constipation
|
Skeletal muscle weakness
|
Tachycardia
|
Surgery
|
GIT
|
e8636b15-f816-47ae-b667-12258a0b1764
|
single
|
Which is not a part of proximal row of carpal bones?
|
Ans. D HamateRef: Kulkarni Clinical Anatomy, 2nd ed. pg. 80Proximal row of carpals (Lateral to Medial): Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetral and Pisiform.
| 4 |
Scaphoid
|
Lunate
|
Triquetral
|
Hamate
|
Anatomy
|
Upper Extremity
|
4ce29249-cfb7-4897-92cb-b63a06560134
|
single
|
Epiphyseal enlargement occurs in
|
Epiphyseal enlargement - juvenile rheumatoid ahritis , hypehyroidism, rickets, spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia. EPIPHYSEAL dysgenesis/ fragmented or punctuate epiphysis - Hypothyroidism.
| 3 |
Sheurmann's disease
|
Paget's disease
|
Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis
|
Epiphyseal dysplasia
|
Orthopaedics
|
Metabolic disorders - 1
|
9a6f1aa6-6770-4a41-995e-859a10fb2f2d
|
single
|
The term 'rampant caries' applies to a mouth having:
| null | 2 |
5 or more lesions/year
|
10 or more lesions/year
|
2 or more lesions/year
|
12 or more Lesions/year
|
Dental
| null |
7093d0bb-1a33-4fd2-acf6-19412edd02a1
|
single
|
Which of the following agents do not act GABAA Cl- channel complex receptors?
|
Zopiclone (non benzodiazepine hypnotics ),benzodiazepine ,thiopentone(barbiturates) all act on GABA-Cl channel ,whereas promethazin is a antihistamine drug that acts on histaminergic receptors which causes high sedation. Ref: KD Tripathio 8th ed.
| 4 |
Zopiclone
|
Benzodiazepines
|
Thiopentone
|
Promethazine
|
Pharmacology
|
Central Nervous system
|
ee818d66-c859-4f35-9227-837b7dcd664a
|
single
|
30 year old woman's PAP smear is given below. What is your next approach
|
The pap smear shows:
→ Dysplastic squamous cells
→ High N:C ratio
→ Irregular nuclear membrane
→ Coarse chromatin
All these suggest high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
| 2 |
Continue routine screeing
|
Advice loop electro excisional procedure
|
Hysterectomy
|
Cryotherapy
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
623150d4-f45d-4664-a806-0f43b55018f9
|
single
|
A problem village is one wrhere -
|
Ans. is i.e., All of the above o A problem village has been defined as oneWhere no source of safe water is available within a distance of 1.6 km, or Where water is available at a depth of more than IS meters, orWhere water source has excess salinity, iron, fluorides and other toxic elements, orWhere water is exposed to the risk of cholera.
| 4 |
Source of water > 1[?]6 km away
|
Water available > 15 meters depth
|
Excess of fluoride in water
|
All of the above
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Health Programmes in India
|
51d9b599-ddff-4ecc-ba4e-18814a91a847
|
multi
|
Rice grains appearance with passage of proglottids in stool is seen in
|
(T. saginata) (144-Panikar 6th)* Most common presenting finding is the passage of proglottids in the stool in T. saginata (1315-CMDT-08).* T. solium - Autoinfection with eggs can progress to cysticercosis.* T. saginata - Commonly lives in Jejunum (Unarmed tapeworm).* The larva of T. saginata (cysticercus bovis) is not found in humans.* Niclosamide and praziquantel are effective treatment.
| 2 |
Taenia solium
|
Taenia saginata
|
D. latum
|
H. nana
|
Microbiology
|
Parasitology
|
750b5fb5-93cc-4169-b372-c3dbd645d2e2
|
single
|
Most commonly used method of display of ultrasound is
|
Applications- A-Mode- Commonly used for orbital biometry,Axial Length of eyeball. B-Mode (Brightness) : Most commonly used mode. M-mode (motion): Used for valvular morphology and motion,Echocardiography and Fetal Hear Rate monitoring.
| 2 |
A-Mode
|
B-Mode
|
M-Mode
|
D-Mode
|
Radiology
|
ULTRASOUND
|
fb10759f-dae8-4439-8c2b-52ed0979c41d
|
single
|
The personnel involved in the integrated child development program of WHO is:
|
Anganwadi worker will guide ASHA in performing following activities:
Organizing Health Day once/twice a month. On health day, the women, adolescent girls and children from the village will be mobilized for orientation on health-related issues such as the importance of nutritious food, personal hygiene, care during pregnancy, the importance of antenatal check-up and institutional delivery, home remedies for minor ailment and importance of immunization, etc. AWWs will inform ANM to participate and guide organizing the Health Days at Anganwadi centre.
AWWs and ANMs will act as resource persons for the training of ASHA.
IEC activity through the display of posters, folk dances, etc. on these days can be undertaken to sensitize the beneficiaries on health related issues.
Anganwadi worker will be depot holder for drug kits and will be issuing it to ASHA. The replacement of the consumed drugs can also be done through AWW.
AWW will update the list of eligible couples and also the children less than one year of age in the village with the help of ASHA.
ASHA will support the AWW in mobilizing pregnant and lactating women and infants for nutrition supplements. She would also take initiative for bringing the beneficiaries from the village on specific days of immunization, health check-ups/health days, etc. to Anganwadi centres.
lt is involved in the integrated child development program of WHO.
| 2 |
Dhai
|
Anganwadi workers
|
Village health workers
|
School health teacher
|
Dental
| null |
9537c0cb-6c36-427a-b502-bbf9099790d5
|
single
|
Arrange the following tumors according to the increasing age they affect. 1. Ewings sarcoma 2. Osteosarcoma 3. Osteoclastoma 4. Multiple Myeloma
|
AGE Tumors 1st Decade Ewing's sarcoma (Can be 5-20 years), Unicameral Bone Cyst Retinoblastoma Rhabdomyosarcoma Metastasis from Neuroblastoma 2nd Decade Osteosarcoma (Can affect all ages) Aneurysmal Bone Cyst Giant cell tumor (20-40 years-classical is 30 years) Adamantinoma Enchondroma After 40Yrs Multiple myeloma >Chondrosarcoma.
| 2 |
2-3-1-4
|
1-2-3-4
|
4-2-1-3
|
1-2-4-3
|
Orthopaedics
|
Ohopedics Oncology
|
a40e222f-33e7-4409-9aaa-3770fcca051c
|
single
|
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