lighteval/med_mcqa · Datasets at Hugging Face

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Isotope used in RAIU –	RAIU stands for radioactive iodine uptake. It is a thyroid imaging method that measures the fraction of orally administered iodine isotope taken up by thyroid. 1123 is the agent of choice for RAIU.	2	I131	I123	I125	I127	Radiology	null	bc13b90b-b08a-4ec3-9512-1fd41bf29278	single
Dalen Fuch's nodules are seen in:	Sympathetic ophthalmia	1	Sympathetic ophthalmia	Phthisis bulbi	Absolute glaucoma	Pseudo xanthoma elasticum	Ophthalmology	null	6444e436-c6e3-47d1-b42e-07dc42e3ed6b	single
A 35-year-old man is admitted after severing his arm on industrial machinery. His airway is patent and there is no identifiable hindrance to breathing. Hispulse is 110 beats/min, blood pressure is 130/105 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 25 breaths/min. Which stage of shock is this patient in?	The following table illustrates the clinical signs of the different stages of hypovolaemic shock. Class I Class II Class III Class IV Percent blood loss Up to 15 15-30 30-40 >40 Pulse rate <100 >100 >120 >140 Blood pressure Normal Normal \| \| Pulse pressure Normal \| \| \| Respiratory rate 14-20 20-30 30-40 >35 Urine output (mL/h) >30 20-30 5-15 <5 Mental status Slight anxiety Mild anxiety Anxious, confused Confused	2	Class I	Class II	Class III	Class IV	Surgery	Shock	e91dfedb-2097-484c-a09f-8be8bb1989c5	single
True about point source epidemic is?	Common source single exposure epidemics is also known as point source epidemic. The exposure to the disease agent is brief and essentially simultaneous, the resultant cases all develop within one incubation period of the disease. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 72	2	Occurs in more than 1 incubation period	Occurs in one incubation period	The exposure is continuous	Epidemic curve falls very slowly	Social & Preventive Medicine	Epidemiology	77347b61-64a9-408a-a09b-378facc62c5c	multi
Ichthyosis is caused by –	Syndromal ichthyosis (ichthyosis with additional characteristics) is seen in carvaj al syndrome, CHILD syndrome, Daffier 's disease, Refsum disease, Rud syndrome, Netherton syndrome, Neutral lipid storage disease, Tey syndrome, Senter syndrome.	2	Hemosiderosis	Refsum disease	Niacin deficiency	Steven johnson syndrome	Dental	null	f5cf8f88-7b73-4677-8f72-d68e184d569d	single
Herd immunity provides protection to -	Ans. is 'b' i.e., Non-immunized person Herd immunity It is the level of resistance of a community or group of people to a paicular disease. It occurs when the vaccination of a poion of the population (or herd) provides protection to unprotected (non-vaccinated) individuals. How does herd immunity provide protection to nonimmunized person ? o Infection is spread from person to person. o If a large number of population are immune, it is more difficult to maintain a chain of infection. o The more immune individuals present in a population, the lower the likelihood that a susceptible person will come into contact with an infected individual. o For example, if person 'A' had a disease and exposed person 'B' who was immune because of vaccination, person `B' would not get ill and could not pass on the disease to person 'C' when he comes into contact with him. So, even if person 'C' is not vaccinated, He indirectly gets protection from the disease. o Hence herd immunity may be used to reduce spread of an infection and to protect a vulnerable, un-vaccinated subgroup.	2	Immunized persons	Non immunized persons	Both	None	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	ee19b137-ca0b-48a3-97be-53f9f1bef194	multi
Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is –	Maximum permissible dose in pregnancy is 5 mSv (0.5 rem). Rem = Rad x Quality factor. Main radiation exposure during pregnancy can be by X-rays (radiography or CT), and the quality factor of X-rays is 1. That means Rem = Rad. Therefore, the maximum permissible dose in pregnancy is 0.5 rem or 0.5 rad.	1	0.5 rad	1.0 rad	1.5 rad	2 rad	Radiology	null	4264a758-9094-4a0c-9d83-dfb7b7e366ac	single
What is the appearance of the RBCs on the peripheral smear in physiological anaemia of the pregnancy?	Physiological anemia is due to hemodilution. Peripheral smear will be normocytic and normochromic, which is not to be confused with Iron deficiency Anemia & thalassemia where the women have microcytic hypochromic anemia	3	Microcytic and Hypochromic	Macrocytic and Hyperchromic	Normocytic and Normochromic	Microcytic and Normochromic	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Anaemia in Pregnancy	2a10e378-0e0e-448e-813d-287b003ee973	single
Which of the following is related to floor of middle ear -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Internal jugular vein o The middle ear is shaped like a cube.o When seen in the coronal section, the cavity of the middle ear is biconcave,o The boundaries of the middle ear are as follows :I Roof or tegmental wallo Separates the middle ear from the middle cranial cavity,o It is formed by a thin plate of bone called tegmen tympani.II Floor or jugular wallo Formed by a thin plate of bone which separates the middle ear from the superior bulb of the internal jugular vein.o The floor also presents the tympanic canaliculus which transmits the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve.III Anterior or carotid wallo The uppermost part bears the opening of the canal of the tensor tympanio The middle part has the opening of the auditory' tubeo The inferior part of the wall is formed by a thin plate of bone which forms the posterior wall of the carotid canal. This plate separates the middle ear from the internal carotid artery.IV: Posterior or mastoid wallo Superiorly, is the aditus through which the epitympanic recess communicates with the mastoid antrumo Below it is the fossa incudis which lodges the short process of the incuso Below it is the pyramid giving attachment to the tendon of stapediuso Vertical part of the facial canal for facial nerveV. Lateral or membranous wallo Tympanic membrane along with the tympanic ring and sulcus.VI Medial or labrynthine wallo Promontory - rounded bulge produced by the first turn of the cochleao Oval window -- it is posterosuperior to the promontory'. It is closed by the footplate of the stapes,o Horizontal part of the facial canal -- runs just above the oval windowo Round window -- posteroinferior to the promontory. It is closed by the secondary tympanic membrane,o Processus cochleariforims -- forms a pulley for the tendon of the tensor tympanio Prominence of the lateral semicircular canal -- above the facial canal	3	Round window	Internal carotid artery	Internal jugular vein	Tegmen tympani	Anatomy	Ear	b322782f-e59b-423c-a0d1-732d710538e1	single
A patient was admitted epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5%. Lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He devoled hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be –	Hypotension and respiratory depression after epidural anesthesia suggest high spinal anesthesia. High spinal anesthesia, i.e. spinal anesthesia ascending into the cervical levels, can occur following attempted epidural / caudal anesthesia if there is inadverent intrathecal injection. High spinal anesthesia causes severe hypotension, bradycardia, and respiratory insufficiency. Causes of high spinal anesthesia : Administration of excessive dose during spinal anesthesia, Unusual sensitivity or spread of local anesthetic, Failure to reduce standard dose in selected patients (elderly, pregnant, obese or very short), Inadverent intrathecal injection during epidural anesthesia.	4	Allergy to drug administered	Systemic toxicity to drug administered	Patient got vasovagal shock	Drug has entered the subarachnoid space	Anaesthesia	null	cd0d9389-3cd7-40e4-b668-60c5c1dd29f4	multi
The investigation of choice to detect a prolapsed intervertebral disc is?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., MRI MRI is the investigation of choice for P1D because it shows the following structures clearlyo Prolapse of disco Compression of cordo Any problems with the discs above and belowo Canal Stneosiso Associated features like Ligamentum flavum hypertrophy and facetal arthropathy	2	C T Scan	MRI	Myelography	Radiograph	Orthopaedics	Thoracic and Lumbosacral Spine Injuries	6268884d-fead-42ce-a4a5-b79b5b686845	single
Skip lesions are seen in:	Ans is 'b' i.e. Crohn's disease FeaturesUlcerative colitisCrohn's ds* Rectal involvement in > 50%> 90%Rectum spared Distribution of lesionsContinuousSkip lesions* Mucosal appearanceFriable, diffusely involvedCobblestoneappearance Ileal diseaseRare (backwash ileitis)Common* Perianal abcess, fistulasRareCommon* Intestinal strictures & obstructionNot seenCommon* Intestinal fistulasNot seenCommon* Fissures (Radiological)Not seenCommon* UlcersCollar-buttonLinear, cobblestone, fissures* Toxic megacolonRare but more than Crohn's dsVery rare Extraintestinal Manifestation - - Sclerosing pericholangitisCommonRare- Uveitis & Arthritis CommonCommon- Pyoderma gangrenosumCommonRarePathological Features * Depth of inflammationMucosal,superficialTransmural ,deep* Creeping mesentric fatNot seenCommon Fibrous thickening of wallNot seenCommon (lead pipe) PseudopolypsCommonRare GranulomasNot seenCommon** DysplasiaCommonRare Carcinoma10%*Rare	2	Ulcerative colitis	Crohn's disease	Typhoid	Tuberculosis	Surgery	Small Intestine - Crohn's Disease	c86ee3dd-ee6c-4685-bbaf-17139817f1c2	single
Baholin's cyst is caused by :	Ans. is c i.e. Gonococcus Baholin cyst It is the commonest cyst of the vulva.deg The cyst represents dilatation of Baholin glanddeg / duct as a result of fibrosis which follows either infection or trauma. It was formerly believed that the infection was invariably Gonococcaldeg but almost any organism can be responsible. Clinical features : It is often smalldeg, rarely exceeds size of hen's egg. It is painlessdeg, nontenderdeg and fluctuantdeg. Its origin is determined by its position - found on the posteriordeg and middle pa of the labia majusdeg and opens up the base of labium minus. Its inward projection makes the vulvar cleft "S" shaped.deg Complication : It can become painful after secondary infection. Treatment : Simple incision into the cyst followed by marsupilization of the of the cut edges of its wall to those of skin. Note : After menopause Baholin gland cyst and abscesses are uncommon and should raise suspicion of neoplasia.	3	Candida	Anaerobes	Gonococcus	Trichomonas	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	a26b4f9d-9550-4335-a042-b2f5eab00f0e	single
In delirium tremens all of the following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT:	Delirium tremens is the most serious alcohol withdrawal syndrome which begins 3 to 5 days after cessation of drinking and lasts for up to 72 hours. Patients are usually confused and agitated. Other characteristic features includes fever, sweating, tachycardia, hypeension, and hallucinations. Death can result from concomitant infection, pancreatitis, cardiovascular collapse, or trauma. Treatment involves administration of diazepam or lorazepam for tremors and hallucinations, correction of fluid and electrolyte abnormalities, and hypoglycemia. Beta blocker is administered for patients with tachycardia and hypeension. Ref: Greenberg D.A., Aminoff M.J., Simon R.P. (2012). Chapter 4. Confusional States. In D.A. Greenberg, M.J. Aminoff, R.P. Simon (Eds), Clinical Neurology, 8e.	4	Gross tremor	Seen in alcoholic withdrawal	Fits may occur	Clear orientation	Psychiatry	null	e7b98f7e-21af-4e28-bc16-f707f0b71709	multi
In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination,except -	Arsenic is rapidly cleared from the blood and is distributed to various organs and tissues, where it is detectable for prolonged periods. Blood sample is thus of use only in a case of acute poisoning, but not in chronic poisoning. In chronic poisoning arsenic is found in hair, nails, bones, skin etc. and its detection is possible when any of these structures is available - Parikh	4	Nail clippings	Hair samples	Bone biopsy	Blood sample	Forensic Medicine	null	7d31ea5d-f8ce-42c3-837c-49e4632e7af6	multi
Dangerous area of scalp is -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subaponeurotic tissueo The scalp is soft tissue which covers the calvaria of skull. It consists of five layers and can be memorised by a mnemonic using the initial letters of the word. SCALPa) Skinb) Close network of connective tissue (superficial fascia)c) Aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) with occipitofrontalis musclesd) Loose areolar (subaponeurotic) tissuee) Pericranium (outer periosteum of skull)o First three layers are intimately connected and move as one unit, and are called surgical layers of scalp or scalp proper.o Connective tissue (superficial fascia) contains large blood vessels and nerves of the scalp. The walls of the vessels are adherent to the fibrous network, so that when the vessels are tom in an open wound they are unable to retract and produce profuse bleeding. Bleeding can be arrested by pressure against the underlying bone, o Loose subaponeurotic areolar tissue (4th layer) is called dangerous area of scalp because it contains emissary veins through which infection in subaponeurotic space may spread readily to intracranial venous sinuses.	3	Superficialfacia	Aponeurosis	Subaponeurotic tissue	Pericranium	Anatomy	Scalp Face & Temple	cad7d3c6-d99b-4ef7-a8a2-529d3b1e59ff	single
Reservoir of tetanus bacilli is	Ans. b (Soil). (Ref. Ananthanarayan, Microbiology, 4th/pg.245)TETANUS# Caused by Clostridium tetani# Seen following deep or penetrating wound in relatively avascular areas# More prevalent in developing countries# Seen in neonate (tetanus neonaturum) following the use of cow dung on the umbilicus# Microbiology- Gram-positive spore forming rod (Clostridium tetani is a gram-positive anaerobic bacillus)- Typical 'drum-stick' appearance with terminal spore- Widely found in the environment and soil- A Strict anaerobe that produces a powerful exotoxin- The neurotoxin is a powerful exotoxin- Exotoxin is resistant to autoclaving- Exotoxin is not antigenic and repeat infection can occur- Infection produces few signs of local inflammation# Pathogenesis- Germination of spores releases the exotoxin- Toxin affects nervous system and reaches CNS via the peripheral nerves- Acts on presynaptic terminals of inhibitor nerves- Reduces the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (e.g., glycine)- Excess activity of motor neurons produces muscle spasm# Clinical features- Facial muscle spasm produces trismus- Typical facial appearance = 'risus sardonicus'- Back muscle spasm produces opisthotonous- Eventually exhaustion and respiratory failure leads to death- The diagnosis is essentially clinical- Differentiating between contamination and infection on wound swabs is difficult# Prevention:- Tetanus can be prevented by- Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid with booster every 5-10 years- Adequate wound toilet of contaminated wounds- Consider passive immunisation with hyperimmune immunoglobulin# Treatment (of suspected cases)- Passive immunisation with anti-tetanus immunoglobulin- Adequate wound debridement- Intravenous benzyl penicillin- Intensive care support- Despite the use of ITU mortality is about 50%	2	Human	Soil	Water	Hospital waste	Microbiology	Clostridium	3d8fc784-8adf-4369-94e5-8db6b0e12009	single
Which local anesthetic has a shoer duration of action?	Procaine has least duration among the following. Procaine,Bencocaine,chlorprocaine all of them are sho acting LA. <img class="fr-fic fr-dib" style="width: 300px;" src=" />Ref: Katzung 13e pg: 443	2	Lidocaine	Procaine	Bupivacaine	Ropivacaine	Pharmacology	Anesthesia	228c7caa-eb0f-4fd1-9fdd-faf6f6a72d9e	single
What is the risk of an affected individual transmitting an autosomal dominant disease to his/her offspring?	a. 50%(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 593, Ghai 8/e p 641)	1	50%	100%	25%	60%	Pediatrics	Genetics And Genetic Disorders	ac68ad2d-040e-4f57-af4e-81804a55a731	single
Duplex ultrasonography combines:	Ans. B. B-mode imaging and pulse-wave doppler examinationAn objective assessment of the severity of disease is obtained by noninvasive techniques. These include digital pulse volume recordings, doppler flow velocity waveform analysis, duplex ultrasonography (which combines b-mode imaging and pulse-wave doppler examination), segmental pressure measurements, transcutaneous oximetry, stress testing (usually using a treadmill), and tests of reactive hyperemia.	2	A-mode imaging and pulse-wave Doppler examination	B-mode imaging and pulse-wave Doppler examination	M-mode imaging and power Doppler examination	M-mode imaging and waveform analysis	Radiology	Miscellaneous	15233f25-3c48-417e-8344-5be8365dc510	single
Roll back malaria included all except -	Insecticides nets, Strengthening health system, Develop new insecticide,. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 243	4	Insecticides nets	Strengthening health system	Develop new insecticide	Training health workers	Social & Preventive Medicine	Communicable diseases	598f4f67-4221-499a-af24-98e984568df0	multi
Perinatal prevention of mother to child, which of the following steps are useful –	null	4	Elective Caesarian section	Avoid breast feeding	ART prophylaxis	All of these	Pediatrics	null	064c957c-06fb-44d7-afa2-a07c4222d50a	multi
Charcot&;s triad Except	Seen in ascending cholangitis, stone in the CBD due to impaction causes obstruction and stasis. obstruction causes jaundice and pain, stasis leads to infection, bacteremia and fever Reference SRB edition: 5 page:651	4	Pain	Fever	Jaundice	Anaemia	Surgery	G.I.T	3f6e5fc0-5b8e-4abc-b9d0-cf274e140b90	multi
Nasal swabs preserved in -	Ans- C. Ref- Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Fifth Edition - Krishan Vij Explanation - Cocaine can be recovered by sampling from recent injection sites, or by swabs from the nasal mucosa. Brain is an excellent source for its detection where cocaine may be found not only in dopamine-rich areas such as caudate, putamen, and nucleus accumbens, but also in other extrastriatal regions.	3	Drowning	Anaphylaxis	Cocaine poisoning	None	Forensic Medicine	Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques	cfd372d5-768e-4263-af02-709bf463901d	multi
Who are NOT benificaiaries of ICDS scheme -	parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition * major beneficiaries of ICDS are pregnant women,nursing mothers,other women 15-45years,children less than 3years,children in age group 3-6years,adolescent girls11-18years.	2	Adoslescent females	School going children	Pregnant females	Lactating females	Social & Preventive Medicine	obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics	5a1522e2-e76c-4743-9bc9-c0be1c6a6d9f	single
Which of the following is the best method for radiation protection of the operator?	Operators of radiographic equipment should use barrier protection when possible, and barriers should contain a leaded glass window to enable the operator to view the patient during exposure. When shielding is not possible, the operator should stand at least two meters from the tube head and out of the path of the primary beam (ADA 2006). White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 8th edition	1	Standing behind a lead barrier	Wearing a lead apron	Following the "position and distance" rule	Standing 6 feet away from the X-ray tube during exposure	Radiology	null	ee063659-68b1-4204-989d-1be644af8b1d	single
