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Basal cell degeneration seen in –
| null | 1 |
Lichen planus
|
Psoriasis
|
Pemphigus
|
DLE
|
Dental
| null |
b6f300c6-d41c-477d-9a2e-0cb95a489673
|
single
|
Double bubble sign in an X-ray abdomen is indicative of:
|
Ans. Annular pancreas
| 1 |
Annular pancreas
|
Ileal atresia
|
Anal rectal malformation
|
All of the above
|
Radiology
| null |
01015afe-21d9-4c77-8b8e-fad543feda67
|
multi
|
Sample collection for renal tuberculosis is
|
BACTERIOLOGICAL:- The diagnosis of genitourinary TB is confirmed on a tuberculin test or atleast three consecutive early morning samples of urine are collected and sent for microscopy (Ziehl-Neelsen staining), culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium. RADIOGRAPHY:- A plain abdominal radiograph may show calcified lesions of CEMENT KIDNEY. INTRAVENOUS UROGRAPHY:-EARLY:-Normally clear cut outline of renal papillae may be rendered indistinct by presence of ulceration. TUBERCULOUS ABSCESS:-Appears as SOL , which causes adjacent calyces to splay out. LATE:- Dilatation of contralateral ureter from obstruction where the ureters passes through thickened and oedmatous bladder wall. CYSTOSCOPY:- GOLF-HOLE ureteric orifice. CXR:-Active Lung lesion. Reference : Bailey27th edition . chapter 76 , pg no: 1405
| 4 |
Single early morning urine sample
|
24 hours urine collection
|
3 random urine collection
|
3 morning sample of urine
|
Surgery
|
Urology
|
04af1a86-513d-4069-9a98-2f0364e7919b
|
single
|
Fat-soluble vitamins, compared with their water soluble counterpas. generally have a greater potential toxicity for because they are
|
Fat soluble vitamins, especially A and D, can be stored in massive amounts and hence, have a potential for serious toxicities. Water soluble vitamins are easily excreted by the kidney and accumulation to toxic levels is much less common. Conversely, inadequate dietary intake will lead to manifestations of deficiency relatively faster.
| 2 |
Administeicd in larger doses
|
Avidly stored by the body
|
Capable ot dissolving membrane phospholinids
|
Involved in more essential metabolic pathways
|
Surgery
| null |
88935015-14eb-405c-8075-2fc61ed6751e
|
multi
|
All the primary ossification centers are appeared at fetal age of: WB 11
|
Ans. 4 months
| 4 |
1 month
|
2 months
|
3 months
|
4 months
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
446360bb-e3dd-43d7-a4f7-713d87daca36
|
multi
|
All are branch of mandibular nerve except:-
|
Mandibular nerve (V3 division). The Mandibular Nerve leaves the inferior margin of trigeminal ganglion and leaves the skull through the foramen ovale The Motor Root of the V3 also passes through the foramen ovale & unites with the sensory component of the mandibular nerve outside the skull, Thus, the mandibular nerve is the only branch of trigeminal nerve that contains a motor component. Branches: Nerve to medial pterygoid from main trunk Anterior division: Supplies muscles of mastication. Posterior division: 3 Branches - Auriculotemporal nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Lingual nerve Zygomatic nerve - branch of Maxillary division of Vth nerve
| 4 |
Lingual nerve
|
Inferior Alveolar Nerve
|
Auriculotemporal nerve
|
Zygomatic nerve
|
Anatomy
|
Cranial Nerves
|
1aa4d21c-bb56-429d-96c9-0e59311d79cb
|
multi
|
A male 25 years old presents to the dental clinic due to food lodgement in lower back region tooth. He also gives the history of previous dental treatments of other teeth as well. On examination it is revealed that interproximal caries is present between right mandibular molars. The clinician restores the tooth with amalgam.
The carving of the restoration can be done by which of the following ?
|
A discoid–cleoid instrument may be used to carve the occlusal surface of an amalgam restoration. The rounded end (discoid) is positioned on the unprepared enamel adjacent to the amalgam margin and pulled parallel to the margin. This removes any excess at the margin while not allowing the marginal amalgam to be carved below the preparation margins (i.e., “submarginated”).
The pointed end (cleoid) of the instrument may be used to define the primary grooves, fossae, and cuspal inclines. The Hollenback carver is also useful for carving these areas.The reproduction of grooves and fossae is necessary to provide appropriate mastication and sluiceways for the escape of food from the occlusal table. The mesial and distal fossae are carved to be inferior to the marginal ridge height, helping limit the potential for food to be wedged into the occlusal embrasure. Having rounded and relatively shallow occlusal anatomy also helps achieve a 90-degree amalgam margin on the occlusal surface and to ensure adequate occlusogingival dimension of the final amalgam restoration for strength.
Occlusal embrasure areas are developed with a thin explorer tip or carving instrument by mirroring the contours of the adjacent tooth. The explorer tip is pulled along the inside of the matrix band, creating the occlusal embrasure form.
| 4 |
Discoid–cleoid instrument
|
Hollenback carver
|
Thin explorer tip
|
Two of the above
|
Dental
| null |
69b1547f-c247-4b97-8183-5847879445eb
|
multi
|
Structure of proteins can be detected by all the methods, EXCEPT:
|
High-performance/pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) is a technique used for enhanced and precise separation of even small amounts of biological and nonbiological molecules. HPLC columns utilize variations of the separation principle behind column chromatography, depending on variable attractive and repulsive forces on the gel material and their interaction with the biological molecules. The analysis of peptides and structure of proteins are done by mass spectrometry. NMR spectroscopy analyzes proteins in aqueous solution. Proteins and protein complexes of >100 kDa can be analyzed by NMR. Ref: Janson L.W., Tischler M.E. (2012). Appendix II. Biochemical Methods. In L.W. Janson, M.E. Tischler (Eds), The Big Picture: Medical Biochemistry.
| 1 |
High pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC)
|
Mass spectrometry
|
NMR spectrometry
|
All of the above
|
Biochemistry
| null |
d52a0ded-5da9-4cc2-ade5-4007d25ac411
|
multi
|
A 40 yrs old male chronic smoker comes with acute epigastric discomfo for past one hour .ECG showing ST segment elevation in inferior leads . What is the immediate intervention
|
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1596 Initial treatment should begin with the platelet cyclooxygenase inhibitor aspirin. The typical initial dose is 325 mg/d, with lower doses (75-100 mg/d) recommended thereafter. Contraindications are active bleeding or aspirin intoler- ance. "Aspirin resistance" has been noted in 2-8% of patients but frequently has been related to noncompliance.
