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Parapharyngeal abscess-all true except -
Parapharyngeal abscess is a lateral swelling (not midline).
1
Midline swelling
Abscess in pharyngo maxillary space
Trismus
Torticollis
ENT
null
1c1c609f-0b4d-4e5f-a1d4-de040d6c8080
multi
Macrosomia is defined as weight of fetus:
Ans is d, i.e. 4.5 kg(Wiliams Obs 25/e pg 857)Macrosomia is weight of baby >=4.5kg"The ACOG (2016a) Concludes that the term macrosomia was an appropriate appellation for newborns who weigh 4500 gm or a more at birth"
4
>3 kg
>3.5 kg
>4 kg
4.5 kg
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
8b3e720d-7fc8-491b-929f-d89759b651ce
single
A high-risk dental caries individual is on preventive schedule, the sugar exposure should be:
null
1
Reduced to meal times
Reduced to no exposure permanently
Reduced to no exposure for 21 days
Reduced to meal time exposure for 21 days
Dental
null
3efb9634-e31e-40a9-8a9b-c95d61fdb865
single
Because of positive biopsy findings and negative workup, he undergoes a radical prostatectomy. The pathology report reveals Gleason score 9/10 and involvement of several pelvic lymph nodes. Which is the most likely site for prostatic cancer metastasis?
Bone metastasis is a characteristic feature of prostatic cancer. The lesions are typically osteoblastic on x-ray, and the serum acid phosphatase level becomes elevated.
4
Liver
Kidney
Lung
Bone
Surgery
Urethra & Penis
c09833f2-d41e-4f5f-a8c7-3e5d61a77a65
single
Most common cause of neonatal diarrhea worldwide is:
a. Rotavirus(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1616)In early childhood, the single most important cause of severe dehydrating diarrhea is rotavirus infection.
1
Rotavirus
Adenovirus
Norwalk virus
Cholera
Pediatrics
General Considerations - Infectious Diseases
a61d5ac5-d532-445f-ae0f-9592ac1f453a
single
Dried blood drop of an infant can be used to know:
ANS. BDried blood drop test:Advantage: Minimal volume, minimal training, ease of transport.Usedfor:* Phenylketonuria (PKU)* Galactosemia* Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)* Sickle cell disease.Inborn errors of amino acid metabolism associated with peculiar odorInborn error in metabolismUrine odorGlutaric acidemia (Type II)Sweaty feet, acridIsovaleric acidemiaSweaty feet, acridMaple syrup urine diseaseMaple syrupHypermethioninemiaBoiled cabbageMultiple carboxylase deficiencyTomcat urinePhenylketonuriaMousy or mustyTrimethylaminuriaRotting fishTyrosinemiaBoiled cabbage, rancid butter# Rate limiting enzymes in metabolic pathways* Glycolysis--Phosphofructokinase 1* Citric acid/TCA cycle--Isocitrate dehydrogenase* Bile acid synthesis--7 alpha dehydroxylase* Cholesterol synthesis--HMG CoA reductase* Ketone body synthesis--HMG CoA synthase* Fatty acid synthesis--Acetyl CoA carboxylase* Fatty acid oxidation--Carnitine palmitoyltransferase 1* Urea cycle--Carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1* Pyrimidine synthesis--Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 2* Purine synthesis--PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase* Heme synthesis--ALA synthase* Testosterone synthesis--Cholesterol desmolase* Catecholamine synthesis--Tyrosine hydroxylase
2
Blood sugar
Inborn errors of metabolism
Hepatitis
Cataract
Biochemistry
Nutrition & Digestion
6e9a9f3f-56c3-4a1d-bc7d-caa550f88788
single
Name of the parotid duct: March 2007
Stensons duct
1
Stensons duct
Nasolacrimal duct
Whaons duct
None of the above
Anatomy
null
67ab023d-58dd-454b-ae47-a27343fadbe7
multi
Not a cause of acute pancreatitis
Ans. (d) HypocalcemiaRef: Bailey and Love 26th/e p. 1127* Hypercalcemia and Hypertriglyceridemia causes acute pancreatitis * Recall the mnemonic I mentioned in theory "GET SMASHED" for acute pancreatitis causes.
4
Mumps
Gall stones
Trauma
Hypocalcemia
Surgery
Pancreas
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multi
Which of the following structures does the fetal allantoic duct become in the adult?
Urachus The urachus is a fibrous remnant of the allantois, a canal that drains the urinary bladder of the fetus that joins and runs within the umbilical cord. The fibrous remnant lies in the space of Retzius, between the transversalis fascia anteriorly and the peritoneum posteriorly.
3
Cloaca
Medial umbilical ligament
Urachus
Ureter
Anatomy
All India exam
f3eed528-2810-4750-a17b-cc9b78042f9d
multi
Epithelium is absent in lens on ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Posterior surface Anatomy of crystalline lens There are three structural elements that make up lens - 1. Lens capsule A transparent membrane surrounding the lens like a pocket. It is thicker over the anterior surface than the posterior surface. It is thickest at pre- equator region and thinnest at the posterior pole. When an aificial lens replaces the natural lens in cataract surgery (IOL implantation), it is placed in this same capsule. 2. Lens epithelium It is a single layer on the anterior (front) surface of the lens. There is no epithelium on posterior surface. The epithelial cells distribute fluid, ion and glucose through the entire lens. They also create new fibers throughout a person's life. 3. Lens fibres These are long protein fibers that arc closely packed and parallel. They make up most of the lens volume and are laid horizontally, front to back, and concentrically like layers of an onion.As the lens fibres are formed throughout the life, these are arranged compactly as nucleus and coex of the lens. a) Nucleus : - It is the central pa containing the oldest fibres. it consists of different zones :- Embryonic nucleus :- Formed at 1-3 months of gestation, therefore consists the oldest primary fibres. Fetal nucleus : - Lies around the embryonic nucleus and is formed from 3 months of gestation till bih. Infantile nucleus :- Corresponding the lens from bih to pubey and surrounds the fetal nucleus. Adults :- Corresponds to the lens fibres formed after pubey to rest of the life. Coex :- It is the peripheral pa containg the youngest fibres. The ciliary zonules (Zonules of zinn or suspensory ligaments of lens) hold the lens in position and enable the ciliary muscle to act on it. These consist essentially of a series of fibres which run from the ciliary body and fuse into the outer layer of the lens capsule around the equatorial zone.
3
Anterior surface
Anterior pole
Posterior surface
At zonular attachment
Ophthalmology
null
bce82efa-be05-4429-b655-796241b4e572
single
Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
Primary canines are extracted to encourage alignment of the crowded incisors. However, the incisors align and upright, borrowing space otherwise needed for eruption of the permanent canine. Primary first molars are then extracted to encourage eruption of the first premolar so it may be extracted to make room for the permanent canine to erupt. These are followed by the permanent first premolar.  Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar
2
Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
Dental
null
5355e490-43ab-419f-a742-f53cf337a29b
multi
Hyperextension of PIP and Flexion of DIP is seen in which deformity
null
1
Swan neck
Mallet finger
Lumbricals paralysis
Boutonniere's
Orthopaedics
null
f1c4ad0e-6cfc-4551-8af4-8fd1f7d4e2df
multi
Which of the following enzyme is NAD+ dependent?