PPIs are use used in	Ans. is'd'i.e., All of the above PPI are the DOC for peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal), GERD, ZE syndrome, prevention of aspiration pneumonia and NSAID induced gastric / duodenal ulcers. Note - PGEI analogue (Misoprostol) is specific drug for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but DOC is PPI.	4	ZE syndrome	NSAIDs induced peptic ulcer	Gastroesophageal reflux	All of the above	Pharmacology	null	0369f832-2a95-4861-be34-2aa26b76ce63	multi
Treatment of choice for endogenous depression with suicidal tendency -	null	3	Lithium	Chlorpromazine	ECT	Psychoanalysis	Psychiatry	null	80ad821e-76dd-4b14-a138-f1bbf48c0c1c	single
True about nenatal necrotizing enterocolitis ?	Ans. is d i.e., All of the above Neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis Neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis is the most common life threatening emergency of gastrointestinal tract in the new born period. o The disease is characterized by various degree of mucosal or transmural necrosis of the intestine. o It occurs in premature or small for gestational age (LBW) infants. Clinical manifestations of necrotizing enterocolitis can be devided into 3 stages : Stage I : o Unstable temperature, apnea, bradycardia, lethargy. Mild abdominal distension, vomiting Suspected blood in stool. Stage II : o Above signs + Bowel sounds are diminished, with or without abdominal tenderness Definite o In more severe cases : Metabolic acidosis and mild thrombocytopenia o X-Ray : Pneumatosis intestinalis and dilation of intesting. Stage III : o Above signs + infant has low BP, bradycardia, apnea, acidosis, DIC, anuria Advanced o Frank signs of peritonitis with abdominal tenderness, distension and erythema of abdominal wall. o X-Ray : shows Pneumoperitonium.	4	Abdominal distension	Pneumoperitoneum	Decreased bowel sounds	All of the above	Pediatrics	null	f1556b41-95c2-4263-bd59-bcc5772fb378	multi
When do we have to sta antibiotics to prevent post-operative infection?	Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1 hour before surgery & continue after surgery Prophylactic antibiotics are administered before the skin incision is made. Repeat dosing occurs at an appropriate interval, usually 3 hours for abdominal cases or twice the half-life of the antibiotic. Perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis generally is not continued beyond the day of surgery.	4	2 days before surgery	After surgery	1 week before surgery	1 hour before surgery & continue after surgery	Surgery	null	0a4eec6c-20c9-47f8-8b2e-5b3e080d143d	single
Succinyl CoA is formed by all except ?	Histidine, proline, glutamine, arginineGlutamatea a-ketoglutaratelsoleucine, methionine, valineSuccinyl CoATyrosine, phenylalanineFumarateTryptophanAlanine a PyruvateHydroxyproline, serine, cysteine, threonine, glycinePyruvate	1	Proline	Isoleucine	Methionine	Valine	Biochemistry	null	a2a52c05-5592-41e5-85ea-f555f028e2af	multi
Causes of female pseudohermaphroditism –	Ambiguous genitalia (Hermaphroditism) Ambiguous genitalia is defined as a discrepancy between the external genitals and internal gonads. They can be categorized : - Female pseudohermaphroditism Male pseudohermaphroditism True hermaphroditism Female pseudohermaphroditism. Genotype is XX Gonads are ovaries External genitalia is virilized (male differentiation). As there is no Mullarian inhibiting factor, Mullerian duct develops into uterus tubes and ovary. But due to the presence of androgen external genitalia are virilized. Causes are: Maternal virilizing tumour → Arrhenoblastoma 21 hydroxylase deficiency 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency Maternal medications with androgen	2	17–alpha hydroxylase deficiency	21–alpha hydroxylase deficiency	Mixed gonadal dysgenesis	All of the above	Pediatrics	null	9e2abbad-3677-4e88-911d-bc589cb9e276	multi
A patient of multiple myeloma presents with bony lesions. What is the best marker for prognosis of the disease -	null	3	Bone marrow plasma cell	Serum calcium level	Beta 2 microglobulin	Beta microglobulin	Medicine	null	30310f9a-a3d0-4050-af95-3054494bad5a	single
All are tests for sperm except -	Luminol test is used for blood stain (luminol spray). Florence test, barberio's test and acid phosphatase test are used for semen.	2	Florence test	Luminol test	Barberio test	Acid phosphatase	Forensic Medicine	null	8e212700-d6d9-4bd8-8a2e-64de20462d1a	multi
All of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous inflammation are true, except:	Tuberculosis is usually associated with caseating granulomatosis. Xanthogranulomatous inflammation is not seen in tuberculosis. Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 6th edn/page 977.	4	Foam cells are seen	Yellow nodules are seen	Multinucleated Giant cells are seen	Assoicated with Tuberculosis	Pathology	null	7c3da243-97b2-41e7-badc-a815873a7565	multi
Which of the following has the worst prognosis	null	2	Cholecystectomy	Splencetomy	Nephrectomy	Appendicetomy	Medicine	null	9482e696-a5ff-4978-a64a-bbdf63efae66	single
Single pelvic ala is present in:	Ans. B. Naegele's pelvisNaegele's pelvis - Ala on one side is absenta. Robert's pelvis - Ala on both sides are absentb. Osteomalacic pelvis - the shape of inlet is triradiatec. Rachitic pelvis - shape of inlet is reniformd. The expected date of delivery can be calculated by Naegele's rule	2	Robert's pelvis	Naegele' s pelvis	Osteomalacia pelvis	Rickets pelvis	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Contracted Pelvis	1eff2d94-6a94-40d2-a570-f43fa2bb1823	single
Skin scrapping & KOH mounting is done for ?	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fungus Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infection Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infection depends on : ? l. Recognition of the pathogen in tissue microscopy : - Tissue specimens, such as skin scraping, are generally examined as wet mounts after treatment with 10% KOH. KOH (alkali) digests cells and other tissue materials, enabling the fungus elements to be seen clearly. Periodic acid schiff (PAS) and methanamine silver are two most commonly used stains for the demonstration of fungal elements in tissue sections. Culture : - Culture media used most common in mycology is Sabauraud's glucose agar. Serology : - ELISA complement fixation test, Immunodiffusion. PCR : - Detection of fungal DNA is clinical material.	3	Leprosy	Varicella	Fungus	HSV	Skin	null	fe7ed978-49ad-4ada-b4dd-d45073d5de0d	single
Dermatophytes can affect: March 2012	Ans: D i.e. All of the above Three genera of dermatophytes infect skin and appendages: Trichophyton (skin, hairs and nails), Microsporum (skin and hairs) and Epidermophyton (skin and nails)	4	Hair	Nail	Scalp	All of the above	Skin	null	574fcc62-1ac9-4c3b-bfda-3763b451b2ff	multi
Bradykinin causes:	Bradykinin acts in the early stage of inflammation and its effects include: Smooth muscle contraction Vasodilatation Increased vascular permeability Pain. Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Page: 126	2	Vasoconstriction	Pain at the site of inflammation	Bronchodilation	Decreased vascular permeability	Microbiology	null	15968b4b-52d6-43b3-84bf-2d386d836f5b	single
Which of the following is Autosomal Dominant:	Answer A (Retinoblastoma) : Retinoblastoma presents dominant inheritance with variable penetrance	1	Retinoblastoma	Ataxia telangiectasia	Bloom's syndrome	Xeroderma pigmentosa	Medicine	null	f74b69c5-cf80-4bc3-9a47-16d672253970	single
True statement about Ribozyme	The substrate for ribozymes is often an RNA molecule, and it may even be pa of the ribozyme itself Ribozymes vary greatly in size. A self-splicing group I intron may have more than 400 nucleotides. The hammerhead ribozyme consists of two RNA strands with only 41 nucleotides in all. As with protein enzymes, the three-dimensional structure of ribozymes is impoant for function. Ribozymes are inactivated by heating above their melting temperature or by addition of denaturing agents or complementary oligonucleotides, which disrupt normal base-pairing patterns. Ribozymes can also be inactivated if essential nucleotides are changed. Example: Hammerhead ribozyme: These segments are called hammerhead ribozymes because their secondary structures are shaped like the head of a hammer. The hammerhead ribozyme is a metalloenzyme; Mg+2 ions are required for activity. The phosphodiester bond at the site of self-cleavage is indicated by an arrow In Tetrahymena, the pre-rRNA molecule contains an intron that is removed by self-splicing (in the presence of guanosine, GMP, GDP or GTP) without the need for involvement of any protein. This was the first ribozyme discovered but many have since been repoed.	1	RNA molecular that acts catalytically to change itself or another RNA molecule	t-RNA	m-RNA	Ribosome	Anatomy	All India exam	4d05d7eb-ed60-4e83-95ef-a8500602d6a3	multi
Majority of patients with HNPCC have mutations in ?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., MSH 2 Hereditary Nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is caused by inherited mutations in genes that encode proteins responsible for the detection, excision, and repair of errors that occur during DNA replication.	2	MSH I	MSH 2	MSH3	MSH4	Pathology	null	7db5f54f-335a-4352-8ae0-824723afa52b	single
One year old male child with cat\'s eye reflex and raised IOT –	Leukocoria with raised IOT is characteristic of retinoblastoma.	3	Toxplasma gondii infection	Toxcara canis	Retinoblastoma	Retinopathy of prematurity	Ophthalmology	null	4b2ec11b-1b45-47c3-8244-3fe53bc209cb	single
All of the following drugs are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia, EXCEPT:	Beta agonists are used for shifting potassium into the cells in patients with hyperkalemia with ECG changes. Drugs used to treat hyperkalemia in patients with ECG changes are: Intravenous calcium gluconate (stabilize cardiac membrane) IV insulin, beta 2 agonists, IV NaHCO3 (shift potassium into cells) Methods of potassium removal are: Dialysis Diuretics Cation exchange resins In patients with hyperkalemia without ECG changes: Remove offending agents Use dialysis, diuretics and/or cation exchange resins Ref; Civetta, Taylor, & Kirby's Critical Care edited by Andrea Gabrielli, page 622.	4	Calcium gluconate	Sodium bicarbonate	Intravenous infusion of glucose with insulin	Beta blockers	Medicine	null	84e9674d-79f1-459e-905f-f2f5161b3ab1	multi
Haverhill fever is caused by ?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., Streptobacillus moniliformis Streptobacillus moniliformis causes rat-bite fever in humans.It enters the body through the wound caused by the rat bite.The infection also occurs by the ingestion of water, milk or food contaminated with rat excreta. In these cases, the infection is known as 'Haverhill fever'.Clinical symptoms include fever, rash and ahralgia.	2	Baonella henselae	Streptobacillus moniliformis	Eikenella corrodens	Coccidioides	Microbiology	null	2b500a19-8e08-4492-a91d-205ec99f3ae2	single
Primordial germ cells originate in the	Primordial germ cells originate in the epiblast Primordial germ cells (PGCs), also known as primitive sex cells originate in the epiblast at the caudal end of the primitive streak. PGCs are the precursors of gametes in both genders. PGCs arise in the epiblast during the 2nd week of development. They pass through the primitive streak during gastrulation and reach the wall of the yolk sac. They migrate from the yolk sac at the 4th week and reach the developing gonads by the end of the 5th week. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 184	2	Gonads at the 4th week of embryonic develpment	Epiblast at 2nd week of embryonic development	Gonads at 2nd month of embryonic development	Yolk sac at 4th week of embryonic development	Anatomy	All India exam	87aa9a79-406d-4874-b3f7-975a24837f22	single
Which bacteria is known as pfeiffer's bacillus	H influenzae - pfeiffer's bacillus M pneumoniae - Eaton's agent B pseudomallei - Whitmore bacillus.	1	Hemophilus Influenzae	Mycoplasma pneumoniae	Burkholderia pseudomallei	Hemophilus aegyptius	Microbiology	null	bea6298f-bdf9-4a43-97f8-6fe50593273b	multi
Lutembacker syndrome includes all except-	Ans. is 'c' i.e., VSD * Lutembacher syndrome is defined as a combination of mitral stenosis and a left-to-right shunt at the atrial level.* Typically, the left-to-right shunt is an atrial septal defect (ASD) of the ostium secundum variety.	3	Mitral stenosis	ASD	VSD	Left to right shunt	Pediatrics	C.V.S.	4f0187e1-7c09-4350-95a5-12f317584fad	multi
Which of the following drug is used postop to reverse the effect of heparin used intraoperatively in cardiac surgery?	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protamine sulfate Protamine Sulfate* It is a strongly basic, low molecular weight protein obtained from the sperm of certain fish.* Given i.v.it neutralises heparin weight for weight, i.e. 1 mg is needed for every 100 U of heparin.* For the treatment of heparin induced bleeding, due consideration must be given to the amount of heparin that may have been degraded by the patient's body in the mean time.* However, it is needed infrequently because theaction of heparin disappears by itself in a fewhours, and whole blood transfusion is needed toreplenish the loss when bleeding occurs.* Protamine is more commonly used when heparin action needs to be terminated rapidly, e.g. after cardiac or vascular surgery.	1	Protamine sulfate	Vitamin K	Tranexamic acid	Factor VIII concentrate	Pharmacology	Hematology	a6eaf5c2-dcd6-4730-9311-6269521179c4	single
An infant presents with irritability, increased tone of extremities and recurrent seizures. Tissue examination reveals globoid cells in parenchyma around blood vessels. What is the most probable diagnosis?	(Refer: Nelson’ss textbook of pediatrics, 19th edition, pg no: 2071-2072) Krabbe disease (KD)/globoid cell leukodystrophy Autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder. Characterized by severe myelin loss and the presence of globoid bodies in the white matter. Deficiency of lysosomal enzyme galactocerebroside β- galactosidase (galactosylceramidase). Accumulation of galactocerebroside causes activation of an alternative catabolic pathway removes a fatty acid from this molecule, generating galactosylphingosine. In patients with KD, galactocerebroside cannot be metabolized during the normal turnover or myelin because of deficiency of galactocerebroside β-galactosidase. Because oligodendroglial cells are responsible for the elaboration of myelin, their loss results in myelin breakdown, thus producing additional galactocerebroside and causing a vicious circle of myelin destruction.	2	Taysach’s disease	Krabbe disease	Adrenoleukodystrophy	Kanavan’s disease	Unknown	null	04a5989f-04ea-47ed-abd8-91f71f156997	single
Which of the following antibodies is most frequently seen in Antiphospholipid Syndrome ?	Anti- beta 2 glycoprotein antibodies are the most frequently observed antibodies in patient with APLA syndrome amongst the options provided	4	Beta 2 microglobulin antibody	Anti-nuclear antibody	Anti-centromere antibody	Anti- beta 2 glycoprotein antibody	Pathology	null	97355d3b-49b7-4ba6-a1d4-c7949e79cc22	single
In extra amniotic 2nd trimester medicolegal termination of pregnancy, which of the following is used?	Ans. is a, i.e. Ethacrydine lactateRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 173Ethacridine lactate is drug of choice for extra-amniotic instillationAvailable as injection Emcredil (0.1%)Foleys catheter is introduced into extra-amniotic or extraovular space and bulb is inflated by 10-20 ml of Ethacridine solution.Dose is calculated as 10 ml/week of gestation upto maximum of 150 mlCatheter is left for 6 hours.Uterine action begins in 16-18 hours.In 30% cases abortion is incomplete and requires oxytocin drip or supplementation with prostaglandin.	1	Ethacrydine lactate	Prostaglandin	Hypertonic saline	Glucose	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Abortion	4cd5dbd4-2d94-4c6b-9ec8-031ed42cc3f3	single
Advantage of LSCS are all EXCEPT:	Lateral extension REF: Dutta 6th ed p. 595 ADVATNAGES OF LSCS Less blood loss Perfect apposition Less peritoneal infections Less morbid Better apposition of margins Minimal wound hematoma Less chance of gutter formation Lateral extension of the incision leading to hemorrhage is a complication or disadvantage of LSCS	1	Lateral extension	Less blood loss	Minimal wound hematoma	Less chance of gutter formation	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	f29d8377-d8ae-4044-9809-d11f54318a8f	multi
A 48 year old woman presented with self inflicted injuries, auditory hallucinations, and delusional disorder. A routine MRI revealed a tumor invloving the posterior limb of the internal capsule and the structure medial to it. Which of the following structures are likely to be affected?	The thalamus lies medial to the posterior limb of the internal capsule. The internal capsule seperates the thalamus and the caudate nucleus from the lentiform nucleus (globus pallidus+ putamen). It is V-shaped in horizontal section and is divided into the anterior limb, genu, posterior limb, retrolenticular pa, and sublenticular pa. The anterior limb is located between the head of the caudate nucleus medially and lentiform nucleus laterally. The posterior limb is located between the thalamus medially and the lentiform nucleus laterally. Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno; 394,395	3	Globus pallidus	Putamen	Thalamus	Caudate nucleus	Anatomy	Brain	2b79c0b3-ea11-4722-8f63-d00ad72817b7	multi
An infant present with bilateral white pupillary reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is:	Ans. Lamellar cataract	2	Cataracto Centralis Pulverulenta	Lamellar cataract	Coronary cataract	Posterior polar cataract	Ophthalmology	null	5f65c276-d57a-42fc-86bc-e1018d053568	single
All of the following agents decreases bone resorption in osteoporosis, Except -	A drug used in osteoporosis Inhibit resorption: - Bisphosphonates, denosumab, cinacalcet, calcitonin, estrogen, SERMS, gallium nitrate. Stimulateformation : -Teriparatide, calcium, calcitrial, fluorides,. Both actions : - Strontium, renelate. Drugs decreasing bone resorption initially increase bone mineral density (BMI), but it reaches a plateau in 2-3 yrs because bone formation also decreases. On the other hand, drugs promoting bone formation can increase BMD through the period of treatment.	4	Alendronate	Etidronate	Strontium	Teriparatide	Orthopaedics	null	90b86000-49f9-4b40-8cd9-d3275276c877	multi
Irradiation can be used to sterilize all except	null	4	Bone graft	Suture	Artificial tissue graft	Bronchoscope	Microbiology	null	ac3e4642-0fae-4ffe-af75-9e696dfe9ce9	multi
A patient presents with secondaries to the adrenals. The most common site of primary is -	null	1	Lung	Kidney	Breast	Stomach	Medicine	null	46b29620-bbc0-47f3-9d24-13436ec36bf1	single
When an association between two variable is explained by a third variable due to indirect association. It is called as?	.confounding bias is used as a third variable to explain the association between two variables caused due to indirect association ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22nd edition,pg no 71	2	Cognitive bias	Confounding bias	Berkessonian bias	Indirect bias	Social & Preventive Medicine	Epidemiology	65cbc444-68a6-42b7-9999-89f5f073ef0f	multi
