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A 5-year-old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since bih and hepatosplenomegaly. Which is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis?
Progressive increasing pallor along with hepatosplenomegaly in a five-year-old girl is consistent with a diagnosis of thalassemia. (Thalassemia intermedia) 'Hemoglobin electrophoresis' is the test of choice of diagnosing this condition and hence is the option of choice here.
1
Hb electrophoresis
Peripheral smear examination
Osmo c fragility test
Bone marrow examination
Physiology
All India exam
055fc135-e603-4705-8665-dfdb50c133ce
multi
Creatine is made up of all, except -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alanine o Creatine and creatinine are not amino acids, but specialized products of amino acids. Creatine is synthesized from glycine, arginine and methionine. Synthesis start with formation of guanidoacetate from glycine and arginine in kidney. Further reactions takes place in liver and muscle.Thus, both creatine and creatinine are synthesized from arginine, glycine, and methionine.
2
Glycine
Alanine
Methionine
Arginine
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Structure & Function of Proteins)
591077e8-d0f6-4b9c-a74a-4e2ad01eadda
multi
which of the following class antidepressent used in the management of smoking sessation
NDRI * IMPOANCE Anti-depressant which does not deal with serotonin neurotransmission Also called as Zyban * MECHANISM Prevents reuptake of nor adrenaline and dopamine * DRUGS Bupropion * USE ADHD SMOKING CESSATION HYPOACTIVE SEXUAL DESIRE DISORDER * SIDE EFFECTS seizures Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 955
3
SSRI
MAOI
NDRI
RIMA
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
415f223c-c54c-4ee0-87bd-4dbcefe19c8e
single
False statement about bilirubin is
Bilirubin transpo: Bilirubin circulates in plasma noncovalently, bound to albumin. It is taken up across the sinusoidal membrane of hepatocytes by a carrier-mediated mechanism. Bilirubin uptake is mediated by a liver-specific sinusoidal organic anion transpo protein, (OATP1B1, SLC21A6) Then bilirubin is directed by cytosolic binding proteins (e.g., glutathione S-transferase B, fatty acid binding protein) to the ER. It is conjugated with uridine diphosphate (UDP)-glucuronic acid by the enzyme bilirubin UDP-glucuronyl transferase (B-UGT). Conjugated bilirubin is directed toward the canalicular membrane, and it is transpoed into the bile canaliculus by an adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-dependent pump. The responsible protein is multidrug resistance-associated protein-2 (MRP2, ABCC2) Small amounts of bilirubin glucuronides are secreted across the sinusoidal membrane MRP3 (ABCC3) Conjugated bilirubin in plasma undergoes renal elimination Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-324
3
Bilirubin circulating in plasma by covalently binding with albumin
Bilirubin is taken up across the sinusoidal (basolateral) membrane of hepatocytes by a carrier-mediated mechanism
Conjugated bilirubin in plasma undergoes stool elimination
Conjugated bilirubin is then directed primarily toward the canalicular (apical) membrane
Medicine
null
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multi
The cause of death in cyanide poisoning is
Anoxic anoxia: caused by a complete lack of oxygen to the brain. It occurs when a person is in an environment without enough oxygen, such as at high altitudes.Anemic anoxia: Anoxia due to anemia is not severe at rest unless hemoglobin deficiency is marked. However anemic patients may have considerable difficulty during exercise due to limited ability to increase oxygen delivery to active site.Histotoxic Anoxia: Hypoxia due to inhibition of tissue oxidative processes occurs due to cyanide poisoning. Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase. Methylene blue or nitrites are used to treat cyanide poisoning.Stagnant Anoxia: Occurs due to slow circulation and is a problem in organs like kidneys and hea during shock. It is also known as hypoperfusion anemia. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 12th edition(South Asia), page: 621
3
Anoxic anoxia
Anaemic anoxia
Histotoxic anoxia
Stagnant anoxia
Physiology
Respiratory system
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Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is most likely to cause mental retardation?
Ans. D. Trisomy 21An extra chromosome 21 is the most common genetic abnormality found in Down syndrome, and the abnormality most likely to cause mental retardation. Abnormalities in autosomal chromosomes are, in general, associated with mental retardation. The chromosomal aberration represented by 46 chromosomes with fusion of 15 and 21 produces a type of Down syndrome that, unlike trisomy 21, is usually inherited. Aberrations in sex chromosomes are not always associated with mental retardation, such as in XO (Turner's syndrome), XXY (Klinefelter's syndrome), and XXYY and XXXY (Klinefelter's syndrome variants) genotypes.Some children with Turner's syndrome have normal to superior intelligence.Girls with Turner's syndrome have gonadal agenesis and do not develop secondary sexual characteristics without medical intervention. Another hallmark feature is a webbed neck. In Klinefelter's syndrome and its variants, individuals have underdeveloped male genitalia and infertility and may develop gynecomastia beginning in adolescence.
4
Klinefelter's syndrome
Fusion of chromosomes 21 and 15
Turner's syndrome
Trisomy 21
Psychiatry
Child Psychiatry
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single
Which pa of subclan aery is affected by stenosis is:
Most common etiology of subclan stenosis is atherosclerosis, and it mostly affects the ostium or proximal pa of subclan aery. Ref: Peripheral and Cerebrovascular Intervention By Deepak L. Bhatt, Page 102
1
First pa
Second pa
Third pa
All pas are equally affected
Surgery
null
515cc7ea-4713-46a5-8062-4210b9aeef57
multi
Valley fever or desse rheumatism is caused by
Coccidioides causes primary pulmonary disease which can be mild influenza-like fever ( valley fever) to severe pneumonia. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition
1
Coccidioides
Cladosporium
Phialophora
Histoplasma
Microbiology
mycology
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Ductus arteriosus obliterates to form:
Ans. D. Ligamentum arteriosumChanges in Fetal Circulation Just after Birth After birth, the placenta is separated from newborn and lung startsoxygenating the blood, i.e., respiration is established. Now the oxygenated blood comes to heart from the lungs. As a result, the following changes take place in fetal circulation:a. Umbilical vein, as it no longer carries any blood from the placenta, obliterates and forms a fibrous ligament called ligamentum teres hepatis.b. Ductus venosus obliterates to form a fibrous ligament called ligamentum venosum.c. As the lungs are inflated and the pulmonary circulation is established, pulmonary veins bring more blood to the left atrium. Now, as the pressure of blood in the left atrium is more than that in the right atrium the septum primum is pushed to the right and the foramen ovale is closed. At first the closure of foramen ovale is physiological, but later on septum primum fuses with the septum secundum and there is an anatomical closure of foramen ovale. The closed foramenovale forms fossa ovalis.d. Ductus Arteriosus obliterates to form a fibrous ligament called the ligamentum arteriosum.e. Umbilical arteries (right and left) obliterate. However, their proximal parts remain open. The proximal parts of umbilical arteries form superior vesical arteries whereas their distal parts form fibrous ligaments called medial umbilical ligaments.
4
Ligamentum venosum
Ligamentum teres
Ligamentum hepatis
Ligamentum arteriosum
Anatomy
Embryology
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What is the likely source of infection for Pus from sphenoethmoidal recess?
Ans: (a) Sphenoid sinusRef: Dhingra's ENT 6th ed. /138* Spheno ethmoidal recess is situmated above the superior turbine. Sphenoid sinus opens into is* Sphenoid sinus. It has an anterior part & posterior part.Anterior Part: roof related to the olfactory tract, optic chiasma, frontal lobe while the lateral wall is related to optic nerve internal carotid artery & maxillary nerve.Posterior Part: Roorf is related to the pituitary gland in the sella tucica while each lateral wall is related to cavernous sinus, internal carotid artery and CN 3rd and all division of 5th nerve
1
Sphenoid sinus
Ethmoidal sinus
Maxillary sinus
Frontal sinus
ENT
Paranasal Sinuses
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single
The above nail changes are seen in:
Salmon patch or translucent oil drop like discoloration beneath nail plate is calssically seen in Psoraisis.
