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A G2P1 A0 presents with full-term pregnancy with tranverse lie in the first stage of labour. On examination, cervix is 5 cm dilated, membranes are intact and fetal hea sounds are regular. What would be the appropriate management in this case :
Cesarean section
3
Wait for spontaneous evolution and expulsion
External cephalic version
Cesarean section
All
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e45b6ff9-fb5f-47fa-83a9-30e09d893967
multi
Organic nitrates can lead to the development of tolerance when used chronically. Which of the following preparations is least likely to develop tolerance:
Tolerance develops to nitrates, when these are present constantly in the blood. Sublingual route leads to immediate action of nitrates and these act for a sho time. Other preparations mentioned in the question are more likely to give consistent plasma levels of nitrates leading to development of tolerance.
2
Sustained release oral nitroglycerine
Sublingual nitroglycerine
Transdermal nitroglycerine
Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
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Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of cytochrome p450 enzymes?
Ans. (A) Ketoconazole(Ref: KDT 8th/e p30)Ketoconazole is a powerful microsomal enzyme inhibitor whereas rifampicin, phenobarbitone and phenytoin are enzyme inducers.
1
Ketoconazole
Rifampicin
Phenytoin
Phenobarbitone
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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The mother of a 2-week-old infant reports that since birth, her infant sleeps most of the day; she has to awaken her every 4 hours to feed, and she will take only an ounce of formula at a time. She also is concerned that the infant has persistently hard, pellet-like stools. On your examination you find an infant with normal weight and length, but with an enlarged head. The heart rate is 75 beats per minute and the temperature is 35degC (95degF). The child is still jaundiced. You note large anterior and posterior fontanelles, a distended abdomen, and an umbilical hernia. This clinical presentation is likely a result of which of the following?
The clinical findings of congenital hypothyroidism are subtle, and may not be present at all at birth; this is thought to be a result of passage of some maternal T4 transplacentally. Infants with examination findings will usually have an umbilical hernia and a distended abdomen. The head may be large, and the fontanelles will be large as well. The child may be hypothermic and have feeding difficulties; constipation and jaundice may be persistent. Skin may be cold and mottled, and edema may be found in the genitals and extremities. The heart rate may be slow, and anemia may develop. As these findings may be subtle or nonexistent, neonatal screening programs are extremely important for early diagnosis of these infants.Sepsis can cause hypothermia and poor feeding, but the 2-week course makes this choice unlikely. Hirschsprung disease may cause chronic constipation and abdominal distension, but not the other findings. Botulism can cause a flaccid paralysis and poor feeding, but the large fontanelles and umbilical hernia are not caused by this infection.
1
Congenital hypothyroidism
Congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung disease)
Sepsis
Infantile botulism
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
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A 30 year old patient with radiographic appearance of endosteal bone formation, sclerosed bone is likely to be suffered from?
null
2
Garre's osteomyelitis
Chronic focaL sclerosing osteomyelitis
Acute osteomyelitis
Chronic osteomyelitis
Pathology
null
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single
Number of ovum at bih is
In humans no ova formed after bih. at time of bih there are 2 million ova.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 401
1
2-3 million
2-5 million
7-10 million
10-15 million
Physiology
Endocrinology
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All of the following is used for gradation of coma in Glasgow coma scale except-
null
4
Eye opening
Motor response
Verbal response
Bladder function
Medicine
null
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multi
A 40 year old male patient came for routine checkup. Patient is a smoker and has a sedentary lifestyle .General examination reveals truncal obesity. Physician warns the patient against the coronary heart disease chances. The physician is evaluating the risk factors which maybe all except:
Additional factors considered to play a part in coronary heart disease include high blood pressure, smoking, male gender, obesity (particularly abdominal obesity), lack of exercise, and drinking soft as opposed to hard water. Factors associated with elevation of plasma FFA followed by increased output of triacylglycerol and cholesterol into the circulation in VLDL include emotional  stress  and coffee drinking. Premenopausal women appear to be protected against many of these deleterious factors, and this is thought to be related to the beneficial effects of estrogen. There is an association between moderate alcohol consumption and a lower incidence of coronary heart disease. This may be due to elevation of HDL concentrations resulting from increased synthesis of apo A-I and changes in activity of cholesteryl ester transfer protein. It has been claimed that red wine is particularly beneficial, perhaps because of its content of antioxidants. Regular exercise lowers plasma LDL but raises HDL. Triacylglycerol concentrations are also reduced, due most likely to increased insulin sensitivity, which enhances the expression of lipoprotein lipase. Reference: HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY30th ed Page no 274
4
High blood pressure
Gender
Obesity
Hard water drinking
Biochemistry
null
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A 30-year-old woman complains of weakness and fatigability over the past 6 months. She has a 3-month acute history of severe hypertension that has required treatment with antihypertensive medications. Radiographic examination reveals a tumor of her right suprarenal gland. The patient is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma (tumor of the adrenal medulla) and is scheduled for a laparoscopic adrenalectomy. Which of the following nerve fibers will need to be cut when the adrenal gland and tumor are removed?
The preganglionic sympathetic fibers running to the adrenal gland would be cut during adrenalectomy for they synapse on catecholamine-secreting cells within the adrenal medulla. Unlike the normal route of sympathetic innervation, which is to first synapse in a sympathetic ganglion and then send postganglionic fibers to the target tissue, the chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland are innervated directly by preganglionic sympathetic fibers. This is because the chromaffin cells are embryologically postganglionic neurons that migrate to the medulla and undergo differentiation. The adrenal gland receives no other recognized types of innervation; therefore, the remaining answer choices are all incorrect.
1
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
Somatic motor fibers
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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Treatment of choice for acute panic attacks is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Benzodiazepines Treatment of Panic disorderso Two most effective treatment are:1) Pharmacotherapy:- The cornerstone of drug therapy is andidepressants. SSRIs (Fluoxetine or other) are the preferred agents. Because therapeutic effect of antidepressants takes some time to develop, intially Benzodiazepines are given along with antidepressants to provide immediate relieffrom anxiety and panic attack. So, DOC of acute panic attack is benzodiazepine.Drug used for Panic disordersSSRIs:- Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertaline, Fluvoxamine, Citalopram.TCAs:- Clomipramine, imipramineBZDs:- Alprazolam, Clonazepam, Diazepam, Lorazepam.MAOIs - Tranylcypromine, PhenelzineRIMAs:- Moclobemide, BrofaramineAtypical antidepressants:- VenalafaxineOther:- Valproic acid, inositol.2) Cognitive - Behavioral therapy:- Combination of cognitive or behavioral therapy with pharamacotherapy is more effective than either approach alone.o Other therapies include family therapy, insight-oriented psychotherapy (psychoanalysis and psychodynamic therapy).Remembero Drug of choice for panic disorders - SSRIso Drug of choice for acute panic attack - Benzodiazepines
2
Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines
TCAs
MAO inhibitors
Psychiatry
Panic Disorder
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You are conducting an autopsy on a patient and you find the so-called ladder tears near the main lesion on a major blood vessel. What is the most likely cause of the injury and subsequent death of the person?
