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carcinoma de células claras de 1,4 cm pT1pN0M0 , grado IV de Fuhrman is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa de partes blandas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumor is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, implante peritoneal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumor del estroma gastrointestinal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, GIST is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, GIST is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa abdominal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, recidiva a nivel perihepático is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, implante peritoneal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, lesiones hepáticas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, CCRm is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, progresión pulmonar is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa en la pared abdominal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, nódulos subcutáneos is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, nódulos pulmonares is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
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571_task0
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Se trata de un varón de 76 años, pescador jubilado, hipertenso y diabético no insulinodependiente sin ninguna medicación activa. Es exfumador desde los 60 años. No tiene antecedentes familiares de interés.
Consulta en Urología por primera vez en febrero 2010 en relación a hematuria persistente. Tras el diagnóstico mediante tomografía computarizada (TAC) de una lesión renal es intervenido mediante una nefrectomía parcial del riñón derecho, con Anatomía Patológica de carcinoma de células claras de 1,4cm pT1pN0M0, grado IV de Fuhrman.
Durante el seguimiento en agosto 2014 se detecta una masa de partes blandas sobre el músculo psoas derecho de 3 x 3,9 x 4 cm. Se decidió exéresis de la misma, con similar resultado en la Anatomía Patológica que la descrita previamente, si bien existían imágenes de invasión vascular, así como contacto focal del tumor con el borde de resección.
Dos años más tarde, se observó un único implante peritoneal en región prehepática, así como una masa de 3 cm en la curvatura mayor del estómago. Tras pruebas complementarias se descartó enfermedad a otros niveles. La lesión gástrica fue compatible con un tumor del estroma gastrointestinal (GIST). Tras comentar el caso en comité, se realiza cirugía de ambas lesiones, con resultado histopatológico compatible con GIST con bajo índice mitótico (1/5 mm2), siendo la masa abdominal una metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras. Se indicó seguimiento.
Exploración física
A pesar de la edad, el paciente presenta un índice Karnofsky del 90 % y aporta un examen minimental sin alteraciones neurológicas. No existe pérdida ponderal ni síndrome constitucional, con apetito conservado y hábito deposicional normal.
La auscultación cardiaca es rítmica sin soplos y en la auscultación pulmonar no se obtienen ruidos patológicos. El abdomen es blando y depresible sin dolor, con cicatrices postquirúrgicas presentando buen aspecto. No tiene edemas en miembros inferiores.
Pruebas complementarias
En la TC de febrero 2017 se observa una recidiva a nivel perihepático inferior con una masa de 3 x 4cm compatible con un implante peritoneal, así como una sospecha de metástasis pulmonares en el lóbulo superior derecho (LSD) y quistes hepáticos en segmentos II y IV. La PET-TC descarta hipermetabolismo en las lesiones hepáticas.
Las analíticas realizadas no mostraban ninguna alteración a excepción de la hemoglobina, con unos valores de 11 mg/dl.
Diagnóstico
Dadas las pruebas e intervenciones previas se diagnosticó de un carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico (CCRm), situándose en el grupo de riesgo intermedio por poseer un 1 punto en la Escala Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC).
Tratamiento
En abril de 2017, se inició tratamiento de primera línea con sunitinib 50 mg según esquema de 4 semanas de tratamiento seguida de 2 semanas de descanso. Durante el segundo ciclo, el paciente desarrolla una anemia grado 2 e hipertensión grado 3 no controlada con 20 mg de enalapril diarios y 40 mg/día de olmesartán, lo que obligó a una reducción de sunitinib a 37,5 mg continuado con el mismo esquema.
Se requirió de ferroterapia para mantener la anemia en un grado 1, así como analgesia de primer escalón para controlar el dolor.
En la primera reevaluación de la enfermedad por TC, se observa progresión pulmonar. Ante la recaída, se inicia nivolumab 3 mg/kg cada dos semanas en septiembre 2017.
Evolución
Tras siete ciclos de nivolumab:
» La primera TC de control en noviembre 2017 observa una progresión de la enfermedad por aparición de conglomerados adenopáticos a múltiples niveles y metástasis hepáticas en segmentos VI y A su vez, existía un crecimiento significativo de la masa en la pared abdominal subhepática (un aumento del 66 % respecto del estudio previo) y nódulos subcutáneos de nueva aparición. Todos los nódulos pulmonares se transformaron milimétricos.
» Por otra parte, el paciente mantenía un índice Karnofsky del 100 %, con una importante mejoría en la calidad de vida con menor astenia, habiendo retirado toda medicación domiciliaria. Únicamente presenta prurito grado 1 controlado con antihistamínicos. La hemoglobina alcanzo niveles normales de 13,5 mg/dl.
» Con la sospecha de pseudoprogresión, se mantuvo el mismo tratamiento.
Tras doce ciclos nivolumab:
» Diez semanas después, se evidencia una respuesta completa pulmonar, así como de las múltiples adenopatías en diferentes localizaciones. A nivel hepático, ambas lesiones se redujeron un 50 %.
» La TC muestra la evolución de la mayor lesión medible tras el inicio de nivolumab, sin realizar cambio de línea de tratamiento.
El paciente mantuvo el tratamiento con nivolumab, realizando nueva TC a las 30 semanas, visualizándose respuesta completa en todos los niveles. En diciembre de 2019, se modifica el esquema a dosis mensual de 480 mg4. Se mantiene asintomático y con respuesta completa duradera de más de 1 año, siendo en abril 2019 la última consulta realizada.
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Anamnesis
Se trata de un varón de 76 años, pescador jubilado, hipertenso y diabético no insulinodependiente sin ninguna medicación activa. Es exfumador desde los 60 años. No tiene antecedentes familiares de interés.
Consulta en Urología por primera vez en febrero 2010 en relación a hematuria persistente. Tras el diagnóstico mediante tomografía computarizada (TAC) de una lesión renal es intervenido mediante una nefrectomía parcial del riñón derecho, con Anatomía Patológica de carcinoma de células claras de 1,4cm pT1pN0M0, grado IV de Fuhrman.
Durante el seguimiento en agosto 2014 se detecta una masa de partes blandas sobre el músculo psoas derecho de 3 x 3,9 x 4 cm. Se decidió exéresis de la misma, con similar resultado en la Anatomía Patológica que la descrita previamente, si bien existían imágenes de invasión vascular, así como contacto focal del tumor con el borde de resección.
Dos años más tarde, se observó un único implante peritoneal en región prehepática, así como una masa de 3 cm en la curvatura mayor del estómago. Tras pruebas complementarias se descartó enfermedad a otros niveles. La lesión gástrica fue compatible con un tumor del estroma gastrointestinal (GIST). Tras comentar el caso en comité, se realiza cirugía de ambas lesiones, con resultado histopatológico compatible con GIST con bajo índice mitótico (1/5 mm2), siendo la masa abdominal una metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras. Se indicó seguimiento.
Exploración física
A pesar de la edad, el paciente presenta un índice Karnofsky del 90 % y aporta un examen minimental sin alteraciones neurológicas. No existe pérdida ponderal ni síndrome constitucional, con apetito conservado y hábito deposicional normal.
La auscultación cardiaca es rítmica sin soplos y en la auscultación pulmonar no se obtienen ruidos patológicos. El abdomen es blando y depresible sin dolor, con cicatrices postquirúrgicas presentando buen aspecto. No tiene edemas en miembros inferiores.
Pruebas complementarias
En la TC de febrero 2017 se observa una recidiva a nivel perihepático inferior con una masa de 3 x 4cm compatible con un implante peritoneal, así como una sospecha de metástasis pulmonares en el lóbulo superior derecho (LSD) y quistes hepáticos en segmentos II y IV. La PET-TC descarta hipermetabolismo en las lesiones hepáticas.
Las analíticas realizadas no mostraban ninguna alteración a excepción de la hemoglobina, con unos valores de 11 mg/dl.
Diagnóstico
Dadas las pruebas e intervenciones previas se diagnosticó de un carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico (CCRm), situándose en el grupo de riesgo intermedio por poseer un 1 punto en la Escala Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC).
Tratamiento
En abril de 2017, se inició tratamiento de primera línea con sunitinib 50 mg según esquema de 4 semanas de tratamiento seguida de 2 semanas de descanso. Durante el segundo ciclo, el paciente desarrolla una anemia grado 2 e hipertensión grado 3 no controlada con 20 mg de enalapril diarios y 40 mg/día de olmesartán, lo que obligó a una reducción de sunitinib a 37,5 mg continuado con el mismo esquema.
Se requirió de ferroterapia para mantener la anemia en un grado 1, así como analgesia de primer escalón para controlar el dolor.
En la primera reevaluación de la enfermedad por TC, se observa progresión pulmonar. Ante la recaída, se inicia nivolumab 3 mg/kg cada dos semanas en septiembre 2017.
Evolución
Tras siete ciclos de nivolumab:
» La primera TC de control en noviembre 2017 observa una progresión de la enfermedad por aparición de conglomerados adenopáticos a múltiples niveles y metástasis hepáticas en segmentos VI y A su vez, existía un crecimiento significativo de la masa en la pared abdominal subhepática (un aumento del 66 % respecto del estudio previo) y nódulos subcutáneos de nueva aparición. Todos los nódulos pulmonares se transformaron milimétricos.
» Por otra parte, el paciente mantenía un índice Karnofsky del 100 %, con una importante mejoría en la calidad de vida con menor astenia, habiendo retirado toda medicación domiciliaria. Únicamente presenta prurito grado 1 controlado con antihistamínicos. La hemoglobina alcanzo niveles normales de 13,5 mg/dl.
» Con la sospecha de pseudoprogresión, se mantuvo el mismo tratamiento.
Tras doce ciclos nivolumab:
» Diez semanas después, se evidencia una respuesta completa pulmonar, así como de las múltiples adenopatías en diferentes localizaciones. A nivel hepático, ambas lesiones se redujeron un 50 %.
» La TC muestra la evolución de la mayor lesión medible tras el inicio de nivolumab, sin realizar cambio de línea de tratamiento.
El paciente mantuvo el tratamiento con nivolumab, realizando nueva TC a las 30 semanas, visualizándose respuesta completa en todos los niveles. En diciembre de 2019, se modifica el esquema a dosis mensual de 480 mg4. Se mantiene asintomático y con respuesta completa duradera de más de 1 año, siendo en abril 2019 la última consulta realizada.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
carcinoma de células claras de 1,4 cm pT1pN0M0 , grado IV de Fuhrman is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa de partes blandas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumor is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, implante peritoneal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumor del estroma gastrointestinal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, GIST is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, GIST is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa abdominal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, recidiva a nivel perihepático is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, implante peritoneal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, lesiones hepáticas is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, CCRm is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, progresión pulmonar is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, masa en la pared abdominal is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, nódulos subcutáneos is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, nódulos pulmonares is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
571_task1
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Se trata de un varón de 76 años, pescador jubilado, hipertenso y diabético no insulinodependiente sin ninguna medicación activa. Es exfumador desde los 60 años. No tiene antecedentes familiares de interés.
Consulta en Urología por primera vez en febrero 2010 en relación a hematuria persistente. Tras el diagnóstico mediante tomografía computarizada (TAC) de una lesión renal es intervenido mediante una nefrectomía parcial del riñón derecho, con Anatomía Patológica de carcinoma de células claras de 1,4cm pT1pN0M0, grado IV de Fuhrman.
Durante el seguimiento en agosto 2014 se detecta una masa de partes blandas sobre el músculo psoas derecho de 3 x 3,9 x 4 cm. Se decidió exéresis de la misma, con similar resultado en la Anatomía Patológica que la descrita previamente, si bien existían imágenes de invasión vascular, así como contacto focal del tumor con el borde de resección.
Dos años más tarde, se observó un único implante peritoneal en región prehepática, así como una masa de 3 cm en la curvatura mayor del estómago. Tras pruebas complementarias se descartó enfermedad a otros niveles. La lesión gástrica fue compatible con un tumor del estroma gastrointestinal (GIST). Tras comentar el caso en comité, se realiza cirugía de ambas lesiones, con resultado histopatológico compatible con GIST con bajo índice mitótico (1/5 mm2), siendo la masa abdominal una metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras. Se indicó seguimiento.
Exploración física
A pesar de la edad, el paciente presenta un índice Karnofsky del 90 % y aporta un examen minimental sin alteraciones neurológicas. No existe pérdida ponderal ni síndrome constitucional, con apetito conservado y hábito deposicional normal.
La auscultación cardiaca es rítmica sin soplos y en la auscultación pulmonar no se obtienen ruidos patológicos. El abdomen es blando y depresible sin dolor, con cicatrices postquirúrgicas presentando buen aspecto. No tiene edemas en miembros inferiores.
Pruebas complementarias
En la TC de febrero 2017 se observa una recidiva a nivel perihepático inferior con una masa de 3 x 4cm compatible con un implante peritoneal, así como una sospecha de metástasis pulmonares en el lóbulo superior derecho (LSD) y quistes hepáticos en segmentos II y IV. La PET-TC descarta hipermetabolismo en las lesiones hepáticas.
Las analíticas realizadas no mostraban ninguna alteración a excepción de la hemoglobina, con unos valores de 11 mg/dl.
Diagnóstico
Dadas las pruebas e intervenciones previas se diagnosticó de un carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico (CCRm), situándose en el grupo de riesgo intermedio por poseer un 1 punto en la Escala Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC).
Tratamiento
En abril de 2017, se inició tratamiento de primera línea con sunitinib 50 mg según esquema de 4 semanas de tratamiento seguida de 2 semanas de descanso. Durante el segundo ciclo, el paciente desarrolla una anemia grado 2 e hipertensión grado 3 no controlada con 20 mg de enalapril diarios y 40 mg/día de olmesartán, lo que obligó a una reducción de sunitinib a 37,5 mg continuado con el mismo esquema.
Se requirió de ferroterapia para mantener la anemia en un grado 1, así como analgesia de primer escalón para controlar el dolor.
En la primera reevaluación de la enfermedad por TC, se observa progresión pulmonar. Ante la recaída, se inicia nivolumab 3 mg/kg cada dos semanas en septiembre 2017.
Evolución
Tras siete ciclos de nivolumab:
» La primera TC de control en noviembre 2017 observa una progresión de la enfermedad por aparición de conglomerados adenopáticos a múltiples niveles y metástasis hepáticas en segmentos VI y A su vez, existía un crecimiento significativo de la masa en la pared abdominal subhepática (un aumento del 66 % respecto del estudio previo) y nódulos subcutáneos de nueva aparición. Todos los nódulos pulmonares se transformaron milimétricos.
» Por otra parte, el paciente mantenía un índice Karnofsky del 100 %, con una importante mejoría en la calidad de vida con menor astenia, habiendo retirado toda medicación domiciliaria. Únicamente presenta prurito grado 1 controlado con antihistamínicos. La hemoglobina alcanzo niveles normales de 13,5 mg/dl.
» Con la sospecha de pseudoprogresión, se mantuvo el mismo tratamiento.
Tras doce ciclos nivolumab:
» Diez semanas después, se evidencia una respuesta completa pulmonar, así como de las múltiples adenopatías en diferentes localizaciones. A nivel hepático, ambas lesiones se redujeron un 50 %.
» La TC muestra la evolución de la mayor lesión medible tras el inicio de nivolumab, sin realizar cambio de línea de tratamiento.
El paciente mantuvo el tratamiento con nivolumab, realizando nueva TC a las 30 semanas, visualizándose respuesta completa en todos los niveles. En diciembre de 2019, se modifica el esquema a dosis mensual de 480 mg4. Se mantiene asintomático y con respuesta completa duradera de más de 1 año, siendo en abril 2019 la última consulta realizada.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: carcinoma de células claras de 1,4 cm pT1pN0M0 , grado IV de Fuhrman, masa de partes blandas, tumor, implante peritoneal, tumor del estroma gastrointestinal, GIST, GIST, masa abdominal, metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras, recidiva a nivel perihepático, implante peritoneal, metástasis, lesiones hepáticas, carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico, CCRm, progresión pulmonar, metástasis, masa en la pared abdominal, nódulos subcutáneos, nódulos pulmonares
Options: MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
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Anamnesis
Se trata de un varón de 76 años, pescador jubilado, hipertenso y diabético no insulinodependiente sin ninguna medicación activa. Es exfumador desde los 60 años. No tiene antecedentes familiares de interés.
Consulta en Urología por primera vez en febrero 2010 en relación a hematuria persistente. Tras el diagnóstico mediante tomografía computarizada (TAC) de una lesión renal es intervenido mediante una nefrectomía parcial del riñón derecho, con Anatomía Patológica de carcinoma de células claras de 1,4cm pT1pN0M0, grado IV de Fuhrman.
Durante el seguimiento en agosto 2014 se detecta una masa de partes blandas sobre el músculo psoas derecho de 3 x 3,9 x 4 cm. Se decidió exéresis de la misma, con similar resultado en la Anatomía Patológica que la descrita previamente, si bien existían imágenes de invasión vascular, así como contacto focal del tumor con el borde de resección.
Dos años más tarde, se observó un único implante peritoneal en región prehepática, así como una masa de 3 cm en la curvatura mayor del estómago. Tras pruebas complementarias se descartó enfermedad a otros niveles. La lesión gástrica fue compatible con un tumor del estroma gastrointestinal (GIST). Tras comentar el caso en comité, se realiza cirugía de ambas lesiones, con resultado histopatológico compatible con GIST con bajo índice mitótico (1/5 mm2), siendo la masa abdominal una metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras. Se indicó seguimiento.
Exploración física
A pesar de la edad, el paciente presenta un índice Karnofsky del 90 % y aporta un examen minimental sin alteraciones neurológicas. No existe pérdida ponderal ni síndrome constitucional, con apetito conservado y hábito deposicional normal.
La auscultación cardiaca es rítmica sin soplos y en la auscultación pulmonar no se obtienen ruidos patológicos. El abdomen es blando y depresible sin dolor, con cicatrices postquirúrgicas presentando buen aspecto. No tiene edemas en miembros inferiores.
Pruebas complementarias
En la TC de febrero 2017 se observa una recidiva a nivel perihepático inferior con una masa de 3 x 4cm compatible con un implante peritoneal, así como una sospecha de metástasis pulmonares en el lóbulo superior derecho (LSD) y quistes hepáticos en segmentos II y IV. La PET-TC descarta hipermetabolismo en las lesiones hepáticas.
Las analíticas realizadas no mostraban ninguna alteración a excepción de la hemoglobina, con unos valores de 11 mg/dl.
Diagnóstico
Dadas las pruebas e intervenciones previas se diagnosticó de un carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico (CCRm), situándose en el grupo de riesgo intermedio por poseer un 1 punto en la Escala Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC).
Tratamiento
En abril de 2017, se inició tratamiento de primera línea con sunitinib 50 mg según esquema de 4 semanas de tratamiento seguida de 2 semanas de descanso. Durante el segundo ciclo, el paciente desarrolla una anemia grado 2 e hipertensión grado 3 no controlada con 20 mg de enalapril diarios y 40 mg/día de olmesartán, lo que obligó a una reducción de sunitinib a 37,5 mg continuado con el mismo esquema.
Se requirió de ferroterapia para mantener la anemia en un grado 1, así como analgesia de primer escalón para controlar el dolor.
En la primera reevaluación de la enfermedad por TC, se observa progresión pulmonar. Ante la recaída, se inicia nivolumab 3 mg/kg cada dos semanas en septiembre 2017.
Evolución
Tras siete ciclos de nivolumab:
» La primera TC de control en noviembre 2017 observa una progresión de la enfermedad por aparición de conglomerados adenopáticos a múltiples niveles y metástasis hepáticas en segmentos VI y A su vez, existía un crecimiento significativo de la masa en la pared abdominal subhepática (un aumento del 66 % respecto del estudio previo) y nódulos subcutáneos de nueva aparición. Todos los nódulos pulmonares se transformaron milimétricos.
» Por otra parte, el paciente mantenía un índice Karnofsky del 100 %, con una importante mejoría en la calidad de vida con menor astenia, habiendo retirado toda medicación domiciliaria. Únicamente presenta prurito grado 1 controlado con antihistamínicos. La hemoglobina alcanzo niveles normales de 13,5 mg/dl.
» Con la sospecha de pseudoprogresión, se mantuvo el mismo tratamiento.
Tras doce ciclos nivolumab:
» Diez semanas después, se evidencia una respuesta completa pulmonar, así como de las múltiples adenopatías en diferentes localizaciones. A nivel hepático, ambas lesiones se redujeron un 50 %.
» La TC muestra la evolución de la mayor lesión medible tras el inicio de nivolumab, sin realizar cambio de línea de tratamiento.
El paciente mantuvo el tratamiento con nivolumab, realizando nueva TC a las 30 semanas, visualizándose respuesta completa en todos los niveles. En diciembre de 2019, se modifica el esquema a dosis mensual de 480 mg4. Se mantiene asintomático y con respuesta completa duradera de más de 1 año, siendo en abril 2019 la última consulta realizada.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
carcinoma de células claras de 1,4 cm pT1pN0M0 , grado IV de Fuhrman, masa de partes blandas, tumor, implante peritoneal, tumor del estroma gastrointestinal, GIST, GIST, masa abdominal, metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras, recidiva a nivel perihepático, implante peritoneal, metástasis, lesiones hepáticas, carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico, CCRm, progresión pulmonar, metástasis, masa en la pared abdominal, nódulos subcutáneos, nódulos pulmonares
|
571_task2
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Se trata de un varón de 76 años, pescador jubilado, hipertenso y diabético no insulinodependiente sin ninguna medicación activa. Es exfumador desde los 60 años. No tiene antecedentes familiares de interés.
Consulta en Urología por primera vez en febrero 2010 en relación a hematuria persistente. Tras el diagnóstico mediante tomografía computarizada (TAC) de una lesión renal es intervenido mediante una nefrectomía parcial del riñón derecho, con Anatomía Patológica de carcinoma de células claras de 1,4cm pT1pN0M0, grado IV de Fuhrman.
Durante el seguimiento en agosto 2014 se detecta una masa de partes blandas sobre el músculo psoas derecho de 3 x 3,9 x 4 cm. Se decidió exéresis de la misma, con similar resultado en la Anatomía Patológica que la descrita previamente, si bien existían imágenes de invasión vascular, así como contacto focal del tumor con el borde de resección.
Dos años más tarde, se observó un único implante peritoneal en región prehepática, así como una masa de 3 cm en la curvatura mayor del estómago. Tras pruebas complementarias se descartó enfermedad a otros niveles. La lesión gástrica fue compatible con un tumor del estroma gastrointestinal (GIST). Tras comentar el caso en comité, se realiza cirugía de ambas lesiones, con resultado histopatológico compatible con GIST con bajo índice mitótico (1/5 mm2), siendo la masa abdominal una metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras. Se indicó seguimiento.
Exploración física
A pesar de la edad, el paciente presenta un índice Karnofsky del 90 % y aporta un examen minimental sin alteraciones neurológicas. No existe pérdida ponderal ni síndrome constitucional, con apetito conservado y hábito deposicional normal.
La auscultación cardiaca es rítmica sin soplos y en la auscultación pulmonar no se obtienen ruidos patológicos. El abdomen es blando y depresible sin dolor, con cicatrices postquirúrgicas presentando buen aspecto. No tiene edemas en miembros inferiores.
Pruebas complementarias
En la TC de febrero 2017 se observa una recidiva a nivel perihepático inferior con una masa de 3 x 4cm compatible con un implante peritoneal, así como una sospecha de metástasis pulmonares en el lóbulo superior derecho (LSD) y quistes hepáticos en segmentos II y IV. La PET-TC descarta hipermetabolismo en las lesiones hepáticas.
Las analíticas realizadas no mostraban ninguna alteración a excepción de la hemoglobina, con unos valores de 11 mg/dl.
Diagnóstico
Dadas las pruebas e intervenciones previas se diagnosticó de un carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico (CCRm), situándose en el grupo de riesgo intermedio por poseer un 1 punto en la Escala Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC).
Tratamiento
En abril de 2017, se inició tratamiento de primera línea con sunitinib 50 mg según esquema de 4 semanas de tratamiento seguida de 2 semanas de descanso. Durante el segundo ciclo, el paciente desarrolla una anemia grado 2 e hipertensión grado 3 no controlada con 20 mg de enalapril diarios y 40 mg/día de olmesartán, lo que obligó a una reducción de sunitinib a 37,5 mg continuado con el mismo esquema.
Se requirió de ferroterapia para mantener la anemia en un grado 1, así como analgesia de primer escalón para controlar el dolor.
En la primera reevaluación de la enfermedad por TC, se observa progresión pulmonar. Ante la recaída, se inicia nivolumab 3 mg/kg cada dos semanas en septiembre 2017.
Evolución
Tras siete ciclos de nivolumab:
» La primera TC de control en noviembre 2017 observa una progresión de la enfermedad por aparición de conglomerados adenopáticos a múltiples niveles y metástasis hepáticas en segmentos VI y A su vez, existía un crecimiento significativo de la masa en la pared abdominal subhepática (un aumento del 66 % respecto del estudio previo) y nódulos subcutáneos de nueva aparición. Todos los nódulos pulmonares se transformaron milimétricos.
» Por otra parte, el paciente mantenía un índice Karnofsky del 100 %, con una importante mejoría en la calidad de vida con menor astenia, habiendo retirado toda medicación domiciliaria. Únicamente presenta prurito grado 1 controlado con antihistamínicos. La hemoglobina alcanzo niveles normales de 13,5 mg/dl.
» Con la sospecha de pseudoprogresión, se mantuvo el mismo tratamiento.
Tras doce ciclos nivolumab:
» Diez semanas después, se evidencia una respuesta completa pulmonar, así como de las múltiples adenopatías en diferentes localizaciones. A nivel hepático, ambas lesiones se redujeron un 50 %.
» La TC muestra la evolución de la mayor lesión medible tras el inicio de nivolumab, sin realizar cambio de línea de tratamiento.
El paciente mantuvo el tratamiento con nivolumab, realizando nueva TC a las 30 semanas, visualizándose respuesta completa en todos los niveles. En diciembre de 2019, se modifica el esquema a dosis mensual de 480 mg4. Se mantiene asintomático y con respuesta completa duradera de más de 1 año, siendo en abril 2019 la última consulta realizada.
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Anamnesis
Se trata de un varón de 76 años, pescador jubilado, hipertenso y diabético no insulinodependiente sin ninguna medicación activa. Es exfumador desde los 60 años. No tiene antecedentes familiares de interés.
Consulta en Urología por primera vez en febrero 2010 en relación a hematuria persistente. Tras el diagnóstico mediante tomografía computarizada (TAC) de una lesión renal es intervenido mediante una nefrectomía parcial del riñón derecho, con Anatomía Patológica de carcinoma de células claras de 1,4cm pT1pN0M0, grado IV de Fuhrman.
Durante el seguimiento en agosto 2014 se detecta una masa de partes blandas sobre el músculo psoas derecho de 3 x 3,9 x 4 cm. Se decidió exéresis de la misma, con similar resultado en la Anatomía Patológica que la descrita previamente, si bien existían imágenes de invasión vascular, así como contacto focal del tumor con el borde de resección.
Dos años más tarde, se observó un único implante peritoneal en región prehepática, así como una masa de 3 cm en la curvatura mayor del estómago. Tras pruebas complementarias se descartó enfermedad a otros niveles. La lesión gástrica fue compatible con un tumor del estroma gastrointestinal (GIST). Tras comentar el caso en comité, se realiza cirugía de ambas lesiones, con resultado histopatológico compatible con GIST con bajo índice mitótico (1/5 mm2), siendo la masa abdominal una metástasis de carcinoma renal de células claras. Se indicó seguimiento.
Exploración física
A pesar de la edad, el paciente presenta un índice Karnofsky del 90 % y aporta un examen minimental sin alteraciones neurológicas. No existe pérdida ponderal ni síndrome constitucional, con apetito conservado y hábito deposicional normal.
La auscultación cardiaca es rítmica sin soplos y en la auscultación pulmonar no se obtienen ruidos patológicos. El abdomen es blando y depresible sin dolor, con cicatrices postquirúrgicas presentando buen aspecto. No tiene edemas en miembros inferiores.
Pruebas complementarias
En la TC de febrero 2017 se observa una recidiva a nivel perihepático inferior con una masa de 3 x 4cm compatible con un implante peritoneal, así como una sospecha de metástasis pulmonares en el lóbulo superior derecho (LSD) y quistes hepáticos en segmentos II y IV. La PET-TC descarta hipermetabolismo en las lesiones hepáticas.
Las analíticas realizadas no mostraban ninguna alteración a excepción de la hemoglobina, con unos valores de 11 mg/dl.
Diagnóstico
Dadas las pruebas e intervenciones previas se diagnosticó de un carcinoma renal de células claras metastásico (CCRm), situándose en el grupo de riesgo intermedio por poseer un 1 punto en la Escala Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC).
Tratamiento
En abril de 2017, se inició tratamiento de primera línea con sunitinib 50 mg según esquema de 4 semanas de tratamiento seguida de 2 semanas de descanso. Durante el segundo ciclo, el paciente desarrolla una anemia grado 2 e hipertensión grado 3 no controlada con 20 mg de enalapril diarios y 40 mg/día de olmesartán, lo que obligó a una reducción de sunitinib a 37,5 mg continuado con el mismo esquema.
Se requirió de ferroterapia para mantener la anemia en un grado 1, así como analgesia de primer escalón para controlar el dolor.
En la primera reevaluación de la enfermedad por TC, se observa progresión pulmonar. Ante la recaída, se inicia nivolumab 3 mg/kg cada dos semanas en septiembre 2017.
Evolución
Tras siete ciclos de nivolumab:
» La primera TC de control en noviembre 2017 observa una progresión de la enfermedad por aparición de conglomerados adenopáticos a múltiples niveles y metástasis hepáticas en segmentos VI y A su vez, existía un crecimiento significativo de la masa en la pared abdominal subhepática (un aumento del 66 % respecto del estudio previo) y nódulos subcutáneos de nueva aparición. Todos los nódulos pulmonares se transformaron milimétricos.
» Por otra parte, el paciente mantenía un índice Karnofsky del 100 %, con una importante mejoría en la calidad de vida con menor astenia, habiendo retirado toda medicación domiciliaria. Únicamente presenta prurito grado 1 controlado con antihistamínicos. La hemoglobina alcanzo niveles normales de 13,5 mg/dl.
» Con la sospecha de pseudoprogresión, se mantuvo el mismo tratamiento.
Tras doce ciclos nivolumab:
» Diez semanas después, se evidencia una respuesta completa pulmonar, así como de las múltiples adenopatías en diferentes localizaciones. A nivel hepático, ambas lesiones se redujeron un 50 %.