3
Lichen planus
Alopecia areata
Psoriasis
Onycholysis
Dental
null
5d1e77c5-3bd1-45a2-a784-3ad9d4db8a9a
multi
Resource person for Training ofASHA are
Ans. is 'b i.e., AWW and ANM o Angan-Wadi Workers (AWW) and Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) act as resource persons far training of ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist).
2
AWW and MPW
AWW and ANM
MPW and ANM
ANM and MO
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Most common site of tuberculosis of spine is?
Ans. (a) ThoracolumbarRef: Apley 387-389, Schwartz's Principles of Surgery 9th ed ch-29 M Tuli 3rded p-192
1
Thoracolumbar
Sacral
Cervical
Lumbosacral
Orthopaedics
Skeletal Infections
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single
Advantages of wrought gold alloy clasp wires over cast gold clasps of the same cross sectional area are
null
3
Coarser grain
Higher yield strength
Greater flexibility
More accurate adaptation to the tooth
Dental
null
736eb304-cd67-4f89-acf4-91cde8a21911
multi
Angiography is the investigation of choice in:
Ans. Central serous retinopathy
4
Posterior vitreous detachment
Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
Retinoschisis
Central serous retinopathy
Ophthalmology
null
b378fd4c-42e8-4169-8b23-d33b6f2b39a4
single
Half life of insulin is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5 min o The half-life of insulin in the circulation in humans is about 5 min. Insulin binds to insulin receptors, and some is internalized. It is destroyed by proteases in the endosomes formed by the endocytotic process.
1
5min
1hr
12hr
24hr
Physiology
Endocrinology metabolism
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Cultivable (in vitro) hepatitis virus is -
HAV can be grown in some human and simian cell cultures and is the only human hepatitis virus which can be cultivated in vitro. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-541
1
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Microbiology
Virology
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High inguinal orchiectomy specimen showed teratoma testis with involvement of epididymis; stage is
null
1
T 1
T 2
T 3
T 4 b
Surgery
null
3ca27d0a-c2ba-42fd-8119-c72cc8883e41
single
Development of heart is from which of the following:
ANS. DThere has been a rising trend of asking embryology images in AIIMS. May session had asked the development of nucleus pulposus (Answer was notochord). Development of cerebral cortexDevelopment of palate and anomalies of it* Midline cleft lip: Due to non-fusion of 2 median nasal process* Harelip (not midline): Due to non-fusion of medial nasal process and maxillary process* Oblique facial cleft: Non-fusion of maxillary and lateral nasal process# Pharyngeal pouch and cleft# Another important area is remnants of various structuresRight umbilical veinDisappearsLeft umbilical veinLigamentum teresProximal part of umbilical arterySuperior vesical arteryDistal part of umbilical arteryLateral umbilical ligamentDuctus arteriosusLigamentum arteriosumDuctus venosusLigamentum venosumUrachusMedian umbilical ligamentObliterated umbilical arteryMedial umbilical foldInferior epigastric arteryLateral umbilical fold
4
Pharyngeal arches
Forebrain
Upper limb
Heart
Anatomy
Embryology
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single
Which of the following mutations in a tumor suppressor agent causes breast carcinoma
Ref Robbins 9/e p294 Mutation in p53 tumor suppressor gene is strongly associated with breast cancer,as well as many other sarcomas and carcinomas .this condition is called li Fraumeni syndrome Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare, autosomal dominant, hereditary disorder that pre-disposes carriers to cancer development This syndrome is also known as the sarcoma, breast, leukaemia and adrenal gland (SBLA) syndrome. The syndrome is linked to germline mutations of the p53 tumor suppressor gene, which encodes a transcription factor (p53) that normally regulates the cell cycle and prevents genomic mutations. The mutations can be inherited, or can arise from mutations early in embryogenesis, or in one of the parent's germ cells
2
P43
P53
P73
P83
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to
Formation of endothelial gaps in venules, i.e. immediate transient response is the most common mechanism causing increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation, Mediators involved in this mechanism are i. Immediate (more important): Histamine, bradykinin, leukotrienes, neuropeptide substance P. ii. Somewhat delayed: IL-1, TNF, IFNγ
1
Histamine
IL-2
TGF-p
FGF
Pathology
null
7dadbaf6-dac9-4748-805a-c661a159d7b9
single
Iodine gives red colour with
Amylose: Gives blue with iodine testAmylopectin: Gives reddish violet with iodine testGlycogen: With iodine-: deep red colour
4
Starch
Dextrin
Inulin
Glycogen
Biochemistry
All India exam
bbddee4f-f497-406e-ac27-7ea808c90543
single
Essential fatty acid -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Linoleic acid o The three polyunsaturatedfatty acids (PUFAs), namely, linoleic acidQ linolenic acidQ, and arachidonic acidQ are called essential fatty acids.o They are called essential fatty acids because human beings require these fatty acids but cannot synthesize themQ,o Humans lack the enzymes to introduce double bonds at carbon atom beyond C9 in the fatty acid chain,o Hence, human cannot synthesize linolenic acidQ and linolenic acid having double bonds beyond C9.o Arachidonic acid can be synthesized from linoleic acid.o Therefore, in deficiency of linoleic acid, arachidonic acid also becomes essential fatty acids,o Therefore linoleic acid is the most important essential fatty acidQ as it serves as a basis for the production of other EFA
1
Linoleic acid
Palmitoleic acid
Oleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Biochemistry
Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids and Eicosanoids
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Centrally acting anti hypertensive drug is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Methyl Dopa Centrally Aeting Svmpatholvticso These drugs reduce sympathetic outflow from vesopressor centers in brainstem. Examples are :1 .Clonidine3.Guanabenz5. Rilmenidine2. Methyldopa4. Guanfacine6. MoxonidineClonidineo It acts (partial agonist) on a, receptors, especially a2A in brainstem - Stimulation of receptors in medulla (vasomotor centre) - decrease sympathetic outflow - fall in BP and bradycardia (also due to enhanced vagal tone).o a2A receptor stimulation is responsible for sedation produced by clonidine.o Clonidine also binds to a nonadrenergic receptor, imidazoline receptor, which may also mediate antihypertensive effect.o Rilmenidine and moxonidine are selective cerebral imidazoline receptor agonists with little or, action - equivalent antihypertensive action with low sedative property.o Rapid r'.v. injection of clonidine raises BP transiently due. to activation of peripheral postsynaptic vasoconstrictor a2B receptors at high concentrations so attained. Ora! doses producing lower plasma levels cause only fall in BP, because clonidine has lower intrinsic activity on a2B receptors which predominate in vascular smooth muscle,o Uses of clonidine# Hypertension# Opioid withdrawl# Menopausal syndrome# Alcohal withdrawal# Smoking cessation# Loose motions in diabetic neuropathy# Test for pheochromocytoma o Abrupt discontinuation of clonidine therapy can lead to rebound hypertension (treated with phentolamine); therefore this drug is not suitable for people having travelling job like business executives who are likely to miss the doses.Methvldopao It is a prodrug - a-methyl norepinephrine formed in the brain from methyldopa acts on a-receptor in brainstem- decrease sympathetic out flow.o In large doses, methyldopa inhibits the enzyme dopa decarboxylase in brain and periphery - reduces NA synthesis and forms the false transmitter methyl-NA in periphery as well,o Methyldopa is DOCfor hypertension in pregnancy.Guanabenz and guanfacin are centrally active antihypertensive drugs that share the central otj-adrenoceptor- stimulating effects of clonidine.
2
Phenoxybenzamine
Methyl dopa
Propanolol
Prazosin
Pharmacology
Anti-Hypertensive
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Local anaesthetics act by?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Na channel inhibition inside gate Local anesthetics act by inhibiting Na' channels from inside. Mechanism of action of LA Local anaesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse at all pa of neuron where they come in contact, without causing structural damage. Thus not only sensory but motor impulses and autonomic control is also interrupted. Mechanism of action Normally Na+ channel in axonal membrane has following phases : Recovery Resting (close) - Active (open) - Inactive (open) LAs prolong the inactive state --> channel takes longer to recover - refractory period of the fiber is increased. LAs first penetrate the axonol membrane to come inside and then their active species (cationic form) bind to Net' channel from inside. Cationic form (active form) is able to approach its receptor only when the channel is open at the inner face - So resting nerve is resistant to block as Na' channels are not activated and cationic form is not able to approach its receptor. So blockade develops rapidly when the nerve is stimulated repeatedly. Degree of blockade is frequency dependent greater blockade at higher frequency of stimulation. Exposure to higher concentration of Ca' reduces inactivation of Na' channels and lessens the block. Order of blockade of fibres B > C > AS> Ace, (3 & y (Autonomic > Sensory > Motor). Order of recovery is in reverse order. Among sensory afferent order of block is : Temperature (cold before heat) > Pain > touch > deep pressure. When applied to tongue, bitter taste is lost first followed by sweet and sour, and salty taste last of all. Myelinated nerves are blocked earlier than nonmyelinated. Smaller fibres are more sensitive than larger fibres.