| 1 |
Asprin
|
Thrombolytic therapy
|
IV PANTAPROZOL
|
Beta blockers
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
c489688f-d3c2-4784-b78b-2ea7147ebaea
|
single
|
Hydrocele & edema in foot occur in:
|
Ans : A (W.Bancrofti) Hydrocele (genital involvement) is only feature of Bancroftian filariasis (W.Bancrofti) not of (rarely) Brugian fila riasis( B. malayi& B.Timori)"In chronic Bancroftian filariasis. the main clinical features are hydrocele; elephantiasis & chyluria. The Brugian filariasis isgenerally similar to Bancroftian filariasis, but the genitalia are rarely involved, except in areas where Brugian filariasis occurs together with Bancroftian filariasis"-Park 21st/246"Wuchereria bancroftl can affect the legs, arms, vulva, breasts, and scrotum (causing hydrocele formation), while Brugia timori rarely affects the genitals"-en.wikipedia.org.filariaisis"Genital lesions or chyluria (milky colour urine) do not occur in brugian filariasis. Hydrocele is the most common sign of chronic bancroftian filariasis, followed by lymphoedema, elephantiasis and chyluria-nvbdcp.gov.in"The most common presentations of the lymphatic filariases are asymptomatic (or subclinical) microfilaremia, acute adenolymphangitis (ADL), and chronic lymphatic diseases hydrocele. If lymphatic damage progresses, transient lymphedema can develop into lymphatic obstruction and the permanent changes associated with elephantiasis. Brawny edema follows early pitting edema, and thickening of the subcutaneous tissues and hyperkeratosis occuf- Harrison 18th/1746Table (Jawetz): MicrofilariaeFilariidDiseaseVectorsWuchereria bancrofti Brugia malayiBancroftian and Malayan filariasis: lymphangitis, hydrocele, elephantiasisCuliddae (mosquitoes) Culiddae (mosquitoes)Loa loaLoiasis; Calabar swellings; conjunctival wormsChrysops, deer fly, mango flyOnchocerca volvulusOnchocerciasis: skin nodules, blindness, dermatitis, hanging groinSimulium, buffalo gnat, black flyMansonella (Dipetalonema) PersiansMansonelliasis or dipetalonem iasis (minor disturbances)Culicoides, biting midgeMansonella streptocercaUsually nonpathogenicCulicoides, biting midgeMansonella ozzardiOzzard's mansonelliasis (benign), occasionally hydroceleCulicoides, biting midgeDracunculiasis (Guinea Worm Infection) Harrison 18th/1751Few or no clinical manifestations of dracunculiasis are evident until fust before the blister forms, when there is an onset of fever and generalized allergic symptoms, including periorbital edema, wheezing, and urticaria. The emergence of the worm is associated with local pain and swelling
| 1 |
W. Bancrofti
|
B. Malayl
|
B.Timori
|
Oncocerca volulus
|
Microbiology
|
Helminthology
|
91ec5e6a-50a2-4e36-8b3e-c43b5e9db5da
|
single
|
Lead pipe appearance is seen in
|
B i.e. Ulcerative colitis
| 2 |
Chron's disease
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
Schistosomiasis
|
Carcinoma colon
|
Radiology
| null |
ae5fe37d-0b05-418a-8578-df155884ae9d
|
single
|
Gene for Wilson's disease is located on chromonsome
|
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *Wilson's disease:the underlying defect in chromosome 13 is a mutation in ATP7B gene ,the normal hepatic copper exceeding gene. </p >
| 3 |
7
|
10
|
13
|
17
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
15374e65-2f0e-4b06-9698-2a3fd852ef08
|
single
|
Investigation of choice to detect Hydatiform mole is :
|
USG
| 2 |
X-ray abdomen
|
USG
|
Serum HCG level
|
Gravindex
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
20180ba2-aa20-4096-a756-d53a323b9468
|
single
|
False about telmerase is:
|
Telomerase prevents premature ageing.
| 4 |
Has reverse Transcriptase activity
|
Has intrinsic Primer
|
It is a ribonucleoprotein
|
Telomerase leads to premature ageing.
|
Biochemistry
| null |
630c6d2f-9ee6-4416-8052-3a3033cad034
|
multi
|
Normal saline is used as diluent in which vaccine-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., BCG BCG vaccineo BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine produced by 'Bacille Calmette Guerin' an avirulent strain produced by 230 subcultures over a period of 13 years,o Types of vaccine - It is a live attenuated vaccine. There are two types of vaccineLiquid (fresh) vaccineFreeze dried (lyophilized) - more stable, currently in use.o Diluent - Normal saline is recommended as a diluent for reconstituting vaccine, as distilled water may cause irritation. The reconstituted vaccine should be used within 3 hours.o Route - Intradermalo Site - Just above the insertion of deltoid (usually left)o Dosage - # Usual strength is 0.1 mg in 0.1 ml# For newborn < 4 weeks, 0.05 ml.o Age of administraton - Either at birth or at 6 weeks of age simultaneous with DPT and polio,o Storage - BCG vaccines are stable for several weeks at ambient temprature in tropical climate, and for upto 1 year. If kept away from direct light and stored in a cool environment. The vaccine must be protected from exposure to light during storage (wrapped up in double layer of red or black cloth),o Duration of protection - 15 to 20 years,o Booster - Not advised under EPL
| 3 |
Measles
|
Rubella
|
BCG
|
HAV
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable Diseases
|
6d69f1be-d131-4d3b-84fc-b118437fc1f0
|
single
|
In JVP 'c' wave indicates which of the following cardiac events?
|
The 'c' wave is the transmitted manifestation of the rise in atrial pressure produced by bulging of the tricuspid valve into the atria during isovolumetric contraction. 'a' wave is atrial systole, 'v' wave rise in atrial pressure before tricuspid valve opens during systole.
| 4 |
Atrial filling
|
Atrial contraction
|
Ventricular filling
|
Ventricular contraction
|
Physiology
| null |
9adb9745-5ad8-4e23-9e8f-98bede38c860
|
single
|
Which of the following amino acids in a protein commonly acts as a potential O-Glycosylation site for attachment of an oligosaccharide unit -
|
O-glycosylation:- Addition of oligosaccharide to hydroxyl chain of serine or threonine.
N-glycosylation:- Addition of oligosaccharide to the amide nitrogen of asparagine.
| 3 |
Glutamine
|
Cysteine
|
Serine
|
Asparagine
|
Biochemistry
| null |
65608fad-b35f-482f-b84d-2c8b270b9a10
|
single
|
Antitubercular drug which reaches inside the caseous material is ?
| null | 2 |
Isoniazid
|
Rifampicin
|
Pyrazinamide
|
Ethambutol
|
Pharmacology
| null |
6de36ce7-1b0e-4223-b24f-ae523313a8f2
|
single
|
Uses of woods light includes following EXCEPT
|
Sclerema is characterized by diffuse hardening of the subcutaneous tissue with minimal inflammation. It usually affects premature, ill newborns. Diagnosis of Sclerema does not require use of wood light.
| 3 |
Urine examination in porphyria
|
Examination of hair in T. capitis
|
Sclerema
|
Erythrasma
|
Dental
|
Fungal infections
|
b6179e11-1844-4de1-b467-4515120c83fa
|
multi
|
Anterior surface of stomach is in contact with the following ribs:
|
The lateral pa of the anterior surface is posterior to the left costal margin and in contact with the diaphragm, which separates it from the left pleura, the base of the left lung, the pericardium and the left sixth to ninth ribs. Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 71.
| 2 |
4th to 7th
|
6th to 9th
|
7th to 10th
|
None of the above
|
Anatomy
| null |
02357b08-4c5a-4920-9a81-b8c77c5ac804
|
multi
|
What complication should one expect when PCNL is done through 11th intercostals space?
|
Percutaneous nephrolitotomy (PCNL) is the procedure done for renal calculi. When the procedure is done through the 11th intercostal space there is a chance of developing pneumothorax or hydrothorax in patients. Ref: Smith's Textbook of Endourology By Glenn Preminger, Gopal Badlani, Louis Kavouss, 3rd Edition, Page 132
| 1 |
Hydrothorax
|
Hematuria
|
Damage to colon
|
Ramnants fragments
|
Surgery
| null |
ea5d5cd6-6c05-4db8-a946-3b29c0ae1502
|
single
|
Coarctation of aorta is most commonly seen w ith-
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bicuspid aortic Valveo Coarctation of the Aorta -Constrictions of the aorta of varying degrees may occur at any point from the transverse arch to the iliac bifurcation, but 98% occur just below^ the origin of the left subclavian artery at the origin of the ductus arteriosus (juxtaductal coarctation).The anomaly occurs twice as often in males as in females.Coarctation of the aorta may be a feature of Turner syndrome and is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve in more than 70% of patients.Mitral valve abnormalities (a supravalvular mitral ring or parachute mitral valve) and subaortic stenosis are potential associated lesions.When this group of left-sided obstructive lesions occurs together, they are referred to as the Shone complex.
| 4 |
ASD
|
VSD
|
PDA
|
Bicuspid aortic valve
|
Pediatrics
|
C.H.D.
|
6637f43c-12a1-4743-8357-8e98ef6c70cb
|
single
|
Which among the following doesn't cause an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase?
|
Serum ALP is normal in multiple myeloma. It's an impoant point. The most common cause of hypercalcemia in patients with hypercalcemia, decreased GFR, and anemia is multiple myeloma. Alkaline phosphatase is generally normal because there is only a limited osteoblastic response to myelomatous infiltrate in the marrow Calcium is elevated. Phosphate is elevated Alkaline phosphatase is normal PTH is suppressed PTHrP is normal or low Serum protein immunoelectrophoresis is abnormal
| 2 |
Paget's disease
|
Multiple myeloma
|
Ostiomalacia
|
Hypehyroidsm
|
Medicine
| null |
41b13b00-e371-4bc0-88ac-a65a31ecf26c
|
single
|
Which of the following inhibits peripheral conversion of Thyroxin to Triiodothyronine?
