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The most commonly used myocutaneous pedicle graft for pelvis surgeries contains muscle segments from -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectus abdominis muscle * Grafts used for reconstructive operations in the pelvis are skin grafts, which are full or partial thickness, or myocutaneous grafts which are composed of full thickness of the skin, its associated subcutaneous tissue and a portion of closely associated muscle.* The most frequently used mvocutneous pedicle grafts contain, muscle segments from the rectus abdominis muscle of the anterior abdominal wall gracialis muscle of the inner thigh, bulbocavernosus muscle of the vulva, the tensor fascia lata muscle of the lateral thigh, and gluteus maximus muscle.
1
Rectus abdominis muscle
External oblique muscle
Internal oblique muscle
Transversus abdominis muscle
Surgery
Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
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In the upper jaw, deciduous teeth erupt earlier than those in the lower jaw, except: Odisha 11
Ans. Central incisors
2
Lateral incisors
Central incisors
Canines
Second molars
Forensic Medicine
null
22a6c228-1345-4c65-9fbc-b96a058ab8b6
multi
Oral manifestation of scarlet fever:
The chief oral manifestations of scarlet fever have been referred to as stomatitis scarlatina.  Small punctate red macules may appear on the hard and soft palate and uvula. These are called Forchheimer spots; however, these are not diagnostic since they may be present in other infectious conditions like rubella, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, and septicemia. The palate and the throat are often fiery red. The tonsils and faucial pillars are usually swollen and sometimes covered with a grayish exudate. More important are the changes occurring in the tongue. Early in the course of the disease, the tongue exhibits a white coating and the fungiform papillae are edematous and hyperemic, projecting above the surface as small red knobs. This phenomenon has been described clinically as ‘strawberry tongue’.  The coating of the tongue is soon lost; beginning at the tip and lateral margins, and this organ becomes deep red, glistening and smooth except for the swollen, hyperemic papillae. The tongue in this phase has been termed as the ‘raspberry tongue’.
4
Strawberry tongue.
Raspberry tongue.
Stomatitis scarlatina.
All of the above.
Pathology
null
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multi
A 22-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease is noted to have a "string sign" in the ileal area on barium enema. In which of the following conditions is this sign most often seen? (See Fig. below.)
The string sign represents long areas of circumferential inflammation and fibrosis. It is seen in the stenotic and non-stenotic phase of Crohn's disease. In addition to the string sign, abnormal puddling of barium and fistulous tracts are other helpful x-ray signs of ileitis. Other radiologic findings in Crohn's disease include skip lesions, rectal sparing, small ulcerations, and fistulas.
1
in the stenotic or non-stenotic phase of the disease
in the stenotic phase only
as a rigid, non-distensible phenomenon
with gastric involvement
Medicine
G.I.T.
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A 30-year-old woman complains of headache, visual disturbances, deepening of the voice, and generalized weakness. She reports amenorrhea for the past year and states that she recently required a larger shoe size. Laboratory studies show impaired glucose tolerance. What other procedure would be useful for establishing your diagnosis?
This patient has clinical features of a pituitary adenoma with acromegaly. Pituitary adenomas range from small lesions that do not enlarge the gland to expansive tumors that erode the sella turcica and impinge on adjacent cranial structures. Adenomas smaller than 10 mm in diameter are referred to as microadenomas, and larger ones are termed macroadenomas. Microadenomas do not produce symptoms unless they secrete hormones. The mass effects of pituitary macroadenomas include impingement on the optic chiasm, often with bitemporal hemianopsia and loss of central vision, oculomotor palsies when the tumor invades the cavernous sinuses, and severe headaches. Large adenomas may invade the hypothalamus and lead to loss of temperature regulation, hyperphagia, and hormonal syndromes because they interfere with the normal hypothalamic input to the pituitary. Symptoms of acromegaly include characteristic facial changes, goiter, barrel chest, abnormal glucose tolerance, male sexual dysfunction, menstrual disorders in women, degenerative arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, and thickened skin. The other choices represent tests that will not provide the diagnosis of pituitary tumor.Diagnosis: Acromegaly, pituitary adenoma
3
CBC with differential count
CT scan of the abdomen
MRI of the sella turcica
Test for serum 21-hydroxylase
Pathology
Endocrine
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Severe mental retardation means IQ in the range of
ICD-10 Codes for Mental Retardation F70 Mild mental retardation IQ 50-69 F71 Moderate mental retardation IQ 35-49 F72 Severe mental retardation IQ 20-34 F73 Profound mental retardation IQ <20 Reference: Page No .3450 chap. 37 Intellectual Disability (Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition)
3
50-70
35-50
20-35
<20
Psychiatry
All India exam
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A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of sudden onset breathlessness and chest pain. His chest X-ray is normal. Which of the following is the next investigation of choice for making the diagnosis?
This patient who was bedridden for 10 days is at high risk of developing deep venous thrombosis. Since he has developed chest pain and breathlessness and his chest x ray is appearing normal he has most likely developed pulmonary embolism. The next best investigation for this patient would be ventilation perfusion scan. Cases of high clinical probability combined with a high probability V/Q scan are viually diagnostic of Pulmonary Embolism (Philip A Karla 3rd edition). Lung scanning is a second-line diagnostic test for PE, used mostly for patients who cannot tolerate intravenous contrast. Perfusion scan is done by injecting small paiculate aggregates of albumin labeled with a gamma-emitting radionuclide. Ventilation scans, are obtained using radiolabelled inhaled gas such as xenon or krypton. When the V/P scan shows 2 or more segmental perfusion defects in presence of normal ventilation it is said to e a high probability scan. The diagnosis of PE is about 90% ceain in patients with high-probability scans. Ref: Harrisons Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 262
3
Echocardiography
Pulmonary aeriography
Lung ventilation-perfusion scan
Pulmonary venous angiography
Medicine
null
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In Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme the silent features are to achieve ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 70% Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme The Government of India, WHO and World Bank together reviewed the NTP in the year 1992. Based on the findings a revised strategy for NTP was evolved. The salient features of this strategy are : - Achievement of at least 85 percent cure rate of infectious cases through supervised Sho Course Chemotherapy involving peripheral health functionaries. Augmentation of case finding activities through quality sputum microscopy to detect at least 70 percent estimated cases; and Involvement of NG0s; Information, Education and communication and improved operational research. For a "TB - free India" following objectives have been proposed : To achieve 90% notification rate To achieve 90% success rate for all new cases and 85% for retreatment cases To significantly improve the successful outcomes of treatment of drug resistant TB cases To decrease morbidity and moality of HIV associated TB To improve outcomes of TB care in the private sector
2
Cure rate 85% & diagnosis 85%
Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 70%
Cure rate 80% & diagnosis 85%
Cure rate 80% & diagnosis rate 80%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Lactose intolerance in a suspected patient is diagnosed by giving an oral load of lactose and measuring concentration of:
b. H2 (Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2870, Ghai 8/e p 297)Breath hydrogen tests can be used to determine a specific carbohydrate malabsorption.It can be used to diagnose bacterial overgrowth or lactose/fructose malabsorption.
2
CO2
H2
One/two carbon compounds
N2
Pediatrics
Inborn Errors of Metabolism
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single
Least desirable material for storing the tooth is:
Least desirable medium for storing tooth is WATER (hypotonic).