» La TC muestra la evolución de la mayor lesión medible tras el inicio de nivolumab, sin realizar cambio de línea de tratamiento.
El paciente mantuvo el tratamiento con nivolumab, realizando nueva TC a las 30 semanas, visualizándose respuesta completa en todos los niveles. En diciembre de 2019, se modifica el esquema a dosis mensual de 480 mg4. Se mantiene asintomático y con respuesta completa duradera de más de 1 año, siendo en abril 2019 la última consulta realizada.
|
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] |
[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
cytochrome P-450 is a GENE-N
|
10561120_task0
|
Sentence: Decreased intracellular proteolysis correlates with the maintenance of a specific isoenzyme of cytochrome P-450.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: GENE-N
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-GENE-N",
"I-GENE-N",
"O"
] |
Decreased intracellular proteolysis correlates with the maintenance of a specific isoenzyme of cytochrome P-450.
|
[
"Decreased",
"intracellular",
"proteolysis",
"correlates",
"with",
"the",
"maintenance",
"of",
"a",
"specific",
"isoenzyme",
"of",
"cytochrome",
"P-450",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-N",
"GENE-Y",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
cytochrome P-450 is a GENE-N
|
10561120_task1
|
Sentence: Decreased intracellular proteolysis correlates with the maintenance of a specific isoenzyme of cytochrome P-450.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: cytochrome P-450
Options: GENE-N
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-GENE-N",
"I-GENE-N",
"O"
] |
Decreased intracellular proteolysis correlates with the maintenance of a specific isoenzyme of cytochrome P-450.
|
[
"Decreased",
"intracellular",
"proteolysis",
"correlates",
"with",
"the",
"maintenance",
"of",
"a",
"specific",
"isoenzyme",
"of",
"cytochrome",
"P-450",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-N",
"GENE-Y",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
cytochrome P-450
|
10561120_task2
|
Sentence: Decreased intracellular proteolysis correlates with the maintenance of a specific isoenzyme of cytochrome P-450.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-GENE-N",
"I-GENE-N",
"O"
] |
Decreased intracellular proteolysis correlates with the maintenance of a specific isoenzyme of cytochrome P-450.
|
[
"Decreased",
"intracellular",
"proteolysis",
"correlates",
"with",
"the",
"maintenance",
"of",
"a",
"specific",
"isoenzyme",
"of",
"cytochrome",
"P-450",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-N",
"GENE-Y",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
Male is a Person, female is a Person, between 40 - 85 years is a Value, old is a Person, speak English is a Observation, first language is a Qualifier, proficiency in English is a Observation, > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test is a Scope, normal cognition is a Condition, at baseline is a Temporal, good general health is a Condition, able to participate is a Observation, LP and imaging exams is a Scope
|
NCT03663387_inc_task0
|
Sentence: Male and female subjects between 40-85 years old will be enrolled. Younger subjects are not included as the risk for brain amyloid lesions is too low
All subjects will speak English as their first language or demonstrate proficiency in English (defined as reaching a scaled score of > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test).
All subjects will have normal cognition at baseline: a Clinical Dementia Rating CDR=0, Global Deterioration Scale GDS<2.
All subjects will be in good general health and able to participate in the LP and imaging exams. This determination is made by the study neurologist and reviewed at a consensus meeting for each subject.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Temporal, Condition, Qualifier, Value, Person, Observation, Scope
|
[
"B-Person",
"O",
"B-Person",
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"B-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"B-Person",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Male and female subjects between 40-85 years old will be enrolled. Younger subjects are not included as the risk for brain amyloid lesions is too low
All subjects will speak English as their first language or demonstrate proficiency in English (defined as reaching a scaled score of > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test).
All subjects will have normal cognition at baseline: a Clinical Dementia Rating CDR=0, Global Deterioration Scale GDS<2.
All subjects will be in good general health and able to participate in the LP and imaging exams. This determination is made by the study neurologist and reviewed at a consensus meeting for each subject.
|
[
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] |
[
"Scope",
"Measurement",
"Observation",
"Value",
"Condition",
"Qualifier",
"Procedure",
"Temporal",
"Person"
] |
Male is a Person, female is a Person, between 40 - 85 years is a Value, old is a Person, speak English is a Observation, first language is a Qualifier, proficiency in English is a Observation, > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test is a Scope, normal cognition is a Condition, at baseline is a Temporal, good general health is a Condition, able to participate is a Observation, LP and imaging exams is a Scope
|
NCT03663387_inc_task1
|
Sentence: Male and female subjects between 40-85 years old will be enrolled. Younger subjects are not included as the risk for brain amyloid lesions is too low
All subjects will speak English as their first language or demonstrate proficiency in English (defined as reaching a scaled score of > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test).
All subjects will have normal cognition at baseline: a Clinical Dementia Rating CDR=0, Global Deterioration Scale GDS<2.
All subjects will be in good general health and able to participate in the LP and imaging exams. This determination is made by the study neurologist and reviewed at a consensus meeting for each subject.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Male, female, between 40 - 85 years, old, speak English, first language, proficiency in English, > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test, normal cognition, at baseline, good general health, able to participate, LP and imaging exams
Options: Temporal, Condition, Qualifier, Value, Person, Observation, Scope
|
[
"B-Person",
"O",
"B-Person",
"O",
"B-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"B-Person",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
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"I-Qualifier",
"O",
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"B-Scope",
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"I-Scope",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Condition",
"I-Condition",
"B-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"B-Condition",
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"B-Observation",
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"I-Observation",
"O",
"O",
"B-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"I-Scope",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Male and female subjects between 40-85 years old will be enrolled. Younger subjects are not included as the risk for brain amyloid lesions is too low
All subjects will speak English as their first language or demonstrate proficiency in English (defined as reaching a scaled score of > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test).
All subjects will have normal cognition at baseline: a Clinical Dementia Rating CDR=0, Global Deterioration Scale GDS<2.
All subjects will be in good general health and able to participate in the LP and imaging exams. This determination is made by the study neurologist and reviewed at a consensus meeting for each subject.
|
[
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"subjects",
"between",
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[
"Scope",
"Measurement",
"Observation",
"Value",
"Condition",
"Qualifier",
"Procedure",
"Temporal",
"Person"
] |
Male, female, between 40 - 85 years, old, speak English, first language, proficiency in English, > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test, normal cognition, at baseline, good general health, able to participate, LP and imaging exams
|
NCT03663387_inc_task2
|
Sentence: Male and female subjects between 40-85 years old will be enrolled. Younger subjects are not included as the risk for brain amyloid lesions is too low
All subjects will speak English as their first language or demonstrate proficiency in English (defined as reaching a scaled score of > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test).
All subjects will have normal cognition at baseline: a Clinical Dementia Rating CDR=0, Global Deterioration Scale GDS<2.
All subjects will be in good general health and able to participate in the LP and imaging exams. This determination is made by the study neurologist and reviewed at a consensus meeting for each subject.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"B-Person",
"O",
"B-Person",
"O",
"B-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"B-Person",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"B-Scope",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Male and female subjects between 40-85 years old will be enrolled. Younger subjects are not included as the risk for brain amyloid lesions is too low
All subjects will speak English as their first language or demonstrate proficiency in English (defined as reaching a scaled score of > 11 on the WAIS vocabulary test).
All subjects will have normal cognition at baseline: a Clinical Dementia Rating CDR=0, Global Deterioration Scale GDS<2.
All subjects will be in good general health and able to participate in the LP and imaging exams. This determination is made by the study neurologist and reviewed at a consensus meeting for each subject.
|
[
"Male",
"and",
"female",
"subjects",
"between",
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"85",
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] |
[
"Scope",
"Measurement",
"Observation",
"Value",
"Condition",
"Qualifier",
"Procedure",
"Temporal",
"Person"
] |
Objectives is an umlsterm, claw is an umlsterm, toe is an umlsterm, deformity is an umlsterm, toes is an umlsterm, arthrodesis is an umlsterm, joint is an umlsterm, joint is an umlsterm
|
OperativeOrthopaedie.90110319.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Objectives Correction of fixed claw toe deformity of toes II to IV through arthrodesis of the proximal interphalangeal joint and repositioning of metatarsophalangeal joint .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
"B-umlsterm",
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"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Objectives Correction of fixed claw toe deformity of toes II to IV through arthrodesis of the proximal interphalangeal joint and repositioning of metatarsophalangeal joint .
|
[
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"Correction",
"of",
"fixed",
"claw",
"toe",
"deformity",
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"toes",
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"to",
"IV",
"through",
"arthrodesis",
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"interphalangeal",
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"and",
"repositioning",
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"metatarsophalangeal",
"joint",
"."
] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Objectives is an umlsterm, claw is an umlsterm, toe is an umlsterm, deformity is an umlsterm, toes is an umlsterm, arthrodesis is an umlsterm, joint is an umlsterm, joint is an umlsterm
|
OperativeOrthopaedie.90110319.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Objectives Correction of fixed claw toe deformity of toes II to IV through arthrodesis of the proximal interphalangeal joint and repositioning of metatarsophalangeal joint .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Objectives, claw, toe, deformity, toes, arthrodesis, joint, joint
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Objectives Correction of fixed claw toe deformity of toes II to IV through arthrodesis of the proximal interphalangeal joint and repositioning of metatarsophalangeal joint .
|
[
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"metatarsophalangeal",
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Objectives, claw, toe, deformity, toes, arthrodesis, joint, joint
|
OperativeOrthopaedie.90110319.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Objectives Correction of fixed claw toe deformity of toes II to IV through arthrodesis of the proximal interphalangeal joint and repositioning of metatarsophalangeal joint .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Objectives Correction of fixed claw toe deformity of toes II to IV through arthrodesis of the proximal interphalangeal joint and repositioning of metatarsophalangeal joint .
|
[
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"metatarsophalangeal",
"joint",
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Stat5 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Prolactin is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, interleukin-4 is a Protein, IL-4 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, glucocorticoid receptor is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, VP16 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, transactivation domain is a Entity, Stat6 is a Protein, IL-4 is a Protein
|
730_task0
|
Sentence: Comparison of the transactivation domains of Stat5 and Stat6 in lymphoid cells and mammary epithelial cells.
Stat (signal transducers and activators of transcription) and Jak (Janus kinases) proteins are central components in the signal transduction events in hematopoietic and epithelial cells. They are rapidly activated by various cytokines, hormones, and growth factors. Upon ligand binding and cytokine receptor dimerization, Stat proteins are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by Jak kinases. Activated Stat proteins form homo- or heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and induce transcription from responsive genes. Stat5 and Stat6 are transcription factors active in mammary epithelial cells and immune cells. Prolactin activates Stat5, and interleukin-4 (IL-4) activates Stat6. Both cytokines are able to stimulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. We investigated the transactivation potential of Stat6 and found that it is not restricted to lymphocytes. IL-4-dependent activation of Stat6 was also observed in HC11 mammary epithelial cells. In these cells, Stat6 activation led to the induction of the beta-casein gene promoter. The induction of this promoter was confirmed in COS7 cells. The glucocorticoid receptor was able to further enhance IL-4-induced gene transcription through the action of Stat6. Deletion analysis of the carboxyl-terminal region of Stat6 and recombination of this region with a heterologous DNA binding domain allowed the delimitation and characterization of the transactivation domain of Stat6. The potencies of the transactivation domains of Stat5, Stat6, and viral protein VP16 were compared. Stat6 had a transactivation domain which was about 10-fold stronger than that of Stat5. In pre-B cells (Ba/F3), the transactivation domain of Stat6 was IL-4 regulated, independently from its DNA binding function.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Entity, Protein
|
[
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] |
Comparison of the transactivation domains of Stat5 and Stat6 in lymphoid cells and mammary epithelial cells.
Stat (signal transducers and activators of transcription) and Jak (Janus kinases) proteins are central components in the signal transduction events in hematopoietic and epithelial cells. They are rapidly activated by various cytokines, hormones, and growth factors. Upon ligand binding and cytokine receptor dimerization, Stat proteins are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by Jak kinases. Activated Stat proteins form homo- or heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and induce transcription from responsive genes. Stat5 and Stat6 are transcription factors active in mammary epithelial cells and immune cells. Prolactin activates Stat5, and interleukin-4 (IL-4) activates Stat6. Both cytokines are able to stimulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. We investigated the transactivation potential of Stat6 and found that it is not restricted to lymphocytes. IL-4-dependent activation of Stat6 was also observed in HC11 mammary epithelial cells. In these cells, Stat6 activation led to the induction of the beta-casein gene promoter. The induction of this promoter was confirmed in COS7 cells. The glucocorticoid receptor was able to further enhance IL-4-induced gene transcription through the action of Stat6. Deletion analysis of the carboxyl-terminal region of Stat6 and recombination of this region with a heterologous DNA binding domain allowed the delimitation and characterization of the transactivation domain of Stat6. The potencies of the transactivation domains of Stat5, Stat6, and viral protein VP16 were compared. Stat6 had a transactivation domain which was about 10-fold stronger than that of Stat5. In pre-B cells (Ba/F3), the transactivation domain of Stat6 was IL-4 regulated, independently from its DNA binding function.
|
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] |
[
"Protein",
"Entity"
] |
Stat5 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Prolactin is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, interleukin-4 is a Protein, IL-4 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, glucocorticoid receptor is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, VP16 is a Protein, Stat6 is a Protein, Stat5 is a Protein, transactivation domain is a Entity, Stat6 is a Protein, IL-4 is a Protein
|
730_task1
|
Sentence: Comparison of the transactivation domains of Stat5 and Stat6 in lymphoid cells and mammary epithelial cells.
Stat (signal transducers and activators of transcription) and Jak (Janus kinases) proteins are central components in the signal transduction events in hematopoietic and epithelial cells. They are rapidly activated by various cytokines, hormones, and growth factors. Upon ligand binding and cytokine receptor dimerization, Stat proteins are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by Jak kinases. Activated Stat proteins form homo- or heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and induce transcription from responsive genes. Stat5 and Stat6 are transcription factors active in mammary epithelial cells and immune cells. Prolactin activates Stat5, and interleukin-4 (IL-4) activates Stat6. Both cytokines are able to stimulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. We investigated the transactivation potential of Stat6 and found that it is not restricted to lymphocytes. IL-4-dependent activation of Stat6 was also observed in HC11 mammary epithelial cells. In these cells, Stat6 activation led to the induction of the beta-casein gene promoter. The induction of this promoter was confirmed in COS7 cells. The glucocorticoid receptor was able to further enhance IL-4-induced gene transcription through the action of Stat6. Deletion analysis of the carboxyl-terminal region of Stat6 and recombination of this region with a heterologous DNA binding domain allowed the delimitation and characterization of the transactivation domain of Stat6. The potencies of the transactivation domains of Stat5, Stat6, and viral protein VP16 were compared. Stat6 had a transactivation domain which was about 10-fold stronger than that of Stat5. In pre-B cells (Ba/F3), the transactivation domain of Stat6 was IL-4 regulated, independently from its DNA binding function.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Stat5, Stat6, Stat5, Stat6, Prolactin, Stat5, interleukin-4, IL-4, Stat6, Stat6, Stat6, Stat6, glucocorticoid receptor, Stat6, Stat6, Stat6, Stat5, Stat6, VP16, Stat6, Stat5, transactivation domain, Stat6, IL-4
Options: Entity, Protein
|
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] |
Comparison of the transactivation domains of Stat5 and Stat6 in lymphoid cells and mammary epithelial cells.
Stat (signal transducers and activators of transcription) and Jak (Janus kinases) proteins are central components in the signal transduction events in hematopoietic and epithelial cells. They are rapidly activated by various cytokines, hormones, and growth factors. Upon ligand binding and cytokine receptor dimerization, Stat proteins are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by Jak kinases. Activated Stat proteins form homo- or heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and induce transcription from responsive genes. Stat5 and Stat6 are transcription factors active in mammary epithelial cells and immune cells. Prolactin activates Stat5, and interleukin-4 (IL-4) activates Stat6. Both cytokines are able to stimulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. We investigated the transactivation potential of Stat6 and found that it is not restricted to lymphocytes. IL-4-dependent activation of Stat6 was also observed in HC11 mammary epithelial cells. In these cells, Stat6 activation led to the induction of the beta-casein gene promoter. The induction of this promoter was confirmed in COS7 cells. The glucocorticoid receptor was able to further enhance IL-4-induced gene transcription through the action of Stat6. Deletion analysis of the carboxyl-terminal region of Stat6 and recombination of this region with a heterologous DNA binding domain allowed the delimitation and characterization of the transactivation domain of Stat6. The potencies of the transactivation domains of Stat5, Stat6, and viral protein VP16 were compared. Stat6 had a transactivation domain which was about 10-fold stronger than that of Stat5. In pre-B cells (Ba/F3), the transactivation domain of Stat6 was IL-4 regulated, independently from its DNA binding function.
|
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[
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Stat5, Stat6, Stat5, Stat6, Prolactin, Stat5, interleukin-4, IL-4, Stat6, Stat6, Stat6, Stat6, glucocorticoid receptor, Stat6, Stat6, Stat6, Stat5, Stat6, VP16, Stat6, Stat5, transactivation domain, Stat6, IL-4
|
730_task2
|
Sentence: Comparison of the transactivation domains of Stat5 and Stat6 in lymphoid cells and mammary epithelial cells.
Stat (signal transducers and activators of transcription) and Jak (Janus kinases) proteins are central components in the signal transduction events in hematopoietic and epithelial cells. They are rapidly activated by various cytokines, hormones, and growth factors. Upon ligand binding and cytokine receptor dimerization, Stat proteins are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by Jak kinases. Activated Stat proteins form homo- or heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and induce transcription from responsive genes. Stat5 and Stat6 are transcription factors active in mammary epithelial cells and immune cells. Prolactin activates Stat5, and interleukin-4 (IL-4) activates Stat6. Both cytokines are able to stimulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. We investigated the transactivation potential of Stat6 and found that it is not restricted to lymphocytes. IL-4-dependent activation of Stat6 was also observed in HC11 mammary epithelial cells. In these cells, Stat6 activation led to the induction of the beta-casein gene promoter. The induction of this promoter was confirmed in COS7 cells. The glucocorticoid receptor was able to further enhance IL-4-induced gene transcription through the action of Stat6. Deletion analysis of the carboxyl-terminal region of Stat6 and recombination of this region with a heterologous DNA binding domain allowed the delimitation and characterization of the transactivation domain of Stat6. The potencies of the transactivation domains of Stat5, Stat6, and viral protein VP16 were compared. Stat6 had a transactivation domain which was about 10-fold stronger than that of Stat5. In pre-B cells (Ba/F3), the transactivation domain of Stat6 was IL-4 regulated, independently from its DNA binding function.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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Comparison of the transactivation domains of Stat5 and Stat6 in lymphoid cells and mammary epithelial cells.
Stat (signal transducers and activators of transcription) and Jak (Janus kinases) proteins are central components in the signal transduction events in hematopoietic and epithelial cells. They are rapidly activated by various cytokines, hormones, and growth factors. Upon ligand binding and cytokine receptor dimerization, Stat proteins are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by Jak kinases. Activated Stat proteins form homo- or heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and induce transcription from responsive genes. Stat5 and Stat6 are transcription factors active in mammary epithelial cells and immune cells. Prolactin activates Stat5, and interleukin-4 (IL-4) activates Stat6. Both cytokines are able to stimulate cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. We investigated the transactivation potential of Stat6 and found that it is not restricted to lymphocytes. IL-4-dependent activation of Stat6 was also observed in HC11 mammary epithelial cells. In these cells, Stat6 activation led to the induction of the beta-casein gene promoter. The induction of this promoter was confirmed in COS7 cells. The glucocorticoid receptor was able to further enhance IL-4-induced gene transcription through the action of Stat6. Deletion analysis of the carboxyl-terminal region of Stat6 and recombination of this region with a heterologous DNA binding domain allowed the delimitation and characterization of the transactivation domain of Stat6. The potencies of the transactivation domains of Stat5, Stat6, and viral protein VP16 were compared. Stat6 had a transactivation domain which was about 10-fold stronger than that of Stat5. In pre-B cells (Ba/F3), the transactivation domain of Stat6 was IL-4 regulated, independently from its DNA binding function.
|
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[
"Protein",
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smoking is a Observation, drug addiction is a Condition, local anesthetic is a Drug, allergy is a Condition, chemical is a Procedure, radiotherapy is a Procedure, Hepatic disease is a Condition, immunodepression is a Condition, Pregnancy is a Condition, Diabetes is a Condition, Heart disease is a Condition
|
NCT01963754_exc_task0
|
Sentence: If smoking and/or other drug addiction is present
If local anesthetic allergy is present
Patient subjected to chemical or radiotherapy
if Hepatic disease is present
If immunodepression is present
If Pregnancy is present
If Diabetes is present
If Heart disease is present
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Condition, Procedure, Observation, Drug
|
[
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If immunodepression is present
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If Diabetes is present
If Heart disease is present
|
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[
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smoking is a Observation, drug addiction is a Condition, local anesthetic is a Drug, allergy is a Condition, chemical is a Procedure, radiotherapy is a Procedure, Hepatic disease is a Condition, immunodepression is a Condition, Pregnancy is a Condition, Diabetes is a Condition, Heart disease is a Condition
|
NCT01963754_exc_task1
|
Sentence: If smoking and/or other drug addiction is present
If local anesthetic allergy is present
Patient subjected to chemical or radiotherapy
if Hepatic disease is present
If immunodepression is present
If Pregnancy is present
If Diabetes is present
If Heart disease is present
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: smoking, drug addiction, local anesthetic, allergy, chemical, radiotherapy, Hepatic disease, immunodepression, Pregnancy, Diabetes, Heart disease
Options: Condition, Procedure, Observation, Drug
|
[
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"O",
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If smoking and/or other drug addiction is present
If local anesthetic allergy is present
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if Hepatic disease is present
If immunodepression is present
If Pregnancy is present
If Diabetes is present
If Heart disease is present
|
[
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[
"Drug",
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smoking, drug addiction, local anesthetic, allergy, chemical, radiotherapy, Hepatic disease, immunodepression, Pregnancy, Diabetes, Heart disease
|
NCT01963754_exc_task2
|
Sentence: If smoking and/or other drug addiction is present
If local anesthetic allergy is present
Patient subjected to chemical or radiotherapy
if Hepatic disease is present
If immunodepression is present
If Pregnancy is present
If Diabetes is present
If Heart disease is present
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
"O",
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"I-Condition",
"O",
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If smoking and/or other drug addiction is present
If local anesthetic allergy is present
Patient subjected to chemical or radiotherapy
if Hepatic disease is present
If immunodepression is present
If Pregnancy is present
If Diabetes is present
If Heart disease is present
|
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Leukocyte - depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : is a Participant_Condition, survival is a Outcome_Mortality, reperfusion injury is a Outcome_Physical, graft function is a Outcome_Physical, cardiac function is a Outcome_Physical, efficacy and safety is a Outcome_Other, leukocyte - depleted reperfusion is a Intervention_Physical, warm whole blood reperfusion is a Intervention_Physical, warm leukocyte - depleted blood reperfusion is a Intervention_Physical, Reperfusion with leukocyte - depleted blood is a Intervention_Pharmacological, ischemic time is a Outcome_Physical, Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase - MB 5 minutes after reperfusion is a Outcome_Physical, Thromboxane B2 release is a Outcome_Physical, hearts functioned is a Outcome_Physical, duration of inotropic support is a Outcome_Physical, Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation is a Outcome_Physical, death is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, deaths is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, biochemical evidence is a Outcome_Physical, posttransplantation graft function is a Outcome_Physical, ischemic times is a Outcome_Physical
|
14974_task0
|
Sentence: Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : a randomized , double-blind clinical trial . Standard methods of myocardial preservation for heart transplantation have generally provided good results . Preservation times beyond 3 hours , however , have been associated with decreased survival . Leukocyte-mediated reperfusion injury is partly responsible for decreased graft function after prolonged graft ischemia . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion has been shown experimentally to improve cardiac function after cold ischemic arrest . To determine the efficacy and safety of leukocyte-depleted reperfusion , 20 patients were enrolled in a randomized , double-blind clinical trial to be treated with either warm whole blood reperfusion ( group I ; n = 9 ) or warm leukocyte-depleted blood reperfusion ( group II ; n = 11 ) . Reperfusion with leukocyte-depleted blood or whole blood was carried out for 10 minutes , with enriched cardioplegic solution added for the first 3 minutes of reperfusion . The mean donor and recipient age and the ischemic time ( 142 versus 153 minutes ) were not significantly different between the two groups . Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase-MB 5 minutes after reperfusion was significantly less in group II ( 1.65 EU/min ) than in group I ( 3.83 units/min ; p = 0.05 ) . Thromboxane B2 release was also significantly less ( p = 0.05 ) in group II ( 33.6 pg/min ) than in group I ( 67.0 pg/min ) . All hearts functioned adequately in both groups . The duration of inotropic support was shorter in group II than in group I , but the difference was not statistically significant . Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications were also not significantly different between groups in a mean follow-up of 9 months . Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation was 65 % in both groups . One early death occurred at 66 days secondary to infection ; two late deaths occurred in group II , both from rejection . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion is safe and easily applied in the operating room . Furthermore , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion decreases biochemical evidence of reperfusion injury . Although not influencing postoperative cardiac function when the ischemic time is short , less than 3 hours , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion may prevent significant reperfusion injury and improve posttransplantation graft function when ischemic times are long . Safe extension of the ischemic time would expand the donor pool and allow for better crossmatching .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Intervention_Physical, Participant_Condition, Outcome_Mortality, Outcome_Physical, Outcome_Other
|
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"I-Outcome_Adverse-effects",
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"O",
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"O"
] |
Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : a randomized , double-blind clinical trial . Standard methods of myocardial preservation for heart transplantation have generally provided good results . Preservation times beyond 3 hours , however , have been associated with decreased survival . Leukocyte-mediated reperfusion injury is partly responsible for decreased graft function after prolonged graft ischemia . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion has been shown experimentally to improve cardiac function after cold ischemic arrest . To determine the efficacy and safety of leukocyte-depleted reperfusion , 20 patients were enrolled in a randomized , double-blind clinical trial to be treated with either warm whole blood reperfusion ( group I ; n = 9 ) or warm leukocyte-depleted blood reperfusion ( group II ; n = 11 ) . Reperfusion with leukocyte-depleted blood or whole blood was carried out for 10 minutes , with enriched cardioplegic solution added for the first 3 minutes of reperfusion . The mean donor and recipient age and the ischemic time ( 142 versus 153 minutes ) were not significantly different between the two groups . Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase-MB 5 minutes after reperfusion was significantly less in group II ( 1.65 EU/min ) than in group I ( 3.83 units/min ; p = 0.05 ) . Thromboxane B2 release was also significantly less ( p = 0.05 ) in group II ( 33.6 pg/min ) than in group I ( 67.0 pg/min ) . All hearts functioned adequately in both groups . The duration of inotropic support was shorter in group II than in group I , but the difference was not statistically significant . Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications were also not significantly different between groups in a mean follow-up of 9 months . Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation was 65 % in both groups . One early death occurred at 66 days secondary to infection ; two late deaths occurred in group II , both from rejection . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion is safe and easily applied in the operating room . Furthermore , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion decreases biochemical evidence of reperfusion injury . Although not influencing postoperative cardiac function when the ischemic time is short , less than 3 hours , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion may prevent significant reperfusion injury and improve posttransplantation graft function when ischemic times are long . Safe extension of the ischemic time would expand the donor pool and allow for better crossmatching .
|
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[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Outcome_Adverse-effects",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Physical",
"Intervention_Pharmacological",
"Outcome_Other",
"Outcome_Mortality"
] |
Leukocyte - depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : is a Participant_Condition, survival is a Outcome_Mortality, reperfusion injury is a Outcome_Physical, graft function is a Outcome_Physical, cardiac function is a Outcome_Physical, efficacy and safety is a Outcome_Other, leukocyte - depleted reperfusion is a Intervention_Physical, warm whole blood reperfusion is a Intervention_Physical, warm leukocyte - depleted blood reperfusion is a Intervention_Physical, Reperfusion with leukocyte - depleted blood is a Intervention_Pharmacological, ischemic time is a Outcome_Physical, Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase - MB 5 minutes after reperfusion is a Outcome_Physical, Thromboxane B2 release is a Outcome_Physical, hearts functioned is a Outcome_Physical, duration of inotropic support is a Outcome_Physical, Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation is a Outcome_Physical, death is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, deaths is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, biochemical evidence is a Outcome_Physical, posttransplantation graft function is a Outcome_Physical, ischemic times is a Outcome_Physical
|
14974_task1
|
Sentence: Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : a randomized , double-blind clinical trial . Standard methods of myocardial preservation for heart transplantation have generally provided good results . Preservation times beyond 3 hours , however , have been associated with decreased survival . Leukocyte-mediated reperfusion injury is partly responsible for decreased graft function after prolonged graft ischemia . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion has been shown experimentally to improve cardiac function after cold ischemic arrest . To determine the efficacy and safety of leukocyte-depleted reperfusion , 20 patients were enrolled in a randomized , double-blind clinical trial to be treated with either warm whole blood reperfusion ( group I ; n = 9 ) or warm leukocyte-depleted blood reperfusion ( group II ; n = 11 ) . Reperfusion with leukocyte-depleted blood or whole blood was carried out for 10 minutes , with enriched cardioplegic solution added for the first 3 minutes of reperfusion . The mean donor and recipient age and the ischemic time ( 142 versus 153 minutes ) were not significantly different between the two groups . Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase-MB 5 minutes after reperfusion was significantly less in group II ( 1.65 EU/min ) than in group I ( 3.83 units/min ; p = 0.05 ) . Thromboxane B2 release was also significantly less ( p = 0.05 ) in group II ( 33.6 pg/min ) than in group I ( 67.0 pg/min ) . All hearts functioned adequately in both groups . The duration of inotropic support was shorter in group II than in group I , but the difference was not statistically significant . Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications were also not significantly different between groups in a mean follow-up of 9 months . Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation was 65 % in both groups . One early death occurred at 66 days secondary to infection ; two late deaths occurred in group II , both from rejection . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion is safe and easily applied in the operating room . Furthermore , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion decreases biochemical evidence of reperfusion injury . Although not influencing postoperative cardiac function when the ischemic time is short , less than 3 hours , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion may prevent significant reperfusion injury and improve posttransplantation graft function when ischemic times are long . Safe extension of the ischemic time would expand the donor pool and allow for better crossmatching .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Leukocyte - depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts :, survival, reperfusion injury, graft function, cardiac function, efficacy and safety, leukocyte - depleted reperfusion, warm whole blood reperfusion, warm leukocyte - depleted blood reperfusion, Reperfusion with leukocyte - depleted blood, ischemic time, Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase - MB 5 minutes after reperfusion, Thromboxane B2 release, hearts functioned, duration of inotropic support, Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications, Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation, death, deaths, biochemical evidence, posttransplantation graft function, ischemic times
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Intervention_Physical, Participant_Condition, Outcome_Mortality, Outcome_Physical, Outcome_Other
|
[
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] |
Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : a randomized , double-blind clinical trial . Standard methods of myocardial preservation for heart transplantation have generally provided good results . Preservation times beyond 3 hours , however , have been associated with decreased survival . Leukocyte-mediated reperfusion injury is partly responsible for decreased graft function after prolonged graft ischemia . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion has been shown experimentally to improve cardiac function after cold ischemic arrest . To determine the efficacy and safety of leukocyte-depleted reperfusion , 20 patients were enrolled in a randomized , double-blind clinical trial to be treated with either warm whole blood reperfusion ( group I ; n = 9 ) or warm leukocyte-depleted blood reperfusion ( group II ; n = 11 ) . Reperfusion with leukocyte-depleted blood or whole blood was carried out for 10 minutes , with enriched cardioplegic solution added for the first 3 minutes of reperfusion . The mean donor and recipient age and the ischemic time ( 142 versus 153 minutes ) were not significantly different between the two groups . Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase-MB 5 minutes after reperfusion was significantly less in group II ( 1.65 EU/min ) than in group I ( 3.83 units/min ; p = 0.05 ) . Thromboxane B2 release was also significantly less ( p = 0.05 ) in group II ( 33.6 pg/min ) than in group I ( 67.0 pg/min ) . All hearts functioned adequately in both groups . The duration of inotropic support was shorter in group II than in group I , but the difference was not statistically significant . Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications were also not significantly different between groups in a mean follow-up of 9 months . Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation was 65 % in both groups . One early death occurred at 66 days secondary to infection ; two late deaths occurred in group II , both from rejection . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion is safe and easily applied in the operating room . Furthermore , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion decreases biochemical evidence of reperfusion injury . Although not influencing postoperative cardiac function when the ischemic time is short , less than 3 hours , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion may prevent significant reperfusion injury and improve posttransplantation graft function when ischemic times are long . Safe extension of the ischemic time would expand the donor pool and allow for better crossmatching .