Dehydrogenases:  These enzymes cannot utilize oxygen as hydrogen acceptor.  They catalyse the reversible transfer of hydrogen from one substrate to another and, thus, bring about oxidation reduction reactions.  There are a large number of enzymes belonging to this group NAD+ dependent dehydrogenases, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase, glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. NADP+ dependent dehydrogenasese,.e.g. HMC CoA reductase ,enoyl reductase. FMN dependent dehydrogenasese,. e.g. NADH dehydrogenase. FAD dependent dehydrogenasese, e.g. succinate dehydrogenase, acyl CoA dehydrogenase. The cytochromes: All the cytochromes of electron transport chain (b, c, and c) except the terminal cytochrome oxidase (a+a3) belong to this group. Key Concept: Dehydrogenases catalyse the reversible transfer of hydrogen from one substrate to another and, thus, bring about oxidation reduction reactions. NAD+ dependent dehydrogenases, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase, glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Ref : Textbook of Biochemistry, Satyanarayana
2
HMG CoA reductase
Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
null
13f633a7-1e61-4b93-b53e-e73e211231c7
single
Which one of the following acts as the major neurotransmitter in substantia nigra
(C) Dopamine > The long dopamine systems are the nigrostriatal system, which projects from the substantia nigra to the striatum and is involved in Motor control.
3
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Physiology
Nervous System
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single
Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and sho fouh metacarpal are characteristics of-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Turner's syndrome
2
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Cri du chat syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Pediatrics
null
674b62c7-b9e9-40b9-bf1e-ee89599554f5
single
Gettler test detects: NEET 14
Ans. Chloride content of blood in drowning
2
Diatoms in drowning
Chloride content of blood in drowning
Weight of lungs in drowning
Magnesium content of blood in drowning
Forensic Medicine
null
e2a07458-5e1b-40be-bfbe-8bb462b90500
single
A 45 year old woman attends gynecology department with prolonged vaginal bleeding. On examination, cervical lesion is found that bleeds on touch. Her past history is insignificant. She had undergone pap smear around 10 years ago, which was normal. What is the next best investigation
Histological diagnosis has to be made prior to imaging or treatment.
3
Hysteroscopy
MRI scan - pelvis
Cervical punch biopsy
LEEP
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
dde742f3-acc5-4a6d-8524-49b462e92b42
single
In Target 10 of Goal 7 of Millennium Development Goal, "access" to an improved water source mean?
Propoion (%) of population with sustainable access to an improved water source, rural (G7.710.130) : "improved" water sources means household connection, public standpipe, borehole, protected dug well, protected spring, rainwater collection. "Access" means the availability of at least 20 litres water per person per day from a source within one kilometre of the user's dwelling. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-831
1
Availability of at least 20L water / person/ day from a source within 1 km of dwelling
Availability of at least 20L water / person/ day from a source within 1.5 km of dwelling
Availability of at least 15L water / person/ day from a source within 1 km of dwelling
Availability of at least 15L water / person/ day from a source within 1.5 km of dwelling
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
66841bcd-7ecd-46a2-9faa-25c33735dd21
single
Schick test in diphtheria is done to know:
Subseceptibles
2
Carriers
Subseceptibles
Diseased
Immunized
Microbiology
null
10485c4a-dfa7-474a-9090-81bbbf632fc4
single
Lung volume reduction surgery is used in the management of
Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS) reduce volume of lung in emphysema. Patients with upper lobe-predominant emphysema and a low post-rehabilitation exercise capacity are most likely to benefit from LVRS. Patients are excluded if they have significant pleural disease, a pulmonary aery systolic pressure >45 mmHg, extreme deconditioning, congestive hea failure, or other severe comorbid conditions. Patients with an FEV1 <20% of predicted and either diffusely distributed emphysema on CT scan or diffusing capacity of lung for carbon monoxide (DlCO) <20% of predicted have an increased moality rate after the procedure and thus are not candidates for LVRS.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1706
4
Bronchial asthma
Interstitial lung disease
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Medicine
Respiratory system
185b82ca-0c04-449c-8f0b-7f64a97803e1
single
For Foreign bodies are retained in the larynx causing choking, first line of management is
Hemilich manouvere
2
Airway inseion
Hemilich manouvere
Hemilich valve
Tracheostomy
Anaesthesia
null
10b873ef-f50c-4ab5-8bda-4ba832d785ff
single
Ramesh Singh, a 40 yrs old man, was admitted with fracture shaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2nd he became disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is:
C i.e. Fat embolism
3
Pulomary embolism
Sepsis syndrome
Fat embolism
Hemothorex
Surgery
null
cd6ff4bb-f5c1-47e0-a84d-a3ca6beb9c01
single
A young patient with dysphagia more for liquids than solids. He regurgitates food often at night. Radiography shows a rat tailed appearance. Likely diagnosis is :
Answer is A (Achlasia cardia) Presence of dysphagia which is more for liquids than for solids along with a characteristic rat tail appearance on radiography in a young patient suggests the diagnosis of aehalasia. Malignancy (CA esophagus) usually presents with dysphagia which is more for solids than for liquids and is seen in the elderly. Zenker's diveiculum and esophageal spasm do not show a rat tail appearance on radiography.
1
Achlasia cardia
CA oesophagus
Zenker's diveiculum
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Medicine
null
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single
Dendrites in cast alloys form by mechanism of
null
2
constitutional superconductivity
constitutional supercooling
constitutional supergriting
constitutional supergraining
Dental
null
3496265f-0a8c-4b5e-b8eb-c6a2c8069a84
multi
Distressing Complication after modified radical mastectomy?
Complications of Mastectomy • Seroma −− MC complication, beneath skin flaps and axilla, occurs in 30% cases −− Catheter is retained until drainage is <30 ml/day • Wound infection −− Majority are due to skin flap necrosis • Lymphedema −− Occurs less frequently with the standard axillary dissections. −− Extensive LN dissection, radiation therapy, presence of positive LNs, obesity are predisposing factors. • Injury to Long Thoracic (Motor) Nerve −− Seen in 10% of all cases. −− Result in a palsy of the Serratus anterior muscle (classical winged scapula) • Injury to Thoracodorsal Nerve: −− Leads to palsy of the latissimus dorsi muscle. • Redundant Axillary Fat Pad
1
Lymphedema
Axillary vein thrombosis
Seroma
Death
Surgery
null
56aec486-6782-4b21-9695-238f1eabd1ff
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All are true about meta-analysis except:-
Metanalysis:- Analysis of Analyses. Analysis of multiple studies together. Difficult to Conduct, but it does give you the best estimate for a given study design-Strength of Association. Funnel plot, forest plot are used. Disadvantages:- Publication bias. "Apple Orange Effect" seen in it.