The aoa may rupture as a result of sudden deceleration as in A. The aoic rupture is circular and clean cut and appears as if it was cut by a sharp knife. Sometimes multiple transverse internal tears adjacent to the main rupture is seen and these are called ladder tears. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine by Narayana Reddy, Edition 20, Page 237
1
Rapid deceleration
Penetrating injury
Lightning strike
Strangulation
Forensic Medicine
null
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Dilution segment in nephron is:
Ans. a. Ascending LOH
1
Ascending LOH
Descending LOH
Collecting tubule
Proximal tubule
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
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Which of the following hormones exerts the least effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue?
null
3
Androgen
Estrogen
Nor epinephrine
Thyroid hormone
Physiology
null
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A 9-year-old boy is brought with history of decreased urine output, cola colored urine and swelling of the face & hands of 2 days duration. He is hypeensive, has a puffy face and pitting edema of the lower limbs. He has history of skin lesions 4 weeks earlier. A diagnosis of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is made. C3 levels are likely to return to normal in?
C3 levels are likely to return to normal in- 8 weeks According to some sources, C3 level normalises in 6-8 weeks & according to other, its 8-12 weeks. So the closest ans- 8 weeks
3
2 weeks
4 weeks
8 weeks
6 weeks
Pediatrics
Nephritic & Nephrotic Syndrome
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A child has a history of profuse watery diarrhea, not taking orally and not passed urine for 2 days, which of the following to be given?
A child having a history of profuse watery diarrhea with poor oral intake and not passed urine for 2 days is suffering from diarrhea with dehydration and probably an acute renal failure of pre-renal types.Here the best choice is intravenous fluids.If IV access not possible, then you can give feed through Ryle's tube or intraosseous fluid.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2704 - 2705, 2714 - 2723)
3
Milk
ORS
IV fluids
IV antibiotics
Pediatrics
All India exam
72c23fe1-1e2a-4b96-b0d5-2b8e2ff79dbc
multi
The physical quality of life index takes into account all of the following factors except
Ref: Parks 23rd edition pg 17 PQLI includes literacy, infant moality rate and life expectancy at age 1.
4
Infant moality
Life expectancy at age one
Literacy
Income
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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Prolactin secretion is inhibited by:
Ans. is 'd' i.e. BromocriptineRef. K.D.T. 4th/ep244, K.D.T 5th/ep217Prolactin is under predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus through prolactin releasing inhibitory hormone (PRIH).PRIH is a dopamine that acts on pituitary lactotrope D2 receptor.So, Dopaminergic agonists decrease plasma prolactin levels. These agonists are :Dopamine*Bromocriptine*Apomorphine*Dopaminergic antagonists and DA depletes will increase prolactin levelDopaminergic antagonists are :ChlorpromazineHaloperidolMetoclopramideDopamine depletes are :Reserpine Methyl dopaUses of Bromocriptine are :Hyperprolactinemia*AcromegalyParkinsonism Hepatic comaSuppression of lactation and breast engorgement after delivery.
4
Dopamine antagonist
GABA
Neurophysin
Bromocripitine
Pharmacology
Bromocriptine
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All are true about intermittent claudication except
<p> Intermittent claudication: Crampy pain in the muscles seen in limbs. Due to aerial occlusion, metabolites like lactic acid and substance P accumulate in the muscle and cause pain. Site of pain depends on site of aerial occlusion. Most common site is calf muscles. Pain in foot is due to block in lower tibial and plantar vessels. Pain in calf is due to block in femoropopliteal segment. Pain in thigh is due to block in superficial femoral aery. Pain in buttock is due to block in common iliac aery. Pain commonly develops when muscles are exercising and relieved on rest. Beta blockers may aggravate claudication. {Reference: SRB&;s manual of surgery, 5th edition , page no. 170}
2
Most common in calf muscle
Pain is positional
Atherosclerosis is impoant predisposing factor
relieved by rest
Surgery
Vascular surgery
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Which of the following plays an important role in retinol mobilization?
Zinc plays an important role in retinol mobilization.
1
Zinc
Iron
Manganese
Magnesium
Biochemistry
null
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Following is true regarding opening snap :
Answer is A (It is a high pitched diastolic sound) Opening snap is brief high pitched sound heard in early diastole. Opening snap brief high pitched sound heard in early diastole (Ejection sound are heard in systole) It is usually due to stenosis of an (A.V.) most often mitral value. It follows second hea sound, A2 by 0.05 to 0.12 sec. It is generally best heard at lower left sternal border and radiates well to the base of hea It is best heard during expiration The time interval between Az and Os varies inversely with the severity of MS. It is followed by low pitched rumbling diastolic murmur Note: O.S. may also be audible in tricuspid stenosis O.S. of tricuspid stenosis occurs later in diastole than the mitral O.S. Opening snap indicates that : M.S. is organic (and significant)Q Valve cusp4 are pliable e - High atroventricular pressure gradient is present - Severe, AR, MR, AF, SABE are absent. e
1
It is a high-pitched diastolic sound
It s due to opening of stenosed aoic valve
It indicates pulmonary aerial hypeension
It preceedes the aoic component of second hea sound
Medicine
null
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A 20-year-old woman complains of headache and discomfort in both sides of her jaw. Physical examination reveals enlarged parotid glands that are slightly tender on palpation. There is reddening of the orifice of Stensen duct on intra oral examination; her temperature is 38.3degC, and the pulse rate is 80/min. Laboratory data show hemoglobin 14 g/dL; hematocrit 40%; WBC 11000/mL, with 33% segmented neutrophils, 7% monocytes, and 60% lymphocytes. Which of the following diagnostic tests will help to confirm the diagnosis of epidemic parotitis?
A single test revealing a specific IgM antibody can confirm the disease. Acute and convalescent titers of specific IgG antibodies will also confirm the diagnosis of mumps. Urine, saliva, and throat swabs will grow the mumps virus, but blood does not. Salivary amylase is elevated but is relatively nonspecific. Of course, a typical presentation during an epidemic probably does not require any confirmatory tests. Sporadic cases require more active confirmation. Other causes of parotitis requiring specific treatment include calculi, bacterial infections, and drugs. Tumors, sarcoid, TB, leukemia, Hodgkin disease, Sjogren syndrome, and lupus erythematosus can also cause parotid enlargement.