|
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[
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"Intervention_Physical",
"Intervention_Pharmacological",
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"Outcome_Mortality"
] |
Leukocyte - depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts :, survival, reperfusion injury, graft function, cardiac function, efficacy and safety, leukocyte - depleted reperfusion, warm whole blood reperfusion, warm leukocyte - depleted blood reperfusion, Reperfusion with leukocyte - depleted blood, ischemic time, Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase - MB 5 minutes after reperfusion, Thromboxane B2 release, hearts functioned, duration of inotropic support, Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications, Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation, death, deaths, biochemical evidence, posttransplantation graft function, ischemic times
|
14974_task2
|
Sentence: Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : a randomized , double-blind clinical trial . Standard methods of myocardial preservation for heart transplantation have generally provided good results . Preservation times beyond 3 hours , however , have been associated with decreased survival . Leukocyte-mediated reperfusion injury is partly responsible for decreased graft function after prolonged graft ischemia . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion has been shown experimentally to improve cardiac function after cold ischemic arrest . To determine the efficacy and safety of leukocyte-depleted reperfusion , 20 patients were enrolled in a randomized , double-blind clinical trial to be treated with either warm whole blood reperfusion ( group I ; n = 9 ) or warm leukocyte-depleted blood reperfusion ( group II ; n = 11 ) . Reperfusion with leukocyte-depleted blood or whole blood was carried out for 10 minutes , with enriched cardioplegic solution added for the first 3 minutes of reperfusion . The mean donor and recipient age and the ischemic time ( 142 versus 153 minutes ) were not significantly different between the two groups . Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase-MB 5 minutes after reperfusion was significantly less in group II ( 1.65 EU/min ) than in group I ( 3.83 units/min ; p = 0.05 ) . Thromboxane B2 release was also significantly less ( p = 0.05 ) in group II ( 33.6 pg/min ) than in group I ( 67.0 pg/min ) . All hearts functioned adequately in both groups . The duration of inotropic support was shorter in group II than in group I , but the difference was not statistically significant . Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications were also not significantly different between groups in a mean follow-up of 9 months . Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation was 65 % in both groups . One early death occurred at 66 days secondary to infection ; two late deaths occurred in group II , both from rejection . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion is safe and easily applied in the operating room . Furthermore , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion decreases biochemical evidence of reperfusion injury . Although not influencing postoperative cardiac function when the ischemic time is short , less than 3 hours , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion may prevent significant reperfusion injury and improve posttransplantation graft function when ischemic times are long . Safe extension of the ischemic time would expand the donor pool and allow for better crossmatching .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion of transplanted human hearts : a randomized , double-blind clinical trial . Standard methods of myocardial preservation for heart transplantation have generally provided good results . Preservation times beyond 3 hours , however , have been associated with decreased survival . Leukocyte-mediated reperfusion injury is partly responsible for decreased graft function after prolonged graft ischemia . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion has been shown experimentally to improve cardiac function after cold ischemic arrest . To determine the efficacy and safety of leukocyte-depleted reperfusion , 20 patients were enrolled in a randomized , double-blind clinical trial to be treated with either warm whole blood reperfusion ( group I ; n = 9 ) or warm leukocyte-depleted blood reperfusion ( group II ; n = 11 ) . Reperfusion with leukocyte-depleted blood or whole blood was carried out for 10 minutes , with enriched cardioplegic solution added for the first 3 minutes of reperfusion . The mean donor and recipient age and the ischemic time ( 142 versus 153 minutes ) were not significantly different between the two groups . Coronary sinus release of creatinine phosphokinase-MB 5 minutes after reperfusion was significantly less in group II ( 1.65 EU/min ) than in group I ( 3.83 units/min ; p = 0.05 ) . Thromboxane B2 release was also significantly less ( p = 0.05 ) in group II ( 33.6 pg/min ) than in group I ( 67.0 pg/min ) . All hearts functioned adequately in both groups . The duration of inotropic support was shorter in group II than in group I , but the difference was not statistically significant . Postoperative hemodynamics , rejection episodes , and infectious complications were also not significantly different between groups in a mean follow-up of 9 months . Mean ejection fraction 1 month after operation was 65 % in both groups . One early death occurred at 66 days secondary to infection ; two late deaths occurred in group II , both from rejection . Leukocyte-depleted reperfusion is safe and easily applied in the operating room . Furthermore , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion decreases biochemical evidence of reperfusion injury . Although not influencing postoperative cardiac function when the ischemic time is short , less than 3 hours , leukocyte-depleted reperfusion may prevent significant reperfusion injury and improve posttransplantation graft function when ischemic times are long . Safe extension of the ischemic time would expand the donor pool and allow for better crossmatching .
|
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[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Outcome_Adverse-effects",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Physical",
"Intervention_Pharmacological",
"Outcome_Other",
"Outcome_Mortality"
] |
human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I is a Organism, HTLV - II is a Organism, human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I is a Organism, HTLV - II is a Organism, retroviruses is a Organism, human is a Organism, T cells is a Cell, human is a Organism, malignancies is a Cancer, T - cell lymphomas is a Cancer, leukemia is a Cancer, gag is a Gene_or_gene_product, pol is a Gene_or_gene_product, env is a Gene_or_gene_product, 3 ' region is a Cellular_component, 3 ' region is a Cellular_component, 3 ' region is a Cellular_component, HTLV - I is a Organism, HTLV - II is a Organism, p40xI is a Gene_or_gene_product, p37xII is a Gene_or_gene_product
|
201_task0
|
Sentence: Identification of the putative transforming protein of the human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II.
The human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II are unique among the transforming retroviruses of vertebrates in their ability to transform human T cells in vitro and in their close association with human malignancies (T-cell lymphomas and leukemia). Their genomes are relatively simple, containing the genes gag, pol, env, and a 3' region termed "X." This 3' region may be responsible for the transforming potential of the viruses. The existence of proteins encoded by the 3' region has been postulated on the basis of multiple open reading frames. In the present study this region is shown to contain a gene encoding a protein of 40 kilodaltons in HTLV-I and 37 kilodaltons in HTLV-II. It is proposed that these proteins be called, respectively, p40xI and p37xII.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Gene_or_gene_product, Organism, Cancer, Cellular_component, Cell
|
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] |
Identification of the putative transforming protein of the human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II.
The human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II are unique among the transforming retroviruses of vertebrates in their ability to transform human T cells in vitro and in their close association with human malignancies (T-cell lymphomas and leukemia). Their genomes are relatively simple, containing the genes gag, pol, env, and a 3' region termed "X." This 3' region may be responsible for the transforming potential of the viruses. The existence of proteins encoded by the 3' region has been postulated on the basis of multiple open reading frames. In the present study this region is shown to contain a gene encoding a protein of 40 kilodaltons in HTLV-I and 37 kilodaltons in HTLV-II. It is proposed that these proteins be called, respectively, p40xI and p37xII.
|
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[
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human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I is a Organism, HTLV - II is a Organism, human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I is a Organism, HTLV - II is a Organism, retroviruses is a Organism, human is a Organism, T cells is a Cell, human is a Organism, malignancies is a Cancer, T - cell lymphomas is a Cancer, leukemia is a Cancer, gag is a Gene_or_gene_product, pol is a Gene_or_gene_product, env is a Gene_or_gene_product, 3 ' region is a Cellular_component, 3 ' region is a Cellular_component, 3 ' region is a Cellular_component, HTLV - I is a Organism, HTLV - II is a Organism, p40xI is a Gene_or_gene_product, p37xII is a Gene_or_gene_product
|
201_task1
|
Sentence: Identification of the putative transforming protein of the human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II.
The human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II are unique among the transforming retroviruses of vertebrates in their ability to transform human T cells in vitro and in their close association with human malignancies (T-cell lymphomas and leukemia). Their genomes are relatively simple, containing the genes gag, pol, env, and a 3' region termed "X." This 3' region may be responsible for the transforming potential of the viruses. The existence of proteins encoded by the 3' region has been postulated on the basis of multiple open reading frames. In the present study this region is shown to contain a gene encoding a protein of 40 kilodaltons in HTLV-I and 37 kilodaltons in HTLV-II. It is proposed that these proteins be called, respectively, p40xI and p37xII.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I, HTLV - II, human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I, HTLV - II, retroviruses, human, T cells, human, malignancies, T - cell lymphomas, leukemia, gag, pol, env, 3 ' region, 3 ' region, 3 ' region, HTLV - I, HTLV - II, p40xI, p37xII
Options: Gene_or_gene_product, Organism, Cancer, Cellular_component, Cell
|
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] |
Identification of the putative transforming protein of the human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II.
The human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II are unique among the transforming retroviruses of vertebrates in their ability to transform human T cells in vitro and in their close association with human malignancies (T-cell lymphomas and leukemia). Their genomes are relatively simple, containing the genes gag, pol, env, and a 3' region termed "X." This 3' region may be responsible for the transforming potential of the viruses. The existence of proteins encoded by the 3' region has been postulated on the basis of multiple open reading frames. In the present study this region is shown to contain a gene encoding a protein of 40 kilodaltons in HTLV-I and 37 kilodaltons in HTLV-II. It is proposed that these proteins be called, respectively, p40xI and p37xII.
|
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human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I, HTLV - II, human T - cell leukemia viruses HTLV - I, HTLV - II, retroviruses, human, T cells, human, malignancies, T - cell lymphomas, leukemia, gag, pol, env, 3 ' region, 3 ' region, 3 ' region, HTLV - I, HTLV - II, p40xI, p37xII
|
201_task2
|
Sentence: Identification of the putative transforming protein of the human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II.
The human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II are unique among the transforming retroviruses of vertebrates in their ability to transform human T cells in vitro and in their close association with human malignancies (T-cell lymphomas and leukemia). Their genomes are relatively simple, containing the genes gag, pol, env, and a 3' region termed "X." This 3' region may be responsible for the transforming potential of the viruses. The existence of proteins encoded by the 3' region has been postulated on the basis of multiple open reading frames. In the present study this region is shown to contain a gene encoding a protein of 40 kilodaltons in HTLV-I and 37 kilodaltons in HTLV-II. It is proposed that these proteins be called, respectively, p40xI and p37xII.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Identification of the putative transforming protein of the human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II.
The human T-cell leukemia viruses HTLV-I and HTLV-II are unique among the transforming retroviruses of vertebrates in their ability to transform human T cells in vitro and in their close association with human malignancies (T-cell lymphomas and leukemia). Their genomes are relatively simple, containing the genes gag, pol, env, and a 3' region termed "X." This 3' region may be responsible for the transforming potential of the viruses. The existence of proteins encoded by the 3' region has been postulated on the basis of multiple open reading frames. In the present study this region is shown to contain a gene encoding a protein of 40 kilodaltons in HTLV-I and 37 kilodaltons in HTLV-II. It is proposed that these proteins be called, respectively, p40xI and p37xII.
|
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Patienten is an umlsterm, Schaedel - Hirn - Trauma is an umlsterm, neurologische Defizite is an umlsterm, hinteren Schaedelgrube is an umlsterm
|
DerNervenarzt.90700357.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Wir berichten ueber einen 72jaehrigen Patienten , bei dem nach einem mittelschweren Schaedel-Hirn-Trauma eine bilaterale Hypoglossusparese ohne sonstige neurologische Defizite auftrat , die sich klinisch innerhalb von 3 Monaten vollstaendig zurueckbildete . Da sich computertomographisch keine Schaedelbasisfraktur im Bereich der hinteren Schaedelgrube nachweisen liess , diskutieren wir eine beidseitige Zerrung des N. hypoglossus als einen moeglichen pathogenetischen Mechanismus .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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"O",
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Wir berichten ueber einen 72jaehrigen Patienten , bei dem nach einem mittelschweren Schaedel-Hirn-Trauma eine bilaterale Hypoglossusparese ohne sonstige neurologische Defizite auftrat , die sich klinisch innerhalb von 3 Monaten vollstaendig zurueckbildete . Da sich computertomographisch keine Schaedelbasisfraktur im Bereich der hinteren Schaedelgrube nachweisen liess , diskutieren wir eine beidseitige Zerrung des N. hypoglossus als einen moeglichen pathogenetischen Mechanismus .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Patienten is an umlsterm, Schaedel - Hirn - Trauma is an umlsterm, neurologische Defizite is an umlsterm, hinteren Schaedelgrube is an umlsterm
|
DerNervenarzt.90700357.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Wir berichten ueber einen 72jaehrigen Patienten , bei dem nach einem mittelschweren Schaedel-Hirn-Trauma eine bilaterale Hypoglossusparese ohne sonstige neurologische Defizite auftrat , die sich klinisch innerhalb von 3 Monaten vollstaendig zurueckbildete . Da sich computertomographisch keine Schaedelbasisfraktur im Bereich der hinteren Schaedelgrube nachweisen liess , diskutieren wir eine beidseitige Zerrung des N. hypoglossus als einen moeglichen pathogenetischen Mechanismus .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Patienten, Schaedel - Hirn - Trauma, neurologische Defizite, hinteren Schaedelgrube
Options: umlsterm
|
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Wir berichten ueber einen 72jaehrigen Patienten , bei dem nach einem mittelschweren Schaedel-Hirn-Trauma eine bilaterale Hypoglossusparese ohne sonstige neurologische Defizite auftrat , die sich klinisch innerhalb von 3 Monaten vollstaendig zurueckbildete . Da sich computertomographisch keine Schaedelbasisfraktur im Bereich der hinteren Schaedelgrube nachweisen liess , diskutieren wir eine beidseitige Zerrung des N. hypoglossus als einen moeglichen pathogenetischen Mechanismus .
|
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Patienten, Schaedel - Hirn - Trauma, neurologische Defizite, hinteren Schaedelgrube
|
DerNervenarzt.90700357.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Wir berichten ueber einen 72jaehrigen Patienten , bei dem nach einem mittelschweren Schaedel-Hirn-Trauma eine bilaterale Hypoglossusparese ohne sonstige neurologische Defizite auftrat , die sich klinisch innerhalb von 3 Monaten vollstaendig zurueckbildete . Da sich computertomographisch keine Schaedelbasisfraktur im Bereich der hinteren Schaedelgrube nachweisen liess , diskutieren wir eine beidseitige Zerrung des N. hypoglossus als einen moeglichen pathogenetischen Mechanismus .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Wir berichten ueber einen 72jaehrigen Patienten , bei dem nach einem mittelschweren Schaedel-Hirn-Trauma eine bilaterale Hypoglossusparese ohne sonstige neurologische Defizite auftrat , die sich klinisch innerhalb von 3 Monaten vollstaendig zurueckbildete . Da sich computertomographisch keine Schaedelbasisfraktur im Bereich der hinteren Schaedelgrube nachweisen liess , diskutieren wir eine beidseitige Zerrung des N. hypoglossus als einen moeglichen pathogenetischen Mechanismus .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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dermatitis is an umlsterm, lines is an umlsterm, adult is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, woman is an umlsterm, dermatitis is an umlsterm, face is an umlsterm, limbs is an umlsterm, antinuclear antibodies is an umlsterm, dermatitis is an umlsterm, lines is an umlsterm, hamartoma is an umlsterm, disease is an umlsterm, mosaicism is an umlsterm, viral infection is an umlsterm, T - cell is an umlsterm, autoimmune diseases is an umlsterm, antinuclear antibodies is an umlsterm, dermatitis is an umlsterm, disease is an umlsterm
|
DerHautarzt.00510774.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: E. Grosshans and L. Marot first described blaschkitis in 1990 as a linear inflammatory dermatitis following lines of Blaschko in an adult patient . We report another case which occurred in a 38-year-old woman who developed an extensive , linear , erythematosquamous dermatitis involving the face , all limbs and the trunk . The patient's serum tested positive for antinuclear antibodies at a dilution of 1:640 . The lesions regressed spontaneously within 4 weeks . Blaschkitis is a distinct entity which corresponds neither to a known inflammatory dermatitis in the lines of Blaschko nor to an hamartoma nor to an X-linked disease . Cutaneous antigenic mosaicism , the expression of which might be induced by a viral infection , could trigger this localized inflammatory T-cell response . This hypothesis relates blaschkitis to other cutaneous autoimmune diseases , as does the presence of antinuclear antibodies . We therefore suggest renaming this type of inflammatory dermatitis Grosshans-Marot disease in honour to the dermatologists who first described the entity .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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E. Grosshans and L. Marot first described blaschkitis in 1990 as a linear inflammatory dermatitis following lines of Blaschko in an adult patient . We report another case which occurred in a 38-year-old woman who developed an extensive , linear , erythematosquamous dermatitis involving the face , all limbs and the trunk . The patient's serum tested positive for antinuclear antibodies at a dilution of 1:640 . The lesions regressed spontaneously within 4 weeks . Blaschkitis is a distinct entity which corresponds neither to a known inflammatory dermatitis in the lines of Blaschko nor to an hamartoma nor to an X-linked disease . Cutaneous antigenic mosaicism , the expression of which might be induced by a viral infection , could trigger this localized inflammatory T-cell response . This hypothesis relates blaschkitis to other cutaneous autoimmune diseases , as does the presence of antinuclear antibodies . We therefore suggest renaming this type of inflammatory dermatitis Grosshans-Marot disease in honour to the dermatologists who first described the entity .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
dermatitis is an umlsterm, lines is an umlsterm, adult is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, woman is an umlsterm, dermatitis is an umlsterm, face is an umlsterm, limbs is an umlsterm, antinuclear antibodies is an umlsterm, dermatitis is an umlsterm, lines is an umlsterm, hamartoma is an umlsterm, disease is an umlsterm, mosaicism is an umlsterm, viral infection is an umlsterm, T - cell is an umlsterm, autoimmune diseases is an umlsterm, antinuclear antibodies is an umlsterm, dermatitis is an umlsterm, disease is an umlsterm
|
DerHautarzt.00510774.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: E. Grosshans and L. Marot first described blaschkitis in 1990 as a linear inflammatory dermatitis following lines of Blaschko in an adult patient . We report another case which occurred in a 38-year-old woman who developed an extensive , linear , erythematosquamous dermatitis involving the face , all limbs and the trunk . The patient's serum tested positive for antinuclear antibodies at a dilution of 1:640 . The lesions regressed spontaneously within 4 weeks . Blaschkitis is a distinct entity which corresponds neither to a known inflammatory dermatitis in the lines of Blaschko nor to an hamartoma nor to an X-linked disease . Cutaneous antigenic mosaicism , the expression of which might be induced by a viral infection , could trigger this localized inflammatory T-cell response . This hypothesis relates blaschkitis to other cutaneous autoimmune diseases , as does the presence of antinuclear antibodies . We therefore suggest renaming this type of inflammatory dermatitis Grosshans-Marot disease in honour to the dermatologists who first described the entity .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: dermatitis, lines, adult, patient, woman, dermatitis, face, limbs, antinuclear antibodies, dermatitis, lines, hamartoma, disease, mosaicism, viral infection, T - cell, autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies, dermatitis, disease
Options: umlsterm
|
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] |
E. Grosshans and L. Marot first described blaschkitis in 1990 as a linear inflammatory dermatitis following lines of Blaschko in an adult patient . We report another case which occurred in a 38-year-old woman who developed an extensive , linear , erythematosquamous dermatitis involving the face , all limbs and the trunk . The patient's serum tested positive for antinuclear antibodies at a dilution of 1:640 . The lesions regressed spontaneously within 4 weeks . Blaschkitis is a distinct entity which corresponds neither to a known inflammatory dermatitis in the lines of Blaschko nor to an hamartoma nor to an X-linked disease . Cutaneous antigenic mosaicism , the expression of which might be induced by a viral infection , could trigger this localized inflammatory T-cell response . This hypothesis relates blaschkitis to other cutaneous autoimmune diseases , as does the presence of antinuclear antibodies . We therefore suggest renaming this type of inflammatory dermatitis Grosshans-Marot disease in honour to the dermatologists who first described the entity .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
dermatitis, lines, adult, patient, woman, dermatitis, face, limbs, antinuclear antibodies, dermatitis, lines, hamartoma, disease, mosaicism, viral infection, T - cell, autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies, dermatitis, disease
|
DerHautarzt.00510774.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: E. Grosshans and L. Marot first described blaschkitis in 1990 as a linear inflammatory dermatitis following lines of Blaschko in an adult patient . We report another case which occurred in a 38-year-old woman who developed an extensive , linear , erythematosquamous dermatitis involving the face , all limbs and the trunk . The patient's serum tested positive for antinuclear antibodies at a dilution of 1:640 . The lesions regressed spontaneously within 4 weeks . Blaschkitis is a distinct entity which corresponds neither to a known inflammatory dermatitis in the lines of Blaschko nor to an hamartoma nor to an X-linked disease . Cutaneous antigenic mosaicism , the expression of which might be induced by a viral infection , could trigger this localized inflammatory T-cell response . This hypothesis relates blaschkitis to other cutaneous autoimmune diseases , as does the presence of antinuclear antibodies . We therefore suggest renaming this type of inflammatory dermatitis Grosshans-Marot disease in honour to the dermatologists who first described the entity .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"B-umlsterm",
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] |
E. Grosshans and L. Marot first described blaschkitis in 1990 as a linear inflammatory dermatitis following lines of Blaschko in an adult patient . We report another case which occurred in a 38-year-old woman who developed an extensive , linear , erythematosquamous dermatitis involving the face , all limbs and the trunk . The patient's serum tested positive for antinuclear antibodies at a dilution of 1:640 . The lesions regressed spontaneously within 4 weeks . Blaschkitis is a distinct entity which corresponds neither to a known inflammatory dermatitis in the lines of Blaschko nor to an hamartoma nor to an X-linked disease . Cutaneous antigenic mosaicism , the expression of which might be induced by a viral infection , could trigger this localized inflammatory T-cell response . This hypothesis relates blaschkitis to other cutaneous autoimmune diseases , as does the presence of antinuclear antibodies . We therefore suggest renaming this type of inflammatory dermatitis Grosshans-Marot disease in honour to the dermatologists who first described the entity .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
WNT6 is a GENE-Y, caveolin-1 is a GENE-Y, epirubicin is a CHEMICAL, Wingless - type MMTV integration site family members is a GENE-N, WNTs is a GENE-N, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, caveolin-1 is a GENE-Y, Cav1 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, anthracycline is a CHEMICAL, epirubicin is a CHEMICAL, Epi is a CHEMICAL, doxorubicin is a CHEMICAL, Dox is a CHEMICAL, Epi is a CHEMICAL, human WNT6 promoter is a GENE-N, β - catenin is a GENE-Y, WNT6 promoter is a GENE-N, Epi is a CHEMICAL, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, Wnt6 is a GENE-Y, Cav1 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, Epi is a CHEMICAL, cisplatin is a CHEMICAL, 5-fluorouracil is a CHEMICAL, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, Cav1 is a GENE-Y, anthracycline is a CHEMICAL, WNT6 is a GENE-Y
|
21656_task0
|
Sentence: WNT6 is a novel target gene of caveolin-1 promoting chemoresistance to epirubicin in human gastric cancer cells.
Resistance to chemotherapy is a major obstacle for curative treatment of human gastric cancer (GC). However, the underlying molecular mechanisms are largely unknown. Wingless-type MMTV integration site family members (WNTs) are secreted glycoproteins involved in embryogenesis and, on inappropriate expression in the adult, in cancer. Here, we show expression of WNT6 in GC patient specimens, human GC cell lines and in a mouse model of GC. In human GC cells, WNT6 expression was enhanced by caveolin-1 (Cav1), a scaffold protein of plasma membrane caveolae. WNT6 knock-down and overexpression experiments demonstrated that WNT6 increased the resistance to apoptotic cell death induced by the anthracycline chemotherapeutics epirubicin (Epi) and doxorubicin (Dox). Epi increased the activity of the human WNT6 promoter through Cav1-dependent binding of β-catenin to the proximal WNT6 promoter. Epi increased both WNT6/Wnt6 and Cav1 expression in human GC cells and within the tumor area of a murine model of GC (CEA424-SV40 TAg). In GC patients, WNT6 expression was positively associated with the tumor stage and the nodal status, and inversely correlated with the response to ECF (Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil) chemotherapy. These results showed that WNT6 and Cav1 are upregulated by chemotherapeutics and enhance the resistance of GC cells to anthracycline drugs. Understanding the molecular mechanisms driving WNT6/Cav1-induced drug resistance will provide benefits in developing new therapies for GC.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: GENE-N, GENE-Y, CHEMICAL
|
[
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"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"B-CHEMICAL",
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"O",
"O",
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WNT6 is a novel target gene of caveolin-1 promoting chemoresistance to epirubicin in human gastric cancer cells.
Resistance to chemotherapy is a major obstacle for curative treatment of human gastric cancer (GC). However, the underlying molecular mechanisms are largely unknown. Wingless-type MMTV integration site family members (WNTs) are secreted glycoproteins involved in embryogenesis and, on inappropriate expression in the adult, in cancer. Here, we show expression of WNT6 in GC patient specimens, human GC cell lines and in a mouse model of GC. In human GC cells, WNT6 expression was enhanced by caveolin-1 (Cav1), a scaffold protein of plasma membrane caveolae. WNT6 knock-down and overexpression experiments demonstrated that WNT6 increased the resistance to apoptotic cell death induced by the anthracycline chemotherapeutics epirubicin (Epi) and doxorubicin (Dox). Epi increased the activity of the human WNT6 promoter through Cav1-dependent binding of β-catenin to the proximal WNT6 promoter. Epi increased both WNT6/Wnt6 and Cav1 expression in human GC cells and within the tumor area of a murine model of GC (CEA424-SV40 TAg). In GC patients, WNT6 expression was positively associated with the tumor stage and the nodal status, and inversely correlated with the response to ECF (Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil) chemotherapy. These results showed that WNT6 and Cav1 are upregulated by chemotherapeutics and enhance the resistance of GC cells to anthracycline drugs. Understanding the molecular mechanisms driving WNT6/Cav1-induced drug resistance will provide benefits in developing new therapies for GC.
|
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WNT6 is a GENE-Y, caveolin-1 is a GENE-Y, epirubicin is a CHEMICAL, Wingless - type MMTV integration site family members is a GENE-N, WNTs is a GENE-N, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, caveolin-1 is a GENE-Y, Cav1 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, anthracycline is a CHEMICAL, epirubicin is a CHEMICAL, Epi is a CHEMICAL, doxorubicin is a CHEMICAL, Dox is a CHEMICAL, Epi is a CHEMICAL, human WNT6 promoter is a GENE-N, β - catenin is a GENE-Y, WNT6 promoter is a GENE-N, Epi is a CHEMICAL, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, Wnt6 is a GENE-Y, Cav1 is a GENE-Y, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, Epi is a CHEMICAL, cisplatin is a CHEMICAL, 5-fluorouracil is a CHEMICAL, WNT6 is a GENE-Y, Cav1 is a GENE-Y, anthracycline is a CHEMICAL, WNT6 is a GENE-Y
|
21656_task1
|
Sentence: WNT6 is a novel target gene of caveolin-1 promoting chemoresistance to epirubicin in human gastric cancer cells.
Resistance to chemotherapy is a major obstacle for curative treatment of human gastric cancer (GC). However, the underlying molecular mechanisms are largely unknown. Wingless-type MMTV integration site family members (WNTs) are secreted glycoproteins involved in embryogenesis and, on inappropriate expression in the adult, in cancer. Here, we show expression of WNT6 in GC patient specimens, human GC cell lines and in a mouse model of GC. In human GC cells, WNT6 expression was enhanced by caveolin-1 (Cav1), a scaffold protein of plasma membrane caveolae. WNT6 knock-down and overexpression experiments demonstrated that WNT6 increased the resistance to apoptotic cell death induced by the anthracycline chemotherapeutics epirubicin (Epi) and doxorubicin (Dox). Epi increased the activity of the human WNT6 promoter through Cav1-dependent binding of β-catenin to the proximal WNT6 promoter. Epi increased both WNT6/Wnt6 and Cav1 expression in human GC cells and within the tumor area of a murine model of GC (CEA424-SV40 TAg). In GC patients, WNT6 expression was positively associated with the tumor stage and the nodal status, and inversely correlated with the response to ECF (Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil) chemotherapy. These results showed that WNT6 and Cav1 are upregulated by chemotherapeutics and enhance the resistance of GC cells to anthracycline drugs. Understanding the molecular mechanisms driving WNT6/Cav1-induced drug resistance will provide benefits in developing new therapies for GC.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: WNT6, caveolin-1, epirubicin, Wingless - type MMTV integration site family members, WNTs, WNT6, WNT6, caveolin-1, Cav1, WNT6, WNT6, anthracycline, epirubicin, Epi, doxorubicin, Dox, Epi, human WNT6 promoter, β - catenin, WNT6 promoter, Epi, WNT6, Wnt6, Cav1, WNT6, Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil, WNT6, Cav1, anthracycline, WNT6
Options: GENE-N, GENE-Y, CHEMICAL
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WNT6 is a novel target gene of caveolin-1 promoting chemoresistance to epirubicin in human gastric cancer cells.