1
Easy to conduct
Analysis of analyses
Funnel plot and forest plot are used
Apple oranges effect seen in it
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
47fa165e-ecde-427b-b73a-22acbdcc0bc5
multi
Broad complex tachycardia due to ventricular a tachycardia is suggested by
Answer is A, B, C (Fusion beats; Capture beats and AV dissociation) Presence of Fusion beats, capture beats and AV dissociation is charachteristic of ventricular tachycardia. ECG feature that suppo a diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia (Vt) in patients with Wide Complex Tachycardia (Incomplete List) Presence of Fusion beats Presence of capture beats Presence of AV dissociation The presence of fusion beats and capture beats provides maximum suppo for the diagnosis of VT. AV dissociation also provides a strong suppo in our of VT, but is less specific than fusion beats and capture. AV dissociation may uncommonly occur during supraventricular tachycardias and all cases of VT may not exhibit AV dissociation. Never the less presence of AV dissociation in cases of wide complex tachycardia is a strong presumptive evidence that tachycardia is of ventricular origin (V7). Differentiating features VT (Broad complex) SVT with Aberrancy (Broad Complex) Fusion beats Characteristic Absent Capture beats Characteristic Unusual AV dissociation Characteristic Absent Effect of vagal manuvres No effect Slowing or termination of tachycardia QRS morphology in V 1 Monophasic or Biphasic Triphasic
4
Fusion Beats
AV dissociation
Capture Beats
All
Medicine
null
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multi
Not a feature of delirium tremens is:
D i.e. Occulomotor nerve palsy opthalmoplegia
4
Confusion (clouding of consciousness)
Visual hallucinations
Coarse tremors
Occulomotor nerve palsy (ophthalmoplegia)
Psychiatry
null
cd729c51-2436-47d5-8bfb-c90128c6e4e6
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Which of following acts as a vector of West Nile fever?
(A) Culex mosquito# West Nile virus (or WNV) is a virus of the family Flaviviridae. Part of the Japanese encephalitis (JE) antigenic complex of viruses, it is found in both tropical and temperate regions. It mainly infects birds, but is known to infect humans, horses, dogs, cats, bats, chipmunks, skunks, squirrels, and domestic rabbits. The main route of human infection is through the bite of an infected mosquito.> Transmission The proboscis of an Aedes albopictus mosquito feeding on human blood. Under experimental conditions, the Aedes albopictus mosquito (also known as the Asian Tiger Mosquito) has been found to be a vector of West Nile Virus. The virus is transmitted through mosquito vectors, which bite and infect birds. The birds are amplifying hosts, developing sufficient viral levels to transmit the infection to other biting mosquitoes which go on to infect other birds (in the Western hemisphere the American robin and the American crow are the most common carriers) and also humans. The infected mosquito species vary according to geographical area; in the US Culex pipiens (Eastern US), Culex tarsalis (Midwest and West), and Culex quinque- fasciatus (Southeast) are the main sources
1
Culex mosquito
Tick
Mite
Flea
Social & Preventive Medicine
Miscellaneous
118d1109-d175-4d78-afa3-29c7cfb6ec76
single
Flag hair sign is seen in
Ans. (a) KwashiorkorRef: Nelson's Pedia, 19th ed. Ch 670# kwashiorkorDisease due to decreased protein and caloric intake.Clinical Features are:# Hypoalbuminemia which leads to pedal edema# Hepatomegaly- Hallmark feature of kwashiorkor# Skin: Sun-exposed skin is relatively spared, as are the feet and dorsal aspects of the hands; Hypo pigmentation# Hair and Nail: Nails are thin and soft, and hair is sparse, thin, and depigmented, sometimes displaying a flag sign of alternating light and dark bands that reflect alternating periods of adequate and inadequate nutrition.# Apathy# Lack of appetite* PELLAGRA:This presents with edema, erythema, and burning of sun-exposed skin on the face, neck, and dorsal aspects of the hands, forearms, and feet* SCURVY (VITAMIN C OR ASCORBIC ACID DEFICIENCY): This presents initially with follicular hyperkeratosis and coiling of hair on the upper arms, back, buttocks, and lower extremities. Perifollicular erythema and hemorrhage, swollen, erythematous gums; stomatitis; and subperiosteal hematomas are also seen.
1
Kwashiorkor
Marasmus
Scurvy
Pellagra
Pediatrics
Nutrition, Food Security, and Health
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single
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Atrial Fibrillation in patients with WPW Syndrome who are hemodynamically unstable:
Answer is C (DC Cardioversion) DC Cardioversion is the treatment of choice to terminate Atrial Fibrillation in patients with WPW Syndrome who are hemodynamically unstable (Life threatening Situations).
3
Procainamide
Digoxin
DC Cardioversion
Radiofrequency Ablation of the bypass tract
Medicine
null
0093f9f8-1e2a-4087-bfaf-0210cde7e301
multi
Diabetic patients are advised to avoid foods with high glycemic index. Which of the following has highest glycemic index?
The glycemic index of a starchy food is a measure of its digestibility, based on the extent to which it raises the blood concentration of glucose compared with an equivalent amount of glucose or a reference food such as white bread or boiled rice. Eating foods with low glycemic index will result in lower glucose levels after meals. Low glycemic index foods have values of 55 or less and include many fruits (apples, oranges) and vegetables, grainy breads, pasta, legumes, milk, and yoghu. High glycemic index foods have values of 70 and over and include baked potato, white bread, and most white rice. Glycemic index is lowered by the presence of fats and protein when the food is consumed in a mixed meal. Cooking methods can also affect the glycemic index--thus mashed potatoes have a higher glycemic index than baked potato. Ref: German M.S. (2011). Chapter 17. Pancreatic Hormones and Diabetes Mellitus. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds), Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e.
2
Pasta
White rice
Yoghu
Whole wheat bread
Physiology
null
a4153ca6-d84a-4f83-842c-9afcaab923d6
single
All are true about staing of Beta blocker therapy in a patient with congestive hea failure except
Ref-Goodman and Gillman 11/e p1336 Clinical use of Beta adrenergic receptor antagonist in hea failure These are now recommended for routine use in class Il or Ill symptoms in conjunction with ACE inhibitoror angiotensin-receptor antagonist, and diuretics These should be initiated at very low doses, generally less than one tenth of the final target dose NYHA Class IIIB and IV patients should be approached with a high level of caution; and in recently decompensated hea failure, beta-blockers should not be used until the patients are stabilizedfor several days to weeks.
1
That should be staed with optimum doses
They should be gradually increased over weeks
Special precautions should be taken in cases of NYHA class III and IV
Carvedilol and metoprolol are the preferred drugs
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
2ee74934-320b-4d95-94ac-94922a91a29c
multi
Aminoglycosides are given in a single dose rather than thrice daily because of following reason?
Aminoglycosides exe Concentration Dependent Bactericidal action and Long Post-Antibiotic effect ,such that the antibacterial activity persists beyond the time during which measurable drug is present.Therefore higher plasma concentrations attained after the single daily dose will be equally or more effective than the divided doses and also convenient and cheaper. This is also to make sure that the plasma concentration remains low so as to not cause Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity. This allows washout of the drug from the Endolymph and the Renal coex.