2
Saliva
Water
Milk
HBSS
Dental
null
c8aa53cc-07c8-41df-ba86-23c195b3e042
single
In metabolic encephalopathy, feature is-
null
3
Tonic clonic seizures
Chorea
Asterixis
Paraplegia
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following impression materials is easy to pour and difficult to remove the stone cast from the impressions?
null
3
Addition polysilicone
Condensation polysilicone
Polyether
Polysulfide
Dental
null
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Which of the following is not required during determination of path of placement and removal:
null
4
Retentive areas
Esthetics
Interference
Remaining teeth
Dental
null
27903856-fab6-41c9-9628-8c63cbdd709b
single
The most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils is
H2O2-MPO-halide system is the most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils H2O2 is not able to efficiently kill microbes by itself. the azurophilic granules of neutrophils contain the enzyme myeloperoxidase (MPO), in the presence of a halide such as Cl-, conves H2O2 to hypochlorite(OCl2-) which is a potent antimicrobial agent that destroys microbes by halogenation (in which the halide is bound covalently to cellular constituents) or by oxidation of proteins and lipids (lipid peroxidation). Robbins 9th ed page 79
1
H2O2-MPO-Halide
NADPH oxidase
Lysozyme
Reactive nitrogen species
Pathology
General pathology
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Shyam, a 50 years old male presents with a hard scrotal swelling. All of the following can be done EXCEPT ?
Ans is 'a' ie. testicular biopsy As already explained a testicular biopsy (more specifically a trans-scrotal testicular biopsy) is not done, rather is contraindicated. A suspected scrotal mass is investigated by ultrasonography & on finding a testicular mass, a radical inguinal orchiectomy is done. A trans-scrotal testicular biopsy would breach anatomical barriers and would spread the tumor.
1
Testicular biopsy
Chest x-ray
Inguinal exploration
CT abdomen
Surgery
null
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All are features, seen in cardiac tamponade ,EXCEPT-
Rapid Y descent seen in cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, is when fluid in the pericardium (the sac around the hea) builds up, resulting in c of the hea. Onset may be rapid or gradual.Symptoms typically include those of cardiogenic shock including shoness of breath, weakness, lightheadedness, and cough. Other symptoms may relate to the underlying cause A very large pericardial effusion resulting in tamponade as a result of bleeding from cancer as seen on ultrasound. Closed arrow - the hea; open arrow - the effusion Common causes of cardiac tamponade include cancer, kidney failure, chest trauma, and pericarditis. Other causes include connective tissues diseases, hypothyroidism, aoic rupture, and complications of cardiac surgery. In Africa, tuberculosis is a relatively common cause. Diagnosis may be suspected based on low blood pressure, jugular venous distension, pericardial rub, or quiet hea sounds. The diagnosis may be fuher suppoed by specific electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the hea.If fluid increases slowly the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 liters; however, if the increase is rapid as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1523
3
Raised jvp
Muffled hea sounds
Rapid x descent
Pulses pardoxus
Medicine
C.V.S
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multi
All of the following are composite muscles, except?
Flexor carpi ulnaris receives a single innervation and is not classified as a Composite or Hybrid muscle.
1
Flexor carpi Ulnaris
Flexor digitorum Profundus
Pectineus
Biceps Femoris
Anatomy
null
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multi
The Haversian system is found in -
Shaft (diaphysis) of a long bone is made up of cortical (compact) bone which consists of Haversian system.
1
Diaphysis of long bones
Cancellous bone
Epiphysis
Spongy bones of children
Anatomy
null
39eea8ce-c86a-4277-96ef-a44c7023a526
single
Osteoporosis is seen in
null
4
Tumer's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
Cushing's syndrome due to steroids
All of the above
Orthopaedics
null
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multi
Which of the following pulmonary condition is associated with widespread formation of hyaline membranes in the alveolar cavities?
Diffuse alveolar damage, clinically referred to as adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), is characterized by diffuse damage to the alveolar/capillary barrier, which may result from diverse acute conditions. The four most frequent causes are trauma, sepsis, shock, and gastric aspiration. The pathogenesis is not entirely clear, but influx of neutrophils and release of cytokines, eicosanoids, and free radicals seem to be crucial in promoting alveolar damage. The most characteristic histopathologic hallmark of diffuse alveolar damage is formation of hyaline membranes within the alveolar cavities. These consist of proteinaceous material of plasma origin and necrotic debris from desquamated epithelium. The condition has a 60% moality and manifests with acute respiratory failure.Also Know:The pathologic features of asthma are relatively nonspecific and are similar, for example, to those of chronic bronchitis, including chronic inflammatory infiltration, hyperplasia of mucous glands, and hyperophy of smooth muscle. The presence of numerous eosinophils, however, is more characteristic of asthma. Bacterial pneumonia is characterized by intra-alveolar exudation of neutrophils, fibrin, and erythrocytes. Bacteria are also present within the alveolar cavities. Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis (DIP) is a form of interstitial disease referred to as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. In contrast to usual interstitial pneumonitis (another form of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis), DIP is more responsive to steroid treatment. Histopathologically, DIP leads to hyperplasia of pneumocytes and accumulation of histiocytes that fill the alveolar cavities. Ref: Levy B.D., Choi A.M. (2012). Chapter 268. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
4
Asthma
Bacterial pneumonia
Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis
Diffuse alveolar damage
Pathology
null
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single
Cushing's triad includes all except:
Cushing's Triad: Hypertension, bradycardia and irregular respiration form the Cushing triad. It’s a protective reflex to overcome the CNS ischemic response due to an increase in CSF pressure. This reflex leads to increase in arterial pressure above the CSF and blood flows once again into blood vessels of the brain to relieve ischemia. This increase in arterial pressure (hypertension) causes reflex bradycardia. Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H   E D I T I O N page no 593
3
Hypertension
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Irregular respiration
Physiology
null
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multi
Effect of Propofol on coagulation is?
Propofol does not alter tests of coagulation or platelet function. However, propofol inhibits platelet aggregation that is induced by proinflammatory lipid mediators including thromboxane A2 and platelet-activating factor.
4
Inhibits coagulation cascade
Inhibits platelet function
Activates coagulation cascade
No effect
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
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Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown-
At 2 - 3 days the scab is reddish-brown.