1
Na channel inhibition inside gate
Na channel inhibition outside gate
K channel inhibition inside gate
K channel inhibition outside gate
Anaesthesia
null
72832056-1a34-4afc-b3c0-15ab645866f8
single
APACHE II score involves all except?
Ans. (d) Serum amylaseRef-.Harrison 19th edition, Chapter 267* Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II is the most commonly used Severity of illness scoring system in America* Age, type of ICU admission (after elective surgery vs. nonsurgical or after emergency surgery), a chronic health problem score, and 12 physiologic variables (the most severely abnormal of each in the first 24 h of ICU admission) are used to derive a score.* The predicted hospital mortality is derived from a formula that takes into account the II score, the need for emergency surgery, and a weighted, disease-specific diagnostic categoryVITALS* Rectal temperature, degC* Mean blood pressure, mmHg* Heart rate* Respiratory rate* Arterial Ph* Oxygenation* If Flo2>0.5,use(A-a)Do2* If Fo2 <0.5, use Pao2LABS* Serum sodium, meq/L* Serum potassium, meq/L* Serum creatinine, mg/dL* Hematocrit* WBC count, 103/mL* Glasgow Coma ScorePoints Assigned to AgeAge, Years<4545-5455-6465-74>75Points Assigned to Chronic HealthNoneIf patient is admitted after elective surgeryIf patient is admitted after emergency surgery or for reasons other than after elective surgery
4
GCS
Arterial PH
Mean BP
Serum amylase
Medicine
C.N.S.
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Extensive surgical debridement, decompression or amputation may be indicated in the following clinical setting except
Superficial thrombophlebitis management This is a superficial venous thrombosis. An abnormal endothelium is a much more common precipitating factor than in most DVTs. Common causes include external trauma (especially to varicose veins), venepunctures and infusions of hyperosmolar solutions and drugs. The presence of an intravenous cannula for longer than 24-48 hours often leads to local thrombosis. Some systemic diseases such as thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease) and malignancy, especially of the pancreas, can lead to a flitting thrombophlebitis (throm bophlebitis migrans), affecting different veins at different times. Finally, coagulation disorders such as polycythaemia, thrombocytosis and sickle cell disease are often associated, as is a concomitant DVT. The surface vein feels solid and is tender on palpation. The overlying skin may be attached to the vein and in the early stages may be erythematous before gradually turning brown. A linear segment of vein of variable length can be easily palpated once the inflammation has died down. A full blood count, coagulation screen and duplex scan of the deep veins should usually be obtained. Any suggestion of an associated malignancy should be investigated usingappropriate endoscopy and imaging studies, such as an abdominal CT scan. Most patients are treated with non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs and topical heparinoid preparations and the condition resolves spontaneously. Rarely, infected thrombi require incision or excision. Ligation to prevent propagation into the deep veins is almost never required, although some advocate saphenofemoral ligation when the thrombus is seen on ultrasound to be at the SFJ. Associated DVT or thrombophilia is treated by anticoagulation. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 990
2
Progressive synergistic gangrene
Acute thrombophlebitis
Acute haemolytic streptococcal cellulitis
Acute rhabdomyolysis
Surgery
Urology
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Acetyl CoA is used for synthesis of following, except :
Acetyl-CoA is the third branch point of primary metabolic control, and coordinates carbohydrate, ketone, and fat/lipid pathways.Acetyl-CoA is the product of carbohydrate, protein, and lipid catabolism.Acetyl-CoA is a substrate for the citric acid cycle and can be oxidized to generate energy. It is not used for the synthesis of non ketogenic amino acids only. Ref:Valencik M.L., Mastick C.C. (2012). Chapter 10. Metabolism and Vitamins/Minerals. In L.W. Janson, M.E. Tischler (Eds), The Big Picture: Medical Biochemistry.
4
Carbohydrates
Ketone bodies
Cholesterol
Non-ketogenic amino acids only
Biochemistry
null
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multi
All of the following are absolute indications for tonsillectomy, except
Recurrent throat infections, peritonsillar abcess, tonsillitis causing febrile seizures, hyperophy of tonsils causing sleep apnoea or speech interference and any suspicion of malignancy are absolute indications for tonsillectomy.
4
Recurrent attacks
Peritonsillar abscess
Suspected malignancy
Acute tonsillitis
ENT
null
045e8869-370f-448f-ab38-51026b71a102
multi
Which of the following is found in secondary granules of neutrophils?
Neutrophils have two main types of granules The smaller specific (secondary) granules contain lysozyme, collagenase, gelatinase, lactoferrin, plasminogen activator, histaminase, and alkaline phosphatase. The larger azurophil (primary) granules contain myeloperoxidase, bactericidal factors (such as defensins), acid hydrolases, and a variety of neutral proteases (elastase, cathepsin G, nonspecific collagenases, proteinase). Reference-Robbins BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th edition pg-68
4
Catalase
Gangliosidase
Proteolytic enzyme
Lactoferrin
Pathology
null
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Deep peroneal nerve doesn't supply -
Muscles of anterior compartment of leg are supplied by deep peroneal nerve. Muscles of lateral compartment of leg (Peroneus longus, peroneus brevis) are supplied by superficial peroneal nerve.
4
Tibialis anterior
Extensor hallucis longus
Extensor digitorum longus
Peroneus brevis
Anatomy
null
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multi
In carcinoma base of tongue pain is referred to ear through
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glossopharyngeal Referred otalgiao As ear receives nerve supply from Vth (auriculotemporal branch), IXth (tympanic branch) and IXth (auricular branch) cranial nerves; and from C2 (lesser occipital) and C2 and C3 (greater auricular), pain may be referred from these remote areas.Via IXth cranial nerveDental: - Caries tooth, apical abscess, impacted molar, malocclusion.Oral cavity: - Benign or malignant ulcerative lesions of oral cavity or tongue.Temporomandibular joint disorders: - Bruxism, osteoarthritis, recurrent dislocation, ill-fitting denture.Sphenopalatine neuralgiaVia IXth cranial nerveOropharynx : - Acute tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess, tonsillectomy. Benign or malignant ulcers of soft palate, tonsil and its pillars.Base of tongue: - Tuberculosis or malignancyElongated styloid process.Via Xth cranial cerve : Malignancy or ulcerative lesion of vallecula, epiglottis, larynx or laryngopharynx, oesophagus.Via C2 and C3 spinal nerves : Cervical spondylosis, injuries of cervical spine, caries spine.