4
single blood sample for a specific immunoglobulin G (IgG)
blood cell count
blood culture
single blood test for a specific immunoglobulin M (IgM)
Medicine
Infection
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multi
Cell injury occurs due to
Cell injury occurs due to decreased generation of cellular ATP ATP is necessary for Na+--K+ ATPase pump and Ca pump action and many other cellular functions for the existence of the cell THE MORPHOLOGY OF CELL AND TISSUE INJURY It is useful to describe the structural alterations that occur in damaged cells before we discuss the biochemical mecha- nisms that bring about these changes. All stresses and noxious influences exe their effects first at the molecular or biochemical level. Cellular function may be lost long before cell death occurs, and the morphologic changes of cell injury (or death) lag far behind both (Fig. 1-7). For example, myocardial cells become noncontractile after 1 to 2 minutes of isch- emia, although they do not die until 20 to 30 minutes of ischemia have elapsed. These myocytes may not appear dead by electron microscopy for 2 to 3 hours, or by light microscopy for 6 to 12 hours. The cellular derangements of reversible injury can be corrected, and if the injurious stimulus abates, the cell can return to normalcy. Persistent or excessive injury, however, causes cells to pass the nebulous "point of no return" into irreversible injury and cell death. The events that determine when reversible injury becomes irreversible and progresses to cell death remain poorly understood. The clinical rele- vance of this question is obvious; if the biochemical and molecular changes that predict cell death can be identified with precision, it may be possible to devise strategies for preventing the transition from reversible to irreversible cell injury. Although there are no definitive morphologic or biochemical correlates of irreversibility, two phenomena con- sistently characterize irreversibility: the inability to correct mito- chondrial dysfunction (lack of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation) even after resolution of the original injury, and profound disturbances in membrane function. As mentioned earlier, injury to lysosomal membranes results in the enzymatic dissolution of the injured cell, which is the culmination of injury progressing to necrosis. As mentioned earlier, different injurious stimuli may induce death by necrosis or apoptosis (Fig. 1-6 and Table Refer robbins 9/e p6
1
Decreased cellular ATP generation
Cytosolic Ca++
Membrane damage
Intracellular K+
Pathology
General pathology
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Hypotension with muffled heart sounds and congested neck veins is seen in?
Ans. A. Cardiac TamponadeBeck's triad is a collection of three medical signs associated with acute cardiac tamponade, an emergency condition wherein fluid accumulates around the heart and impairs its ability to pump blood. The signs are:1. Low arterial blood pressure2. Distended neck veins3. Distant, muffled heart sounds.Constrictive pericarditis can present with hypotension and congested neck veins, but muffled heart sounds are not present. Auscultatory finding heard is pericardial shock.
1
Cardiac tamponade
Pericardial effusion
Constrictive pericarditis
Acute congestive heart failure
Medicine
C.V.S.
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single
Sampson's Theory proposed to explain endometriosis is
Sampson's theory: Reflux of menstrual endometrium through fallopian tubes causes endometriosis.
3
Embolization of menstrual fragments through lymphatic channels.
Metaplastic changes in embryonal cell rests.
Reflux of menstrual endometrium.
Histogenesis by induction.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Russell's traction is used in:
Russell's traction Trochanteric fractures (described as skin traction) Best treatment for interochanteric fracture is Dynamic hip screw. The fracture is reduced under X-ray control and fixed with Dynamic hip screw / Gamma nail or proximal femoral nail. Dynamic Hip Screw: OTHER OPTIONS: Fracture shaft femur- gallows traction, Bryant traction Lower backache- lumbar corset Flexion deformity hip- agnes hunt traction
1
Inter-trochanteric fracture
Fracture Shaft of femur
Low back ache
Flexion deformity of hip
Orthopaedics
Fracture Management
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Mucus plugs containing epithelial cell aggregations arranged as whorls of shed epithelium in the airway mucus plugs seen in bronchial asthma is known as:
(Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8thedition, pg no: 691) Histopathology of bronchial asthma The mucus plugs contain whorls of shed epithelium, spiral shaped mucus plugs called Curshmannspirals Numerous eosinophils. Charcot-Leyden crystals - collections of crystalloid made upof an eosinophil lysophospholipase binding protein calledGalectin-10. Overall thickening of airway wall. Sub-basement membrane fibrosis (due to deposition oftype I and III collagen beneath the classic basementmembrane composed of type IV collagen and laminin). Increased vascularity. Increase in size of the submucosal glands; and Mucous metaplasia of airway epithelial cells. Hypertrophy and/or hyperplasia of the bronchial wall muscle.
2
CharcotLeyden crystals
Curshmann spirals
Creola bodies
None of above
Unknown
null
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Simplest and most common method of measuring variation is
null
4
Mean
Median
SD
Range
Dental
null
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If both the parents are carriers of the beta-thalassemia gene, the chance of having a child with thalassemia major in each pregnancy is
Normally, the majority of adult hemoglobin (HbA) is composed of four protein chains, two a and two b globin chains arranged into a heterotetramer. In thalassemia, patients have defects in either the a or b globin chain, causing production of abnormal red blood cells (In sickle-cell disease, the mutation is specific to b globin). The thalassemias are classified according to which chain of the hemoglobin molecule is affected. In a-thalassemias, production of the a globin chain is affected, while in b-thalassemia, production of the b globin chain is affected. The b globin chains are encoded by a single gene on chromosome 11; a globin chains are encoded by two closely linked genes on chromosome 16 Thus, in a normal person with two copies of each chromosome, two loci encode the b chain, and four loci encode the a chain.Thalassemias are genetic disorders inherited from a person's parents. There are two main types, alpha thalassemia and beta thalassemia.] The severity of alpha and beta thalassemia depends on how many of the four genes for alpha globin or two genes for beta globin are missing.
1
25%
50%
75%
100%
Pathology
General pathology
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Patients with chronic pancreatitis gives chain of lakes appearance in ERCP examination. Management is
Surgical procedures in chronic pancreatitis Ideal procedure : DPPHR(Beger's procedure) In presence of poal vein thrombosis : Frey's Small duct disease : V- Shaped excision Disease recurrence in body and tail (after DPPHR, Whipple's or Longmire-Transverso procedure) : V-shaped drainage Disease limited to tail: Spleen - preserving distal pancreatectomy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1535
3
Total pancreatectomy
Sphicteroplasty
Side to side pancteaticojejunostomy
Resecting the tail of pancreas and performing a pancteaticojejunostomy
Anatomy
G.I.T
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Splaying and Cupping of the metaphysis is seen in –
null
1
Rickets
Scurvy
Paget's disease
Lead poisoning
Pediatrics
null
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Hand foot mouth syndrome is caused by -
HFMD id caused by coxsackie virus A16,A9,B1-3 REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.491
3
Parvovirus 6
Parvovirus 19
Coxsackie virus A 16
Coxsackie virus A 19
Microbiology
Virology
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Polyhydramnios-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2000cc
1
2000cc
I500cc
l000cc
500cc
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Hydramnios and Oligo Hydramnios
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The WHO index for fluorosis is based on:
null
1
Dean's index
McKay's index
Community Fluorosis index
Public Health fluorosis index
Dental
null
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single
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the back. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by vascular choroid plexuses in the ventricles of the brain and accumulated in which space?
(d) The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is found in the lumbar cistern, which is a subarachnoid space in the lumbar area. CSF is produced by vascular choroid plexuses in the ventricles of the brain, circulated in the subarachnoid space, and filtered into the venous system through the arachnoid villi and arachnoid granulations.