In PML, all of the following are seen except -	Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML, APL) is a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML), a cancer of the white blood cells. In APL, there is an abnormal accumulation of immature granulocytes called promyelocytes. The disease is characterized by a chromosomal translocation involving the retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARa or RARA) gene and is distinguished from other forms of AML by its responsiveness to all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA; also known as tretinoin) therapy. Acute promyelocytic leukemia was first characterized in 1957 by French and Norwegian physicians as a hyperacute fatal illness,with a median survival time of less than a week.Today, prognoses have drastically improved; 10-year survival rates are estimated to be approximately 80-90% according to one study Acute promyelocytic leukemia is characterized by a chromosomal translocation involving the retinoic acid receptor-alpha gene on chromosome 17 (RARA). In 95% of cases of APL, retinoic acid receptor-alpha (RARA) gene on chromosome 17 is involved in a reciprocal translocation with the promyelocytic leukemia gene (PML) on chromosome 15, a translocation denoted as t(15;17)(q24;q21). The RAR receptor is dependent on retinoic acid for regulation of transcription. Eight other rare gene rearrangements have been described in APL fusing RARA to promyelocytic leukemia zinc finger (PLZF also known as ZBTB16), nucleophosmin(NPM1), nuclear matrix associated (NUMA1), signal transducer and activator of transcription 5b (STAT5B), protein kinase A regulatory subunit 1a (PRKAR1A), factor interacting with PAPOLA and CPSF1 (FIP1L1), BCL6 corepressor (BCOR) or oligonucleotide/oligosaccharide-binding fold containing 2A (OBFC2A also known as NABP1) genes. Some of these rearrangements are ATRA-sensitive or have unknown sensitivity to ATRA because they are so rare; STAT5B/RARA and PLZF/RARA are known to be resistant to ATRA. The fusion of PML and RARA results in expression of a hybrid protein with altered functions. This fusion protein binds with enhanced affinity to sites on the cell's DNA, blocking transcription and differentiation of granulocytes. It does so by enhancing interaction of nuclear co-repressor (NCOR) molecule and histone deacetylase (HDAC). Although the chromosomal translocation involving RARA is believed to be the initiating event, additional mutations are required for the development of leukemia. RAR-a/PLZF gene fusion produces a subtype of APL that is unresponsive to tretinoin therapy and less responsive to standard anthracycline chemotherapy hence leading to poorer long-term outcomes in this subset of patients Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 922	3	Retinoic acid is used in treatment	15/17 translocation may be seen	CD 15/34 both seen in same cell	Associated with Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DFVC)	Medicine	Haematology	e6564f44-1b2f-49ac-8ec3-910f90c8feee	multi
Which of the following statements about facilitated diffusion is true?	Ans. (b) It requires a carrier proteinIf Diffusion happens without energy but with the help of carrier protein, it's called facilitated diffusionOne good example of a substance that use facilitated diffusion carrier protein is GLUCOSE transport using Glucose Transporters (GLUT)	2	It is a form of active transport	It requires a carrier protein	Rate of transport is proportionate to the concentration gradient	Requires creatine phosphate	Physiology	General	df554c6f-23aa-441e-b247-e0d197b68fb5	multi
A 32-year-old patient has decreased pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities, atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of his hand, and brisk deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremity. Your diagnosis?	The patient is an adult with decreased pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities, atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of his hand, and brisk deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremity. This constellation of clinical findings strongly suggests syringomyelia, which most commonly affects the cervical spinal cord. Syringomyelia refers to a fluid-filled space within the cervical spinal cord that produces (1) cervical cord enlargement, best visualized with magnetic resonance imaging; (2) cape-like neurologic abnormalities involving the shoulders and upper extremities; (3) decreased pain and temperature sensation from involvement of the crossed lateral spinothalamic tracts, with preservation of light touch and proprioception; (4) atrophy of the small muscles of the hands from anterior horn cell involvement, simulating amyotrophic lateral sclerosis; (5) involvement of the lateral coicospinal tract with upper motor neuron findings; (6) Horner's syndrome, consisting of pupillary constriction, lid lag, and anhidrosis; (7) and associations with Arnold-Chiari malformation and Dandy-Walker cysts. Regarding the other choices: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis involves motor neurons producing upper and lower motor neuron disease. Sensory findings are not present. Multiple sclerosis has sensory and motor deficits. Subacute combined degeneration occurs in vitamin B12 deficiency and involves the dorsal columns and the lateral coicospinal tract. Guillain-Barre syndrome is an ascending paralysis without the type of sensory deficits described in this patient. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 3180,3180f	3	Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis	Multiple sclerosis	Syringomyelia	Subacute combined degeneration	Medicine	C.N.S	b8ea2eb5-d55c-44d3-acc8-3c4cc333a537	single
Which sinus is the last sinus to appear radiologically on X-ray?	Ans. is'c'i.e., Frontal sinus[Ref Textbook Of The Ear, Nose And Throat By De Soum, C. Et Al. p 394)	3	Maxillary sinus	Sphenoid sinus	Frontal sinus	Ethmoidal air cells	ENT	null	53ec7325-9570-424f-b6ce-323bc687e29e	multi
Blood group antigens chemically are	Ans is 'b' i.e.,Glycoprotein The ABO antigens are determined to be glycoproteins and glycolipids.	2	Carbohydrate	Glycoprotein	Phospholipids	Polysaccharide	Pathology	null	744d2f92-1604-4d76-812f-b1645aa394cd	multi
Lactiferous duct of breast contraction is due to:	Ans. C. Oxytocin* Oxytocin primarily results in stimulation of two specific types of muscular contraction:* Uterine muscular contraction during parturition* Breast lactiferous duct myoepithelial contraction during milk let down reflex.A Brief on Breast Functional Anatomy* The areola is central, pigmented portion of breast with a diameter of about 2.5cm.* Accessory glands located around the periphery of the areola are Montgomery glands (they can secrete milk).* The nipple accommodates about 15-20 lactiferous ducts and their openings.* Each milk duct (lactiferous duct) dilates to form lactiferous sinus at about 5-10mm away from its opening in the nipple. Lactiferous sinus acts as reservoir of milk.* The lining epithelium of the duct near the opening is stratified squamous. Each alveolus is lined by columnar epithelium where milk secretion occurs.* Myoepithelial cells are the network of branching longitudinal striated cells which surround the alveoli and the smaller ducts. There is a dense network of capillaries surrounding the alveoli. These are situated between the basement membrane and epithelial lining.* Contraction of these cells (in response to oxytocin) squeezes the alveoli and ejects the milk into the larger duct	3	Progesterone	Estrogen	Oxytocin	Prolactin	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Endocrinology in Relation to Reproduction	22100851-7213-46be-8a93-ec92d382a966	single
A patient presents to the emergency depament with uniocular diplopia. Examination with oblique illumination shows golden crescent while . examination with co-axial illumination show a dark crescent line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -	Ectopia lentis is a displacement or malposition of the eye's crystalline lens from its normal location. A paial dislocation of a lens is termed lens subluxation or subluxated lens; a complete dislocation of a lens is termed lens luxation or luxated lens. Uniocular diplopia is due to paial aphakia. Edge of subluxated lens is seen as dark crescent line on distant direct ophthalmoscopy. Shining bright golden crescent on slit-lamp examination. Phacodonesis may be seen. Ref: AK Khurana 6thE pg217	4	Lenticonus	Coloboma	Microspherophakia	Ectopia lentis	Ophthalmology	Lens	56417a1c-f476-4a6f-a472-fb940c723d0f	single
A young patient is hospitalized with petechiae of oral mucous membrane, marginal gingival hemorrhage and with a platelet count of 45,000/ cc. The BT and Clot Retraction time are increased, RBC and TLC are normal. He is suffering from:	null	2	Infectious mononucleosis	Thrombocytopenic purpura	Leukemia	Hemophilia	Pathology	null	d06229d8-762d-4b07-b6d8-2280092ca138	single
The monoclonal antibody useful in the treatment of PNH is:	By blocking the complement cascade downstream of C5, eculizumab abolishes complement-dependent intravascular hemolysis in all PNH patients, and significantly improves their quality of life. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 884	2	Rituximab	Eculizumab	Infliximab	Adalimumab	Medicine	null	25f77ff2-e256-4ec0-85be-278ca275702e	single
Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not complaint with therapy –	This question is straight forward; spiramycin is in pregnancy is given for toxoplasmosis. Prenatally acquired T.gondii may infect the brain and retina of the fetus and can cause chorioretinitis, intracerebral calcifications, and hydrocephalus. Cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus may also occur with congenital CMV and HSV infection, but spiramycin is not given for these infections.	2	Rubella	Toxoplasmosis	CMV	Herpes	Pediatrics	null	93ddb4e1-f815-45b3-9a0e-feee8735f398	single
Most malignant tumor of salivary glands -	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoid cystic carcinoma	3	Pleomorphic adenoma	Wahin tumor	Adenoid cystic carcinoma	Acinic cell tumor	Pathology	null	de47747d-dbcf-4f51-8921-b867f434cec9	single
On MRI, the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:	Myelomalacia is a increased T2w signal in the spinal cord where the spinal cord is atrophic with gliosis producing small and bright appearence of spinal cord	2	Myelodysplasia	Myelomalacia	Myeloschisis	Cord tumors	Radiology	Musculoskeletal Radiology	f7320c8f-3489-43db-8a71-cd0df79acafd	single
The graph shown in the illustration is known as:	Ans. B. Cystometrograma. Cystometry, also known as flow cystometry, is a clinical diagnostic procedure used to evaluate bladder function. Specifically,b. it measures contractile force of the bladder when voiding. The resulting chart generated from cystometric analysis is known as a CYSTOMETROGRAM (CMG), which plots volume of liquid emptied from bladder against intravesical pressure.c. Cystometric analysis is used to evaluate the bladder's capacity to contract and expel urine. It helps determine the source of urinary problems. A normal CMG effectively rules out primary vesica! dysfunction.d. It is used as a component for diagnosis of various disorders including urinary tract infections, multiple sclerosis, stroke, spinal cord injury, urethral obstruction, and overactive bladder, among others.e. The procedure is relatively short, ranging from fifteen minutes to an hour in duration. It involves the insertion of one or two catheters into an emptied bladder through the urethra.f. In the two catheter method, one catheter transfers liquid while the other is a manometer (pressure sensor).g. In the single catheter method, a specialized catheter performs both functions.h. An additional rectal catheter may also be placed for additional data. The bladder will then be filled with saline and the patient's awareness of the event will be queried.i. The patient will often be asked to note when presence of liquid is felt, when the bladder feels full and when the urgency to void is felt.j. The patient is then asked to void, and both flow and pressure are recorded. These are plotted against each other to create the cystometrogram.k. The primary results of cystometric analysis is the cystometrogram. The x-axis is the volume of liquid and the y-axis is the intraluminal pressure of the bladder.l. In normal patients, the plot is a series of spikes whose local minimums form a non-linear curve resembling an exponential growth curve. The spikes correspond to the bladder contractions associated with the micturition reflex.m. The curve formed by the bottom of the plot reflects the level of pressure necessary to void. In normal patients, the first couple hundred milliliters of urine flow with minimal applied pressure. Increasing pressure is necessary to void 200-300 milliliters of urine. Beyond that, the pressure necessary to void additional urine rises sharply.n. As with any catheterization, the primary risk is of urinary tract infection. As a result, the procedure is contraindicated in any patient with an active UTI because the results may be skewed and the infection may spreado. There is also the potential for trauma to the bladder and urethra, which may result in hematuria (blood in the urine).	2	Nephrogram	Cystometrogram	Pyelograph	None of the above	Physiology	Kidneys and Body Fluids	466020eb-8751-4f00-9dde-aff3b276daeb	multi
Perineal body muscles include all of the following except?	Ans. is 'd' i.e., IliacusTen muscles of perineum converge and interlace in the perineal body -A) Two unpaired - (i) External anal sphincter, (ii) Fibres of longitudinal muscle coat of anal canal.B) Four paired:- (i) Bulbospongiosus, (ii) Superficial transverse perenei, (iii) Deep transversus perenei, (iv) Levator ani.In females, sphincter urethrovaginalis is also attached here.	4	External anal sphincter	Levator ani	Deep transverse perenei	Iliacus	Anatomy	null	6cf1864e-124c-4d5a-8a0f-051938567538	multi
Phobia is defined as -	Ans. is 'b' i.e., Excessive unreasonable fear about a specific situation o Phobia is persistent and morbid fear of specific situation, object or activity.Phobic disorderso Phobia is persistent and morbid fear of specific situation, object or activity. The fear is morbid because : - a) The fear is irrational: The objects or situations do not produce fear in normal persons.b )The fear is out of proportion to the dangerousness perceived that the affected person avoids the situation permanently.c) Patient is unable to control the fear and is very distressed by it.o The common types of phobia are: -AgoraphobiaThis is an example of irrational fear of situations. It is the commonest type of phobia encountered in clinical practice.It is characterized by an irrational fear of being in places away from familiar setting of home and patient believes that he cannot escape from these places, to a safer place (usually home). This fear results in avoidance of these places which include public places, stores, crowd, travelling alone in bus, train or plane, Theaters, Tunnels, Bridge, standing in line small enclosed rooms or lifts.The patient is afraid of all the places or situations from where escape may be perceived to be difficult if he suddenly develops embrassing or incapaciating symptoms. These embrassing or incapaciating symptoms are the classical symptoms of panic. A full-blown panic attack may occur (agoraphobia with panic disorder) or only a few symptoms (like dizziness or tachycardia) may occur (agoraphobia without panic disorder).Social phobiaIn social phobia there is irrational fear of one or more social or performance situations in which the person is concerned about negative evaluation or scrutiny by others, for example : Public speaking; writing/drinking/ eating in public; using public lavatories.Feared social or performance situations may produce anxiety- symptoms, even a panic attack. Therefore, feared social or performance situations are avoided.Specific (simple) phobiaThese are phobias limited to highly specific situations or objects, for example.i) Claustrophobia : - Fear of closed spacesviii) Mysophobia : - Fear of dirt & germsii) Acro/Aerophobia : - Fear of high placesix) Erythrophobia : - Fear of blushingiii) Zoophobia : - Fear of animalsx) Sitophobia : - Fear of eatingiv) Pyrophobia: - Fear of firexi) Ailurophobia : - Fear of catsv) Xenophobia : - Fear of strangersxii) Sitaphobia Fear of dogsvi) AlgophobiaFears of painxiii) Hydrophobia Fear of watervii) Thanatophobia : - Fear of death	2	Palpitation on thinking about a definite entity	Excessive unreasonable fear about a specific situation	Perception without stimulation	Altered perception	Psychiatry	Specific Phobia	fbd2b85b-061b-4208-91d5-eed33365169f	single
Carbohydrates malabsorption is detected by:	Breath hydrogen test: used to identify the specific carbohydrate (lactose, sucrose, fructose, or glucose) that is malabsorbed. Ex: Lactose, if not absorbed in the small intestine, reaches the colon, where it is fermented to sho-chain organic acids, releasing hydrogen that is detected in the lactose breath test Rapid urease test: for H. pylori	1	Breath hydrogen test	Nitrogen breath test	Fecal nitrogen	Rapid urease test	Pediatrics	Disorders of Gastrointestinal System Including Diarrhea	baf02112-f74d-4aaa-b5c7-131c7515a27c	single
Shy, self oriented and relationship problems are seen in which personality disorder:	Persons with Schizoid personality disorder will be shy, isolated and uncomfortable with human interactions & hence relationship problems.	1	Schizoid personality disorder	Paranoid personality disorder	Borderline personality disorder	Antisocial personality disorder	Psychiatry	null	96c51d5d-c0d5-45f2-b6fe-f796860f1d0f	single
Best test for detecting seminal stain is:	Image 1.- p30 test (Best test for seminal fluid is microscopy.) Image 2 -Barberio's test Image3-Florence test Image 4-Acid phosphatase test Some hot points for Blood Stain and Semen1. For identification of a blood stain the most reliable test is Spectroscopic test.2. Screening bloodstain --> presence of enzyme Peroxidase.3. Benzidine test has been banned due to carcinogenic effect.4. Takayama reagent is used in Hemochromogen.5. positive Kastle Mayer test -->a pink stain colour.6. Positive cases of Teichmann's test--> Dark brown rhombic crystals7. Species identification of a bloodstain -->Precipitin test.8. The best method to detect disputed paternity -->DNA fingerprinting.9. Group specific substance are not found in CSF.10. Best specimen for DNA fingerprinting in a living person blood preserved with EDTA.11. Best post-moem tissue sample for DNA fingerprinting in a decomposed body bone marrow.12. Tests for an old blood stain -->Benzidine test.13. Brain-mapping is---> lie-detection test.14. The drug used for narco-analysis --> Pentothal.15. eeg is used in Brain fingerprinting16. Semen has luminescence in UV light.17. Florence test produces choline iodide crystals.18. Barberio's test produces sperm in picrate crystals.19. Acid phosphatase levels in semen are > 100 Bodansky units.	1	<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />	<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />	<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />	<img style="max-width: 100%" src=" />	Forensic Medicine	FMT Q Bank	8050229a-45c2-4328-9569-d00da3b8f270	single