Resistance to chemotherapy is a major obstacle for curative treatment of human gastric cancer (GC). However, the underlying molecular mechanisms are largely unknown. Wingless-type MMTV integration site family members (WNTs) are secreted glycoproteins involved in embryogenesis and, on inappropriate expression in the adult, in cancer. Here, we show expression of WNT6 in GC patient specimens, human GC cell lines and in a mouse model of GC. In human GC cells, WNT6 expression was enhanced by caveolin-1 (Cav1), a scaffold protein of plasma membrane caveolae. WNT6 knock-down and overexpression experiments demonstrated that WNT6 increased the resistance to apoptotic cell death induced by the anthracycline chemotherapeutics epirubicin (Epi) and doxorubicin (Dox). Epi increased the activity of the human WNT6 promoter through Cav1-dependent binding of β-catenin to the proximal WNT6 promoter. Epi increased both WNT6/Wnt6 and Cav1 expression in human GC cells and within the tumor area of a murine model of GC (CEA424-SV40 TAg). In GC patients, WNT6 expression was positively associated with the tumor stage and the nodal status, and inversely correlated with the response to ECF (Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil) chemotherapy. These results showed that WNT6 and Cav1 are upregulated by chemotherapeutics and enhance the resistance of GC cells to anthracycline drugs. Understanding the molecular mechanisms driving WNT6/Cav1-induced drug resistance will provide benefits in developing new therapies for GC.
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[
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WNT6, caveolin-1, epirubicin, Wingless - type MMTV integration site family members, WNTs, WNT6, WNT6, caveolin-1, Cav1, WNT6, WNT6, anthracycline, epirubicin, Epi, doxorubicin, Dox, Epi, human WNT6 promoter, β - catenin, WNT6 promoter, Epi, WNT6, Wnt6, Cav1, WNT6, Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil, WNT6, Cav1, anthracycline, WNT6
|
21656_task2
|
Sentence: WNT6 is a novel target gene of caveolin-1 promoting chemoresistance to epirubicin in human gastric cancer cells.
Resistance to chemotherapy is a major obstacle for curative treatment of human gastric cancer (GC). However, the underlying molecular mechanisms are largely unknown. Wingless-type MMTV integration site family members (WNTs) are secreted glycoproteins involved in embryogenesis and, on inappropriate expression in the adult, in cancer. Here, we show expression of WNT6 in GC patient specimens, human GC cell lines and in a mouse model of GC. In human GC cells, WNT6 expression was enhanced by caveolin-1 (Cav1), a scaffold protein of plasma membrane caveolae. WNT6 knock-down and overexpression experiments demonstrated that WNT6 increased the resistance to apoptotic cell death induced by the anthracycline chemotherapeutics epirubicin (Epi) and doxorubicin (Dox). Epi increased the activity of the human WNT6 promoter through Cav1-dependent binding of β-catenin to the proximal WNT6 promoter. Epi increased both WNT6/Wnt6 and Cav1 expression in human GC cells and within the tumor area of a murine model of GC (CEA424-SV40 TAg). In GC patients, WNT6 expression was positively associated with the tumor stage and the nodal status, and inversely correlated with the response to ECF (Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil) chemotherapy. These results showed that WNT6 and Cav1 are upregulated by chemotherapeutics and enhance the resistance of GC cells to anthracycline drugs. Understanding the molecular mechanisms driving WNT6/Cav1-induced drug resistance will provide benefits in developing new therapies for GC.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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WNT6 is a novel target gene of caveolin-1 promoting chemoresistance to epirubicin in human gastric cancer cells.
Resistance to chemotherapy is a major obstacle for curative treatment of human gastric cancer (GC). However, the underlying molecular mechanisms are largely unknown. Wingless-type MMTV integration site family members (WNTs) are secreted glycoproteins involved in embryogenesis and, on inappropriate expression in the adult, in cancer. Here, we show expression of WNT6 in GC patient specimens, human GC cell lines and in a mouse model of GC. In human GC cells, WNT6 expression was enhanced by caveolin-1 (Cav1), a scaffold protein of plasma membrane caveolae. WNT6 knock-down and overexpression experiments demonstrated that WNT6 increased the resistance to apoptotic cell death induced by the anthracycline chemotherapeutics epirubicin (Epi) and doxorubicin (Dox). Epi increased the activity of the human WNT6 promoter through Cav1-dependent binding of β-catenin to the proximal WNT6 promoter. Epi increased both WNT6/Wnt6 and Cav1 expression in human GC cells and within the tumor area of a murine model of GC (CEA424-SV40 TAg). In GC patients, WNT6 expression was positively associated with the tumor stage and the nodal status, and inversely correlated with the response to ECF (Epi, cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil) chemotherapy. These results showed that WNT6 and Cav1 are upregulated by chemotherapeutics and enhance the resistance of GC cells to anthracycline drugs. Understanding the molecular mechanisms driving WNT6/Cav1-induced drug resistance will provide benefits in developing new therapies for GC.
|
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] |
[
"GENE-N",
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] |
treatment is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, bronchial asthma is an umlsterm, literature is an umlsterm, clinical studies is an umlsterm, evaluation is an umlsterm, treatment is an umlsterm, bronchial asthma is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, Acupuncture is an umlsterm, Homoeopathy is an umlsterm, Yoga is an umlsterm, Hypnosis is an umlsterm, Autogenic training is an umlsterm, Muscle relaxation is an umlsterm, treatment is an umlsterm, Manual is an umlsterm, medicine is an umlsterm, air is an umlsterm, clinical studies is an umlsterm, Yoga is an umlsterm, Hypnosis is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, therapeutic is an umlsterm, asthma is an umlsterm
|
MonatsschriftKinderheilkunde.71450786.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Some of the most widely used alternative treatment methods for bronchial asthma are discussed . The relevant literature , especially controlled clinical studies for the evaluation of effectiveness , are reviewed . After briefly discussing definitions , sociodemographic data , and strategies to evaluate any treatment of bronchial asthma , the following methods are reviewed : Acupuncture , Homoeopathy , Yoga , Hypnosis , Autogenic training , Muscle relaxation treatment , Manual medicine , Ionisation of air , and Bioresonance . In summary , decently done clinical studies are scarce , and results , more often than not , are contradictory ; Yoga , and possibly also Hypnosis , might be exceptions in this generally poor scientific profile ; these two methods might have some therapeutic efficacy in asthma .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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Some of the most widely used alternative treatment methods for bronchial asthma are discussed . The relevant literature , especially controlled clinical studies for the evaluation of effectiveness , are reviewed . After briefly discussing definitions , sociodemographic data , and strategies to evaluate any treatment of bronchial asthma , the following methods are reviewed : Acupuncture , Homoeopathy , Yoga , Hypnosis , Autogenic training , Muscle relaxation treatment , Manual medicine , Ionisation of air , and Bioresonance . In summary , decently done clinical studies are scarce , and results , more often than not , are contradictory ; Yoga , and possibly also Hypnosis , might be exceptions in this generally poor scientific profile ; these two methods might have some therapeutic efficacy in asthma .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
treatment is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, bronchial asthma is an umlsterm, literature is an umlsterm, clinical studies is an umlsterm, evaluation is an umlsterm, treatment is an umlsterm, bronchial asthma is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, Acupuncture is an umlsterm, Homoeopathy is an umlsterm, Yoga is an umlsterm, Hypnosis is an umlsterm, Autogenic training is an umlsterm, Muscle relaxation is an umlsterm, treatment is an umlsterm, Manual is an umlsterm, medicine is an umlsterm, air is an umlsterm, clinical studies is an umlsterm, Yoga is an umlsterm, Hypnosis is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, therapeutic is an umlsterm, asthma is an umlsterm
|
MonatsschriftKinderheilkunde.71450786.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Some of the most widely used alternative treatment methods for bronchial asthma are discussed . The relevant literature , especially controlled clinical studies for the evaluation of effectiveness , are reviewed . After briefly discussing definitions , sociodemographic data , and strategies to evaluate any treatment of bronchial asthma , the following methods are reviewed : Acupuncture , Homoeopathy , Yoga , Hypnosis , Autogenic training , Muscle relaxation treatment , Manual medicine , Ionisation of air , and Bioresonance . In summary , decently done clinical studies are scarce , and results , more often than not , are contradictory ; Yoga , and possibly also Hypnosis , might be exceptions in this generally poor scientific profile ; these two methods might have some therapeutic efficacy in asthma .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: treatment, methods, bronchial asthma, literature, clinical studies, evaluation, treatment, bronchial asthma, methods, Acupuncture, Homoeopathy, Yoga, Hypnosis, Autogenic training, Muscle relaxation, treatment, Manual, medicine, air, clinical studies, Yoga, Hypnosis, methods, therapeutic, asthma
Options: umlsterm
|
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Some of the most widely used alternative treatment methods for bronchial asthma are discussed . The relevant literature , especially controlled clinical studies for the evaluation of effectiveness , are reviewed . After briefly discussing definitions , sociodemographic data , and strategies to evaluate any treatment of bronchial asthma , the following methods are reviewed : Acupuncture , Homoeopathy , Yoga , Hypnosis , Autogenic training , Muscle relaxation treatment , Manual medicine , Ionisation of air , and Bioresonance . In summary , decently done clinical studies are scarce , and results , more often than not , are contradictory ; Yoga , and possibly also Hypnosis , might be exceptions in this generally poor scientific profile ; these two methods might have some therapeutic efficacy in asthma .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
treatment, methods, bronchial asthma, literature, clinical studies, evaluation, treatment, bronchial asthma, methods, Acupuncture, Homoeopathy, Yoga, Hypnosis, Autogenic training, Muscle relaxation, treatment, Manual, medicine, air, clinical studies, Yoga, Hypnosis, methods, therapeutic, asthma
|
MonatsschriftKinderheilkunde.71450786.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Some of the most widely used alternative treatment methods for bronchial asthma are discussed . The relevant literature , especially controlled clinical studies for the evaluation of effectiveness , are reviewed . After briefly discussing definitions , sociodemographic data , and strategies to evaluate any treatment of bronchial asthma , the following methods are reviewed : Acupuncture , Homoeopathy , Yoga , Hypnosis , Autogenic training , Muscle relaxation treatment , Manual medicine , Ionisation of air , and Bioresonance . In summary , decently done clinical studies are scarce , and results , more often than not , are contradictory ; Yoga , and possibly also Hypnosis , might be exceptions in this generally poor scientific profile ; these two methods might have some therapeutic efficacy in asthma .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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"O"
] |
Some of the most widely used alternative treatment methods for bronchial asthma are discussed . The relevant literature , especially controlled clinical studies for the evaluation of effectiveness , are reviewed . After briefly discussing definitions , sociodemographic data , and strategies to evaluate any treatment of bronchial asthma , the following methods are reviewed : Acupuncture , Homoeopathy , Yoga , Hypnosis , Autogenic training , Muscle relaxation treatment , Manual medicine , Ionisation of air , and Bioresonance . In summary , decently done clinical studies are scarce , and results , more often than not , are contradictory ; Yoga , and possibly also Hypnosis , might be exceptions in this generally poor scientific profile ; these two methods might have some therapeutic efficacy in asthma .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Krankengut is an umlsterm, Stenosen is an umlsterm, Dickdarmbereich is an umlsterm, Enterostomien is an umlsterm, Methode is an umlsterm, Darmabschnitt is an umlsterm, Risiken is an umlsterm, Stomaanlage is an umlsterm
|
DerChirurg.00710307.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Unter 43 Faellen eines Neugeborenenileus legten wir 27 mal eine Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose an , 19 davon primaer und 8 im Rahmen eines Sekundaereingriffs . Sie ist sicherer als die primaere End-zu-End- oder End-zu-Seit-Anastomose . Nur in einem Falle kam es in unserem Krankengut zu einer Anastomoseninsuffizienz . Wir wenden die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose nicht nur beim Meconiumileus , sondern auch bei anderen Atresien und Stenosen im Duenn- und Dickdarmbereich an oder wenn es gilt , grosse Kaliberspruenge zu ueberwinden . Auch bei der Rueckverlegung laenger bestehender doppellaeufiger Enterostomien ist sie fuer uns die Methode der Wahl , da auch in diesen Faellen haeufig grosse Kaliberunterschiede zwischen dem oralen und aboralen Darmabschnitt bestehen . Die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose mindert die Risiken einer primaeren Anastomosierung ohne Stomaanlage erheblich , der spaetere Stomaverschluss erfolgt extraperitoneal und ist dadurch unproblematisch .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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Zusammenfassung . Unter 43 Faellen eines Neugeborenenileus legten wir 27 mal eine Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose an , 19 davon primaer und 8 im Rahmen eines Sekundaereingriffs . Sie ist sicherer als die primaere End-zu-End- oder End-zu-Seit-Anastomose . Nur in einem Falle kam es in unserem Krankengut zu einer Anastomoseninsuffizienz . Wir wenden die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose nicht nur beim Meconiumileus , sondern auch bei anderen Atresien und Stenosen im Duenn- und Dickdarmbereich an oder wenn es gilt , grosse Kaliberspruenge zu ueberwinden . Auch bei der Rueckverlegung laenger bestehender doppellaeufiger Enterostomien ist sie fuer uns die Methode der Wahl , da auch in diesen Faellen haeufig grosse Kaliberunterschiede zwischen dem oralen und aboralen Darmabschnitt bestehen . Die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose mindert die Risiken einer primaeren Anastomosierung ohne Stomaanlage erheblich , der spaetere Stomaverschluss erfolgt extraperitoneal und ist dadurch unproblematisch .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Krankengut is an umlsterm, Stenosen is an umlsterm, Dickdarmbereich is an umlsterm, Enterostomien is an umlsterm, Methode is an umlsterm, Darmabschnitt is an umlsterm, Risiken is an umlsterm, Stomaanlage is an umlsterm
|
DerChirurg.00710307.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Unter 43 Faellen eines Neugeborenenileus legten wir 27 mal eine Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose an , 19 davon primaer und 8 im Rahmen eines Sekundaereingriffs . Sie ist sicherer als die primaere End-zu-End- oder End-zu-Seit-Anastomose . Nur in einem Falle kam es in unserem Krankengut zu einer Anastomoseninsuffizienz . Wir wenden die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose nicht nur beim Meconiumileus , sondern auch bei anderen Atresien und Stenosen im Duenn- und Dickdarmbereich an oder wenn es gilt , grosse Kaliberspruenge zu ueberwinden . Auch bei der Rueckverlegung laenger bestehender doppellaeufiger Enterostomien ist sie fuer uns die Methode der Wahl , da auch in diesen Faellen haeufig grosse Kaliberunterschiede zwischen dem oralen und aboralen Darmabschnitt bestehen . Die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose mindert die Risiken einer primaeren Anastomosierung ohne Stomaanlage erheblich , der spaetere Stomaverschluss erfolgt extraperitoneal und ist dadurch unproblematisch .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Krankengut, Stenosen, Dickdarmbereich, Enterostomien, Methode, Darmabschnitt, Risiken, Stomaanlage
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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Zusammenfassung . Unter 43 Faellen eines Neugeborenenileus legten wir 27 mal eine Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose an , 19 davon primaer und 8 im Rahmen eines Sekundaereingriffs . Sie ist sicherer als die primaere End-zu-End- oder End-zu-Seit-Anastomose . Nur in einem Falle kam es in unserem Krankengut zu einer Anastomoseninsuffizienz . Wir wenden die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose nicht nur beim Meconiumileus , sondern auch bei anderen Atresien und Stenosen im Duenn- und Dickdarmbereich an oder wenn es gilt , grosse Kaliberspruenge zu ueberwinden . Auch bei der Rueckverlegung laenger bestehender doppellaeufiger Enterostomien ist sie fuer uns die Methode der Wahl , da auch in diesen Faellen haeufig grosse Kaliberunterschiede zwischen dem oralen und aboralen Darmabschnitt bestehen . Die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose mindert die Risiken einer primaeren Anastomosierung ohne Stomaanlage erheblich , der spaetere Stomaverschluss erfolgt extraperitoneal und ist dadurch unproblematisch .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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Krankengut, Stenosen, Dickdarmbereich, Enterostomien, Methode, Darmabschnitt, Risiken, Stomaanlage
|
DerChirurg.00710307.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Zusammenfassung . Unter 43 Faellen eines Neugeborenenileus legten wir 27 mal eine Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose an , 19 davon primaer und 8 im Rahmen eines Sekundaereingriffs . Sie ist sicherer als die primaere End-zu-End- oder End-zu-Seit-Anastomose . Nur in einem Falle kam es in unserem Krankengut zu einer Anastomoseninsuffizienz . Wir wenden die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose nicht nur beim Meconiumileus , sondern auch bei anderen Atresien und Stenosen im Duenn- und Dickdarmbereich an oder wenn es gilt , grosse Kaliberspruenge zu ueberwinden . Auch bei der Rueckverlegung laenger bestehender doppellaeufiger Enterostomien ist sie fuer uns die Methode der Wahl , da auch in diesen Faellen haeufig grosse Kaliberunterschiede zwischen dem oralen und aboralen Darmabschnitt bestehen . Die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose mindert die Risiken einer primaeren Anastomosierung ohne Stomaanlage erheblich , der spaetere Stomaverschluss erfolgt extraperitoneal und ist dadurch unproblematisch .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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] |
Zusammenfassung . Unter 43 Faellen eines Neugeborenenileus legten wir 27 mal eine Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose an , 19 davon primaer und 8 im Rahmen eines Sekundaereingriffs . Sie ist sicherer als die primaere End-zu-End- oder End-zu-Seit-Anastomose . Nur in einem Falle kam es in unserem Krankengut zu einer Anastomoseninsuffizienz . Wir wenden die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose nicht nur beim Meconiumileus , sondern auch bei anderen Atresien und Stenosen im Duenn- und Dickdarmbereich an oder wenn es gilt , grosse Kaliberspruenge zu ueberwinden . Auch bei der Rueckverlegung laenger bestehender doppellaeufiger Enterostomien ist sie fuer uns die Methode der Wahl , da auch in diesen Faellen haeufig grosse Kaliberunterschiede zwischen dem oralen und aboralen Darmabschnitt bestehen . Die Bishop-Koop'sche Anastomose mindert die Risiken einer primaeren Anastomosierung ohne Stomaanlage erheblich , der spaetere Stomaverschluss erfolgt extraperitoneal und ist dadurch unproblematisch .
|
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"grosse",
"Kaliberunterschiede",
"zwischen",
"dem",
"oralen",
"und",
"aboralen",
"Darmabschnitt",
"bestehen",
".",
"Die",
"Bishop",
"-",
"Koop'sche",
"Anastomose",
"mindert",
"die",
"Risiken",
"einer",
"primaeren",
"Anastomosierung",
"ohne",
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"erheblich",
",",
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"Stomaverschluss",
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"extraperitoneal",
"und",
"ist",
"dadurch",
"unproblematisch",
"."
] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Bupropion is a CHEMICAL
|
10991997_task0
|
Sentence: Bupropion is a nicotinic antagonist.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: CHEMICAL
|
[
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Bupropion is a nicotinic antagonist.
|
[
"Bupropion",
"is",
"a",
"nicotinic",
"antagonist",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-N",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
Bupropion is a CHEMICAL
|
10991997_task1
|
Sentence: Bupropion is a nicotinic antagonist.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Bupropion
Options: CHEMICAL
|
[
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Bupropion is a nicotinic antagonist.
|
[
"Bupropion",
"is",
"a",
"nicotinic",
"antagonist",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-N",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
Bupropion
|
10991997_task2
|
Sentence: Bupropion is a nicotinic antagonist.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Bupropion is a nicotinic antagonist.
|
[
"Bupropion",
"is",
"a",
"nicotinic",
"antagonist",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-N",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
COX-2 is a GENE-Y, rofecoxib is a CHEMICAL, Rofecoxib is a CHEMICAL
|
10555907_task0
|
Sentence: Effect of specific COX-2 inhibition in osteoarthritis of the knee: a 6 week double blind, placebo controlled pilot study of rofecoxib. Rofecoxib Osteoarthritis Pilot Study Group.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: GENE-Y, CHEMICAL
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-GENE-Y",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Effect of specific COX-2 inhibition in osteoarthritis of the knee: a 6 week double blind, placebo controlled pilot study of rofecoxib. Rofecoxib Osteoarthritis Pilot Study Group.
|
[
"Effect",
"of",
"specific",
"COX-2",
"inhibition",
"in",
"osteoarthritis",
"of",
"the",
"knee",
":",
"a",
"6",
"week",
"double",
"blind",
",",
"placebo",
"controlled",
"pilot",
"study",
"of",
"rofecoxib",
".",
"Rofecoxib",
"Osteoarthritis",
"Pilot",
"Study",
"Group",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-Y",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
COX-2 is a GENE-Y, rofecoxib is a CHEMICAL, Rofecoxib is a CHEMICAL
|
10555907_task1
|
Sentence: Effect of specific COX-2 inhibition in osteoarthritis of the knee: a 6 week double blind, placebo controlled pilot study of rofecoxib. Rofecoxib Osteoarthritis Pilot Study Group.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: COX-2, rofecoxib, Rofecoxib
Options: GENE-Y, CHEMICAL
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-GENE-Y",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Effect of specific COX-2 inhibition in osteoarthritis of the knee: a 6 week double blind, placebo controlled pilot study of rofecoxib. Rofecoxib Osteoarthritis Pilot Study Group.
|
[
"Effect",
"of",
"specific",
"COX-2",
"inhibition",
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"osteoarthritis",
"of",
"the",
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":",
"a",
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"double",
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"placebo",
"controlled",
"pilot",
"study",
"of",
"rofecoxib",
".",
"Rofecoxib",
"Osteoarthritis",
"Pilot",
"Study",
"Group",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-Y",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
COX-2, rofecoxib, Rofecoxib
|
10555907_task2
|
Sentence: Effect of specific COX-2 inhibition in osteoarthritis of the knee: a 6 week double blind, placebo controlled pilot study of rofecoxib. Rofecoxib Osteoarthritis Pilot Study Group.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-GENE-Y",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"B-CHEMICAL",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Effect of specific COX-2 inhibition in osteoarthritis of the knee: a 6 week double blind, placebo controlled pilot study of rofecoxib. Rofecoxib Osteoarthritis Pilot Study Group.
|
[
"Effect",
"of",
"specific",
"COX-2",
"inhibition",
"in",
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"of",
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"a",
"6",
"week",
"double",
"blind",
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"placebo",
"controlled",
"pilot",
"study",
"of",
"rofecoxib",
".",
"Rofecoxib",
"Osteoarthritis",
"Pilot",
"Study",
"Group",
"."
] |
[
"GENE-Y",
"CHEMICAL"
] |
Abstract is an umlsterm, prevalence is an umlsterm, allergy is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, dental students is an umlsterm, questionnaire is an umlsterm, tests is an umlsterm, determination is an umlsterm, IgE is an umlsterm, antibodies is an umlsterm, tests is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, students is an umlsterm, students is an umlsterm, prevalence is an umlsterm, latex allergy is an umlsterm, history is an umlsterm, glove is an umlsterm, allergy is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, diseases is an umlsterm, hand is an umlsterm, eczema is an umlsterm, causes is an umlsterm, risk factors is an umlsterm, students is an umlsterm, latex allergy is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, test is an umlsterm, determination is an umlsterm, IgE is an umlsterm, antibodies is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm
|
DerHautarzt.50460015.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Abstract . The prevalence of type I allergy against latex was investigated in dental students by questionnaire , prick tests and the determination of specific IgE antibodies . Positive prick tests against different latex fluids were found in 18 ( 8.7% ) of 206 students , with clinical relevance in 11 cases . When the total number of students in each semester was taken into account an increase in the minimal prevalence of clinically relevant latex allergy from 2% in the second semester to 10.4% in the tenth semester was seen . A history of glove intolerance presenting as a wheal-and-flare reaction was associated with a type I allergy against latex in only 50% of the affected subjects . Atopic diseases and hand eczema of different causes proved to be risk factors in 16 and 5 of 18 students with latex allergy , respectively . A high-ammonia accelerator-free latex fluid proved to be a very reliable test medium compared to the less sensitive determination of specific IgE antibodies to latex .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
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"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
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"B-umlsterm",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Abstract . The prevalence of type I allergy against latex was investigated in dental students by questionnaire , prick tests and the determination of specific IgE antibodies . Positive prick tests against different latex fluids were found in 18 ( 8.7% ) of 206 students , with clinical relevance in 11 cases . When the total number of students in each semester was taken into account an increase in the minimal prevalence of clinically relevant latex allergy from 2% in the second semester to 10.4% in the tenth semester was seen . A history of glove intolerance presenting as a wheal-and-flare reaction was associated with a type I allergy against latex in only 50% of the affected subjects . Atopic diseases and hand eczema of different causes proved to be risk factors in 16 and 5 of 18 students with latex allergy , respectively . A high-ammonia accelerator-free latex fluid proved to be a very reliable test medium compared to the less sensitive determination of specific IgE antibodies to latex .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
Abstract is an umlsterm, prevalence is an umlsterm, allergy is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, dental students is an umlsterm, questionnaire is an umlsterm, tests is an umlsterm, determination is an umlsterm, IgE is an umlsterm, antibodies is an umlsterm, tests is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, students is an umlsterm, students is an umlsterm, prevalence is an umlsterm, latex allergy is an umlsterm, history is an umlsterm, glove is an umlsterm, allergy is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, diseases is an umlsterm, hand is an umlsterm, eczema is an umlsterm, causes is an umlsterm, risk factors is an umlsterm, students is an umlsterm, latex allergy is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm, test is an umlsterm, determination is an umlsterm, IgE is an umlsterm, antibodies is an umlsterm, latex is an umlsterm
|
DerHautarzt.50460015.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Abstract . The prevalence of type I allergy against latex was investigated in dental students by questionnaire , prick tests and the determination of specific IgE antibodies . Positive prick tests against different latex fluids were found in 18 ( 8.7% ) of 206 students , with clinical relevance in 11 cases . When the total number of students in each semester was taken into account an increase in the minimal prevalence of clinically relevant latex allergy from 2% in the second semester to 10.4% in the tenth semester was seen . A history of glove intolerance presenting as a wheal-and-flare reaction was associated with a type I allergy against latex in only 50% of the affected subjects . Atopic diseases and hand eczema of different causes proved to be risk factors in 16 and 5 of 18 students with latex allergy , respectively . A high-ammonia accelerator-free latex fluid proved to be a very reliable test medium compared to the less sensitive determination of specific IgE antibodies to latex .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Abstract, prevalence, allergy, latex, dental students, questionnaire, tests, determination, IgE, antibodies, tests, latex, students, students, prevalence, latex allergy, history, glove, allergy, latex, diseases, hand, eczema, causes, risk factors, students, latex allergy, latex, test, determination, IgE, antibodies, latex
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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"B-umlsterm",
"B-umlsterm",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Abstract . The prevalence of type I allergy against latex was investigated in dental students by questionnaire , prick tests and the determination of specific IgE antibodies . Positive prick tests against different latex fluids were found in 18 ( 8.7% ) of 206 students , with clinical relevance in 11 cases . When the total number of students in each semester was taken into account an increase in the minimal prevalence of clinically relevant latex allergy from 2% in the second semester to 10.4% in the tenth semester was seen . A history of glove intolerance presenting as a wheal-and-flare reaction was associated with a type I allergy against latex in only 50% of the affected subjects . Atopic diseases and hand eczema of different causes proved to be risk factors in 16 and 5 of 18 students with latex allergy , respectively . A high-ammonia accelerator-free latex fluid proved to be a very reliable test medium compared to the less sensitive determination of specific IgE antibodies to latex .
|
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Abstract, prevalence, allergy, latex, dental students, questionnaire, tests, determination, IgE, antibodies, tests, latex, students, students, prevalence, latex allergy, history, glove, allergy, latex, diseases, hand, eczema, causes, risk factors, students, latex allergy, latex, test, determination, IgE, antibodies, latex
|
DerHautarzt.50460015.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Abstract . The prevalence of type I allergy against latex was investigated in dental students by questionnaire , prick tests and the determination of specific IgE antibodies . Positive prick tests against different latex fluids were found in 18 ( 8.7% ) of 206 students , with clinical relevance in 11 cases . When the total number of students in each semester was taken into account an increase in the minimal prevalence of clinically relevant latex allergy from 2% in the second semester to 10.4% in the tenth semester was seen . A history of glove intolerance presenting as a wheal-and-flare reaction was associated with a type I allergy against latex in only 50% of the affected subjects . Atopic diseases and hand eczema of different causes proved to be risk factors in 16 and 5 of 18 students with latex allergy , respectively . A high-ammonia accelerator-free latex fluid proved to be a very reliable test medium compared to the less sensitive determination of specific IgE antibodies to latex .
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Abstract . The prevalence of type I allergy against latex was investigated in dental students by questionnaire , prick tests and the determination of specific IgE antibodies . Positive prick tests against different latex fluids were found in 18 ( 8.7% ) of 206 students , with clinical relevance in 11 cases . When the total number of students in each semester was taken into account an increase in the minimal prevalence of clinically relevant latex allergy from 2% in the second semester to 10.4% in the tenth semester was seen . A history of glove intolerance presenting as a wheal-and-flare reaction was associated with a type I allergy against latex in only 50% of the affected subjects . Atopic diseases and hand eczema of different causes proved to be risk factors in 16 and 5 of 18 students with latex allergy , respectively . A high-ammonia accelerator-free latex fluid proved to be a very reliable test medium compared to the less sensitive determination of specific IgE antibodies to latex .
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psychotherapy is an umlsterm, research is an umlsterm, review is an umlsterm, development is an umlsterm, research is an umlsterm, psychology is an umlsterm, adults is an umlsterm, paper is an umlsterm, methods is an umlsterm, assessment is an umlsterm, adult is an umlsterm, role is an umlsterm, clinical studies is an umlsterm, review is an umlsterm
|
Psychotherapeut.60410139.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Attachment theory , originally developed by John Bowlby , becomes increasingly relevant in the field of psychotherapy ( research ) . This review starts with a definition of central concepts and hypotheses of this theory and summarizes results regarding the development as well as correlates of attachment , mainly from research in developmental psychology . Related to adults , attachment theory has to be reconceptualized which is done in another part of this paper . Finally , some common methods for the assessment of adult attachment are described which play an important role in clinical studies ( these will be the content of the part 2 of this review ) .
