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WER stands for
An impoant activity of WHO is epidemiological surveillance of communicable disease. WHO collects and disseminates epidemiological information on diseases subject to International health regulations and occasionally other communicable diseases of international impoance through an Automatic Telex Reply service (ATRS) and the Weekly epidemiological record (WER)Park 23e pg: 920
2
World epidemiological record
Weekly epidemiological record
World epidemic record
Weekly environmental record
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health care of community & international health
e3f10d8b-15c6-4a55-8b3f-d7c48eadc4a1
single
Treatment of sagittal split condylar fracture?
null
4
No treatment
ORIF
Reduction for four weeks + physiotherapy
Reduction for two weeks and elastic guided
Surgery
null
199bdb54-dd42-4f61-8906-cd52f257d622
single
Pain and temperature sensation passes through which of the following tract?
(B) Lateral spino thalamic tract # Dorsal column: Touch, pressure, vibration joint position# Lateral spinothalamic tract: Pain & Temperature# Ventral spinothalamic tract: Crude touch
2
Anterior spino thalamic tract
Lateral spino thalamic tract
Corticospinal tract
Dorsal column
Physiology
Nervous System
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A group of expes discuss a health topic in front of an audience, with no specific order of speeches. This method of communication is:
Panel discussion: 1. '4-8 persons' who are qualified to talk about the topic sit and discuss a given problem / topic in front of a target group of audience. 2. Panel comprises of a chairman or moderator, and 4 - 8 speakers. 3. There is 'no specific agenda, no order of speaking and no set speeches'. 4. After the speakers explore the topic, audience is invited to take pa. - News channel discussions is a type of panel discussion. Group discussion : A group is an aggregation of people interacting in a face to - face situation.
2
Focused group discussion (FGD)
Panel discussion
Symposium
Seminar
Social & Preventive Medicine
HC Methods, D-P Communication
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single
During a manic episode, a patient typically exhibits: FMGE 10
Ans. Grandiosity
4
Delusion of persecution
Low self-esteem
Crying spells
Grandiosity
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Helicobacter pylori is not associated with -
null
3
Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Gastric cancer
Gastric leiomyoma
Peptic ulcer
Microbiology
null
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The following statements regarding finasteride are true except
.Finasteride, is used for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia male pattern baldness. It is a 5a-reductase inhibitor; 5a-reductase, an enzyme, conves testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) (option 3 its give otherway round) Adverse affects include increased risk for impotence, erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, and ejaculation disorder for the first year of treatment.
3
It is used in the medical treatment of benign Prostatic hyperophy (BPH)
Impotence is well documented after its use
It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone
It is a 5 -alpha reductase inhibitor
Surgery
Urology
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multi
Which of the following procedures is routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy:
G-banding which includes staining with Giemsa is the most common technique used for karyotyping Q-banding- fluorescent pattern obtained using quinacrine for staining C-banding- selective chromosome stain in which Giemsa stain is used to stain heterochromatic regions close to the centromeres V-staining- method for detecting apoptotic cells.
2
C-banding
G-banding
Q-banding
V-staining
Pediatrics
Types of Genetic Disorders
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Mineral toxicity of Manganese produces
(D) Neurologic symptoms resembling those of parkinsonism TRACE MINERALSNutrientFunctionsEffects of DeficiencyToxicity* ChromiumPromotion of glucose tolerancePossibly impaired glucose tolerance * CopperEnzyme component, hematopoiesis, bone formationAnemia in undernourished children, Menkes (kinky-hair) syndromeWilson disease, copper poisoning* FluorineBone and tooth formationPredisposition to dental caries, possibly osteoporosisFluorosis, mottling and pitting of permanent teeth, exostoses of spine* IodineThyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) synthesis, development of fetusSimple (colloid, endemic) goiter, cretinism, deaf-mutism, impaired fetal growth and brain developmentHyperthyroidism or hypothyroicism* IronHemoglobin & myoglobin formation, cytochrome enzymes, iron-sulfur proteinsAnemia, pica, glossitis, angular cheilosisHemochromatosis, cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, skin pigmentation* ManganeseHealthy bone structureComponent of manganese-specific enzymes: glycosyltransferases, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, manganese-superoxide dismutaseQuestionableNeurologic symptoms resembling those of parkinsonism or Wilson disease* MolybdenumComponent of coenzyme for sulfite oxidase, xanthine dehydrogenase, and one aldehyde oxidaseTachycardia, headache, nausea, obtundation (sulfite toxicity) * SeleniumComponent of glutathione peroxidase and thyroid hormone iodinaseKeshan disease (viral cardiomyopathy), muscle weaknessHair loss, abnormal nails, nausea, dermatitis, peripheral neuropathy* ZincEnzyme component, skin integrity, wound healing, growthImpaired growth and delayed sexual maturation, hypogonadism, hypogeusiaRBC microcytosis, neutropenia, impaired immunity
4
Menkes syndrome
Impaired immunity
Cardiomyopathy
Neurologic symptoms resembling those of parkinsonism
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is -
Fixed drug eruption manifests as skin lesions at fixed sites following drug intake. Page no.294. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology
3
Behcet's syndrome
Herpes genitalis
Fixed drug eruption
Pemphigus vulgaris
Dental
Autoimmune skin disorders
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Shield ulcer is seen in -
Impoant signs of spring catarrh Conjunctival Corneal Palpebral Bulbar $? Papillary hyperophy into polygonal $? Gelatinous thickening around $? Punctate epithelial keratitis papilla limbus $? Ulcerative vernal kratitis : shallow $? Giant papilla (Cauliflower $? Ducky red triangular congestion $? Pseudogerontoson : Characterized by a classical "cupid's bow" outline. excrescence) Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.180-181 & 21st/e p.178; Khurana 7th/e p.81 & 4th/e p.74,75
2
Phylectenular conjunctivitis
Spring Cattarrh
Mycotic corneal ulcer
Herpetic ulcer
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
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single
The most impoant point of reference in the use of forceps is :
Station of biparietal diameter
4
The Plane of greatest dimension
Posterior sagittal diameter
Pelvic axis
Station of biparietal diameter
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Drug of choice for treatment of infection caused by methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus is:
GLYCOPEPTIDE ANTIBIOTICS Vancomycin It is a glycopeptide antibiotic discovered in 1956 as a penicillin substitute which has assumed special significance due to efficacy against MRSA Strep. viridans, Enterococcus and Cl. difficile. It is bactericidal to gram-positive cocci, Neisseria, Clostridia and diphtheroids. However, in hospitals where it has been extensively used for surgical prophylaxis, etc., vancomycin-resistant Staph. aureus (VRSA) and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) have emerged. These nosocomial bacteria are resistant to methicillin and most other antibiotics as well. Teicoplanin It is a newer glycopeptide antibiotic which in fact is a mixture of 6 similar compounds. It is active against gram-positive bacteria only; mechanism of action and spectrum of activity is similar to vancomycin. Notable features are: * It is more active than vancomycin against enterococci, and equally active against MRSA. * Some VRE but not VRSA are susceptible to teicoplanin. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:732,733
4
Macrolides
Third generation cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Glycopeptides
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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A young, tall, thin, male with arachnodactyly have ectopia lentis in both eyes. The most likely diagnosis is
Arachnodactyly and ectopia lentis (dislocation of the lens) in tall thin male suggests Marfan&;s Syndrome.It is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue of the bodyMutation in the fibrillary gene(15 q 21.1)Loss of fibrillary fiber base for deposition of elastinAlteration in connective tissue in various pas of the bodySkeletal changes:Patients are usually tall and have long limbsThe ratio of upper segment to lower segment is usually 2 SDs below the mean for age, race, and sexArachnodactyly(fingers are long and slender, spider-like)Pectus excavatum, pectus carinatumScoliosis, kyphosisCardiovascular changes:Mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitationAoic aneurysm, aoic regurgitationOcular changes:Ectopia lentisMyopia (due to elongation of the globe)Retinal detachmentOthers:Spontaneous pneumothoraxInguinal and incisional herniasStriae over the shoulders and buttocksRef:Harrison's 18/e p3212, 17/e p2468-2469
1
Marfan's syndrome
Marchesani's syndrome
Homocystinuria
Ehler's danlos syndrome
Medicine
All India exam
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multi