Grade I benign prostate with outflow obstruction is best treated with -	• MC indication for surgery is symptoms interfering with quality of life (bothersome symptoms and symptoms of BOO). • TURP (Gold standard) : −− Cystoscopic removal of strips of prostatic tissue using diathermy loop. Two techniques; NESBIT technique (preferred maver mayer technique) −− Best irrigant fluid is 1.5% glycine (Electrolyte solutions like NaCl are not compatible with electrocautery, so not used). −− Glycine is composed of glycolic acid and ammonium, which can cause CNS (visual) toxicity. TURIS: TUR in saline using bipolar cautery • Verumontanum is the single most important anatomical landmark in TURP. • Verumontanum lies immediately proximal to external sphincter and serve as the distal landmark for prostate resection to prevent injury to the external sphincter. • Verumontanum: Distal landmark for prostate resection. • Verumontanum: Landmark for proximal limit of external sphincter. −− Risks of TURP: Retrograde ejaculation (75%)Q, impotence (5–10%) and incontinence (< 1%). −− Complications: Bleeding, urethral stricture or bladder neck contracture, perforation of the prostate capsule with extravasation, and if severe, TUR syndrome. TUR syndrome (Dilutional hyponatremia or water intoxication) • TUR syndrome (Dilutional hyponatremia or water intoxication) resulting from a hypervolemic, hyponatremic state due to absorption of the hypotonic irrigating solution. • Clinical Features: Nausea, vomiting, confusion, hypertension, bradycardia, and visual disturbances. • The risk increases with resection times > 90 minutes or gland size > 75 gm. • Treatment includes diuresis (furosemide) and in severe cases, hypertonic saline (3%) administration. Late Complications of TURP • Bladder neck stenosis (4%) > Urethral stricture (3.6%) • Bladder neck stenosis is seen more often with small (< 30 gm) fibrotic prostates. • Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP): −− For posterior commissure hyperplasia (elevated bladder neck), involves two incisions using the Collins knife at the 5- and 7-o’clock positions. −− The incisions are started just distal to the ureteral orifices and are extended outward to the verumontanum. • TUIP lowers the incidence of bladder neck contracture when compared to TURP, so TUIP should be strongly considered in patients with smaller gland in place of TURP. • TUIP is used for smaller (20 gm) prostate, young patients. • Decreased incidence of retrograde ejaculation as compared to TURP. • Open simple prostatectomy: Glands > 75 gm, concomitant bladder diverticulum or a bladder stone or if dorsal lithotomy positioning is not possible. −− Suprapubic prostatectomy: Performed transvesically (Frayer’s) and operation of choice in dealing with concomitant bladder pathology (Bladder stones or diverticulum). −− Retropubic prostatectomy (Millin’s): Transverse incision is made in surgical capsule of prostate and enucleation is done. −− Perineal prostatectomy (Youngs): Abandoned now • Carcinoma prostate originates in peripheral zone of prostate, so prostatectomy for BPH confers no protection for subsequent cancer.	2	Retropubic prostatectomy	Transurethral resection	Transvesical prostatectomy	Androgen therapy	Surgery	null	fd96d56b-41d4-48a1-9749-11cd774beb73	single
Which of the following forms Anterior boundary of Middle mediastinum?	BOUNDARIES OF MIDDLE MEDIASTINUM: Anteriorly - sterno-pericardial ligaments Posteriorly - esophagus, descending thoracic aoa, Azygos vein On each side - Mediastinal pleura	1	Sterno-pericardial ligaments	Oesophagus	Azygos vein	Descending thoracic aoa	Anatomy	Surfaces and Grooves	0956529f-0633-4297-ba22-682d09c11db8	single
Herring Breuer reflex is an increase in ?	Ans. is 'b' i.e., Duration of expirationThe Hering-Breuer inflation reflex is an increase in the duration of expiration produced by steady lung inflation, and the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex is a decrease in the duration of expiration produced by marked deflation of the lung.	2	Duration of inspiration	Duration of expiration	Depth of inspiration	Depth of expiration	Physiology	null	25b0353e-6fb9-4284-84d5-5d1ab9b8d444	single
A PATIENT WAS ON LITHIUM THERAPY FOR BIPOLAR DISORDER FOR 6MONTHS SHE KEPT THE FAST FOR FEW DAYS .SHE PRESENTED WITH S3 , COARSE TREMORS , CONFUSION AND WEAKNESS OF LIMBS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE NEXT TO ASSESS HER CONDITION ?	REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED	4	S.ELECTROLYTES	ECG	MRI	S.LITHIUM LEVELS	Pharmacology	All India exam	fb2cf0c0-7b85-4ba0-b985-153b7bad10d7	single
A child can withhold and postpone bowel movements by the age of:	Ans: b (3 years) Ref: OP Ghai,6th, ed, p. 47At the age of 3 years, a child can withhold and postpone his bowel movements.* Gastrocol ic reflex weakens by 4 months* Bowel movement becomes irregular without any relation to eating by 7 months.* Toddler can walk to the toilet by the age of 15 to 18 months and is usually ready to start toilet training.* By the age of 2 years he is trainable.List of repeatedly asked important milestones:GraspMotor* Bidextrous-- 5 months* Crawling-- 8 months* Palmar grasp-- 7 months* Creeping-- 10 months* Pincer grasp-- 9 months* Cruising-- 10 months* Transfer of objects from one hand to other -- 6-7 months* Turns knob and unscrews lid-- 1 -2 yearsSocial and adaptive* Tiptoe walking* Rides tricycle-- 2 1/2 years-- 3 years* Enjoys mirror image -- 6 months* Momentarily stand* Stranger anxiety-- 7-9 monthson one foot-- 3 years* Pat a cake--10 months* Hops-- 4 years* Peek a boo-- 10 months* Skip-- 5 years* Know sex and age -- 3 years LanguageFine motor* Cooing-- 3 month* Copies a line-- 2 years* Babbles-- 5-6 months* Copies a circle-- 3 years* Monosyllables --- 6 months* Copies a square and plus-- 4 years* Vocalize-- 6-7 months* Copies cross and triangle-- 5 years* Bisyllables-- 9 months * 2 Words with meaning--12 months* Speaks 10 words -- 18 months* Tells a story-- 3 yearsNOTE* The moro reflex is never encountered with normal full term infants after 6 months of age* The earliest neonatal reflex to disappear--sucking and rooting* The neonatal reflex which persists throughout life--parachute reflex.	2	2 years	3 years	5 years	4 years	Pediatrics	Growth, Development, and Behavior	e01b2094-572c-43f9-a3b1-75e4ed41515d	single
10 year old girl with primary amenorrhoea, absent breasts, malformed uterus. The most likely diagnosis:	Ans. is 'b' i.e. Turner's syndrome Swyer syndrome (Pure gonadal dysgenesis)Patients with pure gonadal dysgenesis have XY karyotype.In these cases primitive germ cells do not migrate to the genital ridge so testis will not develop instead, the patients have streak gonads.Normal testis secretes Mullerian inhibiting factor and Testosterone.Thus in these cases there is absence of mullerian inhibiting factor and Testosterone.So these patients have normal female internal and external genitaliaAbsence of MIF causes - Development of mullerian structures i.e. uterus, Fallopian tubeAbsence of testosterone stops the development of - wool lian duct structures i.e. seminal vesicle, prostateThese individuals are not able to produce any estrogen so they will not develop breast Mayor Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome :This is also known as Mullerian agenesis syndrome.In these cases patient does not develop mullerian structures i.e. uterus, Fallopian tube and upper portion of vagina.The breast development is normal in these patients.Mixed Gonadal dysgenesisMixed gonadal dysgenesis is a type of asymmetrical gonadal dysgenesis (one side is more developed than the other).In most of the cases there is a unilateral testis usually intraabdominal and a streak gonad on the contralateral side. Functionally the gonads are incompetent i.e. theyFailed to completely inhibit mullerian developmentFailed to support full differentiation of mesonephric duct structuresFailed to adequately masculinize development of external genitaliaOften fail to mediate their own descent, resulting in asymmetry of internal and external genitalis.The mullerian structures are present since no anti mullerian hormones are produced.The patient has normal uterus usually B/L fallopian tubes.The external genitalia are always masculinized.The breast is not developed.Turner's syndromeIn Turner's syndrome the gonads are not properly developed (streak gonads)The ovary is not properly developed and it cannot secrete adequate amount of estrogen.This leads to lack of secondary sexual characteristic.Breast is not developed properly.Uterus is not developed properly in most of the patients who have not received estrogen therapy.The crux is:MRKSNo uterusNormal breastPrimary AmenorrhoeaPure Gonadal dysgenesisNormal uterusPrimary amenorrhoeaNo breastMixed Gonadal dysgenics* Normal uterus Primary amenorrhoeaNo breastTurners syndromeUnderdeveloped uterusUndeveloped breastPrimary amenorrhoea	2	MRKH syndrome	Turner's syndrome	Swyer syndrome	Mixed gonadal dysgenesis	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Genital Differentiation	cd890433-38ff-40b2-acf4-4ebe8ae52ff0	single
Which of the following is not seen in scoline apnea	Ans. d. It occurs due to deficiency of cholinesterase	4	It is due to succinylcholine	It can be inherited	Patients usually do not die of scoline apne they are properly managed	It occurs due to deficiency of cholinesterase	Skin	null	06134934-d5fe-47b7-a653-3ef276b36dbb	multi
Diabetic gangrene is due to -	Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above	4	Ischemia	Increased blood glucose	Altered defense by host and neuropathy	All of the above	Surgery	null	2e237c12-b3f6-4771-ac63-b2780e15be83	multi
Maximum damage to skin is caused by	Ans. c (Orthovoltage X-ray) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed. 484)# External Beam therapy unit includea. X-ray machine orb. Teletherapy unit (i.e. Linear Acclerator or Cobalt-60 unit)# Beams used for external radiotherapy are# X-ray beams:a. Conventionalb. Superficial: 40 to 120 kVc. Orthovoltage: 250 to 400 kVd. Megavoltage: (> 1Mv) - 2, 4, 6, 12 & 35 MeV# Gamma ray beams:a. Cobalt -60 beamb. Cesium -137 beam# Particle beams:a. Electronsb. Protonsc. NeutronsThus routine radio-therapy treatment is by X-ray beams in the super voltage or mega voltage range.# Orthovoltage or deep X-ray therapy machine produce X-rays with a voltage of 200-300 kV.# For many years they were the most powerful machines in radiotherapy and were used to irradiate most sites, however now been replaced by megavoltage equipments because of following advantages of megavoltage therapy (2 to 8 million volts);# Skin sparing effects: With orthovoltage X-rays maximum dose is received by skin surface whereas with high voltagesmaximum dose is at some distance beneath skin, the skin is thus spared with high dose.# Greater penetration of beam# Differential absorption in tissues# Improved collimation	3	Super voltage X-ray therapy	Mega voltage X-ray	Orthovoltage X-ray	Cobalt-60	Radiology	Fundamentals In Radiology	c3a8761f-af83-4be4-bff7-5e429a9b9064	single
Egyptian opthalmia is-	Trachoma (previously known as Egyptian ophthalmia) is a chronic keratoconjunctivitis, primarily affecting the superficial epithelium of conjunctiva and cornea simultaneously. It is characterised by a mixed follicular and papillary response of conjunctival tissue It is still one of the leading causes of preventable blindness in the world.b The word &;trachoma&; comes from the Greek word for &;rough&; which describes the surface appearance of the conjunctiva in chronic trachoma. Ref: A K KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTALMOLOGY,E4,page-62	2	Spring Catarrh	Trachoma	Intersitial keratitis	xerophthalmia	Ophthalmology	Conjunctiva	19fb3249-5852-499b-97c7-d4a5e431355e	single
An alcoholic person comes to your office, he can't tell his name, there is gross incordination in walking and his eye is deviated to one side. What is your diagnosis?	Incordination in walking (ataxia), and deviation of the eye to one side (ophthalmoplegia due to 6th nerve palsy) and inability to tell his name (suggests of confusion) in an alcoholic suggest the diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy.	1	Wernicke's encephalopathy	Korsakoff's psychosis	Alcoholic hallucination	Delirium tremens	Psychiatry	null	2f53b391-aa4c-42a7-bf19-6d9bdac5d44e	multi
Lateral ventricle is connected to third ventricle by?	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Foramen of Monro Ventricles of brain These are cavities in the brain lined by ependyma and filled with CSF.They contain choroid plexuses with secrete CSF.These are four fluid filled intercommunicating cavities within the brain :- (i) two lateral ventricles (right and left), (ii) third ventricle, and (iii) fouh ventricle. Lateral ventricle communicates with third ventricle by interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro). Third ventricle communicates with fouh ventricle by cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of sylvius).Fouh ventricle communicates with subarachnoid space by a median foramen (Mangendie) and two lateral (Luschka)foramina.	1	Foramen of Monro	Foramen of luschka	Foramen of magendie	Median foramen	Anatomy	null	dbbfcccf-73e4-495e-8f91-7dac3c3bc670	single
A 28-year-old woman patient who is 13 weeks pregnant presents for an antenatal clinic appointment. The patient feels embarrassed when asked to provide a urine sample and produces enough for a urine dipstick test only which is positive for leukocytes and nitrites. The patient denies any symptoms. The most appropriate treatment is:	The treatment of symptomatic and asymptomatic bacteriuria is impoant to prevent complications in pregnancy. Empiric treatment for common organisms such as Escherichia coli and Proteus should be administered while maintaining safety. Penicillins and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin (D), are safe for use during pregnancy. Nitrofurantoins are also effective. Trimethoprim (A) is a folic acid antagonist and therefore should be avoided in pregnancy, especially in the first trimester of pregnancy as in this patient. Fluoroquinolones (B) and tetracyclines (C) are also known teogens and must also be avoided in pregnancy.	4	Trimethoprim	Quinolone	Tetracycline	Cephalexin	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	5a535999-e674-4c2b-8dba-993873bd0abc	single
Which one of the following amino acid residue is carboxylated by Vitamin K?	Vitamin K is the cofactor for g-carboxylation of glutamate residues of protein to produce g-carboxy glutamate (gla). This process is known as Vitamin K epoxide cycle (as illustrated in the image below).	2	Aspaate	Glutamate	Tryptophan	Tyrosine	Biochemistry	Vitamins and Minerals	d98e5a88-caf4-4177-957f-6e0af3e8eb58	single
Tricyclic Anti depressant are contraindicated in	A i.e. Glucoma	1	Glucoma	Brain Tumor	Bronchial Asthma	Hypeension	Psychiatry	null	fb847604-8f26-4439-ac10-206b471fc967	single
Esophagus is present in all except	It passes through the mediastinum in both the superior and the inferior posterior sections before entering the abdominal cavity by passing through the right crus of the diaphragm at the level of the tenth thoracic veebrae. ref - BDC vol1 6e pg 282	3	Superior mediastinum	Middle mediastinum	Anterior mediastinum	Posterior mediastinum	Anatomy	Thorax	8dd5e278-cb20-44b4-93fe-3707df14ca4e	multi
Fatty acid present in breast milk which is impoant for growth & CNS development is:	Human milk contains 30 times more DHA than cow's milk- predominant fatty acid in brain and retina	1	Docosahexaenoic acid	Palmitic acid	Linoleic acid	Linolenic acid	Pediatrics	Breast Milk & Breast Feeding	cf3f18d3-934d-4438-9529-16219c2471c7	single
All are true regarding course of ureter in pelvis except	Obturator vessels and nerve lie laterally in relation to ureter at pelvic brim.	3	Ureter passes over bifurcation of common iliac artery	It is crossed by ovarian vessels where it enters true pelvis	Obturator vessels and nerve lie medially in relation to ureter at pelvic brim	Ureter pierces lateral ligament where ureteric canal is developed.	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	a45dab96-8b72-43bb-957b-061c33e01a4b	multi
Treatment of hypoglycemia due to insulin is all except	Adrenaline is a counter-regulatory hormone. Hypoglycemia is managed by glucose or oral carbohydrates or oral juices or Glucagon other counter regulatory hormones are growth hormone,steroids. Ref: Harrison16th ed. Pg 2185	3	Glucagon	Glucose IV	Adrenaline	Candy	Pharmacology	Endocrinology	a71f8e27-18fc-4738-8993-aae9da82226d	multi
In Rh Isoimmunization, exchange transfusion is indicated in all of the following except:	d. Hydrops fetalis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 871-879, Ghai 8/e p 172-176)Indications of Exchange transfusion in a neonate with Rh incompatibility are:Cord hemoglobin <10g/dL or Cord bilirubin >5mg/dLDirect coomb's test positive & H/o kernicterus or severe erythroblastosis in a sibling.	4	Cord blood hemoglobin < 10 g/dl	Cord bilirubin is more than 5 mg/dl	DCT positive & History of previous sibling affected	Hydrops fetalis	Pediatrics	New Born Infants	f52286c5-82a8-40d9-a2fd-e4d335755bc0	multi
Which of the following is the BEST way to treat medullary carcinoma of thyroid?	Treatment of choice for the medullary carcinoma of thyroid is the Total thyroidectomy + modified radical neck dissection. But the option is not provided among options. As total thyroidectomy is provide in option 3 and 4 so answer should be either 3 or 4 Now as far as radioiodine is concerned, it is clearly mentioned in the schwaz that radioiodine is ineffective and about radiotherapy, it has been mentioned that "External beam radiotherapy is controversial, but is recommended for patient with unresectable residual or recurrent tumor" So option 4 i.e. Total thyroidectomy + radiotherapy is the answer here. Ref: Schwaz Surgery 9/e, Page 1368.	4	Near total thyroidectomy + Radioiodine	Subtotal thyroidectomy + Radiotherapy	Total thyroidectomy + Radioiodine	Total thyroidectomy + Radiotherapy	Surgery	null	0b045249-a47c-465f-b498-922239cb2264	single
Hea-lung machines are sterilized by?	ETHYLENE DIOXIDE its action is due to alkylating the amino ,carboxy,hydroxyland sulphydrl groups in protein molecules. In addition it reacts with DNA and RNA. It is use as a disinfectant presents a potential toxicity to human beings including mutagenicity and carcinogenicity. it diffuses through many types of porous materials nad readily penetrates some plastics.it is especially used for sterilising hea lung machines ,respirators sutures dental equipments books and clothing.it is unsuitable for fumigating rooms because of its explosive propey. it has been successfully used to sterilise a wide range of materials such as glass metas and paper surfaces clothing ,plastics,soil, some foods and tobacco. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:37	2	Glutaraldehyde	Ethylene oxide	Carbolic acid	Aqueous solution of iodine	Microbiology	general microbiology	3d43c047-8c19-4af8-a28d-382242629783	single