|
Ans. d (Propylthiouracil) (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 6th ed.,250)Propylthiouracil also inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 by D1 type of 5'D1, but not by D2 type. This may partly contribute to its effects. Methimazole and carbimazole do not have this action and may even antagonize that of propylthiouracil.Differences between propylthiouracil and carbimazole PropylthiouracilCarbimazole1.Dose to dose less potentAbout 5 x more potent2.Highly plasma protein boundLess bound3.Less transferred across placenta and in milkLarger amounts cross to foetus and in milk4.Plasma tl/2=l-2 hours6--10 hours5.Single dose acts for 4-8 hours12-24 hours6.No active metaboliteProduces active metabolite-methimazole7.Multiple (2-3) daily doses neededMostly single daily dose8.Inhibits peripheral conversion of T, to T3Does not inhibit T, to T3 conversion Antithyroid DrugsFeatures1. Carbimazole, methimazole, prophlthiouracilThyroid peroxidase inhibitors2. ProphythiouracilDrug of choice in pregnancy3. Thyroid constipating AgentLugol's Iodine, Potassium iodide4. Faster acting antithyroid drugLugol's Iodine, Potassium iodide5. Drug causing destruction of thyroid gland131I6. Drug inhibiting peripheral conversion of T4 and T3Propranolol, Prophylthiouracil, Lithium, Amiodoraone
| 4 |
Lugol's Iodine
|
Carbimazole
|
Radioactive iodine
|
Propylthiouracil
|
Pharmacology
|
Endocrinology
|
035f1f05-40df-405b-9c5a-befa829418f8
|
single
|
Nissl substance is found in: March 2013
|
Ans. A i.e. Neuron Nissl body/Nissl or tigroid substance It is a large granular body found in neurons. These granules are rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free ribosomes, and are the site of protein synthesis. It was named after Franz Nissl, a German neurologist who invented the Nissl staining method
| 1 |
Neuron
|
Hepatocytes
|
Cardiocytes
|
ENterocytes
|
Medicine
| null |
c9ea1e23-9f27-46ce-8c2f-95172f1abedc
|
single
|
All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. pylori except:
|
Answer is A (Oxytetracycline): Oxytetrocycline has not been mentioned as a recommended agent for eradication of H Pylori and hence is the single best answer of choice. Tetracycline and not Oxytetracycline forms pa of the regimen. Amoxycillin, Bismuth subsalicylate and Omeprozole have all been recommended for H. Pylori eradication Recommended Regimens for Eradication of H. Pylori (Harrison) TRIPLE THERAPY' Bismuth subsalicylate plus Metronidazole plus Tetracycline Ranitidine bismuth citrate plus Tetracycline plus Clarithromycin or Metronidazole - PPI plus Clarithromycin plus Metronidazole or Amoxicillin QUADRUPLE THERAPY PPI plus Bismuth subsalicylate plus Metronidazole plus Tetracycline All PP1 are given twice daily except esomeprazolc (once daily) Proton Pump inhibitiors (PPI) include: Omeprazole (20mg), Lansaprazole (30mg) Rabeprazole (20 mg), Pantaprazole (40 mg), Esmaprozole (40 mg)
| 1 |
Oxytetracycline
|
Amoxicillin
|
Bismuth Subcitrate
|
Omeprazole
|
Medicine
| null |
e9e1a421-9ead-492c-8cbc-8647c055d1cc
|
multi
|
Which one of these anti hypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy?
| null | 4 |
Hydralazine
|
α-Methyldopa
|
Nifedipine
|
Enalapril
|
Pharmacology
| null |
f9fda525-3fab-4f7f-9a95-b69d92084b4c
|
single
|
ANOVA is-
|
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 It is a Quantitative test/Metric test. Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than 2 groups Mc Nemar test : 1 group. ( before and after intervention) Quantitative: Paired T test: 1 group Student T test/ unpaired T test: 2 groups Anova: more than 2 groups.
| 1 |
Parametric test
|
Non parametric test
|
Qualitative test
|
None
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Biostatistics
|
41b095b9-11d6-4d68-aa20-e45163020199
|
multi
|
All the following findings would be expected in a person with coarctation of the aoa ciccpt :
|
Answer is C (Inability to augment cardiac output with exercise) In coarctation of aoa unless the hypeension is very severe or left ventricular failure has ensued, cardiac output responds normally to exercise. Usually a systolic ejection murmur is heard anteriorly and over the back. If the obstruction is very severe a continuous murmur would be heard. Coarctation of aoa is commonly accompanied by a bicuspid aoic valve, which can produce the diastolic murmur of aoic regurgitation. Coarctation of the Aoa usually occurs just distal to the origin of the left subclan aery. If it arises above the left subclan, Aerial blood pressure elevation may be evident only in the right arm. In coarctation of aoa unless the hypeension is very severe or left ventricular failure has ensued, cardiac output responds normally to exercise. Hypeension is the major clinical problem and may persist even after complete surgical correction.
| 3 |
A systolic murmur across the anterior chest and back and a high-pitched diastolic murmur along the left sternal border
|
B. A higher blood pressure in the right arm than in the left arm
|
Inability to augment cardiac output with exercise
|
Persistent hypeension despite complete surgical repair
|
Medicine
| null |
21b23ee1-f6f4-4d32-9735-30f5602f3f50
|
multi
|
During accommodation, there occurs decrease in the radius of curvature of the:
|
Ans. Both surfaces of the lens
| 3 |
Anterior surface of the lens
|
Posterior surface of the lens
|
Both surfaces of the lens
|
None of the above
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
b2432502-a9a2-4223-b39b-a0b0eb4d9622
|
multi
|
Lesser cornu of hyoid bone is derived from which arch:
|
Ans. (b) 2nd branchial archRef. Inderbir Singh's Embroyology 9th ed. /116-117, 7th ed. /119-120* At first there are 6 arches. The 5th arch disappears.* Lesser cornu of hyoid bone is derived from 2nd arch.* Greater cornu of hyoid bone is derived from 3rdarch.Derivatives of Branchial arches and their respective nerve supply1st Branchial arch2nd Branchial arch3rd Branchial arch4th Branchial arch6th Branchial arch# Malleus and Incus# Maxilla# Mandible# Muscle of mastication# Stapes# Upper half of body of hyoid# Lesser cornu of hyoid# Muscle of facial expression# Lower part of body of hyoid# Greater cornu of hyoid# Thymus# Upper thyroid cartilage# Cricothyroid muscle# Lower half of thyroid cartilage# Arytenoid, Cuneiform, Corniculate cartilage# All intrinsic laryngeal muscle except cricothyroidNerve: Mandibular branch of CN 5thFacial NerveGlossopharyngeal nerveVagus + Superior Laryngeal nerveVagus + Recurrent laryngeal nerve
| 2 |
1st mandibular arch
|
2ndbranchial arch
|
3rdbranchial arch
|
4th branchial arch
|
Anatomy
|
Pharyngeal Arches
|
f9d84ba7-c55e-4c27-8b21-5821cdb9d0c5
|
single
|
A 20 yr old male presents with anterior shoulder dislocation. The injury is usually caused as a combination of which of the following ?
|
Anterior shoulder dislocation Indirect force -abduction, external rotation, extebtion Direct force -blow from posterior aspect of shoulder Most common mechanism for injury of anterior dislocation of shoulder is fall on outstretched hand Refer Maheshwari 6th/e p 89
| 1 |
Abduction and external rotation
|
Adduction and external rotation
|
Abduction and internal rotation
|
Adduction and internal rotation
|
Orthopaedics
|
Shoulder and arm injuries
|
d68eaa14-8773-4bc7-8104-00fa39f55f11
|
multi
|
Tumor marker for Breast cancer?
|
Tumor MarkersTumor TypesCA-125 Ovarian cancerCA 19-9 Colon and Pancreatic cancerCA 15-3 Breast cancerCEACarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and heaRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 7; Neoplasia; Page no:337; Table: 7-12
| 1 |
CA 15-3
|
CA 19-9
|
CA 125
|
CEA
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
529079db-f685-480a-867d-92dcb79d08fb
|
single
|
Ground glass hepatocyte is seen in which hepatitis?