3
Trochlea
Olfactory
Glossopharyngeal
Abducent
Unknown
null
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single
Clinical feature(s) seen in Kwashiorkar is/are _______
Kwashiorkar is a form of severe acute malnutrition (SAM) characterized by edema and apathy. Edema is most likely to appear first on the feet and then in the lower legs. It can develop into generalized edema affecting the hands, arms and face. Moon face Skin changes include depigmentation of skin, dermatoses, dark, cracked peeling patches (flaky paint dermatosis) with pale skin underneath that is easily infected Hair is sparse, easily pulled out, and may turn reddish. Flag Sign: Alternating bands of hypopigmented and normal pigmented areas on hair strand The liver is often enlarged with fat (fatty liver) The children are miserable and apathetic and often refuse to eat Muscle wasting and growth failure is seen Villous atrophy of small intestine and diarrhea Marasmus (severe wasting) is characterized by simian facies, wrinkled old-man appearance, loose wrinkled skin with marked wasting of fat and muscle, and fretful and irritable behaviour Ref: Nelson Textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 337
4
Loose wrinkled skin
Hunger pangs
Simian facies
Edema and apathy
Pediatrics
Nutrition
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single
A 25 year old male presented with pigmentation of nose and pinna. After voiding, his urine becomes dark. His spine is most likely to show-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Calcification of disc Clinical features of the patient suggests the diagnosis of AlkaptonuriaClinical problems arise from degenerative changes in articular cartilage with the development of ochronotic arthritis and from calcification of intervertebral discsOther clinical features areScleral pigmentation (Foci of grey brown pigments)Generalized darkening of concha, anthelix and finally helixPigmentation of heart valves, larynx, and tympanic membranes develops.Urine turns black on exposure
4
Atlantoaxial subluxation
Spondyloptosis
Basilar invagination
Calcification of disc
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
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Following is a doctrine related to negligence -
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Therapeutic misadventureo Diagnostic or Therapeutic misadventure is the occurrence of misadventure causing injury or death of the patient due to inherent risk of procedure or drug, e.g. adverse effects of a drug. It is unintentional.Doctrines related with negligence1) Resp Ipsa Loquitar (fact speaks for itself)2) Calculated risk doctrine3) Doctrine of common knowledge4) Diagnostic or Therapeutic misadventure5) Medical maloccurance (inevitable accident or Act of god)6) Novus Actus Interveniens (an unrelated action intervening)7) Contributory negligence8) Vicarious responsibility (Liability)9) Borrowed servant doctrine (captain of the ship doctrine)10) Product liability.
1
Therapeutic misadventure
Privileged communication
Professional secrecy
All of the above
Forensic Medicine
Medical Negligence
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multi
On one side kidney is normal, while other side kidney is contracted with scar, what is the most probable diagnosis?
null
1
Chronic pyelonephritis
Polycystic kidney
Renal artery stenosis
Tuberculosis of kidney
Pathology
null
273c5c46-008c-4682-ba1a-caff1e7f8bd4
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If amphotericin B is administered, the patient should be premedicated with :
null
4
Diphenhydramine
Ibuprofen
Prednisone
Any of the above
Pharmacology
null
fd13bbce-af48-4b91-a89f-e543ee73ceda
multi
Cytokine causing fever -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-6 Pyrogeneso Pyrogenes are substances that cause fever,o Pyrogens may be exogenous or endogenousExogenous - Bacterial toxinsEndogenous - IL-1, TNF-a, IL-6, Interferons, Ciliory's neurotropic factoro These pyrogenes increase the level of PGE2 in the hypothalamus that elevates the thermoregulatory set point and causes fever.
1
IL-6
IFN-y
IL-18
EL-4
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
4974b9cf-fd74-44eb-91a2-7f8e757cde99
single
Best diagnosed with USG at first trimester
Ans. A. Anencephaly Ref: DC Dutta's obstetric p408ExplanationIn the first half of pregnancy, the diagnosis of anencephaly is made by elevated alpha-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid and confirmed by sonography.Question not recalled properly: Imerslund-Grasbeck syndrome, its cause was asked.ExplanationCaused by low levels of vitamin B12 (also known as cobalamin).The characteristic features are# Megaloblastic anemia.# Proteinuria (-50% cases)# Normal kidney function.Typically begins in infancy or early childhood.Symptoms include:# An inability to grow and gain weight at the expected rate (failure to thrive),# Pale skin (pallor),# Excessive tiredness (fatigue), and# Recurring gastrointestinal or respiratory infections.# Other features include mild neurological problems, such as weak muscle tone (hypotonia), numbness or tingling in the hands or feet, movement problems, delayed development, or confusion.Mutations in the AMN or CUBN gene. The AMN gene provides instructions for making a protein called amnionless, and the CUBN gene provides instructions for making a protein called cubilin which are in turn responsible for uptake of Vit bl2 in body.Management is symptomatic.
1
Anencephaly
NT defects
Meningocele
Option not recalled
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in Obstetrics
6c1cb10e-322b-4353-8013-8af60bb3496f
multi
GFR is increased when -
D i.e., Increased renal blood flow
4
Plasma oncotic pressure is increased
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased
Tubular hydrostatic pressure is increased
increased renal blood blow
Physiology
null
455b0fb6-8f82-45ec-8b73-18dae822ad64
single
What is the investigation going on in Ophthalmology examination
Goldmann Applanation tonometry Gold standard. Based on Imbe Fick law. If cornea is thinner than reading is falsely low. If cornea is thicker, it is falsely high. Applanation tonometry Other Options Pachymetry: Corneal thickness Biometry: Calculation of Power of IOL to be implanted after cataract surgery LASER interferometry: used to detect the maximum visual potential of the eye
2
Pachymetry
Tonometry
Biometry
LASER interferometry
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
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single
The most common site of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is
The commonest site of origin of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is fossa of Rosenmuller in the lateral wall of the nasopharynx. Tumor can spread to the following areas:- Cranium through foramen lacerum & ovale → cranial nerves involvement (III, IV, V, VI); facial pain, and ophthalmic symptoms. Parapharyngeal space → cranial nerves (IX, X, XI, XII) involvement, Horner's syndrome, Trismus (Pterygoid muscle). Retropharyngeal nodes → Neck pain & stiffness. Eustachian tube → Serous OM. Nose and orbit → Obstruction, epistaxis, proptosis. Cervical nodes → Upper jugular and posterior triangle nodes enlargement. Distant metastasis → Lung, liver, bone. Middle ear → Rarely, tumor grows up the tube into the middle ear.
1
Fossa of Rosenmuller
Palatine tonsils
Antrochoanal region
Valleculae
ENT
null
d3e6c147-9f15-47dd-947a-d18672c91161
multi
All of them are true about ERG except
Electroretinography (ERG) is the record of changes in the resting potential of the eye induced by a flash of light. Components of normal electroretinogram (ERG) a-wave. It is a negative wave possibly arising from the rods and cones (photoreceptors). b-wave. It is a large positive wave which is generated by Muller's cells, but represents the activity of the bipolar cells . c-wave. It is also a positive wave representing metabolic activity of pigment epithelium (seen only in dark adapted eye). A flash ERG requires a large area of retina to be abnormal for being detectable and thus in macular disorder where only small pa of retina is involved , flash erg doesn't detect it
4
Measures the potential difference of the neurosensory layer of retina
The negative A wave is produced by the hyperpolarization of the photoreceptors
The positive B wave is due to the bipolar and Muller's cells
Flash ERG is a good for detection of macular diseases
Ophthalmology
Ophthalmology Q Bank
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multi
Contracted socket occurs because of all the following except:
Ans. Loss of fatty tissue during surgery of enucleation
4
Chronic low grade infection
Chronic mechanical irritation
Irradiation
Loss of fatty tissue during surgery of enucleation
Ophthalmology
null
51152600-c7d3-4f9c-8fac-32cd0ba10f44
multi
In a population of 100 prevalence of candida glabrata was found to be 80%. If the investigator has to repeat the prevalence with 95% confidence what will the prevalence be
Confidence Intervals for Population proportions (For 95% Confidence) CI = P + 2 SEP = P + 2 √pq/n Here, P=0.80 (80%); p=0.80; q= 1-p = 1-0.80 = 0.20; n=100 CI = 0.80 + 2 √0.8*0.2/100 = 0.80 + 0.08 = 0.72, 0.88 (72%, 88%)
2
78-82%
72-88%
76-84%
74-86%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e4ccb23b-38bb-4fa7-b97b-a64e391f75be
single
Trendelenburg test is positive in which of the following condition:
In L5 S1 PIVD Superior gluteal nerve is effected which supplies the abductors of hip i.e Gluteus medius and minimus causes trendelenburg gait. TRENDELENBURG SIGN Normally when the body weight is suppoed on one limb, the glutei (medius and minimus) of the suppoed side contract and raise the opposite and unsuppoed side of pelvis If the abductor mechanism is defective the unsuppoed side of pelvis drops- positive Trendelenburg's test. It is positive in the conditions in which any of the three??"fulcrum (Femoral Head), lever arm (neck length) or power (muscles/nerve) is affected. In other conditions superior gluteal nerve is not affected.