Isotope used in RAIU –

RAIU stands for radioactive iodine uptake. It is a thyroid imaging method that measures the fraction of orally administered iodine isotope taken up by thyroid. 1123 is the agent of choice for RAIU.

2

I131

I123

I125

I127

Radiology

null

bc13b90b-b08a-4ec3-9512-1fd41bf29278

single

Dalen Fuch's nodules are seen in:

Sympathetic ophthalmia

1

Sympathetic ophthalmia

Phthisis bulbi

Absolute glaucoma

Pseudo xanthoma elasticum

Ophthalmology

null

6444e436-c6e3-47d1-b42e-07dc42e3ed6b

single

A 35-year-old man is admitted after severing his arm on industrial machinery. His airway is patent and there is no identifiable hindrance to breathing. Hispulse is 110 beats/min, blood pressure is 130/105 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 25 breaths/min. Which stage of shock is this patient in?

The following table illustrates the clinical signs of the different stages of hypovolaemic shock. Class I Class II Class III Class IV Percent blood loss Up to 15 15-30 30-40 >40 Pulse rate <100 >100 >120 >140 Blood pressure Normal Normal | | Pulse pressure Normal | | | Respiratory rate 14-20 20-30 30-40 >35 Urine output (mL/h) >30 20-30 5-15 <5 Mental status Slight anxiety Mild anxiety Anxious, confused Confused

2

Class I

Class II

Class III

Class IV

Surgery

Shock

e91dfedb-2097-484c-a09f-8be8bb1989c5

single

True about point source epidemic is?

Common source single exposure epidemics is also known as point source epidemic. The exposure to the disease agent is brief and essentially simultaneous, the resultant cases all develop within one incubation period of the disease. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 72

2

Occurs in more than 1 incubation period

Occurs in one incubation period

The exposure is continuous

Epidemic curve falls very slowly

Social & Preventive Medicine

Epidemiology

77347b61-64a9-408a-a09b-378facc62c5c

multi

Ichthyosis is caused by –

Syndromal ichthyosis (ichthyosis with additional characteristics) is seen in carvaj al syndrome, CHILD syndrome, Daffier 's disease, Refsum disease, Rud syndrome, Netherton syndrome, Neutral lipid storage disease, Tey syndrome, Senter syndrome.

2

Hemosiderosis

Refsum disease

Niacin deficiency

Steven johnson syndrome

Dental

null

f5cf8f88-7b73-4677-8f72-d68e184d569d

single

Herd immunity provides protection to -

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Non-immunized person Herd immunity It is the level of resistance of a community or group of people to a paicular disease. It occurs when the vaccination of a poion of the population (or herd) provides protection to unprotected (non-vaccinated) individuals. How does herd immunity provide protection to nonimmunized person ? o Infection is spread from person to person. o If a large number of population are immune, it is more difficult to maintain a chain of infection. o The more immune individuals present in a population, the lower the likelihood that a susceptible person will come into contact with an infected individual. o For example, if person 'A' had a disease and exposed person 'B' who was immune because of vaccination, person `B' would not get ill and could not pass on the disease to person 'C' when he comes into contact with him. So, even if person 'C' is not vaccinated, He indirectly gets protection from the disease. o Hence herd immunity may be used to reduce spread of an infection and to protect a vulnerable, un-vaccinated subgroup.

2

Immunized persons

Non immunized persons

Both

None

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

ee19b137-ca0b-48a3-97be-53f9f1bef194

multi

Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is –

Maximum permissible dose in pregnancy is 5 mSv (0.5 rem). Rem = Rad x Quality factor. Main radiation exposure during pregnancy can be by X-rays (radiography or CT), and the quality factor of X-rays is 1. That means Rem = Rad. Therefore, the maximum permissible dose in pregnancy is 0.5 rem or 0.5 rad.

1

0.5 rad

1.0 rad

1.5 rad

2 rad

Radiology

null

4264a758-9094-4a0c-9d83-dfb7b7e366ac

single

What is the appearance of the RBCs on the peripheral smear in physiological anaemia of the pregnancy?

Physiological anemia is due to hemodilution. Peripheral smear will be normocytic and normochromic, which is not to be confused with Iron deficiency Anemia & thalassemia where the women have microcytic hypochromic anemia

3

Microcytic and Hypochromic

Macrocytic and Hyperchromic

Normocytic and Normochromic

Microcytic and Normochromic

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Anaemia in Pregnancy

2a10e378-0e0e-448e-813d-287b003ee973

single

Which of the following is related to floor of middle ear -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Internal jugular vein o The middle ear is shaped like a cube.o When seen in the coronal section, the cavity of the middle ear is biconcave,o The boundaries of the middle ear are as follows :I Roof or tegmental wallo Separates the middle ear from the middle cranial cavity,o It is formed by a thin plate of bone called tegmen tympani.II Floor or jugular wallo Formed by a thin plate of bone which separates the middle ear from the superior bulb of the internal jugular vein.o The floor also presents the tympanic canaliculus which transmits the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve.III Anterior or carotid wallo The uppermost part bears the opening of the canal of the tensor tympanio The middle part has the opening of the auditory' tubeo The inferior part of the wall is formed by a thin plate of bone which forms the posterior wall of the carotid canal. This plate separates the middle ear from the internal carotid artery.IV: Posterior or mastoid wallo Superiorly, is the aditus through which the epitympanic recess communicates with the mastoid antrumo Below it is the fossa incudis which lodges the short process of the incuso Below it is the pyramid giving attachment to the tendon of stapediuso Vertical part of the facial canal for facial nerveV. Lateral or membranous wallo Tympanic membrane along with the tympanic ring and sulcus.VI Medial or labrynthine wallo Promontory - rounded bulge produced by the first turn of the cochleao Oval window -- it is posterosuperior to the promontory'. It is closed by the footplate of the stapes,o Horizontal part of the facial canal -- runs just above the oval windowo Round window -- posteroinferior to the promontory. It is closed by the secondary tympanic membrane,o Processus cochleariforims -- forms a pulley for the tendon of the tensor tympanio Prominence of the lateral semicircular canal -- above the facial canal

3

Round window

Internal carotid artery

Internal jugular vein

Tegmen tympani

Anatomy

Ear

b322782f-e59b-423c-a0d1-732d710538e1

single

A patient was admitted epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5%. Lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He devoled hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be –

Hypotension and respiratory depression after epidural anesthesia suggest high spinal anesthesia. High spinal anesthesia, i.e. spinal anesthesia ascending into the cervical levels, can occur following attempted epidural / caudal anesthesia if there is inadverent intrathecal injection. High spinal anesthesia causes severe hypotension, bradycardia, and respiratory insufficiency. Causes of high spinal anesthesia : Administration of excessive dose during spinal anesthesia, Unusual sensitivity or spread of local anesthetic, Failure to reduce standard dose in selected patients (elderly, pregnant, obese or very short), Inadverent intrathecal injection during epidural anesthesia.

4

Allergy to drug administered

Systemic toxicity to drug administered

Patient got vasovagal shock

Drug has entered the subarachnoid space

Anaesthesia

null

cd0d9389-3cd7-40e4-b668-60c5c1dd29f4

multi

The investigation of choice to detect a prolapsed intervertebral disc is?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., MRI MRI is the investigation of choice for P1D because it shows the following structures clearlyo Prolapse of disco Compression of cordo Any problems with the discs above and belowo Canal Stneosiso Associated features like Ligamentum flavum hypertrophy and facetal arthropathy

2

C T Scan

MRI

Myelography

Radiograph

Orthopaedics

Thoracic and Lumbosacral Spine Injuries

6268884d-fead-42ce-a4a5-b79b5b686845

single

Skip lesions are seen in:

Ans is 'b' i.e. Crohn's disease FeaturesUlcerative colitisCrohn's ds* Rectal involvement in > 50%> 90%*Rectum spared* Distribution of lesionsContinuous*Skip lesions** Mucosal appearanceFriable, diffusely involvedCobblestone*appearance* Ileal diseaseRare (backwash ileitis)Common* Perianal abcess, fistulasRareCommon* Intestinal strictures & obstructionNot seenCommon* Intestinal fistulasNot seenCommon* Fissures (Radiological)Not seenCommon* UlcersCollar-buttonLinear, cobblestone, fissures* Toxic megacolon*Rare but more than Crohn's dsVery rare* Extraintestinal Manifestation - - Sclerosing pericholangitisCommon*Rare- Uveitis & Arthritis *Common*Common*- Pyoderma gangrenosumCommonRarePathological Features * Depth of inflammationMucosal*,superficialTransmural* ,deep* Creeping mesentric fatNot seenCommon** Fibrous thickening of wallNot seenCommon (lead pipe)** PseudopolypsCommon*Rare* GranulomasNot seenCommon** DysplasiaCommon*Rare* Carcinoma10%*Rare

2

Ulcerative colitis

Crohn's disease

Typhoid

Tuberculosis

Surgery

Small Intestine - Crohn's Disease

c86ee3dd-ee6c-4685-bbaf-17139817f1c2

single

Baholin's cyst is caused by :

Ans. is c i.e. Gonococcus Baholin cyst It is the commonest cyst of the vulva.deg The cyst represents dilatation of Baholin glanddeg / duct as a result of fibrosis which follows either infection or trauma. It was formerly believed that the infection was invariably Gonococcaldeg but almost any organism can be responsible. Clinical features : It is often smalldeg, rarely exceeds size of hen's egg. It is painlessdeg, nontenderdeg and fluctuantdeg. Its origin is determined by its position - found on the posteriordeg and middle pa of the labia majusdeg and opens up the base of labium minus. Its inward projection makes the vulvar cleft "S" shaped.deg Complication : It can become painful after secondary infection. Treatment : Simple incision into the cyst followed by marsupilization of the of the cut edges of its wall to those of skin. Note : After menopause Baholin gland cyst and abscesses are uncommon and should raise suspicion of neoplasia.

3

Candida

Anaerobes

Gonococcus

Trichomonas

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

a26b4f9d-9550-4335-a042-b2f5eab00f0e

single

In delirium tremens all of the following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT:

Delirium tremens is the most serious alcohol withdrawal syndrome which begins 3 to 5 days after cessation of drinking and lasts for up to 72 hours. Patients are usually confused and agitated. Other characteristic features includes fever, sweating, tachycardia, hypeension, and hallucinations. Death can result from concomitant infection, pancreatitis, cardiovascular collapse, or trauma. Treatment involves administration of diazepam or lorazepam for tremors and hallucinations, correction of fluid and electrolyte abnormalities, and hypoglycemia. Beta blocker is administered for patients with tachycardia and hypeension. Ref: Greenberg D.A., Aminoff M.J., Simon R.P. (2012). Chapter 4. Confusional States. In D.A. Greenberg, M.J. Aminoff, R.P. Simon (Eds), Clinical Neurology, 8e.

4

Gross tremor

Seen in alcoholic withdrawal

Fits may occur

Clear orientation

Psychiatry

null

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multi

In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination,except -

Arsenic is rapidly cleared from the blood and is distributed to various organs and tissues, where it is detectable for prolonged periods. Blood sample is thus of use only in a case of acute poisoning, but not in chronic poisoning. In chronic poisoning arsenic is found in hair, nails, bones, skin etc. and its detection is possible when any of these structures is available - Parikh

4

Nail clippings

Hair samples

Bone biopsy

Blood sample

Forensic Medicine

null

7d31ea5d-f8ce-42c3-837c-49e4632e7af6

multi

Dangerous area of scalp is -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subaponeurotic tissueo The scalp is soft tissue which covers the calvaria of skull. It consists of five layers and can be memorised by a mnemonic using the initial letters of the word. SCALPa) Skinb) Close network of connective tissue (superficial fascia)c) Aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) with occipitofrontalis musclesd) Loose areolar (subaponeurotic) tissuee) Pericranium (outer periosteum of skull)o First three layers are intimately connected and move as one unit, and are called surgical layers of scalp or scalp proper.o Connective tissue (superficial fascia) contains large blood vessels and nerves of the scalp. The walls of the vessels are adherent to the fibrous network, so that when the vessels are tom in an open wound they are unable to retract and produce profuse bleeding. Bleeding can be arrested by pressure against the underlying bone, o Loose subaponeurotic areolar tissue (4th layer) is called dangerous area of scalp because it contains emissary veins through which infection in subaponeurotic space may spread readily to intracranial venous sinuses.

3

Superficialfacia

Aponeurosis

Subaponeurotic tissue

Pericranium

Anatomy

Scalp Face & Temple

cad7d3c6-d99b-4ef7-a8a2-529d3b1e59ff

single

Reservoir of tetanus bacilli is

Ans. b (Soil). (Ref. Ananthanarayan, Microbiology, 4th/pg.245)TETANUS# Caused by Clostridium tetani# Seen following deep or penetrating wound in relatively avascular areas# More prevalent in developing countries# Seen in neonate (tetanus neonaturum) following the use of cow dung on the umbilicus# Microbiology- Gram-positive spore forming rod (Clostridium tetani is a gram-positive anaerobic bacillus)- Typical 'drum-stick' appearance with terminal spore- Widely found in the environment and soil- A Strict anaerobe that produces a powerful exotoxin- The neurotoxin is a powerful exotoxin- Exotoxin is resistant to autoclaving- Exotoxin is not antigenic and repeat infection can occur- Infection produces few signs of local inflammation# Pathogenesis- Germination of spores releases the exotoxin- Toxin affects nervous system and reaches CNS via the peripheral nerves- Acts on presynaptic terminals of inhibitor nerves- Reduces the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (e.g., glycine)- Excess activity of motor neurons produces muscle spasm# Clinical features- Facial muscle spasm produces trismus- Typical facial appearance = 'risus sardonicus'- Back muscle spasm produces opisthotonous- Eventually exhaustion and respiratory failure leads to death- The diagnosis is essentially clinical- Differentiating between contamination and infection on wound swabs is difficult# Prevention:- Tetanus can be prevented by- Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid with booster every 5-10 years- Adequate wound toilet of contaminated wounds- Consider passive immunisation with hyperimmune immunoglobulin# Treatment (of suspected cases)- Passive immunisation with anti-tetanus immunoglobulin- Adequate wound debridement- Intravenous benzyl penicillin- Intensive care support- Despite the use of ITU mortality is about 50%

2

Human

Soil

Water

Hospital waste

Microbiology

Clostridium

3d8fc784-8adf-4369-94e5-8db6b0e12009

single

Which local anesthetic has a shoer duration of action?

Procaine has least duration among the following. Procaine,Bencocaine,chlorprocaine all of them are sho acting LA. <img class="fr-fic fr-dib" style="width: 300px;" src=" />Ref: Katzung 13e pg: 443

2

Lidocaine

Procaine

Bupivacaine

Ropivacaine

Pharmacology

Anesthesia

228c7caa-eb0f-4fd1-9fdd-faf6f6a72d9e

single

What is the risk of an affected individual transmitting an autosomal dominant disease to his/her offspring?

a. 50%(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 593, Ghai 8/e p 641)

1

50%

100%

25%

60%

Pediatrics

Genetics And Genetic Disorders

ac68ad2d-040e-4f57-af4e-81804a55a731

single

Duplex ultrasonography combines:

Ans. B. B-mode imaging and pulse-wave doppler examinationAn objective assessment of the severity of disease is obtained by noninvasive techniques. These include digital pulse volume recordings, doppler flow velocity waveform analysis, duplex ultrasonography (which combines b-mode imaging and pulse-wave doppler examination), segmental pressure measurements, transcutaneous oximetry, stress testing (usually using a treadmill), and tests of reactive hyperemia.

2

A-mode imaging and pulse-wave Doppler examination

B-mode imaging and pulse-wave Doppler examination

M-mode imaging and power Doppler examination

M-mode imaging and waveform analysis

Radiology

Miscellaneous

15233f25-3c48-417e-8344-5be8365dc510

single

Roll back malaria included all except -

Insecticides nets, Strengthening health system, Develop new insecticide,. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 243

4

Insecticides nets

Strengthening health system

Develop new insecticide

Training health workers

Social & Preventive Medicine

Communicable diseases

598f4f67-4221-499a-af24-98e984568df0

multi

Perinatal prevention of mother to child, which of the following steps are useful –

null

4

Elective Caesarian section

Avoid breast feeding

ART prophylaxis

All of these

Pediatrics

null

064c957c-06fb-44d7-afa2-a07c4222d50a

multi

Charcot&;s triad Except

Seen in ascending cholangitis, stone in the CBD due to impaction causes obstruction and stasis. obstruction causes jaundice and pain, stasis leads to infection, bacteremia and fever Reference SRB edition: 5 page:651

4

Pain

Fever

Jaundice

Anaemia

Surgery

G.I.T

3f6e5fc0-5b8e-4abc-b9d0-cf274e140b90

multi

Nasal swabs preserved in -

Ans- C. Ref- Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Fifth Edition - Krishan Vij Explanation - Cocaine can be recovered by sampling from recent injection sites, or by swabs from the nasal mucosa. Brain is an excellent source for its detection where cocaine may be found not only in dopamine-rich areas such as caudate, putamen, and nucleus accumbens, but also in other extrastriatal regions.

3

Drowning

Anaphylaxis

Cocaine poisoning

None

Forensic Medicine

Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques

cfd372d5-768e-4263-af02-709bf463901d

multi

Who are NOT benificaiaries of ICDS scheme -

parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition * major beneficiaries of ICDS are pregnant women,nursing mothers,other women 15-45years,children less than 3years,children in age group 3-6years,adolescent girls11-18years.