4
Very long half life
Time Dependent Killing
Increased binding to plasma proteins
Long Post Antibiotic effect
Pharmacology
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
ed80b16b-eb34-4b8b-ad6a-b3b996dcc5e0
single
Which of the following statments is not true of McBurney's incsion -
Incision is extended upwards and laterally not downwards.
4
Most suitable if the diagnosis of appendicitis is definite
If it is converted into a muscle cutting incision it is called Rutherford Morison's incision
Inguinal hernia is a sequlae of the incision
The incision can be extended upwards or downwards
Surgery
null
3a9729bb-d9af-4474-a6dc-6db8dad4965a
multi
Fick's law, flux of Geomembrane increased in:
A i.e. Concentration acrossAccording to Fick's law of diffusion, the net rate of diffusion is directly propoional to available surface area across which diffusion is taking place and the concentration or chemical gradient but inversely propoional to thickness of membraneQ.Fick's Law of DiffusionThe magnitude of diffusing tendency is directly propoionate to the cross sectional area across which diffusion is taking place and the concentration gradient or chemical gradient , which is the difference in concentration of the diffusing substance divided by the thickness of boundary.
1
Concentration across
Temperature
Increased size of molecule
Weight
Physiology
null
4b13daae-490f-4e0e-bec2-094b491f5a85
single
The most potent and longest acting anaesthesia is:
null
3
Tetracaine
Bupivacaine
Dibucaine
Lidocaine
Pharmacology
null
4e85fe8a-4d19-48dc-a396-254ad102b742
single
Which of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doxacurium o Amongst the given options doxacurium is longest acting (Duration of action 90-120 minutes). Rocuronium (duration of action 30-60 minutes), Atracurium (duration of action 30-60 minutes) and vecuronium (duration of action 60-90 minutes) have shoer duration of action than doxacurium.
4
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Doxacurium
Pharmacology
null
3a09ac6a-d987-4337-9ec2-ed250101a5de
single
Tumour marker of endodermal sinus tumour of ovary :
a feto proteins
1
a feto proteins
CA 125
HCG
CEA
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f6afdd95-1282-483f-9b44-4fecaff1d4de
single
Which of the following has a normal level of alpha fetoprotein value in serum?
Alp is used as serum tumour marker in some conditions . Ref - harrison's internal medicine 20e p441 , Davidson's medicine 23e p1324
1
Ovarian dysgerminoma
Hepatoblastoma
Embroynal carcinoma
Yolk sac tumours
Medicine
Endocrinology
e8e5f95e-0fcb-41ce-ba0f-5282b1952359
single
Which is most comonly implicated in genital (vul- val) was ?
Ans. is d i.e. HPV 6 "Low Risk HPV types 6 and 11 cause nearly all genital was." Details of Genital Was : Genital was are leisons created from productive infection with HPV (most common type 6 and 11). They display various morphologies and appearances ranging from flat papules to the classic verrucous, polyphytic lesions, termed condyloma acuminata". Sites : External genital was may develop at sites in the lower reproductive tract, urethra, anus, or mouth. Diagnosis : They are typically diagnosed by clinical infection, and biopsy is nor required unless co-existing neoplasia is suspected. HPV serotyping is not required for routine diagnosis. Treatment : - Condyloma acuminata may remain unchanged or resolve spontaneously Effect of treatment on future viral transmission is unclear. However, many women prefer removal, and lesions can be destroyed with sharp or electrosurgical excision, cryotherapy, or laser ablation. In addition, very large. bulky lesions may be managed with cavitational ultrasonic surgical aspiration. Alternatively, 5-percent imiquimod cream is a immunomodulatory topical treatment for genital was. Other topical agents which may be applied for treatment of was are : Podophyllin which is a antimitoric agent available in a 10 to 25% tinctute of benzoin solution and disrupts viral activity by inducing local tissue necrosis. Alternatively, trichloroacetic acid and bichloroacetic acid are proteoplytic agents and are applied serially to was by clinicians. Intralesion injection of interferon is also an effective treatment for was. However as this method has high cost, is painful and is inconvenient to administer, So this therapy is not recommended as a primary modality and is best reserved for recalcirrant cases. Of therapy choice no data suggest the superiority of one treatment. Thus in general treatment should be selected based on clinical circumstances and patient and provider preferences.
4
HPV -16
HPV 18
HPV 31
HPV 6
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
19f3a7cc-44f6-44a6-8d93-0472f019634b
single
NOT included in immunization schedule:
Ans. (a) KalaazarRef. K. Park 21sted. /113* Indian Academy of Pediatrics (LAP) approved following vaccines (Kala Azar is NOT included in schedule)* Following vaccines are approved by LAP: Polio, hepatitis, BCG, DPT, Hib, MMR, TT, typhoid.
1
Kala azar
Polio
Hepatitis
BCG
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health
8d06f38c-6d02-46c7-b0b4-820de7a83554
single
Which of the following liver disorders is a complication associated with oral contraceptives?
Oral contraceptives produce an intrahepatic cholestasis that is unpredictable (not related to the dose). The incidence of liver cell adenomas is also increased as a result of oral contraceptive use. These vascular tumors have a tendency to rupture during pregnancy, paicularly those in a subcapsular location. A purpoed increase in the incidence of focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) is associated with oral contraceptive use. Grossly, FNH is characterized by a poorly encapsulated nodule that has a lighter color than the surrounding hepatic parenchyma. On cut section, a centrally located stellate scar radiates out to the periphery of the lesion. Microscopically, the hepatocytes between the scar tissue are normal. A slightly increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma is another effect of bih control pills on the liver. Oral contraceptives are not associated with drug-induced hepatitis with fatty change, cholangiocarcinoma, cavernous hemangiomas, or fulminant hepatic failure.
4
Drug-induced hepatitis with fatty change
Cholangiocarcinoma
Cavernous hemangiomas
Intrahepatic cholestasis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraception
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Predominant osteoblastic secondaries are seen in:
Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition. Bone misc tumors chapter Pg: 1205Explanation:The radiographic manifestations of metastases may he purely lytic, purely blastic. or mixed lytic and blastic.In lytic lesions, the metastatic cells secrete substances such as prostaglandins, cytokines, and PTH-related protein that stimulate osteoclast hone resorption; the tumor cells themselves do not directly resorb bone.Lysis of hone tissue rich in growth factors such as TGF-b, IGF-l, FGF, PDGF, and bone morphogenetic proteins, in rum helps create an environment conducive to tumor cell growth.Prostate adenocarcinoma secretes WNT proteins that stimulate osteoblastic hone formation.Most metastases induce a mixed lytic and blastic reactionPrimaries which produce predominantly Lytic bone lesionsCarcinoma of the kidneyCarcinoma of the JuneCarcinoma of ihe gastrointestinal tractMalignant melanomaPrimaries which produce predominantly Sclerotic/Osteoblastic lesionsProstate adenocarcinomaCa ColonCa Breast
1
Prostate Ca
Breast Ca
Bone Ca
Stomach Ca
Unknown
null
b3a4c8ea-65de-44ad-b8e2-a94f18ad750e
single
Alpo&;s syndrome is due to defective-
Out of various hereditary nephritis, Alpo's syndrome is relatively more common and has been extensively studied. This is an X-linked dominant disorder having a mutation in a-5 chain of type IV collagen located on X-chromosome. Ref: Harsh Mohans textbook of pathology 6th edition page 678
1
Collagen
Elastin
Fibrillin
Proteoglycan
Pathology
Urinary tract
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single
a - adrenoreceptor stimulation effects are :
A i.e. Vasoconstriction
1
Vasoconstriction
Vasodilatation
Broncho constriction
Alveolar bronchoconstriction
Physiology
null
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single
Percentage of para-para isomer in DDT is:
40-50%
2
20-30%
40-50%
60-70%
70-80%
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
The nerve of latarjet of the vagus is seen in -
Main gastric nerve of Latarjet is a branch of vagus and supplies the stomach.