4
A
B
C
D
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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Drug of choice for Mycoplasma pneumoniae is :
Answer is D (Erythromycin):
4
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cefuroxime
Erythromycin
Medicine
null
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single
The treatment of acute Periapical abscess is
null
1
Endodontic therapy or extraction
Incision and drainage only
Pulp capping
None of the above
Dental
null
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multi
In myocardial infarction the infarct accquires hyperemic rim with an yellow centre at ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3-7 days
1
3-7 days
10-20 days
7-14 days
1-2 hours
Pathology
null
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HbA2 is increased In -
<p>In beta thalassemia , hemoglobin electrophoresis shows presence of increased amounts of HbF,HbA2 and complete absence or presence of variable amounts of HbA.The increased level of HbA2 has not been found in any other hemoglobin abnormality except beta thalassemia .</p><p>Harsh mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no324.</p>
3
Alfa-thalassemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Beta-thalassemia
Sickle cell trait
Medicine
Haematology
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Gretaest psychiatric burden in society is due to?
ANSWER: (A) Depression.REF: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">Psychiatric disorders contribute 33% of years lived with daily depression contributes to maximum burden followed by problems due to alcohol
1
Depression
Schizophrenia
OCD
Alcohol abuse
Psychiatry
Major Depression
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single
A female infant is born approximately 10 weeks prematurely (at 30 weeks) and weighs 1710 gm. She has respiratory distress syndrome and is treated with endogenous surfactant. She is intubated endotracheally with mechanical ventilation immediately after bih. Over the first 4 days after bih the ventilator pressure and the fraction of inspired oxygen are reduced. Beginning on the fifth day after bih, she has brief desaturations that become more persistent. She needs increased ventilator and oxygen suppo on the seventh day after bih. She becomes cyanotic. Fuher examination, echocardiogram, and x-rays reveal left atrial enlargement, an enlarged pulmonary aery, increased pulmonary vasculature, and a continuous machine-like murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Patent ductus aeriosus. The presence of a murmur could be indicative of any of the conditions. The presence of a continuous machine-like murmur is indicative of a patent ductus aeriosus (PDA). Usually, as in this case, the premature baby with PDA does not acutely become cyanotic and ill, although brief desaturations can occur that become more persistent. An atrial septal defect (ASD), such as a persistent foramen ovale, could be eliminated from the diagnosis because the murmur would be heard as an abnormal splitting of the second sound during expiration (answer a). A patent foramen ovale is a common echo finding in premature babies and is usually not followed up unless it appears remarkable to the pediatric cardiologist or there is a persistent murmur. A patent foramen ovale might result in only minimal or intermittent cyanosis during crying or straining to pass stool. A murmur caused by a ventricular septal defect (VSD, answer c), occurs between the first and second hea sounds (S1and S2) and is described as holosystolic (pansystolic) because the amplitude is high throughout systole. Pulmonary stenosis would be heard as a harsh systolic ejection murmur (answer d). PDA refers to the maintenance of the ductus aeriosus, a normal fetal structure. In the fetus, the ductus aeriosus allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation, since the lungs are not involved in CO2/O2exchange until after bih. The placenta subserves the function of gas exchange during fetal development. The ductus aeriosus shunts flow from the left pulmonary aery to the aoa. High oxygen levels after bih and the absence of prostaglandins from the placenta cause the ductus aeriosus to close in most cases within 24 hours. A PDA most often corrects itself within several months of bih, but may require infusion of indomethacin (a prostaglandin inhibitor) as a treatment, inseion of surgical plugs during catheterization, or actual surgical ligation.
2
Persistent foramen ovale
Patent ductus aeriosus
Ventricular septal defect
Pulmonary stenosis
Surgery
null
9520d222-6eab-4f18-ad41-e5e2e30b432d
multi
Which of the following is the only intrinsic muscle of larynx that lies outside the laryngeal framework-
Cricothyroid is the only intrinsic muscle which lies outside the cartilagenous framework.
1
Cricothyroid
Superior constrictor
Cricopharyngeus
Lateral cricothyroid
ENT
null
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single
Sarcoidosis is associated with:
Ans. (a) Band kerotopathySarcoidosis is associated the band keratopathy from metabolic derangement resulting in hypercalcemia and from chronic uveitis.
1
Band keratopathy
Systemic amylodosis
Angioid streaks
Cataracta nigra
Ophthalmology
Cornea
5e791046-4f23-47df-95f8-9fec52307ee3
single
Which of the following is a direct branch of Inferior mesenteric artery?
Ans. A Superior rectal arteryRef: Gray's, 41st ed. pg. 1088, 1138Branches of Inferior Mesenteric Artery* Left colic artery: supplies descending colon* Sigmoid artery: supplies sigmoid colon* Superior rectal artery: terminal branch of IMA* Marginal branchesNote* Middle rectal artery: branch of internal iliac artery (anterior branch)* Inferior rectal artery: branch of internal iliac artery* Inferior epigastric artery: branch of external iliac artery
1
Superior rectal artery
Middle rectal artery
Inferior rectal artery
Inferior epigastric artery
Anatomy
Abdomen & Pelvis
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single
Maternal moality is reduced to -
In 2008,a global reduction in maternal death to 200 is estimated.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-515.
2
100
200
300
400
Social & Preventive Medicine
obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics
57a76bc8-d79a-4e92-9a98-0fbc5dd20c89
single
Which of the following is a protease inhibitor ?
null
2
Lamivudine
Saquinavir
Delavirdine
Zidovudine
Pharmacology
null
1d969ef2-9c72-4666-b8a0-61517135297e
single
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 31 * There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal). Spinal nerves are mixed nerves containing both sensory and motor fibres.
3
30
32
31
34
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
ddc0eb7b-cb17-40f5-83eb-491686df801a
single
Blood supply of prelaminar optic nerve is
null
1
Short posterior ciliary arteries
Branch retinal artery
Ophthalmic artery
Meningeal arteries
Ophthalmology
null
adbdfff0-31b6-4d82-b94b-eb2c7e6de49b
single
Which of the following group of drugs follows zero order kinetics with high dose
drugs which follow zero order kinetics- methanol, ethanol mixed order - 1st order at a low dose and zero order at high dose- aspirin, phenytoin, tolbutamide, digoxin, warfarin, theophylline most of the drugs usually follow 1st order kinetics and they are considered safe drugs Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
3
Phenytoin and Propranolol
Amiloride and probenacid
Alcohol and theophylline
Digoxin and propranolol
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
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single
Fifth disease is caused by
(A) Parvo virus 70 # ERYTHEMA INFECTIOSUM (FIFTH DISEASE): The disease is caused by Human Parvovirus.> Erythema infectiosum is the most common clinical manifestation of human parvovirus infection.NAMENUMBERVIRUS(Rubeola) measles"First disease"Measles virusRubella, ("German Measles") identified in 1881."Third disease"Rubella virusErythema infectiosum, identified as a distinct condition in 1896."Fifth disease"Parvovirus B19Roseola infantum"Sixth disease"HHV-6 and HHV-7
1
Parvo virus 70
HPV
Hepatitis Virus
HPV
Microbiology
Misc.