2

Adoslescent females

School going children

Pregnant females

Lactating females

Social & Preventive Medicine

obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics

5a1522e2-e76c-4743-9bc9-c0be1c6a6d9f

single

Which of the following is the best method for radiation protection of the operator?

Operators of radiographic equipment should use barrier protection when possible, and barriers should contain a leaded glass window to enable the operator to view the patient during exposure. When shielding is not possible, the operator should stand at least two meters from the tube head and out of the path of the primary beam (ADA 2006). White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 8th edition

1

Standing behind a lead barrier

Wearing a lead apron

Following the "position and distance" rule

Standing 6 feet away from the X-ray tube during exposure

Radiology

null

ee063659-68b1-4204-989d-1be644af8b1d

single

PPIs are use used in

Ans. is'd'i.e., All of the above PPI are the DOC for peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal), GERD, ZE syndrome, prevention of aspiration pneumonia and NSAID induced gastric / duodenal ulcers. Note - PGEI analogue (Misoprostol) is specific drug for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but DOC is PPI.

4

ZE syndrome

NSAIDs induced peptic ulcer

Gastroesophageal reflux

All of the above

Pharmacology

null

0369f832-2a95-4861-be34-2aa26b76ce63

multi

Treatment of choice for endogenous depression with suicidal tendency -

null

3

Lithium

Chlorpromazine

ECT

Psychoanalysis

Psychiatry

null

80ad821e-76dd-4b14-a138-f1bbf48c0c1c

single

True about nenatal necrotizing enterocolitis ?

Ans. is d i.e., All of the above Neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis Neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis is the most common life threatening emergency of gastrointestinal tract in the new born period. o The disease is characterized by various degree of mucosal or transmural necrosis of the intestine. o It occurs in premature or small for gestational age (LBW) infants. Clinical manifestations of necrotizing enterocolitis can be devided into 3 stages : Stage I : o Unstable temperature, apnea, bradycardia, lethargy. Mild abdominal distension, vomiting Suspected blood in stool. Stage II : o Above signs + Bowel sounds are diminished, with or without abdominal tenderness Definite o In more severe cases : Metabolic acidosis and mild thrombocytopenia o X-Ray : Pneumatosis intestinalis and dilation of intesting. Stage III : o Above signs + infant has low BP, bradycardia, apnea, acidosis, DIC, anuria Advanced o Frank signs of peritonitis with abdominal tenderness, distension and erythema of abdominal wall. o X-Ray : shows Pneumoperitonium.

4

Abdominal distension

Pneumoperitoneum

Decreased bowel sounds

All of the above

Pediatrics

null

f1556b41-95c2-4263-bd59-bcc5772fb378

multi

When do we have to sta antibiotics to prevent post-operative infection?

Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1 hour before surgery & continue after surgery Prophylactic antibiotics are administered before the skin incision is made. Repeat dosing occurs at an appropriate interval, usually 3 hours for abdominal cases or twice the half-life of the antibiotic. Perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis generally is not continued beyond the day of surgery.

4

2 days before surgery

After surgery

1 week before surgery

1 hour before surgery & continue after surgery

Surgery

null

0a4eec6c-20c9-47f8-8b2e-5b3e080d143d

single

Succinyl CoA is formed by all except ?

Histidine, proline, glutamine, arginineGlutamatea a-ketoglutaratelsoleucine, methionine, valineSuccinyl CoATyrosine, phenylalanineFumarateTryptophanAlanine a PyruvateHydroxyproline, serine, cysteine, threonine, glycinePyruvate

1

Proline

Isoleucine

Methionine

Valine

Biochemistry

null

a2a52c05-5592-41e5-85ea-f555f028e2af

multi

Causes of female pseudohermaphroditism –

Ambiguous genitalia (Hermaphroditism) Ambiguous genitalia is defined as a discrepancy between the external genitals and internal gonads. They can be categorized : - Female pseudohermaphroditism Male pseudohermaphroditism True hermaphroditism Female pseudohermaphroditism. Genotype is XX Gonads are ovaries External genitalia is virilized (male differentiation). As there is no Mullarian inhibiting factor, Mullerian duct develops into uterus tubes and ovary. But due to the presence of androgen external genitalia are virilized. Causes are: Maternal virilizing tumour → Arrhenoblastoma 21 hydroxylase deficiency 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency Maternal medications with androgen

2

17–alpha hydroxylase deficiency

21–alpha hydroxylase deficiency

Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

All of the above

Pediatrics

null

9e2abbad-3677-4e88-911d-bc589cb9e276

multi

A patient of multiple myeloma presents with bony lesions. What is the best marker for prognosis of the disease -

null

3

Bone marrow plasma cell

Serum calcium level

Beta 2 microglobulin

Beta microglobulin

Medicine

null

30310f9a-a3d0-4050-af95-3054494bad5a

single

All are tests for sperm except -

Luminol test is used for blood stain (luminol spray). Florence test, barberio's test and acid phosphatase test are used for semen.

2

Florence test

Luminol test

Barberio test

Acid phosphatase

Forensic Medicine

null

8e212700-d6d9-4bd8-8a2e-64de20462d1a

multi

All of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous inflammation are true, except:

Tuberculosis is usually associated with caseating granulomatosis. Xanthogranulomatous inflammation is not seen in tuberculosis. Ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease 6th edn/page 977.

4

Foam cells are seen

Yellow nodules are seen

Multinucleated Giant cells are seen

Assoicated with Tuberculosis

Pathology

null

7c3da243-97b2-41e7-badc-a815873a7565

multi

Which of the following has the worst prognosis

null

2

Cholecystectomy

Splencetomy

Nephrectomy

Appendicetomy

Medicine

null

9482e696-a5ff-4978-a64a-bbdf63efae66

single

Single pelvic ala is present in:

Ans. B. Naegele's pelvisNaegele's pelvis - Ala on one side is absenta. Robert's pelvis - Ala on both sides are absentb. Osteomalacic pelvis - the shape of inlet is triradiatec. Rachitic pelvis - shape of inlet is reniformd. The expected date of delivery can be calculated by Naegele's rule

2

Robert's pelvis

Naegele' s pelvis

Osteomalacia pelvis

Rickets pelvis

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Contracted Pelvis

1eff2d94-6a94-40d2-a570-f43fa2bb1823

single

Skin scrapping & KOH mounting is done for ?

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fungus Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infection Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infection depends on : ? l. Recognition of the pathogen in tissue microscopy : - Tissue specimens, such as skin scraping, are generally examined as wet mounts after treatment with 10% KOH. KOH (alkali) digests cells and other tissue materials, enabling the fungus elements to be seen clearly. Periodic acid schiff (PAS) and methanamine silver are two most commonly used stains for the demonstration of fungal elements in tissue sections. Culture : - Culture media used most common in mycology is Sabauraud's glucose agar. Serology : - ELISA complement fixation test, Immunodiffusion. PCR : - Detection of fungal DNA is clinical material.

3

Leprosy

Varicella

Fungus

HSV

Skin

null

fe7ed978-49ad-4ada-b4dd-d45073d5de0d

single

Dermatophytes can affect: March 2012

Ans: D i.e. All of the above Three genera of dermatophytes infect skin and appendages: Trichophyton (skin, hairs and nails), Microsporum (skin and hairs) and Epidermophyton (skin and nails)

4

Hair

Nail

Scalp

All of the above

Skin

null

574fcc62-1ac9-4c3b-bfda-3763b451b2ff

multi

Bradykinin causes:

Bradykinin acts in the early stage of inflammation and its effects include: Smooth muscle contraction Vasodilatation Increased vascular permeability Pain. Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Page: 126

2

Vasoconstriction

Pain at the site of inflammation

Bronchodilation

Decreased vascular permeability

Microbiology

null

15968b4b-52d6-43b3-84bf-2d386d836f5b

single

Which of the following is Autosomal Dominant:

Answer A (Retinoblastoma) : Retinoblastoma presents dominant inheritance with variable penetrance

1

Retinoblastoma

Ataxia telangiectasia

Bloom's syndrome

Xeroderma pigmentosa

Medicine

null

f74b69c5-cf80-4bc3-9a47-16d672253970

single

True statement about Ribozyme

The substrate for ribozymes is often an RNA molecule, and it may even be pa of the ribozyme itself Ribozymes vary greatly in size. A self-splicing group I intron may have more than 400 nucleotides. The hammerhead ribozyme consists of two RNA strands with only 41 nucleotides in all. As with protein enzymes, the three-dimensional structure of ribozymes is impoant for function. Ribozymes are inactivated by heating above their melting temperature or by addition of denaturing agents or complementary oligonucleotides, which disrupt normal base-pairing patterns. Ribozymes can also be inactivated if essential nucleotides are changed. Example: Hammerhead ribozyme: These segments are called hammerhead ribozymes because their secondary structures are shaped like the head of a hammer. The hammerhead ribozyme is a metalloenzyme; Mg+2 ions are required for activity. The phosphodiester bond at the site of self-cleavage is indicated by an arrow In Tetrahymena, the pre-rRNA molecule contains an intron that is removed by self-splicing (in the presence of guanosine, GMP, GDP or GTP) without the need for involvement of any protein. This was the first ribozyme discovered but many have since been repoed.

1

RNA molecular that acts catalytically to change itself or another RNA molecule

t-RNA

m-RNA

Ribosome

Anatomy

All India exam

4d05d7eb-ed60-4e83-95ef-a8500602d6a3

multi

Majority of patients with HNPCC have mutations in ?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., MSH 2 Hereditary Nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is caused by inherited mutations in genes that encode proteins responsible for the detection, excision, and repair of errors that occur during DNA replication.

2

MSH I

MSH 2

MSH3

MSH4

Pathology

null

7db5f54f-335a-4352-8ae0-824723afa52b

single

One year old male child with cat\'s eye reflex and raised IOT –

Leukocoria with raised IOT is characteristic of retinoblastoma.

3

Toxplasma gondii infection

Toxcara canis

Retinoblastoma

Retinopathy of prematurity

Ophthalmology

null

4b2ec11b-1b45-47c3-8244-3fe53bc209cb

single

All of the following drugs are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia, EXCEPT:

Beta agonists are used for shifting potassium into the cells in patients with hyperkalemia with ECG changes. Drugs used to treat hyperkalemia in patients with ECG changes are: Intravenous calcium gluconate (stabilize cardiac membrane) IV insulin, beta 2 agonists, IV NaHCO3 (shift potassium into cells) Methods of potassium removal are: Dialysis Diuretics Cation exchange resins In patients with hyperkalemia without ECG changes: Remove offending agents Use dialysis, diuretics and/or cation exchange resins Ref; Civetta, Taylor, & Kirby's Critical Care edited by Andrea Gabrielli, page 622.

4

Calcium gluconate

Sodium bicarbonate

Intravenous infusion of glucose with insulin

Beta blockers

Medicine

null

84e9674d-79f1-459e-905f-f2f5161b3ab1

multi

Haverhill fever is caused by ?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Streptobacillus moniliformis Streptobacillus moniliformis causes rat-bite fever in humans.It enters the body through the wound caused by the rat bite.The infection also occurs by the ingestion of water, milk or food contaminated with rat excreta. In these cases, the infection is known as 'Haverhill fever'.Clinical symptoms include fever, rash and ahralgia.

2

Baonella henselae

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Eikenella corrodens

Coccidioides

Microbiology

null

2b500a19-8e08-4492-a91d-205ec99f3ae2

single

Primordial germ cells originate in the

Primordial germ cells originate in the epiblast Primordial germ cells (PGCs), also known as primitive sex cells originate in the epiblast at the caudal end of the primitive streak. PGCs are the precursors of gametes in both genders. PGCs arise in the epiblast during the 2nd week of development. They pass through the primitive streak during gastrulation and reach the wall of the yolk sac. They migrate from the yolk sac at the 4th week and reach the developing gonads by the end of the 5th week. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 184

2

Gonads at the 4th week of embryonic develpment

Epiblast at 2nd week of embryonic development

Gonads at 2nd month of embryonic development

Yolk sac at 4th week of embryonic development

Anatomy

All India exam

87aa9a79-406d-4874-b3f7-975a24837f22

single

Which bacteria is known as pfeiffer's bacillus

H influenzae - pfeiffer's bacillus M pneumoniae - Eaton's agent B pseudomallei - Whitmore bacillus.

1

Hemophilus Influenzae

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Hemophilus aegyptius

Microbiology

null

bea6298f-bdf9-4a43-97f8-6fe50593273b

multi

Lutembacker syndrome includes all except-

Ans. is 'c' i.e., VSD * Lutembacher syndrome is defined as a combination of mitral stenosis and a left-to-right shunt at the atrial level.* Typically, the left-to-right shunt is an atrial septal defect (ASD) of the ostium secundum variety.

3

Mitral stenosis

ASD

VSD

Left to right shunt

Pediatrics

C.V.S.

4f0187e1-7c09-4350-95a5-12f317584fad

multi

Which of the following drug is used postop to reverse the effect of heparin used intraoperatively in cardiac surgery?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protamine sulfate Protamine Sulfate* It is a strongly basic, low molecular weight protein obtained from the sperm of certain fish.* Given i.v.it neutralises heparin weight for weight, i.e. 1 mg is needed for every 100 U of heparin.* For the treatment of heparin induced bleeding, due consideration must be given to the amount of heparin that may have been degraded by the patient's body in the mean time.* However, it is needed infrequently because theaction of heparin disappears by itself in a fewhours, and whole blood transfusion is needed toreplenish the loss when bleeding occurs.* Protamine is more commonly used when heparin action needs to be terminated rapidly, e.g. after cardiac or vascular surgery.

1

Protamine sulfate

Vitamin K

Tranexamic acid

Factor VIII concentrate

Pharmacology

Hematology

a6eaf5c2-dcd6-4730-9311-6269521179c4

single

An infant presents with irritability, increased tone of extremities and recurrent seizures. Tissue examination reveals globoid cells in parenchyma around blood vessels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

(Refer: Nelson’ss textbook of pediatrics, 19th edition, pg no: 2071-2072) Krabbe disease (KD)/globoid cell leukodystrophy Autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder. Characterized by severe myelin loss and the presence of globoid bodies in the white matter. Deficiency of lysosomal enzyme galactocerebroside β- galactosidase (galactosylceramidase). Accumulation of galactocerebroside causes activation of an alternative catabolic pathway removes a fatty acid from this molecule, generating galactosylphingosine. In patients with KD, galactocerebroside cannot be metabolized during the normal turnover or myelin because of deficiency of galactocerebroside β-galactosidase. Because oligodendroglial cells are responsible for the elaboration of myelin, their loss results in myelin breakdown, thus producing additional galactocerebroside and causing a vicious circle of myelin destruction.

2

Taysach’s disease

Krabbe disease

Adrenoleukodystrophy

Kanavan’s disease

Unknown

null

04a5989f-04ea-47ed-abd8-91f71f156997

single

Which of the following antibodies is most frequently seen in Antiphospholipid Syndrome ?

Anti- beta 2 glycoprotein antibodies are the most frequently observed antibodies in patient with APLA syndrome amongst the options provided

4

Beta 2 microglobulin antibody

Anti-nuclear antibody

Anti-centromere antibody

Anti- beta 2 glycoprotein antibody

Pathology

null

97355d3b-49b7-4ba6-a1d4-c7949e79cc22

single

In extra amniotic 2nd trimester medicolegal termination of pregnancy, which of the following is used?

Ans. is a, i.e. Ethacrydine lactateRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 173Ethacridine lactate is drug of choice for extra-amniotic instillationAvailable as injection Emcredil (0.1%)Foleys catheter is introduced into extra-amniotic or extraovular space and bulb is inflated by 10-20 ml of Ethacridine solution.Dose is calculated as 10 ml/week of gestation upto maximum of 150 mlCatheter is left for 6 hours.Uterine action begins in 16-18 hours.In 30% cases abortion is incomplete and requires oxytocin drip or supplementation with prostaglandin.

1

Ethacrydine lactate

Prostaglandin

Hypertonic saline

Glucose

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Abortion

4cd5dbd4-2d94-4c6b-9ec8-031ed42cc3f3

single

Advantage of LSCS are all EXCEPT:

Lateral extension REF: Dutta 6th ed p. 595 ADVATNAGES OF LSCS Less blood loss Perfect apposition Less peritoneal infections Less morbid Better apposition of margins Minimal wound hematoma Less chance of gutter formation Lateral extension of the incision leading to hemorrhage is a complication or disadvantage of LSCS

1

Lateral extension

Less blood loss

Minimal wound hematoma

Less chance of gutter formation

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

f29d8377-d8ae-4044-9809-d11f54318a8f

multi

A 48 year old woman presented with self inflicted injuries, auditory hallucinations, and delusional disorder. A routine MRI revealed a tumor invloving the posterior limb of the internal capsule and the structure medial to it. Which of the following structures are likely to be affected?

The thalamus lies medial to the posterior limb of the internal capsule. The internal capsule seperates the thalamus and the caudate nucleus from the lentiform nucleus (globus pallidus+ putamen). It is V-shaped in horizontal section and is divided into the anterior limb, genu, posterior limb, retrolenticular pa, and sublenticular pa. The anterior limb is located between the head of the caudate nucleus medially and lentiform nucleus laterally. The posterior limb is located between the thalamus medially and the lentiform nucleus laterally. Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno; 394,395

3

Globus pallidus

Putamen

Thalamus

Caudate nucleus

Anatomy

Brain

2b79c0b3-ea11-4722-8f63-d00ad72817b7

multi

An infant present with bilateral white pupillary reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is:

Ans. Lamellar cataract

2

Cataracto Centralis Pulverulenta

Lamellar cataract

Coronary cataract

Posterior polar cataract

Ophthalmology

null

5f65c276-d57a-42fc-86bc-e1018d053568

single

All of the following agents decreases bone resorption in osteoporosis, Except -

A drug used in osteoporosis Inhibit resorption: - Bisphosphonates, denosumab, cinacalcet, calcitonin, estrogen, SERMS, gallium nitrate. Stimulateformation : -Teriparatide, calcium, calcitrial, fluorides,. Both actions : - Strontium, renelate. Drugs decreasing bone resorption initially increase bone mineral density (BMI), but it reaches a plateau in 2-3 yrs because bone formation also decreases. On the other hand, drugs promoting bone formation can increase BMD through the period of treatment.