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Options: umlsterm
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Attachment theory , originally developed by John Bowlby , becomes increasingly relevant in the field of psychotherapy ( research ) . This review starts with a definition of central concepts and hypotheses of this theory and summarizes results regarding the development as well as correlates of attachment , mainly from research in developmental psychology . Related to adults , attachment theory has to be reconceptualized which is done in another part of this paper . Finally , some common methods for the assessment of adult attachment are described which play an important role in clinical studies ( these will be the content of the part 2 of this review ) .
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|
Psychotherapeut.60410139.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Attachment theory , originally developed by John Bowlby , becomes increasingly relevant in the field of psychotherapy ( research ) . This review starts with a definition of central concepts and hypotheses of this theory and summarizes results regarding the development as well as correlates of attachment , mainly from research in developmental psychology . Related to adults , attachment theory has to be reconceptualized which is done in another part of this paper . Finally , some common methods for the assessment of adult attachment are described which play an important role in clinical studies ( these will be the content of the part 2 of this review ) .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: psychotherapy, research, review, development, research, psychology, adults, paper, methods, assessment, adult, role, clinical studies, review
Options: umlsterm
|
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] |
Attachment theory , originally developed by John Bowlby , becomes increasingly relevant in the field of psychotherapy ( research ) . This review starts with a definition of central concepts and hypotheses of this theory and summarizes results regarding the development as well as correlates of attachment , mainly from research in developmental psychology . Related to adults , attachment theory has to be reconceptualized which is done in another part of this paper . Finally , some common methods for the assessment of adult attachment are described which play an important role in clinical studies ( these will be the content of the part 2 of this review ) .
|
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psychotherapy, research, review, development, research, psychology, adults, paper, methods, assessment, adult, role, clinical studies, review
|
Psychotherapeut.60410139.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Attachment theory , originally developed by John Bowlby , becomes increasingly relevant in the field of psychotherapy ( research ) . This review starts with a definition of central concepts and hypotheses of this theory and summarizes results regarding the development as well as correlates of attachment , mainly from research in developmental psychology . Related to adults , attachment theory has to be reconceptualized which is done in another part of this paper . Finally , some common methods for the assessment of adult attachment are described which play an important role in clinical studies ( these will be the content of the part 2 of this review ) .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Attachment theory , originally developed by John Bowlby , becomes increasingly relevant in the field of psychotherapy ( research ) . This review starts with a definition of central concepts and hypotheses of this theory and summarizes results regarding the development as well as correlates of attachment , mainly from research in developmental psychology . Related to adults , attachment theory has to be reconceptualized which is done in another part of this paper . Finally , some common methods for the assessment of adult attachment are described which play an important role in clinical studies ( these will be the content of the part 2 of this review ) .
|
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[
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Hypotension is a Outcome_Physical, iloprost is a Intervention_Pharmacological
|
62153_task0
|
Sentence: Hypotension in response to iloprost , a prostacyclin analogue .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Physical
|
[
"B-Outcome_Physical",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Intervention_Pharmacological",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Hypotension in response to iloprost , a prostacyclin analogue .
|
[
"Hypotension",
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"to",
"iloprost",
",",
"a",
"prostacyclin",
"analogue",
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] |
[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Pharmacological"
] |
Hypotension is a Outcome_Physical, iloprost is a Intervention_Pharmacological
|
62153_task1
|
Sentence: Hypotension in response to iloprost , a prostacyclin analogue .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Hypotension, iloprost
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Physical
|
[
"B-Outcome_Physical",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Intervention_Pharmacological",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Hypotension in response to iloprost , a prostacyclin analogue .
|
[
"Hypotension",
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"iloprost",
",",
"a",
"prostacyclin",
"analogue",
"."
] |
[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Pharmacological"
] |
Hypotension, iloprost
|
62153_task2
|
Sentence: Hypotension in response to iloprost , a prostacyclin analogue .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"B-Outcome_Physical",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Intervention_Pharmacological",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Hypotension in response to iloprost , a prostacyclin analogue .
|
[
"Hypotension",
"in",
"response",
"to",
"iloprost",
",",
"a",
"prostacyclin",
"analogue",
"."
] |
[
"Outcome_Physical",
"Participant_Condition",
"Intervention_Pharmacological"
] |
miRNAs is a Non-Specific_miRNAs, regulation is a Relation_Trigger, neurodegenerative diseases is a Diseases, fragile X syndrome is a Diseases, Alzheimer 's disease is a Diseases, AD is a Diseases, prion disease is a Diseases
|
5697_task0
|
Sentence: In this review article, the molecular mechanisms underlying the role and function of miRNAs in the regulation of genes involved in neurological and neurodegenerative diseases will be discussed, with a focus on the fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer's disease (AD) and prion disease.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Relation_Trigger, Diseases, Non-Specific_miRNAs
|
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In this review article, the molecular mechanisms underlying the role and function of miRNAs in the regulation of genes involved in neurological and neurodegenerative diseases will be discussed, with a focus on the fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer's disease (AD) and prion disease.
|
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miRNAs is a Non-Specific_miRNAs, regulation is a Relation_Trigger, neurodegenerative diseases is a Diseases, fragile X syndrome is a Diseases, Alzheimer 's disease is a Diseases, AD is a Diseases, prion disease is a Diseases
|
5697_task1
|
Sentence: In this review article, the molecular mechanisms underlying the role and function of miRNAs in the regulation of genes involved in neurological and neurodegenerative diseases will be discussed, with a focus on the fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer's disease (AD) and prion disease.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: miRNAs, regulation, neurodegenerative diseases, fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer 's disease, AD, prion disease
Options: Relation_Trigger, Diseases, Non-Specific_miRNAs
|
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In this review article, the molecular mechanisms underlying the role and function of miRNAs in the regulation of genes involved in neurological and neurodegenerative diseases will be discussed, with a focus on the fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer's disease (AD) and prion disease.
|
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[
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miRNAs, regulation, neurodegenerative diseases, fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer 's disease, AD, prion disease
|
5697_task2
|
Sentence: In this review article, the molecular mechanisms underlying the role and function of miRNAs in the regulation of genes involved in neurological and neurodegenerative diseases will be discussed, with a focus on the fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer's disease (AD) and prion disease.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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In this review article, the molecular mechanisms underlying the role and function of miRNAs in the regulation of genes involved in neurological and neurodegenerative diseases will be discussed, with a focus on the fragile X syndrome, Alzheimer's disease (AD) and prion disease.
|
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|
DerNervenarzt.80690519.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Primary intracranial germ cell tumors are rare neurological diseases . Secreting germ cell tumors that predominantly appear in the pineal region are characterized by elevated levels of -HCG and AFP in CSF . Adequate diagnostic and therapeutic regimens of these tumors are still under debate . We present the case of a patient suffering from spinal metastasis of a secreting germ cell tumor with raised levels of -HCG in CSF . Six years before , a pineocytoma of intermediate differentiation had been diagnosed by stereotaxic biopsy . This demonstrates the importance of an early detection of a germ cell neoplasm in case of midline-sized brain-tumors by evaluation of -HCG and AFP in CSF and serum . Today , different therapeutic strategies depending on the histological diagnosis are available and justify a high priority of a surgical tumor biopsy . However , the value of stereotaxic procedures remains controversial . Recently published data gave evidence of a definite improved prognosis of secreting CNS germ cell tumors following combined treatment with high-dose polychemotherapy , surgical resection and radiation of the tumor area . -HCG and AFP may serve as useful markers to enable follow-up of the disease .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
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Primary intracranial germ cell tumors are rare neurological diseases . Secreting germ cell tumors that predominantly appear in the pineal region are characterized by elevated levels of -HCG and AFP in CSF . Adequate diagnostic and therapeutic regimens of these tumors are still under debate . We present the case of a patient suffering from spinal metastasis of a secreting germ cell tumor with raised levels of -HCG in CSF . Six years before , a pineocytoma of intermediate differentiation had been diagnosed by stereotaxic biopsy . This demonstrates the importance of an early detection of a germ cell neoplasm in case of midline-sized brain-tumors by evaluation of -HCG and AFP in CSF and serum . Today , different therapeutic strategies depending on the histological diagnosis are available and justify a high priority of a surgical tumor biopsy . However , the value of stereotaxic procedures remains controversial . Recently published data gave evidence of a definite improved prognosis of secreting CNS germ cell tumors following combined treatment with high-dose polychemotherapy , surgical resection and radiation of the tumor area . -HCG and AFP may serve as useful markers to enable follow-up of the disease .
|
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|
DerNervenarzt.80690519.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Primary intracranial germ cell tumors are rare neurological diseases . Secreting germ cell tumors that predominantly appear in the pineal region are characterized by elevated levels of -HCG and AFP in CSF . Adequate diagnostic and therapeutic regimens of these tumors are still under debate . We present the case of a patient suffering from spinal metastasis of a secreting germ cell tumor with raised levels of -HCG in CSF . Six years before , a pineocytoma of intermediate differentiation had been diagnosed by stereotaxic biopsy . This demonstrates the importance of an early detection of a germ cell neoplasm in case of midline-sized brain-tumors by evaluation of -HCG and AFP in CSF and serum . Today , different therapeutic strategies depending on the histological diagnosis are available and justify a high priority of a surgical tumor biopsy . However , the value of stereotaxic procedures remains controversial . Recently published data gave evidence of a definite improved prognosis of secreting CNS germ cell tumors following combined treatment with high-dose polychemotherapy , surgical resection and radiation of the tumor area . -HCG and AFP may serve as useful markers to enable follow-up of the disease .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: germ cell tumors, neurological diseases, germ cell tumors, pineal, AFP, CSF, diagnostic, therapeutic, tumors, patient, metastasis, germ cell tumor, CSF, pineocytoma, biopsy, germ cell neoplasm, evaluation, AFP, CSF, therapeutic, diagnosis, surgical, tumor, biopsy, value, procedures, prognosis, CNS, germ cell tumors, combined treatment, polychemotherapy, surgical, radiation, tumor, AFP, markers, disease
Options: umlsterm
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Primary intracranial germ cell tumors are rare neurological diseases . Secreting germ cell tumors that predominantly appear in the pineal region are characterized by elevated levels of -HCG and AFP in CSF . Adequate diagnostic and therapeutic regimens of these tumors are still under debate . We present the case of a patient suffering from spinal metastasis of a secreting germ cell tumor with raised levels of -HCG in CSF . Six years before , a pineocytoma of intermediate differentiation had been diagnosed by stereotaxic biopsy . This demonstrates the importance of an early detection of a germ cell neoplasm in case of midline-sized brain-tumors by evaluation of -HCG and AFP in CSF and serum . Today , different therapeutic strategies depending on the histological diagnosis are available and justify a high priority of a surgical tumor biopsy . However , the value of stereotaxic procedures remains controversial . Recently published data gave evidence of a definite improved prognosis of secreting CNS germ cell tumors following combined treatment with high-dose polychemotherapy , surgical resection and radiation of the tumor area . -HCG and AFP may serve as useful markers to enable follow-up of the disease .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
germ cell tumors, neurological diseases, germ cell tumors, pineal, AFP, CSF, diagnostic, therapeutic, tumors, patient, metastasis, germ cell tumor, CSF, pineocytoma, biopsy, germ cell neoplasm, evaluation, AFP, CSF, therapeutic, diagnosis, surgical, tumor, biopsy, value, procedures, prognosis, CNS, germ cell tumors, combined treatment, polychemotherapy, surgical, radiation, tumor, AFP, markers, disease
|
DerNervenarzt.80690519.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Primary intracranial germ cell tumors are rare neurological diseases . Secreting germ cell tumors that predominantly appear in the pineal region are characterized by elevated levels of -HCG and AFP in CSF . Adequate diagnostic and therapeutic regimens of these tumors are still under debate . We present the case of a patient suffering from spinal metastasis of a secreting germ cell tumor with raised levels of -HCG in CSF . Six years before , a pineocytoma of intermediate differentiation had been diagnosed by stereotaxic biopsy . This demonstrates the importance of an early detection of a germ cell neoplasm in case of midline-sized brain-tumors by evaluation of -HCG and AFP in CSF and serum . Today , different therapeutic strategies depending on the histological diagnosis are available and justify a high priority of a surgical tumor biopsy . However , the value of stereotaxic procedures remains controversial . Recently published data gave evidence of a definite improved prognosis of secreting CNS germ cell tumors following combined treatment with high-dose polychemotherapy , surgical resection and radiation of the tumor area . -HCG and AFP may serve as useful markers to enable follow-up of the disease .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O"
] |
Primary intracranial germ cell tumors are rare neurological diseases . Secreting germ cell tumors that predominantly appear in the pineal region are characterized by elevated levels of -HCG and AFP in CSF . Adequate diagnostic and therapeutic regimens of these tumors are still under debate . We present the case of a patient suffering from spinal metastasis of a secreting germ cell tumor with raised levels of -HCG in CSF . Six years before , a pineocytoma of intermediate differentiation had been diagnosed by stereotaxic biopsy . This demonstrates the importance of an early detection of a germ cell neoplasm in case of midline-sized brain-tumors by evaluation of -HCG and AFP in CSF and serum . Today , different therapeutic strategies depending on the histological diagnosis are available and justify a high priority of a surgical tumor biopsy . However , the value of stereotaxic procedures remains controversial . Recently published data gave evidence of a definite improved prognosis of secreting CNS germ cell tumors following combined treatment with high-dose polychemotherapy , surgical resection and radiation of the tumor area . -HCG and AFP may serve as useful markers to enable follow-up of the disease .
|
[
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
profilin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein
|
822_task0
|
Sentence: This shows that structural changes in the poly(L-proline)-binding region of profilin can affect the distantly located actin-binding site.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Individual_protein
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
This shows that structural changes in the poly(L-proline)-binding region of profilin can affect the distantly located actin-binding site.
|
[
"This",
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"distantly",
"located",
"actin",
"-",
"binding",
"site",
"."
] |
[
"Individual_protein"
] |
profilin is a Individual_protein, actin is a Individual_protein
|
822_task1
|
Sentence: This shows that structural changes in the poly(L-proline)-binding region of profilin can affect the distantly located actin-binding site.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: profilin, actin
Options: Individual_protein
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
This shows that structural changes in the poly(L-proline)-binding region of profilin can affect the distantly located actin-binding site.
|
[
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"actin",
"-",
"binding",
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] |
[
"Individual_protein"
] |
profilin, actin
|
822_task2
|
Sentence: This shows that structural changes in the poly(L-proline)-binding region of profilin can affect the distantly located actin-binding site.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
This shows that structural changes in the poly(L-proline)-binding region of profilin can affect the distantly located actin-binding site.
|
[
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"distantly",
"located",
"actin",
"-",
"binding",
"site",
"."
] |
[
"Individual_protein"
] |
analgesia is an umlsterm, surgery is an umlsterm, upper limb is an umlsterm, brachial plexus is an umlsterm, brachial plexus is an umlsterm, anatomic is an umlsterm, clinical study is an umlsterm, patients is an umlsterm
|
DerAnaesthesist.50440339.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Patchy analgesia and incomplete motor blockade sometimes occur during surgery of the upper limb under axillary brachial plexus blockade . To avoid these problems , we sought an alternative approach to the brachial plexus to guarantee reliable anaesthesia . Based on anatomic studies , we undertook a prospective clinical study with 175 patients .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Patchy analgesia and incomplete motor blockade sometimes occur during surgery of the upper limb under axillary brachial plexus blockade . To avoid these problems , we sought an alternative approach to the brachial plexus to guarantee reliable anaesthesia . Based on anatomic studies , we undertook a prospective clinical study with 175 patients .
|
[
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
analgesia is an umlsterm, surgery is an umlsterm, upper limb is an umlsterm, brachial plexus is an umlsterm, brachial plexus is an umlsterm, anatomic is an umlsterm, clinical study is an umlsterm, patients is an umlsterm
|
DerAnaesthesist.50440339.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Patchy analgesia and incomplete motor blockade sometimes occur during surgery of the upper limb under axillary brachial plexus blockade . To avoid these problems , we sought an alternative approach to the brachial plexus to guarantee reliable anaesthesia . Based on anatomic studies , we undertook a prospective clinical study with 175 patients .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: analgesia, surgery, upper limb, brachial plexus, brachial plexus, anatomic, clinical study, patients
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Patchy analgesia and incomplete motor blockade sometimes occur during surgery of the upper limb under axillary brachial plexus blockade . To avoid these problems , we sought an alternative approach to the brachial plexus to guarantee reliable anaesthesia . Based on anatomic studies , we undertook a prospective clinical study with 175 patients .
|
[
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
analgesia, surgery, upper limb, brachial plexus, brachial plexus, anatomic, clinical study, patients
|
DerAnaesthesist.50440339.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Patchy analgesia and incomplete motor blockade sometimes occur during surgery of the upper limb under axillary brachial plexus blockade . To avoid these problems , we sought an alternative approach to the brachial plexus to guarantee reliable anaesthesia . Based on anatomic studies , we undertook a prospective clinical study with 175 patients .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
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"O",
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"O",
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"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O"
] |
Patchy analgesia and incomplete motor blockade sometimes occur during surgery of the upper limb under axillary brachial plexus blockade . To avoid these problems , we sought an alternative approach to the brachial plexus to guarantee reliable anaesthesia . Based on anatomic studies , we undertook a prospective clinical study with 175 patients .
|
[
"Patchy",
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"blockade",
"sometimes",
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"during",
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] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
in - patient is a Visit, spinal fusion procedure is a Procedure, 18 years or older is a Value, post - operative is a Temporal, pain control plan is a Procedure, opioid is a Drug
|
NCT03176316_inc_task0
|
Sentence: Patients will be included if they are having an in-patient spinal fusion procedure, are 18 years or older, post and post-operative pain control plan includes opioid medications.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Temporal, Value, Procedure, Visit, Drug
|
[
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Visit",
"I-Visit",
"I-Visit",
"B-Procedure",
"I-Procedure",
"I-Procedure",
"O",
"O",
"B-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"I-Value",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"I-Temporal",
"B-Procedure",
"I-Procedure",
"I-Procedure",
"O",
"B-Drug",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Patients will be included if they are having an in-patient spinal fusion procedure, are 18 years or older, post and post-operative pain control plan includes opioid medications.
|
[
"Patients",
"will",
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"included",
"if",
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",",
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",",
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"-",
"operative",
"pain",
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"plan",
"includes",
"opioid",
"medications",
".",
"\n"
] |
[
"Procedure",
"Value",
"Temporal",
"Visit",
"Drug",
"Person"
] |
in - patient is a Visit, spinal fusion procedure is a Procedure, 18 years or older is a Value, post - operative is a Temporal, pain control plan is a Procedure, opioid is a Drug
|
NCT03176316_inc_task1
|
Sentence: Patients will be included if they are having an in-patient spinal fusion procedure, are 18 years or older, post and post-operative pain control plan includes opioid medications.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: in - patient, spinal fusion procedure, 18 years or older, post - operative, pain control plan, opioid
Options: Temporal, Value, Procedure, Visit, Drug
|
[
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Patients will be included if they are having an in-patient spinal fusion procedure, are 18 years or older, post and post-operative pain control plan includes opioid medications.
|
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[
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in - patient, spinal fusion procedure, 18 years or older, post - operative, pain control plan, opioid
|
NCT03176316_inc_task2
|
Sentence: Patients will be included if they are having an in-patient spinal fusion procedure, are 18 years or older, post and post-operative pain control plan includes opioid medications.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
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"I-Temporal",
"B-Procedure",
"I-Procedure",
"I-Procedure",
"O",
"B-Drug",
"O",
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] |
Patients will be included if they are having an in-patient spinal fusion procedure, are 18 years or older, post and post-operative pain control plan includes opioid medications.
|
[
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[
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Calcium chloride before i.v is a Intervention_Pharmacological, diltiazem is a Intervention_Pharmacological, management of atrial fibrillation . is a Outcome_Physical, Diltiazem is a Intervention_Pharmacological, flutter ( AFF ) is a Participant_Condition, rate control is a Outcome_Physical, diltiazem - induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] is a Outcome_Physical, 450 is a Participant_Sample-size, calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) is a Intervention_Pharmacological, SBP drop is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, placebo is a Intervention_Control, Seventy - eight is a Participant_Sample-size, heart rate is a Outcome_Physical, adverse events is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, One is a Participant_Sample-size, tachycardic and apneic is a Outcome_Adverse-effects
|
16838_task0
|
Sentence: Calcium chloride before i.v . diltiazem in the management of atrial fibrillation . Diltiazem is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation or flutter ( AFF ) with rapid ventricular response ( RVR ) . Although it is very effective for rate control , up to an 18 % prevalence of reported diltiazem-induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] , and a mean of 9.7 % hypotension have been reported from several studies totaling over 450 patients . This hypotension may complicate therapy . Our objective was to determine if calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) pre-treatment would blunt a SBP drop after i.v . diltiazem , while allowing diltiazem to maintain its efficacy . A prospective , randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study was conducted . Seventy-eight patients with AFF and a ventricular rate of > /= 120 beats per minute were enrolled . Half received i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment ; the other half received placebo . All patients then received i.v . diltiazem in a standard , weight-based dose . A second dose of CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment or placebo and diltiazem was given if clinically indicated for additional rate control . Both CaCl ( 2 ) and placebo pre-treatment groups had equal lowering of heart rate ( p < 0.001 ) . There were no adverse events in the calcium pre-treatment study arm . One patient in the placebo group became paradoxically more tachycardic and apneic after the diltiazem infusion . Although i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) seems to be equally safe compared to placebo as a pre-treatment in the management of AFF with RVR , we were unable to find a statistically significant blunting of SBP drop with CaCl ( 2 ) i.v . pre-treatment . Until further research determines a benefit exists , we can not recommend i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment before diltiazem in the treatment of AFF with RVR .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Participant_Condition, Intervention_Control, Outcome_Physical, Participant_Sample-size
|
[
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] |
Calcium chloride before i.v . diltiazem in the management of atrial fibrillation . Diltiazem is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation or flutter ( AFF ) with rapid ventricular response ( RVR ) . Although it is very effective for rate control , up to an 18 % prevalence of reported diltiazem-induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] , and a mean of 9.7 % hypotension have been reported from several studies totaling over 450 patients . This hypotension may complicate therapy . Our objective was to determine if calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) pre-treatment would blunt a SBP drop after i.v . diltiazem , while allowing diltiazem to maintain its efficacy . A prospective , randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study was conducted . Seventy-eight patients with AFF and a ventricular rate of > /= 120 beats per minute were enrolled . Half received i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment ; the other half received placebo . All patients then received i.v . diltiazem in a standard , weight-based dose . A second dose of CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment or placebo and diltiazem was given if clinically indicated for additional rate control . Both CaCl ( 2 ) and placebo pre-treatment groups had equal lowering of heart rate ( p < 0.001 ) . There were no adverse events in the calcium pre-treatment study arm . One patient in the placebo group became paradoxically more tachycardic and apneic after the diltiazem infusion . Although i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) seems to be equally safe compared to placebo as a pre-treatment in the management of AFF with RVR , we were unable to find a statistically significant blunting of SBP drop with CaCl ( 2 ) i.v . pre-treatment . Until further research determines a benefit exists , we can not recommend i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment before diltiazem in the treatment of AFF with RVR .
|
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[
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"Participant_Condition",
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] |
Calcium chloride before i.v is a Intervention_Pharmacological, diltiazem is a Intervention_Pharmacological, management of atrial fibrillation . is a Outcome_Physical, Diltiazem is a Intervention_Pharmacological, flutter ( AFF ) is a Participant_Condition, rate control is a Outcome_Physical, diltiazem - induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] is a Outcome_Physical, 450 is a Participant_Sample-size, calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) is a Intervention_Pharmacological, SBP drop is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, placebo is a Intervention_Control, Seventy - eight is a Participant_Sample-size, heart rate is a Outcome_Physical, adverse events is a Outcome_Adverse-effects, One is a Participant_Sample-size, tachycardic and apneic is a Outcome_Adverse-effects
|
16838_task1
|
Sentence: Calcium chloride before i.v . diltiazem in the management of atrial fibrillation . Diltiazem is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation or flutter ( AFF ) with rapid ventricular response ( RVR ) . Although it is very effective for rate control , up to an 18 % prevalence of reported diltiazem-induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] , and a mean of 9.7 % hypotension have been reported from several studies totaling over 450 patients . This hypotension may complicate therapy . Our objective was to determine if calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) pre-treatment would blunt a SBP drop after i.v . diltiazem , while allowing diltiazem to maintain its efficacy . A prospective , randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study was conducted . Seventy-eight patients with AFF and a ventricular rate of > /= 120 beats per minute were enrolled . Half received i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment ; the other half received placebo . All patients then received i.v . diltiazem in a standard , weight-based dose . A second dose of CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment or placebo and diltiazem was given if clinically indicated for additional rate control . Both CaCl ( 2 ) and placebo pre-treatment groups had equal lowering of heart rate ( p < 0.001 ) . There were no adverse events in the calcium pre-treatment study arm . One patient in the placebo group became paradoxically more tachycardic and apneic after the diltiazem infusion . Although i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) seems to be equally safe compared to placebo as a pre-treatment in the management of AFF with RVR , we were unable to find a statistically significant blunting of SBP drop with CaCl ( 2 ) i.v . pre-treatment . Until further research determines a benefit exists , we can not recommend i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment before diltiazem in the treatment of AFF with RVR .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Calcium chloride before i.v, diltiazem, management of atrial fibrillation ., Diltiazem, flutter ( AFF ), rate control, diltiazem - induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ], 450, calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ), SBP drop, placebo, Seventy - eight, heart rate, adverse events, One, tachycardic and apneic
Options: Intervention_Pharmacological, Outcome_Adverse-effects, Participant_Condition, Intervention_Control, Outcome_Physical, Participant_Sample-size
|
[
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Calcium chloride before i.v . diltiazem in the management of atrial fibrillation . Diltiazem is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation or flutter ( AFF ) with rapid ventricular response ( RVR ) . Although it is very effective for rate control , up to an 18 % prevalence of reported diltiazem-induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] , and a mean of 9.7 % hypotension have been reported from several studies totaling over 450 patients . This hypotension may complicate therapy . Our objective was to determine if calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) pre-treatment would blunt a SBP drop after i.v . diltiazem , while allowing diltiazem to maintain its efficacy . A prospective , randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study was conducted . Seventy-eight patients with AFF and a ventricular rate of > /= 120 beats per minute were enrolled . Half received i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment ; the other half received placebo . All patients then received i.v . diltiazem in a standard , weight-based dose . A second dose of CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment or placebo and diltiazem was given if clinically indicated for additional rate control . Both CaCl ( 2 ) and placebo pre-treatment groups had equal lowering of heart rate ( p < 0.001 ) . There were no adverse events in the calcium pre-treatment study arm . One patient in the placebo group became paradoxically more tachycardic and apneic after the diltiazem infusion . Although i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) seems to be equally safe compared to placebo as a pre-treatment in the management of AFF with RVR , we were unable to find a statistically significant blunting of SBP drop with CaCl ( 2 ) i.v . pre-treatment . Until further research determines a benefit exists , we can not recommend i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment before diltiazem in the treatment of AFF with RVR .
|
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Calcium chloride before i.v, diltiazem, management of atrial fibrillation ., Diltiazem, flutter ( AFF ), rate control, diltiazem - induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ], 450, calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ), SBP drop, placebo, Seventy - eight, heart rate, adverse events, One, tachycardic and apneic
|
16838_task2
|
Sentence: Calcium chloride before i.v . diltiazem in the management of atrial fibrillation . Diltiazem is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation or flutter ( AFF ) with rapid ventricular response ( RVR ) . Although it is very effective for rate control , up to an 18 % prevalence of reported diltiazem-induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] , and a mean of 9.7 % hypotension have been reported from several studies totaling over 450 patients . This hypotension may complicate therapy . Our objective was to determine if calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) pre-treatment would blunt a SBP drop after i.v . diltiazem , while allowing diltiazem to maintain its efficacy . A prospective , randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study was conducted . Seventy-eight patients with AFF and a ventricular rate of > /= 120 beats per minute were enrolled . Half received i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment ; the other half received placebo . All patients then received i.v . diltiazem in a standard , weight-based dose . A second dose of CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment or placebo and diltiazem was given if clinically indicated for additional rate control . Both CaCl ( 2 ) and placebo pre-treatment groups had equal lowering of heart rate ( p < 0.001 ) . There were no adverse events in the calcium pre-treatment study arm . One patient in the placebo group became paradoxically more tachycardic and apneic after the diltiazem infusion . Although i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) seems to be equally safe compared to placebo as a pre-treatment in the management of AFF with RVR , we were unable to find a statistically significant blunting of SBP drop with CaCl ( 2 ) i.v . pre-treatment . Until further research determines a benefit exists , we can not recommend i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment before diltiazem in the treatment of AFF with RVR .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Calcium chloride before i.v . diltiazem in the management of atrial fibrillation . Diltiazem is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation or flutter ( AFF ) with rapid ventricular response ( RVR ) . Although it is very effective for rate control , up to an 18 % prevalence of reported diltiazem-induced hypotension [ defined by systolic blood pressure ( SBP ) < 90 mm Hg ] , and a mean of 9.7 % hypotension have been reported from several studies totaling over 450 patients . This hypotension may complicate therapy . Our objective was to determine if calcium chloride ( CaCl ( 2 ) ) pre-treatment would blunt a SBP drop after i.v . diltiazem , while allowing diltiazem to maintain its efficacy . A prospective , randomized , double-blind , placebo-controlled study was conducted . Seventy-eight patients with AFF and a ventricular rate of > /= 120 beats per minute were enrolled . Half received i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment ; the other half received placebo . All patients then received i.v . diltiazem in a standard , weight-based dose . A second dose of CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment or placebo and diltiazem was given if clinically indicated for additional rate control . Both CaCl ( 2 ) and placebo pre-treatment groups had equal lowering of heart rate ( p < 0.001 ) . There were no adverse events in the calcium pre-treatment study arm . One patient in the placebo group became paradoxically more tachycardic and apneic after the diltiazem infusion . Although i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) seems to be equally safe compared to placebo as a pre-treatment in the management of AFF with RVR , we were unable to find a statistically significant blunting of SBP drop with CaCl ( 2 ) i.v . pre-treatment . Until further research determines a benefit exists , we can not recommend i.v . CaCl ( 2 ) pre-treatment before diltiazem in the treatment of AFF with RVR .
|
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DerRadiologe.90390260.eng.abstr_task0
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Sentence: Problem : The goal of the current article is to demonstrate how qualitative and monetary effects resulting from an integrated RIS/PACS installation can be evaluated .