2
Between 12 -24 hour
Between 2 - 3 days
Between 4 - 5 days
Between 5 - 7 days
Forensic Medicine
null
da20ad29-306e-45be-92e3-55eb5a9dafb2
single
Total feility rate
Total feility rate represents the average number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years bearing children at the same rates as the women now in each age group It gives the appropriate magnitude of completed family size Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Pag no: 489
2
Total no. Of children born to a woman in a given year
Measure of completed family size
Sum of feility of all age
No. of female children born to mother
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
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multi
All the drugs are used in the treatment of Giardiasis except:
Treatment options for Giardiasis:metronidazole (250 mg tds for 5 days)tinidazole (2 g once by mouth)nitazoxanide (500 mg bd for 3 days)paromomycin, an oral aminoglycosideDiloxanide furoate is a lumenal amebicide(ref:Harrison's 18/e p1731, 17/e p1313)
4
Nitazoxanide
Metronidazole
Tinidazole
Diloxanide furoate
Medicine
All India exam
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multi
Dose of Dapsone is -
A. i.e. 1-2 mg/kg
1
1-2 mg/kg
5 mg/ kg
10 mg/kg
20 mg/kg
Skin
null
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Axillary nerve injury likely to be seen in:
Axillary nerve is damaged due to the following causes: Shoulder dislocation(anterior/inferior) Fracture of upper end of Humerus Injection into deltoid muscle
1
Shoulder dislocation
Coracoid process fracture
Humerus shaft fracture
Brachial plexus injury
Orthopaedics
Nerve Injuries - 1
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single
The following is false of placenta pre :
Associated with toxemia
1
Associated with toxemia
Painless recurrent bleeding
Maternal blood loss
Severe bleeding may occur
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
08be53e2-af3c-443b-ac3b-85091ac717b8
multi
A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 1 month back. Now he staed forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
This patient is showing features of cognitive dysfunction following cardiac surgery. Postoperative cognitive dysfunction can occur in 20-30% of patients 1 month after surgery. Patients develop changes in personality, attention and memory.The etiology is multi factorial and includes cerebral microembolization, global cerebral hypo perfusion, systemic and cerebral inflammation, cerebral temperature peurbations, cerebral edema, and possible blood-brain barrier dysfunction. It can be assessed by a battery of psychometric tests typically before and after surgery. These tests evaluates attention, sho and long term memory, visuomotor function and other cognitive domains. Ref: Cardiothoracic Surgery in the Elderly By Mark R. Katlic, page 58; Case-Based Anesthesia: Clinical Learning Guides By George Shoen, page 35-7; The Annals of Thoracic Surgery Volume 59, Issue5, May 1995, Pages 1326-1330.
3
Depression
Alzheimer's disease
Cognitive dysfunction
Post traumatic psychosis
Psychiatry
null
41460049-63dc-4590-a591-3ca160d6fa3d
multi
Which transfusion will result in a transfusion reaction? Assume that the patient has never had a transfusion
Type O RBCs are considered to be universal donor blood. Reactions occur between the recipient's antibody and donor antigen as shown in the following table. Donor Donor antigen Recipient Recipient Antibody Reaction O - negative None AB - positive None None A - positive A, Rh A - negative B None AB-positive A,B, Rh AB-positive None None A - positive A, Rh O - positive A, B A (antigen and A (antibody)
4
Type O Rh-negative packed cells to an AB Rh-positive patient
Type A Rh-positive packed cells to an A Rh-negative patient
Type AB Rh-positive packed cells to an AB Rh-positive patient
Type A Rh-positive packed cells to an O Rh-positive Patient
Physiology
Blood Physiology
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The best choice of antianxiety agent for a 40-year-old woman with generalized anxiety disorder and a history of benzodiazepine abuse is
The best choice of antianxiety agent for a 40-year-old patient with a generalized anxiety disorder and a history of BZ abuse is buspirone, a non-benzodiazepine with very low abuse potential. Benzodiazepines such as flurazepam, clonazepam, and chlordiazepoxide have higher abuse potential than buspirone Bupropion is an antidepressant, which is also used for smoking cessation. Zolpidem is a nonbenzodiazepine sleep agent.
4
zolpidem
flurazepam
clonazepam
buspirone
Psychiatry
Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders
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single
Diabetic ketoacidosis mimics acute pancreatitis in all findings except:
Diabetic ketoacidosis is often accompanied by abdominal pain and elevated total serum amylase levels, thus closely mimicking acute pancreatitis. However, the serum lipase level is not elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis. Hyperglycemia is common and is due to multiple factors, including decreased insulin release, increased glucagon release, and an increased output of adrenal glucocoicoids and catecholamines.
2
Elevated amylase
Elevated lipase
Abdominal pain
Hyperglycemia
Medicine
Budd chiari syndrome & Pancreatitis
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Which of the following drugs do not produce active metabolites ?
null
2
Enalapril
Lisinopril
Prednisone
Sulfasalazine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Choline in seminal fluid is detected by ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Florence test Microchemical tests for semen analysisFlorence test - Brown crystals of choline periodideBarberio's test - Yellow coloured crystals of spermin picrate.
2
Barberio test
Florence test
ELISA
Agglutination inhibition
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Gas commonly used in laparoscopy is :
CO2
4
Air
Pure 02
N20
CO2
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Lines of Zahn are found in:
null
1
Thrombus
Infarct tissue
Postmortem clot
All
Pathology
null
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multi
In a suspected case of legionnaires disease, medium used for culture is:
Definitive method for diagnosis of Legionella infection is isolation of the organism. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCVE) supplemented with antibiotics and dye is the most sensitive medium for Legionella.
1
Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
Thayer Main
Chocolate agar
Bordet Gengou
Surgery
null
b8d8b83e-56a5-4e73-92f0-1baf076bb7cd
single
For normal mammography, X-ray tube with a nominal focal size of-mm is used?
Ans BIn general smaller the focal spot sharper the image Routinely focal spot size 0.3x0.3mm while magnification technique small focus of 0.1x0.1mm is used.
2
0.2-0.25
0.3-0.35
0.4-0.45
0.45-0.50
Radiology
Miscellaneous
108f0eb3-ebfa-4b6f-8e4f-5a74b1b4587a
single
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly responsible for presence of long clitoris and fused vagina?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 21 hydroxylase o Features of long clitoris and fused vagina are suggestive of adrenogenital syndrome/ congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). 21 hydroxylase deficiency is responsible for 95% cases of CAH.Congenital adrenal hyperplasiao It is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is due to inborn error of adrenal steroid metabolism, commonly due to 21 - hydroxylase (95%) and rarely due to 11-hydroxylase or 3p hydroxy steroid dehydrogenase deficiency.Clinical presentationo Ambiguity of sex at birth - Cases of ambiguity of sex detected at birth are due to adrenogenital syndrome unless proved otherwise.Hirsutism and amenorrhea may be the presenting features around puberty in milder form.Diagnosis at birtho The suspected anatomic abnormalities include:# An enlarged clitoris.# Presence of penile urethra or hypospadius.# Associated metabolic abnormality-salt wasting (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia) and hypotension may be present.# Fused vagina.o The presence of any one or more of the above features necessitates further investigations for confirmation of an early diagnosis.