4

Alendronate

Etidronate

Strontium

Teriparatide

Orthopaedics

null

90b86000-49f9-4b40-8cd9-d3275276c877

multi

Irradiation can be used to sterilize all except

null

4

Bone graft

Suture

Artificial tissue graft

Bronchoscope

Microbiology

null

ac3e4642-0fae-4ffe-af75-9e696dfe9ce9

multi

A patient presents with secondaries to the adrenals. The most common site of primary is -

null

1

Lung

Kidney

Breast

Stomach

Medicine

null

46b29620-bbc0-47f3-9d24-13436ec36bf1

single

When an association between two variable is explained by a third variable due to indirect association. It is called as?

.confounding bias is used as a third variable to explain the association between two variables caused due to indirect association ref:park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22nd edition,pg no 71

2

Cognitive bias

Confounding bias

Berkessonian bias

Indirect bias

Social & Preventive Medicine

Epidemiology

65cbc444-68a6-42b7-9999-89f5f073ef0f

multi

In PML, all of the following are seen except -

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML, APL) is a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia (AML), a cancer of the white blood cells. In APL, there is an abnormal accumulation of immature granulocytes called promyelocytes. The disease is characterized by a chromosomal translocation involving the retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARa or RARA) gene and is distinguished from other forms of AML by its responsiveness to all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA; also known as tretinoin) therapy. Acute promyelocytic leukemia was first characterized in 1957 by French and Norwegian physicians as a hyperacute fatal illness,with a median survival time of less than a week.Today, prognoses have drastically improved; 10-year survival rates are estimated to be approximately 80-90% according to one study Acute promyelocytic leukemia is characterized by a chromosomal translocation involving the retinoic acid receptor-alpha gene on chromosome 17 (RARA). In 95% of cases of APL, retinoic acid receptor-alpha (RARA) gene on chromosome 17 is involved in a reciprocal translocation with the promyelocytic leukemia gene (PML) on chromosome 15, a translocation denoted as t(15;17)(q24;q21). The RAR receptor is dependent on retinoic acid for regulation of transcription. Eight other rare gene rearrangements have been described in APL fusing RARA to promyelocytic leukemia zinc finger (PLZF also known as ZBTB16), nucleophosmin(NPM1), nuclear matrix associated (NUMA1), signal transducer and activator of transcription 5b (STAT5B), protein kinase A regulatory subunit 1a (PRKAR1A), factor interacting with PAPOLA and CPSF1 (FIP1L1), BCL6 corepressor (BCOR) or oligonucleotide/oligosaccharide-binding fold containing 2A (OBFC2A also known as NABP1) genes. Some of these rearrangements are ATRA-sensitive or have unknown sensitivity to ATRA because they are so rare; STAT5B/RARA and PLZF/RARA are known to be resistant to ATRA. The fusion of PML and RARA results in expression of a hybrid protein with altered functions. This fusion protein binds with enhanced affinity to sites on the cell's DNA, blocking transcription and differentiation of granulocytes. It does so by enhancing interaction of nuclear co-repressor (NCOR) molecule and histone deacetylase (HDAC). Although the chromosomal translocation involving RARA is believed to be the initiating event, additional mutations are required for the development of leukemia. RAR-a/PLZF gene fusion produces a subtype of APL that is unresponsive to tretinoin therapy and less responsive to standard anthracycline chemotherapy hence leading to poorer long-term outcomes in this subset of patients Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 922

3

Retinoic acid is used in treatment

15/17 translocation may be seen

CD 15/34 both seen in same cell

Associated with Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DFVC)

Medicine

Haematology

e6564f44-1b2f-49ac-8ec3-910f90c8feee

multi

Which of the following statements about facilitated diffusion is true?

Ans. (b) It requires a carrier proteinIf Diffusion happens without energy but with the help of carrier protein, it's called facilitated diffusionOne good example of a substance that use facilitated diffusion carrier protein is GLUCOSE transport using Glucose Transporters (GLUT)

2

It is a form of active transport

It requires a carrier protein

Rate of transport is proportionate to the concentration gradient

Requires creatine phosphate

Physiology

General

df554c6f-23aa-441e-b247-e0d197b68fb5

multi

A 32-year-old patient has decreased pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities, atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of his hand, and brisk deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremity. Your diagnosis?

The patient is an adult with decreased pain and temperature sensation in the upper extremities, atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of his hand, and brisk deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremity. This constellation of clinical findings strongly suggests syringomyelia, which most commonly affects the cervical spinal cord. Syringomyelia refers to a fluid-filled space within the cervical spinal cord that produces (1) cervical cord enlargement, best visualized with magnetic resonance imaging; (2) cape-like neurologic abnormalities involving the shoulders and upper extremities; (3) decreased pain and temperature sensation from involvement of the crossed lateral spinothalamic tracts, with preservation of light touch and proprioception; (4) atrophy of the small muscles of the hands from anterior horn cell involvement, simulating amyotrophic lateral sclerosis; (5) involvement of the lateral coicospinal tract with upper motor neuron findings; (6) Horner's syndrome, consisting of pupillary constriction, lid lag, and anhidrosis; (7) and associations with Arnold-Chiari malformation and Dandy-Walker cysts. Regarding the other choices: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis involves motor neurons producing upper and lower motor neuron disease. Sensory findings are not present. Multiple sclerosis has sensory and motor deficits. Subacute combined degeneration occurs in vitamin B12 deficiency and involves the dorsal columns and the lateral coicospinal tract. Guillain-Barre syndrome is an ascending paralysis without the type of sensory deficits described in this patient. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 3180,3180f

3

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Multiple sclerosis

Syringomyelia

Subacute combined degeneration

Medicine

C.N.S

b8ea2eb5-d55c-44d3-acc8-3c4cc333a537

single

Which sinus is the last sinus to appear radiologically on X-ray?

Ans. is'c'i.e., Frontal sinus[Ref Textbook Of The Ear, Nose And Throat By De Soum, C. Et Al. p 394)

3

Maxillary sinus

Sphenoid sinus

Frontal sinus

Ethmoidal air cells

ENT

null

53ec7325-9570-424f-b6ce-323bc687e29e

multi

Blood group antigens chemically are

Ans is 'b' i.e.,Glycoprotein The ABO antigens are determined to be glycoproteins and glycolipids.

2

Carbohydrate

Glycoprotein

Phospholipids

Polysaccharide

Pathology

null

744d2f92-1604-4d76-812f-b1645aa394cd

multi

Lactiferous duct of breast contraction is due to:

Ans. C. Oxytocin* Oxytocin primarily results in stimulation of two specific types of muscular contraction:* Uterine muscular contraction during parturition* Breast lactiferous duct myoepithelial contraction during milk let down reflex.A Brief on Breast Functional Anatomy* The areola is central, pigmented portion of breast with a diameter of about 2.5cm.* Accessory glands located around the periphery of the areola are Montgomery glands (they can secrete milk).* The nipple accommodates about 15-20 lactiferous ducts and their openings.* Each milk duct (lactiferous duct) dilates to form lactiferous sinus at about 5-10mm away from its opening in the nipple. Lactiferous sinus acts as reservoir of milk.* The lining epithelium of the duct near the opening is stratified squamous. Each alveolus is lined by columnar epithelium where milk secretion occurs.* Myoepithelial cells are the network of branching longitudinal striated cells which surround the alveoli and the smaller ducts. There is a dense network of capillaries surrounding the alveoli. These are situated between the basement membrane and epithelial lining.* Contraction of these cells (in response to oxytocin) squeezes the alveoli and ejects the milk into the larger duct

3

Progesterone

Estrogen

Oxytocin

Prolactin

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Endocrinology in Relation to Reproduction

22100851-7213-46be-8a93-ec92d382a966

single

A patient presents to the emergency depament with uniocular diplopia. Examination with oblique illumination shows golden crescent while . examination with co-axial illumination show a dark crescent line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -

Ectopia lentis is a displacement or malposition of the eye's crystalline lens from its normal location. A paial dislocation of a lens is termed lens subluxation or subluxated lens; a complete dislocation of a lens is termed lens luxation or luxated lens. Uniocular diplopia is due to paial aphakia. Edge of subluxated lens is seen as dark crescent line on distant direct ophthalmoscopy. Shining bright golden crescent on slit-lamp examination. Phacodonesis may be seen. Ref: AK Khurana 6thE pg217

4

Lenticonus

Coloboma

Microspherophakia

Ectopia lentis

Ophthalmology

Lens

56417a1c-f476-4a6f-a472-fb940c723d0f

single

A young patient is hospitalized with petechiae of oral mucous membrane, marginal gingival hemorrhage and with a platelet count of 45,000/ cc. The BT and Clot Retraction time are increased, RBC and TLC are normal. He is suffering from:

null

2

Infectious mononucleosis

Thrombocytopenic purpura

Leukemia

Hemophilia

Pathology

null

d06229d8-762d-4b07-b6d8-2280092ca138

single

The monoclonal antibody useful in the treatment of PNH is:

By blocking the complement cascade downstream of C5, eculizumab abolishes complement-dependent intravascular hemolysis in all PNH patients, and significantly improves their quality of life. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 884

2

Rituximab

Eculizumab

Infliximab

Adalimumab

Medicine

null

25f77ff2-e256-4ec0-85be-278ca275702e

single

Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not complaint with therapy –

This question is straight forward; spiramycin is in pregnancy is given for toxoplasmosis. Prenatally acquired T.gondii may infect the brain and retina of the fetus and can cause chorioretinitis, intracerebral calcifications, and hydrocephalus. Cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus may also occur with congenital CMV and HSV infection, but spiramycin is not given for these infections.

2

Rubella

Toxoplasmosis

CMV

Herpes

Pediatrics

null

93ddb4e1-f815-45b3-9a0e-feee8735f398

single

Most malignant tumor of salivary glands -

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoid cystic carcinoma

3

Pleomorphic adenoma

Wahin tumor

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Acinic cell tumor

Pathology

null

de47747d-dbcf-4f51-8921-b867f434cec9

single

On MRI, the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:

Myelomalacia is a increased T2w signal in the spinal cord where the spinal cord is atrophic with gliosis producing small and bright appearence of spinal cord

2

Myelodysplasia

Myelomalacia

Myeloschisis

Cord tumors

Radiology

Musculoskeletal Radiology

f7320c8f-3489-43db-8a71-cd0df79acafd

single

The graph shown in the illustration is known as:

Ans. B. Cystometrograma. Cystometry, also known as flow cystometry, is a clinical diagnostic procedure used to evaluate bladder function. Specifically,b. it measures contractile force of the bladder when voiding. The resulting chart generated from cystometric analysis is known as a CYSTOMETROGRAM (CMG), which plots volume of liquid emptied from bladder against intravesical pressure.c. Cystometric analysis is used to evaluate the bladder's capacity to contract and expel urine. It helps determine the source of urinary problems. A normal CMG effectively rules out primary vesica! dysfunction.d. It is used as a component for diagnosis of various disorders including urinary tract infections, multiple sclerosis, stroke, spinal cord injury, urethral obstruction, and overactive bladder, among others.e. The procedure is relatively short, ranging from fifteen minutes to an hour in duration. It involves the insertion of one or two catheters into an emptied bladder through the urethra.f. In the two catheter method, one catheter transfers liquid while the other is a manometer (pressure sensor).g. In the single catheter method, a specialized catheter performs both functions.h. An additional rectal catheter may also be placed for additional data. The bladder will then be filled with saline and the patient's awareness of the event will be queried.i. The patient will often be asked to note when presence of liquid is felt, when the bladder feels full and when the urgency to void is felt.j. The patient is then asked to void, and both flow and pressure are recorded. These are plotted against each other to create the cystometrogram.k. The primary results of cystometric analysis is the cystometrogram. The x-axis is the volume of liquid and the y-axis is the intraluminal pressure of the bladder.l. In normal patients, the plot is a series of spikes whose local minimums form a non-linear curve resembling an exponential growth curve. The spikes correspond to the bladder contractions associated with the micturition reflex.m. The curve formed by the bottom of the plot reflects the level of pressure necessary to void. In normal patients, the first couple hundred milliliters of urine flow with minimal applied pressure. Increasing pressure is necessary to void 200-300 milliliters of urine. Beyond that, the pressure necessary to void additional urine rises sharply.n. As with any catheterization, the primary risk is of urinary tract infection. As a result, the procedure is contraindicated in any patient with an active UTI because the results may be skewed and the infection may spreado. There is also the potential for trauma to the bladder and urethra, which may result in hematuria (blood in the urine).

2

Nephrogram

Cystometrogram

Pyelograph

None of the above

Physiology

Kidneys and Body Fluids

466020eb-8751-4f00-9dde-aff3b276daeb

multi

Perineal body muscles include all of the following except?

Ans. is 'd' i.e., IliacusTen muscles of perineum converge and interlace in the perineal body -A) Two unpaired - (i) External anal sphincter, (ii) Fibres of longitudinal muscle coat of anal canal.B) Four paired:- (i) Bulbospongiosus, (ii) Superficial transverse perenei, (iii) Deep transversus perenei, (iv) Levator ani.In females, sphincter urethrovaginalis is also attached here.

4

External anal sphincter

Levator ani

Deep transverse perenei

Iliacus

Anatomy

null

6cf1864e-124c-4d5a-8a0f-051938567538

multi

Phobia is defined as -

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Excessive unreasonable fear about a specific situation o Phobia is persistent and morbid fear of specific situation, object or activity.Phobic disorderso Phobia is persistent and morbid fear of specific situation, object or activity. The fear is morbid because : - a) The fear is irrational: The objects or situations do not produce fear in normal persons.b )The fear is out of proportion to the dangerousness perceived that the affected person avoids the situation permanently.c) Patient is unable to control the fear and is very distressed by it.o The common types of phobia are: -AgoraphobiaThis is an example of irrational fear of situations. It is the commonest type of phobia encountered in clinical practice.It is characterized by an irrational fear of being in places away from familiar setting of home and patient believes that he cannot escape from these places, to a safer place (usually home). This fear results in avoidance of these places which include public places, stores, crowd, travelling alone in bus, train or plane, Theaters, Tunnels, Bridge, standing in line small enclosed rooms or lifts.The patient is afraid of all the places or situations from where escape may be perceived to be difficult if he suddenly develops embrassing or incapaciating symptoms. These embrassing or incapaciating symptoms are the classical symptoms of panic. A full-blown panic attack may occur (agoraphobia with panic disorder) or only a few symptoms (like dizziness or tachycardia) may occur (agoraphobia without panic disorder).Social phobiaIn social phobia there is irrational fear of one or more social or performance situations in which the person is concerned about negative evaluation or scrutiny by others, for example : Public speaking; writing/drinking/ eating in public; using public lavatories.Feared social or performance situations may produce anxiety- symptoms, even a panic attack. Therefore, feared social or performance situations are avoided.Specific (simple) phobiaThese are phobias limited to highly specific situations or objects, for example.i) Claustrophobia : - Fear of closed spacesviii) Mysophobia : - Fear of dirt & germsii) Acro/Aerophobia : - Fear of high placesix) Erythrophobia : - Fear of blushingiii) Zoophobia : - Fear of animalsx) Sitophobia : - Fear of eatingiv) Pyrophobia: - Fear of firexi) Ailurophobia : - Fear of catsv) Xenophobia : - Fear of strangersxii) Sitaphobia Fear of dogsvi) AlgophobiaFears of painxiii) Hydrophobia Fear of watervii) Thanatophobia : - Fear of death

2

Palpitation on thinking about a definite entity

Excessive unreasonable fear about a specific situation

Perception without stimulation

Altered perception

Psychiatry

Specific Phobia

fbd2b85b-061b-4208-91d5-eed33365169f

single

Carbohydrates malabsorption is detected by:

Breath hydrogen test: used to identify the specific carbohydrate (lactose, sucrose, fructose, or glucose) that is malabsorbed. Ex: Lactose, if not absorbed in the small intestine, reaches the colon, where it is fermented to sho-chain organic acids, releasing hydrogen that is detected in the lactose breath test Rapid urease test: for H. pylori

1

Breath hydrogen test

Nitrogen breath test

Fecal nitrogen

Rapid urease test

Pediatrics

Disorders of Gastrointestinal System Including Diarrhea

baf02112-f74d-4aaa-b5c7-131c7515a27c

single

Shy, self oriented and relationship problems are seen in which personality disorder:

Persons with Schizoid personality disorder will be shy, isolated and uncomfortable with human interactions & hence relationship problems.

1

Schizoid personality disorder

Paranoid personality disorder

Borderline personality disorder

Antisocial personality disorder

Psychiatry

null

96c51d5d-c0d5-45f2-b6fe-f796860f1d0f

single

Best test for detecting seminal stain is:

Image 1.- p30 test (Best test for seminal fluid is microscopy.) Image 2 -Barberio's test Image3-Florence test Image 4-Acid phosphatase test Some hot points for Blood Stain and Semen1. For identification of a blood stain the most reliable test is Spectroscopic test.2. Screening bloodstain --> presence of enzyme Peroxidase.3. Benzidine test has been banned due to carcinogenic effect.4. Takayama reagent is used in Hemochromogen.5. positive Kastle Mayer test -->a pink stain colour.6. Positive cases of Teichmann's test--> Dark brown rhombic crystals7. Species identification of a bloodstain -->Precipitin test.8. The best method to detect disputed paternity -->DNA fingerprinting.9. Group specific substance are not found in CSF.10. Best specimen for DNA fingerprinting in a living person blood preserved with EDTA.11. Best post-moem tissue sample for DNA fingerprinting in a decomposed body bone marrow.12. Tests for an old blood stain -->Benzidine test.13. Brain-mapping is---> lie-detection test.14. The drug used for narco-analysis --> Pentothal.15. eeg is used in Brain fingerprinting16. Semen has luminescence in UV light.17. Florence test produces choline iodide crystals.18. Barberio's test produces sperm in picrate crystals.19. Acid phosphatase levels in semen are > 100 Bodansky units.