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Sentence: Problem : The goal of the current article is to demonstrate how qualitative and monetary effects resulting from an integrated RIS/PACS installation can be evaluated .
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Options: umlsterm
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DerRadiologe.90390260.eng.abstr_task2
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Sentence: Problem : The goal of the current article is to demonstrate how qualitative and monetary effects resulting from an integrated RIS/PACS installation can be evaluated .
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DerChirurg.70680006.eng.abstr_task0
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Sentence: Appendectomy is one of the most frequent surgical procedures . Accuracy in the clinical diagnosis of acute non-specific appendicitis , however , suffers from the fact that the symptoms and clinical findings of acute appendicitis can be mimicked by many other abdominal diseases . The clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis , therefore , can only be definitely confirmed by pathomorphological analysis , the criteria of which are reviewed in this paper . Special emphasis is given to distinct variants of acute appendicitis and the significance of neuroappendicopathy .
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Appendectomy is one of the most frequent surgical procedures . Accuracy in the clinical diagnosis of acute non-specific appendicitis , however , suffers from the fact that the symptoms and clinical findings of acute appendicitis can be mimicked by many other abdominal diseases . The clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis , therefore , can only be definitely confirmed by pathomorphological analysis , the criteria of which are reviewed in this paper . Special emphasis is given to distinct variants of acute appendicitis and the significance of neuroappendicopathy .
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DerChirurg.70680006.eng.abstr_task1
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Sentence: Appendectomy is one of the most frequent surgical procedures . Accuracy in the clinical diagnosis of acute non-specific appendicitis , however , suffers from the fact that the symptoms and clinical findings of acute appendicitis can be mimicked by many other abdominal diseases . The clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis , therefore , can only be definitely confirmed by pathomorphological analysis , the criteria of which are reviewed in this paper . Special emphasis is given to distinct variants of acute appendicitis and the significance of neuroappendicopathy .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Appendectomy, surgical procedures, diagnosis, appendicitis, symptoms, findings, appendicitis, diseases, diagnosis, appendicitis, analysis, criteria, paper, appendicitis
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Appendectomy is one of the most frequent surgical procedures . Accuracy in the clinical diagnosis of acute non-specific appendicitis , however , suffers from the fact that the symptoms and clinical findings of acute appendicitis can be mimicked by many other abdominal diseases . The clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis , therefore , can only be definitely confirmed by pathomorphological analysis , the criteria of which are reviewed in this paper . Special emphasis is given to distinct variants of acute appendicitis and the significance of neuroappendicopathy .
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DerChirurg.70680006.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Appendectomy is one of the most frequent surgical procedures . Accuracy in the clinical diagnosis of acute non-specific appendicitis , however , suffers from the fact that the symptoms and clinical findings of acute appendicitis can be mimicked by many other abdominal diseases . The clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis , therefore , can only be definitely confirmed by pathomorphological analysis , the criteria of which are reviewed in this paper . Special emphasis is given to distinct variants of acute appendicitis and the significance of neuroappendicopathy .
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Appendectomy is one of the most frequent surgical procedures . Accuracy in the clinical diagnosis of acute non-specific appendicitis , however , suffers from the fact that the symptoms and clinical findings of acute appendicitis can be mimicked by many other abdominal diseases . The clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis , therefore , can only be definitely confirmed by pathomorphological analysis , the criteria of which are reviewed in this paper . Special emphasis is given to distinct variants of acute appendicitis and the significance of neuroappendicopathy .
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tumor is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, lesiones pulmonares is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, carcinoma de células claras , Führman 3 is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1 is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
961_task0
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Paciente varón de 66 años de edad, caucásico, jubilado que trabajó como administrativo. Está casado y tiene 2 hijas. Como antecedentes personales no tiene alergias medicamentosas conocidas, ni es fumador ni consume alcohol. Como enfermedades crónicas destaca criterios de bronquitis crónica simple. Como antecedente quirúrgico se le realizó una herniorrafía inguinal izquierda hace más de 10 años de manera programada. Al momento de la primera valoración por Oncología, sin medicación concomitante.
Su historia oncológica comienza a raíz de hematuria macroscópica monosintomática en julio del 2015, se le completa estudio radiológico en un centro médico privado y acaba diagnosticándose de un tumor renal izquierdo de 78 mm, diseminado con lesiones pulmonares y ganglionares, a nivel hiliar y subcarinal, sugestivas de metástasis. Se realiza biopsia renal que informa de carcinoma de células claras, Führman I. El 5 de noviembre del 2015 se realiza nefrectomía izquierda + linfadenectomía regional y la anatomía patológica describe un carcinoma de células claras, Führman 3, de 75 mm de diámetro máximo con invasión de la grasa hiliar y de la vena renal. Los márgenes quirúrgicos fueron libres. La glándula adrenal no estaba infiltrada y en la linfadenectomía 3 de 9 ganglios fueron positivos. Con todos estos hallazgos, concluimos que se trata de un paciente con un tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1.
Tras la cirugía en centro privado, el paciente solicita continuar tratamiento en su hospital de referencia. Es visitado en nuestro centro el 3 de febrero del 2016 con una tomografía computarizada (TC) toracoabdominal que informa de progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar como ganglionar. En el momento de la valoración el paciente presenta un buen estado general, ECOG 0 por lo que se propone inclusión en el ensayo clínico fase 3 aleatorizado WO29637 que evaluaba la efectividad de atezolizumab + bevacizumab versus sunitinib. El paciente cumple criterios de inclusión y es aleatorizado al brazo de sunitinib 50 mg/día durante 4 semanas y 2 semanas de descanso por ciclo, iniciando tratamiento el 11 de marzo del 2016. Completó ocho ciclos de tratamiento, consiguiendo una estabilización de enfermedad como mayor respuesta objetiva. Presentó como toxicidad relevante (CTCAE v4.03), hipotiroidismo G2 que requirió tratamiento sustitutivo con levotiroxina 75 mcg/24 h e hipertensión G2 que se controló con valsartán 80 mg/día. Como toxicidades menores grado 1: fatiga, hemoptisis, rash cutáneo y síndrome mano-pie.
El 31 de enero del 2017 se evidencia progresión de la enfermedad, por lo que se propone un esquema de segunda línea con nivolumab que se instaura el 8 de febrero del 2017. Con la primera valoración radiológica tras cuarto ciclo, ya se constata una respuesta parcial que se mantiene tras ocho ciclos, por lo que continúa tratamiento hasta completar el noveno ciclo el día 31 de mayo del 2017. Como toxicidades había presentado, tras el cuarto ciclo, síntomas grado 1: rash cutáneo, síndrome pseudo gripal, fatiga y toxicidad hepática.
El día 8 de junio del 2017, el paciente acude a hospital de día de Oncología explicando sensación generalizada de cansancio, fatiga y debilidad física de una semana de evolución con empeoramiento progresivo en las últimas 48 h, que le impide realizar las actividades instrumentales de la vida diaria. Se acompaña de dolor abdominal difuso con aumento del número de deposiciones (1-2 al día) sin llegar a diarreas. También refiere disnea de esfuerzo grado 1. No tiene ortopnea, ni palpitaciones, ni dolor torácico. Niega fiebre y clínica infecciosa.
Exploración física
El paciente se encontraba eupneico, hemodinámicamente estable, afebril, normohidratado, consciente y orientado. Sus constantes vitales eran: tensión arterial: 115/95 mm Hg. Frecuencia cardiaca: 116 latidos por minuto (lpm). Temperatura: 35,8 ºC. SatO2: 97 % al aire.
Durante la auscultación cardiopulmonar, destacan tonos cardiacos rítmicos sin soplos ni roce pericárdico y murmullo vesicular conservado. Presenta edemas bimaleolares no dolorosos en la palpación. Pulsos periféricos presentes y palpables. Sin signos de trombosis venosa profunda ni ingurgitación yugular. El abdomen era blando y depresible con peristaltismo presente y doloroso a la palpación difusa.
Pruebas complementarias
A raíz de taquicardia objetivada, se realiza electrocardiograma que evidencia un ritmo sinusal a 114 lpm. PR 160 ms. QRS estrecho y una elevación del ST > 2mm en DIII, aVF y de V1 a V3 con cambios especulares en DI y AVL. Se completa estudio con analítica sanguínea en la que destacan leucocitos 6,37 x 10,9/l, hemoglobina 124 g/l, plaquetas 282 x 10,9/l, neutrófilos 4,51 x 10,9/l, urea 45 mg/dl, creatinina 1.59 mg/dl, creatina-quinasa (CK) 281 U/l (0-195), proteína C reactiva 6,21 mg/dl (0-0,5) y troponina T u.s. 6.377 ng/l (0-13). La radiografía de tórax descarta signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Ante estos hallazgos se contacta con Cardiología y se activa código infarto (IAM), realizándose cateterismo urgente que descarta lesiones coronarias.
Diagnóstico
Miocarditis secundaria a nivolumab grado 4.
Tratamiento
Ante la sospecha diagnóstica, y basándonos en la experiencia previa para la toxicidad inmunomediada por nivolumab, se inicia metilprednisolona con dosis de 2 mg/kg/día y se traslada al paciente a la Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos (UCI), donde se realiza soporte hemodinámico con drogas vasoactivas.
Evolución
En la UCI, el paciente evoluciona favorablemente a pesar de presentar inicialmente una depresión de la función ventricular izquierda objetivada por ecocardiografía con una FEVI de hasta un 30 %, por lo que se pudo retirar el soporte con dobutamina y, finalmente, no requirió infliximab como tratamiento de rescate inmunosupresor. A partir del cuarto día, se objetiva un descenso progresivo del recuento plaquetario hasta 2 x 10,9/l sin signos de sangrado que requirió soporte transfusional. Ante la sospecha de una trombopenia inducida por heparina, se retira la anticoagulación y se solicitan valores de anticuerpos anti-FP4 que resultan negativos descartando el diagnóstico. Se completa estudio con aspirado de médula ósea, que no muestra alteraciones, por lo que se concluye que la plaquetopenia fue inducida por nivolumab y mejoró progresivamente con el tratamiento corticoide. Finalmente, el paciente se traslada al Servicio de Oncología Médica donde continuó proceso terapéutico. Al alta, se mantuvo tratamiento con metilprednisolona 2 mg/kg/día durante 4 semanas y, posteriormente, pauta lentamente descendente hasta su retirada.
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Anamnesis
Paciente varón de 66 años de edad, caucásico, jubilado que trabajó como administrativo. Está casado y tiene 2 hijas. Como antecedentes personales no tiene alergias medicamentosas conocidas, ni es fumador ni consume alcohol. Como enfermedades crónicas destaca criterios de bronquitis crónica simple. Como antecedente quirúrgico se le realizó una herniorrafía inguinal izquierda hace más de 10 años de manera programada. Al momento de la primera valoración por Oncología, sin medicación concomitante.
Su historia oncológica comienza a raíz de hematuria macroscópica monosintomática en julio del 2015, se le completa estudio radiológico en un centro médico privado y acaba diagnosticándose de un tumor renal izquierdo de 78 mm, diseminado con lesiones pulmonares y ganglionares, a nivel hiliar y subcarinal, sugestivas de metástasis. Se realiza biopsia renal que informa de carcinoma de células claras, Führman I. El 5 de noviembre del 2015 se realiza nefrectomía izquierda + linfadenectomía regional y la anatomía patológica describe un carcinoma de células claras, Führman 3, de 75 mm de diámetro máximo con invasión de la grasa hiliar y de la vena renal. Los márgenes quirúrgicos fueron libres. La glándula adrenal no estaba infiltrada y en la linfadenectomía 3 de 9 ganglios fueron positivos. Con todos estos hallazgos, concluimos que se trata de un paciente con un tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1.
Tras la cirugía en centro privado, el paciente solicita continuar tratamiento en su hospital de referencia. Es visitado en nuestro centro el 3 de febrero del 2016 con una tomografía computarizada (TC) toracoabdominal que informa de progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar como ganglionar. En el momento de la valoración el paciente presenta un buen estado general, ECOG 0 por lo que se propone inclusión en el ensayo clínico fase 3 aleatorizado WO29637 que evaluaba la efectividad de atezolizumab + bevacizumab versus sunitinib. El paciente cumple criterios de inclusión y es aleatorizado al brazo de sunitinib 50 mg/día durante 4 semanas y 2 semanas de descanso por ciclo, iniciando tratamiento el 11 de marzo del 2016. Completó ocho ciclos de tratamiento, consiguiendo una estabilización de enfermedad como mayor respuesta objetiva. Presentó como toxicidad relevante (CTCAE v4.03), hipotiroidismo G2 que requirió tratamiento sustitutivo con levotiroxina 75 mcg/24 h e hipertensión G2 que se controló con valsartán 80 mg/día. Como toxicidades menores grado 1: fatiga, hemoptisis, rash cutáneo y síndrome mano-pie.
El 31 de enero del 2017 se evidencia progresión de la enfermedad, por lo que se propone un esquema de segunda línea con nivolumab que se instaura el 8 de febrero del 2017. Con la primera valoración radiológica tras cuarto ciclo, ya se constata una respuesta parcial que se mantiene tras ocho ciclos, por lo que continúa tratamiento hasta completar el noveno ciclo el día 31 de mayo del 2017. Como toxicidades había presentado, tras el cuarto ciclo, síntomas grado 1: rash cutáneo, síndrome pseudo gripal, fatiga y toxicidad hepática.
El día 8 de junio del 2017, el paciente acude a hospital de día de Oncología explicando sensación generalizada de cansancio, fatiga y debilidad física de una semana de evolución con empeoramiento progresivo en las últimas 48 h, que le impide realizar las actividades instrumentales de la vida diaria. Se acompaña de dolor abdominal difuso con aumento del número de deposiciones (1-2 al día) sin llegar a diarreas. También refiere disnea de esfuerzo grado 1. No tiene ortopnea, ni palpitaciones, ni dolor torácico. Niega fiebre y clínica infecciosa.
Exploración física
El paciente se encontraba eupneico, hemodinámicamente estable, afebril, normohidratado, consciente y orientado. Sus constantes vitales eran: tensión arterial: 115/95 mm Hg. Frecuencia cardiaca: 116 latidos por minuto (lpm). Temperatura: 35,8 ºC. SatO2: 97 % al aire.
Durante la auscultación cardiopulmonar, destacan tonos cardiacos rítmicos sin soplos ni roce pericárdico y murmullo vesicular conservado. Presenta edemas bimaleolares no dolorosos en la palpación. Pulsos periféricos presentes y palpables. Sin signos de trombosis venosa profunda ni ingurgitación yugular. El abdomen era blando y depresible con peristaltismo presente y doloroso a la palpación difusa.
Pruebas complementarias
A raíz de taquicardia objetivada, se realiza electrocardiograma que evidencia un ritmo sinusal a 114 lpm. PR 160 ms. QRS estrecho y una elevación del ST > 2mm en DIII, aVF y de V1 a V3 con cambios especulares en DI y AVL. Se completa estudio con analítica sanguínea en la que destacan leucocitos 6,37 x 10,9/l, hemoglobina 124 g/l, plaquetas 282 x 10,9/l, neutrófilos 4,51 x 10,9/l, urea 45 mg/dl, creatinina 1.59 mg/dl, creatina-quinasa (CK) 281 U/l (0-195), proteína C reactiva 6,21 mg/dl (0-0,5) y troponina T u.s. 6.377 ng/l (0-13). La radiografía de tórax descarta signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Ante estos hallazgos se contacta con Cardiología y se activa código infarto (IAM), realizándose cateterismo urgente que descarta lesiones coronarias.
Diagnóstico
Miocarditis secundaria a nivolumab grado 4.
Tratamiento
Ante la sospecha diagnóstica, y basándonos en la experiencia previa para la toxicidad inmunomediada por nivolumab, se inicia metilprednisolona con dosis de 2 mg/kg/día y se traslada al paciente a la Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos (UCI), donde se realiza soporte hemodinámico con drogas vasoactivas.
Evolución
En la UCI, el paciente evoluciona favorablemente a pesar de presentar inicialmente una depresión de la función ventricular izquierda objetivada por ecocardiografía con una FEVI de hasta un 30 %, por lo que se pudo retirar el soporte con dobutamina y, finalmente, no requirió infliximab como tratamiento de rescate inmunosupresor. A partir del cuarto día, se objetiva un descenso progresivo del recuento plaquetario hasta 2 x 10,9/l sin signos de sangrado que requirió soporte transfusional. Ante la sospecha de una trombopenia inducida por heparina, se retira la anticoagulación y se solicitan valores de anticuerpos anti-FP4 que resultan negativos descartando el diagnóstico. Se completa estudio con aspirado de médula ósea, que no muestra alteraciones, por lo que se concluye que la plaquetopenia fue inducida por nivolumab y mejoró progresivamente con el tratamiento corticoide. Finalmente, el paciente se traslada al Servicio de Oncología Médica donde continuó proceso terapéutico. Al alta, se mantuvo tratamiento con metilprednisolona 2 mg/kg/día durante 4 semanas y, posteriormente, pauta lentamente descendente hasta su retirada.
|
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] |
[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
tumor is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, lesiones pulmonares is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, metástasis is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, carcinoma de células claras , Führman 3 is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1 is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA, progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar is a MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
|
961_task1
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Paciente varón de 66 años de edad, caucásico, jubilado que trabajó como administrativo. Está casado y tiene 2 hijas. Como antecedentes personales no tiene alergias medicamentosas conocidas, ni es fumador ni consume alcohol. Como enfermedades crónicas destaca criterios de bronquitis crónica simple. Como antecedente quirúrgico se le realizó una herniorrafía inguinal izquierda hace más de 10 años de manera programada. Al momento de la primera valoración por Oncología, sin medicación concomitante.
Su historia oncológica comienza a raíz de hematuria macroscópica monosintomática en julio del 2015, se le completa estudio radiológico en un centro médico privado y acaba diagnosticándose de un tumor renal izquierdo de 78 mm, diseminado con lesiones pulmonares y ganglionares, a nivel hiliar y subcarinal, sugestivas de metástasis. Se realiza biopsia renal que informa de carcinoma de células claras, Führman I. El 5 de noviembre del 2015 se realiza nefrectomía izquierda + linfadenectomía regional y la anatomía patológica describe un carcinoma de células claras, Führman 3, de 75 mm de diámetro máximo con invasión de la grasa hiliar y de la vena renal. Los márgenes quirúrgicos fueron libres. La glándula adrenal no estaba infiltrada y en la linfadenectomía 3 de 9 ganglios fueron positivos. Con todos estos hallazgos, concluimos que se trata de un paciente con un tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1.
Tras la cirugía en centro privado, el paciente solicita continuar tratamiento en su hospital de referencia. Es visitado en nuestro centro el 3 de febrero del 2016 con una tomografía computarizada (TC) toracoabdominal que informa de progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar como ganglionar. En el momento de la valoración el paciente presenta un buen estado general, ECOG 0 por lo que se propone inclusión en el ensayo clínico fase 3 aleatorizado WO29637 que evaluaba la efectividad de atezolizumab + bevacizumab versus sunitinib. El paciente cumple criterios de inclusión y es aleatorizado al brazo de sunitinib 50 mg/día durante 4 semanas y 2 semanas de descanso por ciclo, iniciando tratamiento el 11 de marzo del 2016. Completó ocho ciclos de tratamiento, consiguiendo una estabilización de enfermedad como mayor respuesta objetiva. Presentó como toxicidad relevante (CTCAE v4.03), hipotiroidismo G2 que requirió tratamiento sustitutivo con levotiroxina 75 mcg/24 h e hipertensión G2 que se controló con valsartán 80 mg/día. Como toxicidades menores grado 1: fatiga, hemoptisis, rash cutáneo y síndrome mano-pie.
El 31 de enero del 2017 se evidencia progresión de la enfermedad, por lo que se propone un esquema de segunda línea con nivolumab que se instaura el 8 de febrero del 2017. Con la primera valoración radiológica tras cuarto ciclo, ya se constata una respuesta parcial que se mantiene tras ocho ciclos, por lo que continúa tratamiento hasta completar el noveno ciclo el día 31 de mayo del 2017. Como toxicidades había presentado, tras el cuarto ciclo, síntomas grado 1: rash cutáneo, síndrome pseudo gripal, fatiga y toxicidad hepática.
El día 8 de junio del 2017, el paciente acude a hospital de día de Oncología explicando sensación generalizada de cansancio, fatiga y debilidad física de una semana de evolución con empeoramiento progresivo en las últimas 48 h, que le impide realizar las actividades instrumentales de la vida diaria. Se acompaña de dolor abdominal difuso con aumento del número de deposiciones (1-2 al día) sin llegar a diarreas. También refiere disnea de esfuerzo grado 1. No tiene ortopnea, ni palpitaciones, ni dolor torácico. Niega fiebre y clínica infecciosa.
Exploración física
El paciente se encontraba eupneico, hemodinámicamente estable, afebril, normohidratado, consciente y orientado. Sus constantes vitales eran: tensión arterial: 115/95 mm Hg. Frecuencia cardiaca: 116 latidos por minuto (lpm). Temperatura: 35,8 ºC. SatO2: 97 % al aire.
Durante la auscultación cardiopulmonar, destacan tonos cardiacos rítmicos sin soplos ni roce pericárdico y murmullo vesicular conservado. Presenta edemas bimaleolares no dolorosos en la palpación. Pulsos periféricos presentes y palpables. Sin signos de trombosis venosa profunda ni ingurgitación yugular. El abdomen era blando y depresible con peristaltismo presente y doloroso a la palpación difusa.
Pruebas complementarias
A raíz de taquicardia objetivada, se realiza electrocardiograma que evidencia un ritmo sinusal a 114 lpm. PR 160 ms. QRS estrecho y una elevación del ST > 2mm en DIII, aVF y de V1 a V3 con cambios especulares en DI y AVL. Se completa estudio con analítica sanguínea en la que destacan leucocitos 6,37 x 10,9/l, hemoglobina 124 g/l, plaquetas 282 x 10,9/l, neutrófilos 4,51 x 10,9/l, urea 45 mg/dl, creatinina 1.59 mg/dl, creatina-quinasa (CK) 281 U/l (0-195), proteína C reactiva 6,21 mg/dl (0-0,5) y troponina T u.s. 6.377 ng/l (0-13). La radiografía de tórax descarta signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Ante estos hallazgos se contacta con Cardiología y se activa código infarto (IAM), realizándose cateterismo urgente que descarta lesiones coronarias.
Diagnóstico
Miocarditis secundaria a nivolumab grado 4.
Tratamiento
Ante la sospecha diagnóstica, y basándonos en la experiencia previa para la toxicidad inmunomediada por nivolumab, se inicia metilprednisolona con dosis de 2 mg/kg/día y se traslada al paciente a la Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos (UCI), donde se realiza soporte hemodinámico con drogas vasoactivas.
Evolución
En la UCI, el paciente evoluciona favorablemente a pesar de presentar inicialmente una depresión de la función ventricular izquierda objetivada por ecocardiografía con una FEVI de hasta un 30 %, por lo que se pudo retirar el soporte con dobutamina y, finalmente, no requirió infliximab como tratamiento de rescate inmunosupresor. A partir del cuarto día, se objetiva un descenso progresivo del recuento plaquetario hasta 2 x 10,9/l sin signos de sangrado que requirió soporte transfusional. Ante la sospecha de una trombopenia inducida por heparina, se retira la anticoagulación y se solicitan valores de anticuerpos anti-FP4 que resultan negativos descartando el diagnóstico. Se completa estudio con aspirado de médula ósea, que no muestra alteraciones, por lo que se concluye que la plaquetopenia fue inducida por nivolumab y mejoró progresivamente con el tratamiento corticoide. Finalmente, el paciente se traslada al Servicio de Oncología Médica donde continuó proceso terapéutico. Al alta, se mantuvo tratamiento con metilprednisolona 2 mg/kg/día durante 4 semanas y, posteriormente, pauta lentamente descendente hasta su retirada.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: tumor, lesiones pulmonares, metástasis, carcinoma de células claras , Führman 3, tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1, progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar
Options: MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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"O",
"O",
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] |
Anamnesis
Paciente varón de 66 años de edad, caucásico, jubilado que trabajó como administrativo. Está casado y tiene 2 hijas. Como antecedentes personales no tiene alergias medicamentosas conocidas, ni es fumador ni consume alcohol. Como enfermedades crónicas destaca criterios de bronquitis crónica simple. Como antecedente quirúrgico se le realizó una herniorrafía inguinal izquierda hace más de 10 años de manera programada. Al momento de la primera valoración por Oncología, sin medicación concomitante.
Su historia oncológica comienza a raíz de hematuria macroscópica monosintomática en julio del 2015, se le completa estudio radiológico en un centro médico privado y acaba diagnosticándose de un tumor renal izquierdo de 78 mm, diseminado con lesiones pulmonares y ganglionares, a nivel hiliar y subcarinal, sugestivas de metástasis. Se realiza biopsia renal que informa de carcinoma de células claras, Führman I. El 5 de noviembre del 2015 se realiza nefrectomía izquierda + linfadenectomía regional y la anatomía patológica describe un carcinoma de células claras, Führman 3, de 75 mm de diámetro máximo con invasión de la grasa hiliar y de la vena renal. Los márgenes quirúrgicos fueron libres. La glándula adrenal no estaba infiltrada y en la linfadenectomía 3 de 9 ganglios fueron positivos. Con todos estos hallazgos, concluimos que se trata de un paciente con un tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1.
Tras la cirugía en centro privado, el paciente solicita continuar tratamiento en su hospital de referencia. Es visitado en nuestro centro el 3 de febrero del 2016 con una tomografía computarizada (TC) toracoabdominal que informa de progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar como ganglionar. En el momento de la valoración el paciente presenta un buen estado general, ECOG 0 por lo que se propone inclusión en el ensayo clínico fase 3 aleatorizado WO29637 que evaluaba la efectividad de atezolizumab + bevacizumab versus sunitinib. El paciente cumple criterios de inclusión y es aleatorizado al brazo de sunitinib 50 mg/día durante 4 semanas y 2 semanas de descanso por ciclo, iniciando tratamiento el 11 de marzo del 2016. Completó ocho ciclos de tratamiento, consiguiendo una estabilización de enfermedad como mayor respuesta objetiva. Presentó como toxicidad relevante (CTCAE v4.03), hipotiroidismo G2 que requirió tratamiento sustitutivo con levotiroxina 75 mcg/24 h e hipertensión G2 que se controló con valsartán 80 mg/día. Como toxicidades menores grado 1: fatiga, hemoptisis, rash cutáneo y síndrome mano-pie.
El 31 de enero del 2017 se evidencia progresión de la enfermedad, por lo que se propone un esquema de segunda línea con nivolumab que se instaura el 8 de febrero del 2017. Con la primera valoración radiológica tras cuarto ciclo, ya se constata una respuesta parcial que se mantiene tras ocho ciclos, por lo que continúa tratamiento hasta completar el noveno ciclo el día 31 de mayo del 2017. Como toxicidades había presentado, tras el cuarto ciclo, síntomas grado 1: rash cutáneo, síndrome pseudo gripal, fatiga y toxicidad hepática.
El día 8 de junio del 2017, el paciente acude a hospital de día de Oncología explicando sensación generalizada de cansancio, fatiga y debilidad física de una semana de evolución con empeoramiento progresivo en las últimas 48 h, que le impide realizar las actividades instrumentales de la vida diaria. Se acompaña de dolor abdominal difuso con aumento del número de deposiciones (1-2 al día) sin llegar a diarreas. También refiere disnea de esfuerzo grado 1. No tiene ortopnea, ni palpitaciones, ni dolor torácico. Niega fiebre y clínica infecciosa.
Exploración física
El paciente se encontraba eupneico, hemodinámicamente estable, afebril, normohidratado, consciente y orientado. Sus constantes vitales eran: tensión arterial: 115/95 mm Hg. Frecuencia cardiaca: 116 latidos por minuto (lpm). Temperatura: 35,8 ºC. SatO2: 97 % al aire.
Durante la auscultación cardiopulmonar, destacan tonos cardiacos rítmicos sin soplos ni roce pericárdico y murmullo vesicular conservado. Presenta edemas bimaleolares no dolorosos en la palpación. Pulsos periféricos presentes y palpables. Sin signos de trombosis venosa profunda ni ingurgitación yugular. El abdomen era blando y depresible con peristaltismo presente y doloroso a la palpación difusa.
Pruebas complementarias
A raíz de taquicardia objetivada, se realiza electrocardiograma que evidencia un ritmo sinusal a 114 lpm. PR 160 ms. QRS estrecho y una elevación del ST > 2mm en DIII, aVF y de V1 a V3 con cambios especulares en DI y AVL. Se completa estudio con analítica sanguínea en la que destacan leucocitos 6,37 x 10,9/l, hemoglobina 124 g/l, plaquetas 282 x 10,9/l, neutrófilos 4,51 x 10,9/l, urea 45 mg/dl, creatinina 1.59 mg/dl, creatina-quinasa (CK) 281 U/l (0-195), proteína C reactiva 6,21 mg/dl (0-0,5) y troponina T u.s. 6.377 ng/l (0-13). La radiografía de tórax descarta signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Ante estos hallazgos se contacta con Cardiología y se activa código infarto (IAM), realizándose cateterismo urgente que descarta lesiones coronarias.
Diagnóstico
Miocarditis secundaria a nivolumab grado 4.
Tratamiento
Ante la sospecha diagnóstica, y basándonos en la experiencia previa para la toxicidad inmunomediada por nivolumab, se inicia metilprednisolona con dosis de 2 mg/kg/día y se traslada al paciente a la Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos (UCI), donde se realiza soporte hemodinámico con drogas vasoactivas.