|
Ans. (b) Hepatitis B(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 837; 8th/pg 852)Diagnostic hallmark of Chronic Hepatitis B is "ground- glass" hepatocytes (cells with endoplasmic reticulum swollen by HBsAg)
| 2 |
Hepatitis A
|
Hepatitis B
|
Hepatitis D
|
Hepatitis E
|
Pathology
|
Liver & Biliary Tract
|
6d908292-9f6c-4546-85dc-63f349a31184
|
single
|
Weakest poion of Dermo- epidermal junction is
|
LAMINA LUCIDA * Electron-lucent zone under hemidesmosome on EM; weakest link of BMZ (Basement membrane zone). * Comprised of anchoring filaments (laminin-332), laminin-1, fibronectin, nidogen (entactin), uncein and poion of BPAG2. Anchoring Filaments :- * Delicate filaments emanating perpendicularly from HD(hemi-desmosomes) which stretch from plasma membrane to lamina densa; product of basal keratinocytes; smaller than anchoring fibrils * Laminin-332: also known epiligrin (truncated laminin), laminin-5, kalinin, and nicein; glycoprotein serving as major component of anchoring filaments; major attachment factor for keratinocytes and binds a6b4 integrin at hemidesmosome . Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:- 7
| 2 |
Stratum Basale
|
Lamina Lucida
|
Lamina Densa
|
Lamina Fibroreticularis
|
Dental
|
Anatomy of skin
|
fbfc035b-7ec6-4c57-85db-0035b63922ee
|
single
|
"Maidon Teeth" is due to:
|
Fluoride
| 2 |
Lead
|
Fluoride
|
Calcium
|
Phosphorus
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
a77fc52c-38ea-4f9c-bb50-2f9a491bc1a0
|
single
|
A 40 year old woman was on chemotherapy for 6 months for Ovarian carcinoma. Now she presented with a progressive bilateral Sensorineural hearing loss. The Drug responsible for this includes
|
(A) Cisplatin# Platinum-containing chemotherapeutic agents, including cisplatin and carboplatin, are associated with cochleotoxicity characterized by high-frequency hearing loss and tinnitus.> Ototoxicity is less frequently seen with the related compound oxaliplatin.
| 1 |
Cisplatin
|
Doxorubicin
|
Cyclophosphamide
|
Paclitaxel
|
Pharmacology
|
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
|
2f10d5fd-5193-41e0-a664-bcecceb07fd8
|
single
|
Climbing fibres send excitatory input to:
|
Functional unit of cerebellum = purkinje cell & corresponding deep nuclear cell. Afferents to cerebellum: - 1. Climbing fibers 2. Mossy fibers Climbing fibers all originate from the inferior olives of the medulla; forming the olivocerebellar tract. They are excitatory to the deep nuclear cell (excitatory) purkinje cell (inhibitory) | Precise output for motor movements Mossy fibers - afferents from various other sources send excitatory collateral to deep nuclear cell and proceed to excite granule cells. Granule cells send out extremely sho axons up to the molecular layer cerebellar coex where they divide into 2 branches running parallel to the folia, k/a parallel nerve fibers. Golgi cells, stellate cells & basket cells are inhibitory cells with sho axons, located in the molecular layer of cerebellar coex they send axons to adjacent purkinje cells & cause lateral inhibition, thus sharpening the output signal.
| 4 |
Stellate cells
|
Golgi cells
|
Granule cells
|
Purkinje cells
|
Physiology
|
DNB 2018
|
9e274d13-35c6-4e96-a732-1642ea15946f
|
single
|
Which of the following provides the most accurate measure of GFR?
|
Ans. C. Inulin clearancea. Inulin clearance is the standard for measuring GFR.b. Because Inulin is neither secreted nor reabsorbed, only filtered, so rate of clearance is equal to GFR.c. (Creatinine is slightly secreted from the peritubular capillaries into the tubules)d. PAH clearance is used to measure renal plasma flow, not GFR.
| 3 |
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
|
Endogenous creatinine clearance
|
Inulin clearance
|
PAH clearance
|
Physiology
|
Kidneys and Body Fluids
|
f46ba7b0-2021-4efd-9f29-aae5adc6b05e
|
single
|
The most effective intervention to reduce newborn and child deaths is?
|
The most effective intervention to reduce newborn and child deaths: Exclusive breastfeeding for 1st 6 months It has reduces moality by 13%
| 1 |
Exclusive breastfeeding for 1st 6 months
|
Vitamin D supplementation for 1st year of life
|
Iron supplementation from 6 to 12 months age
|
Temperature control in the neonatal period
|
Pediatrics
|
Breast Milk & Breast Feeding
|
009ef2f7-590b-4994-97b6-39a39955c96a
|
single
|
In which of the following diseases decrease in levels of single neurotransmitter was first identified?
|
Neurons of the substantia nigra communicate with neurons of the basal ganglia by liberating the neurotransmitter dopamine (DA). In Parkinson's disease, neurons of the substantia nigra progressively degeneration; as a result, the amount of DA available for neurotransmission in the corpus striatum is lowered. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456
| 2 |
Alzheimer's disease
|
Parkinson's disease
|
Huntington disease
|
Schizophrenia
|
Medicine
|
C.N.S
|
8af7dd9a-5be7-441f-8a71-4dd47478c60e
|
single
|
Radiosensitive bone tumor
| null | 3 |
Fibrosarcoma
|
Malignant GIT
|
Multiple myeloma
|
Synovial cell sarcoma
|
Orthopaedics
| null |
96c17c18-d353-4655-97e1-4a9f992b4429
|
single
|
All statements about adult instussusception are true except
|
Most common in children Primary or secondary to intestinal pathology, e.g. polyp, Meckel's diveiculum Ileocolic is the commonest variety Can lead to an ischaemic segment Radiological reduction is indicated in most cases The remainder require surgery Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1191
| 1 |
Idiopathic & more enteric rather than colonic
|
Lead point present in majority of cases
|
Resection of bowel is adequate for large bowel intussusception
|
Hydrostatic redution with barium or air are done if bowel is not completely obstructed
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
d7eedeee-5cfb-46aa-9ef0-00493d3897b7
|
multi
|
A 35 year old man has eaten and completely metabolized approximately 80g of protein, 20g of fat, and 150g of carbohydrate. Approximately how much energy (in kilocalories) will be released as a result of the complete oxidation of these compounds?.
|
The energy released in the complete oxidation of 1 gram of carbohydrate, fat, and protein is respectively 4.1, 9.3, and 4.1 kcal. Quick calculation with approximate round values gives: 80*4+20*9+150*4=320+180+600=1100 Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 43. Nutrition, Digestion, & Absorption. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e
| 4 |
1.1
|
11
|
110
|
1100
|
Biochemistry
| null |
400fa249-2d6c-40b6-a0fc-1ff76d498137
|
single
|
The protozoan causing dysenteric symptoms:
|
Balantidium coli is a ciliate protozoan. It is the largest protozoan parasite & only ciliate infecting humans. It inhabits the large intestine of man and causes ciliate dysentery. Infective stage: binucleate cyst; spherical, ellipsoid, 50-75mm, double layered cyst wall. The invasive form is the trophozoite - 80-120mm; two nuclei (macronucleus, micronucleus), peristome, cytostome, cytopharynx, cytopyge Entamoeba coli is the comensal of human intestine usually not associated with disease. Giardia cause malabsorption and steattorhea not dysentry Trichomonas cause genital tract infection
| 1 |
Balantidium coli
|
Entamoeba coli
|
Giardia
|
Trichomonas
|
Microbiology
|
Parasitology Pa 1 (Protozoology)
|
e5284c70-e8af-4e47-979a-a86cf285f1c2
|
single
|
All are Neutralization tests except:
|
Sabin-feldman dye test for detecting Toxoplasma antibodies. Complements are used.
| 4 |
Plague inhibition test
|
Schick test
|
Nagler's reaction
|
Sabin-feldman dye test
|
Microbiology
| null |
b8fa57f6-bf1b-498f-93f2-15da39a558b0
|
multi
|
The diffusion capacity of lung is decreased in all except
|
In alveolar hemorrhage like good Pasteur syndrome DLCO increases.
| 2 |
ILD
|
Good pateur syndrome
|
Pneumocystis carinii infection
|
Primary pulmonary hypeension
|
Medicine
|
Respiratory system
|
2b98efbc-09b0-4040-8900-edc472377490
|
multi
|
In a case of acute attack of glaucoma Vogt\'s triad excludes –
|
"Glaucoma does not affect vitreous and does not cause floaters". — Clinical ophthalmology
Causes of floaters are :- Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), retinal detachment, high myopia, bleeding or inflammation of eye.
Vogt's triad may be seen in patients with any type of post-congestive glaucoma and in treated acute congestive glaucoma. It is characterized by :- i) Glaucomflecken (anterior subcapsular cataract); ii) Patches of iris atrophy; iii) Slightly dilated non-reacting pupil (due to sphinctor atrophy).
Goniosynechia refers to adhesion of iris to the posterior surface of the cornea in the angle of anterior chamber which may occur in angle closure glaucoma (has been explained earlier).