1

Forensic Medicine

FMT Q Bank

8050229a-45c2-4328-9569-d00da3b8f270

single

Grade I benign prostate with outflow obstruction is best treated with -

• MC indication for surgery is symptoms interfering with quality of life (bothersome symptoms and symptoms of BOO). • TURP (Gold standard) : −− Cystoscopic removal of strips of prostatic tissue using diathermy loop. Two techniques; NESBIT technique (preferred maver mayer technique) −− Best irrigant fluid is 1.5% glycine (Electrolyte solutions like NaCl are not compatible with electrocautery, so not used). −− Glycine is composed of glycolic acid and ammonium, which can cause CNS (visual) toxicity. TURIS: TUR in saline using bipolar cautery • Verumontanum is the single most important anatomical landmark in TURP. • Verumontanum lies immediately proximal to external sphincter and serve as the distal landmark for prostate resection to prevent injury to the external sphincter. • Verumontanum: Distal landmark for prostate resection. • Verumontanum: Landmark for proximal limit of external sphincter. −− Risks of TURP: Retrograde ejaculation (75%)Q, impotence (5–10%) and incontinence (< 1%). −− Complications: Bleeding, urethral stricture or bladder neck contracture, perforation of the prostate capsule with extravasation, and if severe, TUR syndrome. TUR syndrome (Dilutional hyponatremia or water intoxication) • TUR syndrome (Dilutional hyponatremia or water intoxication) resulting from a hypervolemic, hyponatremic state due to absorption of the hypotonic irrigating solution. • Clinical Features: Nausea, vomiting, confusion, hypertension, bradycardia, and visual disturbances. • The risk increases with resection times > 90 minutes or gland size > 75 gm. • Treatment includes diuresis (furosemide) and in severe cases, hypertonic saline (3%) administration. Late Complications of TURP • Bladder neck stenosis (4%) > Urethral stricture (3.6%) • Bladder neck stenosis is seen more often with small (< 30 gm) fibrotic prostates. • Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP): −− For posterior commissure hyperplasia (elevated bladder neck), involves two incisions using the Collins knife at the 5- and 7-o’clock positions. −− The incisions are started just distal to the ureteral orifices and are extended outward to the verumontanum. • TUIP lowers the incidence of bladder neck contracture when compared to TURP, so TUIP should be strongly considered in patients with smaller gland in place of TURP. • TUIP is used for smaller (20 gm) prostate, young patients. • Decreased incidence of retrograde ejaculation as compared to TURP. • Open simple prostatectomy: Glands > 75 gm, concomitant bladder diverticulum or a bladder stone or if dorsal lithotomy positioning is not possible. −− Suprapubic prostatectomy: Performed transvesically (Frayer’s) and operation of choice in dealing with concomitant bladder pathology (Bladder stones or diverticulum). −− Retropubic prostatectomy (Millin’s): Transverse incision is made in surgical capsule of prostate and enucleation is done. −− Perineal prostatectomy (Youngs): Abandoned now • Carcinoma prostate originates in peripheral zone of prostate, so prostatectomy for BPH confers no protection for subsequent cancer.

2

Retropubic prostatectomy

Transurethral resection

Transvesical prostatectomy

Androgen therapy

Surgery

null

fd96d56b-41d4-48a1-9749-11cd774beb73

single

Which of the following forms Anterior boundary of Middle mediastinum?

BOUNDARIES OF MIDDLE MEDIASTINUM: Anteriorly - sterno-pericardial ligaments Posteriorly - esophagus, descending thoracic aoa, Azygos vein On each side - Mediastinal pleura

1

Sterno-pericardial ligaments

Oesophagus

Azygos vein

Descending thoracic aoa

Anatomy

Surfaces and Grooves

0956529f-0633-4297-ba22-682d09c11db8

single

Herring Breuer reflex is an increase in ?

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Duration of expirationThe Hering-Breuer inflation reflex is an increase in the duration of expiration produced by steady lung inflation, and the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex is a decrease in the duration of expiration produced by marked deflation of the lung.

2

Duration of inspiration

Duration of expiration

Depth of inspiration

Depth of expiration

Physiology

null

25b0353e-6fb9-4284-84d5-5d1ab9b8d444

single

A PATIENT WAS ON LITHIUM THERAPY FOR BIPOLAR DISORDER FOR 6MONTHS SHE KEPT THE FAST FOR FEW DAYS .SHE PRESENTED WITH S3 , COARSE TREMORS , CONFUSION AND WEAKNESS OF LIMBS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE NEXT TO ASSESS HER CONDITION ?

REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED

4

S.ELECTROLYTES

ECG

MRI

S.LITHIUM LEVELS

Pharmacology

All India exam

fb2cf0c0-7b85-4ba0-b985-153b7bad10d7

single

A child can withhold and postpone bowel movements by the age of:

Ans: b (3 years) Ref: OP Ghai,6th, ed, p. 47At the age of 3 years, a child can withhold and postpone his bowel movements.* Gastrocol ic reflex weakens by 4 months* Bowel movement becomes irregular without any relation to eating by 7 months.* Toddler can walk to the toilet by the age of 15 to 18 months and is usually ready to start toilet training.* By the age of 2 years he is trainable.List of repeatedly asked important milestones:GraspMotor* Bidextrous-- 5 months* Crawling-- 8 months* Palmar grasp-- 7 months* Creeping-- 10 months* Pincer grasp-- 9 months* Cruising-- 10 months* Transfer of objects from one hand to other -- 6-7 months* Turns knob and unscrews lid-- 1 -2 yearsSocial and adaptive* Tiptoe walking* Rides tricycle-- 2 1/2 years-- 3 years* Enjoys mirror image -- 6 months* Momentarily stand* Stranger anxiety-- 7-9 monthson one foot-- 3 years* Pat a cake--10 months* Hops-- 4 years* Peek a boo-- 10 months* Skip-- 5 years* Know sex and age -- 3 years LanguageFine motor* Cooing-- 3 month* Copies a line-- 2 years* Babbles-- 5-6 months* Copies a circle-- 3 years* Monosyllables --- 6 months* Copies a square and plus-- 4 years* Vocalize-- 6-7 months* Copies cross and triangle-- 5 years* Bisyllables-- 9 months * 2 Words with meaning--12 months* Speaks 10 words -- 18 months* Tells a story-- 3 yearsNOTE* The moro reflex is never encountered with normal full term infants after 6 months of age* The earliest neonatal reflex to disappear--sucking and rooting* The neonatal reflex which persists throughout life--parachute reflex.

2

2 years

3 years

5 years

4 years

Pediatrics

Growth, Development, and Behavior

e01b2094-572c-43f9-a3b1-75e4ed41515d

single

10 year old girl with primary amenorrhoea, absent breasts, malformed uterus. The most likely diagnosis:

Ans. is 'b' i.e. Turner's syndrome Swyer syndrome (Pure gonadal dysgenesis)Patients with pure gonadal dysgenesis have XY karyotype.In these cases primitive germ cells do not migrate to the genital ridge so testis will not develop instead, the patients have streak gonads.Normal testis secretes Mullerian inhibiting factor and Testosterone.Thus in these cases there is absence of mullerian inhibiting factor and Testosterone.So these patients have normal female internal and external genitaliaAbsence of MIF causes - Development of mullerian structures i.e. uterus, Fallopian tubeAbsence of testosterone stops the development of - wool lian duct structures i.e. seminal vesicle, prostateThese individuals are not able to produce any estrogen so they will not develop breast Mayor Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome :This is also known as Mullerian agenesis syndrome.In these cases patient does not develop mullerian structures i.e. uterus, Fallopian tube and upper portion of vagina.The breast development is normal in these patients.Mixed Gonadal dysgenesisMixed gonadal dysgenesis is a type of asymmetrical gonadal dysgenesis (one side is more developed than the other).In most of the cases there is a unilateral testis usually intraabdominal and a streak gonad on the contralateral side. Functionally the gonads are incompetent i.e. theyFailed to completely inhibit mullerian developmentFailed to support full differentiation of mesonephric duct structuresFailed to adequately masculinize development of external genitaliaOften fail to mediate their own descent, resulting in asymmetry of internal and external genitalis.The mullerian structures are present since no anti mullerian hormones are produced.The patient has normal uterus usually B/L fallopian tubes.The external genitalia are always masculinized.The breast is not developed.Turner's syndromeIn Turner's syndrome the gonads are not properly developed (streak gonads)The ovary is not properly developed and it cannot secrete adequate amount of estrogen.This leads to lack of secondary sexual characteristic.Breast is not developed properly.Uterus is not developed properly in most of the patients who have not received estrogen therapy.The crux is:MRKSNo uterusNormal breastPrimary AmenorrhoeaPure Gonadal dysgenesisNormal uterusPrimary amenorrhoeaNo breastMixed Gonadal dysgenics* Normal uterus Primary amenorrhoeaNo breastTurners syndromeUnderdeveloped uterusUndeveloped breastPrimary amenorrhoea

2

MRKH syndrome

Turner's syndrome

Swyer syndrome

Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Genital Differentiation

cd890433-38ff-40b2-acf4-4ebe8ae52ff0

single

Which of the following is not seen in scoline apnea

Ans. d. It occurs due to deficiency of cholinesterase

4

It is due to succinylcholine

It can be inherited

Patients usually do not die of scoline apne they are properly managed

It occurs due to deficiency of cholinesterase

Skin

null

06134934-d5fe-47b7-a653-3ef276b36dbb

multi

Diabetic gangrene is due to -

Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above

4

Ischemia

Increased blood glucose

Altered defense by host and neuropathy

All of the above

Surgery

null

2e237c12-b3f6-4771-ac63-b2780e15be83

multi

Maximum damage to skin is caused by

Ans. c (Orthovoltage X-ray) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th ed. 484)# External Beam therapy unit includea. X-ray machine orb. Teletherapy unit (i.e. Linear Acclerator or Cobalt-60 unit)# Beams used for external radiotherapy are# X-ray beams:a. Conventionalb. Superficial: 40 to 120 kVc. Orthovoltage: 250 to 400 kVd. Megavoltage: (> 1Mv) - 2, 4, 6, 12 & 35 MeV# Gamma ray beams:a. Cobalt -60 beamb. Cesium -137 beam# Particle beams:a. Electronsb. Protonsc. NeutronsThus routine radio-therapy treatment is by X-ray beams in the super voltage or mega voltage range.# Orthovoltage or deep X-ray therapy machine produce X-rays with a voltage of 200-300 kV.# For many years they were the most powerful machines in radiotherapy and were used to irradiate most sites, however now been replaced by megavoltage equipments because of following advantages of megavoltage therapy (2 to 8 million volts);# Skin sparing effects: With orthovoltage X-rays maximum dose is received by skin surface whereas with high voltagesmaximum dose is at some distance beneath skin, the skin is thus spared with high dose.# Greater penetration of beam# Differential absorption in tissues# Improved collimation

3

Super voltage X-ray therapy

Mega voltage X-ray

Orthovoltage X-ray

Cobalt-60

Radiology

Fundamentals In Radiology

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Egyptian opthalmia is-

Trachoma (previously known as Egyptian ophthalmia) is a chronic keratoconjunctivitis, primarily affecting the superficial epithelium of conjunctiva and cornea simultaneously. It is characterised by a mixed follicular and papillary response of conjunctival tissue It is still one of the leading causes of preventable blindness in the world.b The word &;trachoma&; comes from the Greek word for &;rough&; which describes the surface appearance of the conjunctiva in chronic trachoma. Ref: A K KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTALMOLOGY,E4,page-62

2

Spring Catarrh

Trachoma

Intersitial keratitis

xerophthalmia

Ophthalmology

Conjunctiva

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An alcoholic person comes to your office, he can't tell his name, there is gross incordination in walking and his eye is deviated to one side. What is your diagnosis?

Incordination in walking (ataxia), and deviation of the eye to one side (ophthalmoplegia due to 6th nerve palsy) and inability to tell his name (suggests of confusion) in an alcoholic suggest the diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy.

1

Wernicke's encephalopathy

Korsakoff's psychosis

Alcoholic hallucination

Delirium tremens

Psychiatry

null

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Lateral ventricle is connected to third ventricle by?

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Foramen of Monro Ventricles of brain These are cavities in the brain lined by ependyma and filled with CSF.They contain choroid plexuses with secrete CSF.These are four fluid filled intercommunicating cavities within the brain :- (i) two lateral ventricles (right and left), (ii) third ventricle, and (iii) fouh ventricle. Lateral ventricle communicates with third ventricle by interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro). Third ventricle communicates with fouh ventricle by cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of sylvius).Fouh ventricle communicates with subarachnoid space by a median foramen (Mangendie) and two lateral (Luschka)foramina.

1

Foramen of Monro

Foramen of luschka

Foramen of magendie

Median foramen

Anatomy

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A 28-year-old woman patient who is 13 weeks pregnant presents for an antenatal clinic appointment. The patient feels embarrassed when asked to provide a urine sample and produces enough for a urine dipstick test only which is positive for leukocytes and nitrites. The patient denies any symptoms. The most appropriate treatment is:

The treatment of symptomatic and asymptomatic bacteriuria is impoant to prevent complications in pregnancy. Empiric treatment for common organisms such as Escherichia coli and Proteus should be administered while maintaining safety. Penicillins and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin (D), are safe for use during pregnancy. Nitrofurantoins are also effective. Trimethoprim (A) is a folic acid antagonist and therefore should be avoided in pregnancy, especially in the first trimester of pregnancy as in this patient. Fluoroquinolones (B) and tetracyclines (C) are also known teogens and must also be avoided in pregnancy.

4

Trimethoprim

Quinolone

Tetracycline

Cephalexin

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

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Which one of the following amino acid residue is carboxylated by Vitamin K?

Vitamin K is the cofactor for g-carboxylation of glutamate residues of protein to produce g-carboxy glutamate (gla). This process is known as Vitamin K epoxide cycle (as illustrated in the image below).

2

Aspaate

Glutamate

Tryptophan

Tyrosine

Biochemistry

Vitamins and Minerals

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single

Tricyclic Anti depressant are contraindicated in

A i.e. Glucoma

1

Glucoma

Brain Tumor

Bronchial Asthma

Hypeension

Psychiatry

null

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single

Esophagus is present in all except

It passes through the mediastinum in both the superior and the inferior posterior sections before entering the abdominal cavity by passing through the right crus of the diaphragm at the level of the tenth thoracic veebrae. ref - BDC vol1 6e pg 282

3

Superior mediastinum

Middle mediastinum

Anterior mediastinum

Posterior mediastinum

Anatomy

Thorax

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multi

Fatty acid present in breast milk which is impoant for growth & CNS development is:

Human milk contains 30 times more DHA than cow's milk- predominant fatty acid in brain and retina

1

Docosahexaenoic acid

Palmitic acid

Linoleic acid

Linolenic acid

Pediatrics

Breast Milk & Breast Feeding

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All are true regarding course of ureter in pelvis except

Obturator vessels and nerve lie laterally in relation to ureter at pelvic brim.

3

Ureter passes over bifurcation of common iliac artery

It is crossed by ovarian vessels where it enters true pelvis

Obturator vessels and nerve lie medially in relation to ureter at pelvic brim

Ureter pierces lateral ligament where ureteric canal is developed.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

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multi

Treatment of hypoglycemia due to insulin is all except

Adrenaline is a counter-regulatory hormone. Hypoglycemia is managed by glucose or oral carbohydrates or oral juices or Glucagon other counter regulatory hormones are growth hormone,steroids. Ref: Harrison16th ed. Pg 2185

3

Glucagon

Glucose IV

Adrenaline

Candy

Pharmacology

Endocrinology

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multi

In Rh Isoimmunization, exchange transfusion is indicated in all of the following except:

d. Hydrops fetalis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 871-879, Ghai 8/e p 172-176)Indications of Exchange transfusion in a neonate with Rh incompatibility are:Cord hemoglobin <10g/dL or Cord bilirubin >5mg/dLDirect coomb's test positive & H/o kernicterus or severe erythroblastosis in a sibling.

4

Cord blood hemoglobin < 10 g/dl

Cord bilirubin is more than 5 mg/dl

DCT positive & History of previous sibling affected

Hydrops fetalis

Pediatrics

New Born Infants

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Which of the following is the BEST way to treat medullary carcinoma of thyroid?

Treatment of choice for the medullary carcinoma of thyroid is the Total thyroidectomy + modified radical neck dissection. But the option is not provided among options. As total thyroidectomy is provide in option 3 and 4 so answer should be either 3 or 4 Now as far as radioiodine is concerned, it is clearly mentioned in the schwaz that radioiodine is ineffective and about radiotherapy, it has been mentioned that "External beam radiotherapy is controversial, but is recommended for patient with unresectable residual or recurrent tumor" So option 4 i.e. Total thyroidectomy + radiotherapy is the answer here. Ref: Schwaz Surgery 9/e, Page 1368.

4

Near total thyroidectomy + Radioiodine

Subtotal thyroidectomy + Radiotherapy

Total thyroidectomy + Radioiodine

Total thyroidectomy + Radiotherapy

Surgery

null

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Hea-lung machines are sterilized by?

ETHYLENE DIOXIDE its action is due to alkylating the amino ,carboxy,hydroxyland sulphydrl groups in protein molecules. In addition it reacts with DNA and RNA. It is use as a disinfectant presents a potential toxicity to human beings including mutagenicity and carcinogenicity. it diffuses through many types of porous materials nad readily penetrates some plastics.it is especially used for sterilising hea lung machines ,respirators sutures dental equipments books and clothing.it is unsuitable for fumigating rooms because of its explosive propey. it has been successfully used to sterilise a wide range of materials such as glass metas and paper surfaces clothing ,plastics,soil, some foods and tobacco. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:37

2

Glutaraldehyde

Ethylene oxide

Carbolic acid

Aqueous solution of iodine

Microbiology

general microbiology

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