In a newborn, Harlequins skin change is due to
HARLEQUIN COLOR CHANGEA rare but dramatic vascular event, harlequin color change occurs in the immediate newborn period and is most common in low bihweight infants. It probably reflects an imbalance in the autonomic vascular regulatory mechanism. When the infant is placed on 1 side, the body is bisected longitudinally into a pale upper half and a deep red dependent half. The color change lasts only for a few minutes and occasionally affects only a poion of the trunk or face. Changing the infant's position may reverse the pattern. Muscular activity causes generalized flushing and obliterates the color differential. Repeated episodes may occur but do not indicate a permanent autonomic imbalance.Ref: Nelson textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 647; Diseases of the Neonate
3
Polycythemia
Septicemia
Autonomic dysfunction
Ichthyosis
Pediatrics
Hematology
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OPSI is related to
Overwhelming post splenectomized infection (OPSI) is seen in patient&;s who have undergone splenectomy. post splenectomized patients are more prone to infections with pneumococcal septicaemia, Neisseria meningitides, H influenza, Babesia microfti And can occur any time after splenectomy SRB 5 the edition page no.677
4
Kidney
Brain
Lung
Spleen
Surgery
G.I.T
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Vasanti, a 25-year-old-girl, presents with complaints of fever and weakness. On examination there is splenomegaly of 3 cm below the costal margin. Hb is 8 gm/dL, TLC is 3,000/mm3, platelet count is 80,000/mm3. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis
Answer is C (Aplastic anemia) Patient in question has anemia with pancytopenia and an enlarged spleen. Presence of an enlarged spleen makes aplastic anemia the least likely diagnosis. All other conditions mentioned as options may present with both pancytopenia and splenomegaly. Parameters Normal Patient in question Inference Hb 12-18 g/dl 8 gm/dl Anemia TLC 4000-11000 / mm3 3000/ mm3 Granulocytopenia Platelet Count 130,000-400000/mm3 80,000/mm3 Thrombocytopenia Spleen size Not enlarged Enlarged Splenomegaly Aplastic anemia may present with anemia and pancytopenia but not with an associated enlarged spleen. If splenomegaly is present the diagnosis of aplastic anemia is seriously questioned.' - Robbins Megaloblastic anemia: Besides ineffective synthesis and increased hemolytic destruction of red blood cells, there also occurs premature destruction of granulocytes and platelet resulting in Leucopenia and thrombocytopenia -Pancytopenia (Robbins) An enlarged spleen may be associated. Leukemia :Aleukemic form of Acute Lymphocytic leukemia also explains both - pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly A chronic disease associated with splenomegaly also explains pancytopenia as a sequels to increased destruction as a manifestation of 1-1YPERSPLENISM' (increased sequestration and destruction of cells in sinusoids of an enlarged spleen).
3
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
Medicine
null
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GNAQ mutations are seen in
Mutations in GNAQ, the gene encoding an alpha subunit of heterotrimeric G proteins, are found in 40% of uveal melanomas.
2
Malignant melanoma
UVeal melanoma
Medullo epithelioma
All the above
Ophthalmology
null
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The mantle dentin found alon DEJ is
The mantle dentin found along the DEJ is about 20μm thick and it contains larger-diameter argyrophilic (silver stained) collagen fibers arranged perpendicularly to the DEJ. The circumpulpal dentin contains smaller-diameter closely packed collagen fibers. The dentin which forms after root completion is called secondary dentin.
1
20 μm
30 μm
40 μm
50 μm
Dental
null
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single
Contraceptive pill with least failure rate :
Combined pill
3
Sequential pill
Mini pill
Combined pill
None
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
The total osmolarity of new oral rehydration solution formulation is -
<p>ORS Aim of oral rehydration therapy is to prevent dehydration and reduce moality. Oral fluid therapy is based on the observation that glucose given orally enhances the intestinal absorption of salt and water and is capable of correcting electrolyte and water deficit. At first the composition of oral rehydration salt recommended by WHO was sodium bicarbonate based. Inclusion of trisodium citrate in place of sodium bicarbonate made the product more stable and it resulted in less stool output especially in high output diarrhoea, probably because of direct effect of trisodium citrate in increasing intestinal absorption of sodium and water. More recently an improved ORS formulation has been developed which is safe and effective as the original in preventing and treating diarrhoeal dehydration. It is focussed on reducing the osmolarity of ORS solution to avoid adverse effects of hypeonicity on net fluid absorption by reducing the concentration of glucose and sodium chloride in the solution. A freshly prepared ORS should be used before 24hrs. Decreasing the sodium concentration of ORS solution to 75 mOsm/l improved the efficacy of ORS regimen for children with acute non cholera diarrhoea. Reduced osmolarity ORS:-(g/L) Sodium chloride- 2.6 Glucose,anhydrous- 13.5 Potassium chloride- 1.5 Trisodium citrate,dihydrate-2.9 Total =20.5 g/L Reduced osmolarity ORS:-(mmol/L) Sodium-75 Chloride-65 Glucose,anhydrous-75 Potassium-20 Citrate-10 Total = 245 mmol/L Guidelines for oral rehydration therapy in first four hours(as per weight) 1. Under 5 kg:200-400 ml 2. 5-7.9 kg: 400-600 ml 3. 8-10.9 kg : 600-800 ml 4. 11-15.9 kg: 800-1200 ml 5. 16-29.9 kg: 1200-2200 ml 6. 30/ above: 2200-4000 ml {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.224}</p>
2
210 mmol\/litre
245 mmol\/litre
255 mmol\/litre
300 mmol\/litre
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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Perjury i-
Perjury means giving willful false evidence under oath. Whoever makes any statement in court which is false and which he either knows or believes to be false or does not believe to be true, he may be charged with the crime of Perjury Under Section 193 IPC.
1
Willful utterance of falsehood
An act comitted within court premises
Failure to sign summons
Failure to appear as a witness
Forensic Medicine
null
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Commonest complication of diabetes, complicating pregnancy is :
VSD
1
VSD
ASD
Sacral agenesis
Anencephaly
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Appetite phase of gastric secretion is
The cephalic phase of gastric secretion occurs even before food enters the stomach, especially while it is being eaten. It results from the sight, smell, thought, or taste of food, and the greater the appetite, the more intense is the stimulation. Neurogenic signals that cause the cephalic phase of gastric secretion originate from the cerebral coex and in the appetite centers of the amygdala and hypothalamus. They are transmitted through the dorsal motor nuclei of the vagi and then through the vagus nerve to the stomach. This phase of secretion normally accounts for about 20 percent of the gastric secretion associated with eating a meal.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 432
1
Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal
None of these
Physiology
G.I.T
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Anesthetic agent contraindicated in acute hepatitis is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Halothane * Among given options halothane is the best answer as other agents are relatively safe in hepatic dysfunction. But it should be kept in mind that pre-existing liver disease and jaundice is not a contraindication to halothane. Unexplained liver dysfunction and jaundice to previous exposure of Halothane is a contraindication. Though not a contraindication, Halothane should be avoided in liver disease, if possible.Important facts hapatotoxicty of anesthetics* All inhalational agent cause mild hapatotoxicty by decreasing hepatic blood flow. Direct hapatotoxicty (Hepatitis, Hepatic necrosis) is caused by Halothane, Trichloroethylene, Chloroform, Carbon tetrachloride and methoxyflurane.* Isoflurane is the agent of choice in liver disease as it has least effect on Hepatic blood flow.* If the patient of halothane hepatitis has to undergo surgery, then the inhalational agent of choice is sevoflurane.
2
Sevoflurane
Halothane
Ketamine
Isoflurane
Anaesthesia
Anaesthesia For Special Situations
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Factors which decrease insensible water losses are all, except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prematurity o Prematurity increases insensible water loss.
4
Humidified air
Sedation
Hypothermia
Prematurity
Pediatrics
null
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Best tocolytic in a cardiac patient is
Atosiban is oxytocin antagonist and best tocolytic in cardiac patients. B agonists and Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in hea disease complicated pregnancies.
1
Atosbian
Isoxsuprine
Nifedipine
MgSO4
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abnormal labor
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single
A male 45 years old complains of weakness. He is a chronic alcoholic. General examination reveals elevated transaminases in blood and hepatomegaly. Icterus is visible on sclera and pale coloration of skin is present. On USG examination, fatty liver is revealed. Which of the following substances may be responsible for the condition of liver?