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single
A patient of maniac depressive psychosis is on lithium, clozapine and fluphenazine. During the course of treatment, he developed seizures and tremors. He is drinking water heavily and had recurrent episodes of urination. Which drug is responsible for these complications: March 2012
Ans: A i.e. Lithium Drugs for Schizophrenia and side-effects Dose related side effects of lithium includes polyuria/polydypsia, weight gain, tremor etc. Common side effects of clozapine are anticholinergic, antiadrenergic etc. Potentially life threatening side effects includes fatal agranulocytosis, fatal myocarditis, fatal pulmonary embolism etc. Side effect of antipsychotic, include sedation, weight gain, extra-pyramidal side effects, postural hypotension etc.
1
Lithium
Clozapine
Fluphenazine
None of the above
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Thyroxine is synthesized from which amino acid
The thyroid hormones, triiodothyronine (T3)and thyroxine (T4), are tyrosine-based hormones produced by the thyroid gland that are primarily responsible for regulation of metabolism. Iodine is necessary for the production of T3 and T4. A deficiency of iodine leads to decreased production of T3 and T4, enlarges the thyroid tissue and will cause the disease known as goitre.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no-341
4
Arginine
Lysine
Methionine
Tyrosine
Physiology
Endocrinology
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single
The toxic effect of beta receptor antagonists includes all the following EXCEPT
null
4
Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes
Worsening of preexisting asthma
Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation
Precipitate migrainic effect
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Which of the following is a differentiating feature of anopheles from aedes mosquito -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pupa has broad siphon Differentiation between anopheiini and culiciniTribe GenusAnopheiini AnophelesCulicini Culex, Aedes, ManosniaEggs1. Laid singly2. Eggs are boat-shaped and provided with lateral floats1. Laid in duster or rafts, each raft containing 100 - 250 eggs (except-Aedes)2. Eggs are oval-shaped, and not provided with lateral floatsLarvae1. Rest parallel to water surface2. No siphon tube3. Palmate hairs present on abdominal segments1. Suspended with head downwards at an angle to water surface2. Siphon tube present3. No palmate hairsPupaSiphon tube is broad and shortSiphon tube is long and narrowAdult1. When at rest, inclined at an angle to surface2. Wings spotted3. Palpi long in both sexes1. When at rest, the body exhibits a hunch back2. Wings unspotted3. Palpi short in femaleNote : Anopheles and Aedes lay eggs singly, culex and Mansonia lay eggs in clusters
1
Pupa has broad siphon
Eggs are oval shaped
Wings unspotted
Popi are short
Social & Preventive Medicine
Entomology
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single
All of the following cause inhibition of CYP3A except.
Ans. (A) Saquinavir(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p58, 863)All the drugs given in the options are microsomal enzyme inhibitors. Among protease inhibitors, ritonavir is the strongest inhibitor of CYP3A4 enzymes whereas saquinavir is the weakest.
1
Saquinavir
Ritonavir
Itraconazole
Erythromycin
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy: General Principles
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multi
Delinking Malaria activity from Family planning was under the recommendation of
Chadah committee recommended that the vigilance operations in respect of the national malaria eradication programme should be the responsibility of the general health services ie primary health centres. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 874
2
Mudaliar committee
Chadah committee
Mukerji committee
Kaar Singh committee
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health programmes in India
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single
Hind milk is rich in?
Ans. b (Fat) (Ref. OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics 6th ed., 150)HIND MILK comes later towards the end of feed and richer in fat content and provides more energy, and satisfies the baby's hunger. Thus the composition of milk also varies during the phase of feeding. For optimum growth, the baby needs both fore and hind milk. The baby should therefore be allowed to empty one breast before being offered the other breast.COLOSTRUMIt is the milk secreted during the first ten days after delivery. It is yellow and thick.It contains more antibodies and cells and high amounts of vitamin A, D, E and K.TRANSITIONAL MILKIt is the milk secreted during the following two weeks.The immunoglobulin and protein content decreases while the fat and sugar content increases.MATURE MILKIt follows transitional milk.It is thinner and watery but contains all the nutrients essential for optimal growth of the baby.PRETERM MILKThe milk of a mother who delivers prematurely contains more proteins, sodium, iron, Ig and calories as they are needed for the preterm baby.FORE MILKIt is the milk secreted at the start of a feed.It is watery and is rich in proteins, sugar, vitamin, minerals, and water that satisfy the baby's thirst.
2
Water
Fat
Proteins
Zinc
Pediatrics
Nutrition
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single
Hunt Hess scale is used for
Ans. (a) SAH* Hunt and Hess Scale is used for Sub arachnoid hemorrhage* It helps to predict the outcome based on Clinical features.
1
SAH
SDH
Menigiomas
Tuberculosis
Surgery
Nervous System
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single
Which is the medium used for Vibrio cholerae?
null
2
Thayer—Martin medium
TCBS medium
Scirrow’s medium
Loeffler’s medium
Unknown
null
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single
Myxoviruses include -a) Orthomyxovirusb) Influenzac) Measlesd) Polioe) HSV
null
4
ab
bc
acd
abc
Microbiology
null
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single
Which nerve repair has the worst prognosis?
Common peroneal nerve (Lateral popliteal nerve) has two main characteristics. The most common nerve lesions of the lower limb. Worst prognosis after nerve reconstructive surgery. Recovery potential after nerve repair Excellent: - Radial, Musculocutaneous, femoral, digital nerves Moderate: - Median, Ulnar, Tibial Poor : - Common peroneal (lateral popliteal) Pure motor or pure sensory nerves, i.e., Unmixed nerves, like musculocutaneous nerve and digital nerves have the best prognosis. Pure motor nerves to large muscle groups not requiring fine control have a better prognosis than motor nerves supplying the small muscles of hand & foot.
4
Ulnar
Radial
Median
Lateral popliteal
Orthopaedics
null
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single
Macrocytic anemia may be seen in all of these except-
Copper deficiency is manifested by hypochromic normocytic anemia, osteopenia, depigmentation, mental retardation and psychomotor abnormalities. Thiamine, pyridoxine and Bl2 deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia. Classification of megaloblastic anemia
2
Liver disease
Copper deficiency
Thiamine deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Pathology
null
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multi
The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is –
The presence of arterial collaterals indicates that renal artery stenosis is hemodynamically significant. The diameter of stenotic segment may also give an indication of hemodynamic significance, but is only reliable if the stenosis is either very severe or minimal .