1
21 hydroxylase
11 hydroxylase
3 beta hydroxy steroid dehydrogenase
None of the above
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Malformation of the Female Generative Organs
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multi
Tyrosine is involved in the synthesis of?
null
4
Melanin
Thyroxine
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
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multi
The law of insanity and criminal responsibility is embodied in section
B. i.e. (84 - IPC) (6.27 - Parikh 6th)* The law of insanity and criminal responsibility is embodied in section 84 IPC while section 85 and 86 deal with drunkenness and criminal responsibilityIMPORTANT - SECTIONS***Perjury (Giving false evidence)-191-IPC*Fabricating false evidence-192 IPC*Punishment for false evidence-193 IPC*Culpable homicide-299 IPC*Murder-302 IPC***Criminal negligence-304 - A IPC*** Dowry death-304 - B IPC*Abetment of suicide-306 IPC*Attempt to commit suicide-309 IPC***Grievous hurt (Kerala 08)-320 IPC*** Rape-375 IPC** Punishment of Rape-376 IPC* Issuing or signing a false certificate is punishable under section 197 IPC*** **Tests for criminal responsibility - Right or wrong, Durham's, Curren's
2
83 IPC
84 IPC
85 IPC
86 IPC
Forensic Medicine
Law & Medicine, Identification, Autopsy & Burn
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A5 year old boy is detected to be HBs Ag positive on two separate occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given three doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of 1 year. His mother was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time. The next relevant step for fuher investigating the child would be to -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Obtain anti HBs levels The child in question has received complete vaccination for Hepatitis B, is currently asymptomatic but has tested positive for HBsAg. The aim in avestigating the child fuher is to establish his immune status which can be best revealed by obtaining anti HBsAg levels. o If the tests shows inadequate levels of anti-HBsAg it would indicate that the vaccine had failed to mount an adequate immune response. Such a child should consult a pediatric hepatologist. o If the test shows adequate levels of anti-HBs Ag, the adequacy of vaccination is confirmed and as the child is asymptomatic no fuher intervention is required. o Positivity of HBsAg indicates that the child is a carrier of the antigen. Vaccination does not effect the HBsAg carrier state.
2
Obtain 1-IBeAg and anti-HBe levels
Obtain anti HBs levels
Repeat HBsAg
Repeat another course of Hepatitis B vaccine
Pediatrics
null
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multi
In a child presenting with obstructive Jaundice, all are seen except –
Neonatal cholestasis Neonatal cholestasis is defined as prolonged elevation of serum levels of conjugated bilirubin beyond the first 14 days of life. Neonatal cholestasis can be divided into extrahepatic and intrahepatic disease and clinical features of any form of cholestasis are more or less similar. Neonatal hepatitis is the prototype of intrahepatic cholestasis Biliary atresia is the prototype of extrahepatic biliary atresia Enzymes that reflect cholestasis: There are three enzymes that are usually elevated in cholestasis Alkaline phosphatase → Found in or near bile canalicular membrane of hepatocytes 5' nucleotidase Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase → Located in the endoplasmic reticulum and in bile duct epithelial cells. Because GGT is more diffusely localized in the liver, its elevation in serum is less specific than are the elevation of Alkaline phosphatase & 5' nucleotidase. Nevertheless, the following distinction is worthwhile. "GGT levels are commonly elevated to values more than 10 times normal in biliary atresia while in hepatic causes it is raised to about three times normal." Normal values for GGT is about 5-40 IU/L and thus a value of 600 IU/L in the patient in question reflects an elevation of more than ten times the normal value. The patient is thus likely suffering from `biliary atresia'.
3
Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
Alkaline phosphatase
Glutamate dehydrogenase
5' Nucleotidase
Pediatrics
null
20e486ab-8003-4c33-8fee-95d893d2d3d3
multi
Lining epithelium of fallopian tube is
INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-PAGE NO:354 The uterine tube is characterized by presence of numerous branching mucosal folds that almost fill the lumen of the tube The mucosa is lined by ciliated columnar epithelium The uterine tube has a muscular wall with an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer
3
Simple columnar
Psudo-stratified columnar
Ciliated columnar
Simple cuboidal
Anatomy
General anatomy
905cd5a5-bdba-44d3-bac9-13639abc2771
multi
"La belle indifference" is seen in
"La belle indifference" is seen in conversion disorder, where the patient has feeling of indiference towards his symptoms. Example: If a person suddenly experiences loss of vision he is expected to get  extremely concerned about it. But patient of conversion disorder seems to be unconcerened towards his symptoms.
2
Somatization disorder
Conversion disorder
Post traumatic stress disorder
Premature ejaculation
Psychiatry
null
da226c09-2ce8-45c8-a26f-8f47373b2d5d
single
2 weeks old baby having scrotal pigmentation along with hyponatremia, gypoglycemia and hyperkalemia enzyme deficient-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 21 a- hydroxylase Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)o Autosomal recessive disorder,o MC. is a-hvdroxylase deficiency.In 21a-hyroxylese deficiencyo There is deficiency of mineralocorticoids & glucocorticoid,o This leads to hypoglycemia, hyponatremia.
2
11 beta hydroxylase
21 a- hydroxylase
3- Beta hydroxylase dehydrogenase
17- hydroxylase deficiency
Pediatrics
Adrenal Gland
d54c422e-437a-4f5f-87f2-cfbd024df211
single
Which is not a high pitched hea sound
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tumor plop sound Low pitch hea sounds are : S3 S4 Tumor plop sound Mid systolic clicks are Heard in mitral valve prolapse during systole and are high pitch sounds. The pericardial knock (PK) is Also high-pitched and occurs slightly later than the opening snap, corresponding in timing to the abrupt cessation of ventricular expansion after tricuspid valve opening and to an exaggerated y descent seen in the jugular venous waveform in patients with constrictive pericarditis. A tumor plop is A lower-pitched sound that can be heard in patients with atrial myxoma. It may be appreciated only in ceain positions and arises from the diastolic prolapse of the tumor across the mitral valve
4
Mid systolic click
Pericardial shudder
Opening snap
Tumor plop sound
Medicine
null
7325ea05-955a-4e65-a6af-fe3e6e4d2e8f
single
'Drooping water Lilly' sign is seen in:
ANSWER: (D) Upper pole renal massREF: Sutton's textbook of radiology 7th edition, volume 2, page 933-934The classical drooping lily sign on IVU of duplication anomalies of ureters:* Duplication abnormalities (duplex kidneys) are characterized by two or rarely more ureters and renal pelvis. The lower pole moiety has been displaced inferolaterally by an upper pole hydronephrosis.* The duplication of the ureter may be incomplete (the ureters fusing at some point in their course and having a common distal ureter and orifice) or complete (both ureters having separate distal orifices* Incomplete duplication is almost always of no clinical significance, although in a small proportion of cases it may be associated with yo-yo reflux in which urine from one ureter refluxes back up the other ureter.* Completely duplicated meters are associated with a number of potential problems. If the upper moiety ureter is severely obstructed, the upper moiety becomes hydronephrotic and shows diffuse cortical loss, demonstrable on ultrasound, CT or MRI. The upper moiety may opacity late or not at all and the hydronephrotic pelvis may displace the lower pole moiety inferiorly, giving rise to the so-called drooping lily sign
4
Splenic tumor
Liver tumor
Suprarenal mass
Upper pole renal mass
Radiology
Urogenital System
f1085c77-5f85-4cf5-98fc-b191270222f6
single
In the posterior wall of the stomach a perforation is seen at radiography in 36 year old female , in which the gastric contents spilled into the lesser sac. Surgeon open lienorenal ligament to reach the lesser sac and notes erosion of the ulcer into an aery. Which of the following vessels is most likely affeccted ?
The left gastroepiploic aery runs through the lienogastric ligament; hence it is the aery most likely injured. The splenic aery is found in the lienorenal ligament. The right and left gastric aeries run within the lesser omentum. The gastroduodenal aery descends between the duodenum and the head of the pancreas.