The antibiotic puromycin, ethionine (α-amino-γ-mercaptobutyric acid),  carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, phosphorus, lead, and arsenic all cause fatty liver and a marked reduction in concentration of VLDL in rat blood. Orotic acid also causes fatty liver; it is believed to interfere with glycosylation of the lipoprotein, thus inhibiting release, and may also impair the recruitment of triacylglycerol to the particles. A deficiency of vitamin E enhances the hepatic necrosis of the choline deficiency type of fatty liver. Added vitamin E or a source of selenium has a protective effect by combating lipid peroxidation. In addition to protein deficiency, essential fatty acid and vitamin deficiencies (eg, linoleic acid, pyridoxine, and pantothenic acid) can cause fatty infiltration of the liver.                                                                                                                                                         Reference: HARPERS ILLUSTRATED  BIOCHEMISTRY 30th ed Page no 261
4
Orotic acid
Pyridoxine and pantothenic acid deficiency
Alcohol
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
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Network analysis is -
A network analysis is a graphical plan of all events and activities to be completed inorder to reach an end objective.It brings greater discipline in planning.Two common types of network techniques are PE CPM(refer pgno:872 park 23 rd edition)
3
Quantitative method
Qualitative method
Health education
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health education & planning
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2x102 Streptococcus viridans are inoculated into a flask containing one liter of enriched broth. If the lag time is 30 minutes and the generation time is 20 minutes. How many bacteria will there be in the culture after two and a half hours?
During the lag time, by definition, bacteria newly introduced into a culture will undergo metabolic changes necessary for use of the medium, but will NOT increase in number. Therefore, at the end of the first 30 minutes elapsed time, the number of bacteria in the culture will be 2 x 10^2. Thereafter, the number of bacteria will double every 20 minutes (the definition of generation time). This means that after 2 1/2 hours of total elapsed time, 6 generations will have occurred, so the original inoculum number is multiplied by 2, 6 times. 6 x 10^2 (1st Choice) is not the correct answer. If this was your answer, you forgot that lag periods occur only once per culture, and also incorrectly multiplied the staing inoculum number by an incorrect number of generations (three). 1.2 x 10^3 (2nd Choice) is not the correct answer, and reflects the common student error of counting the number of possible generations and multiplying by that number. Remember that every generation time means that every bacterium in that culture has divided into two, so you must multiply by two, 6 times or 26. 1.6 x 10^3 (3rd Choice) is not the correct answer, and reflects the common error of forgetting that the lag time occurs only one time per culture. If you picked this answer, you divided the 2.5 hours of culture time between three lag periods and three correctly calculated generations (23).
4
6 x 10^2
1.2 x 10^3
1.6 x 10^3
1.28 x 10^4
Microbiology
null
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True about the following tongue lesion :
Oral hairy leukoplakia presents as white plaques on the lateral tongue and is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. Geographic tongue : Multiple red patches with irregular yellow-white border, dorsal lateral tongue, lesions migrate, usually asymptomatic Candidiasis :Surface debris with pain/ burning which rubs off associated submucosal erythema A/W H/O Antibiotic use/ Immunosuppresive Rx/ Nail/ vaginal/ oesophageal lesions Psoriasis involves multiple sites and lesions will be associated with scales
4
Geographic tongue associated with vitamin B deficiency
Mucosal silvery plauqe associated with mucosal psoriasis
Candidiasis associated with diabetes
Oral hairy leukoplakia associated Epstein-Barr virus infection
Dental
Viral infections
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A newborn has a fever of 103degF. Blood culture grows gram-positive cocci in chains. This is most likely to be which of the following?
Most human infections caused by Streptococci involve the group A organisms (Streptococcus pyogenes). The group B Streptococci are members of the female genital tract and are impoant causes of neonatal sepsis and meningitis. Here we have newborn in the question given, so the most likely organism would be Gr B strep.
2
Group A Streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes)
Group B Streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae)
Salmonella species
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Physiology
All India exam
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single
Vasoconstriction in burn wound is seen in
Zone of stasis lies outer to zone of coagulation. It has  vasoconstriction and resultant ischaemia.
3
Zone of coagulation
Zone of hyperemia
Zone of stasis
None of the above
Surgery
null
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The rate of injection of intravenous Valium is:
null
1
1 ml / min
2.5 ml / min
1 mg / min
2.5 mg / min
Pharmacology
null
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All the following are true concerning Rieger's syndrome except:
Ans. Autosomal recessive inheritance
1
Autosomal recessive inheritance
Glaucoma
The possible presence of facial, dental and osseous defects
The spectrum of Axenfeld's anomaly and marked abnormal development of the iris mesoderm.
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
A 2 year old boy suffering from leukemia, following are the x–ray findings –a) Osteolytic lesion in flat bonesb) Metaphyseal osteoporosisc) Periosteal new bone formationd) Osteosclerosis of long bonese) Transverse line of dark band below the growth plate
Characteristically, there are zones of rarefaction with delicate subperiosteal new bone formation in the metaphysial regions of femur, humerus or spine and pelvis. X-ray reveals subepriosteal and subepiphyseal resorption of bones. Dark bands above the metaphysis called Growth Arrest Lines. Metaphyseal lucencies affects maximum growth. Osteolytic lesions seen in half of the cases and is commonest in shaft of long bones. Osteoblastic lesions are rare, occur in metaphysis. ALL may show following features on X-ray. Periosteal Reaction Metaphyseal cortical erosions Altered medullary trabeculations, subepiphyseal bone resorption.
2
ab
bce
acd
ace
Pediatrics
null
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single
Which of the following is NOT a branch of Facial Aery?
Sublingual Aery is a branch of lingual aery which is a branch of external carotid aery. The branches of the facial aery are: Cervical Ascending palatine aery Tonsillar branch Submental aery Glandular branches Facial Inferior labial aery Superior labial aery Lateral nasal branch to nasalis muscle Angular aery- the terminal branch
4
Superior labial Aery
Inferior labial Aery
Lateral nasal Aery
Sublingual Aery
Anatomy
Abdomen: Miscellaneous
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single
With reference to the Total Sanitation Campaign, consider the following statements -
Rural sanitation was addressed by the Government of India (GoI) in the 1980s through the Central Rural Sanitation Programme (CRSP). The CRSP "was staed in 1986 to provide sanitation facilities in rural areas. It was a supply driven, highly subsidy and infrastructure oriented programme". The conditions also varied substantially across the country. An all-India survey on conditions of drinking water, sanitation and hygiene during the period January to June, 1998 was carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation, and results showed significant disparities across rural and urban populations: The propoion of households repoing that they had no bathroom was much higher in rural areas (81 percent) than in urban areas (35 percent). As many as 83 percent of households in rural areas repoed using no latrines as against only 26 percent in urban areas. Only about 8 percent and 1 percent of rural households repoed using a septic tank and sewerage system, compared to 35 percent and 22 percent of urban households. Similarly, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare repoed in 1998-99 that: On an average, 30 million persons in rural areas suffer from sanitation-related disease Five of the ten most dangerous fatal diseases of children aged from one to four in rural areas are related to water and sanitation Ref: Centre for public impact, GOI
3
It is a project based program taking district as a unit
At present, it is implementated in 300 selected rural districts of the country & School Sanitation and Hygiene Eudcation is one of the components in it
It is a project based program taking district as a unit & School Sanitation and Hygiene Eudcation is one of the components in it
It is a project based program taking district as a unit / At present, it is implementated in 300 selected rural districts of the country & School Sanitation and Hygiene Eudcation is one of the components in it
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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multi
All are true about composite skin graft EXCEPT
(High risk failure): (7094- CSDT 13th edition; 404-Baily & Love 26th)COMPOSITIVE GRAFTS (usually skin and fat or skin and cartilage)* Free graft that must reestablish its blood supply in the recipient area* Often taken from the ear margin and useful for rebuilding missing elements of nose, eyelids andfingertips* Composite graft must be small or at least relatively thin and will require recipient sites with excellent vasularity* These grafts are generally used in the facesAdvantages and Disdvantages of Various Types of Skin Grafts.Type of GraftAdvantagesDisadvantagesThin split thicknessSurvive transplantation most easily. Donor sites heal most rapidlyFewest qualities of normal skin.Maximum contraction. Least resistance to trauma. Sensation poor. Aesthetically poor.Thick split thicknessMore qualities of normal skin.Less contraction. More resistant to trauma. Sensation fair.Aesthetically more acceptableSurvive transplantation less well.Donor site heals slowlyFull-thicknessNearly all qualities of normal skin.Minimal contraction. Very resistant to trauma. Sensation good. Aesthetically good.Survive transplantation least well.Donor site must be closed surgically. Donor sites are limited.