Evolución
En la UCI, el paciente evoluciona favorablemente a pesar de presentar inicialmente una depresión de la función ventricular izquierda objetivada por ecocardiografía con una FEVI de hasta un 30 %, por lo que se pudo retirar el soporte con dobutamina y, finalmente, no requirió infliximab como tratamiento de rescate inmunosupresor. A partir del cuarto día, se objetiva un descenso progresivo del recuento plaquetario hasta 2 x 10,9/l sin signos de sangrado que requirió soporte transfusional. Ante la sospecha de una trombopenia inducida por heparina, se retira la anticoagulación y se solicitan valores de anticuerpos anti-FP4 que resultan negativos descartando el diagnóstico. Se completa estudio con aspirado de médula ósea, que no muestra alteraciones, por lo que se concluye que la plaquetopenia fue inducida por nivolumab y mejoró progresivamente con el tratamiento corticoide. Finalmente, el paciente se traslada al Servicio de Oncología Médica donde continuó proceso terapéutico. Al alta, se mantuvo tratamiento con metilprednisolona 2 mg/kg/día durante 4 semanas y, posteriormente, pauta lentamente descendente hasta su retirada.
|
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"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
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tumor, lesiones pulmonares, metástasis, carcinoma de células claras , Führman 3, tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1, progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar
|
961_task2
|
Sentence: Anamnesis
Paciente varón de 66 años de edad, caucásico, jubilado que trabajó como administrativo. Está casado y tiene 2 hijas. Como antecedentes personales no tiene alergias medicamentosas conocidas, ni es fumador ni consume alcohol. Como enfermedades crónicas destaca criterios de bronquitis crónica simple. Como antecedente quirúrgico se le realizó una herniorrafía inguinal izquierda hace más de 10 años de manera programada. Al momento de la primera valoración por Oncología, sin medicación concomitante.
Su historia oncológica comienza a raíz de hematuria macroscópica monosintomática en julio del 2015, se le completa estudio radiológico en un centro médico privado y acaba diagnosticándose de un tumor renal izquierdo de 78 mm, diseminado con lesiones pulmonares y ganglionares, a nivel hiliar y subcarinal, sugestivas de metástasis. Se realiza biopsia renal que informa de carcinoma de células claras, Führman I. El 5 de noviembre del 2015 se realiza nefrectomía izquierda + linfadenectomía regional y la anatomía patológica describe un carcinoma de células claras, Führman 3, de 75 mm de diámetro máximo con invasión de la grasa hiliar y de la vena renal. Los márgenes quirúrgicos fueron libres. La glándula adrenal no estaba infiltrada y en la linfadenectomía 3 de 9 ganglios fueron positivos. Con todos estos hallazgos, concluimos que se trata de un paciente con un tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1.
Tras la cirugía en centro privado, el paciente solicita continuar tratamiento en su hospital de referencia. Es visitado en nuestro centro el 3 de febrero del 2016 con una tomografía computarizada (TC) toracoabdominal que informa de progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar como ganglionar. En el momento de la valoración el paciente presenta un buen estado general, ECOG 0 por lo que se propone inclusión en el ensayo clínico fase 3 aleatorizado WO29637 que evaluaba la efectividad de atezolizumab + bevacizumab versus sunitinib. El paciente cumple criterios de inclusión y es aleatorizado al brazo de sunitinib 50 mg/día durante 4 semanas y 2 semanas de descanso por ciclo, iniciando tratamiento el 11 de marzo del 2016. Completó ocho ciclos de tratamiento, consiguiendo una estabilización de enfermedad como mayor respuesta objetiva. Presentó como toxicidad relevante (CTCAE v4.03), hipotiroidismo G2 que requirió tratamiento sustitutivo con levotiroxina 75 mcg/24 h e hipertensión G2 que se controló con valsartán 80 mg/día. Como toxicidades menores grado 1: fatiga, hemoptisis, rash cutáneo y síndrome mano-pie.
El 31 de enero del 2017 se evidencia progresión de la enfermedad, por lo que se propone un esquema de segunda línea con nivolumab que se instaura el 8 de febrero del 2017. Con la primera valoración radiológica tras cuarto ciclo, ya se constata una respuesta parcial que se mantiene tras ocho ciclos, por lo que continúa tratamiento hasta completar el noveno ciclo el día 31 de mayo del 2017. Como toxicidades había presentado, tras el cuarto ciclo, síntomas grado 1: rash cutáneo, síndrome pseudo gripal, fatiga y toxicidad hepática.
El día 8 de junio del 2017, el paciente acude a hospital de día de Oncología explicando sensación generalizada de cansancio, fatiga y debilidad física de una semana de evolución con empeoramiento progresivo en las últimas 48 h, que le impide realizar las actividades instrumentales de la vida diaria. Se acompaña de dolor abdominal difuso con aumento del número de deposiciones (1-2 al día) sin llegar a diarreas. También refiere disnea de esfuerzo grado 1. No tiene ortopnea, ni palpitaciones, ni dolor torácico. Niega fiebre y clínica infecciosa.
Exploración física
El paciente se encontraba eupneico, hemodinámicamente estable, afebril, normohidratado, consciente y orientado. Sus constantes vitales eran: tensión arterial: 115/95 mm Hg. Frecuencia cardiaca: 116 latidos por minuto (lpm). Temperatura: 35,8 ºC. SatO2: 97 % al aire.
Durante la auscultación cardiopulmonar, destacan tonos cardiacos rítmicos sin soplos ni roce pericárdico y murmullo vesicular conservado. Presenta edemas bimaleolares no dolorosos en la palpación. Pulsos periféricos presentes y palpables. Sin signos de trombosis venosa profunda ni ingurgitación yugular. El abdomen era blando y depresible con peristaltismo presente y doloroso a la palpación difusa.
Pruebas complementarias
A raíz de taquicardia objetivada, se realiza electrocardiograma que evidencia un ritmo sinusal a 114 lpm. PR 160 ms. QRS estrecho y una elevación del ST > 2mm en DIII, aVF y de V1 a V3 con cambios especulares en DI y AVL. Se completa estudio con analítica sanguínea en la que destacan leucocitos 6,37 x 10,9/l, hemoglobina 124 g/l, plaquetas 282 x 10,9/l, neutrófilos 4,51 x 10,9/l, urea 45 mg/dl, creatinina 1.59 mg/dl, creatina-quinasa (CK) 281 U/l (0-195), proteína C reactiva 6,21 mg/dl (0-0,5) y troponina T u.s. 6.377 ng/l (0-13). La radiografía de tórax descarta signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Ante estos hallazgos se contacta con Cardiología y se activa código infarto (IAM), realizándose cateterismo urgente que descarta lesiones coronarias.
Diagnóstico
Miocarditis secundaria a nivolumab grado 4.
Tratamiento
Ante la sospecha diagnóstica, y basándonos en la experiencia previa para la toxicidad inmunomediada por nivolumab, se inicia metilprednisolona con dosis de 2 mg/kg/día y se traslada al paciente a la Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos (UCI), donde se realiza soporte hemodinámico con drogas vasoactivas.
Evolución
En la UCI, el paciente evoluciona favorablemente a pesar de presentar inicialmente una depresión de la función ventricular izquierda objetivada por ecocardiografía con una FEVI de hasta un 30 %, por lo que se pudo retirar el soporte con dobutamina y, finalmente, no requirió infliximab como tratamiento de rescate inmunosupresor. A partir del cuarto día, se objetiva un descenso progresivo del recuento plaquetario hasta 2 x 10,9/l sin signos de sangrado que requirió soporte transfusional. Ante la sospecha de una trombopenia inducida por heparina, se retira la anticoagulación y se solicitan valores de anticuerpos anti-FP4 que resultan negativos descartando el diagnóstico. Se completa estudio con aspirado de médula ósea, que no muestra alteraciones, por lo que se concluye que la plaquetopenia fue inducida por nivolumab y mejoró progresivamente con el tratamiento corticoide. Finalmente, el paciente se traslada al Servicio de Oncología Médica donde continuó proceso terapéutico. Al alta, se mantuvo tratamiento con metilprednisolona 2 mg/kg/día durante 4 semanas y, posteriormente, pauta lentamente descendente hasta su retirada.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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] |
Anamnesis
Paciente varón de 66 años de edad, caucásico, jubilado que trabajó como administrativo. Está casado y tiene 2 hijas. Como antecedentes personales no tiene alergias medicamentosas conocidas, ni es fumador ni consume alcohol. Como enfermedades crónicas destaca criterios de bronquitis crónica simple. Como antecedente quirúrgico se le realizó una herniorrafía inguinal izquierda hace más de 10 años de manera programada. Al momento de la primera valoración por Oncología, sin medicación concomitante.
Su historia oncológica comienza a raíz de hematuria macroscópica monosintomática en julio del 2015, se le completa estudio radiológico en un centro médico privado y acaba diagnosticándose de un tumor renal izquierdo de 78 mm, diseminado con lesiones pulmonares y ganglionares, a nivel hiliar y subcarinal, sugestivas de metástasis. Se realiza biopsia renal que informa de carcinoma de células claras, Führman I. El 5 de noviembre del 2015 se realiza nefrectomía izquierda + linfadenectomía regional y la anatomía patológica describe un carcinoma de células claras, Führman 3, de 75 mm de diámetro máximo con invasión de la grasa hiliar y de la vena renal. Los márgenes quirúrgicos fueron libres. La glándula adrenal no estaba infiltrada y en la linfadenectomía 3 de 9 ganglios fueron positivos. Con todos estos hallazgos, concluimos que se trata de un paciente con un tumor renal de células claras pT3a pN1 M1.
Tras la cirugía en centro privado, el paciente solicita continuar tratamiento en su hospital de referencia. Es visitado en nuestro centro el 3 de febrero del 2016 con una tomografía computarizada (TC) toracoabdominal que informa de progresión neoplásica tanto a nivel pulmonar como ganglionar. En el momento de la valoración el paciente presenta un buen estado general, ECOG 0 por lo que se propone inclusión en el ensayo clínico fase 3 aleatorizado WO29637 que evaluaba la efectividad de atezolizumab + bevacizumab versus sunitinib. El paciente cumple criterios de inclusión y es aleatorizado al brazo de sunitinib 50 mg/día durante 4 semanas y 2 semanas de descanso por ciclo, iniciando tratamiento el 11 de marzo del 2016. Completó ocho ciclos de tratamiento, consiguiendo una estabilización de enfermedad como mayor respuesta objetiva. Presentó como toxicidad relevante (CTCAE v4.03), hipotiroidismo G2 que requirió tratamiento sustitutivo con levotiroxina 75 mcg/24 h e hipertensión G2 que se controló con valsartán 80 mg/día. Como toxicidades menores grado 1: fatiga, hemoptisis, rash cutáneo y síndrome mano-pie.
El 31 de enero del 2017 se evidencia progresión de la enfermedad, por lo que se propone un esquema de segunda línea con nivolumab que se instaura el 8 de febrero del 2017. Con la primera valoración radiológica tras cuarto ciclo, ya se constata una respuesta parcial que se mantiene tras ocho ciclos, por lo que continúa tratamiento hasta completar el noveno ciclo el día 31 de mayo del 2017. Como toxicidades había presentado, tras el cuarto ciclo, síntomas grado 1: rash cutáneo, síndrome pseudo gripal, fatiga y toxicidad hepática.
El día 8 de junio del 2017, el paciente acude a hospital de día de Oncología explicando sensación generalizada de cansancio, fatiga y debilidad física de una semana de evolución con empeoramiento progresivo en las últimas 48 h, que le impide realizar las actividades instrumentales de la vida diaria. Se acompaña de dolor abdominal difuso con aumento del número de deposiciones (1-2 al día) sin llegar a diarreas. También refiere disnea de esfuerzo grado 1. No tiene ortopnea, ni palpitaciones, ni dolor torácico. Niega fiebre y clínica infecciosa.
Exploración física
El paciente se encontraba eupneico, hemodinámicamente estable, afebril, normohidratado, consciente y orientado. Sus constantes vitales eran: tensión arterial: 115/95 mm Hg. Frecuencia cardiaca: 116 latidos por minuto (lpm). Temperatura: 35,8 ºC. SatO2: 97 % al aire.
Durante la auscultación cardiopulmonar, destacan tonos cardiacos rítmicos sin soplos ni roce pericárdico y murmullo vesicular conservado. Presenta edemas bimaleolares no dolorosos en la palpación. Pulsos periféricos presentes y palpables. Sin signos de trombosis venosa profunda ni ingurgitación yugular. El abdomen era blando y depresible con peristaltismo presente y doloroso a la palpación difusa.
Pruebas complementarias
A raíz de taquicardia objetivada, se realiza electrocardiograma que evidencia un ritmo sinusal a 114 lpm. PR 160 ms. QRS estrecho y una elevación del ST > 2mm en DIII, aVF y de V1 a V3 con cambios especulares en DI y AVL. Se completa estudio con analítica sanguínea en la que destacan leucocitos 6,37 x 10,9/l, hemoglobina 124 g/l, plaquetas 282 x 10,9/l, neutrófilos 4,51 x 10,9/l, urea 45 mg/dl, creatinina 1.59 mg/dl, creatina-quinasa (CK) 281 U/l (0-195), proteína C reactiva 6,21 mg/dl (0-0,5) y troponina T u.s. 6.377 ng/l (0-13). La radiografía de tórax descarta signos de insuficiencia cardiaca.
Ante estos hallazgos se contacta con Cardiología y se activa código infarto (IAM), realizándose cateterismo urgente que descarta lesiones coronarias.
Diagnóstico
Miocarditis secundaria a nivolumab grado 4.
Tratamiento
Ante la sospecha diagnóstica, y basándonos en la experiencia previa para la toxicidad inmunomediada por nivolumab, se inicia metilprednisolona con dosis de 2 mg/kg/día y se traslada al paciente a la Unidad de Cuidados Intensivos (UCI), donde se realiza soporte hemodinámico con drogas vasoactivas.
Evolución
En la UCI, el paciente evoluciona favorablemente a pesar de presentar inicialmente una depresión de la función ventricular izquierda objetivada por ecocardiografía con una FEVI de hasta un 30 %, por lo que se pudo retirar el soporte con dobutamina y, finalmente, no requirió infliximab como tratamiento de rescate inmunosupresor. A partir del cuarto día, se objetiva un descenso progresivo del recuento plaquetario hasta 2 x 10,9/l sin signos de sangrado que requirió soporte transfusional. Ante la sospecha de una trombopenia inducida por heparina, se retira la anticoagulación y se solicitan valores de anticuerpos anti-FP4 que resultan negativos descartando el diagnóstico. Se completa estudio con aspirado de médula ósea, que no muestra alteraciones, por lo que se concluye que la plaquetopenia fue inducida por nivolumab y mejoró progresivamente con el tratamiento corticoide. Finalmente, el paciente se traslada al Servicio de Oncología Médica donde continuó proceso terapéutico. Al alta, se mantuvo tratamiento con metilprednisolona 2 mg/kg/día durante 4 semanas y, posteriormente, pauta lentamente descendente hasta su retirada.
|
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[
"MORFOLOGIA_NEOPLASIA"
] |
IL4 is a Protein, IL10 is a Protein, IL10 is a Protein
|
49_task0
|
Sentence: Isolation and growth of B cells.
Splenocytes were prepared by homogenizing spleen tissue with two frosted slides and debris was filtered through a 100-mum cell strainer. Erythrocytes were lysed using 0.8% ammonium chloride solution (StemCell Technologies) for 10 min on ice and washed twice with PBS. B cells were isolated using CD19-MACS beads according to the manufacturer's instructions (Miltenyi Biotec) and grown in Iscove's medium supplemented with heat-inactivated 10% fetal bovine serum and antibiotic/antimycotic (GIBCO). Splenocytes isolated from SCID-passaged lymphomas consisted of 80%-90% B cells as determined by flow cytometry, and were hence not further purified with CD19-MACS beads. Splenocytes were seeded at 1.25 x 106 cells/ml and where applicable, recombinant mouse IL4 was added at 100 ng/ml, recombinant mouse IL10 at 10 ng/ml, and rat IgG1 anti-mouse IL10 and rat IgG1 isotype control at 10 mug/ml (R&D Systems). For BrdU incorporation assays, splenocytes were pulsed for 24 h with 10 muM BrdU 1 d post-harvest.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Protein
|
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Isolation and growth of B cells.
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|
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] |
[
"Protein"
] |
IL4 is a Protein, IL10 is a Protein, IL10 is a Protein
|
49_task1
|
Sentence: Isolation and growth of B cells.
Splenocytes were prepared by homogenizing spleen tissue with two frosted slides and debris was filtered through a 100-mum cell strainer. Erythrocytes were lysed using 0.8% ammonium chloride solution (StemCell Technologies) for 10 min on ice and washed twice with PBS. B cells were isolated using CD19-MACS beads according to the manufacturer's instructions (Miltenyi Biotec) and grown in Iscove's medium supplemented with heat-inactivated 10% fetal bovine serum and antibiotic/antimycotic (GIBCO). Splenocytes isolated from SCID-passaged lymphomas consisted of 80%-90% B cells as determined by flow cytometry, and were hence not further purified with CD19-MACS beads. Splenocytes were seeded at 1.25 x 106 cells/ml and where applicable, recombinant mouse IL4 was added at 100 ng/ml, recombinant mouse IL10 at 10 ng/ml, and rat IgG1 anti-mouse IL10 and rat IgG1 isotype control at 10 mug/ml (R&D Systems). For BrdU incorporation assays, splenocytes were pulsed for 24 h with 10 muM BrdU 1 d post-harvest.
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: IL4, IL10, IL10
Options: Protein
|
[
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Isolation and growth of B cells.
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|
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] |
[
"Protein"
] |
IL4, IL10, IL10
|
49_task2
|
Sentence: Isolation and growth of B cells.
Splenocytes were prepared by homogenizing spleen tissue with two frosted slides and debris was filtered through a 100-mum cell strainer. Erythrocytes were lysed using 0.8% ammonium chloride solution (StemCell Technologies) for 10 min on ice and washed twice with PBS. B cells were isolated using CD19-MACS beads according to the manufacturer's instructions (Miltenyi Biotec) and grown in Iscove's medium supplemented with heat-inactivated 10% fetal bovine serum and antibiotic/antimycotic (GIBCO). Splenocytes isolated from SCID-passaged lymphomas consisted of 80%-90% B cells as determined by flow cytometry, and were hence not further purified with CD19-MACS beads. Splenocytes were seeded at 1.25 x 106 cells/ml and where applicable, recombinant mouse IL4 was added at 100 ng/ml, recombinant mouse IL10 at 10 ng/ml, and rat IgG1 anti-mouse IL10 and rat IgG1 isotype control at 10 mug/ml (R&D Systems). For BrdU incorporation assays, splenocytes were pulsed for 24 h with 10 muM BrdU 1 d post-harvest.
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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Isolation and growth of B cells.
Splenocytes were prepared by homogenizing spleen tissue with two frosted slides and debris was filtered through a 100-mum cell strainer. Erythrocytes were lysed using 0.8% ammonium chloride solution (StemCell Technologies) for 10 min on ice and washed twice with PBS. B cells were isolated using CD19-MACS beads according to the manufacturer's instructions (Miltenyi Biotec) and grown in Iscove's medium supplemented with heat-inactivated 10% fetal bovine serum and antibiotic/antimycotic (GIBCO). Splenocytes isolated from SCID-passaged lymphomas consisted of 80%-90% B cells as determined by flow cytometry, and were hence not further purified with CD19-MACS beads. Splenocytes were seeded at 1.25 x 106 cells/ml and where applicable, recombinant mouse IL4 was added at 100 ng/ml, recombinant mouse IL10 at 10 ng/ml, and rat IgG1 anti-mouse IL10 and rat IgG1 isotype control at 10 mug/ml (R&D Systems). For BrdU incorporation assays, splenocytes were pulsed for 24 h with 10 muM BrdU 1 d post-harvest.
|
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] |
[
"Protein"
] |
incidence is an umlsterm, coronary artery aneurysm is an umlsterm, coronary artery disease is an umlsterm, vessel is an umlsterm, ectasia is an umlsterm, dilatations is an umlsterm, finding is an umlsterm, old is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, coronary artery aneurysm is an umlsterm, coronary artery disease is an umlsterm, right is an umlsterm, artery is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, myocardial infarction is an umlsterm, PTCA is an umlsterm, stent - implantation is an umlsterm, stenosis is an umlsterm, coronary artery aneurysm is an umlsterm, right is an umlsterm, artery is an umlsterm, procedure is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, angina pectoris is an umlsterm, control - angiography is an umlsterm
|
IntensiveMedizin.90360375.eng.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: The incidence of coronary artery aneurysm varies in the range from 0.2% to 4.9% . Ninety per cent of these were associated with atherosclerotic coronary artery disease , where vessel ectasia and poststenotic dilatations are not an infrequent finding . We present the case of a 67 year old patient with coronary artery aneurysm and coexisting coronary artery disease of the right coronary artery . The patient was symptomatic and had a posterolateral myocardial infarction . We performed a PTCA and stent-implantation of the stenosis and coronary artery aneurysm of the right coronary artery . After the procedure , the patient could be discharged without angina pectoris . A control-angiography will be performed six months later .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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] |
The incidence of coronary artery aneurysm varies in the range from 0.2% to 4.9% . Ninety per cent of these were associated with atherosclerotic coronary artery disease , where vessel ectasia and poststenotic dilatations are not an infrequent finding . We present the case of a 67 year old patient with coronary artery aneurysm and coexisting coronary artery disease of the right coronary artery . The patient was symptomatic and had a posterolateral myocardial infarction . We performed a PTCA and stent-implantation of the stenosis and coronary artery aneurysm of the right coronary artery . After the procedure , the patient could be discharged without angina pectoris . A control-angiography will be performed six months later .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
incidence is an umlsterm, coronary artery aneurysm is an umlsterm, coronary artery disease is an umlsterm, vessel is an umlsterm, ectasia is an umlsterm, dilatations is an umlsterm, finding is an umlsterm, old is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, coronary artery aneurysm is an umlsterm, coronary artery disease is an umlsterm, right is an umlsterm, artery is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, myocardial infarction is an umlsterm, PTCA is an umlsterm, stent - implantation is an umlsterm, stenosis is an umlsterm, coronary artery aneurysm is an umlsterm, right is an umlsterm, artery is an umlsterm, procedure is an umlsterm, patient is an umlsterm, angina pectoris is an umlsterm, control - angiography is an umlsterm
|
IntensiveMedizin.90360375.eng.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: The incidence of coronary artery aneurysm varies in the range from 0.2% to 4.9% . Ninety per cent of these were associated with atherosclerotic coronary artery disease , where vessel ectasia and poststenotic dilatations are not an infrequent finding . We present the case of a 67 year old patient with coronary artery aneurysm and coexisting coronary artery disease of the right coronary artery . The patient was symptomatic and had a posterolateral myocardial infarction . We performed a PTCA and stent-implantation of the stenosis and coronary artery aneurysm of the right coronary artery . After the procedure , the patient could be discharged without angina pectoris . A control-angiography will be performed six months later .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: incidence, coronary artery aneurysm, coronary artery disease, vessel, ectasia, dilatations, finding, old, patient, coronary artery aneurysm, coronary artery disease, right, artery, patient, myocardial infarction, PTCA, stent - implantation, stenosis, coronary artery aneurysm, right, artery, procedure, patient, angina pectoris, control - angiography
Options: umlsterm
|
[
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] |
The incidence of coronary artery aneurysm varies in the range from 0.2% to 4.9% . Ninety per cent of these were associated with atherosclerotic coronary artery disease , where vessel ectasia and poststenotic dilatations are not an infrequent finding . We present the case of a 67 year old patient with coronary artery aneurysm and coexisting coronary artery disease of the right coronary artery . The patient was symptomatic and had a posterolateral myocardial infarction . We performed a PTCA and stent-implantation of the stenosis and coronary artery aneurysm of the right coronary artery . After the procedure , the patient could be discharged without angina pectoris . A control-angiography will be performed six months later .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
] |
incidence, coronary artery aneurysm, coronary artery disease, vessel, ectasia, dilatations, finding, old, patient, coronary artery aneurysm, coronary artery disease, right, artery, patient, myocardial infarction, PTCA, stent - implantation, stenosis, coronary artery aneurysm, right, artery, procedure, patient, angina pectoris, control - angiography
|
IntensiveMedizin.90360375.eng.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: The incidence of coronary artery aneurysm varies in the range from 0.2% to 4.9% . Ninety per cent of these were associated with atherosclerotic coronary artery disease , where vessel ectasia and poststenotic dilatations are not an infrequent finding . We present the case of a 67 year old patient with coronary artery aneurysm and coexisting coronary artery disease of the right coronary artery . The patient was symptomatic and had a posterolateral myocardial infarction . We performed a PTCA and stent-implantation of the stenosis and coronary artery aneurysm of the right coronary artery . After the procedure , the patient could be discharged without angina pectoris . A control-angiography will be performed six months later .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
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"O"
] |
The incidence of coronary artery aneurysm varies in the range from 0.2% to 4.9% . Ninety per cent of these were associated with atherosclerotic coronary artery disease , where vessel ectasia and poststenotic dilatations are not an infrequent finding . We present the case of a 67 year old patient with coronary artery aneurysm and coexisting coronary artery disease of the right coronary artery . The patient was symptomatic and had a posterolateral myocardial infarction . We performed a PTCA and stent-implantation of the stenosis and coronary artery aneurysm of the right coronary artery . After the procedure , the patient could be discharged without angina pectoris . A control-angiography will be performed six months later .
|
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[
"umlsterm"
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neuromuscular disease is a Condition, Contraindication is a Condition, weight bearing on lower extremities is a Observation, Pressure sores is a Condition, harness is a Device, Uncontrollable is a Qualifier, hypotension is a Condition, when upright is a Qualifier, Lower limb contractures is a Condition, impeding is a Mood, range of motion necessary for ambulation is a Observation
|
NCT00931983_exc_task0
|
Sentence: Other neuromuscular disease
Contraindication to weight bearing on lower extremities
Pressure sores where harness would be applied
Uncontrollable hypotension when upright
Lower limb contractures impeding range of motion necessary for ambulation
Prior enrolment in a BWATT program
Unable to commit to intervention for duration of protocol
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Condition, Qualifier, Observation, Device, Mood
|
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Other neuromuscular disease
Contraindication to weight bearing on lower extremities
Pressure sores where harness would be applied
Uncontrollable hypotension when upright
Lower limb contractures impeding range of motion necessary for ambulation
Prior enrolment in a BWATT program
Unable to commit to intervention for duration of protocol
|
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neuromuscular disease is a Condition, Contraindication is a Condition, weight bearing on lower extremities is a Observation, Pressure sores is a Condition, harness is a Device, Uncontrollable is a Qualifier, hypotension is a Condition, when upright is a Qualifier, Lower limb contractures is a Condition, impeding is a Mood, range of motion necessary for ambulation is a Observation
|
NCT00931983_exc_task1
|
Sentence: Other neuromuscular disease
Contraindication to weight bearing on lower extremities
Pressure sores where harness would be applied
Uncontrollable hypotension when upright
Lower limb contractures impeding range of motion necessary for ambulation
Prior enrolment in a BWATT program
Unable to commit to intervention for duration of protocol
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: neuromuscular disease, Contraindication, weight bearing on lower extremities, Pressure sores, harness, Uncontrollable, hypotension, when upright, Lower limb contractures, impeding, range of motion necessary for ambulation
Options: Condition, Qualifier, Observation, Device, Mood
|
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Other neuromuscular disease
Contraindication to weight bearing on lower extremities
Pressure sores where harness would be applied
Uncontrollable hypotension when upright
Lower limb contractures impeding range of motion necessary for ambulation
Prior enrolment in a BWATT program
Unable to commit to intervention for duration of protocol
|
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neuromuscular disease, Contraindication, weight bearing on lower extremities, Pressure sores, harness, Uncontrollable, hypotension, when upright, Lower limb contractures, impeding, range of motion necessary for ambulation
|
NCT00931983_exc_task2
|
Sentence: Other neuromuscular disease
Contraindication to weight bearing on lower extremities
Pressure sores where harness would be applied
Uncontrollable hypotension when upright
Lower limb contractures impeding range of motion necessary for ambulation
Prior enrolment in a BWATT program
Unable to commit to intervention for duration of protocol
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
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"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
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] |
Other neuromuscular disease
Contraindication to weight bearing on lower extremities
Pressure sores where harness would be applied
Uncontrollable hypotension when upright
Lower limb contractures impeding range of motion necessary for ambulation
Prior enrolment in a BWATT program
Unable to commit to intervention for duration of protocol
|
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home - based intervention program is a Intervention_Educational, autism and developmental delay is a Participant_Condition, home - based program in addition to a center - based program is a Intervention_Educational, young children is a Participant_Age, Fifty - nine is a Participant_Sample-size, aged 3 - 5 years is a Participant_Age, additional program in their homes is a Intervention_Educational, family stress , support , and empowerment is a Outcome_Mental, Change in cognitive development and behavior is a Outcome_Mental, family measures of change is a Outcome_Mental
|
32070_task0
|
Sentence: A randomized , controlled trial of a home-based intervention program for children with autism and developmental delay . OBJECTIVE This study aimed to ( 1 ) investigate whether provision of a home-based program in addition to a center-based program improves development in young children with disabilities and coping abilities of their families and ( 2 ) describe the characteristics of children and families who benefit most from the intervention . METHODS Fifty-nine children , aged 3-5 years , with no cerebral palsy , participated in the study . Half of the group was randomized to receive an additional program in their homes . A special education teacher provided 40 visits over 12 months working with the families to help generalize skills to the home environment and assist with their concerns . All children were assessed before and after the intervention , and families completed questionnaires assessing family stress , support , and empowerment on both occasions . Differences in change over time and between the intervention and control group were analyzed by repeated measures and the association between characteristics of children and families with improved outcome by multivariate analysis of variance . RESULTS Change in cognitive development and behavior ( in the centers ) over time favored the children who received the extra intervention ( p = .007 and p = .007 , respectively ) . The groups did not differ on any of the family measures of change . Multivariate analysis of variance revealed more improvement for children in the intervention group from higher than lower stressed families . CONCLUSIONS Results suggest the need for daily reinforcement of skills learned at the center-based program and the importance of involving families , especially those with few resources and relatively high stress .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Participant_Condition, Intervention_Educational, Participant_Age, Participant_Sample-size, Outcome_Mental
|
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A randomized , controlled trial of a home-based intervention program for children with autism and developmental delay . OBJECTIVE This study aimed to ( 1 ) investigate whether provision of a home-based program in addition to a center-based program improves development in young children with disabilities and coping abilities of their families and ( 2 ) describe the characteristics of children and families who benefit most from the intervention . METHODS Fifty-nine children , aged 3-5 years , with no cerebral palsy , participated in the study . Half of the group was randomized to receive an additional program in their homes . A special education teacher provided 40 visits over 12 months working with the families to help generalize skills to the home environment and assist with their concerns . All children were assessed before and after the intervention , and families completed questionnaires assessing family stress , support , and empowerment on both occasions . Differences in change over time and between the intervention and control group were analyzed by repeated measures and the association between characteristics of children and families with improved outcome by multivariate analysis of variance . RESULTS Change in cognitive development and behavior ( in the centers ) over time favored the children who received the extra intervention ( p = .007 and p = .007 , respectively ) . The groups did not differ on any of the family measures of change . Multivariate analysis of variance revealed more improvement for children in the intervention group from higher than lower stressed families . CONCLUSIONS Results suggest the need for daily reinforcement of skills learned at the center-based program and the importance of involving families , especially those with few resources and relatively high stress .