2
A percentage diameter stenosis > 70%
Presence of collaterals
A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the lesion
Post–stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
Radiology
null
06cd15f9-64eb-4adb-94c6-b356f2063b8c
single
The epithelial lining of the urethra below the opening of the ejaculatory ducts is
The epithelium of the urethra stas off as transitional cells as it exits the bladder. Fuher along the urethra there are psuedostratified columnar and stified columnar epithelia, then stratified squamous cells near the external urethral orifice. There are small mucus-secreting urethral glands, that help protect the epithelium from the corrosive urine. Ref - wikipedia.org
2
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
A 37 year old primi Rh negative patient is very concerned above her pregnancy at this age. Her pregnancy is 16 weeks and she is HIV negative, hepatitis B surface Ag neg, Rubella non immune and has no complain.Her triple test report is normal but still due to her age she insists on getting an amniocentesis done.Which of the following is the next best step in management:
Points worth noting are: Primi patient with Rh negative blood group She is 37 years old-elderly primi (>30 years) and has risk of Down syndrome (>35 years) She is concerned about the risk of having a down syndrome baby at this age and so insists on having amniocentesis done. Option a: Advise against amniocentesis as it will increase the risk of isoimmunisation –although the risk of isoimmunisation will definitely be increased but still I will not advise her against amniocentesis seeing her age and her concern. Option b: Follow Rh titres carefully and give Anti D if evidence of isoimmunisation is present. Come on in the theory I have explained that Anti d should be given only if evidence of isoimmunisationt is absent. If isoimmunisation is present it means antibodies are already formed, hence no need for giving Anti D. Thus this statement is absolutely wrong. Option c: Give Anti D at 28 weeks of pregnancy and after delivery if baby is Rh negative. If baby is Rh negative, no need to give Anti D. Option d: Give Anti D prior to her amniocentesis: This is the most logical step which should be done in this case. Option e: Give rubella vaccine as she is Rubella non immune: Now I don’t need to explain that Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.
4
Advise against amniocentesis as it will increase the risk of isoimmunisation
Follow Rh titres carefully and give Anti D if evidence of isoimmunisation is present
Give Anti D at 28 weeks of pregnancy and after delivery if baby is Rh neg
Give Anti D prior to her amniocentesis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
bd298c50-6fa6-45df-afea-6d85999e853a
multi
What is the pressure at which oxygen is stored?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 2200 psi GasType of cylinder and storage formColour codeCapacityPressurePin-IndexOxygenE. cylinderH. cylinder}GasBlack with white shoulderE-660 lit.H-6900 lit.2200 psi2.5Nitrous oxideEH}LiquidBlueE- 1590 lit.H-15800 lit.760 psi3.5AirE. gasGrey body with black & white shoulder625 lit.2000 psi1,5CarbondioxideE. liquidGrey-1590 lit750 psi2, 6 (< 7.5%)l, 6 (> 7.5%)CyclopropaneLiquidOrange-75 psi3.6HeliumGasBrown-1600 psi Entonox(50% O2 + 50% N.O2)LiquidBlud body with blue & white shoulder-2000 psiCentral (7)NitrogenGasGrey body with black shoulder---
4
75psi
1600psi
760 psi
2200 psi
Anaesthesia
Breathing Systems
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single
A 10 year old female patient complains of tiredness and shortness of breath. Patient is a known case of beta-thalassemia. This disease is caused by faulty splicing of:
Faulty splicing can cause diseases: Splicing of hnRNA has to be performed with precision to produce functional mRNA. Faulty splicing may result in diseases. A good example is one type of beta-thalassemia in  humans. This is due to a mutation that results in a nucleotide change at an exon-intron junction. The result is a diminished or lack of synthesis of p-chain of hemoglobin, and consequently the disease p-thalassemia. Note:  scRNA - Small cytoplasmic RNA snoRNA - Small nucleolar RNA snRNA - Small nuclear RNA hnRNA - Heterogenous nuclear RNA Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-549
1
hnRNA
snRNA
scRNA
snoRNA
Biochemistry
null
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single
Heparin inhibits Xa by
Heparin contains pentasaccharide unit that activates Antithrombin III & inhibits factor Xa (Thus it is a indirect thrombin inhibitor). Unfractionised heparin also contains a heteropolysaccharide unit that inhibits factor II a. LMWH lacks this heteropolysacchoride unit and therefore inhibitors factor Xa only.
2
Blocking vitamin K mediated activation of Xa
Activating Antithrombin III
Direct breakdown of Xa
Blocking P2 Y12 receptor of ADP
Pharmacology
null
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single
TRUE about blood supply of scaphoid
Major blood supply to the scaphoid is the radial aery. 70-80 % of the intraosseous vascularity and the entire proximal pole is from branches of the radial aery entering through the dorsal ridge.
3
Mainly through ulnar aery
Major supply from ventral surface
Major supply from dorsal surface
Proximal supply in antegrade fashion
Anatomy
Upper limb : Miscellaneous
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multi
A girl 15 yrs of age is diagnosed with MRKH (Mayer Rokitansky kuster Hauser Syndrome). Which of these is true for her management?
vaginoplasty should be done before onset of sexual activity sex of rearing should be female gonadectomy is to be done for Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome and not for MRKH as it has a normal functioning ovary child bearing is possible through assisted reproduction as the patient has normally functioning ovaries, through IVF with surrogacy
4
Vaginoplasty to be done as soon as diagnosed
Sex of rearing should be male
Gonadectomy is to be performed
Child bearing can be possible through assisted reproduction
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Intersex
5785d8f2-5f50-424a-bbf2-c7997f0bfd9a
multi
The net protein utilization of rice is –
null
3
20%
40%
63%
81%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b111b48d-3b49-420c-8738-8f60ac703f3c
single
For most effective cutting and long usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be
null
2
Rotating slowly before contacting the tooth
Rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth
Placed in contact with tooth before starting
Rotating rapidly before entering in to the oral cavity
Dental
null
43062ab0-4685-4f36-86d5-55f7c45a1025
single
Infective stage of hook worm is:
Ans. b. Filiform larva
2
Trophozoite form
Filiform larva
Cyst
None
Microbiology
null
a1c85086-a8b0-419d-83f1-526650ce6507
multi
All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except -
Condyles of tibia are pressure epiphysis. All other given options are traction epiphysis
4
Mastoid process
Tubercles of humerus
Trochanter of femur
Condyles of tibia
Anatomy
null
246698aa-d624-49bb-af6c-b0140947423c
multi
Stellate wound may be seen in which of the following bullet entry wounds -
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ;28th edition ;pg.no 130 In a contact shot the muzzle blast & the negative pressure in the barrel following discharge may suck blood ,hair fragments, tissue,cloth fibers several cm. Back inside the barrel called back spatter .back spatter is more common with shotgun.The discharge from muzzle i.e gases,flames,powder,smoke & mettalic paicles are blown into the track taken by bullet through the body . the wound is large ,triangular ,stellate ,cruciate ,elliptical showing cavitations.