Pigmented clump are seen in subacute stage of PACG (Parson's 21st /e 287)
| 4 |
Iris atrophy
|
Goniosynechiae
|
Pigment dispersal
|
Glaucoma floaters
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
48e44671-b810-4fe4-96f4-3ac2612bf03c
|
single
|
A 49-year-old man has had increasing knee and hip pain for the past 10 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. During the past year, he has become increasingly drowsy at work. His wife complains that he is a "world class" snorer. During the past month, he has experienced bouts of sharp, colicky, right upper abdominal pain. On physical examination, his temperature is 37degC, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 10/ min, and blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. He is 175 cm (5 feet 8 inches) tall and weighs 156 kg (body mass index 51). Laboratory findings show glucose of 139 mg/dL, Hb A1c of 10, total cholesterol of 229 mg/dL, and HDL cholesterol of 33 mg/dL. An arterial blood gas measurement shows pH of 7.35; PCO2, 50 mm Hg; and PO2, 75 mm Hg. Which of the following additional conditions is most likely present in this man?
|
Morbid obesity can be associated with complications that include obesity hypoventilation syndrome, probable sleep apnea, glucose intolerance, cholelithiasis, and osteoarthritis. Macrovesicular steatosis with hepatomegaly is seen in obesity and may even progress to cirrhosis. Weight gain owing to hypothyroidism, which could occur in Hashimoto thyroiditis, is modest and does not lead to morbid obesity. An "obesity cardiomyopathy" resembles dilated cardiomyopathy, but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which typically involves the interventricular septum with myofiber disarray. Laryngeal papillomatosis, which produces airway obstruction (without snoring), occurs more often in children and is not associated with obesity. The blood gas findings in this case could be seen in emphysema, which is not a complication of obesity; panlobular emphysema is much less common than the centrilobular emphysema associated with smoking. Rheumatoid arthritis tends to involve small joints first, and there is no relationship to obesity.
| 4 |
Hashimoto thyroiditis
|
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
|
Laryngeal papillomatosis
|
Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
|
Pathology
|
Misc.
|
a2193b93-ca25-4443-b3ba-cb1b997c514c
|
multi
|
Which of the following promotes rouleaux formation?
|
When in circulation, the negative charge on the RBC membrane (or zeta potential) does not allow RBCs to clump. When blood is made to stand in a veical tube, the asymmetric macromolecules in the plasma overcome the zeta potential, so as to form the rouleaux and settling down of the RBC clumps. Fibrinogen and gamma-globulins are the examples of such asymmetric macromolecules. Plasma albumin retards the rouleaux formation. Hence, in nephrotic syndrome, in which the albumin levels fall, there is a rise in ESR.
| 2 |
Zeta potential on RBC membrane
|
Fibrinogen
|
Albumin
|
Biconcave shape of RBC
|
Physiology
|
Blood Physiology
|
c50d7c4b-2183-4746-a144-86c9bb19fbb7
|
single
|
First dentin bonding agent was:
|
During the 1950s, it was reported that a resin containing glycerophosphoric acid dimethacrylate (GPDM) could bond to a hydrochloric acid–etched dentin surface. Another researcher had used the same monomer chemically activated with sulinic acid and that combination would later be known commercially as Sevitron Cavity Seal (Amalgamated Dental Company, London, England).
Sturdevant Operative Dentistry 7th edition page 142-143
| 1 |
Sevitron cavity seal
|
Cervident
|
Clearfill
|
None
|
Dental
| null |
c3e82287-8816-4e25-8e09-56380270be6d
|
multi
|
FEV1/FVC is reduced in case of:
|
Ans. is 'c' Asthma. FEV/FVC is reduced in cases of obstructive lung diseases and remain normal or increase in case of restrictive lung disease.Asthma is an obstructive lung disease so FEV/FVC is reduced in it.
| 3 |
Pleural effusion
|
Lung fibrosis
|
Asthma
|
All of the above
|
Medicine
|
Respiratory Function
|
3274692b-62a4-4344-8316-c82f53f616ca
|
multi
|
Which intubation is preferred in case of bilateral mandibular fractures ?
|
Answer- B. Naso tracheal intubationTime of surgery should be carefully planned allowing reduction of tissue edema and avoiding development of malunion. Nasal intubation is the choice of intubation by surgeon, providing them with free access to operating field. Blind awake nasal intubation is safe and simple with some experience in difficult airway.
| 2 |
Orotracheal intubation
|
Naso tracheal intubation
|
Cricothyrotomy
|
Submental intubation
|
Surgery
| null |
d9a41234-f0cb-4f85-88d0-02caa0210ef1
|
single
|
A patient developed hemorrhagic blisters at the bite site following dog bite. Which is the most likely causative organism?
|
Ans. B. Staphylococcus aureusExplanationAmong animal bites, dog bites are most common, followed by cat bites.Approximately 15 to 20% of dog bite wounds and more than 50% of cat bite wounds become infected.For dog bite infections, Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcal species are the most commonly isolated pathogens, with Pasteurella and other organisms next in frequency.For cat bite infections, Pasteurella spp. are the most common pathogens.The zoonotic species Capnocytophaga canimorsus and C. cynodegmi are normal inhabitants of the oral cavity of dogs and cats. Zoonotic-associated infections arise via exogenous introduction of bacteria into wounds from penetrating traumas (dog bite) or by inapparent inoculation of bacilli into abraded surfaces or tissues via intimate contact with pets.
| 2 |
Pseudomonas spp.
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
|
Pasteurella spp.
|
Microbiology
|
Bacteria
|
fb0556a4-053a-4fda-9967-d4078b8ac31c
|
single
|
Which of the parameter is decreased in Retinitis pigmentosa
|
* Retinitis Pigmentosa is a familial disease characterized by degeneration of photoreceptor with progressive night blindness and constriction of peripheral vision (may lead to functional blindness) * Docosahexanoic acid (DHA) comprises a small percentage (1-4%) of the total fatty acids of the membranes of most human tissues; however, it accounts for 30-40% of fatty acids in rod photoreceptor outer segments of the human retina. * Many patients with RP have lower plasma and red blood cell (RBC) lipid levels of the polyunsaturated fatty acid docosahexaenoic acid than non-affected individuals. The majority of patients with XLRP had 30-40% lower DHA levels in RBC lipids than normally sighted controls RP TRIAD:- * Includes fundus findings: Waxy pallor of the disc, aeriolar attenuation and bony corpuscular pigment clumps at the mid - peripheral retina.
| 2 |
Arachidonic acid
|
Docosahexanoic acid
|
Trielonic acid
|
Thromboxane
|
Ophthalmology
|
Vitreous and retina
|
c52e9246-bb9a-4e9a-aad7-fa77e04c1ed4
|
single
|
Which of the following is/are TRUE about hypospadias? 1. Defect is seen in the ventral pa 2. Always associated with chordee 3. Associated with hooded prepuce 4. Circumcision should be avoided
|
About option 1 Hypospadias results from failure of fusion of the urethral folds on the undersurface of the genital tubercle so defect is seen on the ventral pa. About option 2 "In the penile variety (not other type- so not always present) the urethra and corpus spongiosum distal to the ectopic opening are absent. These structures are represented by a fibrous cord. Due to contracture of this fibrous cord, the penis is curved ventrally, which is known as chordee". About option 3 "In all cases the inferior aspect of the prepuce is poorly developed. As the superior aspect of the prepuce is almost normally developed whereas the inferior aspect is poorly developed, the prepuce takes the form of a hood and is called "hooded prepuce". About option 4 "Circumcision should not be done in these patients, as prepuce can be used later in surgical repair (85% of patients)" Ref: L & B 25/e, Page 1362-63 ; CSDT 11/e, Page 1028 ; Textbook Of Surgery By S. Das 5/e, Page 1322-23
| 3 |
1,2 & 3
|
2,3 & 4
|
1,3 & 4
|
All are true
|
Surgery
| null |
bb4559ea-ee5e-4e4a-b28d-33cb6748bcca
|
multi
|
Granular deposits of IgA is seen in:
|
Bullous pemphigoid : Linear deposition of IgA and IgG at DEJ
Linear IgA bullous disorder : Linear deposition of IgA at DEJ
Dermatitis herpetiformis : Focal granular IgA deposits at papilary tips.
Hailey-Hailey disease : DIF : negative
| 3 |
Bullous pemphigoid
|
Linear IgA bullous disorder
|
Dermatitis Herpetiformis
|
Hailey-Hailey disease
|
Dental
| null |
786e3a0f-91ea-4a51-8e50-62b02ed80688
|
single
|
Most common type of human papilloma virus causing Ca cervix are:
|
It is now established that HPV plays a major role in cervical carcinogenesis.