1
Left gastroepiploic aery
Gastroduodenal aery
Left gastric aery
Right gastric aery
Anatomy
Stomach and aerial supply of abdomen
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multi
In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is , characterized by the presence of all of the following except-
Acanthocytes arise from either alterations in membrane lipids or structural proteins. This causes abnormalities of membrane of RBC causing remodeling in spleen and formation of acanthocytes. In abetalipoproteinemia, there is deficiency of lipids and vitamin E causing abnormal morphology of RBCs Ref Harrison20th edition pg 296
2
Red cell casts
Acanthocytes
Crenated red cells
Dysmorphic red cells
Medicine
Kidney
be881c80-1a7f-4655-b317-e00be06eeed6
multi
A patient presents with breast ca. Inspection shows peaud' orange appearance. What is the T stage of the tumor
According to TNM staging , primary tumour (T) Tx- cannot be assesed T0- Nevidence of primary tumour. T1-<20mm T2-20 to 50mm T3->50mm T4a- tumour of any size extending to chest wall T4b- ulceaion or ipsilateral satellite nodule / edema with peaud'orange appearence T4c- T4a and T4b T4d- inflammatory carcinoma. SRB's Manual of Surgery.Edition -5. Pg no:539.
4
T2
T3
T4a
T4b
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
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During cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adult, chest compressions are given at the rate of: September 2011
Ans. C: 100 compressions/min Compression rate for infant, child and adult is 100 compressions/min
3
72 compressions/ min
90 compressions/ min
100 compressions/min
120 compressions/min
Anaesthesia
null
94aa2926-ca50-44b4-827f-195a326f6ed8
single
True about parotid tumor:a) Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common varietyb) Malignant disease is most common varietyc) Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancyd) Superficial paroditectomy is the t/t of choice
In parotid tumors, rapid growth, pain, paraesthesia, enlarged cervical LN and restriction of jaw movements, facial weakness or skin invasion and fixation of mastoid tip is suggestive of malignant transformation.
2
abc
acd
bc
bde
Surgery
null
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multi
Drugs associated with clinically useful or physiologically important positive inotropic effects include all of the following except:
null
2
Amrinone
Enalapril
Digoxin
Dobutamine
Pharmacology
null
71f02e9f-a7af-482f-823e-39b4277752fe
multi
Zollinger Ellison syndrome true about A/E
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome This syndrome is mentioned here because the gastrin producing endocrine tumour is often found in the duodenal loop, although it also occurs in the pancreas, especially the head. It is a cause of persistent peptic ulceration. Before the development of potent gastric antisecretory agents, the condition was recognised by the sometimes fulminant peptic ulceration which did not respond to gastric surgery sho of total gastrectomy. It was also recognisable from gastric secretory studies in which the patient had a very high basal acid output but no marked response to pentagastrin, as the parietal cell mass was already nearly maximally stimulated by pathological levels of gastrin. The advent of proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole has rendered this extreme endocrine condition fully controllable, but also less easily recognised. Gastrinomas may be either sporadic or associated with the autosomal dominantly inherited multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (in which a parathyroid adenoma is almost invariable). The tumours are most commonly found in the 'gastrinoma triangle' (Passaro) defined by the junction of the cystic duct and common bile duct superiorly, the junction of the second and third pas of the duodenum inferiorly, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas medially (essentially the superior mesenteric aery). Many are found in the duodenal loop, presumably arising in the G cells found in Brunner's glands. It is extremely impoant that the duodenal wall is very carefully inspected endoscopically and also at operation. Very often all that can be detected is a small nodule that projects into the medial wall of the duodenum. Even malignant sporadic gastrinomas may have a very indolent course. The palliative resection of liver metastases may be beneficial and liver transplantation is practised in some centres, as for other gut endocrine tumours, with reasonable long-term results. However, the minority of tumours found to the left of the superior mesenteric aery (outside the 'triangle') seem to have a worse prognosis, more having liver metastases at presentation. In MEN type I, the tumours may be multiple and the condition is incurable. Even in this situation,as with sporadic gastrinoma, surgical treatment should be employed to remove any obvious tumours and associated lymphatic metastases, as the palliation achieved may be good. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1141
2
Surgery is to be done
Exorcrine tumour
Endocrine disorder
Secretory diarrhoea seen
Surgery
G.I.T
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According to the transplantation of Human organs act 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty -
Transplantation of Human Organs Act , 1994 deals with putting a stop to live unrelated transplants, it defines a donor and recipient are genetically related in a live organ transplantation and it accepts brain stem death criterion. A doctor who is found guilty he will be punished for 2 - 5 years. Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 325
3
Less than 1 year
Less than 2 year
2 to 5 year
More than 5 years
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
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single
A lady with 12 wks of pregnancy having fasting blood glucose 170mg, the antidiabetic drug of choice is -
Ans. is 'a' insulin insulin (Ref Dutta 6/e, p 288 (5/e, p. 304); Holland and Brews, 16/e, p. 107).Insulin is the only antidiabetic drug given in pregnancy to control increased blood sugar.Oral hypoglycemics are contraindicated in pregnancy because they cross placenta and have teratogenic effect on fetus.They cause fetal hypoglycemia and increase m fetal bilirubin.Moreover the increase demand in pregnancy cannot be met by oral hypoglycemics.
1
Insulin
Metformin
Glipizide
Glibenclamide
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Diagnosis
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single
Plantar reflex root value is
(B) Afferent S1, Efferent L5, S1 # PATHWAYS FOR PLANTAR REFLEX:> Afferent: Nociception detected in the S1 dermatome and travels up the tibial nerve to the sciatic nerve to roots of L5, S1 and synapse in the anterior horn to elicit the motor response.> Efferent: Motor response back through the L5, S1 roots to the sciatic nerve to its bifurcation. Toe flexors are innervated by tibial nerve. Toe extensors (extensor hallicus longus, extensor digitorum longus) are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve. Loss of normal adult descending pyramidal control of the reflex arc to suppress extensor withdrawl results in the up-going toes in the plantar reflex known as Babinski's sign. There is no such thing as a negative Babinski's sign.> Causes of an extensor plantar response: Pyramidal tract lesions; Normal children up to one year of age; Deep sleep; Coma; General Anaesthesia; Postictal stage of epilepsy; Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT); Hypoglycaemia; Alchol intoxication; Narcosis; Hypnosis; Following severe physical exhaustion; Head trauma with concussion.> Root values of Reflexes: Biceps reflex (C5, C6) Brachioradialis reflex (C5, C6, C7) Extensor digitorum reflex (C6, C7) Triceps reflex (C6, C7, C8) Patellar reflex or knee-jerk reflex L2, L3, L4) Ankle jerk reflex (Achilles reflex) (S1, S2) Plantar reflex or Babinski reflex (L5, S1, S2)
2
Afferent S1, Efferent L3, S1
Afferent S1, Efferent L5, S1
Afferent S2, Efferent L3, S1
Afferent S2, Efferent L5, S1
Medicine
C.N.S.
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single
Cell involved in immunity against parasitic infection:
Ans: b (Eosinophil )Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 205Eosinophils are involved ina) Type 1 HS reaction by IgEb) Parasitic infections> Major chemokines for eosinophilic recruitment - eotaxin, IL5> Major basic protein - A cationic protein in eosinophils that is toxic to parasites.
2
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Pathology
Immunity
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single
MC joint involved in Gout -
Most common joint involved in gout is big toe, i.e. metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe.