1
Contact shot
Close shot
Distance shot
Two feet distance
Forensic Medicine
Mechanical injuries
55261ff4-9d94-4b4a-a34c-aa4bac475828
single
The level of blister formation in bullous pemphigoid is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sub epidermal Site of blistersIntraepidermalSubepidermal (Dermo-epidermal)1) Subcorneal (granular layer)1) Junctional (at Basal lamina)o Blister is in granular layer or just below stratum corneumi) Junctional epidermolysis bullosaii) Bullous pemphigoidiii) Toxic epidermal necrolysi si) Pemphigus foliaceous & erythmatosusii) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndromeiii) Miliaria crystalinaiv) Bullous impetigov) Friction blistervi) Subcorneal pustulai dermatosis2) Dermolytic (Below basal lamina)i) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisitaii) Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophicansiii) Dermatitis herpetiformisiv) Deep burnsv) Porphyria cutanea tarda2) Spinous layero Blisters are within spinous layeri) Eczematous (atopic) dermatitisii) HSV/VZV infectioniii) Molluscum contagiosumiv) Familial benign pemphigus (Hailey-Hailey disease)3) Suprabasalo Blisters are between stratum basale and other superficial layers of epidermisi) Pamphigus vulgarisii) Darrier's disease4) Basal layero Blisters are within basal layeri) Erythema multiformeii) Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
2
Intra epidermal
Sub epidermal
Subcorneal
None of the above
Skin
Pemphigoid Group
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multi
Koenen tumor seen in ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tuberous sclerosis Periungual fibromas (Koenen's tumors) :? Present in 20% of patients of tuberous sclerosis. Develop in adult life. Small, pink, sausage-shaped growths arising from under the nail folds; may disto the nail plate.
2
Neurofibromatosis
Tuberous sclerosis
Struge weber syndrome
Tuberculosis
Pathology
null
1da347e9-2770-47f1-a9d2-48c2d13eaa08
single
All the following are causes of Transdative pleural effusion Except
TABLE 316-1 Differential Diagnoses of PleuralEffusions Transudative Pleural Effusions 1. Congestive hea failure 2. Cirrhosis 3. Nephrotic syndrome 4. Peritoneal dialysis 5. Superior vena cava obstruction 6. Myxedema 7. Urinothorax Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1719
2
Nephrotic syndrome
Rheumatoid ahritis
Myxedema
Constrictive pericarditis
Anatomy
Respiratory system
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multi
Most common complication of cadwell-luc operation is:
Most common complication of Caldwell-Luc operation is injury to infraorbital nerve which occurs is 21% cases. Ref.Scott Brown 7/e,Vol 2,p1494.
2
oroantral fistula
Infraorbital nerve palsy
Hemorrhage
Orbital cellulitis
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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single
The basic tools of measurement in epidemiology are
null
3
Incidence, prevalence and index
Morbidity, mortality and disability
Rates, ratios and proportions
Endemic, pandemic and epidemic
Dental
null
2b47a64c-cbdb-4b7b-8c1a-75387625936a
single
Following is true about safety muscle of tongue
Ref BDC volume 3,6th edition pg 268Genioglossus is a life-saving muscle and its action is to protrude the tongueAll intrinsic and extrinsic muscles except palatoglossus are supplied by hypoglossal nerve
2
Innervated by cranial pa of accessory nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Attached to hard palate
None of the given options
Anatomy
Head and neck
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multi
Most common sensorineural hearing loss in adults are due to
null
2
Meneries disease
Presbycusis
Meatal osteoarthritis
Osteosclerosis
Medicine
null
364d3b85-8af2-4444-a26f-2fc3f8a11d37
single
Hard palate contains:
Ref. Gray’s anatomy.  41st edition. Page. 510 Hard Palate The hard palate is located on the roof of the oral cavity, posterior and medial to the alveolar process of the maxilla. The bony structure is formed by the palatine processes of the maxilla and the horizontal plates of the palatine bones. The periosteum is covered by a firmly attached mucosa centrally, although a submucosa is apparent laterally containing vessels. The hard palate is continuous with the soft palate posteriorly. Macroscopic Features The hard palate is typically a pale pink colour and may have an orange peel appearance from the palatine salivary glands (more common posteriorly). Microscopy The hard palate is lined with a keratinising stratified squamous epithelium, tightly bound to the underlying periosteum of the palatine bone/maxilla. There is minimal submucosa, which becomes more prominent posteriorl
1
Keratinized, submucosa, minor salivary gland
Keratinized, absent submucosal layer, minor salivary gland
Nonkeratinized, submucosal layer, minor salivary gland
Nonkeratinized, absent submucosa, minor salivary gland
Unknown
null
65e500f1-1c49-47f7-9533-c1855dfe6e71
single
Which of the following components is a potent neutrophil chemotactic agent?
C5a promotes chemotaxis. The complement components C l, C2, and the C789 complex do not promote chemotaxis.
3
C 1
C 2
C5a
C789 complex
Unknown
null
675d328c-557f-494e-8a4e-9ab83d25a8a2
single
Which among the following can prevent coagulation of blood:
Ans b: (Ref: Guyton 11th edition p466-467)Methods to present blood coagulation in vitro1 Siliconized containers - Present contact activation of platelets & Factor 82 Heparin - Especially is heart lung machine /artificial kidney3 Oxalate compunds - By precipitation of calcium oxalate compounds4 Citrate compounds(Sodium citrate, ammonium citrate, potassium citrate)- By deionization of blood calcium by forming an unionized calcium compound.But remember citrate anticoagulants are superior to oxalate anticoagulants because oxalate is toxic to body; but moderate quantities of citrate can be injected intravenously
2
Calcium oxalate
Sodium citrate
Sodium iodide
Potassium chloride
Pathology
Blood
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single
What is Neurapraxia: September 2010
Ans. D: Reversible physiological nerve conduction block Neurapraxia is pa of Seddon's classification scheme used to classify nerve damage. It is a transient episode of motor paralysis with little or no sensory or autonomic dysfunction. Neurapraxia describes nerve damage in which there is no disruption of the nerve or its sheath. In this case there is an interruption in conduction of the impulse down the nerve fiber, and recovery takes place without true regeneration, as Wallerian degeneration does not occur. This is the mildest form of nerve injury. This is probably a biochemical lesion caused by concussion or shock-like injuries to the fiber.
4
Complete division of nerve
Loss of conduction due to axonal interruption
Irreversible injury
Reversible physiological nerve conduction block
Surgery
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The pathogenicity of E. histolytica is indicated by:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zymodeme patternZymodeme (isoenzyme) analysis: E. histolytica possesses several isoenzymes like malic enzyme, hexokinase, isomerase and phosphoglucomutase and these isoenzymes contribute in pathogenesis. When these isoenzymes are subjected to electrophoresis based on electrophoretic pattern (Zymodeme pattern) and mobility of these isoenzymes, Entamoeba can be diagnosed and speciated.