2
Covers skins and under tissue
High risk failure
Skin grafting requires to fill the gap
Can be useful in fingertip amputation
Surgery
Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
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Which of the following features is not seen in Anorexia Nervosa?
Impoant medical complications related to Anorexia Nervosa Peripheral oedema Lanugo hair development Skin changes (dryness, scaling, yellow tinge caused by carotinemia) Lowered metabolic rate (bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia) Normal thyroid-stimulating hormone levels; low triiodothyronine (T3) syndrome Normal or overstimulated adrenal axis; possible loss of diurnal variation in coisol Normal serum protein and albumin concentrations Impaired regulation in growth hormone levels; increased basal levels Decreased total brain volume/increased ventricular size on imaging
4
Decreased total brain volume
Lowered metabolic rate
Impaired regulation in growth hormone levels
Decreased serum protein
Psychiatry
Eating Disorders
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single
Rhinosporidium seeberi belongs to:
Ans. (a) Fungus Ref Ananthanaravan' 7/e; p 603 Rhinosporiduim seeberi Lower aquatic fungi forming spores Natural habitat is reservoir water and perhaps soil contaminated with that water. Once infected organism produce a polypoidal mass lesion in the affected area, commonest site being nose, nasopharynx, tonsil, eye. Diagnosis: Can not be cultivated in aificial media. Histologically the lesion is composed of large number of fungal spores embeded in stroma of connective tissue and capillaries. Treatment: Excison of the polyp is the treatment of choice.
1
Fungus
Bacteria
Aquatic protistan protozoa
Virus
Microbiology
null
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single
Infective form of Hookworms ?
Filariform larva Eggs are passed in the stool, and under orable conditions (moisture, warmth, shade), larvae hatch in 1 to 2 days. The released rhabditiform larvae grow in the feces and/or the soil, and after 5 to 10 days (and two molts) they become filariform (third-stage) larvae that are infective .
3
Egg
Rhabditiform larva
Filariform larva
None
Microbiology
null
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multi
30 yr female with depressed mood, decreased appetite & no interest since one year. Diagnosis is-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Depression o Depressed mood, decreased appetite and no interest since one year suggest the diagnosis of depression,o For diagnosis of dysthymia, depressive symptoms should be present for at least 2 years.Mood disorderso According to ICD-10, mood (affective) disorders are grouped into six main categories.1) Manic episode: - Single episode of mania (not recurrent).2) Depressive episode : - Single episode of depression.3) Bipolar mood (affective) disorders : - Recurrent episodes of mania alone or recurrent episodes of mania & depression in the same patient at different times.4) Recurrent depressive disorder : - Recurrent (two or more) depressive episodes.5) Persistent mood disorder : - Persistent mood symptoms which last for more than 2 years (1 year in children & adolescents). Example are dysthemia & cyclothymia.6) Other mood disorders : - Mixed episodes, i.e., picture of depression and mania is present at the same time intermixed (in contrast to bipolar disorders where depression and mania occur at different time). It also includes rapid cycling - picture of mania and depression alternates rapidly with each other without a normal intervening period (in contrast to bipolar disorder where normal intervening is present between two episodes).
2
Dysthymia
Depression
Anxiety
None
Psychiatry
Major Depression
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A Hanging Curtain Sign is seen in:
Ans. d. Pityriasis RoseaHanging certain sign, collarette of scales, cigarette paper scales all are seen pityriasis rosea
4
Hordeolum externum
Psoriasis
Lichen Planus
Pityriasis Rosea
Skin
Papulosquamous Disorders
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single
Arsenic is useful in the treatment of:
Arsenic has been a traditional poison for ages. Recently,therapeutic value of small doses of arsenic trioxide in APL has been recognised.It probably acts by enhancing reactive oxygen free radical generation in APL.It is primarily used in resistant/relapsed cases of APL after tretinoin treatment.Later ,Arsenic trioxide is also being included in first line therapy of APL along with tretinoin and an anthracycline,paicularly in high risk cases and in those who have initial WBC count > 10,000 per microlitre.With such triple therapy around 90% APL patients have remained in long term remissions. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SEVENTH EDITION PAGE NO:869
1
Acute promyelocytic leukemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Transient myeloproliferative disorder
All of the above
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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multi
Not a part of kangaroo mother care-
Ans- C Free nutritional supplements
3
Skin to skin contact
Early discharge
Free nutritional supplements
Exclusive breast feeding
Social & Preventive Medicine
Obstetrics
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single
Injury to the nerve which passes superior to piriformis and winds around greater sciatic notch, most likely affected which muscle
Structures passing above the pyriformis:-Superior gluteal nerve and vessels.It winds around greater sciatic notch.SUPERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE Root value: L4,L5,S1Course: enters the gluteal region through greater sciatic notch above pyriformis muscle. Runs between gluteus medius and gluteus minimus to end in tensor fascia lata.Branches :-it supplies 1. Gluteus medius 2. Gluteus minimus3. Tensor fascia lata {Reference: BDC 6E pg no. 173}
1
Gluteus medius
Gluteus maximus
Obturator internus
Piriformis
Anatomy
Lower limb
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single
Dispersion of crystalline phase to strengthen ceramics results in
null
3
dispersed porcelain
glazed porcelain
aluminium porcelain
all of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Gene for Wilson's disease is located on chromonsome?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 13 The ATP 7 B gene is located on chromosome 13, which is responsible for Wilson's disease.
3
7
10
13
17
Pathology
null
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single
Not true about macular function test is:
Ans.Retinogram
4
Two-point discrimination
Maddox rod
Laser interferometry
Retinogram
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Vital capacity is sum of
Ans. a (Inspiratory reserve volume, Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume) (Ref Ganong 23rd/593)Ganong 23rd/Fig. 35-7:# VC = 4700 ml = ERV + TV + IRVRespiratory volumes and capacities for an average young male.MeasurementTypicalDefinitionRespiratory volumes1Tidal volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed quiet breathing2Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration; keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspirationRespiratory Capacities5Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV + TV + IRV); used to assess strength of thracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6Inspiratory capacity (1C)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7Functional residual capacity (FRC) 2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV)8Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV + VC)Additional Educational points# In a healthy normal adult male, FVC is approximately 5.0 L, FEV, is approximately 4.0 L, and thus, the calculated FEV1/ FVC is 80%.# Obstructive disorders result in a marked decrease in both FVC and FEV1/FVC, whereas restrictive disorders result in a loss of FVC without loss in FEV1/FVC.# FEV1/FVC for obstructive (42%) versus restrictive (90%) patients defines the hallmark measurements in evaluating these two diseases.
1
Inspiratory reserve volume, Tidal volume and Expiratory reserve volume
Tidal volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and Residual volume
Expiratory reserve volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and Residual volume.
Residual volume, Inspiratory volume, and Expiratory reserve volume.
Physiology
Respiratory System
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single
A 3-year-old child presents at the physician's office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik's spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles. The measles virus is a paramyxovirus. In industrialized countries, vaccination has reduced the impoance of this childhood infection (although U.S. incidence increased in 1989 and 1990). In developing countries, however, measles is a major killer of young children. In America, most states now require proof of immunity before school enrollment, and this has reduced the incidence of disease Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
2
image_question
image_question
image_question
image_question
Microbiology
Virology
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single
The submerged pa of cerebral coex is
Answer- A. InsulaFunctions of insulaInsula provides an emotional context that is suitable for a given sensory experience.It has also been shown to be associated with pain processes as well as with several basic emotions such as anger, fear, disgust, joy.
1
Insula
Broadman area
Corpus collosum
Pirform sulcus
Medicine
null
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single
vWF protects:
d. Factor VIII(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2390, Ghai 8/e p 349)2 major functions of vWF are: Platelet adhesion via Gp Ib/IX and stabilization of factor VIII in circulation.
4
Factor V
Factor VI
Factor VII
Factor VIII
Pediatrics
C.V.S.