2
L3 L4 PIVD
L5 S1 PIVD
Synovitis of the hip
Femoroacetabular Impingement Syndrome
Orthopaedics
Pelvis and Hip Injury
5d303c62-b64a-489d-884b-26244ac98d3d
single
Primitive streak develops from?
Around day 14, the epiblast cells form primitive streak,. Notochord is formed by the mesoderm cells developed by epiblast cells.
3
Mesoderm
Hypoblast
Epiblast
Neural plate
Anatomy
JIPMER 2017
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single
Fluid flow in and out of the dentinal tubules is proportional to the tubule diameter by:
Fluid flow in dentin tubules follows Poiseuille’s law as all tubular structures:
4
Third power of the diameter
Sixth power of the diameter
Square of diameter
Fourth power of diameter
Dental
null
032f4678-6fba-431a-8e64-c1e1bed96c2e
single
Primary closure of incised wounds must be done within:
WOUNDS CAN BE CLOSED BY Primary suture:   - Clean wounds   - Selected contaminated wounds after thorough wound toileting and debridement Delayed primary suture:  - Heavily contaminated wounds  - Wounds in which wound toileting has been delayed for 6-8 hours Left open to heal by secondary closure
3
2 hours
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
Surgery
null
ec8c9812-a433-4583-abd0-17ac263f9e1c
single
Dose of MgSO4 in asthma is
Bronchodilators Bronchodilator therapy is central to the management of breathlessness. The inhaled route is preferred and a number of different agents delivered by a variety of devices are available. Choice should be informed by patient preference and inhaler assessment. Sho-acting bronchodilators may be used for patients with mild disease but longer-acting bronchodilators are usually more appropriate for those with moderate to severe disease. Significant improvements in breathlessness may be repoed despite minimal changes in FEV1, probably reflecting improvements in lung emptying that reduce dynamic hyperinflation and ease the work of breathing. Oral bronchodilator therapy, such as theophylline preparations, may be contemplated in patients who cannot use inhaled devices efficiently but their use may be limited by side-effects, unpredictable metabolism and drug interactions; hence the requirement to monitor plasma levels. Orally active, highly selective phosphodiesterase inhibitors remain under appraisal. Combined inhaled glucocoicoids and bronchodilators The fixed combination of an inhaled glucocoicoid and a LABA improves lung function, reduces the frequency and severity of exacerbations and improves quality of life. These advantages may be accompanied by an increased risk of pneumonia, paicularly in the elderly. LABA/inhaled glucocoicoid combinations are frequently given with a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA). LAMAs should be used with caution in patients with significant hea disease or a history of urinary retention. Oral glucocoicoids Oral glucocoicoids are useful during exacerbations but maintenance therapy contributes to osteoporosis and impaired skeletal muscle function, and should be avoided. Oral glucocoicoid trials assist in the diagnosis of asthma but do not predict response to inhaled glucocoicoids in COPD. Pulmonary rehabilitation Exercise should be encouraged at all stages and patients reassured that breathlessness, while distressing, is not dangerous. Multidisciplinary programmes that incorporate physical training, disease education and nutritional counselling reduce symptoms, improve health status and enhance confidence. Most programmes include two to three sessions per week, last between 6 and 12 weeks, and are accompanied by demonstrable and sustained improvements in exercise tolerance and health status. Oxygen therapy Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy (LTOT) improves survival in selected patients with COPD complicated by severe hypoxaemia (aerial PaO2 < 7.3 kPa (55 mmHg)). It is most conveniently provided by an oxygen concentrator and patients should be instructed to use oxygen for a minimum of 15 hours/ day; greater benefits are seen in those who use it for more than 20 hours/day. The aim of therapy is to increase the PaO2 to at least 8 kPa (60 mmHg) or SaO2 to at least 90%. Ambulatory oxygen therapy should be considered in patients who desaturate on exercise and show objective improvement in exercise capacity and/or dyspnoea with oxygen. Oxygen flow rates should be adjusted to maintain SaO2 above 90%. Surgical intervention Bullectomy may be considered when large bullae compress surrounding normal lung tissue. Patients with predominantly upper lobe emphysema, preserved gas transfer and no evidence of pulmonary hypeension may benefit from lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS), in which peripheral emphysematous lung tissue is resected with the aim of reducing hyperinflation and decreasing the work of breathing. Both bullectomy and LVRS can be performed thorascopically, minimising morbidity. Lung transplantation may benefit carefully selected patients with advanced disease (p. 567). Other measures Patients with COPD should be offered an annual influenza vaccination and, as appropriate, pneumococcal vaccination. Obesity, poor nutrition, depression and social isolation should be identified and, if possible, improved. Mucolytic agents are occasionally used but evidence of benefit is limited. Palliative care Addressing end-of-life needs is an impoant, yet often ignored, aspect of care in advanced disease. Morphine preparations may be used for palliation of breathlessness in advanced disease and benzodiazepines in low dose may reduce anxiety. Decisions regarding resuscitation should be addressed in advance of critical illnes Magnesium sulfate is a bronchodilator. It relaxes the bronchial muscles and expands the airways, allowing more air to flow in and out of the lungs. This can relieve symptoms of asthma, such as shoness of breath. initial loading dose 2 gm over a period of 20 minutes where infused Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 577
2
8 g i.v. over 20 minutes
2g infused over 20 minutes
2g i.v. over 40 minute
6 g i.V. over 40 minutes
Medicine
Respiratory system
cd92d5f0-697a-4575-9627-372c780d3e0d
single
A 10-year-old boy has a fracture of the femur. The biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1 hour, serum calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
null
3
Nutritional rickets
Renal rickets
Hyperparathyroidism
Skeletal dysplasia
Medicine
null
1403e13d-49ef-46f5-a09d-5b4e94a1da85
single
Trendelenburg test is positive due to injury to which of the following nerve?
Superior Gluteal A positive Trendelenburg is relatively non-specific and may indicate:Pain (e.g. due to osteoahritis of the hip joint)Weak hip abductors (gluteus medius, gluteus minimus)Sho femoral neck/ fracture of neckDislocation or subluxation of the hipNeuropathyGluteus medius and minimus are supplied by Superior Gluteal nerve. Trendelenburg testNormally when a person is made to stand on one leg, the hip abductors of the ipsilateral side raise the opposite and the unsuppoed side of the pelvis. If the abductor mechanism is defective, the unsuppoed side of the pelvis drops and this is known as positive Trendelenburg test.The abductor mechanism consists of:The hip abductors i.e. Glutei medius and minimus supplied by Superior Gluteal nerveThe fulcrum formed by the hip jointThe weight transmitted by the head and neck of femurFailure of any of the component of the abductor mechanism may result in positive Trendelenburg test.
3
Obturator
Sciatic
Superior Gluteal
Inferior Gluteal
Anatomy
null
b6e6c105-e7aa-4a62-9795-3cedeb34a6d4
single
True about area specific Curette is
null
4
Used in specific areas
Curved in two planes
One cutting edge is used
All of the above
Dental
null
fbb18cdd-fd65-4e17-a4e5-383606d62b89
multi
Nerve supply of opponens pollicis ?
Hand muscles supplied by median nerve are :- i) Thenar muscles (except adductor pollicis) :- Flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis and abductor pollicis brevis. Adductor pollicis is supplied by ulnar nerve. ii) First two lumbricals. Hand muscles supplied by ulnar nerve are :? 1) Superficial terminal branch : It supplies palmaris brevis and skin of palmar surface of medial 1% fingers. 2) Deep terminal branch : It supplies adductor pollicis, all interossei, medial two (3rd & 4th)lumbricals and all hypothenar muscles except palmaris brevis (i.e. abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi, opponens digiti minimi).