3
Knee
Hip
MP joint of the big toe
MP joint of thumb
Orthopaedics
null
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single
Most common post-operative complication of spinal anaesthesia -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Post-spinal headache Complications of spinal anaesthesiaIntraoperativePostoperativeo Hypotension (most common)o Bradycardiao Respiratory depressiono Cardiac arresto Hypothermia in elderlyo Haedache (post dural puncture headach) - most commono Cranial nerve palsies (any cranial nerve except the 1st, 9th & 10th most commonly 6th nerve is involved)o Cauda equina syndromeo Arachnoiditiso Meningitiso Urinary retentiono Neurological deficit, e.g. paraplegiao Muscle wasting
1
Post-spinal headache
Hypotension
Meningitis
Urinary retention
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
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single
All of the following statements about apoproteins are true, EXCEPT:
Apoprotein C-II acts as an activator of lipoprotein lipase. It is required as a co-factor for lipoprotein lipase activity. Ref: Harper's Textbook of Biochemistry, 27th Edition, Page 217-18
3
Apoprotein A-I activates LCAT
Apoprotein C-I activates lipoprotein lipase
Apoprotein C-II inhibits lipoprotein lipase
Apoprotein C- II activates lipoprotein lipase
Biochemistry
null
7f141f04-693f-42fe-9a29-1f73fa3415bc
multi
Ketamine causes:
Ans. (a) HallucinationRef. Katzung 9th edJ 1604; KDT 6th ed./376* Ketamine is the only intravenous anesthetic that possesses analgesic properties and produces cardiovascular stimulation.* It is pharmacologically related to the hallucinogen Phencyclidine; induces a so called "dissociative anesthesia characterized by profound analgesia, immobility, amnesia and feeling of dissociation from one's own body and the surrounding.* It causes:# Hallucination# Delusion and illusion.# Profound analgesia* Ketamine increases all pressures like:# BP (hypertension)# Intracranial tension (ICT)# Intraocular pressure (IOP)* It is contraindicated in intracerebral mass/hemorrhage.MUST KNOW ABOUT KETAMINE: (Remembered as)KKids: can be given to kidsEEmergence reaction: s/e occurring during recoveryTThalamo-cortical junction affected: Dissociative AnesthesiaAAnalgesia strongestMMeal: can be given with full stomachIIncrease: BP/IOP/ICTNNMDA receptor blockerEExcellent bronchodilator: inducing agent of choice in asthma patient.Also Know* PROPOFOL causes myocardial depression and fall in BP.
1
Hallucination
Hypotension
Myocardial depression
Decrease in intracranial pressure
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
d79c8dbb-dee0-40c3-8ee5-1711346d8d58
multi
which of the following Is used in the treatment of hyperprolactineinia?
Dopamine actions are always opposite to prolactin Bromocriptine is a dopamine receptor agonist (mainly D2 receptors). Dopamine is the main factors controlling prolactin secretion. Being a agonist it effectively reduces the secretion of prolactin. apa from bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide are also used in hyperprolactenemia (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 236)
3
Cimetidine
Methysergide
Bromocriptine
Ondansetron
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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Horizontal line can be drawn by a child at the earliest by the age of:
Ans. b (2 years)Screening Scheme For Developmental Delay (Upper Range)Age (mths)Gross motorFine motorSocial skillsLanguage3Supports weight on forearmOpens hands spontaneouslySmiles appropriatelyCoos, laughs6Sits momentarilyTransferShows likes & dislikesBabbles9Pulls to standPincer graspPlays Pat-a-cake, Peek a-booImitates sound-12Walks with one hand heldReleases an object on commandComes when called1-2 meaningful words18Walks upstairs with assistanceFeeds from spoonMimics others actionAtleast 6 words24RunsBuilds a tower of 6 blocks.Draws a straight linePlays with others2-3 word sentences36Stands momentarily on footPlays with othersKnows full name.Understands speechOnly babbles48Hop, walk on straight lineCopy circleDiff. short from long lineProposition
2
1 yr
2 yrs
3 yrs
4 yrs
Pediatrics
Growth, Development, and Behavior
658c549a-26f5-46ac-839e-95c929686158
single
Down syndrome is due to non-disjunction of -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 21 Chromosome In 95% of cases of Down syndrome-trisomy of 21:-o Extra chromosome is of maternal in origin.o 1% have mosaic with some all have 46 chromosome,o 4% have robertsonian translocation,o t (13 : 21)o t (14 : 21)o t (15 : 21)o Very rarely long arm of chromosome 21 is triplicate (Partial trisomy).
1
21
18
11
15
Pediatrics
Genetics of Common Disorders
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single
Filamentary keratitis may occur:
Ans. All of the above
4
In trachoma
In kerato conjunctivitis sicca
Following cataract surgery
All of the above
Ophthalmology
null
9178cb40-e624-4efc-8009-aa6cc76b98f9
multi
The sensitive stain used to stain copper in Wilson's disease is:
The copper is stained with rhodamine and rubeanic acid stains. More sensitive stain used is TIMMS SULFIDE. It is more effective in detecting cytoplasmic copper binding proteins. Trichrome stainning is used to show fibrous tissue. ALSO KNOW: The rhodanine stain is used to demonstrate excess copper in hepatocytes in Wilson's disease and also to demonstrate copper deposition in chronic biliary diseases. Ref: Schiffs disease of liver, Edition-11, Page-812
1
Timms sulfide
Rhodamine
Rubeanic acid
Trichrome stain
Pathology
null
223e7024-86fd-4f8d-b5b6-ce91d455915a
single
A boy presents with injury to medial epicondyle of the humerus. Which of the following would NOT be seen:-
Injury to medial epicondyle damages ulnar nerve - Paralysis of flexor carpi ulnaris (loss of ulnar detion) Medial half of flexor digitorum profundus (loss of DIP flexion) Hypothenar muscle paralysis (and atrophy) and Sensory loss on the hypothenar eminence. Flexor digitorum superficialis (supplied by median nerve for finger flexion) and extensor digitorum (supplied by radial nerve for finger extension) are still functional.
2
Loss of the ulnar detion
Complete paralysis of the IIIrd and IVth digits
Atrophy of the hypothenar eminence
Decreased sensation of the hypothenar eminence
Anatomy
Muscles of arm and forearm region & Cubital fossa
613325e4-15bd-49c9-904d-0971f821a646
single
All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except:
null
2
Bacterial meningitis
Rickettsial infection
Syphilis
Anthrax
Pharmacology
null
6cb77c15-a768-4428-9fe7-82c59bdee59d
multi
Which of the following drug is not used for the overactive bladder
Refer Goodman and Gilman 12e 231,232 Anticholinergic drugs are indicated for overactive bladder and darifenacin, solefenacin,oxybutynin,tolterodine and fesoteradine are commonly used for this condition .