|
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[
"Intervention_Educational",
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] |
home - based intervention program is a Intervention_Educational, autism and developmental delay is a Participant_Condition, home - based program in addition to a center - based program is a Intervention_Educational, young children is a Participant_Age, Fifty - nine is a Participant_Sample-size, aged 3 - 5 years is a Participant_Age, additional program in their homes is a Intervention_Educational, family stress , support , and empowerment is a Outcome_Mental, Change in cognitive development and behavior is a Outcome_Mental, family measures of change is a Outcome_Mental
|
32070_task1
|
Sentence: A randomized , controlled trial of a home-based intervention program for children with autism and developmental delay . OBJECTIVE This study aimed to ( 1 ) investigate whether provision of a home-based program in addition to a center-based program improves development in young children with disabilities and coping abilities of their families and ( 2 ) describe the characteristics of children and families who benefit most from the intervention . METHODS Fifty-nine children , aged 3-5 years , with no cerebral palsy , participated in the study . Half of the group was randomized to receive an additional program in their homes . A special education teacher provided 40 visits over 12 months working with the families to help generalize skills to the home environment and assist with their concerns . All children were assessed before and after the intervention , and families completed questionnaires assessing family stress , support , and empowerment on both occasions . Differences in change over time and between the intervention and control group were analyzed by repeated measures and the association between characteristics of children and families with improved outcome by multivariate analysis of variance . RESULTS Change in cognitive development and behavior ( in the centers ) over time favored the children who received the extra intervention ( p = .007 and p = .007 , respectively ) . The groups did not differ on any of the family measures of change . Multivariate analysis of variance revealed more improvement for children in the intervention group from higher than lower stressed families . CONCLUSIONS Results suggest the need for daily reinforcement of skills learned at the center-based program and the importance of involving families , especially those with few resources and relatively high stress .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: home - based intervention program, autism and developmental delay, home - based program in addition to a center - based program, young children, Fifty - nine, aged 3 - 5 years, additional program in their homes, family stress , support , and empowerment, Change in cognitive development and behavior, family measures of change
Options: Participant_Condition, Intervention_Educational, Participant_Age, Participant_Sample-size, Outcome_Mental
|
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A randomized , controlled trial of a home-based intervention program for children with autism and developmental delay . OBJECTIVE This study aimed to ( 1 ) investigate whether provision of a home-based program in addition to a center-based program improves development in young children with disabilities and coping abilities of their families and ( 2 ) describe the characteristics of children and families who benefit most from the intervention . METHODS Fifty-nine children , aged 3-5 years , with no cerebral palsy , participated in the study . Half of the group was randomized to receive an additional program in their homes . A special education teacher provided 40 visits over 12 months working with the families to help generalize skills to the home environment and assist with their concerns . All children were assessed before and after the intervention , and families completed questionnaires assessing family stress , support , and empowerment on both occasions . Differences in change over time and between the intervention and control group were analyzed by repeated measures and the association between characteristics of children and families with improved outcome by multivariate analysis of variance . RESULTS Change in cognitive development and behavior ( in the centers ) over time favored the children who received the extra intervention ( p = .007 and p = .007 , respectively ) . The groups did not differ on any of the family measures of change . Multivariate analysis of variance revealed more improvement for children in the intervention group from higher than lower stressed families . CONCLUSIONS Results suggest the need for daily reinforcement of skills learned at the center-based program and the importance of involving families , especially those with few resources and relatively high stress .
|
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home - based intervention program, autism and developmental delay, home - based program in addition to a center - based program, young children, Fifty - nine, aged 3 - 5 years, additional program in their homes, family stress , support , and empowerment, Change in cognitive development and behavior, family measures of change
|
32070_task2
|
Sentence: A randomized , controlled trial of a home-based intervention program for children with autism and developmental delay . OBJECTIVE This study aimed to ( 1 ) investigate whether provision of a home-based program in addition to a center-based program improves development in young children with disabilities and coping abilities of their families and ( 2 ) describe the characteristics of children and families who benefit most from the intervention . METHODS Fifty-nine children , aged 3-5 years , with no cerebral palsy , participated in the study . Half of the group was randomized to receive an additional program in their homes . A special education teacher provided 40 visits over 12 months working with the families to help generalize skills to the home environment and assist with their concerns . All children were assessed before and after the intervention , and families completed questionnaires assessing family stress , support , and empowerment on both occasions . Differences in change over time and between the intervention and control group were analyzed by repeated measures and the association between characteristics of children and families with improved outcome by multivariate analysis of variance . RESULTS Change in cognitive development and behavior ( in the centers ) over time favored the children who received the extra intervention ( p = .007 and p = .007 , respectively ) . The groups did not differ on any of the family measures of change . Multivariate analysis of variance revealed more improvement for children in the intervention group from higher than lower stressed families . CONCLUSIONS Results suggest the need for daily reinforcement of skills learned at the center-based program and the importance of involving families , especially those with few resources and relatively high stress .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
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A randomized , controlled trial of a home-based intervention program for children with autism and developmental delay . OBJECTIVE This study aimed to ( 1 ) investigate whether provision of a home-based program in addition to a center-based program improves development in young children with disabilities and coping abilities of their families and ( 2 ) describe the characteristics of children and families who benefit most from the intervention . METHODS Fifty-nine children , aged 3-5 years , with no cerebral palsy , participated in the study . Half of the group was randomized to receive an additional program in their homes . A special education teacher provided 40 visits over 12 months working with the families to help generalize skills to the home environment and assist with their concerns . All children were assessed before and after the intervention , and families completed questionnaires assessing family stress , support , and empowerment on both occasions . Differences in change over time and between the intervention and control group were analyzed by repeated measures and the association between characteristics of children and families with improved outcome by multivariate analysis of variance . RESULTS Change in cognitive development and behavior ( in the centers ) over time favored the children who received the extra intervention ( p = .007 and p = .007 , respectively ) . The groups did not differ on any of the family measures of change . Multivariate analysis of variance revealed more improvement for children in the intervention group from higher than lower stressed families . CONCLUSIONS Results suggest the need for daily reinforcement of skills learned at the center-based program and the importance of involving families , especially those with few resources and relatively high stress .
|
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"Participant_Sample-size"
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Aged is a Person, between 18 - 70 years is a Value, Meets is a Scope, Diagnostic and Statistical Manual ( DSM ) IV and DSM - V diagnostic criteria is a Measurement, generalised anxiety disorder is a Condition, GAD is a Condition, structured interview is a Procedure, Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview - Plus 6 [ MINI - Plus 6 ] is a Procedure, anxiety is a Condition, Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale is a Measurement, = 18 is a Value, at the time of study entry is a Temporal, Primary diagnosis is a Condition, other than is a Negation, GAD is a Condition, moderate to severe depressive symptoms is a Scope, Montgomery - Asberg Rating Scale : MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study is a Scope, suicidal ideation is a Condition, MADRS suicidal thoughts domain is a Measurement, at time of study entry or at any time during study is a Scope, bipolar disorder or schizophrenia is a Scope, structured interview is a Measurement, MINI Plus is a Measurement, substance / alcohol use disorder is a Scope, structured interview is a Measurement, MINI Plus is a Measurement, Currently is a Temporal, taking is a Condition, antidepressant , mood stabiliser , antipsychotic , anticonvulsant , warfarin or thyroxin is a Scope, current is a Temporal, regular is a Multiplier, use is a Procedure, more than 2 days per week is a Multiplier, benzodiazepine or opioid - based analgesic is a Scope, Current is a Temporal, use is a Procedure, psychotropic nutraceutical is a Drug, St John 's wort is a Condition, Previous is a Temporal, intolerance is a Condition, kava is a Drug, Three or more is a Multiplier, failed is a Qualifier, trials of pharmacotherapy is a Procedure, current is a Temporal, GAD episode is a Condition, Recently is a Temporal, psychotherapy is a Procedure, within four weeks of study entry is a Temporal, Known or suspected is a Scope, clinically unstable is a Qualifier, systemic is a Qualifier, medical disorder is a Condition, hepato - biliary disease is a Condition, Elevated is a Value, liver enzymes is a Measurement, baseline is a Temporal, blood test is a Procedure, Pregnancy is a Condition, breastfeeding is a Observation, trying to conceive is a Condition, Not using medically approved contraception ( including abstinence ) is a Scope, female and of childbearing age is a Scope, Unable to participate is a Observation, scheduled visits , treatment plan , or other trial procedures is a Scope, except for is a Negation, genetic component is a Observation
|
NCT02219880_inc_task0
|
Sentence: Aged between 18-70 years
Meets the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV and DSM-V diagnostic criteria for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) based on structured interview (Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview-Plus 6 [MINI-Plus 6]. Note that while the MINI-Plus 6 uses the DSM-IV criteria, the same criteria are used in the DSM-V).
Presents with anxiety (Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale = 18) at the time of study entry
Fluent in written and spoken English
Provides a signed copy of the consent form
Primary diagnosis other than GAD
Presentation of moderate to severe depressive symptoms (Montgomery-Asberg Rating Scale: MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study)
Presentation of suicidal ideation (= 3 on MADRS suicidal thoughts domain at time of study entry or at any time during study)
Current diagnosis of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia on structured interview (MINI Plus)
Current substance/alcohol use disorder on structured interview (MINI Plus) Page 21 of 39 Commercial-in-Confidence
Currently taking an antidepressant, mood stabiliser, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, warfarin or thyroxin, or current regular use (more than 2 days per week) of a benzodiazepine or opioid-based analgesic
Current use of a psychotropic nutraceutical (e.g. St John's wort)
Previous intolerance to kava
Three or more failed trials of pharmacotherapy for the current GAD episode
Recently commenced psychotherapy (within four weeks of study entry)
Known or suspected clinically unstable systemic medical disorder
Diagnosed hepato-biliary disease/inflammation
Elevated liver enzymes at baseline blood test
Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or trying to conceive
Not using medically approved contraception (including abstinence) if female and of childbearing age
Unable to participate in all scheduled visits, treatment plan, or other trial procedures according to the protocol (except for the optional genetic component)
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Temporal, Condition, Qualifier, Value, Person, Observation, Multiplier, Procedure, Negation, Scope, Measurement, Drug
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Aged between 18-70 years
Meets the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV and DSM-V diagnostic criteria for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) based on structured interview (Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview-Plus 6 [MINI-Plus 6]. Note that while the MINI-Plus 6 uses the DSM-IV criteria, the same criteria are used in the DSM-V).
Presents with anxiety (Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale = 18) at the time of study entry
Fluent in written and spoken English
Provides a signed copy of the consent form
Primary diagnosis other than GAD
Presentation of moderate to severe depressive symptoms (Montgomery-Asberg Rating Scale: MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study)
Presentation of suicidal ideation (= 3 on MADRS suicidal thoughts domain at time of study entry or at any time during study)
Current diagnosis of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia on structured interview (MINI Plus)
Current substance/alcohol use disorder on structured interview (MINI Plus) Page 21 of 39 Commercial-in-Confidence
Currently taking an antidepressant, mood stabiliser, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, warfarin or thyroxin, or current regular use (more than 2 days per week) of a benzodiazepine or opioid-based analgesic
Current use of a psychotropic nutraceutical (e.g. St John's wort)
Previous intolerance to kava
Three or more failed trials of pharmacotherapy for the current GAD episode
Recently commenced psychotherapy (within four weeks of study entry)
Known or suspected clinically unstable systemic medical disorder
Diagnosed hepato-biliary disease/inflammation
Elevated liver enzymes at baseline blood test
Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or trying to conceive
Not using medically approved contraception (including abstinence) if female and of childbearing age
Unable to participate in all scheduled visits, treatment plan, or other trial procedures according to the protocol (except for the optional genetic component)
|
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|
NCT02219880_inc_task1
|
Sentence: Aged between 18-70 years
Meets the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV and DSM-V diagnostic criteria for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) based on structured interview (Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview-Plus 6 [MINI-Plus 6]. Note that while the MINI-Plus 6 uses the DSM-IV criteria, the same criteria are used in the DSM-V).
Presents with anxiety (Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale = 18) at the time of study entry
Fluent in written and spoken English
Provides a signed copy of the consent form
Primary diagnosis other than GAD
Presentation of moderate to severe depressive symptoms (Montgomery-Asberg Rating Scale: MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study)
Presentation of suicidal ideation (= 3 on MADRS suicidal thoughts domain at time of study entry or at any time during study)
Current diagnosis of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia on structured interview (MINI Plus)
Current substance/alcohol use disorder on structured interview (MINI Plus) Page 21 of 39 Commercial-in-Confidence
Currently taking an antidepressant, mood stabiliser, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, warfarin or thyroxin, or current regular use (more than 2 days per week) of a benzodiazepine or opioid-based analgesic
Current use of a psychotropic nutraceutical (e.g. St John's wort)
Previous intolerance to kava
Three or more failed trials of pharmacotherapy for the current GAD episode
Recently commenced psychotherapy (within four weeks of study entry)
Known or suspected clinically unstable systemic medical disorder
Diagnosed hepato-biliary disease/inflammation
Elevated liver enzymes at baseline blood test
Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or trying to conceive
Not using medically approved contraception (including abstinence) if female and of childbearing age
Unable to participate in all scheduled visits, treatment plan, or other trial procedures according to the protocol (except for the optional genetic component)
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Aged, between 18 - 70 years, Meets, Diagnostic and Statistical Manual ( DSM ) IV and DSM - V diagnostic criteria, generalised anxiety disorder, GAD, structured interview, Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview - Plus 6 [ MINI - Plus 6 ], anxiety, Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale, = 18, at the time of study entry, Primary diagnosis, other than, GAD, moderate to severe depressive symptoms, Montgomery - Asberg Rating Scale : MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study, suicidal ideation, MADRS suicidal thoughts domain, at time of study entry or at any time during study, bipolar disorder or schizophrenia, structured interview, MINI Plus, substance / alcohol use disorder, structured interview, MINI Plus, Currently, taking, antidepressant , mood stabiliser , antipsychotic , anticonvulsant , warfarin or thyroxin, current, regular, use, more than 2 days per week, benzodiazepine or opioid - based analgesic, Current, use, psychotropic nutraceutical, St John 's wort, Previous, intolerance, kava, Three or more, failed, trials of pharmacotherapy, current, GAD episode, Recently, psychotherapy, within four weeks of study entry, Known or suspected, clinically unstable, systemic, medical disorder, hepato - biliary disease, Elevated, liver enzymes, baseline, blood test, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, trying to conceive, Not using medically approved contraception ( including abstinence ), female and of childbearing age, Unable to participate, scheduled visits , treatment plan , or other trial procedures, except for, genetic component
Options: Temporal, Condition, Qualifier, Value, Person, Observation, Multiplier, Procedure, Negation, Scope, Measurement, Drug
|
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Meets the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV and DSM-V diagnostic criteria for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) based on structured interview (Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview-Plus 6 [MINI-Plus 6]. Note that while the MINI-Plus 6 uses the DSM-IV criteria, the same criteria are used in the DSM-V).
Presents with anxiety (Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale = 18) at the time of study entry
Fluent in written and spoken English
Provides a signed copy of the consent form
Primary diagnosis other than GAD
Presentation of moderate to severe depressive symptoms (Montgomery-Asberg Rating Scale: MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study)
Presentation of suicidal ideation (= 3 on MADRS suicidal thoughts domain at time of study entry or at any time during study)
Current diagnosis of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia on structured interview (MINI Plus)
Current substance/alcohol use disorder on structured interview (MINI Plus) Page 21 of 39 Commercial-in-Confidence
Currently taking an antidepressant, mood stabiliser, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, warfarin or thyroxin, or current regular use (more than 2 days per week) of a benzodiazepine or opioid-based analgesic
Current use of a psychotropic nutraceutical (e.g. St John's wort)
Previous intolerance to kava
Three or more failed trials of pharmacotherapy for the current GAD episode
Recently commenced psychotherapy (within four weeks of study entry)
Known or suspected clinically unstable systemic medical disorder
Diagnosed hepato-biliary disease/inflammation
Elevated liver enzymes at baseline blood test
Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or trying to conceive
Not using medically approved contraception (including abstinence) if female and of childbearing age
Unable to participate in all scheduled visits, treatment plan, or other trial procedures according to the protocol (except for the optional genetic component)
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Aged, between 18 - 70 years, Meets, Diagnostic and Statistical Manual ( DSM ) IV and DSM - V diagnostic criteria, generalised anxiety disorder, GAD, structured interview, Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview - Plus 6 [ MINI - Plus 6 ], anxiety, Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale, = 18, at the time of study entry, Primary diagnosis, other than, GAD, moderate to severe depressive symptoms, Montgomery - Asberg Rating Scale : MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study, suicidal ideation, MADRS suicidal thoughts domain, at time of study entry or at any time during study, bipolar disorder or schizophrenia, structured interview, MINI Plus, substance / alcohol use disorder, structured interview, MINI Plus, Currently, taking, antidepressant , mood stabiliser , antipsychotic , anticonvulsant , warfarin or thyroxin, current, regular, use, more than 2 days per week, benzodiazepine or opioid - based analgesic, Current, use, psychotropic nutraceutical, St John 's wort, Previous, intolerance, kava, Three or more, failed, trials of pharmacotherapy, current, GAD episode, Recently, psychotherapy, within four weeks of study entry, Known or suspected, clinically unstable, systemic, medical disorder, hepato - biliary disease, Elevated, liver enzymes, baseline, blood test, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, trying to conceive, Not using medically approved contraception ( including abstinence ), female and of childbearing age, Unable to participate, scheduled visits , treatment plan , or other trial procedures, except for, genetic component
|
NCT02219880_inc_task2
|
Sentence: Aged between 18-70 years
Meets the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV and DSM-V diagnostic criteria for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) based on structured interview (Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview-Plus 6 [MINI-Plus 6]. Note that while the MINI-Plus 6 uses the DSM-IV criteria, the same criteria are used in the DSM-V).
Presents with anxiety (Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale = 18) at the time of study entry
Fluent in written and spoken English
Provides a signed copy of the consent form
Primary diagnosis other than GAD
Presentation of moderate to severe depressive symptoms (Montgomery-Asberg Rating Scale: MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study)
Presentation of suicidal ideation (= 3 on MADRS suicidal thoughts domain at time of study entry or at any time during study)
Current diagnosis of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia on structured interview (MINI Plus)
Current substance/alcohol use disorder on structured interview (MINI Plus) Page 21 of 39 Commercial-in-Confidence
Currently taking an antidepressant, mood stabiliser, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, warfarin or thyroxin, or current regular use (more than 2 days per week) of a benzodiazepine or opioid-based analgesic
Current use of a psychotropic nutraceutical (e.g. St John's wort)
Previous intolerance to kava
Three or more failed trials of pharmacotherapy for the current GAD episode
Recently commenced psychotherapy (within four weeks of study entry)
Known or suspected clinically unstable systemic medical disorder
Diagnosed hepato-biliary disease/inflammation
Elevated liver enzymes at baseline blood test
Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or trying to conceive
Not using medically approved contraception (including abstinence) if female and of childbearing age
Unable to participate in all scheduled visits, treatment plan, or other trial procedures according to the protocol (except for the optional genetic component)
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
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Aged between 18-70 years
Meets the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV and DSM-V diagnostic criteria for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) based on structured interview (Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview-Plus 6 [MINI-Plus 6]. Note that while the MINI-Plus 6 uses the DSM-IV criteria, the same criteria are used in the DSM-V).
Presents with anxiety (Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale = 18) at the time of study entry
Fluent in written and spoken English
Provides a signed copy of the consent form
Primary diagnosis other than GAD
Presentation of moderate to severe depressive symptoms (Montgomery-Asberg Rating Scale: MADRS = 18 at time of study entry or = 24 at any time during study)
Presentation of suicidal ideation (= 3 on MADRS suicidal thoughts domain at time of study entry or at any time during study)
Current diagnosis of bipolar disorder or schizophrenia on structured interview (MINI Plus)
Current substance/alcohol use disorder on structured interview (MINI Plus) Page 21 of 39 Commercial-in-Confidence
Currently taking an antidepressant, mood stabiliser, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, warfarin or thyroxin, or current regular use (more than 2 days per week) of a benzodiazepine or opioid-based analgesic
Current use of a psychotropic nutraceutical (e.g. St John's wort)
Previous intolerance to kava
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Recently commenced psychotherapy (within four weeks of study entry)
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Diagnosed hepato-biliary disease/inflammation
Elevated liver enzymes at baseline blood test
Pregnancy or breastfeeding, or trying to conceive
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Unable to participate in all scheduled visits, treatment plan, or other trial procedures according to the protocol (except for the optional genetic component)
|
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"Plus",
"6",
"]",
".",
"Note",
"that",
"while",
"the",
"MINI",
"-",
"Plus",
"6",
"uses",
"the",
"DSM",
"-",
"IV",
"criteria",
",",
"the",
"same",
"criteria",
"are",
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"the",
"DSM",
"-",
"V",
")",
".",
"\n",
"Presents",
"with",
"anxiety",
"(",
"Hamilton",
"Anxiety",
"Rating",
"Scale",
"=",
"18",
")",
"at",
"the",
"time",
"of",
"study",
"entry",
"\n",
"Fluent",
"in",
"written",
"and",
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"English",
"\n",
"Provides",
"a",
"signed",
"copy",
"of",
"the",
"consent",
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"\n",
"Primary",
"diagnosis",
"other",
"than",
"GAD",
"\n",
"Presentation",
"of",
"moderate",
"to",
"severe",
"depressive",
"symptoms",
"(",
"Montgomery",
"-",
"Asberg",
"Rating",
"Scale",
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"MADRS",
"=",
"18",
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"24",
"at",
"any",
"time",
"during",
"study",
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"\n",
"Presentation",
"of",
"suicidal",
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"(=",
"3",
"on",
"MADRS",
"suicidal",
"thoughts",
"domain",
"at",
"time",
"of",
"study",
"entry",
"or",
"at",
"any",
"time",
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"study",
")",
"\n",
"Current",
"diagnosis",
"of",
"bipolar",
"disorder",
"or",
"schizophrenia",
"on",
"structured",
"interview",
"(",
"MINI",
"Plus",
")",
"\n",
"Current",
"substance",
"/",
"alcohol",
"use",
"disorder",
"on",
"structured",
"interview",
"(",
"MINI",
"Plus",
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"Page",
"21",
"of",
"39",
"Commercial",
"-",
"in",
"-",
"Confidence",
"\n",
"Currently",
"taking",
"an",
"antidepressant",
",",
"mood",
"stabiliser",
",",
"antipsychotic",
",",
"anticonvulsant",
",",
"warfarin",
"or",
"thyroxin",
",",
"or",
"current",
"regular",
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"(",
"more",
"than",
"2",
"days",
"per",
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"a",
"benzodiazepine",
"or",
"opioid",
"-",
"based",
"analgesic",
"\n",
"Current",
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"of",
"a",
"psychotropic",
"nutraceutical",
"(",
"e.g",
".",
"St",
"John",
"'s",
"wort",
")",
"\n",
"Previous",
"intolerance",
"to",
"kava",
"\n",
"Three",
"or",
"more",
"failed",
"trials",
"of",
"pharmacotherapy",
"for",
"the",
"current",
"GAD",
"episode",
"\n",
"Recently",
"commenced",
"psychotherapy",
"(",
"within",
"four",
"weeks",
"of",
"study",
"entry",
")",
"\n",
"Known",
"or",
"suspected",
"clinically",
"unstable",
"systemic",
"medical",
"disorder",
"\n",
"Diagnosed",
"hepato",
"-",
"biliary",
"disease",
"/",
"inflammation",
"\n",
"Elevated",
"liver",
"enzymes",
"at",
"baseline",
"blood",
"test",
"\n",
"Pregnancy",
"or",
"breastfeeding",
",",
"or",
"trying",
"to",
"conceive",
"\n",
"Not",
"using",
"medically",
"approved",
"contraception",
"(",
"including",
"abstinence",
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"if",
"female",
"and",
"of",
"childbearing",
"age",
"\n",
"Unable",
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"participate",
"in",
"all",
"scheduled",
"visits",
",",
"treatment",
"plan",
",",
"or",
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"trial",
"procedures",
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"to",
"the",
"protocol",
"(",
"except",
"for",
"the",
"optional",
"genetic",
"component",
")",
"\n"
] |
[
"Scope",
"Measurement",
"Procedure",
"Temporal",
"Condition",
"Drug",
"Multiplier",
"Observation",
"Value",
"Reference_point",
"Qualifier",
"Person",
"Visit",
"Negation",
"Mood"
] |
Arteria subclavia is an umlsterm, Halsgefaesse is an umlsterm
|
ZfuerHerzThoraxGefaesschirurgie.00140083.ger.abstr_task0
|
Sentence: Die Arteria subclavia wird in zunehmendem Masse fuer die arterielle Kanuelierung bei der extrakorporalen Zirkulation eingesetzt . Ueber die Perfusionscharakteristika der Halsgefaesse bei unterschiedlichen Kanuelierungslokalisationen ist bisher wenig bekannt .
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Die Arteria subclavia wird in zunehmendem Masse fuer die arterielle Kanuelierung bei der extrakorporalen Zirkulation eingesetzt . Ueber die Perfusionscharakteristika der Halsgefaesse bei unterschiedlichen Kanuelierungslokalisationen ist bisher wenig bekannt .
|
[
"Die",
"Arteria",
"subclavia",
"wird",
"in",
"zunehmendem",
"Masse",
"fuer",
"die",
"arterielle",
"Kanuelierung",
"bei",
"der",
"extrakorporalen",
"Zirkulation",
"eingesetzt",
".",
"Ueber",
"die",
"Perfusionscharakteristika",
"der",
"Halsgefaesse",
"bei",
"unterschiedlichen",
"Kanuelierungslokalisationen",
"ist",
"bisher",
"wenig",
"bekannt",
"."
] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Arteria subclavia is an umlsterm, Halsgefaesse is an umlsterm
|
ZfuerHerzThoraxGefaesschirurgie.00140083.ger.abstr_task1
|
Sentence: Die Arteria subclavia wird in zunehmendem Masse fuer die arterielle Kanuelierung bei der extrakorporalen Zirkulation eingesetzt . Ueber die Perfusionscharakteristika der Halsgefaesse bei unterschiedlichen Kanuelierungslokalisationen ist bisher wenig bekannt .
Instructions: please typing these entity words according to sentence: Arteria subclavia, Halsgefaesse
Options: umlsterm
|
[
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Die Arteria subclavia wird in zunehmendem Masse fuer die arterielle Kanuelierung bei der extrakorporalen Zirkulation eingesetzt . Ueber die Perfusionscharakteristika der Halsgefaesse bei unterschiedlichen Kanuelierungslokalisationen ist bisher wenig bekannt .
|
[
"Die",
"Arteria",
"subclavia",
"wird",
"in",
"zunehmendem",
"Masse",
"fuer",
"die",
"arterielle",
"Kanuelierung",
"bei",
"der",
"extrakorporalen",
"Zirkulation",
"eingesetzt",
".",
"Ueber",
"die",
"Perfusionscharakteristika",
"der",
"Halsgefaesse",
"bei",
"unterschiedlichen",
"Kanuelierungslokalisationen",
"ist",
"bisher",
"wenig",
"bekannt",
"."
] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
Arteria subclavia, Halsgefaesse
|
ZfuerHerzThoraxGefaesschirurgie.00140083.ger.abstr_task2
|
Sentence: Die Arteria subclavia wird in zunehmendem Masse fuer die arterielle Kanuelierung bei der extrakorporalen Zirkulation eingesetzt . Ueber die Perfusionscharakteristika der Halsgefaesse bei unterschiedlichen Kanuelierungslokalisationen ist bisher wenig bekannt .
Instructions: please extract entity words from the input sentence
|
[
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"I-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-umlsterm",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Die Arteria subclavia wird in zunehmendem Masse fuer die arterielle Kanuelierung bei der extrakorporalen Zirkulation eingesetzt . Ueber die Perfusionscharakteristika der Halsgefaesse bei unterschiedlichen Kanuelierungslokalisationen ist bisher wenig bekannt .
|
[
"Die",
"Arteria",
"subclavia",
"wird",
"in",
"zunehmendem",
"Masse",
"fuer",
"die",
"arterielle",
"Kanuelierung",
"bei",
"der",
"extrakorporalen",
"Zirkulation",
"eingesetzt",
".",
"Ueber",
"die",
"Perfusionscharakteristika",
"der",
"Halsgefaesse",
"bei",
"unterschiedlichen",
"Kanuelierungslokalisationen",
"ist",
"bisher",
"wenig",
"bekannt",
"."
] |
[
"umlsterm"
] |
beta - catenin is a Gene/protein/RNA, E - cadherin is a Gene/protein/RNA, alpha - catenin is a Individual_protein, beta - catenin is a Individual_protein, E - cadherin is a Individual_protein, E - cadherin is a Individual_protein, catenins is a Individual_protein
|
82_task0
|
Sentence: Analyses of beta-catenin or E-cadherin immunoprecipitates from BMMC lysate revealed that alpha-catenin, beta-catenin, and E-cadherin were co-precipitated, suggesting that E-cadherin and catenins form a complex in mast cells.
Instructions: please extract entities and their types from the input sentence, all entity types are in options
Options: Gene/protein/RNA, Individual_protein
|
[
"O",
"O",
"B-Gene/protein/RNA",
"I-Gene/protein/RNA",
"I-Gene/protein/RNA",
"O",
"B-Gene/protein/RNA",
"I-Gene/protein/RNA",
"I-Gene/protein/RNA",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"I-Individual_protein",
"O",
"B-Individual_protein",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O",
"O"
] |
Analyses of beta-catenin or E-cadherin immunoprecipitates from BMMC lysate revealed that alpha-catenin, beta-catenin, and E-cadherin were co-precipitated, suggesting that E-cadherin and catenins form a complex in mast cells.
|
[
"Analyses",
"of",
"beta",
"-",
"catenin",
"or",
"E",
"-",
"cadherin",
"immunoprecipitates",
"from",
"BMMC",
"lysate",
"revealed",
"that",
"alpha",
"-",
"catenin",
",",
"beta",
"-",
"catenin",
",",
"and",
"E",
"-",
"cadherin",
"were",
"co",
"-",
"precipitated",
",",
"suggesting",
"that",
"E",
"-",
"cadherin",
"and",
"catenins",
"form",
"a",
"complex",
"in",
"mast",
"cells",
"."
] |
[
"Individual_protein",
"Gene/protein/RNA"
] |
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