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Zymodeme pattern
Size
Nuclear pattern
ELISA test
Microbiology
Parasitology
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Increased incidence of breast carcinoma is seen with-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atypical hyperplasia o Patients with a history-' of breast biopsy for benign breast disease have an increased risk of breast cancer. The degree of increase in risk depends on the specific epithelial abnormality. The table below shows the relative associated risks for patients with benign histologic findings.American Board of Pathology Histologic Classification of Benign DiseaseHistopatiioiogyApproximate Relative RiskNonproliferativeNo added riskCysts Duct ectasia Calcification Fibroadenoma Milk ductal epithelial hyperplasia Sclerosing adenosisNo added riskPapillomatosisSlight added riskRadial scars Complex sclerosing lesions?Moderate or florid hyperplasia1.5: 1 to 2:1Atypical hyperplasia (ductal and lobular)4:1Extensive ductal involvement of atypical hyperplasia 7:1 Lobular carcinoma in situ10:1Ductal carcinoma in situ10:1
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Sclerosing adenosis
Atypical hyperplasia
Apocrine metaplasia
Duct papilloma
Surgery
Breast Cancer - Types and Staging
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Which type of pelvis is favorable for Face to pubis delivery?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anthropoid Important educational points* Normal female pelvis - Gynaecoid pelvis* Male type pelvis - Android pelvis.* Most common type of pelvis - Gynaecoid pelvis.* Least common type pelvis - Platypelloid pelvis.* The only pelvis with AP diameter more than transverse diameter - Anthropoid pelvis.* Face to pubes delivery is most common in Anthropoid pelvis.* Direct occipito posterior position is most common Anthropoid pelvis.* Persistantoccipito posterior position is most common in Android pelvis.* Deep transverse arrest/ Non Rotation / Dystocia is most common in Android pelvis.* Broad flat pelvis - Platypelloid pelvis.
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Gynecoid
Android
Anthropoid
Platypelloid
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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Rapid test used by WHO for tuberculosis ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sputum AFB Sputum smear microscopy is the quickest and easiest procedure. But it lacks both sensitivity and specificity. Smears are stained by ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain. Sputum smear examination (by AFB stain) is the method of choice for case finding. Note : Genexpe MTB/RIF is also a fast test (results within 90 minutes), but it is not routinely recommended by WHO.
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Quanteferon gold
ELISPOT
Xpe MTB
Sputum AFB
Social & Preventive Medicine
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Ocular manifestations of dengue are all except
Ans. (a) CataractRef: American Academy of Ophthalmology, BSCS, Section 9/p. 219* Dengue fever - caused by Flaviviridiae and transmitted by Aedes aegyptiOcular manifestations* Petechial subconjunctival hemorrhage - most common manifestation* Maculopathy (bilateral and asymmetric) - in 10% patients after one month of onset of systemic disease, causing sudden loss of vision and central scotoma* Optic disc hyperemia* Intraretinal hemorrhages with periphlebitis* Yellow subretinal dots* RPE mottling* Fovealitis
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Cataract
Maculopathy
Vitreous hemorrhage
Optic neuropathy
Ophthalmology
Retina
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Clomiphene citrate challenge test (CCCT) is used for
Clomiphene citrate challenge test : Used to asses the ovarian reserve of a woman On D3- Check serum FSH ON D5- D9 - Give 100mcg Clomiphene citrate (CC) On D10- Check serum FSH High FSH value on D3 which increases fuher on D10 : indicates poor reserve
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Assessing LH rise prior to ovulation
Used for accurate diagnosis of PCOS
Estimating the luteal phase defect
Method to asses the ovarian reserve of a woman
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Infeility (Eggs'plantation!)
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Dryness of mouth with facial N.injury-site of lesion is at -
Chorda Tympani Nerve Carries
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Chorda tympani N
Cerebellopontine angle
Geniculate ganglion
Concussion of tympanic membrane
ENT
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Breast carcinoma is associated with all except:
ATR is associated with ataxia telengectasia.
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BRCA1
BRCA2
TP53
ATR
Pathology
Breast
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Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied, it representes
Scales can be: Qualitative: Categorical scales: Nominal : eg: names of countries . Dichotomous : eg: yes/no, presence/absence. Ordinal : severity of disease: mild/moderate/severe.eg: staging of cancer, kuppusamy socioeconomic class. Quantitative: Metric scales: Interval Ratio
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Nominal scale
Ordinal scale
interval scale
Ratio scale
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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Drug of choice for hepatitis B:
Tenofovir is a first-line agent in the treatment of hepatitis B. It prevents the formation of 5' to 3' phosphodiester linkage essential for DNA chain elongation. Hence it causes premature termination of DNA transcription.
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Beta interferon
Sofosbuvir
Simeprevir
Tenofovir
Medicine
Hepatitis
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Gold standard for detection of gall stones is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., USG * Investigation of choice for cholelithiasis (gallstone in gallbladder) and choledocholithiasis (gallstone in common bile duct) is USG.Investigations of gall bladder diseases1) Ultrasonography: - This is the investigation of choice for the detection of gallstones, and obstructive jaundice. USG shows echogenic focus with posterior acoustic shadowing. The most specific sign of a contracted, stone filled gallbladder is a hypoechoic wall superficial to a curvilinear echo from the stones and an acoustic shadow:- WES triad (Wall, Echo, Shadow) or the "Double arc shadow sign".2) Plane x-ray: - Only 10% of gall stones are radio-opaque. Therefore, plane x-ray is of limited value.3) Oral cholecystogram (OCG): - Dye used for OCG is ipanoic acid. Filling defect, due to stones, will be seen within the gall bladder.4) Cholangiogram (outline of common bile duct) Intravenous injection of biligrafin is given and frequent radiograph are taken as the liver excretes the biligrafin. Impacted stone in CBD classically shows cresentic shadow or meniscus sign on cholangiogram.5) Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC): - This is a useful procedure in obstructive lesions. It is usually done as an immediate preoperative investigation. PTC can be used for drainage, cholangioplasty and stent placement.* Computed tomography (CT) scan has limited value in the diagnosis of gall stones since gall stones may exhibit the same radiographic density as bile and hence may not be seen on CT
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CECT
USG
XRAY
Cholecystography
Radiology
G.I.T.
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All are components of gun-powder EXCEPT:
Gun Powder is of two types: a) Black gun powder: Contains Potassium nitrate 75% + Charcoal 15% + sulphur 10% b) Smokeless Powder is of following types: -Single Base: Contains nitrocellulose -Double Base: contains nitrocellulose + nitroglycerine -Triple Base: Contains Nitrocellulose + Nitroglycerine + nitroguanidine
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Charcoal
Lead peroxide
Potassium nitrate
Sulphur
Forensic Medicine
Ballistics
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A 45 day-old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HbsAg. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother's hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be:
HBeAg-positive women in third trimester frequently transmit infection to the fetus (80-90%) in the absence of immunoprophylaxis, whereas those who are negative rarely infect the fetus. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 355, "Viral Hepatitis", In the book, "NELSON TEXTBOOK OF PEDIATRICS", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Page 1683.
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HBsAg positive only
HBsAg and HbeAg positivity
HBsAg and anti-HBe antibody positivity
Mother infected with mutant HB V
Pediatrics
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Objects are seen reduced in size in
Lilliputian hallucinations (micropsia) objects are seen reduced in size. It is more properly regarded as an illusion Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 360
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Hypnagogic hallucinations
Lilliputian hallucinations
Psychomotor hallucinations
Haptic hallucinations
Anatomy
Special topics
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Which of the following is best associated with lumefantrine ?
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Antirrtycobacterial
Antifungal
Antimalarial
Antiamoebic
Pharmacology
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