1
Duloxetine
Darifenacin
Oxybutynin
Flavoxate
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
8cf9ffc5-650e-4879-bde1-357ad6c2c816
single
Calrexin and calreticulin are -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chaperons Calrexin and calreticulino Calreticulin & calrexin are major Ca2+ binding (storage) chaperones in the endoplasmic reticulumo These Ca2+ binding chaperones, which are involved in protein folding, posttranslational modification, Ca2+ storage and release, and lipid synthesis and metabolism.o They are the key component of the calreticulin/calnexin cycle which is responsible for the folding of newly synthesized proteins and glycoproteins and for quality control pathways in the endoplasmic reticulumo They bind to misfolded proteins and prevent them from being exported from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus.o Calreticulin and calnexin are also integral proteins in the production of MHC class I Proteins
2
Glycoproteins
Chaperons
Tumor markers
Enzymes
Pathology
Cellular Pathology
ca13a5bd-d4d9-4b15-b65f-61c0fd813f27
single
Spot diagnosis for foot deformity?
Ans. (c) Rocker bottom footThe image shows convexity at the sole of the foot sole. In CTEV the bilateral feet and toes point inwards facing each other.
3
CTEV
Congenital vertical talus
Rocker bottom foot
Pes Cavus
Orthopaedics
Lower Limb and Foot & Ankle Problems
6799df50-0aae-461a-b0c2-87a81b503d83
single
Which of the following is true during the 12-hour period preceding ovulation?
Ovulation will not take place unless a surge of LH precedes it. Immediately prior to ovulation, the number of follicles is decreasing due to normal attrition of all but one follicle, and consequently estrogen synthesis by the ovary is decreasing. Progesterone synthesis is stimulated by the LH surge.
1
A surge of LH is secreted from the pituitary
The surge occurs immediately after the formation of the corpus luteum
The surge is followed immediately by a fall in the plasma concentration of progesterone
The number of developing follicles is increasing
Physiology
Female Reproductive System
3df5cc54-5151-4653-b5c2-103d55bb99ce
multi
A young nulliparous woman has 3rd degree uterovaginal prolapse without any cystocele or rectocele. There is no stress incontinence. Uterocervical length is 3 inches. All other symptoms are normal. The best treatment plan for her will be:
Prolapse in a young nulliparous female is seen in case of congenital prolapse. Risk factors for congenital prolapse: Spina bifida Connective tissue disorders like Marfans syndrome, Ehler Danlos syndrome Cystocele is not seen in congenital prolapse and in congenital prolapse there is infravaginal elongation of cervix (not supravaginal which is usually seen). Management of congenital prolapse is: Abdominal sling surgeries/ cervicopexy Like Purandare sling/ cervicopexy Shirodkar sling Surgeries Virkud Sling Performed through abdominal route                The sling is generally made of mersilene tape
3
Observation and reassurance till child bearing is over
Shirodkar's vag'nal repair
Shirodkar's abdominal sling
Fothergill's operation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
b6837227-f70a-493e-ae06-35a15291805c
multi
Mastoid is which type of epiphysis-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Traction epiphysis Types of epiphysisExamplesPressureHead of femur, head of humerus, condyles of tibia, lower end of radiusTractionGreater and lesser trochanters of femur, tubercles of humerus, mastoid processAtavisticCoracoid process of scapula, posterior tubercle of talus (as trigonum)AberrantHead of 1st metacarpal and base of other metacarpals.
1
Traction epiphysis
Atavistic epiphysis
Aberrant epiphysis
Pressure epiphysis
Anatomy
Head & Neck
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single
All are true about hyperopic obstructive cardiomyopathy except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dilatation of ventricles
3
Assymmetric septal hyperophy
Dilatation of atria
Dilatation of ventricles
Outflow obstruction
Pathology
null
f022c78e-9096-49e9-9bb5-e80524b24924
multi
About 12 days after a mild upper respiratory infection, a 12-year-old boy complains of weakness in his lower extremities. Over several days, the weakness progresses to include his trunk. On physical examination, he has the weakness described and no lower extremity deep tendon reflexes, muscle atrophy, or pain. Spinal fluid studies are notable for elevated protein only. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
The paralysis of Guillain-Barre often occurs about 10 days after a nonspecific viral illness. Weakness is gradual over days or weeks, beginning in the lower extremities and progressing toward the trunk. Later, the upper limbs and the bulbar muscles can become involved. Involvement of the respiratory muscles is life-threatening. The syndrome seems to be caused by a demyelination in the motor nerves and, occasionally, the sensory nerves. Measurement of spinal fluid protein is helpful in the diagnosis; protein levels are increased to more than twice normal, while glucose and cell counts are normal. Hospitalization for observation is indicated. Treatment can consist of observation alone, intravenous immunoglobulin, steroids, or plasma-pheresis. Recovery is not always complete. Bell palsy usually follows a mild upper respiratory infection, resulting in the rapid development of weakness of the entire side of the face. Muscular dystrophy encompasses a number of entities that include weakness over months. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has a clinical onset including peroneal and intrinsic foot muscle atrophy, later extending to the intrinsic hand muscles and proximal legs. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease is an anterior horn disorder that presents either in utero (in about one-third of cases) or by the first 6 months of life with hypotonia, weakness, and delayed developmental motor milestones.
3
Bell palsy
Muscular dystrophy
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
Pediatrics
Musculo Skeletal Disorders
e2b34ffa-23a0-4dce-bc3a-e5c7c305004f
single
Fluconazole is more effective than itraconazole in the following systemic fungal disease:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p763, 764) Fluconazole has maximum CNS penetration whereas itraconazole has limited entry in the brain. Therefore fluconazole is preferred over itraconazole for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis. For all other conditions listed in the question, itraconazole is first choice drug.
2
Pulmonary histoplasmosis
Cryptococcal meningitis
Non-meningeal blastomycosis
Disseminated sprorotrichosis
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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single
Which of the following anesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect: March 2013
Ans. B i.e. Thiopentone Thiopentone Ultra sho acting barbiturate (because of rapid redistribution), Lacks analgesic effect, First sign on intra-aerial injection: - White hands I/V injection presents as: - Pain, - Hypotension etc. C/I in: Porphyria (may precipitate porphyria)
2
N20
Thiopentone
Ketamine
Fentanyl
Anaesthesia
null
a85ce81c-7cf0-4170-9644-d427e408b829
single
Operculated sulcus is another name of
null
2
Central Sulcus
Lunate Sulcus
Collateral Sulcus
Calcarine Sulcus
Anatomy
null
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single
A 25-year-old female presents with episodes of bizarre behavior, memory lapse, and unconsciousness. She also demonstrated previously episodes of extreme hunger, sweating, and tachycardia. During one of these episodes, her blood sugar was tested and was found to be 40 mg/dL. Which of the following would most appropriately indicate a diagnosis of insulinoma?
The characteristic features of insulinomas include: (a) hypoglycemic symptoms; (b) blood glucose <50 mg/dL during the symptomatic episodes; and (c) relief of symptoms by intravenous injection of glucose (Whipple's triad). Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstration of fasting hypoglycemia in the presence of inappropriately elevated levels of insulin in the blood. A ratio of plasma insulin/glucose >0.3 is diagnostic. Circulating levels of C-peptide are usually elevated in patients with insulinoma but not in patients with such other causes of hypoglycemia as tumors of mesenchymal origin and liver tumors. Patients who surreptitiously administer insulin develop insulin antibodies.
4
Demonstration of insulin antibodies in blood
Abnormal glucagon level
CT of the pancreas showing a mass
Hypoglycemia during a symptomatic episode with relief of symptoms by intravenous glucose
Surgery
Pancreas
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The specific topical remedy suggested for angular cojunctivitis is
C i.e. Zinc sulphate
3
Dexamethasone
Sulphacetamide
Zinc sulphate
Penicillin
Ophthalmology
null
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Which of the following is not a sign of active rickets ?