3
Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
Deep branch of ulnar nerve
Median nerve
Posterior interosseous nerve
Anatomy
null
dbe45c6e-1d35-4144-bd42-c38a7b729e4a
single
A patient presented with splenomegaly, anemia & shows reticulocytosis with increased bone marrow cellularity. The diagnosis is:
Hemolytic anemia - reticulocytosis with splenomegaly is seen. Skull and skeletal deformities can occur in childhood due to a marked increase in hematopoiesis and resultant bone marrow expansion
2
Pernicious anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Myelofibrosis
Hairy cell leukemia
Medicine
Thalassemia
4da94c06-23ef-48cc-89ff-4d90acd1a09c
single
Laboratory test of ANUG is:
null
2
Complement fixation
Dark field examination
Tissue culture
Animal inoculation
Dental
null
fa303bdd-78b4-401c-bd0c-6eb5761b88fb
single
Which is pleuripotent stem cell ?
Answer- A. Embryonic stem cellStem cellsEmbryonic stem cells : These are pleuripotent cellsAdutt stem cells
1
Embryonic stem cell
Tissue stem cell
Adult stem cell
Hematopoietic stem cell
Pathology
null
5253206a-3350-434a-9d8d-182361ab086e
single
Which of the following statement is true regarding time of ovulation?
Ans. c. Occurs after follicular ripening by FSH (Ref: Williams Obstetrics 23/e p355-356: Ganong 22/e p438: Shaw's 13/e p212)Follicular phase is under control of FSH and LH. Both FSH and LH is responsible for follicular ripening, but a surge in LH secretion triggers ovulation.OvulationLH surge is primarily caused by 'positive feedback' from sustained levels of estrogen.A surge in LH secretion triggers ovulation.A surge in LH secretion triggers ovulation and ovulation normally occurs about 9 hours after the peak of LH surge at midcycle.Tests of OvulationBasal body temperature:BBT falls at the time of ovulation by about 1/2 degree FahrenheitQ.Subsequently, during the progestational half of the cycle the temperature is slightly raised above the preovulatory level, and the rise is order of 1/2 to 1 degreeQ.This phenomenon is due to the thermogenic action of progesteroneQ, and is therefore presumptive evidence of presence of functioning corpus luteum and hence ovulation.Endometrial BiopsyDone preferably one or two days before the onset of menstruationQSecretary changes prove that the cycle has been ovulatoryQEndometrium should be subjected to guinea pig inoculation and culture to rule out genital tuberculosis which is present in 5-10 % of Indian women complaining of sterilityToday, endometrial biopsy is omitted as a routine investigation or infertility and ovulation best monitored by serial ultrasound scanning. Endometrial biopsy is taken only in suspected tubercular endometritisFern TestCervical mucus, when viewed under low power microscope it shows during the oestrogenic phase, a characteristic pattern of fern formationQ.This feming disappears after ovulation, and if previously present its disappearance is presumptive evidence of corpus luteum activity.The ferning is due to the presence of sodium chloride in the mucus secreted under estrogen effectQOvulation mucus has the property of great elasticity and will withstand stretching upto 10 cm, phenomenon is k/a Spinnbarkeit or thread testQ for estrogen activity.UltrasoundUltrasound has now become the standard procedure for monitoring maturation of the graffian follicle, and in detecting imminent ovulation in in-vitro fertilization and timing intercourse.This requires daily ultrasonic visualization of ovaries from 10th to 16th day of menstrual cycle.
3
Occurs before LH surge
Occurs after biphasic rise in basal body temperature
Occurs after follicular ripening by FSH
Occurs after disappearance of cervical mucus thickening
Physiology
Sex Hormones
145c914b-4e49-46a7-950d-5b12e8beb4c6
multi
Not true regarding Choledochal cyst
Choledochal cyst Cystic dilation of the biliary ducts, more common in females Clinical features. Classical triad : Pain, jaundice (intermittent) & abdominal mass(10%). Most common symptom in infants : Jaundice (in 80%) Most common symptom in patients >2 years of age : Abdominal pain. In children, the major clinical symptoms are recurrent abdominal pain (81.8%), nausea & vomiting (65.5%), mild jaundice (43.6%), an abdominal mass (29%), and fever (29%) In adults, abdominal pain (87%), and jaundice (42%), and present frequently. Less common clinical findings include nausea (29%), cholangitis (26%), pancreatitis (23%), and an abdominal mass(13%) Treatment of choice is Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1511
4
Epigastric mass
Jaundice
Pain in abdomen
Cystojejunostomy is the treatment of choice
Anatomy
G.I.T
59afed95-2a68-4532-b556-679715e25a2c
multi
Maximum contribution to atomospheric air is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., N2 * The constituents of air:-# Major - Nitrogen (N2) - 78.1 %, Oxygen (O2) - 20.93%, Carbon dioxide (CO2) - 0.03%# Minor - Argon, neon, krypton, xenon, helium, water vapour, traces fo ammonia, suspended matter (dust, bacteria, spores, vegetable debris).
1
N2
O2
CO2
Helium
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
735f7a0f-5bef-4714-b9ee-e0849a025d03
single
Ring Enhancing lesion In AIDS patient is Most Likely due to?
*Toxoplasmosis and CNS lymphoma are the major differentials for a Ring Enhancing lesion in AIDS Patients Toxoplasmosis produces Eccentric target sign within a ring Enhancing lesion
4
Cryptococcosis
Hydatid Cyst
Neurocysticercosis
Toxoplasmosis
Radiology
Neuroradiology
5232a258-3e43-481c-b532-093247683875
single
Which group of drugs is most effective for the healing of Non steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) induced gastric ulcer-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Proton pump inhibitors o Drug of choice for NSAIDs induced peptic ulcer ---> PPIs o Most specific drug for NSAIDs induced peptic ulcer --> Prostaglandin analogue.
3
Prostaglandin analogues
H2-receptor antagonists
Proton pump inhibitors
Antacids
Pharmacology
null
eb379b18-9f1c-476e-8bf8-d7379165ce9d
single
Mature RBC contains all except -
Ans:B .) Enzymes of TCA cycle Erythrocytes (RBC) lack mitochondria (so TCA cycle enzymes) and completely rely on glucose as their metabolic fuel. They metabolize it by anaerobic glycolysis.
2
Enzyme of HMP shunt pathway
Enzyme of TCA cycle
Glycoytic enzymes
Pyridine nubleotides
Biochemistry
null
20d27f25-9a0e-45a3-90cb-770510dd8905
multi
A patient developed fixed drug eruptions after taking ceain medications. Which of the following drug will give rise to these skin lesions in this patient?
A fixed drug eruption (FDE) is an adverse cutaneous reaction to an ingested drug, characterized by the formation of a solitary (but at times multiple) erythematous patch or plaque. Most commonly implicated agents in fixed drug eruptions: Tetracyclines (tetracycline, minocycline) Sulfonamides, other sulfa drugs Metronidazole, nystatin, salicylates, NSAIDs, phenylbutazone, phenacetin Barbiturates Oral contraceptives Quinine (including quinine in tonic water), quinidine Phenolphthalein Food coloring (yellow): in food or medications Ref: (2013). Section 23. Adverse Cutaneous Drug Reactions1. In Wolff K, Johnson R, Saavedra A.P. (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 7e.
4
Phenolphthalein
Aspirin
Dapsone
All of the above
Skin
null
4ae73ffd-8a1a-4027-a0f2-53aedcc25fef
multi
A woman with amenorrhea is having negative progesterone challenge test but has bleeding on combined estrogen-Progesterone challenge. What can be the cause -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pituitary tumor Negative progesterone challenge test - which rules out PCOD - (otherwise too, PCOD is a cause of secondary amenorrhea).When next step was done i.e., estrogen, progesterone combined test - It comes out to be positive i.e., compament I system (uterus, endometrium and outflow tract) is normal if properly stimulated by estrogen which rules out mullerian agenesis and ashermann syndrome.Positive estrogen progesterone combined test means the defect is in the production of estrogen i.e., either ovaries, pituitary or hypothalamus.
4
Anovulation
Asherman syndrome
Pregnancy
Pituitary tumor
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
62677977-9490-48c1-9bdf-53aeb9c29e52
multi
Multiple bih are commonest among .