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single
Hydrops fetalis is defined sonographically by
The term hydrops refers to excessive accumulation of serous fluid in the body, and strictly defined, hydrops fetalis is edema of the fetus. Traditionally, the diagnosis was made after delivery of a massively edematous neonate, often stillborn. With sonography, hydrops has become a prenatal diagnosis. It is defined as two or more fetal effusions or one effusion plus anasarca.(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
2
One or more fetal effusions
Two or more fetal effusions
Anasarca
Two or more fetal effusions with Anasarca
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
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multi
Maximum blood flow per 100 gram of organ is seen in
Organ Blood flow / 100gm of organ Kidney Liver Brain Skeletal muscle 400ml / 100gm / min 100ml / 100gm / min 50ml / 100gm / min 2-4ml / 100gm / min
3
Brain
Liver
Kidney
Skeletal muscle
Physiology
null
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single
Alprostadil is indicated in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erectile dysfunction o Alprostadil(PGE1) is commonly used for -i) To maintain the patency of ductus arteriosus.ii) Erectile dysfunction.
1
Erectile dysfunction
PPH
Glaucoma
Cervical ripening
Pharmacology
D.O.C
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single
Major basic proteins are produced by?
Eosinophils have a granule that contains major basic protein (MBP) Proteoglycan 2, (natural killer cell activator, eosinophil granule major basic protein), also known as PRG2, is a protein which in humans is encoded by the PRG2 gene. It is a potent enzyme against helminths. The eosinophil major basic protein also causes the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils and activates neutrophils and alveolar macrophages.
2
Lymphocyte
Eosinophil
Neutrophil
Basophil
Pathology
null
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single
The neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from parafollicular 'C' cells of thyroid is:
MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THE THYROID (MCT) These tumours arise from parafollicular ‘C’ cells which are derived from ultimobranchial bodies and not from thyroid foillicle. These tumours present in two different ways. Sporadic is common, seen in about 80-90% of cases. Familial variety present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN). MEN Type I Pituitary adenoma Parathyroid adenoma Pancreatic adenoma MEN Type IIa Parathyroid adenoma Phaeochromocytoma Medullary carcinoma of thyroid When it is associated with mucocutaneous neuromas involving lips, tongue, eyelids, it is called Sipple syndrome, with an occasional marfanoid habitus (MEN type IIb) It has got a characteristic amyloid stroma  These tumours are not TSH-dependent and do not take up radioactive iodine  Hormones produced by MCT Calcitonin  Prostaglandins Serotonin (5-HT), ACTH Spread Both by lymphatics and blood, thus, worsening the prognosis. Key Concept: Medullary Carcinoma arises from parafollicular C cells which are derived from ultimobranchial bodies and not from thyroid follicle. The medullary carcinoma produces hormones such as Calcitonin, Prostaglandins and serotonin. Reference:  Manipal Manual of Surgery 4th ed page no 348
3
Papillary carcinoma
Follicular carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
Surgery
null
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single
Study time, place, and person of a disease is__________study -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Descriptive
1
Descriptive
Analytic
Association
Comparison
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
The ideal time for operation of quinsy after an attack of acute tonsillitis is
Treatment The above conservative measures may cure peritonsillitis. If a frank abscess has formed, incision and drainage will be required. INCISION AND DRAINAGE: A peritonsillar abscess is opened at the point of a maximum bulge above the upper pole of the tonsil or just lateral to the point of junction of the anterior pillar with a line drawn through the base of uvula. INTERVAL TONSILLECTOMY: Tonsils are removed 6 weeks following an acute attack of quinsy. ABSCESS OR HOT TONSILLECTOMY: Some people prefer to do hot tonsillectomy instead of incision and drainage. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat and head and neck surgery, 7th edition Pg no. 298)
3
2 weeks
4 weeks
6 weeks
12 weeks
ENT
Pharynx
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single
Mc Callum's patch is diagnostic of -
null
2
Infective endocarditis
Rheumatic endocarditis
Myocardial infarction
Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
Pathology
null
13f52445-12a8-4f74-899f-28724052f036
multi
Cerebro spinal fluid
(A) Is actively secreted by choroidal plexus > CSF fills the ventricles and subarachnoid space.> In humans, the volume of CSF is about 150 mL and the rate of CSF production is 550 mL/d.> Thus the CSF turns over about 3.7 times a day.> 50-70% of the CSF is formed in the choroid plexuses and the remainder is formed around blood vessels and along ventricular walls.> The CSF in the ventricles flows through the foramens of Magendie and Luschka to the subarachnoid space and is absorbed through the arachnoid villi into veins, primarily the cerebral venous sinuses.> Villi act as valves which permit bulk flow (direct flow) of CSF into venous blood and these villi is about 500 mL/d, with additional small amounts of CSF being absorbed by diffusion into cerebral blood vessels.> The composition of CSF is essentially the same as that of brain ECF, which in living humans makes up 15% of the brain volume and contains 50-80 mg/dL of glucose.# Functions of CSF:> Buoyancy: The brain weighs about 1400 g in air, but in its "water bath" of CSF it has a net weight of only 50 g.> The buoyancy of the brain in the CSF permits its relatively flimsy attachments to suspend it very effectively.> Protection: When the head receives a blow, the arachnoid slides on the dura & the brain moves, but its motion is gently checked by the CSF cushion and by the arachnoid trabeculae.> CSF pressure ranges from 180-10 mmg Hg); .4.4-7.3 mm Hg in newborns and < 200 mm Hg in children and adults.> Chemical stability drains metabolic wastes and maintains hemostasis.> Prevention of ischaemia is by reducing CSF pressure by decreasing its amount.> CSF pH is 7.30-7.36
1
Is actively secreted by choroidal plexus
It is a major source of brain nutrition
Has the same pH of arterial blood
Virtually glucose free
Medicine
Miscellaneous
a9326c36-2e42-4696-95f8-49b8887198a0
multi
What is a feature of narcolepsy
NarcolepsyThis is a disorder characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, often disturbed night-time sleep and disturbances in the REM-sleep. The hallmark of this disorder is decreased REM latency, i.e. decreased latent period before the first REM period occurs. Normal REM latency is 90-100 minutes. In narcolepsy, REM-sleep usually occurs within 10 minutes of the onset of sleep. The common age of onset is 15-25 years, with usually a stable course throughout life. The prevalence rate of narcolepsy is about 4 per 10,000.The classic tetrad of symptoms is:i. Sleep attacks (most common):iii. Hypnagogic hallucinations:iv. Sleep paralysis (least common): Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 138
2
Insomnia
Hypersomnia at day time
Bruxism
Somnambulism
Psychiatry
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
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single
A young man repos chest pain retrosternal over last few hours. Pain is not related to . and relieved significantly on sitting and forward. Likely possibility is -
Acute pericarditis is a type of pericarditis (inflammation of the sac surrounding the hea, the pericardium) usually lasting less than 6 weeks. It is the most common condition affecting the pericardium. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 525
2
Angina pectoris
Acute pericarditis
Reflux esophagitis
Rib fracture
Medicine
Miscellaneous
3afc3400-50df-4051-bfad-ba15c761090b
single
Which of the following statements about Mollaret meningitis is true?
Answer is A (Caused by Herpes simplex 2 in most of the cases): Mollaret's Meningitis is a form of Self-limiting Benign Recurrent Aseptic Lymphocvtic Meningitis that is most commonly caused by HSV-2 infection of the CNS. Several etiologies have been proposed for Mollaret's Meningitis however recent studies suggest that most cases of Mollaret's Meningitis result from Herpes Simplex Virus -2 (HSV-2) infection Mollaret's Meningitis It is the name given to a Self-Limited Recurrent form of Aseptic Meningitis It is also referred to as Benign Recurrent Lymphocytic Meningitis Recurrent episodes (typically> 3 episodes) of meningismus and fever lasting for 2-5 days with spontaneous resolution is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Mollaret's Meningitis CSF Examination is characterized by a cloudy spinal fluid with lymphocytic pleocytosis and normal glucose and protein. Presence of large granular cells on Papanicolaou's stain of the CSF called `Mollaret's Cells' is considered pathognomonic (Mollaret's cells were once thought to be endothelial cells but are now believed to be from the monocyte/ macrophage family) Several etiologies. have been proposed for Mollaret's Meningitis however recent studies suggest that most cases of Mollaret Meningitis result from Herpes Simplex Virus -2 (HSV-2) infection Presence of HSV DNA on PCR is highly suggestive of Mollaret's Meningitis (In most cases HSV-2 DNA is detected It is not associated with genital herpetic lesions
1
Caused by Herpes simplex 2 in most of the cases.