3
Thorax
Neck
Stomach
Heart
Anatomy
null
ebd1224e-ffd8-40a4-9c00-babe203410a9
single
On a cephalogram if FMA angle is 25° the patient is:
null
3
Long face
Short face
Average face
Mandibular growth is rotated backwards
Dental
null
90bb1335-b437-48db-b8c9-08b2533cb777
single
Apical third root fracture in a vital tooth are related by:
null
2
Extraction.
Relieve from occlusion and observe.
RCT.
Any of the above.
Dental
null
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multi
Most common type of emphysema is:March 2013
Ans. A i.e. CentriacinarEmphysemaIt is COPD.It is defined pathologically as an abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by the destruction of alveolar walls and without obvious fibrosis.It frequently occurs in association with chronic bronchitis.Patients have been classified as having COPD with either emphysema or chronic bronchitis predominance.The 3 described morphological types of emphysema are centriacinar, panacinar, and paraseptal.Centriacinar emphysema begins in the respiratory bronchioles and spreads peripherally.Also termed centrilobular emphysema, this form is associated with long-standing cigarette smoking and predominantly involves the upper half of the lungs.- Panacinar emphysema destroys the entire alveolus uniformly and is predominant in the lower half of the lungs.Panacinar emphysema generally is observed in patients with homozygous alfal antitrypsin deficiency.In people who smoke, focal panacinar emphysema at the lung bases may accompany centriacinar emphysema.- Paraseptal emphysema, also known as distal acinar emphysema, preferentially involves the distal airway structures, alveolar ducts, and alveolar sacs.The process is localized around the septae of the lungs or pleura.Although airflow frequently is preserved, the apical bullae may lead to spontaneous pneumothorax.Giant bullae occasionally cause severe compression of adjacent lung tissue.
1
Centriacinar
Panacinar
Paraseptal
Irregular
Pathology
null
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single
Best test for lung fibrosis
Ans. is 'c' i.e., HRCT Lung fibrosis is a diffuse parenchymal lung disease. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is the most common form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia. We have already discussed that best investigation for interstitial lung disease is HRCT Estimated relative frequency of the interstitial lung disease Diagnosis Relative frequency, % Idiopathic interstitial pneumonias 40 Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis 55 Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia 25 Respiratory bronchiolitis-ILD and 15 Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia 3 Acute interstitial pneumonia <1 Occupational and environmental 26 Sarcoidosis 10 Connective tissue diseases 9 Drug and radiation 1 Pulmonary hemorrhage syndromes <1 Other 13
3
Chest x-ray
MRI
HRCT
Biopsy
Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is the inheritance pattern of Familial Hypercholesterolemia?
Familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes severe elevations in total cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDLc). The LDL receptor gene is located on the sho arm of chromosome 19. It is the primary determinant of hepatic LDL uptake, which normally processes approximately 70% of circulating LDL.
1
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X Linked dominant
X Linked recessive
Biochemistry
null
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single
Tonsils are absent in:
Tonsils are absent in X linked agammaglobulinemia
3
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
DiGeorge syndrome
X linked agammaglobulinemia
Chediak Higashi syndrome
Pediatrics
Primary Immunodeficiency
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Movement and eventual equilibrium of Na+, K+and Cl- across the muscle membrane would develop a potential of:
The question is for skeletal muscle; RMP = - 90 mV. When Na+, K+and Cl- are considered to diffuse together and reach equilibrium, the membrane potential at which all of them reach equilibrium can be calculated by Goldman's constant field equation. The equation takes into account the concentration gradients of the respective ions, relative permeability of the membrane for the ions and polarity of the electrical charge. When all the 3 ions reach equilibrium, charge on the membrane would be- 86 mV.An additional - 4 mV is contributed by Na+/K+-pump.
4
- 94 mV
- 89 mV
+ 61 mV
- 86 mV
Physiology
Membrane potiential
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Ideal treatment of rhinosporidiosis is
Rhinosporodiosis * Rhinosporodiosis is a Fungal Granuloma. * Agent : Rhinosporidium seeberi. * Source : Contaminated water of ponds. Clinical features:- * Leafy polypoidal mass, pink to purple in color studded with while dots (Strawberry appearance). * It is highly vascular and bleeds on touch. * Patients complain of blood tinged nasal discharge/epistaxis Diagnosis:- * Biopsy shows several sporangia filled with spores. * Treatment - Complete excision of mass with diathermy knife and cauterization of base. * Recurrence is common after surgery. Ref:- Dhingra 5th edition pg num:- 174
3
Rifampicin
Dapsone
Excision with cautery at base
Laser
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
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Which of these is the most impoant prognostic factor in ALL?
Responds to steroids is the most consistent marker in the patients of ALL. (ref Robbins 9th/590-593)
4
Hyperploidy
Total leucocyte count greater than 50,000
Age
Response to steroids
Anatomy
Haematology
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multi
True regarding Kaposi's sarcoma?
Ans. d (All are true) (Ref. Harrison 18th/ p 695)KAPOSI'S SARCOMA# Human herpes virus type 8 is believed to be the cause of most cases of Kaposi's sarcoma.# There are at least four distinct epidemiologic forms of KS:- The classic form that occurs in older men of predominantly Mediterranean or eastern European Jewish backgrounds with no recognized contributing factors;- the equatorial African form that occurs in all ages, also without any recognized precipitating factors;- the form associated with organ transplantation and its attendent iatrogenic immunosuppressed state; and- the form associated with HIV-1 infection.# The Koebner phenomenon has been reported to develop in classic or acquired immune deficiency syndrome-related Kaposi's sarcoma.Educational points:Table: Few Important Virus Induced DiseasesGenital and anal wartsHPV (30 genital types)Mononucleosis syndromeCMV, HIV, EBVHepatitisHepatitis viruses, T pallidum, CMV, EBVSquamous cell dysplasias and cancers of the cervix, anus, vulva, vagina, or penisHPV (especially types 16, 18, 31, 45)T cell leukemiaHTLV-IHepatocellular carcinomaHBVTropical spastic paraparesisHTLV-IB cell lymphoproliferative disease and Oral hairy leukoplakia (rare)Epstein-Barr virusKaposi's sarcoma, body-cavity lymphomas, Primary effusion lymphoma (rare), Multicentric Castleman's disease (rare)Human herpesvirus type 8 (HHV-8).