Saddle nose is not seen in rickets.
3
Prominent fontanelle
Hot cross bun sign
Saddle nose
Caries teeth
Pediatrics
null
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True about oral anticoagulant warfarin are all EXCEPT:
* Oral anticoagulant is warfarin. It is used only in vivo (body), not in vitro (lab).* Warfarin is not used to store blood.* It acts by inhibiting Vitamin K. Due to overdose, hematuria is the first manifestation noted.* Dose monitoring is done by INR.* Antidote of warfarin overdose: Vitamin KPT (Prothrombin Time)aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway Used when on warfarin treatmentWePT: Warfarin for extrinsic; PT value assessed.Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway.Used while on heparin treatment.HINT: Heparin for Intrinsic; aPTT value assessed.
2
Acts in vivo
Acts both in vivo and in vitro
Interferes with synthesis of Vit K
Causes Hematuria
Pharmacology
Hematology
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Which stone is common in chronic laxative use:
Ans. c. Ammonia urateRef: Campbells Urology/P. 210Chronic laxative use leads to decreased sodium in the urine, as most sodium is excreted by GIT.Hence urate binds more with ammonia and this leads to ammonia urate stones.
3
Xanthine
Cysteine
Ammonia urate
Struvite
Pharmacology
G.I.T
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In a patient only Anti HBsAg is positive in serum, all other viral markers are negative. This indicates-
null
4
Acute hepatitis
Chronic active hepatitis
Persistent carrier
Immunized person with Hepatitis B vaccine
Medicine
null
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Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma of nose is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sarcomao Soft tissue sarcoma arise from mesenchyme, like muscles (myoma), endotha/ialcells (endothelioma) and cartilage (chondroma)o Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (EHE) is a soft tissue sarcoma.o It arises from distinct type of endothelial cells which exhibit epitheloid morphology.
2
Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Carcinosarcoma
Hamartoma
Pathology
Clinical Aspects of Neoplasia
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For indirect tooth-colored restorations the recommended gingival-occlusal divergence per wall is in the range of
null
1
Greater than 2-5 degrees
2-5 degrees
Less than 2-5 degrees
Less than 5 degrees
Dental
null
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Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa?
Bicipital aponeurosis passes superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. It lies deep to superficial veins. During venipuncture, the bicipital aponeurosis provides limited protection for brachial aery and median nerve.
3
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Brachial aery
Anterior interosseous aery
Anatomy
null
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All are true about focal nodular hyperplasia except:
Answer- B. More common in maleFNH is typically benign"FNH is most frequently found in young to middle-aged adults, with a strong female predilection.the lesion is multinodularBile ductules are usually found at the interface between hepatocytes and fibrous regions.Kupffer cells are present
2
Multiple nodule may present
More common in male
May be associated with contraceptive pills use
Hypovascular on the aerial-phase and hypervascular on the delayed-phase CT images
Pathology
null
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A 45 year old patient is suffering from diffuse toxic goiter, Therapy of choice will be
null
3
Surgery
Antithyroid drugs
Radioiodine
Antithyroid drugs first followed by surgery
Surgery
null
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Acute graft versus host disease reaction occurs in all EXCEPT
(Adrenal) (125 - R) (134- Basic pathology 8th)* Two major problems complicate this form of transplantation bone marrow transplant rejection and graft versus host disease (GVHD)* Acute graft versus host disease (occurring due to weeks after transplant) causes epithelial necrosis in three principal target organs - liver, gut and skin
2
Liver
Adrenal
Gut
Skin
Pathology
Immunity
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Which statement with respect to mucoceles is false?
null
3
Pseudocysts contain viscous saliva but lack a true epithelial lining
Patients relate a history of filling, rupture and refilling
Preventing recurrence requires removal of associated major salivary gland
Preventing recurrence requires removal of associated minor salivary gland
Surgery
null
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multi
Can be associated with anovulation, obesity, and amenorrheaFor the above explanations for hirsutism, select the most likely cause.
The most severe form of PCOD, Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is associated with chronic anovulation, hirsutism, enlarged cystic ovaries, obesity, and amenorrhea. The spectrum of disease, however, is quite wide, and some patients have only mild hirsutism.
2
drugs
polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD)
adrenal hyperplasia
idiopathic hirsutism
Medicine
Endocrinology
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Diveiculum most common site is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid colono The sigmoid colon is the segment of large bowel with the highest incidence of diveicula, and is by far the most frequent site for involvement with diveiculitis.
1
Sigmoid colon
Ileum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Pathology
null
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Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water?
Chlorine demand of water : Is the amount of chlorine that is needed to destroy bacteria, and to oxidize all the organic matter amd ammoniacal substances present in water. Is the amount of chlorine added to water minus amount of residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specific period of contact (1 hr). Estimation of chlorine demand of water (or dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water) is done by ‘Horrock’s apparatus.
1
Horrock’s apparatus
Chlorometer
Berkefeld filter
Double pot method
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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True about cardiac O2 demand is
Oxygen demand depends on the work being done. The work done is to pump the blood which is in the ventricles (preload) against the resistance in the aorta (afterload).  So, myocardial oxygen demand depends on -        Rate- Directly proportional -        Contractility- Directly proportional -        Intramyocardial tension- Directly proportional o   After load- Directly proportional o   Preload- Directly proportional o   Wall thickness- Inversely proportional -        The oxygen demand of myocardium is not having the same change with varying external works.
1
Directly proportional to mean arterial pressure
Inversely proportional to heart rate
Inversely proportional to cardiac work
Has a constant relation to the external work done by the heart
Physiology
null
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Which of the following condition is associated with increase in 5'-Nucleotidase activity?
5' nucleotidase level is elevated in obstructive or cholestatic liver disease, liver metastasis and biliary cirrhosis. 5' nucleotidase is found in or near the bile canalicular membrane of hepatocytes. Alkaline phosphatase, 5'-nucleotidase, and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) are the liver enzymes which are usually elevated in cholestasis. Alkaline phosphatase and 5'-nucleotidase are found in or near the bile canalicular membrane of hepatocytes, while GGT is located in the endoplasmic reticulum and in bile duct epithelial cells. Note: ALP will be elevated in bone diseases, pregnancy and cholestatic liver diseases. To confim the elevation is due to liver disease, do GGT and if both are elevated it is clear that elevation is due to cholestasis. Ref: Clinician's Pocket Reference By Leonard G. Gomella, Steven A. Haist, 11th Edition, Chapter 4; Textbook of Biochemistry for Dental Students By Vasudevan, 2nd Edition, Page 29; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 302
4
Bone diseases
Prostate cancer
Chronic renal failure
Cholestatic disorders
Medicine
null
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Sigmoid volvulus rotation occurs
Rotation nearly always occurs in the anticlockwise direction. predisposing medical causes are: Overloaded pelvic colon Long pelvic mesocolon Band of adhesions (peridiveiculitis ) Narrow attachment of pelvic mesocolon high residue diet constipation Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1192
2
Clockwise
Anticlockwise
Both clockwise and anti clockwise
Axial in direction
Surgery
G.I.T
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