Among the various genotypes (more than 100) the Genotype of HPV which is:
Most commonly associated with squamous cell carcinoma cervix - HPV 16
Most common genotype associated with adenocarcinoma of cervix - HPV 18
Overall MC genotype associated with invasive carcinoma, CIN II and CIN III - HPV 16
But HPV 16 is not very specific as it is seen in 16% of women with low grade lesion and 14% women with normal cytology so: - HPV 18
Most specific genotype of HPV for invasive tumor
The cytological changes caused by HPV are collectively called as Koilocytosis.
In most of the females HPV infection clears in 9-15 months , only in small minority it persists.
Malignant transformation requires expression of E6 and E7 HPV oncoproteins.
| 1 |
16 and 18
|
1 and 33
|
6 and 11
|
2 and 14
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
9b4c3696-12fb-4372-83ae-3e10f6034115
|
single
|
Glucocorticoids act in inflammation by:
| null | 3 |
↓Lipocortin
|
↑ IL-2
|
↑Lipocortin
|
↑ CRP
|
Pharmacology
| null |
65d7715b-514a-4a5c-a4c5-850f0c840f57
|
single
|
Munro microabscess is seen in
|
Munro's microabscess is seen in psoriasis it is the accumulation of neutrophils in stratum corneum The changes were seen in a fully developed plaque in psoriasis: Parakeratosis with focal ohokeratosis and Munro's microabscess, near absence of granular layer and spongiform pustules in the Malpighian layer and hyperplasia and elongation of rete ridges and supra-papillary thinning. Munro microabscesses are not seen in seborrheic dermatitis. It is named for William John Munro. spngiform pustule of kogoj is seen in stratum spinosum, in pustular psoriasis. pautrier's microabscess (collection of lymphocytes) is seen in Mycosis fungoides also known as cutaneous T Cell lymphoma. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1207
| 3 |
Dermal tissue
|
Stratum basale
|
Stratum corneum
|
Stratum malphigi
|
Dental
|
All India exam
|
2c636780-b701-4c41-a202-002f8d074d7c
|
single
|
D.I.C. is seen in :
|
Acute promyelocytic leukemia Disseminated intravascular coagulation is associated with promyelocytic leukemia Acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML-M3) constitutes 5-10% of all cases of AML The leukemic cells of these type of anemia are hypergranular. Granules of these leukemic cells (promyelocytes) contain thromboplastin like material resulting in widespread disseminated intravascular coagulation. Also know Majority of M3 cases demonstrate a reciprocal translocation involving chromosome 15 and 17, t (15 ; 17)
| 1 |
>Acute promyelocytic leukemia
|
>Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
|
>CMC
|
>Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
|
Pathology
| null |
c37004b8-8eb7-42ca-bcc1-78fa87befd69
|
single
|
A Patient at 22 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having lUD which occurred at 17 weeks but did not have a miscarriage. This patient Is at increased risk for:
|
When dead fetus is retained in the uterus for more than 4 weeks (10-20%),there is a possibility of defibrination from silent disseminated intravascular coagulation.i.e,there is chance for consumption coagulopathy with hypofibrinemia,similar to that seen in intrauterine death of fetus. It is due to release of thromboplastin from dead fetus and placenta into maternal circulation. (D C Dutta TB of obstetrics 8th edtn pg 378)
| 3 |
Septic aboion
|
Recurrent aboion
|
Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia,
|
Future infeility
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Abnormal labor
|
54a957a6-5865-4112-90f0-2d40a6b48ce5
|
single
|
The components of initial steps of ventilation include:
|
Ans. D. All of the aboveThe components of initial steps include: Drying, positioning, clearing airway and provision of tactile stimulus. The baby should be placed under the radiant warmer, dried if already not done. The baby must be positioned with neck slightly extended by placing the shoulder roll. The airway would need to be cleared with mucus extractor and if the infant is still not breathing, then tactile stimulus by flicking soles or rubbing the back may be carried out to initiate breathing.
| 4 |
Drying & Positioning
|
Clearing Airway
|
Provision of tactile stimulus
|
All of the above
|
Pediatrics
|
Respiratory System
|
d42cdbfe-32cc-4389-b395-6f10c5e452bf
|
multi
|
True regarding arbovirus is all except -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dengue virus has one Serotype o KFD is mainly transmitted by Hard tick, but soft tick can also transmit the disease.o Dengue virus has four serotypes.o Yellow fever is not endemic in India, it is distributed in Africa and South America.o Dengue fever is transmitted by Aedes mosquito.
| 2 |
KFD is transmitted by Tick
|
Dengue virus has one Serotype
|
Yellow fever is not seen in India
|
Dengue fever is transmitted by Aedes
|
Microbiology
|
Arboviruses
|
8f3a9fcd-c450-4953-9917-ef7e6bd010af
|
multi
|
Following ventilation mode is not used for weaning?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Controlled Mechanical Ventilation (CMV)
| 3 |
Pressure suppo ventilation (PSV)
|
Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV)
|
Controlled Mechanical Ventilation (CMV)
|
Assist Control Ventilation (ACV)
|
Anaesthesia
| null |
a72a4435-39ef-4c5f-9383-06d155707ba9
|
single
|
Which of the following site is least commonly involved in ahrogryposis?
|
Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita (AMC) is a disorder of defective development of the muscles. The muscles are fibrotic and result in foot deformities and deformities at other joints. The areas that are most likely to have lack of movement are the shoulders, elbows, wrists, hands, hips, knees, and feet.Ref: Maheswari 5th edition Pg: 212
| 3 |
Knee
|
Hip
|
Trunk
|
Elbow
|
Orthopaedics
|
Metabolic and endocrine disorders
|
e2603b8d-b618-4cf1-b637-b8f64ea5ec2b
|
single
|
Most common infection in a child Nephrotic Syndrome
|
Most common infection in children nephrotic syndrome is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
| 1 |
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
|
Pneumonia
|
UTI
|
Cellulitis
|
Pediatrics
|
Urinary tract
|
41526ede-e3ea-4d06-a397-1aace3e8f237
|
single
|
Which of the following is Type III RPGN
|
Type III RPGN is the most common type of RPGN. It is "pauci immune type". It doesn't have either anti-GBM antibodies or immune complexes. It is ANCA associated hence the examples are Granulomatosis with polyangitis, microscopic polyangitis.
| 3 |
SLE
|
IgA nephropathy
|
Granulomatosis with polyangitis
|
Cryoglobulinemia
|
Pathology
| null |
112d5edf-8ecb-41c0-a959-d840aa4d40a1
|
single
|
Tracheal bifurcation is at which level of vertebra
|
Trachea divides at the level of lower border of 4th thoracic vertebrae into 2 primary principal bronchus.
| 1 |
T4
|
T2
|
T1
|
T7
|
Anatomy
| null |
37a08878-3abd-43c8-b6cb-d8ce7ce063e2
|
single
|
The preferred agent for base formation below restorative
resin is:
| null | 1 |
Calcium hydroxide
|
Cavity varnish
|
Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
|
None of the above
|
Dental
| null |
84f513e1-67a8-4ba2-9cdc-f9d960a09c02
|
multi
|
Most common true benign tumor of the bone is -
|
Commonest benign tumor of bone -----osteochondroma Commonest true benign tumor of bone -----osteoid osteoma Refer Maheshwari 6th/e p 247
| 3 |
Giant cell tumor
|
Simple bone cyst
|
Osteoid osteoma
|
Enchondroma
|
Orthopaedics
|
Tumors
|
1014bae6-2dfd-4620-beec-b75b046b21c7
|
multi
|
In post-hepatic jaundice, the concentration of conjugated bilirubin in the blood is higher than that of unconjugated bilirubin
because
|
Jaundice can be divided into 3 types on the basis of etiology-
• Prehepatic jaundice The cause of jaundice is increased production of bilirubin for example-
all causes which lead to increased hemolysis of RBCs ieHereditary spherocytosis Sickle cell anemia Thalassemia Malaria Drugs such as Methyl dopa*, quinine* etc.
this would lead to an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia Hepatic Jaundice Here the cause lies within the hepatocytes either a defect in the conjugated
process or in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin into the bile for exampleall causes of hepatitis whether infection, alcohol, drugs,
toxins or autoimmune congenital hyperbilirubinemia Post Hepatic jaundice Here the cause is the obstruction of the excretion of bile into the intestines.
for example stone in CBD carcinoma in bile duct Pancreatic cancer etc. Thus as seen in post-Hepato hepatic jaundice the hepatocytes are unaffected.