4
Can occur even when CD4 is normal
HHV 8 is etiological agent
Koebner's phenomenon may be observed with it
All are true
Skin
Skin Cancer
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multi
Which of the following formula indicates 'Chargaff's rule'?
Always the two strands of DNA are complementary to each other. So, the adenine of one strand will pair with thymine of the opposite strand, while guanine will pair with cytosine. The base pairing (A with T; G with C) is called Chargaff's rule, which states that the number of purins is equal to the number of pyrimidines. In other words, the amount of 'A' base found in the DNA of a cell equals 'T', and the amount of 'C' found in a cell equals the amount of 'G'. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students By Dm Vasudevan, 2011, Page 470.
2
A + G = T + C
A/T = G/C
A = U = T = G = C
A + T = G + C
Biochemistry
null
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Hunter's syndrome is due to deficiency of:
a. Iduronate sulfatase(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 708-712, Ghai 8/e p 659-664)TypeNameEnzyme deficientClinical featuresIIHunter's syndromeIduronate sulfate sulfataseQCoarse face + Corneal Clouding + Dysostosis multiplex + Intellectual disability + Hepatosplenomegaly
1
Iduronate sulfatase
Hexosaminidase
Glucocerebrosidase
L-Iduronidase
Pediatrics
Inborn Errors of Metabolism
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The screening investigation of high risk neonates in ICU for suspected hearing loss is:
The screening investigation of choice of high-risk neonates in ICU for suspected hearing loss is otoacoustic emissions.
1
Otoacoustic emissions
Free field audiometry
Stapedial reflex testing
Pure tone audiometry
ENT
null
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single
In a patient of orbital cellulitis, microorganism on culture show greenish colonies and optochin sensitivity. The most likely organism is:
Ans. is 'd' i.e., PneumococcusGram-positive cocci which form a-hemolytic colonies (Greenish colonies) and is optochin sensitive is pneumococcus.The characteristic features of pneumococcus are: (BIO) (Memory Aid)(a) Bile solubility.(b) Optochin sensitivity.(c) Inulin fermentation.(d) Shows quellung reaction (capsular delineation).(e) Forms draughtsman or carrom coin colonies (Colonies with central umbonation).
4
Strep, viridans
Staphylococcus
Pseudomonas
Pneumococcus
Microbiology
Bacteria
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single
True of consonguineous marriges and genetic abnormalities are all except?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genesConsanguineous marriages: When blood relatives marry each other there is an increased risk in the offspring of traits controlled by recessive genes, and those determined by polygenes.
1
Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genes
Increased risk of prenature death
Phenylketonuria is an example
Lowering of consanguineous marriges will improve community health
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
The site from which biopsy should not be taken is
null
1
When the lesion subsides on local treatment
Area with large, spontaneous enlargement
A pigmented lesion
A white plaque like lesion
Surgery
null
185b11e5-246d-4dc8-a3ad-fa8b3e52199c
single
Pulse pressure is:
Answer is C (Systolic -- Diastolic B.P) Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic pressure and the diastolic pressure.
3
1/3 diastolic + 1/2 systolic B.P.
1/2 diastolic + 1/3 systolic B.P.
Systolic - diastolic B.P.
Diastolic + 1/2 systolic B.P.
Medicine
null
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single
Ideal management of 37 weeks uncomplicated breech pregnancy is: March 2010
Ans. C: External cephalic version and trial of vaginal delivery Indications for Elective caesarean section in breech presentation: Estimated fetal weight more than 3.5 kg Hyperextended head Footling presentation Associated complications Pelvic inadequacy
3
Spontaneous vaginal delivery
Elective caesarean section
External cephalic version and trial of vaginal delivery
None
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
CPITN probe is designed by:
null
1
WHO
Nabers
Marques
Williams
Dental
null
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single
All are features of Trachoma stage III, EXCEPT
B i.e. Pannus Stage III of trachoma is cicatristing or scarring stage -, so Herbe pits (are healed scars of Herbe follicles), scar on tarsal conjunctiva & necrosis in scar are all the features of stage III where as herbe follicles (Ha), papillary hyperplasia (Ilb), Pannus are found in stage II
2
Herbe's pits
Pannus
Necrosis in scar
Scar on tarsal conjunctiva
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Blastomycosis is characterized by all except
Blastomycosis - infection is largely confined to the Noh America, it is also known as Noh American blastomycosis. Infection is acquired by inhalation so mainly affects lungs. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition
4
Yeast like fungus
Commonly involves lung and skin
Dimorphic fungus
Common in South America
Microbiology
mycology
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multi
Which of the following conditions is characterized by episodes of excessive and uncontrolled eating:
B ref: Ahuja, 4th/e p. 136-137 and 5th/ep. 151
2
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa
Body dysmorphophobia
All of the above
Psychiatry
Sleep Disorders
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multi
Which of the following drug is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
ketamine increases all the pressures - blood pressure intracranial pressure intragastric pressure intraocular pressure In patients with increased ICP who are breathing spontaneously, ketamine should be used with caution because it can increase ICP and has been repoed to cause apnea. It is contraindicated. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition.
4
Thiopentone
Propofol
Midazolam
Ketamine
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
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single
New Cross Auxiliaries means
null
2
Dental Nurses in Malaysia
Dental Nurses in Britain
Denturists in Denmark
Dental Nurses in Singapore
Dental
null
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single
Selection bias occurs mainly in
It's usually unwise to choose a control group of patients with one disease. This is because hospital controls are often a source of 'selection bias'. Many hospitals may have diseases that are also influenced by factors under study. In selection bias, cases and controls may not be representative of actual cases and controls in the general population. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 79, 81
2
Coho study
Case control study
RCT
All the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
892454d1-bd76-4401-bdac-bcd4f3b0e377
multi
All are true about hypertrophic cardiomyopathy,Except-
null
1
Digoxin is useful
Abdominal pain
Jaundice
Bleeding
Medicine
null
ac3b780c-1e94-48ab-b61a-ebb78b27361e
multi
Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
null
3
Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer
Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder
Papilloma viruses produce tumors in animals but not in humans
Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma
Pathology
null
a62b6722-de16-425b-b4ba-807ec49f12eb
multi
Most common site for medulloblastoma is:
Medulloblastoma usually arise in the midline of the cerebellum (the vermis) in children. In adults, where the incidence is much less than in children, they are more apt to arise in the cerebellar hemispheres in a lateral position. Mostly supratentorial CNS tumors occurs in adults. Infra tentorial tumors occur in childhood.
2
Medulla
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
Pineal gland
Pathology
CNS Tumors
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Bird's beak appearance is seen in:
Sigmoid volvulus often can be differentiated from cecal or transverse colon volvulus by the appearance of plain x-rays of the abdomen. Sigmoid volvulus produces a characteristic bent inner tube or coffee bean appearance, with the convexity of the loop lying in the right upper quadrant (opposite the site of obstruction). Gastrografin enema shows a narrowing at the site of the volvulus and a pathognomonic bird's beak. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 29.
2
Testicular torsion
Volvulus
Meconium ileus
Ileal atresia
Surgery
null
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single
Which of the following drugs is NOT excreted in bile:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p674) Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside and is excreted renal route.