Is a recurrent, benign septic meningitis
Is also referred to as "Benign Recurrent Neutrophilic Meningitis"
Does not resolve without treatment
Medicine
null
391f75bf-ac84-4e04-a307-4f4881dfbfa1
multi
Volume of air taken in and given out during normal respiration is referred to as
Ans. (b) TV(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.628)Tidal volume is the volume of air inspired or expired with each breath during normal quiet breathing. It is 500- 750 ml
2
IRV
TV
ERV
VC
Physiology
Respiratory System
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single
60 year old diabetic female presented with burning sensation to spicy food. Intraoral examination revealed multiple periodontal abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern with occasional erosive areas inside the lace pattern. Histological feature will be
The histological features include hyperparakeratosis or hyperorthokeratosis,with thickening of granular layer, acanthosis with intracellular edema, saw tooth appearance of rete ridges, band like subepithelial mononuclear infiltrate, degenerating basal keratinocytes that form colloid known as Civatte, hyaline, cytoid bodies.
3
Elongated rete ridges
Flattened rete ridges
Saw tooth rete ridges
Bulbous rete ridges
Pathology
null
7b77afda-7710-4790-bd70-7fd3bca10aa1
single
Formication and delusion of persecution occurs together in abuse with:
In cocaine psychosis formication occur along with delusion of persecution and is known as cocaine bug. Formication refers to the sensation of small animals crawling over the body. Cocaine is a natural stimulant derived from the leaves of coca plant. In the brain it increase the level of neurotransmitters like norepinephrine and dopamine. Regular use of cocaine can damage the brain circuit and produces a feeling of pleasure. Regular use of cocaine can result in arrythmias, stroke caused by spasm of blood vessels and respiratory arrest. Ref: Psychology: Concepts and Applications By Jeffrey S. Nevid page 165. Fish's clinical psychopathology : signs and symptoms in psychiatry 3rd edn, By Frank James Fish,page 25
1
Cocaine
Amphetamine
Cannabis
LSD
Psychiatry
null
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single
Macula densa is a pa of
The thick end of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle reaches the glomerulus of the nephron from which the tubule arose and nestles between its afferent and efferent aerioles. Specialized cells at the end form the macula densa, which is close to the afferent and paicularly the afferent aeriole. The macula, the neighboring lacis cells, and the renin-secreting juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent aeriole form the juxtaglomerular apparatus.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 641
2
Pct
Dct
Renal aeriole
Glomerulus
Physiology
Renal physiology
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single
Ectocervix is predominantly lined by which of the following type of epithelium?
The poion of the cervix exterior to the external os is called ectocervix. It is lined predominantly by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium. The endocervical canal is covered by a single layer of mucin-secreting columnar epithelium. During pregnancy mucus produced by the endocervical epithelium becomes thick and forms a mucus plug within the endocervical canal. During pregnancy, the endocervical epithelium moves out and onto the ectocervix during enlargement of the cervix. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 2. Maternal Anatomy.
4
Cuboidal epithelium
Mucin secreting columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
317a69dc-c55f-4797-8d2c-53f62b4041a0
single
Protein requirement of 4 kg new born (daily) ?
Ans. is 'None' o Daily protein requirement upto 6 months of age is 1.16 g/kg/day. o 4 kg infant requires 4 x 1.16 =4.64 gm proteins/day.
4
3 gm
7 gm
9 gm
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1797eece-4de7-4f2e-89c0-d8efe5fa5d71
multi
A 63-year-old man with a long history of alcohol abuse presents with ascites. He is experiencing mild abdominal discomfort and nausea. Examination reveals tense ascites and generalized tenderness but no rigidity. A diagnostic paracentesis of the fluid is performed. Which of the following ascitic fluid results is most likely to suggest an uncomplicated ascites due to portal hypertension from cirrhosis?
Ascitic fluid in uncomplicated cirrhosis of the liver shows a specific gravity < 1.016. Protein is < 25 g/L, and the gross appearance is straw-colored. In spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, the fluid may be cloudy and the number of white cells (neutrophils) increased. In uncomplicated ascites, the difference between plasma albumin and ascitic fluid albumin is > 1.1 g/dL.
4
hemorrhage
protein >25 g/L
bilirubin level twice that of serum
serum to ascites albumin gradient > 1.1 g/dL
Medicine
G.I.T.
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single
Deep venous system of brain consist of
It is single median vein formed by union of 2 internal cerebral vein. along with inferior petrosal sinus terminate in straight sinus. Its tributaries are basal vein, veins from pineal body, colliculus, cerebellum& occipital lobes. Ref: Gray's 40e/p256
3
Superior sagittal sinus with straight sinus
Inf. Sagittal sinus with straight sinus
Internal cerebral veins
Basilar vein
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
The term &;Id&; was coined by-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Freud o Structural theory of mind (the id, ego and superego) was given by sigmund freud.Structural theory of mindo Freud coined the term "The Ego and The Id", and divided the mental apparatus (Personality) into three dynamic structures : -The Id :- The id is the only component of personality that is present from birth. This aspect of personality is entirely unconscious and includes the instinctive and primitive reflexive behavior. The Id is the source of all psychic energy, making it the primary component of personality. The id is driven by the pleasure principle, which strives for immediate gratification of all desires, wants, and needs. If these needs are not satisfied immediately, the result is a state anxiety or tension. For example, an increase in hunger or thirst should produce an immediate attempt to eat or drink. The id is very important early in life, because it ensures that an infant's needs are met. If the infant is hungry, he or she will cry until the demands of id are met.The Ego :- The ego is the component of personality that is responsible for dealing with reality. The ego develops from the id and ensures that the impulses of the id can be expressed in manner acceptable in the real world. The ego functions in conscious, preconscious and unconscious mind. The ego operates based on the reality principle, which strives to satisfy1 the Id's desires in realistic and socially appropriate ways. The superego :- The last component of personality to develop is the superego. The superego is the aspect of personality that holds all of our internalized moral standards and ideals that we acquire from both parents and societyOur sense of right and wrong. The superego based on idealism principle and acts to perfect and civilize our behavior. It works to supress all unacceptable urge of id, i.e.. It tries to prove or disprove the urge of Id, and struggles to make the ego act upon idealistic standards rather than upon realistic principles. The activities of superego occur largely unconscious. There are two components of superego : -The ego ideal: - Includes rules and standard for good behaviors. These behaviors include those which approved of by parental and other authority figures. Obeying these rules leads to feeling pride, value and accomplishment.The conscience : - Include information about things that are viewed as bad by parents and society. These behaviours are often forbidden and lead to bad consequences, punishments or feeling of guilt or remorse.
1
Freud
Skinner
Wayker
BlueIer
Psychiatry
Psychoanalysis
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single
A patient presents with low grade fever, his ECG is as shown below. What is the most probable diagnosis?
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is very useful in the diagnosis of acute pericarditis. Characteristic manifestations of acute pericarditis on ECG most commonly include diffuse ST-segment elevation. However, other conditions may have ECG features similar to those of acute pericarditis. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium (the fibrous sac surrounding the hea).Symptoms typically include sudden onset of sharp chest pain.The pain may also be felt in the shoulders, neck, or back. It is typically better sitting up and worse when lying down or breathing deeply.Other symptoms may include fever, weakness, palpitations, and shoness of breath. Occasionally onset of symptoms is gradual. Substernal or left precordial pleuritic chest pain with radiation to the trapezius ridge (the bottom poion of scapula on the back) is the characteristic pain of pericarditis. The pain is usually relieved by sitting up or bending forward, and worsened by lying down (both recumbent and supine positions) or by inspiration (taking a breath in). The pain may resemble that of angina but differs in that pericarditis pain changes with body position, where hea attack pain is generally constant and pressure-like. Other symptoms of pericarditis may include dry cough, fever, fatigue, and anxiety. Due to its similarity to the pain of myocardial infarction (hea attack), pericarditis can be misdiagnosed as a hea attack. Acute myocardial infarction can also cause pericarditis, but the presenting symptoms often differ enough to warrant diagnosis. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2776
3
Acutemyocardial infarction
Old myocardial infarction
Pericarditis
Hypothermia
Medicine
C.N.S
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single
Autonomic disturbances are seen in?