They continue their conjugation process without any interference leading to rise of conjugated bilirubin in blood
| 2 |
There is an increased rate of destruction of red blood cells
|
The conjugation process of bilirubin in liver remains operative without any interference
|
The unconjugated bilirubin is trapped by the bile stone produced in the bile duct
|
The UDP- glulcuronoyltransferase activity is increased manifold in obstructive jaundice
|
Pathology
| null |
753ce6a6-1b5e-4461-b01d-339285e9d3eb
|
single
|
Verrucosa Vulgaris is caused by :
|
A i.e. HPV
| 1 |
HPV
|
EBV
|
CMV
|
HIV
|
Skin
| null |
24cffebe-6032-4130-afd3-767e674be0a5
|
single
|
All of the following factors are involved in altered patterns of hormone release except
|
A patient in the intensive care unit, where the lights are on throughout the 24 hours of the day, will have a disrupted cycle of hormone release. Light plays an impoant role in generating the circadian rhythm of hormone secretion. This endogenous rhythm is generated through the interaction between the retina, the hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nucleus, and the pineal gland through the release of melatonin. Melatonin is a hormone synthesized and secreted by the pineal gland at night. Its rhythm of secretion is entrained to the light/dark cycle. Melatonin conveys information concerning the daily cycle of light and darkness to the body and paicipates in the organization of circadian rhythms. Other situations that disrupt the normal cycles of hormone release are travel across time zones, night-shift employment, and aging.
| 4 |
Lights on throughout 24 hours of the day
|
Travel across time zones
|
Aging
|
Day time duties
|
Physiology
|
Endocrinology
|
2f05c92b-fb86-4b93-9200-d7f523f7ee89
|
multi
|
In eosphageal perforation all are seen except-
| null | 2 |
Pain
|
Bradycardia
|
Fever
|
Hypotension
|
Surgery
| null |
0e5200f4-6a1a-4db8-8a23-51d22147519a
|
multi
|
All of the following are immune complex diseases except-
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Graft rejectionGraft rejection is Type IV hypersensitivity
| 4 |
Serum sickness
|
Farmer's lungs
|
SLE
|
Graft rejection
|
Pathology
| null |
8a9ed44f-e2fe-4ff7-bb06-2d9d0e558357
|
multi
|
Which of the following is bacteriostatic?
|
Ans. C. EthambutolEthambutol is only first line antitubercular agent which is bacteriostatic. Rest all are bacteriocidal. Pyrazinamide is only drug which act on only intracellular bacteria. Rifampicin have the sterilizing effect. Isoniazid is given for prophylaxis of TB.
| 3 |
Isoniazid
|
Rifampicin
|
Ethambutol
|
Pyrazinamide
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti Microbial
|
c3e3e989-95c8-49e0-96fc-afbb32b79226
|
single
|
Anatomical snuffbox is formed by all except -
|
Ans-D
| 4 |
Abductor pollicis longus
|
Extensor pollicis longus
|
Extensor pollicis brevis
|
Extensor carpi radialis
|
Unknown
| null |
7d3d9948-dc9f-4942-8f80-5d3dcfee4438
|
multi
|
Tuft of hair over the lumbosacral region in a new born is suggestive of ?
|
Ans. d. Any of the aboveTufts of hair over the lumbosacral spine suggest an underlying abnormality, such as occult spina bifida, a sinus tract, or a tumor.
| 4 |
Spina bifida occulta
|
Sinus tract
|
Tumor
|
Any of the above
|
Pediatrics
| null |
274d9dbf-5d4d-4ec0-af3f-69600f6d7dba
|
multi
|
A 40-year-old man is brought to you by his friends. Apparently, he has ingested some unknown medication in a suicide attempt. The patient is disoriented to time. His temperature is 103 F, BP is 120/85 pulse 100/min and irregular, and respirations are 22/min. The skin is flushed and dry. Dilated pupils and muscle twitching are also noted on examination. ECG reveals prolonged QRS complexes. Hepatic transaminases are normal, and ABG shows a normal pH. These findings are most likely due to intoxication by which substance?
|
This patient's clinical picture is consistent with intoxication with tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline and imipramine. Toxic effects are mediated by peripheral anticholinergic activity and "quinidine-like" action. The anticholinergic effects include mydriasis, tachycardia, impaired sweating with flushed skin, dry mouth, constipation, and muscle twitching. Quinidine-like effects (due to block of sodium channels in the hea) result in cardiac arrhythmias, especially ventricular tachyarrhythmias. In this setting, prolongation of the QRS complex is paicularly impoant in the diagnosis. QRS width is, in fact, an even more faithful parameter of drug toxicity than serum drug levels. In severe intoxication, patients will develop seizures, severe hypotension, and coma. Acetaminophen results in liver toxicity. Liver enzymes would be elevated. Alcohol intoxication manifests with respiratory depression, hypothermia, and coma. The manifestations of benzodiazepine intoxication are similar to alcohol inasmuch as central nervous system depression is common to both drugs. Thus, acute benzodiazepine intoxication produces stupor, coma, and respiratory depression. The sympatholytic propeies of clonidine explain the clinical symptoms of intoxication. Clonidine overdose causes bradycardia, hypotension, miosis, and respiratory depression. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors represent a second-line treatment for major depression. Overdose induces ataxia, excitement, hypeension, and tachycardia. Such reactions can be precipitated by concomitant ingestion of tyramine-containing foods. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1144
| 4 |
Acetaminophen
|
Alcohol
|
Benzodiazepines
|
Tricyclic antidepressants
|
Psychiatry
|
Treatment in psychiatry
|
5c009e8e-8d0c-4915-a0bc-729fc576fcd4
|
single
|
According to NACO 2011, prevalence of HIV affected people?
| null | 1 |
0.27
|
2.14
|
1.4-1.6
|
0.53
|
Dental
| null |
226c07d5-7b35-424f-80d4-faf5ba780b0f
|
single
|
SA-14-14-2-
|
SA 14-14-2 strain is live attenuated vaccine whuch offers life ling immunity.Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st edition page no 261
| 3 |
Deploid cell inactivated
|
Killed vaccine
|
Life long immunity
|
Primary immunization 2 doses
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
75a74cc3-2b42-4974-9c1a-1a6d8ad34fb7
|
single
|
Incubation period of Hepatitis A is –
| null | 1 |
2 weeks – 2 months
|
6 weeks – 6 months
|
6 days – 6 weeks
|
2 days – 2 weeks
|
Pediatrics
| null |
98d6392d-52a4-4598-abad-c6ec11bc11c4
|
single
|
In infancy, atopic dermatitis spares
|
Atopic dermatitis (AD), or eczema, is the most common chronic relapsing skin disease seen in infancy and childhood. Infants with the AD are predisposed to the development of allergic rhinitis and/or asthma later in childhood, a process called "the atopic march.Major features:Pruritus Facial and extensor eczema in infants and childrenFlexural eczema in adolescentsChronic or relapsing dermatitisPersonal or family history of atopic diseaseMost patients with AD have dry, lackluster skin irrespective of their stage of illness. The AD is generally acuter in infancy and involves the face, scalp, and extensor surfaces of the extremities. The diaper area is usually spared. Older children and children with chronic AD have lichenification and localization of the rash to the flexural folds of the extremities.Reference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 145; Atopic Dermatitis (Atopic Eczema)
| 4 |
Extensor surfaces
|
Forehead
|
Scalp
|
Diaper area
|
Pediatrics
|
Genetic and genetic disorders
|
d6d564b0-ae07-4892-b755-74ebc065231d
|
single
|
Which of the following is not a complication of fibroid in pregnancy?
|
Complications of fibroid in pregnancy includes miscarriage,preterm labour,abruption,malpresentation,unengaged head at term,uterine ineia,obstructed labour,PPH,difficulties in CS,puerperal infection. Refer page no 221,222 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition.
| 4 |
Preterm labour
|
Postpaum hemorrhage
|
Aboion
|
malignant transformation
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
|
f56df547-ce14-4e46-90d7-4fea749f63e2
|
single
|
A 64-year-old man is having difficulty getting out of a chair. He has lost 15 lb and feels tired all the time. On examination, there is a blue purple rash on his eyelids and knuckles, and muscle strength in his proximal muscles is rated 4 out of 5. His creatinine kinase (CK) level is elevated and he is started on prednisone. Which of the following is the most important in monitoring response to therapy?