4
Erythromycin
Ampicillin
Rifampicin
Gentamicin
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
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single
In sickle cell disease, which of the following does not influence the degree of sickling of red cells?
Intake of primaquine acts as a trigger for hemolysis in G6PD deficiency, and not related to sickle cell disease/sickling. Sickle cell disease Caused by a point mutation in which there is replacement of glutamic acid by valine at position 6 of the beta chain generating a sticky patch on the surface of HbS. The sticky patch on the surface of adjacent HbS molecules cause their polymerization resulting in formation of long fibrous precipitates. HbA, HbF can also weakly interact with HbS & prevent its polymerization (HbF >> HbA), therefore individuals with co-inherited condition of hereditary persistence of fetal Hb (HPFH) have less severe due to reduced sickling. Intracellular dehydration, increases the MCHC, facilitates sickling. Condition reducing MCHC also lead to less severe disease, eg. individual who is homozygous for HbS also has coexistent a-thalassemia, which reduces Hb synthesis and leads to milder disease. A decrease in intracellular pH reduces the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin, thereby increasing the fraction of deoxygenated HbS at any given oxygen tension and augmenting the tendency for sickling.
3
Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
Intracellular pH
Intake of primaquine
Co-existing a-thalassemia
Pathology
Hemoglobinopathies: Sickle cell anemia
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single
Deformity in posterior elbow dislocation
Refer Clinical ohopedic p 786 In posterior elbow dislocation, elbow is flexed with exaggerated prominence of the olecranon
1
Flexion
Extension
Both
None
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
26 year old female presents to OPD with small, round bluish nodule on her index nail bed which is painful and the pain fuher increases on exposure to cold. On examination it demonstrated increased pin-prick sensitivity. What could be most probable diagnosis?
Glomus tumors Benign, vascular neoplasms arising from the glomus body. Occur in the upper extremities, most frequently subungual areas. Present as a small, round, bluish nodule visible through the nail plate with a classic triad of symptoms: Hypersensitivity to cold Heightened pinprick sensitivity Paroxysmal pain Diagnosis: X-ray, MRI, and ultrasonography. However, only histology can confirm the diagnosis. Complete surgical excision of the tumor is the only effective treatment to achieve pain relief and low recurrence rate.
2
Herpetic whitlow
Glomus tumor
Osteoma
Subungual hematoma
Dental
Tumours of skin
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multi
The following ADR is seen with withdrawal of
The picture shows piloerection which occurs due to sympathetic stimulation which is typically seen with opioid withdrawalRef: Goodman Gillman 12th ed pg 660
3
Strychnine
Clonidine
Morphine
Baclofen
Pharmacology
All India exam
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single
Best way to prevent infection after cataract surgery is -
The most impoant source of potentil infectious organisms is the patient's own natural conjunctival and skin flora. So, prophylactic antibiotic should adequately cover these organisms. The pre- operative topical antibiotic should be staed 3 days prior to sugery. Preferred antibiotics are fouh generaion fluoroquinolones (gatifloxacin, moxifloxacin). Other antibiotics are aminoglycosides, traditional fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) and gramicidin- neomycin - polymyxin B combinatin. (Ref: Yanoff; Jay S. Duker 2009 Ophthalmology 3rd/e p.416-419)
1
Antibiotics
Yebrows shaving
Through irrigation
None of the above
Ophthalmology
Lens
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multi
A man is using nasal drops continuously for long period of time. What can be the possible adverse effect from its use?
Continuous use of nasal decongestants for a long period of time result in severe mucosal edema, hyperemia, and nasal obstruction. On physical examination, the nasal mucosa will be thickened, erythematous, and edematous and will lack appreciable decongestion on topical decongestant application. Treatment of this condition includes complete cessation of the offending agent, followed by the use of nasal saline lavage and nasal topical steroids. Use of oral decongestants and a course of oral coicosteroids may help hasten symptom resolution and increase patient compliance. Resolution usually takes 3-4 weeks. Complications of untreated rhinitis medicamentosa include poor healing after nasal surgery, septal perforation, and formation of synechiae.
4
Mulberry turbinate
Allergic rhinitis
Vasomotor rhinitis
Rhinitis Medicamentosa
ENT
null
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multi
A patient presents with hyperacusis, loss of lacrimation and loss of taste sensation in the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue. Oedema extends up to which level of facial nerve -
The patient is presenting with : - Hyperacusis: - Nerve to stapedius is involved. Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue → Chorda tympani is involved. Loss of lacrimation → Greater superficial petrosal nerve is involved. Thus, the lesion is at or proximal to geniculate ganglion.
4
Vertical part
Vertical part proximal to nerve to stapedius
Vertical part and beyond nerve to stapedius
Proximal to geniculate ganglion
ENT
null
6d44b238-afec-4f24-9944-22bcc9443d0d
single
Russell body is found in:
Ans. D. Plasma cellsInclusion body:a. Russell body (intracytoplasmic) found in plasma cellb. Dutcher body (nuclear)c. Inclusion of fibril crystalline Rods
4
WBC
RBC
Mast cells
Plasma cells
Medicine
Myeloma
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single
Hasse's rule is for -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fetal ageo Hess's rule (Haase's rule): It is a rough method for calculating the age of fetus by measuring the length from crown to heel. Upto 5th month of gestation, length of foetus in cm is square of the month of gestation and beyound 5 months, length in cm is 5 times the month of gestation.
1
Fetal age
Fetal sex
Race
Fleight
Forensic Medicine
Identification - Medicolegal aspects
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single
Which of the following statements regarding the flow of lymph from lower limb is true:
The flow of lymph from lower limb is increased by massage of foot. Ref: Guyton and Hall - Textbook of Medical Physiology, 10th Edition, Page 173 and 11th Edition, Page 192; Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition, Page 593; Concepts in Medical Physiology By Seifter, 2005, Pages 163-64
4
| sed with change from supine to standing position
| sed in increased capillary permeability
| sed in deep vein valve incompetence
| sed by massage of foot
Physiology
null
eabfcbc3-a5af-48a0-848c-8975a353d33c
multi
Pilocarpine eye drops act as
Ans. (b) Directly acting mioticRef: KDT 7/e, p. 105It is a cholinomimetic alkaloid and acts directly on muscarinic receptors and also on ganglionic muscarinic receptors causing miosis, ciliary muscle contraction and fall in IOP.
2
Directly acting mydriatic
Directly acting miotic
Indirectly acting miotic
Indirectly acting mydriatic
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
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single
Drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia is:
Ans. (A) Verapamil(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p243-244, KDT 8th/e p580-581)*Adenosine is DOC for PSVT termination.*Verapamil is DOC for prophylaxis of PSVT and for management of sustained supraventricular tachycardia.