Diabetes REF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17'h edition chapter 370 I. Autonomic disorders with brain involvement A. Associated with multisystem degeneration 1. Multisystem degeneration: autonomic failure clinically prominent Multiple system atrophy (MSA) Parkinson's disease with autonomic failure Diffuse Lewy body disease (some cases) 2. Multisystem degeneration: autonomic failure clinically not usually prominent Parkinson's disease Other extrapyramidal disorders (inherited spinocerebellar atrophies, progressive supranuclear palsy, coicobasal degeneration, Machado-Joseph disease) B. Unassociated with multisystem degeneration 1. Disorders mainly due to cerebral coex involvement Frontal coex lesions causing urinary/bowel incontinence Paial complex seizures 2. Disorders of the limbic and paralimbic circuits Shapiro's syndrome (agenesis of corpus callosum, hyperhidrosis, hypothermia) Autonomic seizures 3. Disorders of the hypothalamus Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome Diencephalic syndrome Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Serotonin syndrome Fatal familial insomnia Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) syndromes (diabetes insipidus, inappropriate ADH) Disturbances of temperature regulation (hypehermia, hypothermia) Disturbances of sexual function Disturbances of appetite Disturbances of BP/HR and gastric function Horner's syndrome 4. Disorders of the brainstem and cerebellum Posterior fossa tumors Syringobulbia and Arnold-Chiari malformation Disorders of BP control (hypeension, hypotension) Cardiac arrhythmias Central sleep apnea Baroreflex failure Horner's syndrome H. Autonomic disorders with spinal cord involvement Traumatic quadriplegia Syringomyelia Subacute combined degeneration Multiple sclerosis Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Tetanus Stiff-man syndrome Spinal cord tumors III. Autonomic neuropathies A. Acute/subacute autonomic neuropathies 1. Subacute autoimmune autonomic neuropathy (panautonomic neuropathy, pandysautonomia) Subacute paraneoplastic autonomic neuropathy Guillain-Barre syndrome Botulism Porphyria Drug induced autonomic neuropathies Toxic autonomic neuropathies B. Chronic peripheral autonomic neuropathies 1. Distal small fiber neuropathy 2. Combined sympathetic and parasympathetic failure Amyloid Diabetic autonomic neuropathy Autoimmune autonomic neuropathy (paraneoplastic and idiopathic) Sensory neuronopathy with autonomic failure Familial dysautonomia (Riley-Day syndrome)
2
Hypehyroidism
Diabetes
Hyperaldosteronism
Hyperparathyroidism
Surgery
null
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single
MC site of gastrinoma:-
Agastrinomais a gastrin-producing tumor usually located in the pancreas or the duodenal wall. Gastric acid hypersecretion and aggressive, refractory peptic ulceration result (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome).Diagnosisis by measuring serum gastrin levels. Treatment is proton pump inhibitors and surgical removal.
1
Duodenum
Pancreas
Stomach
Colon
Surgery
Stomach & Duodenum
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single
In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest –
Sch can cause dangerous hyperkalemia in patients with extensive soft tissue & muscle injury (crush injury) which may cause cardiac arrest.
2
Atracurium
Suxamethonium
Vecuronium
Pancuronium
Anaesthesia
null
fcd470fe-949d-4085-9411-8787d46e5608
single
Which of the following is not an RNA virus ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Simian 40
2
Ebola
Simian 40
Rabies
Vesicular stomatitis virus
Microbiology
null
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single
Fractional excretion of sodium < 1 is seen in -
The fractional excretion of filtered sodium (FENa) has been demonstrated to be a reliably discriminating test between prerenal azotemia and acute tubular necrosis. One paicular urinary index cannot be expected to reliably discriminate between prerenal azotemia and acute renal failure in all cases Prerenal azotemia Oliguria (urine volume < 500 mL/day) or anuria (< 100 mL/day), high urine specific gravity (>1.015), normal urinary sediment, and low urinary sodium (< 20 mEq/L; fractional excretion of sodium < 1%) are seen Ref Harrison20th edition pg 267
1
Pre renal azotemia
Acute tubular necrosis
Acute ureteral obstruction
Interstitial nephritis
Medicine
Kidney
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single
A neonate delivered at 38 weeks of gestation with a bih weight of 2.2 kg develops intolerance to feed/ abdominal distension on second day. Physical examination is unremarkable. Sepsis screen is negative. PCV is observed to be 72%. Which of the following represents the best management option ?
Ans is 'b' i.e., Paial Exchange Transfusion o PCV 72% in a neonate suggests the diagnosis of neonatal polycythemia. o Polycythemia is defined as central venous hematocrit Ialso called packed cell volume (PCV) or erythrocyte volume fraction (EVF)J level ofgreater than 65%. o The neonate in question is also having intolerance to feed and abdominal distension. So, this neonate is having symptomatic neonatal polycythemia. Treatment of neonatal polycythemia Therapy in newborns with polycythemia is based on both the measured central venous hematocrit level and the presence or absence of symptoms. (1) Symptomatic polycythemia o Paial exchange transfusion is the treatment of choice. (2) Asymptomatic polycythemia o In asymptomatic polycyhthemia, treatment depend upon hematocrit level (PCV). PCV 65-75% Perform cardiorespiratory monitoring and monitoring of hematocrit and glucose levels every 6-12 hours and observe the patients for symptoms If hematocrit (PCV) becomes more than 75%, consider paial exchange transfusion (PET). (ii) PCV> 75% o Paial exchange transfusion (PET) is the treatment of choice.
2
Hydration with IV Fluids
Paial Exchange Transfusion
Presumptive treatment for sepsis
Medical Management for intestinal obstruction
Pediatrics
null
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multi
DOC for schizophrenic patient with poor oral absorption is?
Ans. B. FluphenazineLong-acting injectable (LAI) antipsychotics (APs) (LAI APs) have proved effective in schizophrenia and other severe psychotic disorders because they assure stable blood levels, leading to a reduction of the risk of relapse.LAIs bypass the initial deactivating process by avoiding first-pass metabolism in the liver.
2
Clozapine
Fluphenazine
Sulpride
Penfluridol
Psychiatry
null
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single
Hepatotoxic drugs are -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chloroform Hepatotoxic anaesthetic agents are 1. Chloroform 3. Carbon tetrachloride 5. Methoxyflurane 2. Halothane 4. Trichloroethylene
1
Chloroform
Ether (diethyl)
N2O
All
Pharmacology
null
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multi
A retrobulbar anaesthetic is least likely to produce anaesthesia of which cranial nerve?
Retrobulbar anaesthesia: 4th cranial nerve lies outside the muscle cone in orbit and the least likely to get paralysed by retrobulbar anesthesia. Main goal of this procedure is to obtain anesthesia of the cornea, uvea, and conjunctiva, as well as akinesia of the extraocular muscles by blocking the ciliary nerves and II, III, VI cranial nerves,
3
2
3
4
6
Ophthalmology
Neuro Ophthalmology
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single
Oral rehydration therapy takes advantage of which transpoer in GIT ?
Ans. is'a'i.e., Na Glucose co transpolRef; KDT 7/ep.679)Oral rehydration is possible if glucose is added with salt.It capitalizes on the intactness of glucose coupled Na+ absorption (Na glucose co transpo), even when other mechanisms have failed or when intestinal secretion is excessive, because the secreted fluid lacks glucose and cannot be reabsorbed.
1
Na Glucose co transpo
K glucose co transpo
Na calcium co transpo
Na channel
Pharmacology
null
39f91e13-f52a-4824-8b4e-ca4e8dfe5bd0
single
Sentinal node of gall bladder is
The lymphatic vessels of gallbladder(subserosal & submucosal)drain into the cystic lymph node of Lund(Fred Bates Lund)-Mascagni's node.This lies in the fork created by the junction of cystic duct and common hepatic duct.Efferent vessels from this node go to the hilum of liver and to coeliac lymph nodes. Virchow's node is located in left supraclavicular fossa.Clouquet node is located in the femoral canal. Reference:Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25 th edition,page no:1112.
4
Virchow's nodes
Iris Iris nodes
Clouquet node
Lymphnode of lund
Surgery
G.I.T
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multi
Test based on counting the direction of each within paired sample is-
* The 'Sign test' is non parametric / distribution free test which can be utilized to analyze paired sample * It is based on counting the direction (or Sign) of each 'within-pair difference
4
.'t' test
Z test
F test
Sign test
Surgery
null
427fd349-bb7a-4640-95bf-3d0b0ea43dd1
single
Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to -
Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerve and involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve → cavernous sinus thrombosis. Paralysis of 3rd, 4'h, 6th nerve, ophthalmic division of 5th nerve plus optic nerve signs→ orbital apex syndrome.