Negroes
4
Indians
Mongol
Caucasians
Negroes
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e502d008-2b2d-4d51-bf8d-16e223930803
single
Given immediately in hemorrhagic shock:
Ans. (c) CrystalloidsRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. /16-17* Crystalloid is the first fluid of choice for resuscitation. Immediately administer 2 L of isotonic sodium chloride solution or lactated Ringer's solution in response to shock from blood loss. Fluid administration should continue until the patient's hemodynamics become stabilized. Because crystalloids quickly leak from the vascular space, each liter of fluid expands the blood volume by 20-30%; therefore, 3 L of fluid needs to be administered to raise the intravascular volume by 1 L.* About the use of RL and NS in hemorrhagic shock, it has been shown that Resuscitation with NS modulates hypercoagulability after trauma and results in increased fluid requirements Administration of RL during resuscitation appears to have no effect on the hypercoagulable state induced by trauma. This hypercoagulable state may reduce bleeding and be protective initially, but may lead to thromboembolic complications later in the course of trauma admission. Due to this reason RL may be preferred in the trauma (hemorrhagic shock) in the initial phase over NS.* As the RL is a little hypotonic solution large volume of RL in patients with head injury may lead to cerebral oedema therefore NS may be preferred over LR in patients of hemorrhagic shock with head injury. (Also remember that head injuries may also precipitate hyponatremia. The most common metabolic abnormality after head injury is SLADH).
3
Packed RBC
Colloids
Crystalloids
Isotonic fluids
Surgery
Shock
33c5c465-cede-4f8e-8a99-9130a4dd3726
multi
Structures passing through the sigmoid (mandibular) notch are:
The upper border of the ramus of mandible is thin, and is surmounted by two processes, the coronoid process anteriorly and the condyloid process posteriorly, separated by a deep concavity, the mandibular notch, or sigmoid notch. It allows the passage of the masseteric nerve (a branch of the mandibular nerve (V3) division of the trigeminal nerve), masseteric artery and masseteric vein.
3
Auriculotemporal nerve
Mandibular nerve
Masseteric nerve and vessels
Chorda tympani
Anatomy
null
56bae87c-e4fd-4917-836d-50c4efb72115
single
All are first rank symptoms of schizophrenia, except: TN 06; UPSC 08; Karnataka 11; NIMHANS 11; NEET 13; PGI 14
Ans. Perplexity
4
Audible thoughts
Thought broadcasting
Voice arguing or discussing or both
Perplexity
Forensic Medicine
null
a024155b-39c1-4ed3-bfb9-17f61086557d
multi
Intralobar sequestration of lung takes its blood supply from -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Descending abdominal aorta o A sequestration consists of normally developed bronchioles and alveoli supplied by systemic rather than pulmonary arteries.o This blood supply is from the Aorta either above or below the diaphragm.o Mostly fapprox 95%) this is from the descending thoracic aorta.o Other characteristic features of sequestration -They occur most commonly in the lower lobes, L > RLung sequestrations are of two typesIntralobar (~75%)Extralobar (~25%)o Draing through pulmonary veinso Are in communication with tracheobronchial tree o Prone to infection and lung abscess formationo Drain into the azygous venous systemo Do not communicate with lungo Commonly asymptomatico Associated with congenital diaphragmatic herniaTreatmentIntralobar sequestration - LobectomyExtralobar sequestration - Excision
2
Internal mammary artery'
Descending abdominal aorta
Pulmonary artery
None of the above
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Lung)
31e4b89a-2134-4643-ad21-2e35db11a5ff
multi
a 25 year old female presented to the hospital on 3rdday of menstruation with complaints of high fever vomiting and rash on her trunk and extremities. on investigations she had leukocytosis and negative blood culture. she is diagnosed as :
TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is an acute, febrile illness produced by a bacterial exotoxin, with a fulminating downhill course involving dysfunction of multiple organ systems. It is not unusual for the syndrome to develop from a site of bacterial colonization rather than from an infection. A woman with TSS may develop rapid onset of hypotension associated with multiorgan system failure. Medical Management I/V fluids to stabilize blood pressure I/V antibodies to fight source of infection For GAS infection- clindamycin (600 mg -900 mg IV 8h) Or combined therapy, in which penicillin G (4 million U IV 8h) is combined with clindamycin. ref : ananthanaryana 9th ed
3
staphylococcal food poisoning
scalded skin syndrome
toxic shock syndrome
varicella zoster infection
Microbiology
All India exam
98c89f05-78e6-4707-9a87-5f58c9d5541d
single
In centrilobular (centriacinar) emphysema, there is an abnormal, permanent enlargement of the -
. Respiratory bronchioles
1
Respiratory bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Small bronchi
Bronchioles
Pathology
null
0ce08041-75d4-4142-8ffd-479727108fb7
multi
Absent ankle jerk and extensor plantar response is found in -
null
1
Friedreich's ataxia
Tabes dorsalis
SACD
Vit B deficiency
Medicine
null
1349d9a4-85de-4a0b-9c22-fed2a40be6ee
single
Adrenaline is added to lignocaine to prolong its effect and decrease its absorption into blood stream in a ratio of :
null
3
1:50,000
1:100,000
1:200,000
1:500,000
Pharmacology
null
aaff3b32-064a-4b4b-a486-2c9f453524b5
single
The treatment for a child with cherubism is
null
2
surgical excision
cosmetic surgery after puberty
radiation
Enbloc dissection
Pathology
null
1396001d-1606-4185-9338-20aea9759565
single
Final common pathway of metabolism of carbohydrate, lipids and protein metabolism is?
ANSWER: (C) TCAREF: Lippincott's biochemistry 4th ed page 109, Harper's 28th ed page 306See Biochemistry 2013 Session 2 for details of TCA/kerb cycle cyde is an aerobic pathway, because O2. is required as the final electron acceptor. Most of the body's catabolic pathways converge on the TCA cyde. Reactions such as the catabolism of some amino adds generate intermediates of the cycle and are called anaplerotic reactions. The citric add cycle also participates in a number of important synthetic reactions. For example, the cycle functions in the formation of glucose from the carbon skeletons of some amino acids, and it provides building blocks for the synthesis of some amino acids and heme.
3
Glucogenesis
Gycolysis
TCA
HMP pathway
Biochemistry
Kerbs Cycle
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single
Stapes footplate covers :
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Oval window Oval window is present in the medial wall of the middle ear. It is covered by foot plate of stapes.The other window round window is also present on the medial wall. It is covered by secondary tympanic membrane.Role of these 2 windows in hearingOval window -It receives sound vibration and transmits it to labyrinth.Round window -It acts as a relief window - Absence or damage of either of these windows will lead to loss of movement of cochlear fluids resulting in conductive hearing loss.
2
Round window.
Oval window.
Inferior sinus tympani.
Pyramid
ENT
Anatomy of Middle Ear (Otitis Media)
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single
Newborn 7 days old with vomiting and dehydration clinical examination was normal except for hyperpigmentation of nipple. Electrolytes Na: 120 meq. K: 9 meq. most likely diagnosis -
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to a defect in CYP21A2 is suggested by episodes of acute adrenal insufficiency with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration & vomiting
1
Cong, adrenal hyperplasia
Primary hypothyroidism
Panhypopituitarism
Pyloric stenosis
Medicine
null
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multi
Volume of air taken in and given out during normal respiration is referred to as:
B i.e. T V
2
IRV
TV
ERV
VC
Physiology
null
49287ccd-a21d-4b27-9998-0f6b82efd783
single
Which of following anti-gout drugs act by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
DRUGS USED IN CHRONIC GOUT Group Mechanism Drugs Uric acid synthesis inhibitors Xanthine oxidase inhibitors Allopurinol, Febuxostat Uricosuric agents URAT-1 transpoer inhibitors Probenecid, Sulfinpyrazone, Benzbromarone, Lesinurad Recombinant uricase Cause oxidation of urate to allantoin Rasburicase, Pegloticase
3
Probenecid
Rasburicase
Allopurinol
Sulfinpyrazone
Pharmacology
NSAIDs, Gout and Rheumatoid Ahritis
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multi
Salvizol is a root canal irrigants with composition:
SALVIZOL Salvizol is a detergent suggested for irrigating root canals during instrumentation. It is a root canal chelating irrigant, N1-decamethylene-bis-4-aminoquinaldinium-diacetate. Kaufman et al, has showe that salvizol, with a neutral pH level has a broad spectrum of bactericidal.