|
The course of muscle necrosis in dermatomyositis can be best followed by repeated CK determinations. Repeated muscle biopsies are rarely required. However, the goal of therapy is to increase muscle strength and function, so following muscle strength is the key clinical assessment of response to therapy.
| 1 |
testing of muscle strength
|
sedimentation rates
|
urine transaminase enzymes
|
EMG
|
Medicine
|
Miscellaneous
|
9001321f-6ed3-4c40-b2c7-bd83f40f0956
|
multi
|
With the use of DMPA contraceptive, the side effects are all of the following except
|
The advantage of DMPA is that it does not affect lactation Side effects include weight gain, irregular menstrual bleeding and prolonged infeility after its use Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 503
| 1 |
Change in quantity and quality of breast milk
|
Weight gain
|
Irregular bleeding
|
Amenorrhea
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Demography and family planning
|
d91b0889-1d78-4562-82eb-8b1a470fe44a
|
multi
|
Dose of Reteplase for management of Acute MI is?
|
Answer- B. 10 IUThe recommended dose for Reteplase in Acute Myocardial infarction is l0 Unit bolus given over 2 minutes.It is recommended to repeat the second I0 unit dose after 30 minutes.
| 2 |
5 IU
|
10 IU
|
15 IU
|
50 IU
|
Medicine
| null |
4d64e0a8-4e82-4071-9302-740f10aaf3ee
|
single
|
What are nitrergic neurous ?
|
Answer-B. 1st order neurons releasing nitric oxideNitrergic neurons are nerye cells which have neurotransmitter NO.
| 2 |
Post ganglionic neurons releasing nitric oxide
|
1st order neurons releasing nitric oxide
|
Post ganglionic neurons releasing substance P.
|
1st order neurons releasing calcitonin Gene related peptide
|
Medicine
| null |
95b23a07-9dc6-47fd-99b3-d1b5eb75eeba
|
single
|
Culture media for Legionella
|
* Legionella isolation is done from respiratory secretions - culture media is BCYE agar * Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar (BCYE) * Baird Parker agar - Staphylococci * MacConkey agar - Urine sample - to differentiate LF and NLF * PLET medium - Bacillus cereus Ref:- Harrisons T.B of medicine 19th ed; pg num:- 1018
| 1 |
BCYE agar
|
Macconkey agar
|
PLET medium
|
Baird Parker medium
|
Microbiology
|
Bacteriology
|
8f379f32-abac-4c1f-9786-a111f5c2fe50
|
single
|
Postitional veigo is
|
The disease is caused by the disorder of posterior semicircular canal. Otoconial debris when settles in the cupula of the posterior semicircular canal in a critical head position causes displacement of cupula and veigo. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition)
| 4 |
Lateral
|
Superior
|
Inferior
|
Posterior
|
ENT
|
Ear
|
5b19e0c0-55a9-44b6-bac1-7382edf82e86
|
single
|
Most lipogenic:
|
Unlike glucose, ingested fructose is preferentially metabolized by the liver. This and several other features of fructose metabolism make it an exceptionally lipogenic sugar.
Lipogenesis is increased when sucrose is fed instead of glucose because fructose bypasses the phosphofructokinase control point in glycolysis and floods the lipogenic pathway.
Increased dietary intake of fructose significantly elevates the production of acetyl CoA and lipogenes.
Harper Pg 236, Satyanarayana Pg 279
| 1 |
Fructose
|
Glucose
|
Galactose
|
Ribose
|
Biochemistry
| null |
05a21cb7-9003-443d-9ccc-327f1a73a6e3
|
single
|
Para meningeal Rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by :
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. MRI I could not find any direct reference to this answer in all the books within my reach My answer is based on the basics of CT & MRICT is the best inv. for bone imaging. It has limitations for soft tissues, especially when the soft tissue lies with a skeletal framework.But MRI is excellent for soft tissue imaging and is more sensitive in detecting early brain damage.So for a parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma the best investigation would be MRI as it would demonstrate very clearly its extension within the meninges.Harrison 15/e, on page 2337 states that the : Best investigation for a primary or metastatic brain tumor is - MRI Best investigation for meningeal disease - MRIThis information further supports my answer.
| 2 |
CT Scan
|
MRI
|
SPECT
|
PET
|
Radiology
|
Brain Imaging: Anatomy, Trauma, and Tumors
|
f3e121db-3a59-4ef1-b9a4-b80759612c64
|
single
|
Effect of increased vertical dimension is/are
| null | 4 |
Muscular fatigue
|
Trauma
|
TMJ problem
|
All of the above
|
Dental
| null |
48655c03-9511-40ff-8463-3681a26fb3e3
|
multi
|
Rate limiting step in porphyrin synthesis is
|
The synthesis stas with the condensation of succinyl CoA and glycine in the presence of pyridoxal phosphate to form delta amino levulinic acid (ALA).The enzyme ALA synthase is located in the mitochondria and is the rate limiting ezyme of pathway. Next few steps occurs in cytoplasm.2 molecules of ALA are condensed to form porphobilinogen (PBG) Condensation of 4 molecules of PBG results in the formation of the first porphyrin of the pathway,namely urobilinogen. REFERENCE:DM VASUDEVAN Textbook SEVENTH EDITION, Page no:272 and 273
| 2 |
ALA dehydratase
|
ALA synthase
|
UPG decarboxylase
|
Ferrochelatase
|
Biochemistry
|
Structure and function of protein
|
5ad6d4e0-9693-4219-a944-6670f941789a
|
multi
|
ANOVA is used:
| null | 2 |
To compare means in 2 groups
|
To compare means in 3 or more groups
|
To compare means in 1 group before and after intervention
|
To find correlation
|
Dental
| null |
9cba050c-b7a7-453e-8196-5ea0d008814a
|
single
|
Haptane is :
|
Answer is C (Requires carrier for specific antibody production): Hepatitis become immunogenic only when attached to a large molecule or 'carrier' -
| 3 |
Same as epitope
|
Small molecular weight protein
|
Requires carrier for specific antibody production
|
Simple haptens are precipitate
|
Medicine
| null |
955f096c-8341-41b9-9190-ca7a4d43ad55
|
multi
|
Three mix MP triple antibiotic paste consists of
|
Triple antibiotic paste
Consists of metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, and minocycline in a macrogol/propylene glycol ointment.
It is inserted into canal with a sterile Lentulo spiral and left in the canal for 2-4 weeks.
Advantages: -
Very effective in elimination of intracanal microbes
Broad spectrum action
Easy to prepare as ingredients are easily prepared
Disadvantages of triple AB paste:
Difficult to test the antimicrobial effectiveness in endodontic models due to absence of an inactivator to prevent the carryover effect.
Combination of bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotic is not rational scientifically
Tetracycline analogs like minocycline can cause discoloration of tooth due to diffusion into dentinal tubules. Hence the mix should never be left in the coronal pulp chamber
| 3 |
Ciproflox + cephixime + Minocycline
|
Norflox+ tinidazole+cephixime
|
Ciproflox + metronidazole +Minocycline
|
Norflox + Cehphixime +Minocycline
|
Dental
| null |
77b58c65-853e-443d-b6ef-24da009b5518
|
single
|
In patient of hypeension, metoprolol and verapamil are given together. This combination can result in
|
Beta blocker (metoprolol) and non-DHP CCBs (verapamil) block SA node and AV node. Both combined can cause severe bradycardia and AV block. Drugs causing Torsades' de pointes include: Quinidine, Procainamide, Cisapride, Astemizole, Terfenadine etc.
| 2 |
Atrial fibrillation
|
Bradycardia
|
Torsades' de pointes
|
Tachycardia
|
Pharmacology
|
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
|
26c5b6b7-80f0-4658-ad9d-089f48b66240
|
single
|
The characteristic feature of apoptosis on light microscopy is:
|
Ans. (b) Nuclear compaction(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 53)Here student gets confused in 2 options b and c..On light microscopy, most characteristic feature is condensation of nuclear chromatin and not intactness of cell membraneIntact cell membrane and lack of inflammation differentiates apoptosis from necrosis.
| 2 |
Cellular swelling
|
Nuclear compaction
|
Intact cell membrane
|
Cytoplasmic eosinophlia
|
Pathology
|
Cellular Pathology
|
c543d9a7-aab5-4fb0-bbff-bd19fe148506
|
single
|
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