1
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Digoxin
Phenytoin
Pharmacology
C.V.S
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single
All of the following are causes of exudative plural effusion except
(B) Liver cirrhosis DIFFERNETIAL DIAGNOSES OF PLEURAL EFFUSIONTRANSUDATE PLEURAL EFFUSIONS1. Congestive heart failure4. Nephrotic syndrome7 Myxedema2. Cirrhosis5 Peritoneal dialysis8 Urinothorax3. Pulmonary embolization6 Superior vena cava obstruction EXUDATIVE PLEURAL EFFUSIONS1. Neoplastic diseases5. Collagen-vascular diseasese. Sjogren's syndromea. Metastatic diseasea. Rheumatoid pleuritisf. Wegener's granulomatosisb. Mesotheliomab. Systemic lupus erythematosusg. Churg-Strauss syndrome2. Infectious diseasesc. Drug-induced lupus13 Trapped lunga. Bacterial infectionsd. Immunoblastic lymphadenopathy14 Radiation therapyb. Tuberculosis6 Post-coronary artery bypass surgery15 Post-cardiac injury syndromec. Fungal infections7 Asbestos exposure16 Hemothoraxd. Viral infections8 Sarcoidosis17 Latrogenic injurye. Parasitic infections9 Uremia18 Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome3. Pulmonary embolization10 Meigs' syndrome19 Pericardial disease4. Gastrointestinal disease11 Yellow nail syndrome20 Chylothoraxa. Esophageal perforation12 Drug-induced pleural disease b. Pancreatic diseasea. Nitrofurantoin c. Intraabdominal abscessesb. Dantrolene d. Diaphragmatic herniac. Methysergide e. After abdominal surgeryd. Bromocriptine f. Endoscopic variceal sclerotherapye. Procarbazine g. After liver transplantf. Amiodarone
2
Mesothelioma
Liver cirrhosis
Tuberculosis
Esophageal perforation
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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The substances present in the gall bladder stones or the kidney stones can be best identified by the following techniques -
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4
Flourescence spectroscopy
Electron microscopy
Nuclear magnetic resonance
X - ray diffraction
Surgery
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multi
All are true about congenital diaphragmatic hernia except _____________
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia(CDH) occurs when the diaphragm muscle -- the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen -- fails to close during prenatal development, and the contents from the abdomen (stomach, intestines and/or liver) migrate into the chest through this hole. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
4
Usually associated with polyhydramnios
Most commonly seen on left side
Moality associated with pulmonary hypoplasia
Pulmonary dilators markedly improve survival
Pediatrics
Gastrointestinal tract
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multi
A 14yr old girl on exposure to cold has pallor of exterimies followed by pain cyanosis.In later ages of life she is prone to develop
Ref Robbins 8/e p225;518; Harrison 18/e p2096,9/e p228- 229 Systemic sclerosis (SS) is an immunologic disorder characterized by excessive fibrosis in multiple tissues, obliterative vascular disease, and evidence of autoimmunity, mainly the production of multiple autoantibodies. It is commonly called scleroderma because the skin is a major target, but this disorder is better labeled "systemic" because lesions are present throughout the body. Cutaneous involvement is the usual presenting manifestation and eventually appears in approximately 95% of cases, but it is the visceral involvement--of the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, kidneys, hea, and skeletal muscles--that is responsible for most of the related mor- bidity and moality. SS can be classified into two groups on the basis of its clinical course: * Diffuse scleroderma, characterized by initial widespread skin involvement, with rapid progression and early vis- ceral involvement * Limited scleroderma, with relatively mild skin involve- ment, often confined to the fingers and face. Involve- ment of the viscera occurs late, so the disease in these patients generally has a fairly benign course. This clini- cal presentation is also called the CREST syndrome because of its frequent features of calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.
2
SLE
Scleroderma
Rheumatoid ahritis
Histiocytosis
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
Not used for erectile dysfunction ?
Ans. is 'A' i.e., Beta-blockersDrugs used for erectile dysfunction1. Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (Sildenafil, Tadalafil, Vardenafil).By inhibiting PDE-5, these drugs prevent degradation of cGMP and potentiate the action of NO.These are the DOC for pharmacological therapy of erectile dysfunction.2.Alprostadil (Prostaglandin E1)It is a powerful vasodilatorIt acts by increasing aerial inflow by vasodilation and reducing outflow by contracting the corporal smooth muscle that occludes draining venules.It is the DOC for patients not responding to PDE-5 inhibitors.It is directly injected into corpora cavernosa.3. PapaverineIt is a nonspecific phosphodiesterase inhibitor.Injection of papaverine with or without phentolamine into corpus cavernosum produces penile tumescence to permit intercourse.The repeated injection can cause penile fibrosis.4.AndrogensIt can be used when androgen deficiency is demonstrated to be responsible for the loss of libido and erectile dysfunction.5.Apomorphine (Laurence 9th/e p. 546)A dopamine antagonist is given by subcutaneous injection.
1
Beta-blockers
Sildenafil
PG-E
Papaverine
Psychiatry
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single
A postmenopausal women with a family history of osteoporosis completes a bone mineral density work-up and you find her T-score is -2.6. She tried a sho course of teriparitide a year ago but complained of serious depression and mood changes. You decided to try an antibody-based therapy and schedule a time for an injection. Wof is the drug you have selected
Denosumab:- It is a human monoclonal antibody which inhibits osteoclast differentiation and function as well as promotes their apoptosis. It is a treatment option for postmenopausal osteoporosis when no other drug is appropriate. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-346
4
Calcitonin
Dihydrotachysterol
Infliximab
Denusomab
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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single
The boundaries of the inguinal triangle include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Inguinal triangle is a region defined by the following structures:Rectus abdominis muscle (medially)Inguinal ligament (inferiorly)Inferior epigastric vessels (superior and laterally)It is the region in which direct inguinal hernias protrude through the abdominal wall.The Hesselbach triangle is bounded by the inguinal ligament, the inferior epigastric vessels, and the lateral border of the rectus muscle. A weakness or defect in the transversalis fascia, which forms the floor of this triangle, results in a direct inguinal hernia. Ref: Deveney K.E. (2010). Chapter 32. Hernias & Other Lesions of the Abdominal Wall. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e
4
Lateral border of rectus abdominis
Inguinal ligament
Inferior epigastric aery
Linea alba
Anatomy
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multi
What is the content of ethinyl estradiol in very low dose oral contraceptives?
<p> Governments of India has made available 2 types of low-dose oral pills under the brand names of MALA-N and MALA-D. It contains ethinyl estradiol 30 micrograms and levonorgestrel 0.15 milligrams. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:500. <\p>
1
30 Yg
25 Yg
20 Yg
15 Yg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
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single
Xanthoma dissemination is associated with:-
Xanthoma dissemination Non-Familial Non-Langerhan Histiocytosis. C/F : Presents with Xanthoma like lesion, we see reddish yellow papules over the whole body. Associated with Diabetes Insipidus.
2
Down's Syndrome
Diabetes Insipidus
Lymphoma
Ca Pancreas
Medicine
JIPMER 2018
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single
Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap smear shows dysplasia, next step is:
Ans. is a, i.e. AntibioticsRef: Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p410-l; Dutta Gynae. 4th/ed, p250The erosion should first be treated with antibiotics and then pap smear repeated.
1
Antibiotics
Colposcopy
Cryosurgery
Conization
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Carcinoma Cervix
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