1
N1- decamethylene-bis-4aminoquinaldinium-dia-cerate.
bis-dequalinium acetate.
4-chlorophenyl rings.
None.
Dental
null
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multi
All the following statements about leukotriene modifers in the management of bronchial asthma are true except
Leukotriene modifers ( monteleukast,zafirulukast) may be considrrco as alternatives to low dose inhaled coicosteroids in patients with mild persistent asthma . Has no role in treating acute severe asthma Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1673
1
May be used for acute asthma
May be used for exercise induced asthma
Zileuton is leukotriene modifer
May uncover chrug Strauss syndrome
Anatomy
Respiratory system
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multi
Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum?
Foramen magnum transmits Lower end of medulla Anterior spinal aery Posterior spinal aery 4th pa of veebral aery Spinal pa of XIth nerve Other structures: Apical ligament and tip of dens, membrana tectoria, veical band of Cruciate Ligament.
1
Veebral aery
XII cranial nerve
Cranial pa XIth nerve
Internal carotid aery
Anatomy
Cranial cavity
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single
The most common cause of trismus is due to infection in muscle:
The most common cause of trismus is due to infection adjacent to muscles of jaw closure i.e., masseter, medial pterygoid, temporalis mostly due to involvement of pericoronal, submasseteric, and pterygo mandibular spaces.
2
Masseter
Medial pterygoid
Temporalis
All of the above
Surgery
null
6adc7aa4-93f0-4bf8-840e-c436dd9f6e38
multi
A soldier from Siachen came in emergency. How will you rule out hypothermia?
Ans. (B) Rectal temperature style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: ?)Preferred is two sites temperature check--rectal and esophageal.In the given clinical scenario rectal temperature would be preferred site to measure the core body temperature.During the low or high temperature like in Siachen, the axillary and the oral temperature are highly misleading and should not be used to measure the core body temperature.Infrared tympanic thermometer measures the temperature of the eardrum which is the representative of core body temperature. However, more often the thermometer is not inserted adequately or for safety reason they are manufactured in such way that they do not reach deep into ear canal or contains cerumen which can disturb the measurement. Hence the Infrared thermometer more commonly delivers the temperature of ear canal, cerumen and hence not a reliable method of measuring he core body temperature.
2
Oral temperature
Rectal temperature
Nasal temperature
Infrared tympanic probe
Medicine
Infection
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single
Intestinal angina is a symptom complex of the following-
null
2
Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion
Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain acute mesenteric vessel occlusion
Medicine
null
1ac8c6a9-6ddd-4894-b751-7cd884f1007c
single
Which of these doesn't present with granulomatous Vasculitis?
Ans. (d) Microscopic polyangitisRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 2186* MPA is characterized by pauci-immune, necrotizing, small vessel vasculitis without clinical or pathological evidence of granulomatous inflammation* The family of vasculitic granulomatoses comprise# Wegener s granulomatosis# Necrotising sarcoidal granulomatosis# Churg-Strauss syndrome# Lymphomatoid granulomatosis# Polyarteritis nodosa# Bronchocentric granulomatosis# Giant cell arteritis# Systemic lupus erythematosus.
4
Polyarteritis nodosa
Wegeners
Churg strauss syndrome
Microscopic polyangitis
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
46b5220e-c194-4d2d-85ac-edf334c286a1
single
The drug possessing antagonistic action at histamine, serotonin and muscarinic receptors is :
null
3
Promethazine
Terfenadine
Cyproheptadine
Hydroxyzine
Pharmacology
null
e3aa9a46-6044-4638-9cf9-b1c3692f895c
single
Following can be used in the treatment of myoclonic seizures except –
Drugs used in myoclonic epilepsy Valproate (DOC)                           Lamotrigine         Topiramate      Clonazepam   Felbamate   Zonisamide
2
Valporate
Carbamazepine
Topiramate
Zonisamide
Pediatrics
null
6cdded3b-3a13-458c-bcbc-bb158541a1f2
multi
Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more invasive & has a greater tendency for recurrence?
null
2
Orthokeratinised
Parakeratinised
Non-keratinised
Diskeratinised
Pathology
null
01b12082-4c81-4de7-bc29-8e270ffd8339
single
Mushroom cap sign in MRI is seen in:-
Rectosigmoid endometriosis: - The endometrial deposit on rectum causes proliferation of muscularis propria and the surrounding tissues which is seen as "mushroom cap sign" in T2 weighted MRI.
4
IIeocaecal TB
Pulmonary endometriosis
Ovarian endometriosis
Rectal endometriosis
Radiology
Women Imaging
f2e310b1-00ed-42bc-a457-d35731e94aad
single
Left axis deviation is seen in which of the following cyanotic congenital heart disease
Left axis deviation  seen in tricuspid atresia (TA), since it is the  only cyanotic congenital heart disease with Left ventricle dominance
3
TAPVC
TGA
TA
TOF
Medicine
null
7c152931-ecc4-4619-b471-478c922dae45
single
A patient presents with fever. Peripheral smears shows band across the erythrocytes. Diagnosis is ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., P malariae Band across erythrocytes (band-form trophozoites) is characteristic of P malariae.
4
P Falciparum
P vivax
P ovate
P malariae
Microbiology
null
d15156dd-6810-4cbc-a473-b4825f37f41a
single
Which of the following statements about 'Late Expanding Phase of Demographic Cycle' is TRUE?
In late expanding phase of demographic cycle death rates declines faster than the bih rate and there is a steady decrease in the demographic gap. In this state population grow at a steadily decreasing rate. Most of the developing countries are now at early expanding and late expanding stages of demographic cycle. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 379; Foundations of Community Medicine By Dhaar, 2nd Edition, Page 667
3
Bih Rate is lower than Death Rate
High Death Rate and High Bih Rate
Death Rate declines more than Bih Rate
Death Rate begins to decline while Bih Rate remains unchanged
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e338a46c-10d4-4a71-85de-bb3e9ad66237
multi
Which among the following is NOT a feature of Consolidation?
ANSWER: (D) Trachea shifted to side of consolidationREF: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Examination and Practical Skills by James Thomas, TanyaMonaghan Page 212"Trachea is in midline in consolidation because consolidation does not change the mediastinalposition"SIGNS OF CONSOLIDATION:Increased vocal fremitusDullness on percussionBronchial breath soundsTrachea in midline
4
Increased Vocal fremitus
Dull note on percussion
Bronchial breath sounds
Trachea shifted to side of consolidation
Medicine
Pneumonia, Bronchiectasis, and Lung Abscess
04824ae9-dc1d-4b93-9e79-93394865ada5
single
A drug that is NOT contraindicated in G–6 PD deficiency is :
null
4
Primaquine
Nitrofurantoin
Dapsone
INH
Pharmacology
null
6a4bf30a-5c3b-407e-a813-fa07e533e85a
single
Commonest salivary gland tumour in children -
Most common tumor of salivary gland in children - Hemangioma. Most common malignant tumor of salivary gland in children - Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma. After hemangioma, pleomorphic adenoma is the most Common salivary gland neoplasm.
4
Lymphoma
Adenoid cystic Ca
Pleomorphic adenoma
Mucoepidermoid Ca.
Pathology
null
c5196421-d1f9-4cfc-95b0-1055be5dbeab
single
Best way to prevent hypotension during spinal anesthesia
A i.e. Preloading with crystalloids
1
Preloading with crystalloids
Mephentermine
Dopamine
Tredelenbug's position
Anaesthesia
null
c1fb2fc0-8c36-43b8-ae66-fb37eeba2623
multi
All ofthe following are associated with normal pressure spontaneous CSF leaks, Except -
null
1
Pseudo tumor Cerebri
Empty Sella Syndrome
Encephalocele
Meningiocele
Medicine
null
1060b908-721a-4f0a-ae58-8b37e61b3092
multi
Following pattern in DNA electrophoresis is seen in
.
1
Apoptosis
Necrosis
Dyplasia
Metaplasia
Anatomy
All India exam
5044b7a0-0fae-41cf-b43b-db46e5d18274
single