1
Cavernous sinus
Apex of orbit
Brainstem
Base of skull
Ophthalmology
null
bab5d50c-9a5e-4087-99f0-cad74f7e4d2b
single
Thoracic duct is also called as
Thoracic duct- pecquet duct.Hensen&;s duct : A sho membranous tube passing from the lower end of the saccule to the cochlear duct of the membranous labyrinth.Bernard&;s duct- Accessory pancreatic duct.Hoffman&;s duct- pancreatic duct.
3
Hensen's duct
Bernard's duct
Pecquet duct
Hoffman's duct
Anatomy
Thorax
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multi
A middle-aged male comes to the OPD with the only complaint of hoarseness for the past 2 years. He has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion of both cords was seen. Management would include all except:
In the data given above, clinical diagnosis of cancer larynx is made but biopsy is mandatory. Indicators are: chronic smoking habits, hoarse voice persisting for 2 years, irregular vocal cord lesion involving both cords. The lesion is stage I glottic cancer as the pathology is localized to glottis. Treatment of choice in this case would be radiotherapy.
2
Cessation of smoking
Bilateral cordectomy
Microlaryngeal surgery for biopsy
Regular follow-up
ENT
Larynx
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multi
25 years old 2nd gravida with B negative blood group reaches in labour room in full dilatation. All the following norms to be followed except:
Use of ergot derivatives is contraindicated in Rh negative mother to avoid chances of feto-maternal micro transfusions. As the mother is Rh -ve so to decrease the chances of Rh isoimmunization, early cord clamping is done. Cord blood is sampled for baby's blood group and Direct Coombs Test Manual removal of placenta is avoided as it would increase risk of microtransfusion to mother causing fuher sensitisation
4
Cord blood to be saved in 2 l - plain & EDTA l
Early clamping of cord
Avoidance of manual removal of placenta
Liberal prophylactic use of ergometrine
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Labour - normal, abnormal, malposition, malpresentation and their management
2198d293-7019-463f-a4c1-4a0875474903
multi
Fleischer ring is characteristic of
D i.e. Keratoconus Corneal Pigmentation Condition Deposited Material Site Of Deposition Argyrosis Sliver nitrate (AgNO3) Brown discolouration of descement's membrane Fleischer ring Iron Epithelial iron deposits at the base of Keratoconus Chalcosis (Kayser Fleischer ring) Cu Grayish-green or golden brown discolouration of stroma of peripheral cornea Wilson's disease/Hepatolenticular degeneration (Kayser Fleischer ring) Cu Grayish-green or brown ring is seen just inside the limbus due to Cu deposition between Descemet's membrane and endothelium Siderosis Fe (hemosiderin) - Green or brown discolouration of deeper layers of cornea. Blood staining can follow massive hyphaema either from contusion or surgery - Fleischer's ring representing deposition of haemosiderin is found in keratoconus Q Hudson-Stahli line Elderly Brown horizontal line in inferior third or cornea Krukenberg's spindle Myopic men Veical spindle shaped brown uveal pigment deposition Topical epinephrine Used for glucoma Result in black cornea.
4
Megalocornea
Diabetes
Chalcosis
Keratoconus
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Socialized medicine is
*State Medicine: Provision of free medical services to the people at government expense*Socialized Medicine: Provision of medical service and professional education by the state, but the programme is operated and regulated by professional groups rather than by the government.*Social Medicine: study of social, economical, environmental, cultural, psychological and genetic factors, which have a bearing on health.
3
Health care at people's expense
Charitable care at government expense
Free medical care at government expense, regulated by professional groups.
Integration of social medicine with Health care.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
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single
Lack of alpha-oxidation of fatty acids leads to
Refsum&;s Disease It is a metabolic error due to lack of alpha-hydroxylase (phytanic acid oxidase) so that alpha-oxidation does not occur and phytanic acid accumulates in the tissues. The patient presents with severe neurological symptoms, polyneuropathy, retinitis pigmentosa, nerve deafness and cerebellar ataxia. Regressions of symptoms are observed with restricted dietary intake of phytanic acid. Milk is a good source of phytanic acid, which may be avoided.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 135
1
Accumulation of phytanic acid
Formation of dicarboxylic acid
Formation of propionic acid
Oxidation of branched chain fatty acid
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
75738687-2816-424a-bf4e-08486a407b3f
single
All are T cell lymphomas, EXCEPT:
Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma is a B cell lymphoma, all others are T cell lymphomas. Ref:Harrisons principles of internal medicine 18th edition, Page: 920.
1
Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
Mycosis fungoides
Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Aggressive NK cell leukemia
Medicine
null
9e214ec5-4d6f-405b-bf94-96c9c2271fd3
multi
All the following statements are true regarding torsion of testis EXCEPT
Ans. (a) Anatomical abnormality is unilateral and contralateral testis should not be fixedRef: Bailey and Love 26th ed. /1379Anatomical abnormality is unilateral and contralateral testis should not be fixedThe other testis should also be fixed because the anatomical predisposition is likely to be bilateral. An infarcted testis should be removed and prosthetic device deployed.Prompt exploration and twisting & fixation is the only way to save the torted testisMost common between 10 & 25 years of ageInversion of testis is the most common predisposing causePatient presents with sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nauseated and may vomit.If the testis is viable when the cord is untwisted it should be prevented from twisting again by fixation with non- absorbable sutures between the tunica vaginalis and the tunica albuginea.Testicular torsion is most common between 10 and 25 years of age, although a few cases occur in infancy.Inversion of the testis is the most common predisposing cause.The testis is rotated so that it lies transversely or upside down.
1
Anatomical abnormality is unilateral and contralateral testis should not be fixed
Prompt exploration and twisting & fixation is the only way to save the torted testis
Most common between 10 & 25 years of age
Inversion of testis is the most common predisposing cause
Surgery
Male Reproductive Medicine and Sexual Dysfunction
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multi
A 27 year old patient presented with left sided abdominal pain to the emergency room, 6 hours after an A. He was hemodynamically stable and FAST positive. Contrast Enhanced CT (CECT) scan showed grade III splenic laceration. What will be the most appropriate treatment?
There are criterias for conservative mangement in splenic injured patients such as hemodynamical stability, minimal transfusion requirement, no other abdomen injuries and ablity to perform series of abdominal examination. A stable defect on repeat imaging also suppos. As this patient is hemodynamically stable, with no other abdominal injuries along with grade iii laceration of spleen will fit in this criterion. Ref: Surgery : Basic Science and Clinical Evidence By Jeffrey A. Noon, Philip S. Barie, Randall Bollinger, 2nd Edition, Pages 1116, 1117
4
Splenectomy
Splenorrhaphy
Splenic Aery Embolization
Conservative Management
Surgery
null
cf708ea8-d49f-4324-bb12-ddd31dc94e77
multi
Achromatopsia is due to lesion in which area of occipital coex?
Area v4 REF: Yanoff's ophthalmology p- 1300 Patients who have acquired, central cerebral achromatopsia (inability to identify colors) may have complete loss or miss only one primary color. The isolation of single color defects links with research performed in macaque monkeys, which showed that an area of prestriate coex, identified as area V4, contains neurons that respond to specific color stimuli. Patients with cerebral achromatopsia generally describe objects as "washed out" or "faded." Patients still may be able to use contrast clues to separate the edge of one intense color from another. If two colors or a color and a shade of gray match pseudoisochromatically, however, patients demonstrate a distinct inability to isolate colored targets. Despite the achromatopsia, other pas of the parvicellular system may remain intact. Patients may have normal visual acuity and contrast sensitivity. Postmoem and radiological studies of these patients reveal bilateral lesions of the inferior occipital coex.
4
Area v5
Area v7
Area v8
Area v4
Physiology
null
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single
Bansdola is a form of strangulation by –
In Bansdola one strong bamboo stick is placed across the back of the neck and another across the front. Both the ends are tied with a rope due to which the victim is squeezed to death. Sometimes a stick is placed across the front of neck & the assailant stands with a foot on each end of the stick
3
Ligature
Hands
Sticks
Bend of elbow
Forensic Medicine
null
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single